Cisco: Exam Questions 200-201

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Cisco
Exam Questions 200-201
Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals
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NEW QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
What does the output indicate about the server with the IP address 172.18.104.139?
A. open ports of a web server

B. open port of an FTP server
C. open ports of an email server
D. running processes of the server
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 2
Which kind of attack method is depicted in this string?
A. cross-site scripting
B. man-in-the-middle
C. SQL injection
D. denial of service
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 3
Which of these describes SOC metrics in relation to security incidents?
A. time it takes to detect the incident

B. time it takes to assess the risks of the incident
C. probability of outage caused by the incident
D. probability of compromise and impact caused by the incident
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 4
What is a difference between SIEM and SOAR?
A. SOAR predicts and prevents security alerts, while SIEM checks attack patterns and applies the mitigation.
B. SlEM's primary function is to collect and detect anomalies, while SOAR is more focused on security operations automation and response.
C. SIEM predicts and prevents security alerts, while SOAR checks attack patterns and applies the mitigation.
D. SOAR's primary function is to collect and detect anomalies, while SIEM is more focused on security operations automation and response.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 5
When communicating via TLS, the client initiates the handshake to the server and the server responds back with its certificate for identification.
Which information is available on the server certificate?
A. server name, trusted subordinate CA, and private key

B. trusted subordinate CA, public key, and cipher suites
C. trusted CA name, cipher suites, and private key
D. server name, trusted CA, and public key
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 6
Which regex matches only on all lowercase letters?
A. [az]+

B. [^az]+
C. az+
D. a*z+
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 7
What is the difference between deep packet inspection and stateful inspection?
A. Stateful inspection verifies contents at Layer 4. and deep packet inspection verifies connection at Layer 7.
B. Stateful inspection is more secure than deep packet inspection on Layer 7.
C. Deep packet inspection is more secure than stateful inspection on Layer 4.
D. Deep packet inspection allows visibility on Layer 7, and stateful inspection allows visibility on Layer 4.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 8
A security specialist notices 100 HTTP GET and POST requests for multiple pages on the web servers. The agent in the requests contains PHP code that, if
executed, creates and writes to a new PHP file on the webserver. Which event category is described?
A. reconnaissance
B. action on objectives
C. installation
D. exploitation
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 9
Which incidence response step includes identifying all hosts affected by an attack?
A. detection and analysis

B. post-incident activity
C. preparation
D. containment, eradication, and recovery
Answer: D
Explanation:
* 3.3.3 Identifying the Attacking Hosts During incident handling, system owners and others sometimes want to or need to identify the attacking host or hosts.
Although this information can be important, incident handlers should generally stay focused on containment, eradication, and recovery.
https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/SpecialPublications/NIST.SP.800-61r2.pdf
The response phase, or containment, of incident response, is the point at which the incident response team begins interacting with affected systems and attempts
to keep further damage from occurring as a result of the incident.
NEW QUESTION 10
How does certificate authority impact a security system?
A. It authenticates client identity when requesting SSL certificate

B. It validates domain identity of a SSL certificate
C. It authenticates domain identity when requesting SSL certificate
D. It validates client identity when communicating with the server
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 10

Drag and drop the element name from the left onto the correct piece of the PCAP file on the right.
A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered
Answer: A
Explanation:

NEW QUESTION 13
What makes HTTPS traffic difficult to monitor?
A. SSL interception
B. packet header size
C. signature detection time
D. encryption
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 14
A system administrator is ensuring that specific registry information is accurate.
Which type of configuration information does the HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE hive contain?
A. file extension associations

B. hardware, software, and security settings for the system
C. currently logged in users, including folders and control panel settings
D. all users on the system, including visual settings
Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/troubleshoot/windows-server/performance/windows-registry-advanced-users
NEW QUESTION 19
What describes a buffer overflow attack?
A. injecting new commands into existing buffers

B. fetching data from memory buffer registers
C. overloading a predefined amount of memory
D. suppressing the buffers in a process
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 20
Why is HTTPS traffic difficult to screen?
A. HTTPS is used internally and screening traffic (or external parties is hard due to isolation.
B. The communication is encrypted and the data in transit is secured.
C. Digital certificates secure the session, and the data is sent at random intervals.
D. Traffic is tunneled to a specific destination and is inaccessible to others except for the receiver.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 23
An engineer needs to configure network systems to detect command and control communications by decrypting ingress and egress perimeter traffic and allowing
network security devices to detect malicious outbound communications. Which technology should be used to accomplish the task?
A. digital certificates
B. static IP addresses
C. signatures
D. cipher suite
Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 24
What is the potential threat identified in this Stealthwatch dashboard?
A. Host 10.201.3.149 is sending data to 152.46.6.91 using TCP/443.

B. Host 152.46.6.91 is being identified as a watchlist country for data transfer.
C. Traffic to 152.46.6.149 is being denied by an Advanced Network Control policy.
D. Host 10.201.3.149 is receiving almost 19 times more data than is being sent to host 152.46.6.91.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 26
When an event is investigated, which type of data provides the investigate capability to determine if data exfiltration has occurred?
A. full packet capture

B. NetFlow data
C. session data
D. firewall logs
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 27
An automotive company provides new types of engines and special brakes for rally sports cars. The company has a database of inventions and patents for their
engines and technical information Customers can access the database through the company's website after they register and identify themselves. Which type of
protected data is accessed by customers?
A. IP data
B. PII data
C. PSI data
D. PHI data
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 31
Which two elements are assets in the role of attribution in an investigation? (Choose two.)
A. context
B. session
C. laptop
D. firewall logs
E. threat actor
Answer: CD
Explanation:
The following are some factors that are used during attribution in an investigation: Assets, Threat actor, Indicators of Compromise (IoCs), Indicators of Attack
(IoAs), Chain of custody Asset: This factor identifies which assets were compromised by a threat actor or hacker. An example of an asset can be an organization's
domain controller (DC) that runs Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS). AD is a service that allows an administrator to manage user accounts, user groups,
and policies across a Microsoft Windows environment. Keep in mind that an asset is anything that has value to an organization; it can be something physical,
digital, or even people. Cisco Certified CyberOps Associate 200-201 Certification Guide

NEW QUESTION 36
An engineer received a ticket about a slowed-down web application The engineer runs the #netstat -an command. How must the engineer interpret the results?
A. The web application is receiving a common, legitimate traffic

B. The engineer must gather more data.
C. The web application server is under a denial-of-service attack.
D. The server is under a man-in-the-middle attack between the web application and its database
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 40
Which evasion technique is indicated when an intrusion detection system begins receiving an abnormally high volume of scanning from numerous sources?
A. resource exhaustion
B. tunneling
C. traffic fragmentation
D. timing attack
Answer: A
Explanation:
Resource exhaustion is a type of denial-of-service attack; however, it can also be used to evade detection by security defenses. A simple definition of resource
exhaustion is “consuming the resources necessary to
perform an action.” Cisco CyberOps Associate CBROPS 200-201 Official Cert Guide
NEW QUESTION 44
Which piece of information is needed for attribution in an investigation?
A. proxy logs showing the source RFC 1918 IP addresses

B. RDP allowed from the Internet
C. known threat actor behavior
D. 802.1x RADIUS authentication pass arid fail logs
Answer: C
Explanation:
Actually this is the most important thing: know who, what, how, why, etc.. attack the network.
NEW QUESTION 46
A security engineer has a video of a suspect entering a data center that was captured on the same day that files in the same data center were transferred to a
competitor.
Which type of evidence is this?
A. best evidence
B. prima facie evidence
C. indirect evidence
D. physical evidence
Answer: C
Explanation:
There are three general types of evidence:
--> Best evidence: can be presented in court in the original form (for example, an exact copy of a hard disk drive).
--> Corroborating evidence: tends to support a theory or an assumption deduced by some initial evidence. This corroborating evidence confirms the proposition.
--> Indirect or circumstantial evidence: extrapolation to a conclusion of fact (such as fingerprints, DNA evidence, and so on).

NEW QUESTION 47
Which action should be taken if the system is overwhelmed with alerts when false positives and false negatives are compared?
A. Modify the settings of the intrusion detection system.

B. Design criteria for reviewing alerts.
C. Redefine signature rules.
D. Adjust the alerts schedule.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Traditional intrusion detection system (IDS) and intrusion prevention system (IPS) devices need to be tuned to avoid false positives and false negatives. Next-
generation IPSs do not need the same level of tuning compared to traditional IPSs. Also, you can obtain much deeper reports and functionality, including advanced
malware protection and retrospective analysis to see what happened after an attack took place. Ref: Cisco CyberOps Associate CBROPS 200-201 Official Cert
Guide
NEW QUESTION 49
An analyst was given a PCAP file, which is associated with a recent intrusion event in the company FTP server Which display filters should the analyst use to filter
the FTP traffic?
A. dstport == FTP
B. tcp.port==21
C. tcpport = FTP
D. dstport = 21
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 54
An investigator is examining a copy of an ISO file that is stored in CDFS format. What type of evidence is this file?
A. data from a CD copied using Mac-based system

B. data from a CD copied using Linux system
C. data from a DVD copied using Windows system
D. data from a CD copied using Windows
Answer: B
Explanation:
CDfs is a virtual file system for Unix-like operating systems; it provides access to data and audio tracks on Compact Discs. When the CDfs driver mounts a
Compact Disc, it represents each track as a file. This is consistent with the Unix convention "everything is a file". Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/CDfs
NEW QUESTION 58
What is the difference between mandatory access control (MAC) and discretionary access control (DAC)?
A. MAC is controlled by the discretion of the owner and DAC is controlled by an administrator
B. MAC is the strictest of all levels of control and DAC is object-based access
C. DAC is controlled by the operating system and MAC is controlled by an administrator
D. DAC is the strictest of all levels of control and MAC is object-based access
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 62
Which list identifies the information that the client sends to the server in the negotiation phase of the TLS handshake?
A. ClientStart, ClientKeyExchange, cipher-suites it supports, and suggested compression methods

B. ClientStart, TLS versions it supports, cipher-suites it supports, and suggested compression methods
C. ClientHello, TLS versions it supports, cipher-suites it supports, and suggested compression methods

D. ClientHello, ClientKeyExchange, cipher-suites it supports, and suggested compression methods
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 65
What are two differences in how tampered and untampered disk images affect a security incident? (Choose two.)
A. Untampered images are used in the security investigation process

B. Tampered images are used in the security investigation process
C. The image is tampered if the stored hash and the computed hash match
D. Tampered images are used in the incident recovery process
E. The image is untampered if the stored hash and the computed hash match
Answer: AE
Explanation:
Cert Guide by Omar Santos, Chapter 9 - Introduction to digital Forensics. "When you collect evidence, you must protect its integrity. This involves making sure that
nothing is added to the evidence and that nothing is deleted or destroyed (this is known as evidence preservation)."
NEW QUESTION 67
A user received a targeted spear-phishing email and identified it as suspicious before opening the content. To which category of the Cyber Kill Chain model does
to this type of event belong?
A. weaponization
B. delivery
C. exploitation
D. reconnaissance
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 69
How does agentless monitoring differ from agent-based monitoring?
A. Agentless can access the data via AP

B. while agent-base uses a less efficient method and accesses log data through WMI.
C. Agent-based monitoring is less intrusive in gathering log data, while agentless requires open ports to fetch the logs
D. Agent-based monitoring has a lower initial cost for deployment, while agentless monitoring requires resource-intensive deployment.
E. Agent-based has a possibility to locally filter and transmit only valuable data, while agentless has much higher network utilization
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 72
Which event is user interaction?
A. gaining root access

B. executing remote code
C. reading and writing file permission
D. opening a malicious file
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 75
Drag and drop the elements from the left into the correct order for incident handling on the right.
A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered
Answer: A
Explanation:

NEW QUESTION 78
Which type of verification consists of using tools to compute the message digest of the original and copied data, then comparing the similarity of the digests?
A. evidence collection order

B. data integrity
C. data preservation
D. volatile data collection
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 82
An engineer needs to fetch logs from a proxy server and generate actual events according to the data received. Which technology should the engineer use to
accomplish this task?
A. Firepower
B. Email Security Appliance
C. Web Security Appliance
D. Stealthwatch
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 84
Which type of data consists of connection level, application-specific records generated from network traffic?
A. transaction data
B. location data
C. statistical data
D. alert data
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 89
Which information must an organization use to understand the threats currently targeting the organization?
A. threat intelligence
B. risk scores
C. vendor suggestions
D. vulnerability exposure
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 93
Drag and drop the data source from the left onto the data type on the right.
A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered
Answer: A
Explanation:

NEW QUESTION 97
What is a benefit of agent-based protection when compared to agentless protection?
A. It lowers maintenance costs

B. It provides a centralized platform
C. It collects and detects all traffic locally
D. It manages numerous devices simultaneously
Answer: C
Explanation:
Host-based antivirus protection is also known as agent-based. Agent-based antivirus runs on every protected machine. Agentless antivirus protection performs
scans on hosts from a centralized system. Agentless systems have become popular for virtualized environments in which multiple OS instances are running on a
host simultaneously. Agent-based antivirus running in each virtualized system can be a serious drain on system resources. Agentless antivirus for virtual hosts
involves the use of a special security virtual appliance that performs optimized scanning tasks on the virtual hosts. An example of this is VMware’s vShield.
NEW QUESTION 102

According to the September 2020 threat intelligence feeds a new malware called Egregor was introduced and used in many attacks. Distnbution of Egregor is
pnmanly through a Cobalt Strike that has been installed on victim's workstations using RDP exploits Malware exfiltrates the victim's data to a command and control
server. The data is used to force victims pay or lose it by publicly releasing it. Which type of attack is described?
A. malware attack
B. ransomware attack
C. whale-phishing
D. insider threat
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 105

Drag and drop the security concept on the left onto the example of that concept on the right.
A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered
Answer: A
Explanation:

NEW QUESTION 109

The security team has detected an ongoing spam campaign targeting the organization. The team's approach is to push back the cyber kill chain and mitigate
ongoing incidents. At which phase of the cyber kill chain should the security team mitigate this type of attack?
A. actions
B. delivery
C. reconnaissance
D. installation
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 111

Which step in the incident response process researches an attacking host through logs in a SIEM?
A. detection and analysis

B. preparation
C. eradication
D. containment
Answer: A
Explanation:
Preparation --> Detection and Analysis --> Containment, Erradicaion and Recovery --> Post-Incident Activity Detection and Analysis --> Profile networks and
systems, Understand normal behaviors, Create a log retention policy, Perform event correlation. Maintain and use a knowledge base of information.Use Internet
search engines for research. Run packet sniffers to collect additional data. Filter the data. Seek assistance from others. Keep all host clocks synchronized. Know
the different types of attacks and attack vectors. Develop processes and procedures to recognize the signs of an incident. Understand the sources of precursors
and indicators. Create appropriate incident documentation capabilities and processes. Create processes to effectively prioritize security incidents. Create
processes to effectively communicate incident information (internal and external communications).
Ref: Cisco CyberOps Associate CBROPS 200-201 Official Cert Guide
NEW QUESTION 115

One of the objectives of information security is to protect the CIA of information and systems. What does CIA mean in this context?
A. confidentiality, identity, and authorization

B. confidentiality, integrity, and authorization
C. confidentiality, identity, and availability
D. confidentiality, integrity, and availability
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 120

An attacker scanned the server using Nmap. What did the attacker obtain from this scan?
A. Identified a firewall device preventing the pert state from being returned.
B. Identified open SMB ports on the server
C. Gathered information on processes running on the server
D. Gathered a list of Active Directory users
Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 123

Drag and drop the uses on the left onto the type of security system on the right.
A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered
Answer: A
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION 127

Which technology prevents end-device to end-device IP traceability?
A. encryption
B. load balancing
C. NAT/PAT
D. tunneling
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 129

Which event artifact is used to identify HTTP GET requests for a specific file?
A. destination IP address
B. TCP ACK
C. HTTP status code
D. URI
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 131

What describes the defense-m-depth principle?
A. defining precise guidelines for new workstation installations

B. categorizing critical assets within the organization
C. isolating guest Wi-Fi from the focal network
D. implementing alerts for unexpected asset malfunctions
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 132

An engineer runs a suspicious file in a sandbox analysis tool to see the outcome. The analysis report shows that outbound callouts were made post infection.
Which two pieces of information from the analysis report are needed to investigate the callouts? (Choose two.)
A. signatures
B. host IP addresses
C. file size
D. dropped files
E. domain names
Answer: BE
NEW QUESTION 136

What should be interpreted from this packet capture?
A. 81.179.179.69 is sending a packet from port 80 to port 50272 of IP address 192.168.122.100 using UDP protocol.
B. 192.168.122.100 is sending a packet from port 50272 to port 80 of IP address 81.179.179.69 using TCP protocol.
C. 192.168.122.100 is sending a packet from port 80 to port 50272 of IP address 81.179.179.69 using UDP protocol.
D. 81.179.179.69 is sending a packet from port 50272 to port 80 of IP address 192.168.122.100 using TCP UDP protocol.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 139

Which type of access control depends on the job function of the user?
A. discretionary access control

B. nondiscretionary access control
C. role-based access control
D. rule-based access control
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 141

Which category relates to improper use or disclosure of PII data?
A. legal
B. compliance
C. regulated
D. contractual
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 146

Drag and drop the access control models from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered
Answer: A
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION 148

Which event is a vishing attack?
A. obtaining disposed documents from an organization

B. using a vulnerability scanner on a corporate network
C. setting up a rogue access point near a public hotspot
D. impersonating a tech support agent during a phone call
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 149

What is the function of a command and control server?
A. It enumerates open ports on a network device

B. It drops secondary payload into malware
C. It is used to regain control of the network after a compromise
D. It sends instruction to a compromised system
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 153

An analyst is investigating an incident in a SOC environment. Which method is used to identify a session from a group of logs?
A. sequence numbers
B. IP identifier
C. 5-tuple
D. timestamps
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 156

What is personally identifiable information that must be safeguarded from unauthorized access?
A. date of birth
B. driver's license number
C. gender
D. zip code
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to the Executive Office of the President, Office of Management and Budget (OMB), and the U.S. Department of Commerce, Office of the Chief
Information Officer, PII refers to “information which can be used to distinguish or trace an individual’s identity.”
The following are a few examples:
- An individual’s name
- Social security number
- Biological or personal characteristics, such as an image of distinguishing features, fingerprints, Xrays, voice signature, retina scan, and the geometry of the face
- Date and place of birth
- Mother’s maiden name
- Credit card numbers
- Bank account numbers
- Driver license number
- Address information, such as email addresses or street addresses, and telephone numbers for businesses or personal use
- Cisco CyberOps Associate CBROPS 200-201 Official Cert Guide Omar Santos
NEW QUESTION 161


What must be interpreted from this packet capture?
A. IP address 192.168.88 12 is communicating with 192 168 88 149 with a source port 74 to destination port 49098 using TCP protocol
B. IP address 192.168.88.12 is communicating with 192 168 88 149 with a source port 49098 to destination port 80 using TCP protocol.
C. IP address 192.168.88.149 is communicating with 192.168 88.12 with a source port 80 to destination port 49098 using TCP protocol.
D. IP address 192.168.88.149 is communicating with 192.168.88.12 with a source port 49098 to destination port 80 using TCP protocol.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 163

A security analyst notices a sudden surge of incoming traffic and detects unknown packets from unknown senders After further investigation, the analyst learns
that customers claim that they cannot access company servers According to NIST SP800-61, in which phase of the incident response process is the analyst?
A. post-incident activity
B. detection and analysis
C. preparation
D. containment, eradication, and recovery
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 164

What is occurring in this network?
A. ARP cache poisoning

B. DNS cache poisoning
C. MAC address table overflow
D. MAC flooding attack
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 166

At which layer is deep packet inspection investigated on a firewall?
A. internet
B. transport
C. application
D. data link
Answer: C
Explanation:
Deep packet inspection is a form of packet filtering usually carried out as a function of your firewall. It is applied at the Open Systems Interconnection's application
layer. Deep packet inspection evaluates the contents of a packet that is going through a checkpoint.
NEW QUESTION 170

Which metric should be used when evaluating the effectiveness and scope of a Security Operations Center?
A. The average time the SOC takes to register and assign the incident.
B. The total incident escalations per week.
C. The average time the SOC takes to detect and resolve the incident.
D. The total incident escalations per month.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 175

Which NIST IR category stakeholder is responsible for coordinating incident response among various business units, minimizing damage, and reporting to
regulatory agencies?
A. CSIRT

B. PSIRT
C. public affairs
D. management
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 180

How does an attacker observe network traffic exchanged between two users?
A. port scanning
B. man-in-the-middle
C. command injection
D. denial of service
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 181

Which HTTP header field is used in forensics to identify the type of browser used?
A. referrer
B. host
C. user-agent
D. accept-language
Answer: C
Explanation:
User-Agent: Mozilla/5.0 (X11; Linux x86_64; rv:12.0) Gecko/20100101 Firefox/12.0 In computing, a user agent is any software, acting on behalf of a user, which
"retrieves, renders and facilitates end-user interaction with Web content".[1] A user agent is therefore a special kind of software agent.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/User_agent#User_agent_identification
A user agent is a computer program representing a person, for example, a browser in a Web context. https://developer.mozilla.org/en-
US/docs/Glossary/User_agent
NEW QUESTION 183

An engineer is analyzing a recent breach where confidential documents were altered and stolen by the receptionist Further analysis shows that the threat actor
connected an externa USB device to bypass security restrictions and steal data The engineer could not find an external USB device Which piece of information
must an engineer use for attribution in an investigation?
A. list of security restrictions and privileges boundaries bypassed

B. external USB device
C. receptionist and the actions performed
D. stolen data and its criticality assessment
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 186

An engineer receives a security alert that traffic with a known TOR exit node has occurred on the network. What is the impact of this traffic?
A. ransomware communicating after infection

B. users downloading copyrighted content
C. data exfiltration
D. user circumvention of the firewall
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 188

Which are two denial-of-service attacks? (Choose two.)
A. TCP connections
B. ping of death
C. man-in-the-middle
D. code-red
E. UDP flooding
Answer: BE
NEW QUESTION 189


What is occurring?
A. Cross-Site Scripting attack

B. XML External Entitles attack
C. Insecure Deserialization
D. Regular GET requests
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 194

A security engineer notices confidential data being exfiltrated to a domain "Ranso4134-mware31-895" address that is attributed to a known advanced persistent
threat group The engineer discovers that the activity is part of a real attack and not a network misconfiguration. Which category does this event fall under as
defined in the Cyber Kill Chain?
A. reconnaissance
B. delivery
C. action on objectives
D. weaponization
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 195

According to the NIST SP 800-86. which two types of data are considered volatile? (Choose two.)
A. swap files
B. temporary files
C. login sessions
D. dump files
E. free space
Answer: CE
NEW QUESTION 200

What is the difference between inline traffic interrogation (TAPS) and traffic mirroring (SPAN)?
A. TAPS interrogation is more complex because traffic mirroring applies additional tags to data and SPAN does not alter integrity and provides full duplex network.
B. SPAN results in more efficient traffic analysis, and TAPS is considerably slower due to latency caused by mirroring.
C. TAPS replicates the traffic to preserve integrity, and SPAN modifies packets before sending them to other analysis tools
D. SPAN ports filter out physical layer errors, making some types of analyses more difficult, and TAPS receives all packets, including physical errors.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 203

A security engineer deploys an enterprise-wide host/endpoint technology for all of the company's corporate PCs. Management requests the engineer to block a
selected set of applications on all PCs. Which technology should be used to accomplish this task?
A. application whitelisting/blacklisting
B. network NGFW
C. host-based IDS
D. antivirus/antispyware software
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 204

What are two social engineering techniques? (Choose two.)
A. privilege escalation
B. DDoS attack
C. phishing
D. man-in-the-middle
E. pharming
Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 205

An intruder attempted malicious activity and exchanged emails with a user and received corporate information, including email distribution lists. The intruder asked
the user to engage with a link in an email. When the fink launched, it infected machines and the intruder was able to access the corporate network.
Which testing method did the intruder use?
A. social engineering
B. eavesdropping
C. piggybacking
D. tailgating
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 208

What is a sandbox interprocess communication service?
A. A collection of rules within the sandbox that prevent the communication between sandboxes.
B. A collection of network services that are activated on an interface, allowing for inter-port communication.
C. A collection of interfaces that allow for coordination of activities among processes.
D. A collection of host services that allow for communication between sandboxes.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Inter-process communication (IPC) allows communication between different processes. A process is one or more threads running inside its own, isolated address
space. https://docs.legato.io/16_10/basicIPC.html
NEW QUESTION 210

Which attack method intercepts traffic on a switched network?
A. denial of service
B. ARP cache poisoning
C. DHCP snooping
D. command and control
Answer: B
Explanation:
An ARP-based MITM attack is achieved when an attacker poisons the ARP cache of two devices with the MAC address of the attacker's network interface card
(NIC). Once the ARP caches have been successfully poisoned, each victim device sends all its packets to the attacker when communicating to the other device
and puts the attacker in the middle of the communications path between the two victim devices. It allows an attacker to easily monitor all communication between
victim devices. The intent is to intercept and view the information being passed between the two victim devices and potentially introduce sessions and traffic
between the two victim devices
NEW QUESTION 215

What should an engineer use to aid the trusted exchange of public keys between user tom0411976943 and dan1968754032?
A. central key management server

B. web of trust
C. trusted certificate authorities
D. registration authority data
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 220

What does the message indicate?
A. an access attempt was made from the Mosaic web browser

B. a successful access attempt was made to retrieve the password file
C. a successful access attempt was made to retrieve the root of the website
D. a denied access attempt was made to retrieve the password file
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 225

Which security technology allows only a set of pre-approved applications to run on a system?
A. application-level blacklisting
B. host-based IPS
C. application-level whitelisting
D. antivirus

Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 228

An engineer is reviewing a Cuckoo report of a file. What must the engineer interpret from the report?
A. The file will appear legitimate by evading signature-based detection.

B. The file will not execute its behavior in a sandbox environment to avoid detection.
C. The file will insert itself into an application and execute when the application is run.
D. The file will monitor user activity and send the information to an outside source.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 232

What is the potential threat identified in this Stealthwatch dashboard?
A. A policy violation is active for host 10.10.101.24.

B. A host on the network is sending a DDoS attack to another inside host.
C. There are two active data exfiltration alerts.
D. A policy violation is active for host 10.201.3.149.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 233

What is the practice of giving an employee access to only the resources needed to accomplish their job?
A. principle of least privilege

B. organizational separation
C. separation of duties
D. need to know principle
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 237

Drag and drop the security concept from the left onto the example of that concept on the right.

A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered
Answer: A
Explanation:
Table Description automatically generated
NEW QUESTION 239

Drag and drop the technology on the left onto the data type the technology provides on the right.
A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered
Answer: A
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION 242

Which utility blocks a host portscan?
A. HIDS
B. sandboxing
C. host-based firewall
D. antimalware
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 243

Which two elements are used for profiling a network? (Choose two.)
A. session duration
B. total throughput
C. running processes

D. listening ports
E. OS fingerprint
Answer: AB
Explanation:
A network profile should include some important elements, such as the following:
Total throughput – the amount of data passing from a given source to a given destination in a given period of time
Session duration – the time between the establishment of a data flow and its termination Ports used – a list of TCP or UDP processes that are available to accept
data
Critical asset address space – the IP addresses or the logical location of essential systems or data
Profiling data are data that system has gathered, these data helps for incident response and to detect incident Network profiling = throughput, sessions duration,
port used, Critical Asset Address Space Host profiling = Listening ports, logged in accounts, running processes, running tasks,applications
NEW QUESTION 246

What is the difference between a threat and an exploit?
A. A threat is a result of utilizing flow in a system, and an exploit is a result of gaining control over the system.
B. A threat is a potential attack on an asset and an exploit takes advantage of the vulnerability of the asset
C. An exploit is an attack vector, and a threat is a potential path the attack must go through.
D. An exploit is an attack path, and a threat represents a potential vulnerability
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 250

How does an SSL certificate impact security between the client and the server?
A. by enabling an authenticated channel between the client and the server

B. by creating an integrated channel between the client and the server
C. by enabling an authorized channel between the client and the server
D. by creating an encrypted channel between the client and the server
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 253

Drag and drop the definition from the left onto the phase on the right to classify intrusion events according to the Cyber Kill Chain model.
A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered
Answer: A
Explanation:
Delivery: This step involves transmitting the weapon to the target.
Weaponization: In this step, the intruder creates a malware weapon like a virus, worm or such in order to exploit the vulnerabilities of the target. Depending on the
target and the purpose of the attacker, this malware can exploit new, undetected vulnerabilities (also known as the zero-day exploits) or it can focus on a
combination of different vulnerabilities.
Reconnaissance: In this step, the attacker / intruder chooses their target. Then they conduct an in-depth research on this target to identify its vulnerabilities that
can be exploited.
NEW QUESTION 254

What is an attack surface as compared to a vulnerability?
A. any potential danger to an asset

B. the sum of all paths for data into and out of the environment
C. an exploitable weakness in a system or its design
D. the individuals who perform an attack
Answer: C
Explanation:
An attack surface is the total sum of vulnerabilities that can be exploited to carry out a security attack. Attack surfaces can be physical or digital. The term attack
surface is often confused with the term attack vector, but they are not the same thing. The surface is what is being attacked; the vector is the means by which an

intruder gains access.
NEW QUESTION 259

Which type of log is displayed?
A. IDS
B. proxy
C. NetFlow
D. sys
Answer: A
Explanation:
You also see the 5-tuple in IPS events, NetFlow records, and other event data. In fact, on the exam you may need to differentiate between a firewall log versus a
traditional IPS or IDS event. One of the things to remember is that traditional IDS and IPS use signatures, so an easy way to differentiate is by looking for a
signature ID (SigID). If you see a signature ID, then most definitely the event is a traditional IPS or IDS event.
NEW QUESTION 263

An engineer is analyzing this Cuckoo Sandbox report for a PDF file that has been downloaded from an email. What is the state of this file?
A. The file has an embedded executable and was matched by PEiD threat signatures for further analysis.
B. The file has an embedded non-Windows executable but no suspicious features are identified.
C. The file has an embedded Windows 32 executable and the Yara field lists suspicious features for further analysis.
D. The file was matched by PEiD threat signatures but no suspicious features are identified since the signature list is up to date.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 264

What is the virtual address space for a Windows process?
A. physical location of an object in memory

B. set of pages that reside in the physical memory
C. system-level memory protection feature built into the operating system
D. set of virtual memory addresses that can be used
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 265


An analyst received this alert from the Cisco ASA device, and numerous activity logs were produced. How should this type of evidence be categorized?
A. indirect
B. circumstantial
C. corroborative
D. best
Answer: C
Explanation:
Indirect=circumstantail so there is no posibility to match A or B (only one answer is needed in this question). For suer it's not a BEST evidence - this FW data
inform only of DROPPED traffic. If smth happend inside network, presented evidence could be used to support other evidences or make our narreation stronger
but alone it's mean nothing.
NEW QUESTION 269

Which security principle requires more than one person is required to perform a critical task?
A. least privilege
B. need to know
C. separation of duties
D. due diligence
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 273

Which two pieces of information are collected from the IPv4 protocol header? (Choose two.)
A. UDP port to which the traffic is destined

B. TCP port from which the traffic was sourced
C. source IP address of the packet
D. destination IP address of the packet
E. UDP port from which the traffic is sourced
Answer: CD
NEW QUESTION 277

Which metric in CVSS indicates an attack that takes a destination bank account number and replaces it with a different bank account number?
A. availability
B. confidentiality
C. scope
D. integrity
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 281

Which security monitoring data type requires the largest storage space?
A. transaction data
B. statistical data
C. session data
D. full packet capture
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 283

Which technology should be used to implement a solution that makes routing decisions based on HTTP header, uniform resource identifier, and SSL session ID
attributes?
A. AWS
B. IIS
C. Load balancer
D. Proxy server
Answer: C
Explanation:
Load Balancing: HTTP(S) load balancing is one of the oldest forms of load balancing. This form of load balancing relies on layer 7, which means it operates in the
application layer. This allows routing decisions based on attributes like HTTP header, uniform resource identifier, SSL session ID, and HTML form data.
Load balancing applies to layers 4-7 in the seven-layer Open System Interconnection (OSI) model. Its capabilities are: L4. Directing traffic based on network data
and transport layer protocols, e.g., IP address and TCP port. L7. Adds content switching to load balancing, allowing routing decisions depending on characteristics
such as HTTP header, uniform resource identifier, SSL session ID, and HTML form data. GSLB. Global Server Load Balancing expands L4 and L7 capabilities to
servers in different sites

NEW QUESTION 286

An organization has recently adjusted its security stance in response to online threats made by a known hacktivist group.
What is the initial event called in the NIST SP800-61?
A. online assault
B. precursor
C. trigger
D. instigator
Answer: B
Explanation:
A precursor is a sign that a cyber-attack is about to occur on a system or network. An indicator is the actual alerts that are generated as an attack is happening.
Therefore, as a security professional, it's important to know where you can find both precursor and indicator sources of information.
The following are common sources of precursor and indicator information:
Security Information and Event Management (SIEM)
Anti-virus and anti-spam software
File integrity checking applications/software
Logs from various sources (operating systems, devices, and applications)
People who report a security incident https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/SpecialPublications/NIST.SP.800-61r2.pdf
NEW QUESTION 289

What is occurring?
A. ARP flood
B. DNS amplification
C. ARP poisoning
D. DNS tunneling
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 291

A security expert is working on a copy of the evidence, an ISO file that is saved in CDFS format. Which type of evidence is this file?
A. CD data copy prepared in Windows

B. CD data copy prepared in Mac-based system
C. CD data copy prepared in Linux system
D. CD data copy prepared in Android-based system
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 296

What is a description of a social engineering attack?
A. fake offer for free music download to trick the user into providing sensitive data
B. package deliberately sent to the wrong receiver to advertise a new product
C. mistakenly received valuable order destined for another person and hidden on purpose
D. email offering last-minute deals on various vacations around the world with a due date and a counter
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 300

Which action prevents buffer overflow attacks?

A. variable randomization
B. using web based applications
C. input sanitization
D. using a Linux operating system
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 304

How does a certificate authority impact security?
A. It validates client identity when communicating with the server.

B. It authenticates client identity when requesting an SSL certificate.
C. It authenticates domain identity when requesting an SSL certificate.
D. It validates the domain identity of the SSL certificate.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A certificate authority is a computer or entity that creates and issues digital certificates. CA do not "authenticate" it validates. "D" is wrong because The digital
certificate validate a user. CA --> DC --> user, server or whatever.
NEW QUESTION 306

What is the impact of encryption?
A. Confidentiality of the data is kept secure and permissions are validated

B. Data is accessible and available to permitted individuals
C. Data is unaltered and its integrity is preserved
D. Data is secure and unreadable without decrypting it
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 308

Which vulnerability type is used to read, write, or erase information from a database?
A. cross-site scripting
B. cross-site request forgery
C. buffer overflow
D. SQL injection
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 309

What is a purpose of a vulnerability management framework?
A. identifies, removes, and mitigates system vulnerabilities

B. detects and removes vulnerabilities in source code
C. conducts vulnerability scans on the network
D. manages a list of reported vulnerabilities
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 310

Which type of attack occurs when an attacker is successful in eavesdropping on a conversation between two IP phones?
A. known-plaintext
B. replay
C. dictionary
D. man-in-the-middle
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 313

How is attacking a vulnerability categorized?
A. action on objectives
B. delivery
C. exploitation
D. installation
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 314


A company employee is connecting to mail google.com from an endpoint device. The website is loaded but with an error. What is occurring?
A. DNS hijacking attack

B. Endpoint local time is invalid.
C. Certificate is not in trusted roots.
D. man-m-the-middle attack
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 318

What is indicated by an increase in IPv4 traffic carrying protocol 41 ?
A. additional PPTP traffic due to Windows clients

B. unauthorized peer-to-peer traffic
C. deployment of a GRE network on top of an existing Layer 3 network
D. attempts to tunnel IPv6 traffic through an IPv4 network
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 323

Which frame numbers contain a file that is extractable via TCP stream within Wireshark?
A. 7,14, and 21
B. 7 and 21
C. 14,16,18, and 19

D. 7 to 21
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 325

An organization is cooperating with several third-party companies. Data exchange is on an unsecured channel using port 80 Internal employees use the FTP
service to upload and download sensitive data An engineer must ensure confidentiality while preserving the integrity of the communication. Which technology must
the engineer implement in this scenario'?
A. X 509 certificates
B. RADIUS server
C. CA server
D. web application firewall
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 330

What is the expected result when the "Allow subdissector to reassemble TCP streams" feature is enabled?
A. insert TCP subdissectors

B. extract a file from a packet capture
C. disable TCP streams
D. unfragment TCP
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 332

What is a difference between signature-based and behavior-based detection?
A. Signature-based identifies behaviors that may be linked to attacks, while behavior-based has a predefined set of rules to match before an alert.
B. Behavior-based identifies behaviors that may be linked to attacks, while signature-based has a predefined set of rules to match before an alert.
C. Behavior-based uses a known vulnerability database, while signature-based intelligently summarizes existing data.
D. Signature-based uses a known vulnerability database, while behavior-based intelligently summarizes existing data.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Instead of searching for patterns linked to specific types of attacks, behavior-based IDS solutions monitor behaviors that may be linked to attacks, increasing the
likelihood of identifying and mitigating a malicious action before the network is compromised.
https://accedian.com/blog/what-is-the-difference-between-signature-based-and-behavior-based-ids/
NEW QUESTION 333

What is the difference between indicator of attack (loA) and indicators of compromise (loC)?
A. loA is the evidence that a security breach has occurred, and loC allows organizations to act before the vulnerability can be exploited.
B. loA refers to the individual responsible for the security breach, and loC refers to the resulting loss.
C. loC is the evidence that a security breach has occurred, and loA allows organizations to act before the vulnerability can be exploited.
D. loC refers to the individual responsible for the security breach, and loA refers to the resulting loss.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 336


A network administrator is investigating suspicious network activity by analyzing captured traffic. An engineer notices abnormal behavior and discovers that the
default user agent is present in the headers of
requests and data being transmitted What is occurring?
A. indicators of denial-of-service attack due to the frequency of requests

B. garbage flood attack attacker is sending garbage binary data to open ports
C. indicators of data exfiltration HTTP requests must be plain text
D. cache bypassing attack: attacker is sending requests for noncacheable content
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 339

Which technology generates this log?
A. NetFlow
B. IDS
C. web proxy
D. firewall
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 340

A developer is working on a project using a Linux tool that enables writing processes to obtain these required results:
If the process is unsuccessful, a negative value is returned.
If the process is successful, 0 value is returned to the child process, and the process ID is sent to the parent process.
Which component results from this operation?
A. parent directory name of a file pathname

B. process spawn scheduled
C. macros for managing CPU sets
D. new process created by parent process
Answer: D
Explanation:
There are two tasks with specially distinguished process IDs: swapper or sched has process ID 0 and is responsible for paging, and is actually part of the kernel
rather than a normal user-mode process. Process ID 1 is usually the init process primarily responsible for starting and shutting down the system. Originally,
process ID 1 was not specifically reserved for init by any technical measures: it simply had this ID as a natural consequence of being the first process invoked by
the kernel. More recent Unix systems typically have additional kernel components visible as 'processes', in which case PID 1 is actively reserved for the init
process to maintain consistency with older systems
NEW QUESTION 345

An employee received an email from a colleague’s address asking for the password for the domain controller. The employee noticed a missing letter within the
sender’s address. What does this incident describe?
A. brute-force attack
B. insider attack
C. shoulder surfing
D. social engineering
Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 346

What is the difference between the rule-based detection when compared to behavioral detection?
A. Rule-Based detection is searching for patterns linked to specific types of attacks, while behavioral is identifying per signature.
B. Rule-Based systems have established patterns that do not change with new data, while behavioral changes.
C. Behavioral systems are predefined patterns from hundreds of users, while Rule-Based only flags potentially abnormal patterns using signatures.
D. Behavioral systems find sequences that match a particular attack signature, while Rule-Based identifies potential attacks.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 348

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A. open ports of a web server

Which kind of attack method is depicted in this string?

A. time it takes to detect the incident

A. server name, trusted subordinate CA, and private key

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A. detection and analysis

A. It authenticates client identity when requesting SSL certificate

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A. file extension associations

A. injecting new commands into existing buffers

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What is the potential threat identified in this Stealthwatch dashboard?

A. Host 10.201.3.149 is sending data to 152.46.6.91 using TCP/443.

A. full packet capture

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A. The web application is receiving a common, legitimate traffic

A. proxy logs showing the source RFC 1918 IP addresses

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A. Modify the settings of the intrusion detection system.

A. data from a CD copied using Mac-based system

A. ClientStart, ClientKeyExchange, cipher-suites it supports, and suggested compression methods

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D. ClientHello, ClientKeyExchange, cipher-suites it supports, and suggested compression methods

A. Untampered images are used in the security investigation process

A. Agentless can access the data via AP

A. gaining root access

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A. evidence collection order

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A. It lowers maintenance costs

NEW QUESTION 102

NEW QUESTION 105

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NEW QUESTION 109

NEW QUESTION 111

A. detection and analysis

NEW QUESTION 115

A. confidentiality, identity, and authorization

NEW QUESTION 120

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NEW QUESTION 123

NEW QUESTION 127

NEW QUESTION 129

NEW QUESTION 131

A. defining precise guidelines for new workstation installations

NEW QUESTION 132

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NEW QUESTION 136

What should be interpreted from this packet capture?

NEW QUESTION 139

A. discretionary access control

NEW QUESTION 141

NEW QUESTION 146

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NEW QUESTION 148

A. obtaining disposed documents from an organization