SNAP Quick Book

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About SNAP Quick Book
On behalf of Learn4Exam (L4E), we are a dynamic group of young individuals

dedicated to simplifying exam preparation. Our mission is to facilitate student
success by crafting and curating comprehensive online test series in multiple
languages. In essence, we empower students to embrace victory. Unlike steering
students through the convoluted path of competitive exam preparation, we guide
them along a direct route to success.
Learn4Exam stands at the forefront of online test preparation, offering an array of
easy-to-use and exclusive test series for over 1320 competitive exams on our
website. It is not merely a compilation of mock tests; instead, it serves as your
roadmap to success.
Tailored to meet aspirants' needs, this book provides well-conceptualized and
structured practice material. The content includes multiple-choice questions
designed around relevant subjects and topics. A team of prolific experts meticulously
prepared this volume by analyzing exam patterns, syllabi, and past papers.
The Snap Quick Book initiates with an exam overview, progressing to practice sets
accompanied by hints and solutions. The subsequent section includes previous
years' question papers and their solutions, offering students insights into the paper's
structure and question types. This enables students to assess their performance and
measure their preparation level effectively. At Learn4Exam, we are committed to
nurturing your path to success.

About SNAP Exam

The SNAP MBA Entrance Exam, officially known as the Symbiosis National Aptitude
Test, is a management aptitude test administered by Symbiosis International
(Deemed) University. It serves as the gateway for admission to the MBA/PGDM
programs offered by the university's 16 constituent institutes. The SNAP exam
encompasses questions from General English, Quantitative-Data Interpretation &
Data Sufficiency, and Analytical & Logical Reasoning, and it is conducted in an online
mode. Upon successfully clearing the SNAP exam, candidates are required to
participate in Group Exercise (GE), Personal Interaction (PI), and Written Ability Test
(WAT) organized by SIU institutes individually during the months of February and
March.
STRATEGIES TO CRACK SNAP
Complete Syllabus & Review of Previous Papers
• To begin with, list down all the topics to be covered. Systematic preparation is
essential.
• It is essential for you to cover the entire curriculum, leaving nothing.
• Review previous years' question papers. This would give you an accurate
idea about the trends of questions and the difficulty level of the exam.
• Start revising with the topics you have a good understanding of. Then, carry
on with the complex subjects or topics.
Make Your Concepts Clear for Each Subject
• Build mathematical proficiency. A thorough understanding of the basics is

important especially for clearing the Mathematics section. You should
thoroughly work on the Maths problems of 10th and 11th standards.
• Read newspapers, magazines and even short stories or books. Devoting at
least half an hour to reading will help in increasing your reading speed, an
essential for comprehension section.
• Also, for ensuring that you perform well in the English section, it is advised
that you read the editorial section of a renowned newspaper. After the first
reading, make a summary of it in not more than 4-5 lines. Re-read the
editorial again to cross-check that you have not missed any main points.
• From the same editorial, you can mark unfamiliar words and check the
dictionary for their meaning.

• Data Interpretation questions involve extensive graphs and data. The best
and only way to understand and easily comprehend these questions is to
regularly practice for this section.
Attempting Mock Tests
• Take as many mock tests as you can. This will help to build up speed and give
you the true picture of how much prepared you are for the final hurdle.
However, start with mock test only when you have got a good understanding
of the basics.
• Thoroughly analyse the result of the mock tests for identifying your strong and
weak areas. Now, follow a structured and organised approach to turn your
weak points into your strength. Remember, one of the key reasons of giving
mock tests is to learn from your mistakes.

Language Skills
Language Skills Overview for SNAP:

1. Fill in the Blanks:
This section assesses your understanding of context and grammar. You'll encounter
incomplete sentences where you'll need to select the appropriate word to complete
the meaning.
2. Grammar:
Understanding the structure of sentences, proper usage of tenses, subject-verb
agreement, and punctuation is vital. This segment evaluates your grammatical
knowledge and application.
3. Parts of Speech:
Recognizing the role of each word in a sentence (nouns, verbs, adjectives, adverbs,
etc.) is crucial. Expect questions focusing on identifying and using these different
parts effectively.
4. Synonyms:
Your vocabulary will be tested through synonyms, where you'll need to find words
with similar or identical meanings to the given word.
5. Idioms & Phrases:
Familiarity with common idiomatic expressions and phrases used in the English
language is essential. Questions might require understanding the figurative meaning
of such phrases.
6. Proverbs:
Knowledge of popular proverbs and their meanings is necessary. This section tests
your ability to comprehend and apply these wise sayings.
7. Standard Word Order (Poem):
Understanding the correct sequence and arrangement of words in a poem is vital.
Questions may focus on maintaining the poetic structure, rhythm, and meaning.
8. Correct Spelling:
Accurate spelling is fundamental. This part examines your ability to spell words
correctly without errors.
Mastering these areas will significantly enhance your language skills, enabling you to
tackle the Language Skills section of the SNAP exam with confidence. Practice,

consistent study, and a strong understanding of English language principles will aid
you in excelling in this segment.
Top Language Skills Preparation Tips for SNAP:

1. Develop a Strong Vocabulary:
Enrich your vocabulary by reading extensively. Focus on newspapers, articles, and
diverse literature to encounter various words in context.
2. Practice Regularly:
Dedicate time to daily practice. Solve mock tests, work on grammar exercises, and
solve passages to enhance comprehension and application skills.
3. Understand Grammar Fundamentals:
Grasp the core grammar rules. Focus on topics like tenses, sentence structure,
subject-verb agreement, and punctuation to ensure a solid foundation.
4. Master Parts of Speech:
Recognize and understand the role of different parts of speech. Practice identifying
nouns, verbs, adjectives, and adverbs within sentences.
5. Contextual Understanding:
Work on understanding passages holistically. Focus not only on individual words but
also on the context in which they're used to comprehend their meanings.
6. Learn Idioms, Phrases, and Proverbs:
Familiarize yourself with common idiomatic expressions, phrases, and proverbs.
Understand their meanings and usage in different contexts.
7. Practice Poetic Structure:
Understand the structure and form of poems. Practice maintaining the rhythm, rhyme
scheme, and the order of words to enhance your comprehension skills.
8. Focus on Spelling Accuracy:
Pay attention to spelling. Practice spelling words correctly to avoid losing marks due
to simple spelling errors.
9. Time Management in Practice Tests:
During practice tests, allocate time wisely for each section. Aim to improve both
speed and accuracy with consistent practice.
10. Review and Analyze Mistakes:
After practice tests or exercises, analyze mistakes thoroughly. Understand the
reasons behind errors and work on improving those specific areas.

11. Stay Updated and Stay Calm:

Keep updated with current affairs and general knowledge to aid comprehension in
passages. Also, stay calm and composed during the exam to think clearly.
12. Seek Guidance and Resources:
Utilize study materials, online resources, and coaching if needed. Seeking guidance
from mentors or tutors can provide valuable insights.
Remember, consistent practice and a comprehensive understanding of the

language's nuances are key to excelling in the Language Skills section of the SNAP
exam. Practice diligently and strategically to perform your best on exam day!

Practice Exercise
1. Which idiom correctly expresses the following:

To regret bitterly, either one's own mistakes or success of somebody of whom one is
jealous?
A. To grit one's teeth
B. To show one's teeth
C. To grind one's teeth
D. To gnash one's teeth
2. Gene mutation is caused by a chance error in the self-replication ___ DNA, when
the two chains of the DNA's double helix separate and each of them serves ____ a
template ____ the construction of a new complementary chain.
A. for, on, to
B. of, on, to
C. of, as, for
D. for, as, in
3. Which of the following is most opposite meaning to the word 'Foremost'?

A. Hindmost
B. Unimportant
C. Disposed
D. Mature
4. Direction: The sentence given below is grammatically incorrect. Pick out the best
suitable option to correct the sentence.
The small child does whatever his father was done.
A. has done
B. did
C. does
D. No correction required

5. Direction: In the following question choose the word which best expresses the
meaning of the given word.
FOSTERING:
A. Safeguarding
B. Neglecting
C. Ignoring
D. Nurturing
6. Direction: In the following question, out of the given alternatives, choose the one
which can be substituted for the given words/sentence.
The custom of having many wives.
A. Monogamy
B. Polygamy
C. Bigamy
D. Matrimony
7. Direction: Select the pair which has the same relationship.

DIVA: OPERA
A. Producer: Theatre
B. Director: Drama
C. Conductor: Bus
D. Thespian: Play
8. Direction: The following question has an idiomatic expression followed by four

options. Choose the one closest to its meaning.
To make clean breast of
A. To gain prominence
B. To praise oneself
C. To confess without of reserve
D. To destroy before it blooms

9. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning to the word "ENTICING"?

A. Mammoth
B. Attract
C. Persuade
D. Dissuade
To keeps one's temper
A. To become hungry
B. To be in good mood
C. To preserve ones energy
D. To be aloof from
11. Direction: In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive
voice. Out of four alternatives suggested, select the one, which best expresses the
same sentence in Passive/Active voice.
The wall of this park is being painted by children.
A. Children are painting the wall of this park.
B. The wall is painting children of this park.
C. Children have been painting the wall of this park.
D. Children painted the wall of this park.
12. Choose the odd one out from the following.

A. Abode
B. Shelter
C. Home
D. Dwelling
13. Direction: In the following, the question choose the word which best expresses
the meaning of the given word.
PROPEL

A. Drive
B. Jettison
C. Burst
D. Acclimatize
14. Which of the phrases given below each sentence should replace the phrase
printed in bold type to make the grammatically correct?
There are not many men who are so famous that they are frequently referred to by
their short names only.
A. initials
B. signatures
C. pictures
D. middle names
15. Fill in the blank with a suitable homophone:

The film was ……… due to its controversial content.
A. Banned
B. Band
C. Waned
D. Veined
16. The sentence is given with a blank to be filled with an appropriate word. Four
alternatives are given for each sentence. Choose the correct alternative out of the
four.
The thief _________ with the goods in broad daylight.
A. run away
B. ran off
C. run
D. run together
17. Direction: Select the related word from the given alternatives.
BAKERY: BREAD::?: BEER

A. Distillery
B. Brewery
C. Dairy
D. Factory
18. Direction: Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which is opposite in
meaning to the given word.
RABID
A. Passionate
B. Wild
C. Mad
D. Mild
19. Direction: Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which is opposite in
meaning to the given word.
Unsavory
A. Greedy
B. Disagree
C. Dead
D. Tasty
20. Direction: In the following question, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive
voice. Out of four alternatives suggested, select the one, which best expresses the
same sentence in Passive/Active voice.
My father generously donated money to the church.
A. Money is generously being donated to the church by my father.
B. Money has been generously donated to the church by my father.
C. Money had been generously donated to the church by my father.
D. Money was generously donated to the church by my father.
21. Direction: Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted
for the given sentence.

A person who renounces the world and practices self-discipline in order to attain
salvation:
A. Sceptic
B. Ascetic
C. Devotee
D. Antiquarian
22. Direction: In the following question, the options (A), (B), (C), and (D) have a
meaning for the idiom given. Identify the correct meaning of the given idiom and
select the appropriate option.
Champ at the bit
A. Hard-working person.
B. Extremely intelligent.
C. Born athlete.
D. To show impatience when delayed.
23. Direction: Which of the phrases given below each sentence should replace the
phrase printed in bold type to make the grammatically correct? Why did you not
threw the bag away?
A. did you not throw
B. had you not threw
C. did you not thrown
D. you did not thrown
24. Direction: Choose the option that best fits the blanks in the sentence.
Unplanned dinners or a/ an ______ order for hunger _____ at office depend on
these speed bikers delivering food.
A. Endeared, Attend
B. Envisage, Intentions
C. Instant, Pangs
D. Salvage, Amends

25. Direction: In the following question, four alternatives are given for the meaning of
the given idiom/Phrase. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of
the Idiom/Phrase.
Pull someone up on something
A. To agree on something
B. To Criticize
C. To bring out a change
D. None of the above
26. Each of the sentences against these questions has blanks, each blank indicating
that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best
fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole:
I live ____ Calcutta _____ Park Street ____ this address - #41, Park Street, Calcutta
700016
A. in, at, in
B. in, on, at
C. in, in, in
D. in, at, on
27. Direction: In the following question, the sentence is given with blank to be filled in
with an appropriate word. Choose the correct alternative out of the given alternatives
as your answer.
His ________ in the matter is very important.
A. assent
B. ascent
C. ascend
D. abscond
28. Only one of the four options is grammatically correct. Identify that correct option.
A. Any organization, large or small, trades with many different people and
companies.

B. Any organizations, large or small, trade with many different peoples and
companies.
C. Any organization, large or small, trade with many different people and company.
D. Any organizations, large or small, trades with many different people and
companies.
To catch a tartar
A. To trap wanted criminal with great difficulty
B. To catch a dangerous person
C. To meet with disaster
D. To deal with a person who is more than one's match
30. Direction: Fill in the blank.

Rajeev failed in the examination because none of his answers were _______ to the
questions asked.
A. allusive
B. revealing
C. pertinent
D. referential
31. In the following question, a sentence is given in Direct/ Indirect speech. Out of
the given options select that option that expresses the same sentence in Indirect
/Direct speech.
Israt said to Irfat. “Let's go to Puri for a change."
A. Israt proposed to Irfat to go to Puri for a change.
B. Israt suggested to lrfat to go Puri for a change.
C. Israt proposed to Irfat that they should go to Puri for a change.
D. None of these

32. Directions: Choose the alternative that best describes the meaning of the given
idiom/phrase.
Witheringly scornful
A. Devastating
B. Congeal
C. Belching
D. Scathing 1
33. Directions: Choose the alternative that best describes the meaning of the
underlined idiom/phrase.
To be a good orator, you don’t have to play to the galleries.
A. to offend audiences
B. to appease select audience
C. to appeal to the public with lower taste
D. to go prepared to the hall
34. Directions: Choose the alternative that best describes the meaning of the
underline idiom/phrase.
He cannot hold a candle to his elder brother.
A. is equal to
B. is not as weak as
C. is not as good as
D. is stronger than
35. Directions: Choose the alternative that best describes the meaning of the given
idiom/phrase.
To steal a march
A. To outshine
B. To command an army
C. To overtake
D. To start early

36. Directions: Choose the word or set of words that, when inserted in the sentence,
best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. Much love and _________ had
gone into _______ one of the most undignified diseases known to man.
A. devotion, overpowering
B. care, enduring
C. sympathy, defeating
D. dedication, tackling
best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
The sun ________ behind the lacy ________ of the stretched-out mountains.
A. dispersed, heights
B. waned, obscurement
C. disappeared, silhouette
D. vanished, shades
best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
I have to _____________ him because he is in trouble.
A. stand up for
B. stand in for
C. stand out for
D. stand up to
39. Directions: Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word/phrase.
At the time of last election, you ______ us an adequate supply of electricity.
A. promised
B. would promise
C. have promised
D. had promised
40. Directions: Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word/phrase.

As soon as he got the call, he ______ for Bangalore.

A. would leave
B. left
C. has left
D. have left
41. Directions: Select the group of prepositions that best fill the blanks.
He deals ____ foreign goods only, but our firm deals ____ several leading merchants
who trade ____ a variety ____ goods.
A. in, in, with, of
B. with, with, with, of
C. with, in, of, with
D. in, with, in, of

Logical reasoning
Logical Reasoning Overview for SNAP:

1. Coding-Decoding:
Involves deciphering patterns or codes assigned to letters, numbers, or symbols to
decode a message or determine a sequence.
2. Blood Relations:
Focuses on understanding relationships among family members and drawing
conclusions based on given information.
3. Number Series:
Tests your ability to identify a pattern or sequence within a series of numbers and
predict the next number in the series.
4. Letter Series:
Similar to number series but involves patterns among letters or alphabets. You'll
need to decipher the pattern and predict the following letter.
5. Syllogism:
Evaluates logical reasoning by presenting a set of premises and asking you to
determine the validity of a conclusion based on these premises.
6. Input-Output:
Involves processing information through defined operations or steps to arrive at a
particular output.
7. Linear Arrangement:
Tests your ability to arrange a sequence of items, people, or objects based on given
conditions or criteria.
8. Clocks, Calendars:
Requires understanding and applying concepts related to time, dates, days, and
interpreting information based on clock and calendar data.
9. Odd One Out:
Involves identifying the element that doesn't fit within a group or series based on
given attributes or characteristics.
10. Statement Conclusion:
Challenges you to draw conclusions based on a set of given statements, assessing
your ability to deduce logical implications.
11. Statement & Assumptions:

Requires identifying implicit assumptions in given statements and evaluating their

logical relevance.
12. Course of Action:
Presents a situation and asks you to identify the most appropriate course of action or
solution based on logical reasoning.
13. Cause and Effect:
Involves understanding the relationship between events, determining the cause-and-
effect sequence based on provided scenarios.
14. General Reasoning:
Covers miscellaneous logical reasoning questions that test analytical and critical
thinking skills.
15. Paragraph Conclusion:
Requires deriving a conclusion based on the information provided in a paragraph or
passage.
Familiarizing yourself with these topics, practicing different question types, and
honing your logical reasoning skills will greatly enhance your performance in the
Logical Reasoning section of the SNAP exam. Regular practice and a clear
understanding of logical concepts are key to excelling in this segment.
Top Logical Reasoning Preparation Tips for SNAP:
1. Understand Concepts Thoroughly:

Ensure a strong foundation by understanding the core concepts of each topic within Logical
Reasoning.
Regular practice is crucial. Solve a variety of problems from different topics to improve
problem-solving abilities.
3. Identify Patterns and Strategies:
Focus on recognizing patterns in different types of problems. Develop strategies to approach
various question formats efficiently.
4. Learn Shortcuts and Tricks:
Familiarize yourself with shortcuts and tricks to solve problems quickly, especially in topics
like Number Series, Coding-Decoding, and Series Completion.
Master Syllogism and Venn Diagrams:

Practice extensively on syllogism and Venn diagrams as they are often integral parts of
reasoning sections in exams.
5. Work on Time Management:
Practice time-bound tests to improve speed and accuracy. Manage time effectively during
the exam by allocating specific time frames for each section.
6. Review Past Papers and Mock Tests:
Solve previous years' papers and take mock tests regularly. Analyze your performance,
identify weak areas, and work on improving them.
7. Focus on Logical Deduction:
Develop the ability to logically deduce conclusions from given premises. Practice exercises
that involve drawing logical inferences.
8. Practice Mental Math:
Improve mental math skills to quickly analyze and solve problems involving numbers and
calculations.
9. Stay Calm and Focused:
Maintain composure during the exam. Stay focused and avoid getting stuck on a single
question for too long.
10. Read Questions Carefully:
Understand the questions thoroughly before attempting them. Misinterpretation can lead to
errors.
11. Develop a Strategy for Each Topic:
Create a specific approach for each type of question. Having a systematic method for
different topics helps in solving problems more efficiently.
12. Revise Regularly:
Revise concepts and problem-solving techniques regularly to keep them fresh in your mind.
13. Seek Clarification:
If any concept is unclear, seek guidance from teachers, online resources, or study materials
to clarify doubts.
Remember, consistent practice, a clear understanding of concepts, and the ability to apply
different strategies are key to excelling in the Logical Reasoning section of the SNAP exam.
Practice diligently and strategically to perform your best on exam day!

Practice Exercise
Ques (1-5): Read the passage and answer the following question:-Abhishek, Vijay,
Chandu, Daya, Eenoo, Farhan, Ganesh, Hemant and Kailash are sitting around a
circular table facing the centre. Chandu is second to the left of Ganesh, who is fourth
to the right of Vijay. Chandu is fourth to the left of Farhan and Farhan is second to
the left of Kailash. Kailash is fourth to the left of Abhishek. Daya is not an immediate
neighbuor of Kailash and Vijay. Hemant is third to the right of Eenoo.
1. Who is fourth to the right of Daya?

A. Kailash
B. Hemant
C. Eenoo
D. Vijay
2. Who is fourth to the left of Eenoo?

A. Abhishek
B. Chandu
C. Ganesh
D. Cannot be determined
3. In which of the following pairs is the second person sitting to the immediate left of
the first person?
A. Farhan - Eenoo
B. Kailash - Vijay
C. Hemant - Chandu
D. Ganesh - Abhishek
4. Who is sitting third to the right of Hemant?

A. Abhishek
B. Daya
C. Ganesh
D. Farhan

5. Who is sitting third to the right of Farhan?

A. Eenoo
B. Vijay
C. Chandu
D. Abhishek
Ques (6-8): Directions: Study the information given below and answer the question
that follows.There are twelve seats on the two sides of a rectangular table such that
there are six seats on each side at equal distances between adjacent seats. Only ten
persons are sitting on the table leaving one seat vacant on each side. E, F, G, H and
I are sitting on the side of the table facing south and M, N, O, P and Q are sitting on
the other side of the table facing north.No vacant seat is at the extreme end. H is the
immediate neighbour of his son E. There are two seats between Q and the vacant
seat. No one is the immediate neighbour of the wife of H. Only one person is seated
between M and his mother-in-law. There is gap of one seat between P and her
mother. H has no daughter. Vacant seat is fourth to the right of F, who is facing his
mother. I is facing a vacant seat. E is the immediate neighbour of his daughter. G is
facing the immediate neighbour of his wife. P is second to the left of O. Sister of M is
sitting to his immediate right. Wife of E is not sitting on his side.
6. Given pairs are identical in some manner, find the pair which is different from
others.
A. OH
B. NE
C. QG
D. PF
7. Who is facing the immediate left neighbour of P?

A. F's father
B. E's son
C. O's daughter-in-law
D. I's father

8. Who is facing N?
A. E
B. F
C. I
D. G
Ques (9-12): Read the information given below and answer the following question.A,
B, C, D, E, F, G and H belong to a group of husbands and wives. The group
members are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. It is known that no two
males or females are immediate neighbours of each other. E is third to the right of A,
who is the wife of H. F sits second to the right of D, who is not an immediate
neighbour of E. H and C are immediate neighbours of each other. F is not an
immediate neighbour of his wife B. E is the husband of the one who sits second to
the left of A, who is not the immediate neighbour of D.
9. Who is sitting second to the right of E?

A. A
B. G
C. B
D. D
10. Find the odd one out.

A. HD
B. AB
C. CG
D. BD
11. D is the husband of:-

A. A
B. G
C. B
D. C

12. How many males are sitting between C and A, starting from C in an anti-
clockwise direction?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
13. P, Q, R, X, Y, and Z are the members of a family. Q is R’s son, but R is not Q’s
mother. P and R are married. Y is R’s brother. X is P’s daughter and Z is P’s brother.
Who is R’s brother-in-law?
A. P
B. Q
C. Z
D. Y
14. P, Q, R, X, Y, and Z are the members of a family. Q is R’s son, but R is not Q’s
How many female members are there in the family?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
15. P, Q, R, X, Y and Z are the members of a family. Q is R’s son, but R is not Q’s
Which of the following is a pair of brothers in the family?
A. P and X
B. R and Y
C. R and Z
D. Q and X

16. Pointing to a girl in the photograph; Amir (boy) said, "Her mother's brother is the
only son of my Mother's father." How the girl's mother related to Amir?
A. Mother
B. Sister
C. Grandmother
D. Cannot be determined
17. How is my father's daughter's mother's only daughter-in-law related to my wife's

son?
A. Mother
B. Father
C. Brother
D. Aunt
18. A, B, C, D, E, F, G are seven members of a family. F is the father of G. C is the

niece of F. C's maternal grandmother is B, who has only one daughter who is
married to A. The mother of G is not E. How is D related to E?
A. Sister
B. Daughter
C. Brother-in-law
D. Sister-in-law
19. If 16th May 2017 was Tuesday, what was the day of the week on 13th May
2015?
A. Saturday
B. Friday
C. Thursday
D. Wednesday
20. I walk 30 metres in North-West direction from my house and then 30 metres in
South-west direction. After this, I walk 30 metres in South-East direction. Now, turn to
my house, in what direction am I going?

A. North-East
B. North-West
C. South-East
D. South-West
21. Kailash faces towards the north. Turning to his right, he walks 25 metres. He
then turns to his left and walks 30 metres. Next, he moves 25 metres to his right. He
then turns to his right again and walks 55 metres. Finally, he turns to the right and
moves 40 metres. In which direction is he from his starting point?
A. South-West
B. South
C. North-West
D. South-East
22. Mr. X's house is South-East of the police station which is East of the grocery
shop. If X wants to go to the grocery shop in which direction should he move?
A. North-East
B. North-West
C. South
D. South-West
23. Deepak walked 20 m towards the South. Then he turned to his left and walked
15 m. He again turned to his left and walked 20 m. Finally, he turned to his right and
walked 10m. How far and in which direction is he from the starting point?
A. 15 m East
B. 15 m North
C. 25 m North
D. 25 m East
24. Rasik walked 20 m towards north. Then he turned right and walks 30 m. Then he
turns right and walks 35 m. Then he turns left and walks 15 m. Finally he turns left
and walks 15 m. In which direction and how many metres is he from the starting
position?

A. 15 m West
B. 30 m East
C. 30 m West
D. 45 m East
25. What will come at the place of the question mark (?) 4,7,12,19,28,?
A. 38
B. 49
C. 29
D. 39
26. Direction: From the given alternatives, find the alternative that will complete the
given series:
Y _ YXZX _ ZY _ ZXYZ _ XZ _ Y
A. ZYXYX
B. ZXYZY
C. YZXYX
D. XYZZY
27. Direction: From the given alternatives, find the alternative that will complete the
given series.
a _ b _ aa _ bca _ bb _ a
A. cbbba
B. cbbbc
C. bcbac
D. bcabc
28. A clock was 7 minutes behind the actual time at 3 p.m. on Wednesday and 8
minutes ahead of the actual time at 4 p.m. Friday. When will it show the correct time?
A. 1: 51 pm on Thursday.
B. 2: 36 pm on Thursday.

C. 5: 30 pm on Thursday
D. Can not be calculated
29. There are 5 friends A, B, C, D, and E standing randomly. B is in the northeast of

E. D is 2 km to the east of E, which is 6 km to the west of A. C is to the northwest of
D and in the line of EB. D is 4 km south of B. In which direction is C with respect to
A?
A. South west
B. South east
C. Northeast
D. Northwest
30. If ASSIGN is codded as SASING, then KIDNAP is coded as

(a) IKNDPA
(b) IKDNPA
(c) IKDNAP
(d) IKAPDN
31. If CHAIR is coded as FKDLU then RAID is coded as:

(a) ULGD
(b) ULKG
(c) ULDG
(d) UDLG
32. JUNE is coded as NXPF, how ill STAY be coded in the same manner?
(a) WWCZ
(b) WVCZ
(c) WWDB
(d) VWZC
33.In a certain code language CHILD is written as IMOQJ. How will BABE be written
in the same language?

(a) HFHJ
(b) FGFK
(c) FFGJ
(d) HFGJ
34. If DOWN is coded as FQYP, then the word WITH will be coded as:
(a) KYJV
(b) IJYK
(c) YKVJ
(d) JKVY
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 35 - 37): In each of these questions, there are given two
statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two
given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly
known facts. Read the given conclusions and then decide which of the conclusions
logically follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
35. Statements:
Some soldiers are famous.
Some soldiers are intelligent.
Conclusions:
I. Some soldiers are either famous or intelligent.
II. Some soldiers are neither famous nor intelligent.
(a) if only conclusion I follows,
(b) if only conclusion II follows,
(c) if either I or II follows,
(d) if neither I nor II follows.
36. Statements:
Some sticks are bolts.
Kite is a stick.

Conclusions:
I. Some bolts are sticks.
II. Some kites are bolts.
37. Statements:
All young scientists are open minded.
No open-minded are superstitious.
Conclusions:
I. No scientist is superstitious
II. No young people are superstitious.
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 38 to 42): Study the following information carefully and answer
the given questions: A word and number arrangement machine when given an input
line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step.
The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement:
Input: now 41 28 for join 37 go 61
Step I: 61 now 41 28 for join 37 go
Step II: 61 for now 41 28 join 37 go
Step III: 61 for 41 now 28 join 37 go
Step IV: 61 for 41 go now 28 join 37
Step V: 61 for 41 go 37 now 28 join
Step VI: 61 for 41 go 37 join now 28
Step VII: 61 for 41 go 37 join 28 now

Step VII is the last step for this input.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following
questions the appropriate step for the given input.
38. Input: when you 22 special 31 16 47 town

Which of the following steps will be the last but one?
(a) IV
(b) VI
(c) V
(d) VII
39. Input: chair wood 21 42 59 height bench 78

How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Six
40. Step IV of an input is: 74 again 69 call 17 32 horse desk of the following is
definitely the input?
(a) again call 74 69 17 32 horse desk
(b) 74 call again 17 69 horse 32 desk
(c) call 74 again 69 17 32 desk horse
(d) Cannot be determined
41. Step III of an input is: 82 brown 74 sugar hobby lady 32 49.
Which of the following will be Step VI?
(a) 82 brown 74 hobby 49 sugar lady 32
(b) 82 brown 74 hobby 49 lady sugar 32
(c) 82 brown 74 hobby 49 lady 32 sugar

(d) Cannot be determined
42. Input: goal team ask 12 92 85 42 sound

Which of the following will be step IV?
(a) 92 ask 85 goal 42 sound 12 team
(b) 92 ask 85 goal 42 sound team 12
(c) 92 ask 85 goal 42 team 12 sound
(d) 92 ask 85 goal team 12 42 sound
Direction: In the question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions

numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You
have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of
the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
43. Statement:
The Mangalyaan mission has been budgeted at 4.5bn rupees ($74m), which, by
Western standards, is staggeringly cheap.
Assumptions:
I. No mars mission has been cheaper than Mangalyaan
II. Most of the Mars missions by western countries was must costlier than
Mangalyaan
A. If only Assumption I is implicit
B. If only Assumption II is implicit
C. If either Assumption I or Assumption II is implicit
D. If neither Assumption I nor Assumption II is implicit
A statement and two actions are given. Action is a step to be taken for improvement
or follow up in regard to the problem mentioned in the statement. On the basis of the
information given in the statement and assuming that the statement is true, decide
which of the given action logically follows.
44. Statement:
The fact that India has won just one individual Olympic gold medal in the past 108
years points to the inefficiency that reeks of the rot that our sports development
establishment is in.
Action: I.

The country's obsession with cricket has resulted in the neglect of other sports.
Action: II.
An overhaul of the outlook of administrators towards sports in the need of the hour.
A. Only I follows
B. None of them follow
C. Both of them follow
D. Only II follows
Direction: Two statements I and II are given. These statements may be either
independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause.
One of these statements may be the effect of the other statements.Read both the
statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the
relationship between these two statements. Mark answer.
45.
I. The Central Government has recently declared to finish the rebate on farming.
II. The Central Government faced financial loss on account of giving rebates on
farming for the last few years.
A. If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
B. If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
C. If both statements I and II are independent causes
D. If both statements I and II are effects of independent causes
Direction: Two statements I and II are given. These statements may be either
One of these statements may be the effect of the other statements.Read both the
relationship between these two statements. Mark answer:
46.
I. Many people visited the religious place during the weekend.
II. Few people visited the religious place during the weekdays.
A. If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
C. If both statements I and II are independent causes
D. If both the statement I and II are effects of some common cause

Direction: In the following question two statements are given and these statements
are followed by two conclusions numbered (I) and (II). You have to take the given
two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known
facts. Read the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the two given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.
47. Statement:
All the harmoniums are instruments.
All instruments are flutes.
Conclusion:
I. All the flutes are instruments.
II. All the harmoniums are flutes.
A. Only I conclusion follows.
B. Only II conclusion follows.
C. Either I or II follows.
D. Both I and II follow.
48. Direction: In the question given below, four statements are followed by four
conclusions numbered I, II, III, and IV. You have to take the given statements to be
true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the
conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the
given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
Some tools are hummers.
All tools are trees.
Some trees are flowers.
No hummer is the flower.
Conclusions:
I. All hummers are tools.
II. No tool is a flower.
III. Some hummers are trees.

IV. Some flowers are tools.

A. None follows
B. Only I and either II or IV follow
C. Only II and IV follow
D. Only III follows
49. In the below-mentioned question, two statements are given. These statements
may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a
common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statements.
Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly
depicts the relationship between these two statements.
(A) Worksites, schools, homes, and public spaces have been re-engineered in ways
that minimize human movement and muscular activity.
(B) Lack of physical activity has clearly been shown to be a risk factor for
cardiovascular disease and other conditions.
A. If statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is its effect.
B. If statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is effect.
C. If both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.
D. If both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes.
Direction: Two statements I and II are given. This statement may be either
One of these statements may be the effect of the other statements. Read both the
relationship between these two statements.
50. I. The prices of petrol and diesel in the domestic market have remained
unchanged for the past few months.
II. The crude oil prices in the international market have gone up substantially in the
last few months.
A. If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
B. If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
C. If both statements I and II are independent causes.
D. If both statements I and II are effects of independent causes.

Direction: Two statements I and II are given. This statement may be either
One of these statements may be the effect of the other statements. Read both the
relationship between these two statements. Mark answer :
51. I. Rural and semi-urban areas in the country have been suffering due to load
shedding for quite some time.
II. If the Government is not able to overcome the power crisis, load shedding will be
extended even to the urban areas.
A. If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
C. If both the statements I and II are independent causes
D. If both statements I and II are effects of some common causes
Directions: For the Assertion (A) and Reason (R) below, choose the correct
alternative from the following.
52. Assertion (A): Copper is more expensive than silver.
Reason (R): Copper is a good conductor of electricity.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true, but R is false
D. A is false, but R is true

Quantitative Ability
Quantitative Ability Overview for SNAP:
1. Percentages:
Involves understanding fractions, decimals, and their conversion into percentages.
Questions may revolve around percentage increase/decrease, profit/loss, discounts,
etc.
2. Profit & Loss:
Focuses on calculating cost price, selling price, profit, loss, and discount
percentages in various business scenarios.
3. Numbers:
Involves concepts related to divisibility, factors, multiples, LCM, HCF, and properties
of numbers.
4. Time and Work:
Deals with problems related to the time taken to complete a task, efficiency of
individuals, and their combined work output.
Time, Speed, Distance:
Revolves around solving problems involving the relationships between time, speed,
and distance traveled by an object.
5. Quadratic Equations:
Includes solving quadratic equations, understanding their roots, nature, and
graphical representation.
6. Geometry:
Covers various concepts of shapes, angles, lines, circles, triangles, polygons, and
their properties.
7. Permutations & Combinations (P&C):
Involves calculating the number of permutations and combinations, factorial
notations, and arranging items under specific conditions.
8. Mensuration:
Focuses on the measurement of geometric shapes, including area, volume, surface
area, and their related formulas.
9. Probability:

Deals with the likelihood of events occurring and involves calculating probabilities in
different scenarios.
10. Data Interpretation:
Includes analyzing and interpreting data presented in various forms such as tables,
graphs, charts, and histograms.
11. Set Theory:
Involves understanding sets, subsets, Venn diagrams, set operations (union,
intersection, complement), and their applications.
12. Progressions and Series:
Revolves around arithmetic, geometric, and harmonic progressions and series, along
with their properties and applications.
13. Binomial Theorem:
Involves expanding expressions raised to a power using the binomial theorem and
understanding its properties.
Mastering these topics involves a combination of understanding concepts, practicing

problems, and memorizing relevant formulas and properties. Regular practice and
familiarity with various types of questions will aid in excelling in the Quantitative
Ability section of the SNAP exam.
Top Quantitative Ability Preparation Tips for SNAP:
1. Understand Fundamentals:
Ensure a strong understanding of basic mathematical concepts like percentages,
ratios, fractions, and basic arithmetic operations.
2. Memorize Formulas and Properties:
Memorize important formulas, theorems, and properties related to various topics
such as geometry, mensuration, and algebra.
Regular practice is crucial. Solve a wide range of problems from different topics to
enhance problem-solving skills.
4. Focus on Speed and Accuracy:

Work on improving both speed and accuracy in calculations. Practice mental math to
solve problems quickly.
5. Identify Weak Areas:
Identify and focus on improving weaker areas. Allocate more time to topics you find
challenging.
6. Use Shortcuts and Tricks:
Learn shortcut methods and tricks for quicker calculations and problem-solving in
topics like percentages, square roots, and multiplication.
7. Solve Previous Years' Papers:
Solve past SNAP papers and other relevant exam papers to understand the exam
pattern and types of questions asked.
8. Time Management:
Practice time-bound tests to improve time management during the exam. Allocate
specific time frames for each question or section.
9. Conceptual Clarity is Key:
Focus on understanding the concepts thoroughly rather than rote memorization. This
will help in solving problems even if they are presented in a different format.
10. Work on Data Interpretation Skills:
Practice interpreting various forms of data such as tables, graphs, and charts to
improve your data interpretation skills.
11. Revise Regularly:
Regularly revise formulas, concepts, and problem-solving techniques to keep them
fresh in your mind.
12. Break Complex Problems Down:
Break down complex problems into smaller, more manageable steps to solve them
more effectively.
13. Stay Calm and Focused:
Maintain composure during the exam. Do not panic if you encounter a difficult
question; move on and return to it later if time permits.
14. Seek Help if Needed:
If you're struggling with a concept, seek help from teachers, online resources, or
study materials to clarify doubts.
Remember, consistent practice, a clear understanding of concepts, and the ability to
apply different strategies are key to excelling in the Quantitative Ability section of the
SNAP exam. Practice diligently and strategically to perform your best on exam day!

Practice Exercise
1. The probability that Sachin scores a century in a match is 1/7. In a five-match
series, what is the probability that Sachin scores at least 3 centuries?
A. 360/7
B. 3/7
C. 367/7
D. None of these
2. In a certain survey, it was found that 20% of the women and 40% of the men
smoke Women constitute 45% of the population surveyed If a person is selected at
random and it was found that he or she smokes, determine the probability that the
person is a male.
A. 22/31
B. 2/5
C. 9/22
D. 9/31
3. Find the value of {(0.013)3+0.000000343}/{(0.013)2−0.000091+0.000049}

A. 0.02
B. 0.002
C. 0.023
D. 0.021
4. If the selling price of 16 items is the same as the cost price of 20 items, then there
is a
A. loss of 20%
B. loss of 25%
C. gain of 20%
D. gain of 25%
5. IBM-Daksh observes that it gets a call at an interval of every 10 minutes from

Seattle, at every 12 minutes from Arizona, at the interval of 20 minutes from New
York and after every 25 minutes it gets the call from Network. If in the early morning

at 5:00 a.m. it has received the calls simultaneously from all the four destinations,
then at which time it will receive the calls at a time from all places on the same day?
A. 10:00 a.m.
B. 5:00 p.m.
C. 3:00 a.m
D. Both (A) and (B)
6. In the following figure 𝐴𝐵 ∥ 𝐶𝐷. Find the value of ∠𝐵𝐸𝐶
A. 75∘
B. 85∘
C. 90∘
D. 100∘
7. The average weight of a class of 24 students is 36 kgs. When the weight of the
teacher is also included, the average weight increases by 1kg. What is the weight of
the teacher?
A. 40 kgs
B. 50 kgs
C. 61 kgs
D. 60 kgs
8. 3 pumps, working 8 hours a day, can empty a tank in 2 days. How many hours a
day must 4 pumps work to empty the tank in 1 day?
A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12

9. Arpit's salary is 50% more than Bhuvan's. How much percent is Bhuvan's salary
less than Arpit's?
A. 33.33%
B. 38.33%
C. 66.66%
D. 35%
10. In an examination, a pupil's average mark was 63 per paper. If he had obtained
20 more marks in his Geography paper and 2 more marks in his History paper, his
average per paper would have been 65. How many papers were there in the
examination?
A. 9
B. 8
C. 10
D. 11
11. Rs. 600 is divided among 𝐴, 𝐵, 𝐶 so that Rs. 40 more than 2/5 th of 𝐴’s share,
Rs. 20 more than 2/7 th of 𝐵’s share, and Rs. 10 more than 9/17 th of 𝐶’s may all be
equal. What is 𝐴's share (in Rupees)?
A. 150
B. 170
C. 200
D. 280
12. The average speed of a bus from Koyambedu to Salem is 57 km per hour. The
bus is scheduled to leave Koyambedu Bus station at 10 pm and reach Salem at 4.35
am on the next day. The distance between Salem and Koyambedu bus station is 342
km. On the way in between Koyambedu and Salem, a halt is scheduled
compulsorily. Find out the duration of this halt scheduled?
A. 35 minutes
B. 45 minutes
C. 60 minutes
D. 48 minutes

13. A train is going from Chennai to Dhanbad stops at six intermediate stations. Four
persons enter the train during the journey with four different tickets. What is the
maximum number of different sets of tickets they have had if none had entered the
train in Chennai?
A. 5985
B. 11970
C. 6850
D. 5040
14. If the radius of cylinder and sphere are the same and the volume of sphere and
cylinder are the same. what is the ratio between the radius and height of the
cylinder?
A. 𝑅 = ℎ
B. 𝑅 = (3/4) ℎ
C. 𝑅 = (4/3) ℎ
D. 𝑅 = (2/3) ℎ
Ques (15-16): Direction: Study the following line graph and answer the question.
15. In which year was the difference between the exports from Companies X and Y
the minimum?
A. 1994

B. 1995
C. 1996
D. 1997
16. What was the difference between the average exports of the three Companies in
1993 and the average exports in 1998?
A. Rs. 15.33 crores
B. Rs. 18.67 crores
C. Rs. 20 crores
D. Rs. 22.17 crores
17. Find the odd number out :- 1050, 510, 242, 106, 46, 16, 3
A. 510
B. 242
C. 106
D. 46
18. The 100 toys cost Rs. 300 how much the 280 toys will cost?
A. 800
B. 900
C. 840
D. 1000
19. The area of a square is given as 12800 sq miles, find the time taken by a lady to
move across a diagonal with the speed of 15 miles per hour.
A. 8 hours
B. 9 hours
C. 8.5 hours
D. None of these

20. Nandita scored 80 percent marks in five subjects together viz; Hindi, Science,
Maths, English, and Sanskrit, together, where in the maximum marks of each subject
were 105. How many marks did Nandita score in Science if she scored 89 marks in
Hindi, 92 marks in Sanskrit, 98 marks in Maths, and 81 marks in English?
A. 60
B. 75
C. 65
D. 70
21. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following question?
38% of 4500 − 25% of? = 1640
A. 260
B. 270
C. 280
D. 290
22. The marked price of a Doll is 35% above the cost price. If he gives a discount of
15%, how much he gains on the deal?
A. 14.75%
B. 15%
C. 14.5%
D. 15.75%
23. The mean temperature of Monday to Wednesday was 37∘𝐶 and from Tuesday to
Thursday was 34∘𝐶, if the temperature on Thursday was 4/5th that of Monday, then
what was the temperature on Thursday?
A. 36.5 ∘𝐶
B. 36∘𝐶
C. 35.5 ∘𝐶
D. 34∘𝐶
24. Find the remainder when 73 × 75 × 78 × 57 × 197 × 37 is divided by 34.

A. 32
B. 30
C. 15
D. 28
25. A can do work in 15 days and B in 20 days. If they work on it together for 4 days,
then the fraction of the work that is left is
A. 1/4
B. 1/10
C. 7/15
D. 8/15
26. If log𝑎 𝑏 = 1/2, log𝑏 𝑐 = 1/3, log𝑐 𝑎 = 𝐾/5; then the value of 𝐾 is:
A. 25
B. 35
C. 30
D. 20
27. Find the remainder when 6799 is divided by 7.

A. 4
B. 6
C. 1
D. 2
28. If 𝑓(2,7) = 57 and 𝑓(1,6) = 37, what is the value of 𝑓(3,10)?

A. 107
B. 127
C. 147
D. None of these
29. Which of the following is not an odd function?

A. 𝑓(𝑥) = −𝑥3
B. 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥5
C. 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥2
D. 𝑓(𝑥) = |𝑥|3
30. Rajdhani Express travels at an average speed of 100 km/hr, stopping for 3
minutes after every 75 km. How long did it take to reach its destination 600 km from
the starting point?
A. 6 hrs 21 min
B. 6 hrs 36 min
C. 6 hrs 42 min
D. 6 hrs 18 min
31. Tickets numbered 1 to 20 are mixed up and then a ticket is drawn at random.
What is the probability that the ticket drawn has a number which is a multiple of 3 or
5?
A. 1 2
B. 2 5
C. 8 15
D. 9 20
32. sin29∘ − cos61∘ is always:

A. Less than 1
B. Greater than 1
C. Equal to 1
D. 0
33. An article is sold at a profit of 25%. If both the cost price and selling price are 200
less, the profit would be 20% more. For what value should he sell it in order to gain
20%?
A. Rs. 540
B. Rs. 440

C. Rs. 450
D. Rs. 600
34. A sphere of radius 2 cm is dropped into a cylinder of radius 4 cms containing

water up to 2.2 cm. The raise in the water level is?
A. 0.67 cm
B. 0.90 cm
C. 0.77 cm
D. 0.80 cm
35. A number is randomly chosen from 1 to 100 (both inclusive). What is the
probability that it is not divisible by 5 or 7?
A. 8 25
B. 16 25
C. 7 50
D. None of these
36. The volume and the radius of both cone and sphere are equal, then find the ratio
of the height of the cone to the diameter of the sphere?
A. 2: 3
B. 3: 2
C. 2: 1
D. 1: 2
37. Grass in the lawn grows equally thick and in a uniform rate. It takes 24 days for
70 cows and 60 days for 30 cows to eat the whole of the grass. How many cows are
needed to eat the grass in 96 days?
A. 22 Cows
B. 20 Cows
C. 18 Cows
D. 16 Cows

38. Sound is said to travel in the air at about 1100 feet per second. A man hears the
axe striking the tree, 11 5 seconds after he sees it strike the tree. How far is the man
from the woodchopper?
A. 2310 feet
B. 2420 feet
C. 2550 feet
D. 2629 feet
39. There are 12 boys and 15 girls. How many different dancing groups can be
formed with 2 boys and 3 girls?
A. 30030
B. 35060
C. 35565
D. 31084
40. A firm of readymade garments makes both men's and women's shirts. Its
average profit is 6% of the sales. Its profit in men's shirts average 8% of the sales
and women's shirts comprise 60% of the output. The average profit per sales rupee
in women's shirts is:
A. 0.0466
B. 0.0666
C. 0.0166
D. None of these
41. The trunk of a tree is a right cylinder 1.5 m in radius and 10 m high. The volume
of the timber which remains when the trunk is trimmed just enough to reduce it to a
rectangular parallelogram on a square base is:
A. 44 𝑚3
B. 46 𝑚3
C. 45 𝑚3
D. 17 𝑚3

42. A dealer buys dry fruit at the rate of Rs. 100, Rs. 80, and Rs. 60 per kg. He
bought them in the ratio 12: 15: 20 by weight. He in total gets 20% profit by selling
the first two and at last, he finds he has no gain no loss in selling the whole quantity
which he had. What was the percentage loss he suffered for the third quantity?
A. 40%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 50%
43. The number of sides of a regular polygon, if each of its interior angles is 135∘, is
given by ___.
A. 5
B. 9
C. 4
D. None of these
44. Two men undertake to do a piece of work for Rs. 1,400. The first man alone can
do this work in 7 days while the second man alone can do this work in 8 days. If they
working together complete this work in 3 days with the help of a boy. how should the
money be divided?
A. Rs. 600, Rs. 550, Rs. 250
B. Rs. 600, Rs. 525, Rs. 275
C. Rs. 600, Rs. 500, Rs. 300
D. Rs. 500, Rs. 525, Rs. 375
45. Let 𝑁 = 1421 × 1423 × 1425. What is the remainder when 𝑁 is divided by 12?
A. 0
B. 9
C. 3
D. 6
46. Three numbers are in ratio 1: 2: 3 and 𝐻𝐶𝐹 is 12. The numbers are:
A. 12, 24, 36

B. 11, 22, 33
C. 12, 24, 32
D. 5, 10, 15
47. A person is 80 years old in 490 𝐵𝐶 and only 70 years old in 500 𝐵𝐶 in which year
is he born?
A. 𝐵𝐶 570
B. 𝐴𝐷 570
C. 𝐴𝐷 500
D. Cant be determined
48. Find the greatest number which on dividing 1661 and 2045 leaves a remainder of
10 and 13, respectively
A. 131
B. 129
C. 127
D. 125
49. Cost of 5 mangoes + Cost of 4 oranges = Cost of 7 mangoes + Cost of 1 orange.

Find the ratio of the cost of mango to the cost of orange.
A. 2: 3
B. 3: 2
C. 4: 5
D. 7: 5
50. A, B and C starts from the same place and travel in the same direction at speeds
of 30𝑘𝑚/ℎ𝑟, 40𝑘𝑚/ ℎ𝑟, and 60𝑘𝑚/ℎ𝑟 respectively. B starts 2 hours after A, but B and
C overtake A at the same instant. How many hours after A did C start?
A. 8
B. 4
C. 6
D. 2

51. 45 men can complete work in 16 days. Six days after they started working, 30
more men joined them. In how many days the total work will be completed?
A. 12
B. 8
C. 15
D. 14
52. At a game of billiards, 𝐴 can give 𝐵 15 points in 60 and 𝐴 can give 𝐶 20 in 60.
How many can 𝐵 give 𝐶 in a game of 90?
A. 30 points
B. 20 points
C. 10 points
D. 12 points
53. If 𝑎 = log2412, 𝑏 = log3624, 𝑐 = log4836, then 1 + 𝑎𝑏𝑐 equals to:

A. 2𝑎𝑐
B. 2𝑏𝑐
C. 𝑏𝑐
D. 2𝑎𝑏
54. Four-letter code word consists of letters A, B, and C. If the code includes all the
three letters, how many such codes are possible?
A. 72
B. 48
C. 36
D. 24
55. Two squares are chosen at random on a chessboard the probability that they
have a side in common is:
A. 1/32
B. 1/18

C. 1/63
D. 1/36
56. Sindya draws two cards at random from a pack of cards. After returning them to
the pack and shuffling it Bindya draws two cards at random. The probability that they
have exactly one common cards is:
A. 25/663
B. 28/663
C. 50/663
D. 2/663
57. In a circle, the height of an arc is 16 cm and the diameter is 64 cm. Find the
chord of half of the arc?
A. 40𝑐𝑚
B. 32𝑐𝑚
C. 35𝑐𝑚
D. 42𝑐𝑚
58. If 7sin2𝜃 + 3cos2𝜃 = 4 then the value of sec𝜃 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝜃 is?

A. (2/√3) − 2
B. (2/√3) + 2
C. 2/√3
D. None of these


Explanation
1. The idiom 'to gnash one's teeth' means 'to regret bitterly, either one's own
mistakes or success of somebody of whom one is jealous'. To grind or grit, one's
teeth mean to clench your teeth tightly in anger or determination. To show one's
teeth means to act in an angry or threatening manner.
Hence, the correct option is (D).
2. The Preposition 'of' will be used in the following cases:

• Who/what does it belong to. For example - a page of the book.
• What does it show? For example - the picture of a palace. The Preposition 'for' is
used in the following cases:
• Used to indicate the use of something.
• Used to mean because of.
• Used to indicate time or duration.
As is defined as the same amount and is used to show a comparison So the
Preposition 'as' fits the second blank.
Hence, the correct option is (C).
3. Foremost means most prominent in rank, importance, or position. Unimportant:

lacking in importance or significance. Hindmost: furthest back, latest, or ultramodern.
Disposed: inclined or willing. Mature: fully developed physically, full-grown.
Hence, the correct option is (B).
4. The small child does whatever his father does. We use does with third-person
singular pronouns (he, she, it) and with singular noun forms. We use do with other
personal pronouns (you, we, they) and with plural noun forms.
5. Fostering: encourage the development of something(especially something

desirable).

• Safeguarding: a measure taken to protect someone or something or to prevent

something undesirable.
• Neglecting: fail to care for properly.
• Ignoring: refuse to take notice of or acknowledge; disregard intentionally.
• Nurturing: care for and protect (someone or something) while they are growing.
6. Polygamy - The practice of having more than one husband or wife at the same
time. Monogamy - The practice of marrying or the state of being married to one
person at a time. Bigamy - The offence of marrying someone while already married
to another person. Matrimony - The state of being married; marriage.
7. Diva (woman singer) plays a leading role in an Opera(musical play). Similarly, the
Thespian(actor) plays a leading role in a Play.
8. To make clean breast of - to speak openly and honestly about something (that
previously has been lied about or kept a secret) Make your heart clean by accepting
guilt. Here breast means heart. To disclose the secrets which weigh upon one; to
make a full confession.
1. The meaning of the word enticing is attractive, tempting and alluring. So, the
opposite word of ENTICING is "Dissuade".
2. Meaning of an idiomatic expression mentioned above in ques. To keep one's

temper: to maintain control of one's composure despite being angry or upset.
3. The wall of this park is being painted by children. The Given sentence is in the
passive voice. According to the given instruction, change it into an active voice. It's
given in the form of "Object + have/has been+V3+ by+ subject." The active form of

the above sentence is "subject + will be +V ing +object." "Children are painting the
wall of this park" is the correct Active Voice of the given sentence.
Hence, the correct option is (A).
4. Abode means 'a place of residence'. Shelter means 'a place giving temporary
protection from bad weather or danger'. Home means 'a place that provides care for
a particular type of person or for animals'. Dwelling means 'a house, flat, or other
places of residence'. Therefore, the Shelter is the odd one.
5. Propel: drive or push something forwards. Drive: propel or carry along by force in
a specified direction. Jettison: throw or drop (something) from an aircraft or ship.
Burst: break open or apart suddenly and violently, especially as a result of an impact
or internal pressure. Acclimatize: become accustomed to a new climate or new
conditions, adjust. The synonym of Propel is Drive.
6. There are not many men who are so famous that they are frequently referred to by
their initials only. The word short names should be replaced with the word initials in
the given sentence.
7. A. ‘Banned’ means officially or legally prohibited (something). B. ‘Band’ means a

flat, thin strip or loop of material, used as a fastener, for reinforcement, or as
decoration. C. ‘Waned’ means (of a state or feeling) decreased in vigor or extent. D.
‘Veined’ means marked with or as if with veins. The sentence’s last part talks about
controversial content therefore 'banned' is the most appropriate choice.
8. Run away means to simply run from a place. Ran off means to steal things and
run. Run means move at a speed faster than a walk, never having both or all the feet
on the ground at the same time. Run together means join or blend to form a single
entity. The thief ran off with the goods in broad daylight.
9. Bakery - The place where bread is made. Brewery - The place where beers are
made. So, the related word for Bear is Brewery.

10. RABID means having extreme belief or passion in something. Its synonyms are
violent, mad, passionate, wild, extreme, etc. Example: The rabid audience threw
bottles on the stadium. So, the antonym from the given alternatives is Mild.
11. Unsavory means disagreeable to taste, smell, or look. Therefore, the opposite
word of Unsavory is tasty. Example: Don't eat the fish if you feel something
Unsavory.
14. Money was generously donated to the church by my father is the correct passive
voice of the given sentence.
4. A person who renounces the world and practices selfdiscipline in order to attain
salvation is Ascetic. The actual meanings are:- Ascetic: characterized by severe self-
discipline and abstention from all forms of indulgence, typically for religious reasons.
Sceptic: a person inclined to question or doubt accepted opinions. Devotee: a person
who is very interested in and enthusiastic about someone or something. Antiquarian:
relating to or dealing in antiques or rare books.
5. Champ at the bit means 'to show impatience when delayed'. It is used literally of a
spirited horse that tugs at the bit in its mouth in its eagerness to move. Example-"I
was champing at the bit to investigate the shops".
8. “Why did you not threw the bag away?” - Incorrect form. “Why did you not throw
the bag away?” - Correct form. Explanation: threw = did + throw Only in affirmative
sentences, can the full Past Tense form of the verb “threw” be used. In Interrogative
Sentences and Negative Sentences, only the split form can be used with the
negative indication “not” being inserted between “did” and “throw.” Example: 1. You

threw the bag away - Affirmative Sentence 2. You did not throw the bag away -
Negative Sentence 3. “Why did you not throw the bag away?” - Interrogative
sentence.
9. 'Pangs' refer to a sudden sharp urge. A Hunger pangs are defined as a sudden
strong desire for food. This collocates well with 'instant' used in the first blank. The
complete sentence will be as: Unplanned dinners or a/ an instant order for hunger
pangs at the office depend on these speed bikers delivering food.
2. The meaning of “Pull someone up on something“ is – “To hold someone

responsible or accountable for something they did or said”. Example - The boss
pulled Larry up for his erratic behavior and sloppy attire. The reporter repeatedly
pulled the senator up for his comments about mental health issues.
The rule is to use 'in' for things that are generic and large, 'on' for slightly more
specific things, and 'at' while being very specific. Using this Calcutta is a large place
while Park Street is relatively more specific and the address is the exact location and
is very specific. So, the sentence should be "I live in Calcutta on Park Street at this
address - #41, Park Street, Calcutta 700016"
5. 'Assent' refers to agreement or acceptance which fits in well in the sentence.

'Ascent' and 'ascend' refer to the act of climbing. 'Abscond' means to depart in a
sudden and secret manner, especially to avoid capture and/or legal prosecution.
6. The correct statement is- "Any organization, large or small, trades with many
different people and companies." The use of the word 'Any' means that the noun
following it should be singular. Therefore, we can eliminate options B & D. A singular
noun requires a singular verb and so, 'trades' should follow 'organization'.

13. To catch a tartar: to deal with someone or something that proves unexpectedly
troublesome or powerful. Which ultimately makes "To catch a dangerous person"
correct.
15. Rajeev failed in the examination because none of his answers were pertinent to
the questions asked. As the above statement is completed with "pertinent" because it
suits the best as it means that Rajeev failed because his answers were not relevant
(which means pertinent) to the question.
Correct Ans: Israt proposed to Irfat that they should go to Puri for a change.
18. 'Scathing' means 'witheringly scornful; severely critical'. Hence, option D is

correct.
19. 'To play to the galleries' means 'to act in an exaggerated way in order to appeal
to popular or lower taste'. Option C is correct.
20. It is an expression describing a person or thing that is distinctly inferior to

someone or something else. Option C is correct.
21. If you steal a march on someone, you gain an advantage over another person by
acting before they do or outshine someone.
22. The first part of the sentence highlights the positive aspect, whereas the latter
part is negative as indicated by 'most undignified diseases'. It implies that some
positive effort has gone into handling something negative. So, the word 'tackling'
best suits here. Moreover, it is about finding a cure to a disease and this process
needs dedication, not devotion or sympathy.
23. We cannot use words like 'disperse', 'vanish', or 'wane' for the sun. So, the
answer is (3). Moreover, 'obscurement' (vagueness) makes option 2 incorrect
24. The keyword is 'trouble'. One generally supports a person in trouble. 'Stand up
for' means 'speak or act in support of'. It fits the context. Option A is correct. 'Stand in

for' means 'to act as a substitute for'. 'Stand out' means 'to be better when
compared'. 'Stand up to' means 'to challenge or confront'. So, all other options do not
fit the context.
25. The sentence is in Simple Past Tense; mark the words 'last election'.
26. The sentence is in Simple Past Tense; mark the verb 'got'. So we will use 'Left' to
fill the blank. Hence, the correct option is (B).
27. Both the prepositions "in" and "with" can be used with "deal". We 'deal in
something' and we 'deal with somebody'. In the first blank, we need to use 'deal in' to
show that the person is involved in buying and selling particular goods as a
business. In the second blank, 'deal with' is used to show that the firm conducts
business with several merchants. We use 'with' for persons. So, option D is the
correct answer.
Logical reasoning
1.
2.

3.
4.

5.
6.

7.
8.

9.
10.

11.
12.

13.
14.

15.
16.

17.
My father's daughter's mother is my mother. My mother's only daughter-in-law is my
wife. My wife is the mother of her son.
18.
C is the niece of F. Again C's maternal Grandmother B has only one daughter
married to A. So B is the mother of F and her daughter, who must be E since the
mother of G is not E.
The family tree can be shown as below,
Here, + means male, - means female, = means sister/brother,

down arrow means son/daughter, double side arrow means couples.
So from the above figure, D is the sister in law of E.
19.
As given, 16th May 2017 = Tuesday
So, in 2016 16th May = Monday as the number of odd day = 1 and in 2015, 16th
May = Monday - 2 = Saturday (as 2016 was a leap year).
Then 16th May to 13th May = 3 days.
Therefore, Saturday - 3 = Wednesday.
20.
Movements are as follows:

So according to the figure,

I am going to the North-East Direction.
21.
According to the question,
Kailash faces towards the north. Turning to his right, he walks 25 metres.
He then turns to his left and walks 30 metres.
Next, he moves 25 metres to his right. He then turns to his right again and walks 55
metres.
Finally, he turns to the right and moves 40 metres.
∴ Finally, he is in the south-east direction with respect to 𝐴 i.e. starting point.
22.
From the above image, it is clear that if X wants to go to the grocery shop then he
must go in the North-West direction.
Thus, the direction is North-West.

23.
According to the question, we will draw the following figure to find the direction from
the starting point.
The distance between Deepak and starting point = PT

PT = PS+ST
PT = 15m + 10 m
PT = 25 m
And, T is to the East of P.
24.

AS per the question, we will draw the following figure to find the direction and
distance from the starting position.
Required distance=AF
=30+15
=45 m
From the above diagram, F is in the East direction from A.
Hence the required answer is 45 m "East".
25.
First term: 4
Second term: 4 + 3 = 7
Third term: 7 + 5 = 12
Fourth term: 12 + 7 = 19
Fifth term: 19 + 9 = 28
Therefore,
Next Terms: 28 + 11 = 39
26.
When we solve the series we find,
YZY/ XZX/ YZY/ XZX/ YZY/ XZX/ Y
The following pattern of series –
Y Z YXZX Y ZY X ZXYZ Y XZ X Y
= ZYXYX


27.
As per the given question,
abbca/ abbca/ abbca
The pattern of given series –
a b b c aa b bca a bb c a
28. From 3 pm Wednesday to 4 pm Friday it takes 49 hours to make −7 𝑡𝑜 + 8 = 15

minutes difference.
29.
According to the question when we create a diagram we find,

30.
31.

32.
33.

34.
35.

36.
37.
Sol: 38-42
Here, it is a case of arrangement. The logic is the words get arranged in alphabetical
order. Whereas the numbers get arranged in descending order. Numbers occupy
odd places in the final steps while words occupy even positions. When any element
gets arranged, the previous element occupying that position shifts one place towards
right.
38. (c) Here, we have to find out the penultimate step, i.e., second-last step.
Input: when you 22 special 31 16 47 town
Step 1: 47 when you 22 special 31 16 town

Step II: 47 special when you 22 31 16 town

Step III: 47 special 31 when you 22 16 town
Step IV: 47 special 31 town when you 22 16
Step V: 47 special 31 town 22 when you 16
Step VI: 47 special 31 town 22 when 16 you
Here, step VI is the last step. Thus, the penultimate step will be step V
39. (d) Input: chair wood 21 42 59 height bench 78

Step I: 78 chair wood 21 42 59 height bench
Step II: 78 bench chair wood 21 42 59 height
Step III: 78 bench 59 chair wood 21 42 height
Step IV: 78 bench 59 chair 42 wood 21 height
Step V: 78 bench 59 chair 42 height wood 21
Step VI: 78 bench 59 chair 42 height 21 wood Hence, step VI is the last step.
40. (d) Here, it is a case of arrangement. Therefore, the previous steps can’t be
obtained with certainty.
41. (b) Step III: 82 brown 74 sugar hobby lady 32 49

Step IV: 82 brown 74 hobby sugar lady 32 49
Step V: 82 brown 74 hobby 49 sugar lady 32
Step VI: 82 brown 74 hobby 49 lady sugar 32
42. (c) Input: goal team ask 12 92 85 42 sound

Step I: 92 goal team ask 12 85 42 sound
Step II: 92 ask goal team 12 85 42 sound
Step III: 92 ask 85 goal team 12 42 sound
Step IV: 92 ask 85 goal 42 team 12 sound

43. The Mangalyaan mission may have been the cheapest among all the Mars
missions, but this can't be assumed on the basis of assumption I. The Statement
only mentions that according to Western standards, the Mangalyaan mission is very
cheap, So the Mars missions by western countries were must costlier than
Mangalyaan. Hence, the correct option is (B).
44. (I) It has no relation to the statement that has been given. The statement is
dealing with administrative lapses and callousness. (II) It is a proper follow-up action
to the statement mentioned in the question. Thus, the only correct action among the
two. Hence, the correct option is (D).
45. As the Central Government faced financial loss on accounts of giving rebates on
farming for the last few years, therefore, they declared to finish the rebate on
farming. So, II is the cause while I is the effect. Hence, the correct option is (B).
46. Clearly, a lesser number of people are visiting a place during the weekdays and
more people are visiting during the weekend, both imply events that go together, and
must have happened due to a common cause such as, it being a holiday during the
weekend. Hence, the correct option is (D).
47. From the following Statement we have this diagram:
Only II conclusion follows. Hence, the correct option is (B).

48. Some tools are hummers and all tools are trees.
So, some hummers are trees.

49. Worksites, schools, homes, and public spaces have been re-engineered in ways
that minimize human movement and muscular activity, as a result, causing the risk
factor for cardiovascular disease and other conditions. So, Statement A is the cause
and Statement B is the effect. Hence, the correct option is (A).
50. The prices of petrol and diesel in the domestic market remain the same in the
last few months. While the price of crude oil has been increased in the international
market this means that these are baked by independent causes. Hence, the correct
option is (D).
51. If certain preventive measures are practiced in the rural and semi-urban areas
the problem will be solved. But if the same is not practiced even in the cities the
problem may roll into the city also, so the two effects are of some common cause.
52. Copper is cheaper than silver and it is a good conductor of electricity. Hence, the
correct option is (D).

QUANT
1.
The total probability to score 3 centuries in 5 matches = 5𝐶3

2.
If 100 persons are surveyed, female = 45, male = 55.
3.
(0.013)3 + 0.000000343 = 0.00000254

4.
Let selling price (𝑆𝑃) of 1 item = Rs. 1
5.
IBM - Daksh will receive calls at the same time from all the four places mentioned,
after a time interval given by the LCM (10,12,20,25) = 300 minutes = 5 hours.
i.e., after an interval of every 5 hours, it receives calls at the same time from all four
places.
Since it received all the calls at the same time at 5: 00 am it will again receive calls
simultaneously from all the four places at 10:00 am, 3: 00 pm, and 8: 00 pm.
6.

7.
The average weight of a class of 24 students = 36 kgs.

8.
Let the required number of working hours per day be 𝑥.
9.
Let the salary of Bhuvan be = Rs. 100

10.
Let the number of subjects is N and the initial total marks are T.
11.
Let 𝐴, 𝐵, and 𝐶 denote 𝐴’s, 𝐵’s, and 𝐶’s shares respectively.

12.
Given, the distance between Salem and Koyambedu = 342 km.

13.
Let S1, S2,..., S6 be the intermediate stations.
14.
We have Volume and radius of cylinder and sphere are same

15.
The difference between the exports from Companies X and Y during the various
years are:
16.

Average exports of the three Companies 𝑋, 𝑌 and 𝑍 in 1993.
17.
The series follows this pattern-

18.
We have the cost of 100 toys = Rs. 300
19.
We have, area of a square = 12800 sq miles.

20.
There are five subjects each subject carrying 105 marks.

21. According to the question,
22. Let 𝐶𝑃 of the doll is Rs 100

23.
Let’s denote Monday by Mo, Tuesday by Tu, Wednesday by We, and Thursday by
Th

24.
Given,


25. According to the Question,
26.
Given,

27.
We can write 6799 as (63 + 4)99

28.
The function follow this pattern,
29.
An odd function is a function whose value reverses in sign for a reversal in sign of its
argument. i.e. 𝑓(𝑥) = −𝑓(−𝑥)
Except 𝑓(𝑥) = |𝑥|3 all other functions mentioned in the choices change values.
30.
Since, Rajdhani Express Travels at 100 km/hr,

31.
Here, 𝑆 = {1,2,3,4, … ,19,20}

32.
sin29∘ − cos61∘
33.
Suppose the cost price of that article = Rs. 𝑥

34.
We know that

35.
We have 20 multiples of 5 between 1 to 100.

36.
The volume of cone = 1/3 𝜋𝑟 2ℎ
37.
Let initially 𝑋 grass was present there, and it is increasing by 𝑌 grass per day, then
for the 1st condition;

38.

Distance covered = Speed × Time
39.
Each possible group will hold 5 spaces where 2 will be occupied by boys and 3 by
girls.

40.
Let the total cost of sales be Rs. 𝑥 and the average profit for women's shirts be 𝑦%.

41.

42. Let the quantities he bought be 12𝑥, 15𝑥 and 20𝑥 kg respectively,

43. Let the number of sides and angles of the polygon be ' 𝑛'.

44. Work is done by the first man in one day = 1/7 𝑡ℎ of total work.
45.

46. Since the numbers are given in the form of a ratio that means their common
factors have been canceled.
47. Since we are given that a person is elder in 490 than in 500.

48. We have to find the 𝐻𝐶𝐹 of (1661 − 10) and (2045 − 13)
49. According to the question,
50. According to the data given in the question,

51. As given the question,

52.

53.

54. As code must include all the three letters then the pattern of the code word is
ABCX where X can be any letter out of A, B, and C. So we can have the codeword
consisting of letters:
ABCA;
ABCB;
ABCC.
55. In total, there are 64 squares on a chessboard. If we differentiate them with

respect to the number of squares they are adjacent to, there are 3 types of squares:


56. Sindya can draw any two cards. Now Bindya has to choose exactly the same
card as Sindya's card. This can be done in C12 ways.
57. Let 𝐴𝐵𝐶 is the arc as shown in the figure. It is known that the diameter of the
circle = 64 𝑐𝑚.


58. Given:

.
.

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STRATEGIES TO CRACK SNAP

Complete Syllabus & Review of Previous Papers

Make Your Concepts Clear for Each Subject

• Build mathematical proficiency. A thorough understanding of the basics is

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Attempting Mock Tests

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Language Skills Overview for SNAP:

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11. Stay Updated and Stay Calm:

Remember, consistent practice and a comprehensive understanding of the

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1. Which idiom correctly expresses the following:

3. Which of the following is most opposite meaning to the word 'Foremost'?

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7. Direction: Select the pair which has the same relationship.

8. Direction: The following question has an idiomatic expression followed by four

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9. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning to the word "ENTICING"?

12. Choose the odd one out from the following.

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15. Fill in the blank with a suitable homophone:

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30. Direction: Fill in the blank.

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As soon as he got the call, he ______ for Bangalore.

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Logical Reasoning Overview for SNAP:

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Requires identifying implicit assumptions in given statements and evaluating their

Top Logical Reasoning Preparation Tips for SNAP:

1. Understand Concepts Thoroughly:

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1. Who is fourth to the right of Daya?

2. Who is fourth to the left of Eenoo?

4. Who is sitting third to the right of Hemant?

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5. Who is sitting third to the right of Farhan?

7. Who is facing the immediate left neighbour of P?

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9. Who is sitting second to the right of E?

10. Find the odd one out.

11. D is the husband of:-

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