SỞ GDĐT QUẢNG NAM KỲ KHẢO SÁT ĐỘI TUYỂN HỌC SINH GIỎI 12

TRƯỜNG THPT: Trần Đại Nghĩa NĂM HỌC 2023 - 2024

Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (Không kể thời gian phát đề)
(Đề thi có 10 trang)
Mã đề thi: 801
Full Name:………………………………………………. Class:………………

Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
A
Q 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
A
Q 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
A
Q 76 77 78 79 80
A

SECTION I. LISTENING (2 points)

Questions 1-6: Circle the correct letter, A, B C or D.
Questions 1: Rich people have been known to live in suburbs ________.
A. at least since the 6th century BC
B. since the 1st century BC
C. only in modern times
D. as early as the 1st century BC
Questions 2: During the Middle Ages and Renaissance, London ________.
A. encouraged poor people to move to the edge of the city
B. expanded by incorporating nearby towns
C. rebuilt its walls to contain a larger area
D. was inhabited by many poor people
Questions 3: In the 19th century, the development of suburbs was encouraged by _______.
A. the high quality of suburban housing
B. improvements in public transport
C. a wish to own weekend homes
D. the widened streets
Questions 4: European suburbs, unlike those in North America, ________.
A. consist largely of low-density housing
B. are well planned
C. have nice weather
D. have individual characters
Questions 5: Suburban sprawl is said to destroy _______.
 A. town centres
B. business activity
C. human relationships
D. local economy
Questions 6: A major reason for the development of suburban sprawl in the USA was _______.
A. improvements in car manufacture
B. highway programme
C. people's unwillingness to live in high density housing
D. the availability of money to buy homes

Part 2. You will hear a discussion in which two authors, Emma Jameson and Philip Cross, talk about
writing a novel. For questions 7-11, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which best fits according to what
you hear.
Questions 7: What does Emma say about the process of writing a novel?
A No two writers use the same approach.
B It cannot be put into words.
C There is no universal formula for it.
D Most writers are unwilling to discuss it.
Questions 8: According to Philip, a novel is likely to fail when the opening
A contains plenty of little-known vocabulary.
B pays too little attention to detail.
C doesn't introduce enough main characters.
D reveals too much about the plot.
Questions 9: Emma warns that having a flexible outline for the plot
A creates more difficulties than having a set outline.
B limits the writer's options for the ending.
C is a strategy only experienced writers can adopt.
D may result in the storyline becoming unclear.
Questions 10: Emma's tip for getting thoughts down into writing immediately
A means not necessarily writing the novel in sequence.
B increases an author's speed of writing.
C helps the writer meet deadlines more easily.
D makes the plot seem more realistic.
Questions 11: Philip believes that asking for advice before the novel is completed
A shows a lack of judgement.
B can lead to confusion.
C is likely to cause misunderstandings.
D should only be done as a last resort.

You will hear part of a discussion in which two consultants, Abbie Dale and Ryan Richardson, are
talking about two different small businesses that have achieved success. For questions 12-16, choose
the answer (A, B, C or D) which best fits according to what you hear. (E18)

Questions 12: What does.the company Ryan has chosen encourage its customers to do?
A buy every kit it produces
B create new designs and submit them
C personalise their online purchases
D tell others how good the products are
Questions 13: According to Abbie, the social clothing company's customers
A like to draw attention to themselves.
B are willing to help in publicity campaigns.
C show creativity in the videos they send in.
D have become fiercely loyal to the brand.
Questions 14: Ryan believes that the main difference between the two companies is
A the number of employees they have taken on.
B the way in which they have developed.
C the variety of problems they have to solve.
D the age range they cater for.
Questions 15: What does Abbie find most astonishing about the company she talks about?
A its skill in collaborating with partners
B the owner's ability to keep developments secret
C the fact that it has grown so fast
D the number of products it aims to launch
Questions 16: According to Ryan, people who buy and assemble the electronic kits
A should start their own businesses.
B are surprised by their simplicity.
C find the experience rewarding.
D aren't frightened of making mistakes.

SECTION II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (3 points)

Part 1. For questions 17-31, mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions.

Question 17: The school is _________ on smoking.

A. getting back B. running over C. cracking down D. pulling out
Question 18: He is released after a two-year prison _________, a widowed, penniless old man.
A. sentence B. verdict C. decision D. punishment
Question 19: _______ the phone rang later that night did Anna remember the appointment.
A. No sooner B. Only C. Not until D. Just before
Question 20: ………….. you cut down your carbohydrate intake, you ……………..weight by now.
A. Had / would have lost B. Were / would have lost C. If/ will lose D. Did / would
Question 21: _______, playing music is an effective way for them to open their heart to the outside world.
A. Being visually impaired people B. Such were their visual impairments
C. Having been visually impaired D. For those with visual impairments
Question 22: John was out of his _______ in the advanced class, so he moved to the intermediate class.
A. class B. depth C. league D. head
Question 23: You were in charge of that project, so don't try to .
A. make headway B. jump on the bandwagon
C. shoot the breeze D. pass the buck
Question 24: When I was going to school this morning, I saw a______girl. She asked me how to get to Hoan
Kiem Lake.
A. beautiful young blonde Russian B. beautiful young Russian blonde
C. blonde young beautiful Russian D. Russian young blonde beautiful
Question 25: She __________ about protecting the environment, but she doesn't even recycle.
A. goes back on her words B. follows the herd
C. falls on her sword D. talks a good game
Question 26: ______ in large quantities is not necessarily an indication of its quality.
A. A product is sold B. It is a product sold
C. That a product is sold D. What a product is sold
Question 27: Once known as the "Golden State" because of its gold mines, ______.
A. fewer metallic minerals are mined in North California today
B. North California today mines fewer metallic minerals
C. there are fewer metallic minerals mined in North California
 D. today in California fewer metallic minerals are mined
Question 28: The claim that eating red and processed meat increases the risk of heart attack ______
eyebrows.
A. rose B. has risen C. will be raised D. has been raising
Question 29: Mrs. Mary demanded that the heater________immediately. Her apartment was freezing.
A. repaired B. be repaired C. repair D. repairing
Question 30: She ____________ for her parents’ support during her university education, but she preferred
to work part-time and support herself.
A. should have asked B. could have asked C. must have asked D. ought to ask
Question 31: They must wear uniform when going to school, ______?
A. don’t they B. need they C. needn’t you D. needn’t they

Part 2. For questions 32-33, mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 32: He's got the committee firmly under his thumb - they agree to whatever he asks.
A. free B. controlled C. unfreeze D. unblock
Question 33: I had so much else to do that I decided to give the party a miss.
A. blow out B. blow off C. blurt out D. block off

Part 3. For questions 34-35, mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 34: They teach us to live and let live, and make civilisation resilient.
A. lenient B. receptive C. liberal D. intolerant
Question 35: You'll kick yourself if you forget to do it, so just do it now!
A. prepare for yourself B. proud of yourself C. look at yourself D. blame yourself

Part 4. For questions 36-38, mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined
part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 36: I was only teasing him and suddenly he lashed to and hit me in the face.
A. suddenly B. teasing C. lashed to D. hit
Question 37: A total of 13 people had retired early or were not working because of ill healthy.
A. A total B. early C. working D. ill healthy
Question 38: He claims he was forced on leave his job by a group of students who disapproved of his
views.
A. forced on B. claims C. disapproved D. of

Part 5. For questions 39-40, mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that
best completes each of the following exchanges

Question 39: “How was the game show last night?” - “_______.”
A. It showed at 8 o'clock. B. Just talking about it.
C. I think it wasn't a good game. D. Great. I gained more knowledge about biology.
Question 40: "Are chores assigned to children in your family?" - “_______.’
A. Sure, we all contribute to doing the housework.
B. My mom will do the shopping and my dad does the cooking.
C. We have to stay at school until late in the afternoon.
D. I have to take the garbage out and clean the floor.
.
SECTION III. READING (3 points)

Part 1. For questions 41-48, read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your
answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
 Public opinion polls show that crime is viewed as one of the most serious problems of many societies.
Yet, (41) _______ studies have revealed that the amount of violent crime is (42) _______. Our peculiar
awareness and fear is largely brought about by the great attention it is (43) _______ in the mass media and
also because of violent crime being a popular theme for television series and films.
Among all crimes, murder makes the (44) _______ and there is a little doubt that homicides still
continue to be a nagging question in a number of countries. The various causes of severe crime are being
constantly (45)_______ and innumerable reasons for it are being pointed out. Among these are
unemployment, drug abuse, inadequate police enforcement, ineffective courts, racial discrimination,
television and the general decline in social values.
An acknowledged fact is that it is mainly poverty that (46) ________ crime. Individual incapable of
(47) ______ for themselves and their families the rudimentary means of living unavoidably take for stealing,
burgling or committing other offences. We may try to explain crime on different (48) ______ - cultural,
economic, psychological or political, but criminologists are still far from detecting the exact source of violent
offences as the direct link between these particular factors isn’t possible to specify.
Question 41: A. pervading B. infiltrating C. examining D. penetrating
Question 42: A. outspoken B. overestimated C. presupposed D. upgraded
Question 43: A. granted B. awarded C. devoted D. entrusted
Question 44: A. headlines B. titles C. captions D. spotlights
Question 45: A. debated B. conversed C. uttered D. articulated
Question 46: A. rears B. nurtures C. breeds D. urges
Question 47: A. insuring B. affording C. securing D. accommodating
Question 48: A. motives B. drives C. reasons D. Grounds

Part 2. For questions 49-56, read the following passage and choose the answer A, B, C or D that fits
best according to the text. Mark your answers on your answer sheet.
The origins of the detective story
At first sight the classic detective story might seem to be a form that is continuing the
Enlightenment's attempts to grapple with the dark secrets of the human heart and, somehow, reassure us that
sweetness and light can win the day. But the history of the crime story is powered by something as
mysterious as the tales themselves. The form really begins in the 1840s with the publication of a short story
called The Murders in the Rue Morgue by Edgar Allan Poe, the horrific tale of the murders of two women in
a 'vile alley' somewhere in Paris. The crime is solved by a character called Chevalier Dupin who, at first
sight, might appear to be the first of those nineteenth century thinking machines of whom Sherlock Holmes
is the most famous example. Close inspection of the mechanics of the tale, however, reveals that Dupin is
closer to being a wizard of the old fashioned type. Poe tells us at the beginning of the story that draughts is
superior to chess (more intuitive) and most of Dupin's 'deductions' - including a bizarre sequence where he
professes to be able to read his companion's mind - are about as far from logical thought as you can get.
The detective story comes out of the nineteenth century's loss of faith in religious truth and its heart
lies in improbable explanations. Arthur Conan Doyle, whose Holmes is one of the most famous fictional
characters in the world, acknowledges his debt to Poe in his first published Holmes tale, A Study in Scarlet.
But though Doyle begins by emphasizing the rational nature of his principal character, Holmes gradually gets
taken over by the gothic, referring to cases such as that of 'the giant rat of Sumatra for which the world is not
yet prepared'.
In order to emphasize his hero's scientific credentials, Conan Doyle said that he was based on his old
professor of surgery, Joseph Bell. One of Bell's party tricks was to astonish patients in front of his students
by deducing their professions from the state of their clothes or telling them lie knew they had walked across a
certain golf course in order to get to the hospital: 'Only on these links, my dear man, is found the reddish
gravel that still adheres to your shoes'.
But one should always be cautious of authors' attempts to acknowledge or deny the 'real' originals of
fictitious characters. If we look closely at Holmes's methods, we discover that the great detective is closer to
the mystical and intuitive than anything else. One of his favorite ploys is to withhold facts from the reader as
well as the other characters and, when providing explanations, to make them as pleasingly barmy as anything
in Poe. The Speckled Band - one of Holmes's most famous cases – is based on a series of absurdities, not
least of which is the idea that snakes can slide down bell ropes.
This anti-rational strand of the genre might seem at odds with its next great development – The
English Golden Age Murder, whose greatest exponent is Agatha Christie. Christie is a writer whose charm,
for most people, is that her plots are fuelled by ingenuity, not violence. Her great detective Hercule Poirot,
reckons to solve all his cases by use of the 'the little grey cells'. And one of the things that Christie fans will
tell you is that she 'plays fair' with the reader. Even in a story where the narrator turns out to be the murderer,
she does carefully adjust the timescale to demonstrate that X would have had time to do the bloody deed and,
in order to seem absolutely above board, leaves an obliging trail of asterisks to put us on our guard.
But when you come to look closely at Christie's work it becomes clear that we are not really supposed
to read these texts while attempting to understand them. As Raymond Chandler remarked of the solution to
her famous story in which all of the suspects did the murder in collaboration: 'The plot is so ingenious only a
half-wit would guess it'.
We read detective stories because we wish to imagine a world in which a strong, independent figure -
more and more, these days, a policeman or woman - can reassure us that justice has not altogether been
extinguished from the planet. And, as we move farther and farther from the notion of society, and mutual
support and concern for others come a long way behind our personal survival, our need for the world of the
great detective - however fantastic it may be – is greater and greater.
from an article by N. Williams in 'The Sunday Times Review’
Question 49: The writers of the first detective stories _______
A. were trying to understand the secrets of the human heart.
B. wanted to show that goodness always triumphs over evil.
C. were not motivated by the same forces as other thinkers in the Enlightenment.
D. wanted to introduce readers to scientific methods of deduction.
Question 50: According to the writer _______
A. Dupin and Sherlock Holmes solved crimes in almost identical ways.
B. Poe intended Dupin to be a nineteenth century thinking machine.
C. Dupin's deductions are intuitive and logical.
D. Dupin uses superhuman powers rather than logical thinking.
Question 51: The text claims that _______
A. Conan Doyle based Holmes on his old professor.
B. to give him authenticity, Conan Doyle said Holmes was a student of Bell's.
C. Conan Doyle wanted readers to believe that Holmes was well-versed in science.
D. Conan Doyle intended Holmes to be mystical and intuitive.
Question 52: Conan Doyle's claims about the origins of his hero are _______
A. convincing. B. doubtful. C. logical. D. false.
Question 53: The writer suggests that if you study Christie's work carefully, you find that she _______
A. unfairly prevents her readers from trying to guess who the murderer is.
B. does not expect her readers to try to understand the details of her stories.
C. makes it easy for readers to guess the ending.
D. plays clever games with the reader.
Question 54: Chandler suggests that in one of Christie's books, the plot is _______
A. so complicated that only a genius could guess it.
B. so clever that only a genius could work it out.
C. so unconvincing that not even a fool could believe it.
D. so brilliant that nobody but a fool would fathom it.
Question 55: According to the writer, detective stories _______
A. reflect modern society.
B. reaffirm the role of the police.
C. satisfy our desire for security.
D. prove that justice can be done.
Question 56: The word ‘ploys’ is closest in meaning to _______?
A. trick B. style C. solution D. philosophy
 Part 3. For questions 57-64, read the following passage and choose the answer A, B, C or D that fits
best according to the text. Mark your answers on your answer sheet. E.19

Solving Deforestation problems

As more and more countries around the globe move towards industrialization in an attempt to compete in
the global market, an environmental crisis over deforestation --- the cutting down, burning and general
damaging of forests --- is looming for mankind. Over the last several decades, environmental specialists
have proposed various strategies aimed at slowing down this process of deforestation in developing
countries. Many of these proposals are indeed valuable ideas in that they are realistic attempts to address
some of the causes of deforestation, such as farming, cattle ranching, and commercial logging. All of them
rely on government involvement of some kind.
There are three broad categories of solutions: state economic policies, internal agreements, and
international programs. ■ A) Economic policies generally attempt to limit the activity of small farmers
through government actions. ■ B) Government actions can include the clear and proper definition and
enforcement of property rights, meaning that squatting, or illegally settling on land, would be more difficult.
■ C) Subsidies can be used to encourage conservation. That is, money may be paid to supplement the
income of those farmers who make an effort to reduce the usual amount of damage to the forest that their
farms cause. In addition, taxes can act as a deterrent to undesirable land use. ■ D) For example, certain kinds
of agriculture, like the slash-and-burn method, as well as cattle ranching, may be taxed to discourage these
activities.
An internal agreement may be made between governments and indigenous or native people living in the
moist rainforests and open woodlands of the tropics, where the vast majority of this deforestation is
occurring. Such an agreement would allow people to carry on traditional activities adapted for some
economic benefit. One example is the rubber-tappers in Brazil. These native people draw sap from rubber
trees in the rainforest, without damaging or killing the trees. The sap, in turn, is sold to rubber companies,
thereby providing the native people with economic benefits.
Finally, international agreements usually involve the exchange of monetary aid in return for government
action to protect its forests. One such plan seeks to help play a nation’s debt in exchange for restrictions on
certain kinds of activities in rainforests. This is appealing for a poor country such as Brazil, which has an
international debt of $160 billion. Instead of selling logging concessions to play down that obligation, the
government receives money for banning or restricting logging in its forests. There is also the proposal of a
global fund created in order to grant money to countries that choose to protect their environments. While all
of these ideas could possibly work, it remains to be seen whether there will be any real progress in rainforest
conservation.
It is clear that something must be done to protect the forests of the world. If the current rate of
deforestation continues, the world’s rainforests will vanish within 100 years, causing numerous adverse
effects on global climate and eliminating the majority of plant and animal species on the planet.
Deforestation significantly increases the amount of carbon dioxide (CO2) released into the atmosphere each
year, which in turn causes an increase in global temperatures. Also, scientists speculate that the tropical
rainforests, though covering only seven percent of the Earth’s dry surface, contain more than half of the 5
million to 80 million species of plants and animals that comprise the “ biodiversity “ of the planet. The loss
of species resulting from radical climate change will have a drastic effect. The Earth is losing species every
day that could potentially prevent cancer or lead to a cure for AIDS. In addition, other organisms are losing
species they depend upon, and thus face extinction themselves. Unless some form of concrete solution for
deforestation is enacted quickly, the survival of all creatures living on Earth could be in jeopardy.
Question 57: According to paragraphs 3 and 4, what is the main difference between an internal
agreement and an international agreement?
A. International agreements are more effective than internal agreements.
B. An international agreement is between countries; an internal agreement is between a government and its
people.
C. Internal agreements benefit governments; international agreements benefit indigenous groups.
D. Internal agreements are more effective than international ones.
Question 58: The word "obligation" in paragraph 4 could best be replaced by ________.
A. promise B. relationship C. guarantee D. debt
Question 59: In paragraph 1, what does the word "them" refer to?
A. The causes of deforestation B. Decades C. Proposals D. Developing countries
Question 60: Look at the four squares [■] that indicate where the following sentence could be added to
paragraph 2:
“Deforestation by a peasant farmer is often done to raise crops for subsistence and is driven by the basic
human need for food.”
Where would the sentence best fit? Choose the square [■] where the sentence should be added to the
passage.
A. Line 2 B. Line 3 C. Line 5 D. Line 7
Question 61: Why does the author mention rubber-tappers in paragraph 3?
A. To provide an example of an internal agreement
B. To provide an example of an international agreement
C. To provide an example of a state economic policy
D. To provide an example of why Brazil is a poor nation
Question 62: According to the passage, what are the major adverse effects of deforestation?
A. An increase in carbon dioxide and decrease in biodiversity
B. Warmer weather and an increase in biodiversity
C. Loss of plant and animal species and an increase in global debt
D. An increase in global debt and human diseases
Question 63: Which of the following sentences best expresses the essential information of the highlighted
sentence?
A. In coming decades, environmental scientists will suggest several strategies for stopping deforestation in
third-world countries.
B. Environmental scientists, in recent years, have suggested that deforestation slows down the process of
development in various countries.
C. In recent decades, several methods for countering deforestation in poor countries have been suggested by
experts on the environment.
D. Experts on the environment have been concerned about the impact of deforestation on the Earth's
biodiversity in recent decades.
Question 64: From the passage, it can be inferred that ________.
A. state economic policies are more effective than international agreements
B. indigenous peoples in the tropics depend on forestry to make money
C. the three types of solutions mentioned will save the rainforests
D. deforestation is not a very serious problem
SECTION IV. WRITING (2 points)
Part 1. For questions 65-72, mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence
that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 65. There was a serious flood. All local pupils couldn’t go to school on that day.
A. The serious flood prevented all local pupils not go to school on that day.
B. The serious flood hindered all local pupils from going to school on that day.
C. The serious flood made all pupils from not going to school on that day.
D. The serious flood caused all local pupils not go to school on that day.
Question 66. I started training to be an accountant six months ago. I’ve got more months to go and then
I have to take exams.
A. By the time I’ve taken my exam, I will have started training to be an accountant for a year.
B. By the time I take my exam, I will have been in training to be an accountant for a year.
C. By the time I took my exam, I would have trained to be an accountant for a year.
D. By the time I’ve taken my exam, I will be training for a year.
Question 67: Most of the people recovered quickly. They were injured in the crash.
A. The people who were injured in the crash, most of them recovered quickly.
B. Most of the people who recovered quickly were injured in the crash.
C. Most of the people recovered quickly after the crash.
D. Most of the people injured in the crash recovered quickly.
Question 68: John was not here yesterday. Perhaps he was ill.
A. John needn't be here yesterday because he was ill.
B. Because of his illness, John should have been here yesterday.
C. John might have been ill yesterday, so he was not here.
D. John must have been ill yesterday, so he was not here.
Question 69: He showed himself a good student. He proved himself a good athlete.
A. Not only he showed himself a good student but he also proved himself a good athlete.
B. He did not show himself a good student but he proved himself a good athlete.
C. A good student not only showed him but he also proved himself a good athlete.
D. Not only did he show himself a good student but he also proved himself a good athlete.
Question 70: The boy didn’t feel well. That was why he wanted to stay home from school.
A. Although he didn ’t feel well, the boy wanted to stay home from school.
B. If the boy felt well, he could not want to to stay home from school.
C. The boy didn’t feel well as he wanted to to stay home from school.
D. As not feeling well, the boy wanted to to stay home from school.
Question 71: The burglar might come back. You’d better change all the locks.
A. You’d better change all the locks or the burglar will come back.
B. You’d better change all the locks in case the burglar comes back.
C. If you don’t change all the locks, the burglar could come back.
D. The burglar will come back unless you change all the locks.
Question 72: You have just passed your exam. This makes your parents happy.
A. Having just passed your exam making your parents happy.
 B. You have just passed your exam makes your parents happy.
C. That you have just passed your exam makes your parents happy.
D. You have just passed your exam which it makes your parents happy.

Part 2. For questions 73-80, mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence
that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 73: When he called to tell me that he was studying, I didn't believe him because I could hear the
noise of a party in the background.
A. I didn't believe that he could study properly with the noise of a party in the background, and I told him
that when he telephoned.
B. Although he rang me to tell me that he was studying, I couldn't hear what he was saying properly
because of my unbelievably noisy party.
C. Because of the sounds of a party I heard in the background when he phoned, I didn't believe his claim
that he was studying.
D. Though he was studying when he called, I thought he was lying because in the background there were
party-like sounds.
Question 74: I feel completely exhausted when I've listened to Marion for half-an-hour.
A. It is completely exhausting after half-an-hour I listening to Marion.
B. Half-an-hour listening to Marion leaves me feeling completely exhausted.
C. Feeling completely exhausted, I spent half-an-hour listening to Marion.
D. When I've listened to Marion for half-an-hour, she feels exhausting completely.
Question 75: It was not until after I had got home that I realized I had not set the burglar alarm in the office.
A. On the way home, I suddenly realized that I had forgotten to turn on the burglar alarm in the office.
B. Fortunately, I realized that I hadn't set the burglar alarm just before I left for home; otherwise, I would
have had to travel all the way back to the office.
C. I didn't turn the burglar alarm on before I left the office, but I only became aware of this after I'd
arrived home.
D. I wish I had realized before I arrived home that I hadn't turned on the burglar alarm in the office; then
it would have been easier to go and set it.
Question 76 : Cultures vary from country to country.
A. Cultures are different in different countries. B. There are different cultures in one country
C. Culture differences are based on countries D. Cultures move from one country to another.
Question 77 : Despite his early retirement, he found no peace in life.
A. Although he retired early, but he found no peace in life.
B. His early retirement has brought him peace in life.
C. He found no peace in life because he retired early.
D. Early as he retired, he found no peace in life.
Question 78 : This question is even harder than the last one.
A. The last question is not difficult B. This question is the most difficult one
C. The last question is difficult but this one is more difficult D. This question is hard but the last one is not.
Question 79 : It's a shame we didn't apologise to Mary for all that mess.
A. It's a shame that we must have apologised to Mary for all that mess.
B. We might have apologised to Mary for all that mess, it’s shameful.
C. We were ashamed not to apologise Mary for all that mess.
D. We should have apologised to Mary for all that mess.
Question 80: "Don't cry honey, I'll help you to find your mummy" - a shop assistant said to the little girl.
A. A shop assistant threatened the little girl and she told that she would help her to find her mummy
B. A shop assistant ordered the little girl to stop crying and she helped her to find her mummy
C. A shop assistant scolded the little girl and she said that her mummy would find her.
D. A shop assistant told the little girl not to cry and she promised that she would help her to find her
mummy.

------ THE END ------

 Đáp án
SỞ GDĐT QUẢNG NAM KỲ KHẢO SÁT ĐỘI TUYỂN HỌC SINH GIỎI 12
TRƯỜNG THPT: Trần Đại Nghĩa NĂM HỌC 2023 - 2024
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút (Không kể thời gian phát đề)
(Đề thi có 09 trang)
Mã đề thi: 801
Full Name:………………………………………………. Class:………………

Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
A
Q 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
A
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
A
Q 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
A
Q 76 77 78 79 80
A

SECTION I. LISTENING (2 points)

Questions 1-6: Circle the correct letter, A, B C or D.
1. Rich people have been known to live in suburbs ________. (Người giàu được biết là sống ở vùng ngoại ô
A. at least since the 6th century BC B. since the 1st century BC
C. only in modern times D. as early as the 1st century BC
2. During the Middle Ages and Renaissance, London ________.(Trong thời Trung cổ và Phục hưng, London
A. encouraged poor people to move to the edge of the city
B. expanded by incorporating nearby towns
C. rebuilt its walls to contain a larger area
D. was inhabited by many poor people
3. In the 19th century, the development of suburbs was encouraged by _______.
A. the high quality of suburban housing B. improvements in public transport
C. a wish to own weekend homes D. the widened streets
4. European suburbs, unlike those in North America, ________.
A. consist largely of low-density housing B. are well planned
C. have nice weather D. have individual characters
5. Suburban sprawl is said to destroy _______.(Sự mở rộng vùng ngoại ô được cho là sẽ phá hủy _______.
A. town centres B. business activity C. human relationships D. local economy
6. A major reason for the development of suburban sprawl in the USA was _______.
A. improvements in car manufacture B. highway programme
C. people's unwillingness to live in high density housing D. the availability of money to buy homes
TRANSCRIPT
Today, we're looking at how the suburbs of cities in the USA have developed since the
middle of the 20th century, but first a little history.
Suburbs have existed in various forms since antiquity, when cities typically were walled and the
villages outside them were inferior in size and status. However, the modern American notion of the quiet,
unspoiled outskirts as a retreat for the wealthy city dweller is in evidence as early as the 6th century BC in
Babylon. Further early evidence comes from Cicero, writing in the 1st century BC, who refers to Suburbani,
large country estates just outside Rome. (Tuy nhiên, quan niệm hiện đại của người Mỹ về vùng ngoại ô yên
tĩnh, hoang sơ như một nơi nghỉ dưỡng cho cư dân thành phố giàu có đã được chứng minh ngay từ thế kỷ thứ
6 trước Công nguyên ở Babylon. Bằng chứng ban đầu khác đến từ Cicero, viết vào thế kỷ 1 trước Công
nguyên, người đề cập đến Suburbani, các điền trang lớn của quốc gia ngay bên ngoài Rome)
Throughout Europe, the distinction between the city and outlying districts tended to remain sharp
through the Middle Ages and Renaissance. To accommodate a large influx of newcomers, city walls were
expanded, or as with London, towns adjacent to the overcrowded city were gradually annexed to it.( Để đáp
ứng một lượng lớn người mới đến, các bức tường thành phố đã được mở rộng, hoặc như với Luân Đôn, các
thị trấn liền kề với thành phố quá đông đúc dần dần bị sáp nhập vào nó.) Generally considered a less
desirable location, the urban periphery was inhabited largely by the poor. In England, the rich who owned
weekend villas outside London gradually transferred their main residences there, and the middle class soon
followed.
By the mid-19th century, there was a marked preference for suburban living. Migration from the
central city to the suburbs was encouraged by a succession of technological advances in transportation.
Horse-drawn stage coaches, railways, and the electric street car or trolley all enabled urban dwellers to
commute longer distances than had previously been practical.( Di cư từ trung tâm thành phố ra vùng ngoại ô
được khuyến khích bởi một loạt các tiến bộ công nghệ trong giao thông vận tải. Xe ngựa kéo, đường sắt và
xe điện hoặc xe đẩy đều cho phép cư dân thành thị đi lại quãng đường dài hơn so với thực tế trước đây) Now
in Europe, unlike the United States, suburbs grew organically as a response to human needs, and each suburb
there generally has a center, and often has a quite distinct quality from other suburbs. (Giờ đây, ở Châu Âu,
không giống như Hoa Kỳ, các vùng ngoại ô phát triển một cách tự nhiên như một sự đáp ứng nhu cầu của
con người, và mỗi vùng ngoại ô ở đó thường có một trung tâm và thường có chất lượng khá khác biệt so với
các vùng ngoại ô khác.)
Since the mid-20th century, however, North America has seen a distinctive pattern of growth called
suburban sprawl, an almost endless spread of low-density housing without any distinct neighborhood centers.
This is an artificial system, conceived by architects, engineers, and planners, and it's already showing itself to
be unsustainable. Unlike the traditional neighborhood, sprawl is not healthy growth. It's essentially self-
destructive. It consumes land at an alarming rate while producing insurmountable traffic problems. As the
Ring of Suburbia grows around most North American cities, so the void at the center grows too. ( Không
giống như khu phố truyền thống, sự phát triển kéo dài không lành mạnh. Nó về cơ bản là tự hủy hoại. Nó tiêu
thụ đất với tốc độ đáng báo động trong khi tạo ra các vấn đề giao thông không thể vượt qua. Khi Ring of
Suburbia phát triển xung quanh hầu hết các thành phố ở Bắc Mỹ, do đó, khoảng trống ở trung tâm cũng tăng
lên). Business and people move to fresher locations on a new suburban edge, leaving behind deteriorating
downtown neighborhoods, which can only be revitalized with enormous effort. Suburban sprawl came about
as the direct result of a number of U.S. federal policies. The most significant were the housing and loan
programs, which, from the 1940s, provided mortgages to encourage home purchase. These mortgages were
directed at new single-family suburban construction, discouraging the renovation of existing housing stock
and the construction of higher density housing. Simultaneously, a major highway program, coupled with a
neglect of mass transit, helped make automotive commuting affordable and convenient for the average
citizen. (Đồng thời, một chương trình đường cao tốc lớn, cùng với việc bỏ bê giao thông công cộng, đã giúp
việc đi lại bằng ô tô trở nên hợp lý và thuận tiện cho người dân bình thường)

Part 2.
You will hear a discussion in which two authors, Emma Jameson and Philip Cross, talk about writing
a novel. For questions 7-11, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which best fits according to what you
hear.
Questions 7: What does Emma say about the process of writing a novel?
A No two writers use the same approach. B It cannot be put into words.
C There is no universal formula for it. D Most writers are unwilling to discuss it.
Questions 8: According to Philip, a novel is likely to fail when the opening
A contains plenty of little-known vocabulary. B pays too little attention to detail.
C doesn't introduce enough main characters. D reveals too much about the plot.
Questions 9: Emma warns that having a flexible outline for the plot
A creates more difficulties than having a set outline. B limits the writer's options for the ending.
C is a strategy only experienced writers can adopt. D may result in the storyline becoming unclear.
Questions 10: Emma's tip for getting thoughts down into writing immediately
A means not necessarily writing the novel in sequence. B increases an author's speed of writing.
C helps the writer meet deadlines more easily. D makes the plot seem more realistic.
Questions 11: Philip believes that asking for advice before the novel is completed
A shows a lack of judgement. B can lead to confusion.
C is likely to cause misunderstandings. D should only be done as a last resort.
Interviewer: According to the National Novel Writing Month and the Telegraph Short Story Club, the
number of budding writers is on the increase. And from what I can gather, they're always on the lookout for
advice that will help them get their work published. Can you give our listeners some pointers, Emma?
Emma: I’ll try, but I must emphasise that there is no single set of rules that applies to all writers. So even
if you take the advice of those writers who are willing to reveal their approach to moulding their ideas
into a novel, there's no guarantee the same method will work for you. So, it's up to each individual
writer to find a way to transform an idea for a novel into the published article.
Philip: That's true, but there is a kind of template writers can use as a basis to develop their story. By that I
mean selecting the setting after the basic plot has been formulated, for example. Very often the plot dictates
the setting as it would in, say, a story about rival gangs. Such a story would best be set in an urban
environment where the physical aspects of the setting are more realistic with regard to the plot.
Emma: Then you can follow up with points of view by deciding whether it should be written in the first or
third person and how much the reader should know at any particular point in the story. As for the protagonist,
he or she must be a character that the reader will root for because if that doesn't happen, the reader will lose
interest.
Philip: That's a good point, and it's also relevant to the conflict aspect of a novel that is fundamental and
independent of genre. If the readers aren't drawn into the story immediately, either because the opening
is too drawn out, or they are forced to use the dictionary too often, they may be tempted to put down
the book for good. So, hooking the reader as early as possible is of paramount importance. One feature of an
enticing opening is revealing what is at stake for the protagonist. In other words, what will the consequences
of failure be? These must be made clear, without necessarily revealing every detail, as soon as possible.
Emma: Once these have been established, the difficult decision relating to outline has to be made. Some
writers prefer to have a set direction for the plot with little room for manoeuvre. In general, they say this
approach brings clarity, whereas those who favour a more flexible outline, in which they can introduce twists
and turns on impulse, state that a lack of restriction enhances their creative input. Personally, I adopt the
latter approach, but if you do the same, be careful you don't lose sight of the original plot altogether
because you'll probably lose your readers, too. Is there anything you'd like to add, Philip?
Philip: No, I think you've hit the nail right on the head. What I would like to mention, though, is content.
Traditional wisdom states that you should write what you know, but that can lead to a limited perspective.
So, I think research is in order to enhance interest which will not only benefit the reader in terms of
enjoyment but may also provide you, the writer, with ideas you would not otherwise have thought of.
Emma: And whenever you get a great idea, you should write it down and work on it immediately so that it
doesn't get lost. I know this might mean not writing straight through from beginning to end, but I know
of writers who have come up with a brilliant idea for an ending, write it and then work towards it. So, make
use of inspiration at every opportunity. Of course, you can't just wait around to be inspired as there are time
constraints which involve setting deadlines. You can't avoid these, but be realistic and don't force yourself to
write a set number of pages every day because you'll end up sacrificing quality for quantity.
Philip: And that brings me on to my final point - asking others for feedback. I know its difficult to rely on
your own judgement of quality, but my advice is that you should keep your work to yourself and resist the
temptation of seeking emotional support until you have finished. I know that anyone you ask for an opinion
will probably try to give you encouragement and make constructive comments. But, more often than not,
input from a third party is likely to leave you bewildered and uncertain. So, work through your novel
and when you're ready, enter a competition. There are many of them out there for first-time novelists like
you.
Interviewer: Well, thank you ...
Exercise 18.
You will hear part of a discussion in which two consultants, Abbie Dale and Ryan Richardson, are
talking about two different small businesses that have achieved success. For questions 12-16, choose
the answer (A, B, C or D) which best fits according to what you hear.
Questions 12: What does.the company Ryan has chosen encourage its customers to do?
A buy every kit it produces B create new designs and submit them
C personalise their online purchases D tell others how good the products are
Questions 13: According to Abbie, the social clothing company's customers
A like to draw attention to themselves. B are willing to help in publicity campaigns.
C show creativity in the videos they send in. D have become fiercely loyal to the brand.
Questions 14: Ryan believes that the main difference between the two companies is
A the number of employees they have taken on. B the way in which they have developed.
C the variety of problems they have to solve. D the age range they cater for.
Questions 15: What does Abbie find most astonishing about the company she talks about?
A its skill in collaborating with partners B the owner's ability to keep developments secret
C the fact that it has grown so fast D the number of products it aims to launch
16: According to Ryan, people who buy and assemble the electronic kits
A should start their own businesses. B are surprised by their simplicity.
C find the experience rewarding. D aren't frightened of making mistakes.

Interviewer: Now, you've chosen businesses that seem worlds apart with regard to product and
production and yet have startling similarities in terms of strategy. Could you tell us a little about these
businesses created by young entrepreneurs?
Abbie: Yes, I decided to go with a clothing company, or rather a social clothing company as the owner,
Chris, prefers to call it. This particular online company functions more like a blog than a conventional web
store, which allows it to utilise the input from the blogger communities and the news cycles directly. Then,
the elements highlighted by the members of those communities are incorporated into its designs. So, social
engagement is key to its success with the emphasis on listening to people rather than dictating to them.
Ryan: Yes, it's definitely a case of having your finger on the public's pulse. And I believe the company I've
selected does exactly that, but with an entirely different product - DIY electronic hardware kits. Not so long
ago, consumers would demand their electronic gadgets ready made and ready to use. Now, however,
devoting time to assembling the gadgets is perfectly acceptable. The kits come with detailed instructions for
assembly, but customers are actively encouraged to modify the product so that it matches their
particular taste. Then, customers have the opportunity to embrace the culture of sharing online to feed
off each other's creativity.
Abbie: That's another similarity with the company I've chosen. Its customers don't just want to buy
clothes; they want to be seen wearing them, too. After all, the target market is the younger generation
whose social media profiles reflect the 'look at me' mentality. The company has taken this into account
and now invites customers to submit photos or videos of themselves wearing the company's products. Not
surprisingly, there has been an overwhelming response from which the company has dearly benefitted.
Firstly, there is the publicity aspect, which allows the company to advertise without spending huge sums.
Secondly, and more importantly, this initiative has given the company access to information only available
on social media and that is the speed of change in what the customer wants. Then, it's just a case of keeping
pace with that change.
Ryan: I'm glad you brought up the element of speed and online companies having to adapt accordingly. Right
from the outset, the founder, Limor, who did her master's at HIT, realised she would have to come up with
new ideas all the time. As a result, she made sure she embarked on at least one new product per week mainly
based on such technology as gyrometric sensors and solar panels. Nowadays, her products, developed with
her troubleshooting team of three engineers, cover a much wider range of technologies that appeal to
every generation. There are kits for primary schoolchildren who can build robotic arms through to
grandmothers who can sew clothes with working LED displays with conductive threads and washable
hardware. This is probably the biggest difference between the two companies.
Abbie: As you inferred, it's not only recognising the need for change but it's also adapting to it. At the
moment, Chris's social clothing company aims to come up with three creations a week so as not to fall
behind. Incredibly, he plans to increase this rate to a mind-boggling twenty a week at least, with about
half designed through crowd-sourcing and collaborations with outside designers. With this in mind, he has
formed manufacturing partnerships that ensure new inventory arrive in a matter of weeks, not months. As for
managing the online catalogue, he aims to develop it in keeping.with what works online. So again there are
going to be novel ways of presenting items, I'm not sure what novel ways he's referring to, but I'm certain
they'll be as creative as his clothing.
Ryan: And all this points to rapid development. Limor's company has sold over half a million kits in seven
years, Over the same period, she has moved into a large warehouse that has enough space for storage and to
accommodate equipment like laser engravers and mills. Therefore, every part can be manufactured on site. If
you look at the business now, and think back to how it started - the notion of providing people with the
opportunity to gain a sense of achievement from making something on their own, which they obviously
do - you'll be amazed. But don't just stand there open-mouthed. Come up with your own idea and don't be
afraid to go ahead with it.
Abbie: I'd like to echo that sentiment and ....
SECTION II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (3 points)
Part 1. For questions 17-31, mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions.
Question 17: The school is _________ on smoking.
A. getting back B. running over C. cracking down D. pulling out
Question 18: He is released after a two-year prison _________, a widowed, penniless old man.
A. sentence B. verdict C. decision D. punishment
Question 19: _______ the phone rang later that night did Anna remember the appointment.
A. No sooner B. Only C. Not until D. Just before
Question 20: _______ you cut down your carbohydrate intake, you _______ weight by now.
A. Had / would have lost B. Were / would have lost C. If/ will lose D. Did / would
Question 21: _______, playing music is an effective way for them to open their heart to the outside world.
A. Being visually impaired people B. Such were their visual impairments
C. Having been visually impaired D. For those with visual impairments
Question 22: John was out of his _______ in the advanced class, so he moved to the intermediate class.
A. class B. depth C. league D. head
Question 23: You were in charge of that project, so don't try to .
A. make headway B. jump on the bandwagon
C. shoot the breeze D. pass the buck
Question 24: When I was going to school this morning, I saw a______girl. She asked me how to get to Hoan
Kiem Lake.
A. beautiful young blonde Russian B. beautiful young Russian blonde
C. blonde young beautiful Russian D. Russian young blonde beautiful
Question 25: She __________ about protecting the environment, but she doesn't even recycle.
A. goes back on her words B. follows the herd
C. falls on her sword D. talks a good game
Question 26: ______ in large quantities is not necessarily an indication of its quality.
A. A product is sold B. It is a product sold
 C. That a product is sold D. What a product is sold
Question 27: Once known as the "Golden State" because of its gold mines, ______.
A. fewer metallic minerals are mined in North California today
B. North California today mines fewer metallic minerals
C. there are fewer metallic minerals mined in North California
D. today in California fewer metallic minerals are mined
Question 28: The claim that eating red and processed meat increases the risk of heart attack ______
eyebrows.
A. rose B. has risen C. will be raised D. has been raising
Question 29: Mrs. Mary demanded that the heater________immediately. Her apartment was freezing.
A. repaired B. be repaired C. repair D. repairing
Question 30: She ____________ for her parents’ support during her university education, but she preferred
to work part-time and support herself.
A. should have asked B. could have asked C. must have asked D. ought to ask
Question 31: They must wear uniform when going to school, ______?
A. don’t they B. need they C. needn’t you D. needn’t they
Part 2. For questions 32-33, mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 32: He's got the committee firmly under his thumb - they agree to whatever he asks.
A. free B. controlled C. unfreeze D. unblock
Question 33: I had so much else to do that I decided to give the party a miss.
A. blow out B. blow off C. blurt out D. block off

Part 3. For questions 34-35, mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)
OPPOSITE
in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 34: They teach us to live and let live, and make civilisation resilient.
A. lenient B. receptive C. liberal D. intolerant
Question 35: You'll kick yourself if you forget to do it, so just do it now!
A. prepare for yourself B. proud of yourself C. look at yourself D. blame yourself

Part 4. For questions 36-38, mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined
part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 36: I was only teasing him and suddenly he lashed to and hit me in the face.
A. suddenly B. teasing C. lashed to (lash out at) D. hit
Question 37: A total of 13 people had retired early or were not working because of ill healthy.
A. A total B. early C. working D. ill healthy
Question 38: He claims he was forced on leave his job by a group of students who disapproved of his
views.
A. forced on B. claims C. disapproved D. of

Part 5. For questions 39-40, mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that
best completes each of the following exchanges

Question 39: “How was the game show last night?” - “_______.”
A. It showed at 8 o'clock. B. Just talking about it.
C. I think it wasn't a good game. D. Great. I gained more knowledge about biology.
Question 40: "Are chores assigned to children in your family?" - “_______.’
A. Sure, we all contribute to doing the housework.
B. My mom will do the shopping and my dad does the cooking.
C. We have to stay at school until late in the afternoon.
D. I have to take the garbage out and clean the floor.
.
SECTION III. READING (3 points)

Part 1. For questions 41-48, read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your
answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Public opinion polls show that crime is viewed as one of the most serious problems of many societies.
Yet, (41) _______ studies have revealed that the amount of violent crime is (42) _______. Our peculiar
awareness and fear is largely brought about by the great attention it is (43) _______ in the mass media and
also because of violent crime being a popular theme for television series and films.
Among all crimes, murder makes the (44) _______ and there is a little doubt that homicides still
continue to be a nagging question in a number of countries. The various causes of severe crime are being
constantly (45)_______ and innumerable reasons for it are being pointed out. Among these are
unemployment, drug abuse, inadequate police enforcement, ineffective courts, racial discrimination,
television and the general decline in social values.
An acknowledged fact is that it is mainly poverty that (46) ________ crime. Individual incapable of
(47) ______ for themselves and their families the rudimentary means of living unavoidably take for stealing,
burgling or committing other offences. We may try to explain crime on different (48) ______ - cultural,
economic, psychological or political, but criminologists are still far from detecting the exact source of violent
offences as the direct link between these particular factors isn’t possible to specify.
Question 41: A. pervading B. infiltrating C. examining D. penetrating
Question 42: A. outspoken B. overestimated C. presupposed D. upgraded
Question 43: A. granted B. awarded C. devoted D. entrusted
Question 44: A. headlines B. titles C. captions D. spotlights
Question 45: A. debated B. conversed C. uttered D. articulated
Question 46: A. rears B. nurtures C. breeds D. urges
Question 47: A. insuring B. affording C. securing D. accommodating
Question 48: A. motives B. drives C. reasons D. Grounds

Part 2. For questions 49-56, read the following passage and choose the answer A, B, C or D that fits
best according to the text. Mark your answers on your answer sheet.
The origins of the detective story
At first sight the classic detective story might seem to be a form that is continuing the
Enlightenment's attempts to grapple with the dark secrets of the human heart and, somehow, reassure us that
sweetness and light can win the day. But the history of the crime story is powered by something as
mysterious as the tales themselves. The form really begins in the 1840s with the publication of a short story
called The Murders in the Rue Morgue by Edgar Allan Poe, the horrific tale of the murders of two women in
a 'vile alley' somewhere in Paris. The crime is solved by a character called Chevalier Dupin who, at first
sight, might appear to be the first of those nineteenth century thinking machines of whom Sherlock Holmes
is the most famous example. Close inspection of the mechanics of the tale, however, reveals that Dupin is
closer to being a wizard of the old fashioned type. Poe tells us at the beginning of the story that draughts is
superior to chess (more intuitive) and most of Dupin's 'deductions' - including a bizarre sequence where he
professes to be able to read his companion's mind - are about as far from logical thought as you can get.
The detective story comes out of the nineteenth century's loss of faith in religious truth and its heart
lies in improbable explanations. Arthur Conan Doyle, whose Holmes is one of the most famous fictional
characters in the world, acknowledges his debt to Poe in his first published Holmes tale, A Study in Scarlet.
But though Doyle begins by emphasizing the rational nature of his principal character, Holmes gradually gets
taken over by the gothic, referring to cases such as that of 'the giant rat of Sumatra for which the world is not
yet prepared'.
In order to emphasize his hero's scientific credentials, Conan Doyle said that he was based on his old
professor of surgery, Joseph Bell. One of Bell's party tricks was to astonish patients in front of his students
by deducing their professions from the state of their clothes or telling them lie knew they had walked across a
certain golf course in order to get to the hospital: 'Only on these links, my dear man, is found the reddish
gravel that still adheres to your shoes'.
 But one should always be cautious of authors' attempts to acknowledge or deny the 'real' originals of
fictitious characters. If we look closely at Holmes's methods, we discover that the great detective is closer to
the mystical and intuitive than anything else. One of his favorite ploys is to withhold facts from the reader as
well as the other characters and, when providing explanations, to make them as pleasingly barmy as anything
in Poe. The Speckled Band - one of Holmes's most famous cases – is based on a series of absurdities, not
least of which is the idea that snakes can slide down bell ropes.
This anti-rational strand of the genre might seem at odds with its next great development – The
English Golden Age Murder, whose greatest exponent is Agatha Christie. Christie is a writer whose charm,
for most people, is that her plots are fuelled by ingenuity, not violence. Her great detective Hercule Poirot,
reckons to solve all his cases by use of the 'the little grey cells'. And one of the things that Christie fans will
tell you is that she 'plays fair' with the reader. Even in a story where the narrator turns out to be the murderer,
she does carefully adjust the timescale to demonstrate that X would have had time to do the bloody deed and,
in order to seem absolutely above board, leaves an obliging trail of asterisks to put us on our guard.
But when you come to look closely at Christie's work it becomes clear that we are not really supposed
to read these texts while attempting to understand them. As Raymond Chandler remarked of the solution to
her famous story in which all of the suspects did the murder in collaboration: 'The plot is so ingenious only a
half-wit would guess it'.
We read detective stories because we wish to imagine a world in which a strong, independent figure -
more and more, these days, a policeman or woman - can reassure us that justice has not altogether been
extinguished from the planet. And, as we move farther and farther from the notion of society, and mutual
support and concern for others come a long way behind our personal survival, our need for the world of the
great detective - however fantastic it may be – is greater and greater.
from an article by N. Williams in 'The Sunday Times Review’
Question 49: The writers of the first detective stories _______
A. were trying to understand the secrets of the human heart.
B. wanted to show that goodness always triumphs over evil.
C. were not motivated by the same forces as other thinkers in the Enlightenment.
D. wanted to introduce readers to scientific methods of deduction.
Question 50: According to the writer _______
A. Dupin and Sherlock Holmes solved crimes in almost identical ways.
B. Poe intended Dupin to be a nineteenth century thinking machine.
C. Dupin's deductions are intuitive and logical.
D. Dupin uses superhuman powers rather than logical thinking.
Question 51: The text claims that _______
A. Conan Doyle based Holmes on his old professor.
B. to give him authenticity, Conan Doyle said Holmes was a student of Bell's.
C. Conan Doyle wanted readers to believe that Holmes was well-versed in science.
D. Conan Doyle intended Holmes to be mystical and intuitive.
Question 52: Conan Doyle's claims about the origins of his hero are _______
A. convincing. B. doubtful. C. logical. D. false.
Question 53: The writer suggests that if you study Christie's work carefully, you find that she _______
A. unfairly prevents her readers from trying to guess who the murderer is.
B. does not expect her readers to try to understand the details of her stories.
C. makes it easy for readers to guess the ending.
D. plays clever games with the reader.
Question 54: Chandler suggests that in one of Christie's books, the plot is _______
A. so complicated that only a genius could guess it.
B. so clever that only a genius could work it out.
C. so unconvincing that not even a fool could believe it.
D. so brilliant that nobody but a fool would fathom it.
Question 55: According to the writer, detective stories _______
A. reflect modern society.
B. reaffirm the role of the police.
C. satisfy our desire for security.
D. prove that justice can be done.
Question 56: The word ‘ploys’ is closest in meaning to _______?
A. trick B. style C. solution D. philosophy
Part 3. For questions 57-64, read the following passage and choose the answer A, B, C or D that fits
best according to the text. Mark your answers on your answer sheet. E.19

Solving Deforestation problems

As more and more countries around the globe move towards industrialization in an attempt to compete in
the global market, an environmental crisis over deforestation --- the cutting down, burning and general
damaging of forests --- is looming for mankind. Over the last several decades, environmental specialists
have proposed various strategies aimed at slowing down this process of deforestation in developing
countries. Many of these proposals are indeed valuable ideas in that they are realistic attempts to address
some of the causes of deforestation, such as farming, cattle ranching, and commercial logging. All of them
rely on government involvement of some kind.
There are three broad categories of solutions: state economic policies, internal agreements, and
international programs. ■ A) Economic policies generally attempt to limit the activity of small farmers
through government actions. ■ B) Government actions can include the clear and proper definition and
enforcement of property rights, meaning that squatting, or illegally settling on land, would be more difficult.
■ C) Subsidies can be used to encourage conservation. That is, money may be paid to supplement the
income of those farmers who make an effort to reduce the usual amount of damage to the forest that their
farms cause. In addition, taxes can act as a deterrent to undesirable land use. ■ D) For example, certain kinds
of agriculture, like the slash-and-burn method, as well as cattle ranching, may be taxed to discourage these
activities.
An internal agreement may be made between governments and indigenous or native people living in the
moist rainforests and open woodlands of the tropics, where the vast majority of this deforestation is
occurring. Such an agreement would allow people to carry on traditional activities adapted for some
economic benefit. One example is the rubber-tappers in Brazil. These native people draw sap from rubber
trees in the rainforest, without damaging or killing the trees. The sap, in turn, is sold to rubber companies,
thereby providing the native people with economic benefits.
Finally, international agreements usually involve the exchange of monetary aid in return for government
action to protect its forests. One such plan seeks to help play a nation’s debt in exchange for restrictions on
certain kinds of activities in rainforests. This is appealing for a poor country such as Brazil, which has an
international debt of $160 billion. Instead of selling logging concessions to play down that obligation, the
government receives money for banning or restricting logging in its forests. There is also the proposal of a
global fund created in order to grant money to countries that choose to protect their environments. While all
of these ideas could possibly work, it remains to be seen whether there will be any real progress in rainforest
conservation.
It is clear that something must be done to protect the forests of the world. If the current rate of
deforestation continues, the world’s rainforests will vanish within 100 years, causing numerous adverse
effects on global climate and eliminating the majority of plant and animal species on the planet.
Deforestation significantly increases the amount of carbon dioxide (CO2) released into the atmosphere each
year, which in turn causes an increase in global temperatures. Also, scientists speculate that the tropical
rainforests, though covering only seven percent of the Earth’s dry surface, contain more than half of the 5
million to 80 million species of plants and animals that comprise the “ biodiversity “ of the planet. The loss
of species resulting from radical climate change will have a drastic effect. The Earth is losing species every
day that could potentially prevent cancer or lead to a cure for AIDS. In addition, other organisms are losing
species they depend upon, and thus face extinction themselves. Unless some form of concrete solution for
deforestation is enacted quickly, the survival of all creatures living on Earth could be in jeopardy.
Question 57: According to paragraphs 3 and 4, what is the main difference between an internal
agreement and an international agreement?
A. International agreements are more effective than internal agreements.
B. An international agreement is between countries; an internal agreement is between a government
and its people.
C. Internal agreements benefit governments; international agreements benefit indigenous groups.
D. Internal agreements are more effective than international ones.
Question 58: The word "obligation" in paragraph 4 could best be replaced by ________.
A. promise B. relationship C. guarantee D. debt
Question 59: In paragraph 1, what does the word "them" refer to?
A. The causes of deforestation B. Decades C. Proposals D. Developing countries
Question 60: Look at the four squares [■] that indicate where the following sentence could be added to
paragraph 2:
“Deforestation by a peasant farmer is often done to raise crops for subsistence and is driven by the basic
human need for food.”
Where would the sentence best fit? Choose the square [■] where the sentence should be added to the
passage.
A. Line 2 B. Line 3 C. Line 5 D. Line 7
Question 61: Why does the author mention rubber-tappers in paragraph 3?
A. To provide an example of an internal agreement
B. To provide an example of an international agreement
C. To provide an example of a state economic policy
D. To provide an example of why Brazil is a poor nation
Question 62: According to the passage, what are the major adverse effects of deforestation?
A. An increase in carbon dioxide and decrease in biodiversity
B. Warmer weather and an increase in biodiversity
C. Loss of plant and animal species and an increase in global debt
D. An increase in global debt and human diseases
Question 63: Which of the following sentences best expresses the essential information of the highlighted
sentence?
A. In coming decades, environmental scientists will suggest several strategies for stopping deforestation in
third-world countries.
B. Environmental scientists, in recent years, have suggested that deforestation slows down the process of
development in various countries.
C. In recent decades, several methods for countering deforestation in poor countries have been
suggested by experts on the environment.
D. Experts on the environment have been concerned about the impact of deforestation on the Earth's
biodiversity in recent decades.
Question 64: From the passage, it can be inferred that ________.
A. state economic policies are more effective than international agreements
B. indigenous peoples in the tropics depend on forestry to make money
C. the three types of solutions mentioned will save the rainforests
D. deforestation is not a very serious problem
SECTION IV. WRITING (2 points)
Part 1. For questions 65-72, mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence
that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 65. There was a serious flood. All local pupils couldn’t go to school on that day.
A. The serious flood prevented all local pupils not go to school on that day.
B. The serious flood hindered all local pupils from going to school on that day.
C. The serious flood made all pupils from not going to school on that day.
D. The serious flood caused all local pupils not go to school on that day.
Question 66. I started training to be an accountant six months ago. I’ve got more months to go and then
I have to take exams.
A. By the time I’ve taken my exam, I will have started training to be an accountant for a year.
B. By the time I take my exam, I will have been in training to be an accountant for a year.
C. By the time I took my exam, I would have trained to be an accountant for a year.
D. By the time I’ve taken my exam, I will be training for a year.
Question 67: Most of the people recovered quickly. They were injured in the crash.
A. The people who were injured in the crash, most of them recovered quickly.
B. Most of the people who recovered quickly were injured in the crash.
C. Most of the people recovered quickly after the crash.
D. Most of the people injured in the crash recovered quickly.
Question 68: John was not here yesterday. Perhaps he was ill.
A. John needn't be here yesterday because he was ill.
B. Because of his illness, John should have been here yesterday.
C. John might have been ill yesterday, so he was not here.
D. John must have been ill yesterday, so he was not here.
Question 69: He showed himself a good student. He proved himself a good athlete.
A. Not only he showed himself a good student but he also proved himself a good athlete.
B. He did not show himself a good student but he proved himself a good athlete.
C. A good student not only showed him but he also proved himself a good athlete.
D. Not only did he show himself a good student but he also proved himself a good athlete.
Question 70: The boy didn’t feel well. That was why he wanted to stay home from school.
A. Although he didn ’t feel well, the boy wanted to stay home from school.
B. If the boy felt well, he could not want to to stay home from school.
C. The boy didn’t feel well as he wanted to to stay home from school.
D. As not feeling well, the boy wanted to to stay home from school.
Question 71: The burglar might come back. You’d better change all the locks.
A. You’d better change all the locks or the burglar will come back.
B. You’d better change all the locks in case the burglar comes back.
C. If you don’t change all the locks, the burglar could come back.
D. The burglar will come back unless you change all the locks.
Question 72: You have just passed your exam. This makes your parents happy.
A. Having just passed your exam making your parents happy.
B. You have just passed your exam makes your parents happy.
C. That you have just passed your exam makes your parents happy.
D. You have just passed your exam which it makes your parents happy.
Part 2. For questions 73-80, mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence
that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 73: When he called to tell me that he was studying, I didn't believe him because I could hear the
noise of a party in the background.
A. I didn't believe that he could study properly with the noise of a party in the background and I told him that
when he telephoned.
B. Although he rang me to tell me that he was studying, I couldn't hear what he was saying properly because
of my unbelievably noisy party.
C. Because of the sounds of a party I heard in the background when he phoned, I didn't believe his
claim that he was studying.
D. Though he was studying when he called, I thought he was lying because in the background there were
party-like sounds.
Question 74: I feel completely exhausted when I've listened to Marion for half-an-hour.
A. It is completely exhausting after half-an-hour I listening to Marion.
B. Half-an-hour listening to Marion leaves me feeling completely exhausted.
C. Feeling completely exhausted, I spent half-an-hour listening to Marion.
D. When I've listened to Marion for half-an-hour, she feels exhausting completely.
Question 75: It was not until after I had got home that I realized I had not set the burglar alarm in the office.
A. On the way home, I suddenly realized that I had forgotten to turn on the burglar alarm in the office.
B. Fortunately, I realized that I hadn't set the burglar alarm just before I left for home; otherwise, I would
have had to travel all the way back to the office.
C. I didn't turn the burglar alarm on before I left the office, but I only became aware of this after I'd
arrived home.
D. I wish I had realized before I arrived home that I hadn't turned on the burglar alarm in the office; then it
would have been easier to go and set it.
Question 76 : Cultures vary from country to country.
A. Cultures are different in different countries. B. There are different cultures in one country
C. Culture differences are based on countries D. Cultures move from one country to another.
Question 77 : Despite his early retirement, he found no peace in life.
A. Although he retired early, but he found no peace in life. B. His early retirement has brought him
peace in life.
C. He found no peace in life because he retired early. D. Early as he retired, he found no peace in life.
Question 78 : This question is even harder than the last one.
A. The last question is not difficult B. This question is the most difficult one
C. The last question is difficult but this one is more difficult D. This question is hard but the last one is not.
Question 79 : It's a shame we didn't apologise to Mary for all that mess.
A. It's a shame that we must have apologised to Mary for all that mess.
B. We might have apologised to Mary for all that mess, it’s shameful.
C. We were ashamed not to apologise Mary for all that mess.
D. We should have apologised to Mary for all that mess.
Question 80: "Don't cry honey, I'll help you to find your mummy" - a shop assistant said to the little girl.
A. A shop assistant threatened the little girl and she told that she would help her to find her mummy
B. A shop assistant ordered the little girl to stop crying and she helped her to find her mummy
C. A shop assistant scolded the little girl and she said that her mummy would find her.
D. A shop assistant told the little girl not to cry and she promised that she would help her to find her
mummy

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