Community Health Nursing

SITUATION: Alfred, a 40 year old construction worker developed cough, night

sweats and fever. He was brought to the nursing unit for diagnostic studies. He
told the nurse he did not receive a BCG vaccine during childhood.

1. The nurse performs a Mantoux Test. The nurse knows that Mantoux Test is also known
as:
a. PPD c. PDD
b. PDP d. DPP

2. The nurse would inject the solution in what route?

a. IM c. ID
b. IV d. SC

3. The nurse notes that a positive result for the construction worker is:
a. 5 mm wheal c. 10 mm wheal
b. 5 mm induration d. 10 mm induration

4. The Nurse told the construction worker returns after the Mantoux Test. The test result
read POSITIVE. What should be the nurse’s next action
a. Call the physician
b. Notify the radiology department for CXR evaluation
c. Isolate the patient
d. Order a sputum exam

5. Why Mantoux Test routinely done in the Philippines?

a. It requires a highly skilled nurse to perform a Mantoux Test
b. The sputum culture is the gold standard of PTB diagnosis and it will definitely
determine the extent of cavitary lesions
c. Chest Xray can diagnose the specific microorganism responsible for the lesions
d. Almost all Filipinos will test positive for Mantoux Test

6. The construction workier is now a new TB patient wit an active disease. What is his
category according to the DOH?
a. I c. III
b. II d. IV

7. Susceptibility for the disease (TB) is increased markedly in those with the following
condition EXCEPT:
a. 23 year old athlete with diabetes insipidus
b. 23 year old athlete taking long term Decadron therapy and anabolic steroids
c. 23 year old athlete taking illegal drugs and abusing substances
d. Undernourished and underweight individiual who undergone gastrectomy

8. Which diseases have to be reported within 24 hours from the time of diagnosis?
a. Measles c. V-P polio type
b. Cholera d. All of these

9. Which law mandate devolution of health services to LGU’s?

 a. RA 7650 c. RA 6170
b. RA 7160 d. RA 6187

10. Which of the following agencies will be reponsible for the protection and promotion of
the people’s health?
a. Local Government Unit
b. Department of Inferior and Local Government
c. Department of Health
d. Provincial Health Council

SITUATION: Nurse Lorena is a Family Planning and Infertility Nurse Specialist and
currently attends to FAMILY PLANNING CLIENTS AND INFERTILE COUPLES. The
following conditions pertain to meeting the nursing needs of this particular
population group

11. Dina, 17 years old, asks you how a tubal ligation prevents pregnancy. Which would be
the BEST answer?
a. Sperm can no longer reach the ova, because the fllopian tubes are blocked.
b. Prostaglandins released from the cut fallopian tubes can kill sperm
c. The ovary no longer releases ova, as there is no where for them to go.
d. Sperm can not entr the uterus, because the cervical entrance is blocked

12. The Kabs are a couple undergoing testing for infertility. Infertility is said to exist when:
a. a couple has wanted a child for 6 months
b. a couple has been trying to conceive for 1 year
c. a woman has no uterus
d. a woman has no children

13. Another client Lileth is diagnosed as having endometriosis? This condition interferes
with fertility because:
a. Endometrial implants can block the fallopian tubes
b. pressure on the pituitary leads to decreased FSH levels
c. the utrine cervix becomes inflamed and swollen
d. the ovaries stop producing adequate estrogen

14.Lileth is scheduled to have hysterosalpingogram. Which of the following instructions

would you give her regarding this procedure?
a. the sonogram of the uterus will reveal any tumors present
b. She will not be able to conceive for three months after the procedure
c. She may feel some cramping when the dye is inserted.
d. Man women experience mild bleeding as an after effect

15. Lileth’s cousin on the other hand, knowing Nurse Lorena’s specialization asks what
artificial insemination by donor entails. Which would be your BEST answer if you were
Nurse Lorena?
a. The husband’s sperm is administered intravenously weekly
b. Donor sperm are introduced vaginallyy into the uterus or cervix
c. .Artificial sperm are injected vaginally to test tubal patency
d. Donor sperm are injected intra-abdominally into each ovary
Situation: Tommy, 39 years old laborer of the dock is often readmitted to
the hospital for respiratory
infections.

16. The nurse is teaching the emphysema patient pursed-op breathing. She
explains the purpose for this is to:
A. Promote CO2 elimination C. Decrease coughing
B. Promote O2 saturatuib D. Promote O2 elimination

17. When there is an accumulation of secretions resulting in collapsed portions of

the lung, it is documented as:
A. Pneumothorax C. Mothorax
B. Atelectasis D. Pleura effusion

18. The nurse assesses soft cracking, bubbling breath sounds that are more
obvious on inspiration, ThiS assessment should be documented as:
A. Vesicular C. Crackles
B. Bronchial D. Rhonchi

19. Normal lungs have the ability to stretch in order to accommodate for an
increase
in volume. The process is called:
A. Exchange C. Compliance
B. Pressure D. Resistance

20. A patient is being prepared for a diagnostic procedure. The nurse explains,
"This
test allows the doctor to view your trachea and bronch. He will insert an
instrument cown your throat.” The nurse has partially explained a:
A. Branchoscopy C. Bronchogram
B. Computerized tomography D. Pulmonary angiography
Situation: As a nurse, you are aware that your actions have ethico-legal
implications. Because of this, you must always be alert of those situations
that demand an appropriate professional conduct.

21. The best definition of a tort is:

A. The application of force to the person of another by a reasonable
individual
B. An illegality committed by one person against the property or person of
another
C. Doing something that a reasonable person under ordinary circumstances
would not do
D. An illegality committed against the public and punishable by the law
through the courts.

22. When teaching staff about the legal terminology used in child abuse, the nurse
emphasizes that the term battery means:
A. A legal wrong commited by one person against the property of another.
 B. Maligning the character of an individual while threatening to do bodily
harm.
C. The application of force to the person of another person without lawful
justification.
D. Doing thing that a reasonable person with the same education or
preparation would not do.

23. The nurse caring for a client fails to monitor the client during the postoperative
period as is the standard of care. This nurse would be quilty of which of the
following?
A. Practicing medicine without a license
B. Negligence
C. Failure to supervise ancillary person
D. Failure to follow the Good Samaritan

24. A nurse accidently administers a drug to the wrong client and the client reacts
adversely to that drug could lead to which of the following charges?
A. Tort C. Fraud
B. Malpractice D. Assault

25. An example of an intentional tort would be:

A. Malpractice C. Negligence
B. False imprisonment D. Breach of duty

Situation: Jane a 26 year old G2P1 full term is rushed to the ER due to
passage of watery vaginal discharge.

26. The nurse should teach pregnant women the importance of conserving the
“spurt of enery” before labor because:
A. Fatigue may influence need for pain medication
B. Energy helps to increase the progesterone level
C. Energy is needed to push during the first stage of labor
D. This energy will decrease the intensity of the uterine contractions

27. A client who is a gravida 2 para 1, is admitted in labor. Her cervix is 100%
effaced and she is dilated 3 cm. Her fetus is at a +1 station. The nurse is
aware the fetus head is :
A. Not yet engaged
B. Entering the pelvic inlet
C. Below the ischial spines
D. Visible at the vaginal opening

28. A multigravida has normal spontaneous vaginal delivery of a health infant.

Five minutes after the delivery of the infant the placenta is expressed. The
nurse upon assessing the fundus at this time would expect the fundus to be?
A. Difficult to find
B. Just below the xyphoid process
C. at the umbilicus in the upper right quadrant
 D. halfway between the symphysis pubis and umbilicus

29. A laboring client is placed on an external fetal monitor. The nurse notes that
fetal heart deccelerates in a uniform wave shape reflecting the shape of
contraction. The nurse should?
A. Notify the physician because there may be head compression

B. Place the client in a knee-chest position to avoid cord compression

C. Continue to observe for return of fetal heart rate to baseline when
contraction ends
D. Put the client in a dorsal recumbent position to prevent compression of
the vena cava

Situation: Elma delivered spontaneously to a live baby girl of average

weight. Immediate post partum care is done by the nurse assigned to her.

30. During the taking-hold phase, the nurse would expect the new mother to:
A. talk about the baby
B. call the baby by name
C. touch the baby with her fingertips
D. be passively involved with the baby

31. A client asks about the difference between cow’s milk and the milk from her
breast. The nurse should respond that cow’s milk differes from human mil in the it
contains:
A. More protein, less calcium, less carbohydrate
B. Less protein, less calcium, less carbohydrate
C. More protein, more calcium and less carbohydrate
D. Less protein, more calcium and more carbohydrate

32. Closure of the foramen ovale after birth is caused by:

A. a decrease in the aortic blood flow
B. a decrease in pressure in the left atrium
C. an increase in the pulmonary blood flow
D. an increase in the pressure in the right atrium

33. After birth, in a normal neonate, the ductus arteriosus becomes the:
A. venous ligament
B. ligamentum teres
C. superior vesical artery
D. ligamentum arteriosum

34. The primary cirtical observation for Apgar scoring is the:

A. heart rate
B. respiratory rate
C. pressure of meconium
D. evaluation of moro reflex
35. When perfoming a newborn assessment, the nurse should measure the vital
signs in the following sequence:
A. pulse, respirations, temperature
B. temperature, pulse, respirations
C. respirations, temperature, pulse
D. respirations, pulse, temperature

36. A 20 yr old client reports vaginal itching and thick white, cheese like vaginal discharge
beginning 2 days ago that she has been taking oral contraceptives for 2 months. The nurse
determines that the client is most likely exhibiting signs of which of the following?
a. trichomonas vaginalis c. herpes genetalis
b. candidiasis d. gonorrhea

37. A client is diagnosed with AIDS when his CD4 count is less than 200 cell/mm³ and the
client has:
a. at least one opportunistic infection
b. a positive Western Blot of Elisa Test
c. symptoms of early HIV disease lasting at least 2 weeks
d. a positive viral load test of greater than 200 copies/ml
38. Which of the following would the nurse expect to observe in the client with histoplasmosis?
a. abdominal pain and diarrhea
b. fever, unexplained cough and malaise
c. aphthous ulcers, dysphagia, and weight loss
d. nonproductive cough, night sweats, and fever

39. The nurse explains to the students that the primary goal of medical care for the client
diagnosed with HIV is to:
a. prevent the spread of HIV to others
b. detect progression to AIDS as early as possible
c. keep the disease from progressing as long as possible
d. maintain the comfort of the client with symptoms of opportunistic infections

40. The primary modes of transmission for HIV infection include all but which of the
following?
a. urine c. amniotic fluid
b. blood d. vaginal secretions

41. The nurse knows that the development of nutritional malabsorption in the client with HIV
wasting syndrome is most directly the result of:
a. side effects of HIV/AIDS medivation
b. aphthous ulcers of the mouth and esophagus
c. food intolerances related to change in taste perception
d. injury to the small intestine to opportunistic infection.

42. A female client with genital warts is receiving treatment to have them removed. When
instructing the client about STD, the nurse emphasizes that the client:
a. the client will need frequent pap smear
b. must complete the entire antibiotic therapy
c. should avoid sexual activity until she is cured
d. will probably not have a recurrence because the warts are removed
43. Between 80% and `100% of adults have developed antibodies to:
a. CMV c. hepatitis B
b. Chlamydia d. genital herpes

44. A male client is diagnosed of syphilis. While assessing the client, the nurse is likely to
note:
a. seizures and stroke symptoms
b. a single chancre, usually near the tip of the penis
c. a skin rash of small brownish sores, including the palms and soles
d. small, painless sore that usually appear in sexual organs, rectum, or inside the
mouth.

45. The nurse is instructing a client about preventing STDs. Which of these statements by
the client indicates a need for additional teaching?
a. “I won’t get STD if I use a latex condom.”
b. “Even if I have STD, I will not have any symptom”
c. “Hepatitis B is the only STD I can be vaccinated against.”
d. “If I have STD, my partner and I need treatment.”

46. A 9 month old infant with eczema has lesions that are secondarily infected. Which of
the ff. interventions would be most appropriate to help the father best meet the needs of
his child?
a. Preventing siblings from being in close contact
b. sending the child to day care as usual
c. playing video cartoons for several hours each evening
d. playing with the child everyday

47. One important function and responsibility of the Regional Training Nurse is:
a. Designing training program for nurses and midwives.
b. Assessing the needs of nurses and midwives
c. Organizing field trips to tertiary hospital
d. Evaluating credentials of applicants.

48. Pender’s health promotion model defines heath as “a positive dynamic state not merely
the absence of disease.” Which of the following include variables such as self-esteem,
self-motivation, personal competence, perceived health status, and definition of health?
a. Personal socio-cultural factors
b. Perceived self-efficacy
c. Personal psychological factors
d. Perceived barriers to action

49. Pender’s Health Promotion Model examines the multi-dimensional nature of

persons as they interact within their environment to pursue health. Which of the
following is/are NOT a behavior-specific cognition and affect variable?
a. Perceived benefits of action
b. Perceived self-efficacy
c. Situational influences
d. Prior related behavior
50.Perla is Elena's co-worker as a Community Health Nurse. Which of the following
is the general duty of Perla?
a. Provides nursing care to the community
b. Communicates to the health team
c. Coordinates with municipal Health Offices
d. Establishes rapport with clients

51. Pregnant woman seeks help for a trained hilot. What are the reasons why they
like hilot?
a. Cumadrona is busy
b. Hilot renders holistic touch
c. Babaylan is better than none
d. Faith healers are less expensive

52. R.A. 1054 is also known as the Occupational Health Act. Aside from number of
employees, what other factor must be considered in determining the
occupational health privileges to which the workers will be entitled?
a. Type of occupation, agricultural, commercial, industrial
b. Location of the workplace in relation to health facilities
c. Classification of the business enterprise based on net profit
d. Sex and age composition of employees

53. The end result directed toward accomplishing beneficial health outcome such as
optimal well-being, personal fulfillment, and personal living. Which of the
following best describe this statement?
a. Personal psychological factors
b. Health promoting behaviors
c. Activity-related affect
d. Perceived self-efficacy

54. The Health Promotion Model was designed to be a “complementary models of

health protection. How does Pender’s Health Promotion Model describe nurses?
a. As part of a client’s interpersonal environment
b. As agents of change
c. As partners
d. All of these

55. The key strategy to obtain the mission of PHC is:

a. Linkages with health organizations.
b. Requesting donations from NGO’s.
c. Partnership with people.
d. Electing good people in government.
SITUATION: A woman is noted to have multiple soft warts on her perineum
and rectal areas. She seeks the assistance of the nurse to arrive to a
proper diagnosis.

56. The nurse suspects that this client is infected with which of the following
sexually transmitted infections?
 a. Human papillomavirus (HPV)
b. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
c. Syphilis
d. Trichomoniasis

57. The woman asks the nurse about treatment for human papilloma viral warts.
The nurse’s response should be based on which of the following?
a. An antiviral injection cures approximately fifty percent of cases
b. Aggressive treatment is required to cure warts
c. Warts often spread when an attempt is made to remove them surgically
d. Warts often recur a few months after a client is treated

58. A triage nurse answers a telephone call from the male partner of the woman
who recently diagnosed with genital warts. The man is requesting to be tested
for HPV. The nurse’s response should be based on which of the following?
a. There is currently no approved test to detect HPV in men
b. A viral culture of the penis and rectum is used to detect HPV in men
c. A Pap smear of the meatus of the penis is used to detect HPV in men
d. There is no need for a test because men do not become infected with HPV

59. The man is asking the nurse about Gardasil. Which of the following should be
included in the counseling session?
a. Gardasil is not recommended for men who are already sexually active
b. Gardasil protects recipients from all strains of the virus
c. The most common side effect from the vaccine is pain at the injection site
d. Anyone who is allergic to eggs is advised against receiving the vaccine

60. Another woman, 39 weeks’ gestation, is admitted to the delivery unit with
vaginal warts. Which of the following actions by the nurse is appropriate?
a. Notify the health care practitioner for a surgical delivery
b. Follow standard infectious disease precautions
c. Notify the nursery of the imminent delivery of an infected neonate
d. Wear a mask whenever the perineum is exposed

61. Which of the following Areas of Family Coping Index refers to the family's
ability to comply with prescribed or recommended procedures and treatment
to be done at home?
a. Health Care attitudes
b. Therapeutic Competence
c. Knowledge of health condition
d. Physical Independence

62. Which of the following focuses on identifying coping patterns of the family in
nine areas of assessment?
a. FNAT
b. Family Coping Index
c. Genogram
d. Family Tree
63. Which of the following is an acute respiratory tract infection that is caused by
tubercle bacilli?
a. Diphtheria
b. Pertussis
c. Tuberculosis
d. Tetanus

64. Among newborns, tetanus may be transmitted through:

a. Improper handling of cord stump
b. Dirty water
c. Improperly cleaned baby bottle
d. Puncture wounds

65. Mrs. Bayog consults in the health center because of attacks of fever and
chills. You presume that she has malaria. As you assess Mrs. Bayog the other
clinical symptoms that you will take note to confirm your presumption are the
following except:
a. Shaking chill, fever, pleural pain and dyspnea
b. Profuse perspiration which lasts for 4-6 hours after chills and fever
c. Slight fever and headache
d. Tingling sensation along the spine

66. Which of the following programs for Child survival is responsible for giving
Vitamin K injection; Eye prophylasis ; BCG and Hepa B vaccination and
Newborn and hearings test?
a. Expanded Program on Immunization
b. Integrated Management of Childhood Illnesses
c. Early Newborn Care Package
d. Nutrition Program

67. This Republic Act is a law that is aimed at addressing the reproductive health
issues of Filipinos is which of the following law?
a. RA No. 10534
b. RA No. 10535
c. RA No. 20534
d. RA No. 20535

68. The following are guiding Principles of Philippine Family Planning Program,
EXCEPT?
a. Respect for the sanctity of life
b. Respect for human rights
c. The freedom of choice and voluntary decision
d. None of the above

69. Which of the following are methods for contraception?

a. Intrauterine device (IUD)
 b. Sterilization
c. Diaphragm
d. All of the above

70. What are the health benefits associated with oral contraception?
a. Reduction of severe menstrual cramps
b. Clearing up acne and improving bone density
c. Prevention of certain cancers
d. All of the above

71. Sterilization implants and surgical sterilization are examples of?

a. Natural family planning
b. Barrier methods
c. Permanent birth control
d. Emergency Contraception

72. What are the two hormones combined in oral contraceptives, or "the pill"?
a. Dopamine and serotonin
b. Prolactin and oxytocin
c. Estrogen and progestin
d. Estrogen and testosterone

73. This contraception contains a chemical that kills sperm?

a. Hormonal injection
b. Spermicide
c. Intrauterine device (IUD)
d. Emergency contraception

74. A woman asks the nurse, "How do oral contraceptives prevent pregnancy?"
The nurse explains that the combination of estrogen and progesterone in oral
contraceptives:
a. makes cervical mucus hostile to sperm.
b. prevents ovulation.
c. prohibits implantation of the egg.
d. acts as a barrier by destroying sperm.

75. The nurse would tell the patient to expect what after she had an intrauterine
device (IUD) inserted?
a. Menstrual flow will be lighter.
b. Menstrual cramps will be eliminated.
c. A string should be felt in the vagina.
d. The device should be changed every 2 years

76. The nurse reminds a group of high school students that the most effective
choice of birth control for preventing pregnancy and sexually transmitted
diseases is to:
a. abstain from sex.
b. use the male condom.
 c. use the female condom.
d. use the barrier method

77. The nurse instructing a man considering a vasectomy should state that after a
vasectomy:
a. intercourse should be delayed for 6 weeks.
b. sperm will still be ejaculated for a month.
c. erections will be difficult to maintain.
d. monthly sperm counts for a year will be necessary.

78. When teaching a client about contraception. Which of the following would the
nurse include as the most effective method for preventing sexually transmitted
infection?
a. Spermicides
b. Diaphragm
c. Condoms
d. Vasectomy

79. All of the following are side effects associated with contraceptive implant,
EXCEPT?
a. Abdominal or back pain
b. Decreased sex drive
c. Mood swings and depression
d. None of the above

80.This is a family planning method that the baby's suckling stimulates the nipple
to trigger signals that affect the hormones thus disrupting or suppressing
ovulation?
a. Lactational Amenorrhea Method
b. Hormonal Implant
c. Emergency Contraceptive Pills
d. Mucus Method

81. This type of Family Planning method that regains a woman fertility in 0ne year
time?
a. Hormonal injection
b. Tubal ligation
c. Vasectomy
d. Calendar method

82. The Public Health Nurse bag is an important tool in providing nursing care
during a Home Visit. Which of the following is the most important principle in
bag technique?
a. Should save time and effort
b. Should minimize if not totally prevent the spread of infection
c. Should not overshadow concern for the patient and his family
d. May be done in variety of ways depending on the home situation
83. To maintain the cleanliness of the Public Health Nurse bag and its contents,
which of the following must the nurse do?
a. Wash his/her hands before and after providing nursing care to the family
members
b. In the care of family member's, as much as possible, use only articles taken
from the bag
c. Put on an apron to protect her uniform and fold it with the right side out
before putting it back into the bag
d. At the end of the visit, fold the lining on which the bag was placed, ensuring
that the contaminated side is on the outside

84. The principle of Bag technique is describe by which of the following statements?
a. To Keep thing neat and materials in place
b. This is to minimize, if not prevent the spread of Infection
c. Provide Health teaching
d. None of the Above

85. Public Health Bag is used by the public health nurse to do the following,
EXCEPT?
a. Provide antenatal, intranatal, and postnatal care
b. Perform diagnostic procedures
c. Detection of high risk cases and provide timely treatement
d. Perform invasive procedures

86. Which of the following is the mission of the Department of Health?

A. Health for all Filipinos
B. Improve the general health status of the population
C. Ensure the accessibility and quality of health
D. Health in the hands of the Filipino people by the year 2020

87. Which of the following is the most prominent feature of public health nursing?
A. It involves providing home care to sick people who are not confined in the hospital
B. Services are provided free of charge to people within the catchment area
C. The public health nurse functions as part of a team providing a public health
nursing service
D. Public health nursing focuses on preventive, not curative services

88. Which of the following is the most sensitive index in determining the general health
condition of a community since it reflects the changes in the environment and medical
conditions of a community?
A. Crude Death Rate C. Maternal Mortality Rate
B. Infant Mortality Rate D. Fetal Death Rate

89. Which of the following is the office in charge with registering vital facts in the
Philippines?
A. Philippine Charity Sweepstakes Office (PCSO)
B. Department of Health (DOH)
C. Philippine Amusement and Gaming Corporation (PAGCOR)
 D. Philippine Statistics Authority (PSA)

90. Which of the following is the primary purpose of conducting an Epidemiologic

Investigation?
A. Delineate the etiology of the epidemic
B. Identify groups who are at risk of contracting the disease
C. Encourage cooperation and support of the community
D. Identify geographical location of cases of the disease in the community

91. Which of the following patterns in Epidemiology is intermittent and confined to a certain
geographical area or locality?
A. Sporadic C. Epidemic
B. Endemic D. Pandemic

92. Which of the following referred to the total living population and it must be presumed
that the total population was exposed to the risk of occurrence of the events?
A. Rate C. Crude/General Rates
B. Ratio D. Specific Rate

93. Which of the following refers to systematic study of vital events such as births, illnesses,
marriages, divorces and deaths?
A. Epidemiology C. Vital Statistics
B. Demographics D. Health Statistics

94. Which of the following statements made by a community health team member best
reflects one of the core functions of an effective group?
A. "We plan to suggest the same solution as we did before since the problems are
similar."
B."The group works well since everyone is either a nurse or a doctor."
C."The group does so much better when we have a near unlimited time line for the
solution process."
D."We spend most of the meeting sharing information about the problem."

95. Which of these scientific processes is used by the nurse wherein biological and
sociological sciences are utilized to obtain community resources?
A. Nursing management C. Nursing networking
B. Nursing program D. Nursing process

96. Which one of the following Acts means that "Health Workers" are all persons engaged in
health-related work regardless of their employment status?
A. Magma Carta of Public Health workers
B. Discrimination Prohibition
C.Security of tenure of regular employees
D. Code of ethical standards of Public Officials and employees

97. Which one of the following is NOT an essential element of Primary Health Care?
A. Multi Sectoral Approach C. Appropriate technology
B. Community involvement D. Qualification of health providers

98. Which processes does Population- focused nursing practice require?

A. Community organizing C. Community diagnosis
B. Nursing process D. Epidemiologic process
99. Working in the community as a Public Health Nurse (PHN) for almost 10 years, Nurse K
knew the fluctuation in Vital Health Statistics. She knew that the most common cause of
morbidity among the Filipinos is which of the following?
A. Diseases of the heart. C. Pneumonia
B. Diarrhea D. Vascular System Diseases

100. While adopting new technology to enhance patient care and safety, nurses can
continue to provide:
A. Compassionate care. C. Self-management of wellness.
B. Consumer empowerment. D. Education about health