Chapter Wise MCQ's of AHN-II

MCQ’s of AHN-II
BY; ZIA UD DIN ZEB COLLEGE OF NURSING DIR LOWER
Unit-1- Orthopedic Nursing

1. The _________articulates with the scapula c) Talus
at the shoulder joint: d) Patella
a) Radius 6. The suture unites the two parietal bones on
b) Clavicle the superior midline of the skull is
c) Humerus a) Coronal
d) Ulna b) Lambdoid
2. Which muscle cells (fibers) are short, c) Sagittal
branched and uninucleated: d) Squamous
a) Smooth 7. Pectoralis major fiber is an example of:
b) Cardiac a) Bipennate
c) Skeletal b) Circular
d) Smooth and cardiac c) Convergent
3. Distal row of carpals include trapezium, d) Fusiform
capitate, hamate and: 8. Symphysis Pubis is an example of:
a) Trapezoid a) Diarthrosis
b) Capitate b) fibrous joints
c) Pisiform c) primary cartilaginous joints
d) Triquetrum d) Secondary cartilaginous joint
4. Calcaneus and Talus are the bones of: 9. Decrease between the angle of two anterior
a) Leg surface is:
b) Foot a) Abduction
c) Hand b) Adduction
d) Forearm c) Extension
5. The _______is the largest Sesamoid bone: d) Flexion
a) Tibia 10. There are _____ pair of thoracic Nerves:
b) Fibula a) 7
ZIAUDDIN ZCN DIR (L) Page 1

b) 10 d) Ventral
c) 12 16. A thin muscular and tendinous septum that
d) 8 separates the chest cavity above from the
11. Basic Cells of cartilage are: abdominal cavity below is?
a) Chondrocytes a) Diaphragm
b) Osteocytes b) Linea alba
c) Osteoclast c) Pericardium
d) Mast cells d) Rectus sheath
12. True ribs directly attach through 17. Thoracic cage is made up of all except?
costochondral junction to the: a) Clavicle
a) Manubrium b) Ribs
b) Sternum c) Sternum
c) Vertebrae d) Thoracic vertebrae
d) Xiphoid process 18. Carpals and tarsals are the examples of?
13. A thick fibrous membrane covering the a) Flat bones
surface of bone. It contains blood and b) Irregular bone
lymphatic vessels & nerves called? c) Long bones
a) Endosteum d) Short bones
b) Medullary cavity 19. Largest Sesamoid bone of the body is?
c) Periosteum a) Clavicle
d) Perichondrium b) Fibula
14. Which muscles are titled as visceral c) Hip bone
muscles? d) Patella
a) Cardiac 20. Ribs scapula & skull are examples of?
b) Skeletal a) Flat bones
c) Smooth b) Irregular bone
d) All of above c) Long bones
15. A special term refers to anterior surface of d) Short bones
the hand known as: 21. Each hand consists of?
a) Cephalic a) 8 bones
b) Planter b) 14 bones
c) Palmer c) 27 bones

d) 54 bones a) Cartilage
22. An immovable joint that holds most skull b) Tendon
bones together is? c) Ligament
a) Ellipsoid joint d) Bursa
b) Hinge joint 28. Short bands of fibrous connective tissue
c) Saddle joint which connects two bones or cartilages in a
d) Suture joint:
23. Shaft of the long bone is also called? a) Cartilage
a) Diaphysis b) Tendon
b) Epiphysis c) Ligament
c) Metaphysis d) Bursa
d) Medullary cavity 29. There are _______ bones in adult human
24. The best example of _______ joint is the body:
carpometacarpal joint of the thumb: a) 270
a) Condylar joint b) 306
b) Ellipsoid c) 206
c) Hinge d) 250
d) Saddle 30. The process of laying down of new bone
25. They are roughly cuboidal in shape and are material is called ______?
composed of cancellous bone: a) Mineralization
a) Flat bone b) Ossification
b) Irregular bone c) Maturation
c) Short bone d) Development
d) Long bone 31. Primary centres of ossification appear:
26. The term _____ refers to the same side of a) at birth
the body: b) at puberty
a) Unilateral c) before birth
b) Contralateral d) by adolescence
c) Ipsilateral 32. Bones laid down by mesodermal model of
d) Bilateral ossification are called:
27. Tough bands of fibrous connective tissue a) Cartilaginous bones
which connects muscles to bones are called: b) Compact bones

c) Dermal bones d) Epiphyseal plate
d) Short bones 39. What is the leading theory about the cause
33. Epiphysis of long bone contains which type of phantom limb pain ?
of bone: a. Psychological factors
a) Compact bone b. Nerve damage
b) Hard bone c. Inflammation
c) Cancellous bone d. Vascular tissue
d) Fibrous bone 40. What is the primary goal of prosthetic
34. Following is example of modified long bone: limbs ?
a) Femur a. Aesthetic
b) Humerus b. Comfort
c) Clavicle c. Functionality and mobility
d) Radius d. Pain relief
35. Pectoral girdle is formed by: 41. What is the most common cause of
a) Hip bones amputation in people with diabetes ?
b) Sacrum and pelvis a. Severe infection
c) Humerus and clavicle b. Trauma
d) Clavicle and scapula c. Nerve demage
36. At birth the medullary cavity is mainly: d. Congenital defect
a) Yellow marrow 42. How does Piaget disease affect the body’s
b) Fats normal process of breaking down and
c) Red marrow rebuilding bone?
d) Fibers a. The process greatly speeds up
37. Primary centers of ossification appear in: b. The process greatly slows down
a) Metaphysis c. The process isn't affected
b) Epiphysis d. None of the above
c) Diaphysis 43. Experts believe that Piaget disease may be
d) Epiphyseal plate caused by:
38. Secondary centres of ossification appear in: a. A virus
a) Metaphysis b. A parasite
b) Epiphysis c. An abnormal gene
c) Diaphysis d. A and C

44. Paget disease most often strikes which age 49. Treatment of Paget disease may include
group? which of these?
a. Children under age 12 a. Calcium and vitamin D supplements
b. Teens b. Bisphosphonates
c. Adults under 30 c. Exercise
d. Adults over 40 d.All of the above
45. The symptoms of Piaget disease are often 50. Among several complications of Paget
confused with: disease of bone, which is most closely
a. Influenza related to serum calcium levels?
b.Osteoarthritis a. Hyperparathyroidism
c. Diabetes b. Spinal stenosis
d. All of the above c. Osteoarthritis
46. Which bones are most commonly affected d. Compressed nerves
by Paget disease? 51. Serum alkaline phosphatase levels are
a. Spine increased in:
b. Pelvis a. Osteorthritis
c. Skull b. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
d. Legs c. Paget’s disease
e. All of the above d. Rheumatoid arthitis
47. A healthcare provider can best diagnose 52. Cotton-wool appearance is seen in:
Paget disease with which test? a. Peget’s disease
a. Bone scan b. Osteoclerosis
b. X-ray c. Pariapicalcemential dysplasia
c. Alkaline phosphatase blood test d. Ossifying fibroma
d.A combination of all of the above 53. Generalised hyper cementesis is seen in:
48. In addition to osteoarthritis, Paget disease a. Hypophosphatasia
may lead to what other disorders? b. Pagets disease
a. Hearing loss c. Fibrous dysplasiai
b. Heart disease d. Cherubism
c. Kidney stones 54. Mosaic pattern of bone is seen in
d.All of the above radiographic features of:
a. Fibrous dysplasia

b. Paget’s disease d . Big toe
c. Osteopetrosis 60. Women are more likely to develop gout
d. Osteogenesis imperfect than are men.
55. Alkaline phosphatase increases in: a . True
a . Pagets disease b . False
b . Osteopetrosis 61. The most common treatment for a gout
c . Cherubism attack is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory
d . Fibrous dysplasia drug (NSAID).
56. Paget’s disease of bone is a chronic disease a . True
of the______? b . False
a . Prepubertal skeleton 62. Gout happens when uric acid crystals build
b . Pubertal skeleton up in a joint.
c . Infantile skeleton a . True
d . Adult skeleton b . False
57. The accumulation of this substance in the 63. ____is recommended for considering as
body causes gout. first-line therapy for gout.
a . Blood plasma a. Probenecid
b . WBC b. Allopurinol
c . Uric acid c. Febuxostat
d . Synovial fluid d. Benzbromarone
58. Which of the following is a symptom of 64. It is recommended to avoid ____ for people
gout? with gout
a . Purple or red skin a. Dairy products
b . Severe pain, warmth and swelling in joints b. Alcohol
c . Itching skin, peeling at the site of a gout c. Both (a) and (b)
attack d. None of the above
d . All of these 65. Generally, uric acid is eliminated from the
59. Gout attack commonly occurs at this body through
____site. a. Sweat
a . Knee b. Breathing
b . Foot c. Urine
c . Ankle d. Metabolization of liver

66. Which among the following is not 72. The small uric acid crystals deposited in the
considered as a first – line option for the soft tissues in patients with gout are called:
pharmacological treatment of gout? a. Tophi
a. NSAİDS b. Nodules
b. Aspirin c. Pustules
c. Corticosteroids d. Neurofibromas
d. Oral colchicines 73. Which one of the following drugs cause
67. Which of the following increases a person’s gout?
risk for developing gout ? a. Furosemide
a. High – salt diet b. Piroxicam
b. Asthma c. Diclofenac
c. Family history ( genetics ) d. Naproxen
d. All of the above 74. Gout is a type of arthritis that occurs due to
68. True or false? Vitamin C supplements have the accumulation of ____ in the blood that
a weak uric acid-lowering effect. causes needle-like crystals toForm around
a. True the joints.
b. False a. Purines
69. You may be able to tell when a gout attack b. Creatinine
is coming by: c. Uric acid
a. A tingling feeling in your toe d. Amino acids
b. A headache 75. Identify which patient below is at MOST risk
c. Indigestion for developing gout:*
d. All of the above a. 56 year old male who reports consuming
70. You're more likely to get gout if you have: foods low in purines.
a. Low blood pressure b. 45 year old male with a BMI of 40 who
b. Low cholesterol reports taking hydrochlorothiazide and
c. Diabetes aspirin.
d. Low body weight c. 39 year old female hospitalized with bulimia
71. The affliction of the big toe with gout is that has a BMI of 24.
called podagra. d. 27 year old female with ulcerative colitis.
a. True 76. Osteomyelitis is a bone infection usually
b. False caused by bacteria, mycobacteria, or fungi.

Of the following groups, which of the a. Open fracture
following groups, which group has a lower b. Closed fracture
risk of osteomyelitis? c. Both a and b
a. Adolescents d. Dislocation only
b. Older people 82. The primary treatment for osteomyelitis
c. Those with serious medical conditions usually involves ...
d. Young children a. Surgery
77. Acute osteomyelitis is commonly caused by b. Antibiotics
: c. Physical therapy
a. S aureus d. Rest and immobilization
b. S pyrogen 83. Which of the following people is most at
c. H influenza risk for developing osteomyelitis ?
d. Salmonella a. Athletes
78. Acute osteomyelitis usually begin at : b. Elderly individual
a. Metaphysics c. Individual with diabetes
b. Epiphysis d. Children
c. Diaphysis 84. An infection which spread to bone from
d. None of them blood stream it's called ...
79. Osteomyelitis begin as an inflammation of a. Primary osteomyelitis
bone ; b. Secondary osteomyelitis
a. Cortical bone c. Exogenous osteomyelitis
b. Periosteum d. Heterogeneous osteomyelitis
c. Medullary bone 85. In chronic osteomyelitis ,dead bone tissue
d. Periosteum and inner cortex formed a cavity known as ;
80. Commonest site for acute osteomyelitis in a. Abscess
infants is: b. Sequestrum
a. Hip joint c. Fistula
b. Tibia d. Sinus tract
c. Femur 86. Where does osteomyelitis usually Begin in
d. Radius infants (less then 1 years) ;
81. Osteomyelatis can occur through the which a. Diaphysis
type of fracture ; b. Metaphysics

c. Epiphysis d. All of the above
d. None of them 92. Which of these can help prevent
87. Which part of a joint does osteoarthritis osteoarthritis?
usually affect? a. Maintain a healthy weight
a. Bone b. Use good posture
b. Cartilage c. Start new activities slowly
c. Tendon d. All of the above
d. All of the above 93. Surgery can sometimes be done to treat
88. Which of these makes it more likely to get osteoarthritis.
osteoarthritis? a. True
a. Young age b. False
b. Excess body weight 94. What are symptoms of osteoarthritis?
c. Too little body weight a. Joint pain
d. Back pain b. Joint stiffness
e. None of the above c. Joint swelling
89. When a person gets osteoarthritis of the d. All of the above
hip, where else might the pain show up? 95. What joints are most often affected by
a. Arm osteoarthritis?
b. Groin a. Hands
c. Feet b. Hips
d. Shoulders c. Both hands and hips
90. How can an X-ray help a healthcare d. Shoulders
provider diagnose osteoarthritis? 96. What are risk factors for developing
a. It can show cartilage loss osteoarthritis?
b. It can show bone damage a. High blood pressure
c. It can show bone spurs b. Weight loss
d. All of the above c. Age over 55
91. Which of these medicines is used to treat d. Steroid use
osteoarthritis? 97. What are home remedies that can ease
a. Aspirin osteoarthritis symptoms?
b. Acetaminophen a. Weight loss
c. Corticosteroid injections b. Shoe inserts

c. Fish oil c. Sensation of bubbles in the bone
d. Acupuncture d. Sensation of piercing under the skin
98. Types of surgery used to treat osteoarthritis 103. At what age do you have the most bone
include… density?
a. Realignment a. 20 year's
b. Fusion b. 30 year's
c. Replacement c. 40 year's
d. All of the above d. 50 year's
99. What is the best exercise for osteoarthritis? 104. How many women ages 50 and older
a. Yoga have at least 1 broken bone because of
b. Running brittle bones?
c. Basketball a. 75%
d. Boxing b. 50%
100. What are the best foods to eat for c. 35%
osteoarthritis? d. 25%
a. Citrus fruits 105. When do men lose bone at the same
b. Meat rate as women?
c. Bread a. Age 55
d. Cookies b. Age 65
101. Osteoarthritis affecting the distal inter c. Age 75
phalangeal joints (i.e. First finger joint from d. Age 85
the finger tip) is known as: 106. Which of these makes it more likely
a. Bouchard's nodes that you will get osteoporosis?
b. Richard's nodes a. Drinking too much alcohol
c. Both A & B b. Family history
d. Heberden's nodes c. Smoking
102. Bony crepitus' which is heard on d. All of the above
moving the knee affected with 107. Which test is used to screen for
osteoarthritis is a: osteoporosis?
a. Sensation of bone rubbing against a. Blood test
bone b. DEXA
b. Sensation of weakness in the bone c. Urine test

d. All of the above b . Estrogen supply
108. What is another medical term for c . Calcitonin supply
osteoporosis? 114. Whish of this foods are a great source
a. Porous bones of calcium
b. Porous joints a . Fish
c. Inflammatory joint b . Dairy products
d. Infectious bone c . All of the above
109. How is bone strength measured? d . Only A
a. Bone weight test 115. What is the primary cause of
b. Bone mineral density test osteoporosis in humans?
c. Bone structure test a. Genetics
d. Bone gram test b. Lack of physical activity
110. What happens in a person affected by c. Nutritional deficiencies
osteoporosis d. Hormonal imbalances
a. Bones get dense and thick 116. What is the difference between
b. Bones get fragile and porous osteopenia and osteoporosis?
c. Bones change shape a. Osteopenia is a milder form of
d. None of them osteoporosis
111. The leading cause of osteoporosis is the b. Osteopenia is a more severe form of
lack of hormones - estrogen in women and osteoporosis
androgen in men. c. Osteopenia and osteoporosis are the
a. True same condition
b. False 117. To absorb calcium, your body needs
112. Women are more likely to be affected this:
by osteoporosis. a. Vitamin D
a . False b. Vitamin C
b . Affects c. Potassium
c . True 118. Which is the best exercise for your
d . Equally bones?
113. The best mode of treatment of a. Bicycling
osteoporosis in women is through b. Walking
a . Calcium supply c. Swimming

119. About 20% of people with osteoporosis a. Joint pain, tenderness, redness, and
are _____. swelling
a. Men b. Loss of joint range of motion
b. Twins c. Limping
c. children d. All of the above
d. adult 126. Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is different
120. In patients with rheumatoid arthritis, from some other forms of arthritis because
which of the following predicts a worse it…
prognosis? a. Is more painful than other forms
a. Ainterferongamma b. Occurs below the waist
b. Granulocyte-macrophage colony- c. Is symmetrical, affecting the right and
stimulating factor (GM-CSF) left sides of the body
c. Anti-CCP D. d. Generally occurs above the waist
d. Tumor necrosis factors (TNF) 127. People with rheumatoid arthritis
121. RA is an autoimmune disease. experience the most stiffness at ....time
a. True a. Morning
b. False b. Night
122. Having RA may raise your risk for c. After activity
osteoporosis. d. At rest
a. True 128. Surgery is the only way to treat RA.
b. False a. True
123. RA is 2 to 3 times more common in b. False
women than in men. 129. Rheumatoid arthritis is:
a. True a. An inflammatory condition
b. False b. An infectious disease
124. RA is the most common type of c. A condition that only affects women
arthritis.1 d. A condition that only affects men
a. False 130. The joint(s) most commonly affected in
b. True rheumatoid arthritis are:
125. What are early signs and symptoms of a. The atlas
rheumatoid arthritis (RA)? b. The hands, feet and wrists
c. The spine

d. The patella a. Osteoid osteoma
131. The most common complication of b. Ewing tumor
rheumatoid arthritis is: c. Osteochondroma
a. Loss of hair d. Chondromyxoid fibroma
b. Amenorrhoea 137. A malignant cancer that arises from the
c. Carpal tunnel syndrome cartilage of bones is called:
d. HIV a. Osteosarcoma
132. Regarding rheumatoid arthritis (RA), the b. Chondrosarcoma
incidence c. Enchondroma
a. A is higher in men. d. Malignant melanoma
b. Decreases with age. 138. People with ...... Disease are at an
c. Is equal in men and women. increased risk for bone cancer.
d. Is approximately 53 per 100,000 for a. Gout
women annually, and about half that b. Osteoporosis
for men. c. Paget disease
133. Which laboratory finding is NOT often d. Osteomyelitis
seen in patients with RA? 139. Which of the following bone tumors is
a. Thrombocytosis considered benign?
b. Normocyctic normochromic anemia a. Osteosarcoma
c. C-reactive protein level <0.5 pg/ml b. Chondrosarcoma
d. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti- c. Osteochondroma
CCP) antibody d. Ewing sarcoma
134. Primary bone cancers are the most 140. What is the most common primary
common types of bone cancer. malignant bone tumor in children?
a. True a. Osteosarcoma
b. False b. Ewing sarcoma
135. Osteosarcoma is a type of primary bone c. Chondrosarcoma
cancer. d. Fibrosarcoma
a. True 141. Which imaging technique is the best
b. False choice for evaluating bone tumors?
136. Which of these is a malignant bone a. Ultrasound
tumor? b. MRI

c. X-ray c. Osteosarcoma
d. CT scan d. Enchondroma
142. A "sunburst" appearance on X-ray is 147. What is the most common primary
most characteristic of which bone tumor? benign bone tumor?
a. Osteochondroma a. Enchondroma
b. Osteosarcoma b. Osteochondroma
c. Chondrosarcoma c. Osteoid osteoma
d. Ewing sarcoma d. Chondroblastoma
143. Which bone tumor arises from 148. When benign tumors don't have any
cartilage-producing cells? characteristics of growth and progression
a. Osteosarcoma it's come in which stage ;
b. Ewing sarcoma a. Stage l: Latent
c. Chondrosarcoma b. Stage ll: Active
d. Giant cell tumor c. Stagelll: aggressive
144. What is the most common site for 149. When tumors involved in intra and
osteosarcoma? extra compartment it's comes in which
a. Femur stage of malignant tumor ?
b. Tibia a. lla
c. Humerus b. llb
d. Pelvis c. la
145. Which bone tumor is commonly found d. stage lll
at the epiphysis of long bones in young 150. The causative of tuberculosis is
adults? a. Virus
a. Chondroblastoma b. Bacterium
b. Ewing sarcoma c. Malnutrition
c. Osteosarcoma d. Protozoan
d. Osteochondroma 151. For Tuberculosis, the drugs used to
146. Which of the following bone tumors combat it are
commonly involves the medullary cavity of a. Streptomycin, Pyrazinamide
long bones? b. Isoniazid, Rifampicin
a. Osteoid osteoma c. Both (a) and (b)
b. Giant cell tumor d. None of these

152. In which of the following ways can bone c. Tuberculin test (mantoux test)
and joint infections occur? d. Bone biopsy
a. Contiguous spread 158. Which age group people most
b. Direct inoculation commonly affected by bone tuberculosis;
c. Secondary seeding from bacteremia a. Infants
d. All of the above b. Children and adolescents
153. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a pathogen c. young adult
frequently implicated in bone and joint d. Older adult
infections. 159. When the tuberculosis effect the spine
a. True then what you called this in medical terms ;
b. False a. Osteapenia
154. What is bone tuberculosis ... b. Intervetebrate
a. A type of parasitic infection of bone c. Pott's disease
b. A type of bacterial infection of bone d. Paget disease
c. A type of cancer affecting the bone 160. What is the main goal of surgery in
d. None of them treatment for bone tuberculosis is ..
155. Which part of skeletal system is mostly a. To induce joint inflammation
commonly affected by bone tuberculosis ; b. To relieve pain
a. Skull c. To remove demage tissue and stabilize
b. Spine(vertebral column) the spine
c. pelvis d. To encourage bed rest
d. Hand and feet 161. The most common complication of
156. The primary symptom of bone bone tuberculosis is ;
tuberculosis are ... a. Shock
a. High fever b. Spinal deformity and neurological
b. Joint pain and stiffness defect
c. High fever c. Infection
d. Severe headache d. None of them
157. The mostly diagnostic test for bone 162. Examples of endochondral ossification
tuberculosis are .. are:
a. Blood test a) Parts of occipital
b. Urine culture b) Long bones

c) Temporal bones 168. Which one of the following is connected
d) Sutures by ligament?
163. There are how many bones in adult a) Bone to bone
body? b) Muscle to bone
a) 306 c) Muscle to muscle
b) 270 d) Nerves to bone
c) 206 169. There are how many phases of bone
d) 600 fracture healing?
164. Ribs, scapula and skull are examples of a) 2
...... Bones. b) 3
a) Flat c) 4
b) Irregular d) 5
c) Long 170. Only flexion and extension occur in
d) Short which joint?
165. The part of long bones that takes part in a) Ball and socket joint
the growth of bone is; b) Hing joint
a) Diaphysis c) Pivot joint
b) Metaphysis d) Plane joint
c) Epiphysis 171. Spongy bone contain......?
d) None of the above a) Yellow bone marrow
166. What is the formal term for a broken b) Red bone marrow
bone? c) Fibers
a) Strain d) All
b) Sprain 172. A partial or complete tearing of the
c) Dislocation ligaments that hold various bones together
d) Fracture to form a joint is called.....?
167. The most active bone cells are......? a) Dislocation
a) Osteocytes b) Strain
b) Osteoblasts c) Sprain
c) Osteoclasts d) Fracture
d) Lacunae 173. All of the following are the most
commonly sprained joints Except?

a) Ankle c) Carpel tunnel syndrome
b) Knee d) None
c) Intercarpal 177. A nurse is writing a care plan for a
d) Wrist patient admitted to the emergency
174. More severe pain (Moderate) especially department (ED) with an open fracture. The
with weight bearing; swelling and bleeding nurse will assign priority to what nursing
into joint; some loss of function is diagnosis for a patient with an open
considering which grade of sprain? fracture of the radius?
a) Grade I a) Risk for Ineffective Role Performance
b) Grade II b) Risk for Infection
c) Grade III c) Risk for Pre operative Positioning Injury
d) Grade IV d) None of the above
175. A pulling or tearing of a muscle, a 178. Radiographs of a boys upper arm show
tendon, or both is known as; that the humerus appears to be fractured
a) Strain on one side and slightly bent on the other.
b) Sprain This diagnostic result suggests what type of
c) Compound Fracture fracture?
d) Green stick Fracture a) Compound
176. A patient tells the nurse that he has b) Simple
pain and numbness to his thumb, first c) Greenstick
finger, and second finger of the right hand. d) Comminuted
The patient is employed as an auto 179. A fracture in which the bone is broken
mechanic, and that pain is increasing while and shattered into more than two
working. This may indicate what health fragments is called?
problem? a) Transverse Fracture
a) Impingement syndrome b) Complete Fracture
b) Paget Disease
c) Comminuted Fracture a) Vascular injury
d) Green Stick Fracture b) Nerve injury
180. Which of the following is not a c) Compartment syndrome
complication of fractures? d) Stroke

181. A patient with kyphosis is scheduled for b) Compound
dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) c) Impacted
testing. The nurse will plan to; d) Transverse
a) Start an intravenous line 183. A patient has sustained a long bone
b) Screen the patient for shellfish allergies fracture and the nurse is preparing the
c) Teach the patient that DEXA is noninvasive patients care plan. Which of the following
d) Give an oral sedative should the nurse include in the care plan?
182. A nurse admits a patient who has a a) Administer vitamin D and calcium
fracture of the nose that has resulted in a supplements as ordered.
skin tear and involvement of the mucous b) Monitor temperature and pulses of the
membranes of the nasal passages. The affected extremity.
orthopedic nurse is aware that this c) Perform passive range of motion exercises
description likely indicates which type of as tolerated.
fracture? d) Administer corticosteroids as ordered.
a) Compression
184. which longest bone commonly c) Massaged the fracture area
experience the fracture ; d) Ignore the area
a) Humerus 187. Infants and child are most commonly
b) Spine suffer from which type of bone injury?
c) Radial a) Oblique
d) Femur b) Open
185. Which one of the following a common c) Compound Fracture
symptom of soft tissue injury?? d) Greenstick Fracture
a) Fever 188. Which surgical procedure is used to
b) Rapid breathing relieve the pressure on the median nerve?
c) Swelling and bruising a) Open reduction and internal fixation
d) Hearing loss b) Carpal tunnel release
186. Which action performed when you c) Arthroplasty
suspect fracture along with Soft tissue d) Knee replacement
injury?? 189. What is known as the fibrous
a) Splint the fracture membrane covering the bone?
b) Apply heat immediately a) Periosteum

b) Epiphysis 195. What is the underlying mechanism that
c) Diaphysis leads to Gout?
d) Medullary Cavity a) Excessive intake of vitamin C
190. Which type of bone fracture that is b) Accumulation of uric acid crystals in joints
caused by a disease which leads to the c) Low blood sugar levels
weakness of the bone? d) Overproduction of red blood cells
a) Compound fracture 196. Which dietary factor is known to
b) Colle’s fracture contribute to elevated uric acid levels in
c) Pathological fracture Gout?
d) Greenstick fracture a) High intake of fruits
191. What is the purpose of traction? b) Low intake of water
a) Increase the muscle spasm c) Excessive alcohol consumption
b) Reduce the infection d) Lean protein consumption
c) Immobilize the fractured part 197. What is the recommended treatment
d) All of the above for an acute Gout attack?
192. An open fracture is a fracture that----? a) Antibiotics
a) Results in multiple pieces of bone b) Antiviral medication
b) Occurs when a broken bone pierces c) Non steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
through the skin (NSAIDs)
c) Ruptures a blood vessel d) Insulin therapy
d) Damages a nerve 198. Which demographic is more prone to
193. What is the primary cause of Gout? developing Gout?
a) Bacterial infection a) Children
b) Genetic predisposition b) Young adults
c) Viral infection c) Middle-aged and older adults
d) Environmental pollution d) Elderly individuals
194. Which of the following joints is most 199. What is the term for the deposits of uric
commonly affected by Gout? acid crystals that form in the joints during
a) Knee Gout?
b) Elbow a) Amyloid plaques
c) Hip b) Atherosclerotic plaques
d) Big toe c) Tophi

d) Granulomas 205. How does obesity contribute to the
200. What role does genetics play in the development of Gout?
development of Gout? a) It reduces uric acid production
a) No genetic influence b) It increases uric acid excretion
b) Moderate genetic influence c) It is not associated with Gout
c) Strong genetic influence d) It leads to elevated uric acid levels
d) Genetic influence only in women 206. What is the role of NSAIDs in the
201. Which medical condition is commonly treatment of Gout?
associated with Gout? a) Lowering cholesterol levels
a) Hypertension b) Relieving pain and inflammation
b) Asthma c) Controlling blood sugar levels
c) Diabetes d) Strengthening bones
d) Osteoporosis 207. What lifestyle advice is commonly given
202. What lifestyle modification can help to Gout patients to prevent flare-ups?
prevent Gout attacks? a) Avoiding high-purine foods
a) Smoking b) Increasing alcohol consumption
b) Regular exercise c) Limiting water intake
c) Sedentary behavior d) Engaging in excessive physical activity
d) Excessive caffeine intake 208. What is the primary affected tissue in
203. What is the normal range for serum uric Paget's disease?
acid levels in the blood? a) Liver
a) Below 2 mg/dL b) Bone
b) 3.5 to 5.5 mg/dL c) Kidney
c) 7 to 9 mg/dL d) Skin
d) Above 12 mg/dL 209. Which of the following is a common
204. Which of the following medications is symptom of Paget's disease?
commonly used for long-term management a) Chest pain
of Gout? b) Joint pain
a) Antibiotics c) Headache
b) Corticosteroids d) Abdominal pain
c) Colchicine 210. What imaging technique is commonly
d) Allopurinol used to diagnose Paget's disease?

a) CT scan c) Osteosclerosis
b) X-ray d) Osteomalacia
c) MRI 216. Which of the following is a potential
d) Ultrasound complication of Paget's disease?
211. Which bone is most frequently involved a) Hypertension
in Paget's disease? b) Pathological fractures
a) Femur c) Diabetes
b) Radius d) Asthma
c) Spine 217. What role do bisphosphonates play in
d) Tibia the management of Paget's disease?
212. What is the primary goal of treatment a) Antifungal treatment
for Paget's disease? b) Antiresorptive therapy
a) Pain relief c) Immunosuppression
b) Cure the underlying cause d) Analgesic medication
c) Prevent complications 218. Which of the following is not a form of
d) Improve joint flexibility Paget's disease?
213. What biochemical marker is often a) Monostotic Paget's
elevated in Paget's disease? b) Polyostotic Paget's
a) Creatinine c) Focal Paget's
b) Alkaline phosphatase d) Polyarticular Paget's
c) Hemoglobin 219. What is the most common presenting
d) Cholesterol symptom of Paget's disease?
214. Which age group is most commonly a) Fatigue
affected by Paget's disease? b) Bone pain
a) Children c) Headache
b) Adolescents d) Shortness of breath
c) Young adults 220. Which of the following is a risk factor
d) Elderly for developing Paget's disease?
215. In Paget's disease, what term is used to a) Low calcium intake
describe the excessive bone formation? b) Genetic predisposition
a) Osteoporosis c) Sedentary lifestyle
b) Osteoclastoma d) Smoking

221. What is the characteristic appearance a) Right arm
of bones affected by Paget's disease on X- b) Left leg
ray? c) Lower leg
a) Decreased bone density d) Left arm
b) Bowing deformities 227. What is a major consideration in
c) Osteolytic lesions selecting the level of amputation?
d) Pencil-in-cup deformity a) Patient's hair color
222. Which hormone imbalance is associated b) Proximity to the hospital
with Paget's disease? c) Blood type
a) Hyperthyroidism d) Vascular and neurological status
b) Hypothyroidism 228. What is a phantom limb sensation?
c) Hyperparathyroidism a) Sensation experienced in a removed body
d) Hypoparathyroidism part
223. What is amputation? b) Tingling in the fingers
a) Surgical removal of a limb or part of a limb c) Temporary numbness after surgery
b) Orthopedic joint replacement d) A type of prosthetic device
c) Physical therapy technique 229. Which medical specialist typically
d) None of the above performs amputation surgery?
224. Which of the following is a common a) Cardiologist
reason for amputation? b) Gastroenterologist
a) Arthritis c) Orthopedic surgeon
b) Diabetes complications d) Dermatologist
c) Migraines 230. What is the purpose of a prosthetic
d) Allergies limb?
225. What is the primary goal of amputation a) Cosmetic enhancement
surgery? b) Functional replacement
a) Pain reduction c) Psychological support
b) Limb preservation d) All of the above
c) Restoration of function 231. What is a common complication after
d) Aesthetic improvement amputation surgery?
226. Which limb is most commonly a) Enhanced sensory perception
amputated? b) Phantom limb pain

c) Improved blood circulation b. Assessing mental health and coping
d) Reduced joint mobility abilities
232. Which factor is crucial for successful c. Predicting the weather
rehabilitation post-amputation? d. Evaluating taste preferences
a) Avoiding any physical activity 237. Which of the following is a key aspect of
b) Early mobilization and physical therapy long-term care for amputees?
c) Prolonged bed rest a. Ignoring psychological well-being
d) Dependence on pain medications b. Regular prosthetic adjustments
233. What is the purpose of the residual limb c. Avoiding any physical activity
bandaging after amputation? d. Rare follow-up appointments
a) Preventing blood circulation 238. What is the primary cause of
b) Enhancing phantom limb sensations osteomyelitis?
c) Reducing swelling and shaping the limb a) Viral infection
d) Improving joint flexibility b) Fungal infection
234. When is a revision amputation c) Bacterial infection
considered? d) Parasitic infection
a. Routine procedure after every amputation 239. Which of the following is a common
b. When there is infection or healing issues pathogen associated with acute
c. Only in cases of cosmetic dissatisfaction hematogenous osteomyelitis in children?
d. Never, once amputation is done, it cannot a) Staphylococcus aureus
be revised b) Escherichia coli
235. What is heterotopic ossification in the c) Streptococcus pneumoniae
context of amputation? d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
a. Excessive hair growth on the residual limb 240. What is the most common route of
b. Formation of bone in soft tissues infection leading to osteomyelitis?
c. Development of a secondary phantom limb a) Direct trauma
d. Allergic reaction to prosthetic materials b) Blood borne spread
236. What is the role of preoperative c) Lymphatic spread
psychological assessment in amputation d) Airborne transmission
cases? 241. Which imaging technique is often used
a. Determining the patient's favorite color to diagnose osteomyelitis?
a) Electrocardiogram (ECG)

b) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) b) Lower extremity
c) Positron emission tomography (PET) c) Both extremities equally
d) Electroencephalogram (EEG) d) Spine
242. What is the initial treatment of choice 247. Which laboratory test is often elevated
for acute osteomyelitis? in the presence of osteomyelitis?
a) Surgical debridement a) Serum creatinine
b) Intravenous antibiotics b) White blood cell count
c) Physical therapy c) Hemoglobin level
d) Analgesics d) Blood glucose level
243. Chronic osteomyelitis is characterized 248. The term "sequestrum" in the context
by: of osteomyelitis refers to:
a) Rapid onset of symptoms a) Infected bone segment
b) Persistent inflammation b) Scar tissue
c) Exclusively affects children c) Joint inflammation
d) Localized infection d) Nerve damage
244. What is a common complication of 249. What is the primary goal of surgical
untreated or inadequately treated intervention in chronic osteomyelitis?
osteomyelitis? a) Complete bone removal
a) Hypertension b) Bone grafting
b) Renal failure c) Infection control and bone preservation
c) Bone deformities d) Joint replacement
d) Vision loss 250. Which population is more susceptible
245. Which bone is commonly affected in to developing vertebral osteomyelitis?
vertebral osteomyelitis? a) Children
a) Femur b) Older adults
b) Tibia c) Adolescents
c) Spine d) Pregnant women
d) Humerus 251. How is chronic osteomyelitis typically
246. In diabetic individuals, which extremity diagnosed?
is more commonly affected by a) Blood culture
osteomyelitis? b) Skin biopsy
a) Upper extremity c) Bone biopsy

d) Urine analysis d) Salmonella
252. What is the recommended duration of 257. Osteoarthritis occurs as a result of:
antibiotic therapy for acute osteomyelitis? a) High levels of estrogen in older women
a) 3-5 days b) Low levels of estrogen in older women
b) 7-10 days c) Gradual degeneration of the movable
c) 14-21 days joints, due to wear and tear of the articular
d) 30 days cartilage
253. High level of uric acid in the blood can d) Deficiency of calcium in young people
result in; 258. Osteoarthritis affecting the distal inter
a) An autoimmune response phalangeal joints (i.e. first finger joint from
b) Paget disease the finger tip) is known as:
c) Gout disease a) Richard's node
d) Osteoarthritis b) Bouchard's nodes
254. The first step performed during c) Heberden's nodes
amputation is; d) Both a & b
a) Cut the sharp and rough edges of the bone 259. Osteoarthritis is characterized by the
b) Ligate the supplying artery and vein breakdown of which joint component?
c) Transect the muscles a) Synovial fluid
d) Saw the bone b) Cartilage
255. A condition in which excessive c) Ligaments
breakdown and formation of bone tissue d) Tendons
occurs and disorganized pattern of bones 260. Which age group is most commonly
developed is called ; affected by osteoarthritis?
a) Gout disease a. Children
b) Osteomyelites b. Adolescents
c) Paget disease c. Young adults
d) Osteoarthritis d. Older adults
256. Acute osteomyelitis is commonly 261. Which of the following is a common
caused by? symptom of osteoarthritis?
a) S-pyogenes a. Rash
b) H. Influenza b. Joint swelling
c) Staph Aurous c. Chest pain

d. Vision changes b. Maintaining a sedentary lifestyle
262. Which lifestyle factor is NOT typically c. Engaging in regular exercise
associated with an increased risk of d. Smoking cessation
osteoarthritis? 267. What surgical intervention may be
a. Obesity considered for severe cases of
b. Physical inactivity osteoarthritis when conservative
c. Smoking treatments fail?
d. Poor nutrition a. Appendectomy
263. What imaging technique is commonly b. Knee arthroscopy
used to diagnose osteoarthritis? c. Heart bypass surgery
a. CT scan d. Joint replacement surgery
b. MRI 268. Which weather condition is often
c. X-ray associated with increased joint pain in
d. Ultrasound individuals with osteoarthritis?
264. Which of the following medications is a. Sunny and warm
often recommended for managing pain in b. Rainy and humid
osteoarthritis? c. Windy and cold
a. Antibiotics d. Foggy and mild
b. Corticosteroids 269. What dietary component is believed to
c. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs have a positive impact on joint health in
(NSAIDs) osteoarthritis?
d. Antidepressants a. Caffeine
265. What role does physical therapy play in b. Omega-3 fatty acids
the management of osteoarthritis? c. Saturated fats
a. Preventing the condition d. Processed sugars
b. Replacing damaged joints 270. What is the main difference between
c. Managing pain and improving function osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis?
d. Administering medication a. The affected joints
266. Which joint protective measures are b. The age of onset
commonly recommended for individuals c. The involvement of the immune system
with osteoarthritis? d. The cause of inflammation
a. Avoiding physical activity

271. Which of the following activities is
generally considered low-impact and
suitable for individuals with osteoarthritis?
a. Running
b. Swimming
c. Basketball
d. High-intensity interval training (HIIT)
272. What is the primary cause of
osteoarthritis?
a) Autoimmune response
b) Genetic factors
c) Bacterial infection
d) Viral infection

Unit-2 Endocrine Nursing
1. Action of parathormone in the human body d. ADH and growth hormone.

A. Decreases blood sodium level 6. Which if the following gland which can be
B. Increases blood sodium level classified as an endocrine and an exocrine
C. Decreases blood calcium level gland (Hetrocrine ) ?
D. Increases blood calcium level A. Thyroid.
2. Pituitary hormone triggering the male B. Thymus.
testes to generate sperm and in females, C. Pancreas.
triggering folliculardevelopment on a D. Pituitary.
monthly basis is 7. Which hormones of the adrenal glands
A. Prolactin considered as the sex hormones from the
B. Growth hormone gonads?
C. Follicle-stimulating hormone A. Mineralocorticoids, such as aldosterone
D. Luteinizing hormone B. Glucocorticoids, such as cortisol
3. which of the following is not considered to C. Gonadocorticoids, such as the androgens
be the part of an endocrine gland D. Epinephrine and norepinephrine
A. Adrenal 8. The hormones which suppressed or
B. Pituitary deactivate the Growth hormone ?
C. Lacrimal A. GHRIH
D. Thyroid B. Somatostatin
4. Calcium level in the blood is regulated by C. GHIH
the: D. Both B & C
A. Thyroid. 9. Which of the following glands is known as
B. Parathyroid. the ” Master gland”?
C. Posterior pituitary. A. Adrenal
D. A and B. B. Thyroid
5. The posterior pituitary stores and releases: C. Pancreas
a. Growth hormone and prolactin. D. Pituitary
b. Prolactin and oxytocin. 10. ............. cell's of Islets secret insulin
c. Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (adh or hormone ?
vasopressin) A. Alpha cell

B. Beta cell 15. Hypopituitarism caused hyposecretion of
C. Gamma cell FSH so which clinical symptoms May arise
D. Both A and blc of HypoFSH ......
11. Which of the following are involved in A) Late puberty
pituitary gland disorders except ? B) Impotence
A) Anterior pituitary C) infertility
B) Posterior pituitary D) Both A & C
C) Hypothalamus 16. Decreased level of vasopressin (ADH) arise
D) Medulla oblongata blc of posterior hypopituitarism and it may
12. Which of the following consider to be the caused ....
most common cause of hypopituitarism? A) Diabetes insipduis
a. Hyperplasia B) Decreased urine output
b. Benign tumour(pituary adenoma) C) Increased BP
c. Malignant tumour D) SIADH
d. Lesions in the hypothalamus 17. When the Growth hormone is insufficient
13. For patients with progressive involvement blc of Pituitary tumor it's May arise which
by a pituitary tumor, which of the following abnormalcondition at adult stage ......?
therapeuticapproaches is recommended? A) dwarfism
(a) Conventional gamma irradiation followed B) Gigantism
by proton beam therapy C) Acromicria
(b) Accelerated protons (heavy particle D) Acromegaly
radiation) 18. Tick the right option ; When chronic
(c) Surgery followed by radiation therapy insufficiency of Pituitary gland functions
(d) Radiation therapy alone occur and it maylead to atrophy of many
14. Which disorder is associated with visceral this condition Called .......
overproduction of prolactin ? A) Acromicria
A) Hyperthyroidism B) B) Cushing syndrome
B) Hyperpigmentation C) C) prolacteremia
C) Hyperprolactemia D) D) Simmonds disease
D) Addison's disease 19. The most rare situation and in which the
total absence of all Pituitary secretion occured
it's

called ........? 24. Acromegaly is most commonly caused due
A. Hypopituitarism to increase secretion of ;
B. panhypopituitarism
A) TSH
C. chromophobe
D. None of them B) ACTH
20. Gigantism and acromegaly are due to
C) STH (Somatotropin Hormone)
_________
D) Thyroxin
A. Hyperthyroidism
25. The most appropriate medication used for
B. Hyperpituitarism
treatment of acromegaly ;
C. Hypopituitarism
A) Bisphonate
D. Hypothyroidism
B) Somatostatin analog
21. The word Acromegaly derived from which
C) Anti_androngen analog
word ;
D) Thyroid hormone analog
A. Latin
26. After how many year's the Acromegaly is
B. Spanish
diagnosed;
C. Greek
A) One year
D. Italian
B) Seven to eight year's
22. The pt diagnosis with hyperglycemia and the
C) Five years
nurse note that's she has a large hand's and
D) Ten years
hoarse
27. Which disease occure most commonly when
voice,which of these is possible cause of
the growth hormone hypersecretion
hyperglycemia ...
occuredafterthe fusion of epiphysis bone..
A. Diabetes insipduis
A) gigantism
B. Cushing syndrome
B) Acromegaly
C. Acromegaly
C) Addison
D. Type _2 diabetes
D) Cushing
23. The excessive secretion of somatotropin
28. Click on right option which one consider the
indicate which abnormal condition ;
best and suitable surgical management
A. Cretinism
foracromegaly ;
B. dwarfism
A) Transphenoidal _hypophysecetomy
C. Acromegaly
B) Hysterectomy
D. Addison
C) Cystectomy
D) Radiation

29. The condition associated with the onset of B. Place the client in low Trendelenburg
hypersecretion of growth hormone in adults is position
knownas ; C. Monitor the client’s blood sugar
a) Gigantism D. Encourage the client to cough
b) Dwarfism 34. At which age most commonly the gigantism
c) Acromegaly is manifest ;
d) None of the above A. Adulthood
30. Which of the following factors determine B. Older age
whether a patient develops acromegaly or C. Infancy
gigantism D. Childhood
A. Sex 35. All of the following are clinical
B. Age at onset of the tumor manifestations of gigantism except ;
C. Amount of available calcium A) Increase stature
D. Degree of function of the tumour B) Decreased appetite
31. All of the following symptoms associated C) Increase height
with acromegaly except ; D) Both a and c
A. Excessive sweating 36. What are the potential complications of
B. Enlarged hands and feets untreated gigantism ;
C. Joint pain A. Diabetes
D. Weight loss B. Heart problem
32. What is the primary symptoms of C. Arthritis
acromegaly ? D. All of the above
A) Short stature 37) What is the role of somatostatin analog in
B) Enlarged hands and feets gigantism treatment;
C) Excessive sweating A) Control the sugar level
D) Weight loss B) Inhibit the growth hormone
33. The nurse is caring for a client with C) Stimulate growth hormone
acromegaly. Following a transphenoidal D) None of them
hypophysectomy, the 38) Which one is usual and primary cause of
nurse should: gigantism ;
A. Suction the mouth and pharynx every hour A) Pituary tumor
B) thyroid dysfunction

C) genetic mutation D) 4 feet & 1inch(124 cm )
D) dietary deficiency 44) Which of the following is NOT a common
39) Which one is the typical age of onset for cause of dwarfism?
gigantism ; a) Achondroplasia
A) childhood b) Turner syndrome
B) adolescence c) Gigantism
C) adulthood. d) Hypopituitarism
D) older age 45) What is the average height for males with
40) How to differentiate gigantism from dwarfism?
acromegaly ; a) 5 feet 6 inches
A) Gigantism Occur before the closer of b) 4 feet 10 inches
epiphysial flat c) 5 feet 2 inches
B) Acromegaly after the closer of epiphysis d) 4 feet 3 inch(131 cm)
C) At adulthood stage 46) The dwarfism condition specifically
D) Both a and B correct characterized by .....
41) What is another name for dwarfism? A) Blc of problems in the pituary gland
A) Anacondriam B) Excessive growth
B) Growth hormone deficiency or pituary C) Slowed or delayed Growth
deficiency D) Both A & B
C) Achondroplasia 47) How does hormonal treatment contribute
D) Both B & C to the management of certain types of
42) What are the most appropriate clinical dwarfism ;
symptoms of dwarfism? A) It regulated excessive growth
A) Late puberty B) It regulated bone density
B) Shortness in height C) It compensate for growth hormone
C) Slower growth deficiency
D) All of them D) Both a and B
43) What is the average height for a female 48) A person with dwarfism may come to the
individual with dwarfism hospital so how the physician manged it
A) below four feet through
B) 4 feet and 4 inches medical management .
C) 4 feet

A) Administered synthetic Growth B) Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
medication C) Gestational diabetes insipidus
B) performing the physical examination and D) Dipsogenic diabetes insipidus
measurements of weight, arm's and leg's 52) Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus occurs
C) prednisolone acetate administration when:
D) counsel the pt for performing the A) The kidneys are unable to respond
physical activity properly to vasopressin.
49) A couple is concerned about their child's B) There's an overproduction of
growth and suspects dwarfism. Which of the vasopressin.
followinggenetic factors is commonly associated C) The pituitary gland produces too little
with dwarfism vasopressin.
a. Autosomal Dominant Inheritance D) It develops during pregnancy due to
b. Autosomal Recessive Inheritance placental enzymes.
c. X-Linked Inheritance 53) Gestational diabetes insipidus is most likely
d. Mitochondrial Inheritance to occur due to:
50) Dwarfism occured when there is :... A) Genetic mutations affecting the
a. Over secretion of growth hormone vasopressin receptors.
b. Under secretion of somatostatin B) An autoimmune destruction of
c. Under secretion of somatotropin vasopressin-producing cells.
d. All of these C) Enzymes produced by the placenta
51) Diabetes insipidus is a chronic condition in destroying vasopressin.
which the deficiency of ADH occured is D) Lithium therapy during pregnancy.
primarily 54) Dipsogenic diabetes insipidus is different
characterized by: from other forms because it is caused by:
A) Polydipsia (Excessive thirst) A) Damage to the kidneys' filtering units.
B) polyuria ( large volumes of urine) B) Excessive intake of fluids due to
C) Frequent episodes of hypoglycemia abnormal thirst mechanisms.
D) Both A & B C) A tumor in the pituitary gland.
51) Which type of diabetes insipidus is caused D) Medications that affect kidney function.
by a deficiency in the production of vasopressin 55) A patient presents with polyuria and
fromthe hypothalamus or pituitary gland? polydipsia. Laboratory tests show low urine
A) Central diabetes insipidus osmolality andhigh serum osmolality. Which of

the following diagnostic tests would be most B) Mutation in the V2 receptor or
appropriate todifferentiate between central aquaporin-2 water channel
and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus? C) Benign tumor in the pituitary gland
A) Serum glucose test D) Excessive intake of fluids
B) Water deprivation test followed by 59) Which symptom is common to both Central
vasopressin administration and Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus?
C) Urine specific gravity test A) Polyuria
D) Serum potassium level B) Glycosuria
56) After conducting a water deprivation test, a C) Ketonuria
patient suspected of having diabetes insipidus D) Proteinuria
showsno significant change in urine osmolality 60) The definitive diagnostic test for
but responds to administered desmopressin differentiating between Central and
with anincrease in urine osmolality. How would Nephrogenic Diabetes
you interpret these results? Insipidus is:
A) The patient has central diabetes A) Fasting blood glucose test
insipidus. B) Water deprivation test followed by
B) The patient has nephrogenic diabetes vasopressin administration
insipidus. C) Urinalysis for protein and glucose
C) The patient does not have diabetes D) Serum electrolyte measurement
insipidus. 61) Which treatment option is typically effective
D) The patient has psychogenic polydipsia. for Central Diabetes Insipidus but not for
57) What is the primary cause of Central Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus?
Diabetes Insipidus? A) Oral rehydration therapy
A) Kidney's inability to respond to ADH B) Desmopressin (DDAVP)
B) Damage to the pituary or hypothalamus C) Thiazide diuretics
due to tumor ,head injury or infection D) Low-salt diet
C) High levels of calcium in the blood 62) Which of the following conditions is most
D) Use of certain medications like lithium likely to lead to SIADH?
58).Which condition mainly caused the A) Dehydration due to excessive fluid loss
Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus ; B) Head trauma, pneumothorax & certain
A) Autoimmune destruction of vasopressin- chemotherapeutic agents
producing cells

C) Hypercalcemia leading to increased ADH D) High serum potassium levels
degradation 66) . In assessing treatment options for SIADH,
D) Use of diuretics causing increased urine which approach is generally considered
output appropriate?
63) Analyze the condition of SIADH and identify A) Fluid restriction to manage
which statement is correct: hyponatremia
A) SIADH involves an underproduction of B) Administration of thiazide diuretics to
ADH by the pituitary gland. increase urine output
B) SIADH is characterized by excessive C) Replacement therapy with synthetic
release of ADH despite normal or low vasopressin analogs
plasma osmolality. D) High-dose insulin therapy to reduce
C) The kidneys are resistant to the action of blood glucose levels
ADH in SIADH. 67) Analyze the abnormal functional state of
D) SIADH results from an overproduction of Type 1 diabetes and choose the correct
aldosterone. statement:
64) When evaluating a patient with suspected A) Type 1 diabetes results from insulin
SIADH, which symptom would be most resistance and relative insulin deficiency.
indicative of the B) In Type 1 diabetes, autoimmune
condition? destruction of pancreatic beta cells leads
A) Polyuria and dehydration to absolute insulin deficiency.
B) Hyponatremia and concentrated urine C) Type 1 diabetes is primarily caused by
C) Hypokalemia and muscle weakness obesity and sedentary lifestyle.
D) Hypernatremia and dry mucous D) Type 1 diabetes is characterized by
membranes increased insulin production.
65) Considering the diagnostic criteria for 68) Which of the following is a characteristic
SIADH, which test result would support the feature of Type 2 diabetes?
diagnosis? A) Onset typically occurs in childhood or
A) Increased serum sodium concentration adolescence.
B) Decreased urine osmolality B) It is primarily managed with insulin
C) Low serum sodium level , high urine therapy.
sodium level and decreased BUN & C) Insulin resistance and relative insulin
creatinine deficiency.

D) Type 2 diabetes is not associated with D) 80%
obesity or metabolic syndrome. 73) Which of the following is a common
69) When evaluating a patient with suspected macrovascular complication associated with
gestational diabetes, which diagnostic test diabetes?
would be A) Diabetic retinopathy
most appropriate? B) Peripheral arterial disease
A) Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) C) Nephropathy
B) Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) D) Neuropathy
C) Fasting plasma glucose test 74 ) Which condition is considered a
D) Random plasma glucose test microvascular complication related to diabetes?
70) Which type of diabetes occured most A) Coronary artery disease
commonly throughout the world wide ? B) Diabetic nephropathy
A) Type 1 diabetes (IDDM) C) Ischemic stroke
B) Type 2 diabetes ( NIDDM) D) Peripheral neuropathy
C) Gestational diabetes 75) What is the primary pathophysiological
D) Diabetes insipduis process underlying macrovascular
71) When the FBS level greater than 100 mg/dl complications in
and less than 126 mg/dl & RBS level greater diabetes?
then 140 A) Microaneurysm formation
mg/dl and less than 200 mg/dl it classified B) Endothelial dysfunction and
as a which type of diabetes ..... atherosclerosis
A) Juvenile Diabetes
C) Early aldosence Diabetes C) Capillary basement membrane thickening
C) Prediabetes D) Autonomic nerve damage
D) Type 1 diabetes 76) A 45-year-old individual with a family
72) Type 1 diabetes caused a symptoms when history of diabetes presents with symptoms of
the beta of the Islets of Langerhans destructed increased
upto thirst, frequent urination, and unexplained
how many parcent ....... weight loss. Based on the clinical
A) 75 % presentation, which
B) 90% diagnostic test is most appropriate for
C) 10% confirming the diagnosis?

A) Fasting Plasma Glucose Test C) Hyperglycemia
B) Oral Glucose Tolerance Test D) Both A & B
C) Glycated Hemoglobin (A1C) Test 80) A teenager experiences excessive thirst,
D) Random Plasma Glucose Test weight loss, and frequent urination. What type
77) A 30-year-old pregnant woman with no of
prior history of diabetes is being screened for diabetes is commonly diagnosed in young
gestational individuals with these symptoms?
diabetes. Which diagnostic test is a) Type 1 Diabetes
recommended for identifying gestational b) Type 2 Diabetes
diabetes in this question ? c) Gestational Diabetes
A) Fasting Plasma Glucose Test d) NiDDM
B) Oral Glucose Tolerance Test 81) A patient with Type 2 Diabetes is concerned
C) Glycated Hemoglobin (A1C) Test about weight management. Which lifestyle
D) Random Plasma Glucose Test modification is commonly recommended for
78) A 55-year-old individual with risk factors for weight control?
diabetes, such as obesity and sedentary a) High-carbohydrate diet
lifestyle, b) Regular physical activity
undergoes routine health screening. Which c) Frequent snacking
diagnostic test is most suitable for early d) oral Antidiabetic
detection of 82) A patient newly diagnosed with Type 2
prediabetes or diabetes in this case? Diabetes is asking about oral medications. What
A) Fasting Plasma Glucose Test class of
B) Oral Glucose Tolerance Test medications enhances insulin sensitivity and
C) Glycated Hemoglobin (A1C) Test is often prescribed as a first-line treatment?
D) Random Plasma Glucose Test a) Sulfonylureas
79) The condition in which the blood glucose b) Biguanides
level falls below the level required to sustain c) Thiazolidinediones
the d) galiptin
homeostasis (Usually less than or equal to 83) A pregnant woman presents with elevated
70 mg/dl ) is known as ....... blood sugar levels during routine prenatal
A) Hypoglycemia screening. What type of diabetes is typically
B) Insulin shock diagnosed during pregnancy?

a) Type 1 Diabetes 87) A healthcare provider suspects secondary
b) Type 2 Diabetes diabetes due to an endocrine disorder. What
c) Gestational Diabetes hormoneimbalance is often implicated in
d) NIDDM causing diabetes as a secondary condition?
84) A woman with gestational diabetes a) Thyroid hormone imbalance
expresses concern about the impact on her b) Growth hormone deficiency
baby. Whatpotential complication should be c) Cortisol excess
discussed with the patient? d) parathyroidectomy
a) Neonatal jaundice 88) A healthcare provider is discussing lifestyle
b) Macrosomia (large baby) modifications for a patient with secondary
c) Respiratory distress syndrome diabetes. What recommendation is important
d) Spina bifida for managing diabetes in the context of a
85) A patient with gestational diabetes is hormonal disorder?
managing blood sugar levels through diet and a) Strict carbohydrate restriction
exercise.What dietary recommendation is b) Weight loss
commonly given to pregnant women with c) Stress management
gestational diabetes? d) Exercise
a) High-carbohydrate diet 89) A patient with diabetes presents with deep,
b) Low-fat diet hyperventilation (kusmaul respiration), fruity-
c) Balanced and controlled carbohydrate scented breath(acetone breath order ) , and
intake confusion. What is the likely diagnosis?
d) Intake of protein a) Hypoglycemia
86) A patient with a history of pancreatitis is b) Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)
diagnosed with diabetes. What type of diabetes c) Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar State (HHS)
is d) Lactic acidosis
commonly associated with chronic 90) A healthcare provider suspects DKA in a
pancreatitis? patient. Which laboratory test is crucial for
a) Type 1 Diabetes confirmingthe DKA diagnosis?
b) Type 2 Diabetes a) Fasting blood glucose
c) Secondary Diabetes b) Hemoglobin A1c
d) NIDDM c) Blood ketone levels
d) Spirometry oxygenation

91) A patient is admitted with DKA, and the 95) An elderly patient with type 2 diabetes
healthcare provider is investigating the cause. presents with extreme thirst,severe
What dehydration,
precipitating factor is commonly associated hypernaterimia, No breath order and lack of
with DKA? acidosis What is the likely diagnosis?
a) Excessive physical activity a) Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)
b) Overeating b) Hyperglycemic Hyperosmolar
c) Infection Nonketotic Syndrome (HHNS)
d) stress c) Hypoglycemia
92) A healthcare provider is discussing DKA 96) A healthcare provider suspects HHNS in a
management with a patient. What intervention patient. What laboratory test is crucial for
is crucialfor correcting the acidosis in DKA? confirmingthe diagnosis?
a) Insulin infusion a) Fasting blood glucose
b) Intravenous fluids b) Hemoglobin A1c
c) Potassium supplementation c) Blood ketone levels
d) half normal saline 97) A person with diabetes presents with HHNS.
93) A patient with DKA is prescribed insulin. What factor distinguishes HHNS from Diabetic
What potential complication should be Ketoacidosis (DKA)?
monitored toavoid hypoglycemia during a) Presence of ketones in urine
treatment? b) Hypernatremia
a) Hypertension c) Hypoglycemia
b) Hypokalemia d) hyperglycemia
c) Hypernatremia 98) A patient with HHNS is at risk of developing
d) Hyponatremia complications. What potential complication
94)A patient with DKA is receiving intravenous shouldbe closely monitored in HHNS
fluids. What type of fluid is commonly used for management?
initialfluid resuscitation in DKA? a) Hypokalemia
a) 0.9% saline b) Respiratory alkalosis
b) 5% dextrose in water c) Hypocalcemia
c) Lactated Ringer's solution d) hyponaterimia
d) Zolinger solution 99) If compare DKA & HHNS which one is more
fatal & has the bighest mortality rate & is

characterized by more & acute hyperlipidemia D) Four lobe
>600 mg/dl occurs mostly in elderly often 104) what is the shape of thyroid gland ?
unnoticeable & for prolong time? A) Circular
a) DKA B) Butterfly
b)HHNS C) oval
c)Both D) rectangular
d)none 105) Which of the following structures is
100) Which hormone is primarily responsible located posterior to the thyroid gland ?
for regulating the body metabolism A) Oesophagus
except ? B) Trachea
A) T3 ( Triiodothyronine) C) Carotid artery
B) T4 (Thyroxin) D) Vertebral column
C) TSH (Thyroid stimulating hormone) 106) Which of the following is a primary cause
D) Calcitonin of hypothyroidism?
101)Which mineral is most essential for the a) Excessive iodine intake
synthesis of thyroid hormone ? b) Pituitary gland dysfunction
A) Idoine c) Thyroid hormone overproduction
B)Iron d) Autoimmune thyroiditis
C) calcium 107) What is the most common symptom of
D) Magnesium hypothyroidism?
102) Tick the right option ; ..........type of a) Weight loss
hormone is Inactive form and when b) Heat intolerance
neededthen converted to active form c) Cold intolerance
A) TSH d) Excessive sweating
B) T3 109) In hypothyroidism, what happens to the
C) T4 levels of T3 and T4 hormones and TSH ?
D) Paratarmone a) Both T3 and T4 levels increase
103) Thyroid gland consist on how many lobes b) Both T3 and T4 levels decrease & TSH
which connect through isthmus . increased
A) One lobe c) T3 level increases, T4 level decreases
B) Two lobe d) T3 level decreases, T4 level increases
C) Three lobe

110) when hypothyroidism occured in adult which of the following additional symptoms
considered as juvenile hypothyroidism would most likely be present in this patientdue
thiscondition Called ....... to hypothyroidism?
A) Myexdema a) Heat intolerance and excessive sweating
B) Thyroiditis b) Diarrhea and abdominal cramping
C) Hashmito Thyroiditis c) Constipation and cold intolerance
D) Cretinism d) Palpitations and chest pain
111) When a pt is diagnosed with myxedema 114) Asim is 2 year's old child and diagnosed
which is the most severe form of with hypothyroidism so Which symptomis
hypothyroidism So which clinical sign he/she indicative of hypothyroidism in children?
may experienced . a) Precocious puberty
a) Puffy face, hands, and tongue b) Delayed growth and development
b) Exophthalmos (bulging eyes) c) Increased appetite with weight loss
c) Increased sweating d) Hyperactivity
d) Tremor 115) Hypofunction of thyroid gland during
112). In hypothyroidism, patients may adulthood called " Myxedema " and if
experience changes in their voice. This is due to: occured during childhood state it's called
a) Vocal cord paralysis .........
b) Laryngeal edema A) Cretinism
c) Overuse of vocal cords B) Grave's disease
d) Enlargement of the thyroid gland C) Exophthalmos
pressing on the larynx D) Endemic Goiter
113) A 42-year-old male has been feeling 116) Hypothyroidism is caused by to much
increasingly tired and has thyroid hormone which can caused ....
difficultyconcentrating at work. Over the past A) Hashmito
year, he has gained 10 kg despite no B) Goiter( Toxicnoduler)
significantchange in diet or exercise routine. On C) Goiter ( None _toxic )
physical examination, you note that his D) Cretensim
faceappears puffy with periorbital edema, and 117) A rare & life threatening condition , Which
his skin is dry and coarse. occur late in the progression of hypothyroidism
is named as .........
A) Myexdema coma

B) Thyroid storm D) Solitary Nodule Goiter
C) Thyrotoxicosis 122) Which of the following symptoms is often
D) Grave's disease reported by individuals with a largegoiter
118) Select the appropriate option ...........of compressing the trachea?
skin change is commonly associated A) Hoarseness
withmyxedema? B) Polyuria
A) Dry, coarse skin C) Photophobia
B) Excessive sweating D) Epistaxis
C) Flushed and warm skin 123) What is the initial treatment approach for
D) Oily and smooth skin non-toxic goiter due to iodine deficiency?
119) Hashimoto's thyroiditis is an autoimmune A) Radioactive iodine therapy
disorder primarily affecting the thyroidgland, B) Thyroid hormone replacement
leading to: C) Iodine supplementation
A) Hyperthyroidism D) Surgical removal of the goiter
B) Hypothyroidism 124) Which diagnostic test is commonly used to
C) Thyroid cancer evaluate the size and characteristicsof a goiter?
D) Goiter A) Thyroid ultrasound
120) All of the following are the forms of Goiter B) Thyroid function tests
which is classified on a based of enlargement C) Fine-needle aspiration biopsy
Except ; D) Thyroid scan
A) Simple (Diffuse) Goiter 125) Delayed closure of epiphyses & short
B) Noduler Goiter stature are manifestation of ........
C) Toxic Goiter A) Myxedema
D) Multinodular Goiter B) Cretensim
121) A 40-year-old man experiences difficulty C) Grave disease
swallowing and notices a visible swellingin his D) Toxic Goiter
neck. His thyroid function tests ( TFts) are 126) A condition in which Thier is over secretion
within normal limits. Which type ofgoiter is of thyroid hormone occured it's called
most likely present? .....
A) Toxic Goiter A) Hyperthyroidism
B) Non-toxic Goiter B) Thyrotoxicosis
C) Diffuse Goiter C) Myexdema Coma

D) Thyroid storm B. TSH-secreting pituitary adenoma
127) All of the following comes in C. Iodine-induced hyperthyroidism
Hyperthyroidism category except ; D. Thyroid hormone resistance
A) Grave disease 131) In a patient with Graves' disease, which of
B) Thyroid storm the following findings would be indicative of a
C) Sick euthyroidism thyroid storm?
D) Toxic thyroid nodule A. Mild tachycardia
128) A patient presents with weight loss, B. Slight tremor
palpitations, and heat intolerance. C. Fever and marked delirium
Laboratorytests reveal elevated free T4 levels. D. Weight gain and lethargy
Which of the following is the most likely 132) When assessing a patient with Graves'
diagnosis? disease, which of the following clinical
A. Primary hypothyroidism signs would suggest the need for immediate
B. Secondary hypothyroidism intervention?
C. Primary hyperthyroidism A. Presence of bruit over the thyroid gland
D. Secondary hyperthyroidism B. Tachycardia with heart rate >140 bpm
129) On a thyroid scan of a patient with C. Mild exophthalmos
thyrotoxicosis, you observe an increased D. Pretibial myxedema
uptake throughout the gland. This finding is 133) A patient with Graves' disease has been
most consistent with which of the treated with antithyroid drugs for 12
following conditions? months but still shows signs of hyperthyroidism.
A. Thyroiditis What is the next best step in
B. Graves' disease managing this patient's condition?
C. Toxic adenoma A. Continue antithyroid drugs for another
D. Subacute thyroiditis year
130) A 35-year-old female with thyrotoxicosis B. Switch to beta-blocker therapy only
has exophthalmos and pretibial C. Consider radioactive iodine therapy or
myxedema. Which underlying mechanism is surgery
primarily responsible for these D. Initiate treatment with levothyroxine
clinicalfindings? 134) In a patient with hyperthyroidism, which
A. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) treatment option would be most appropriate
receptor antibodies for a pregnant woman in her first trimester?

A. Methimazole 138) Which imaging modality is considered
B. Propylthiouracil most useful in the diagnosis of toxic nodular
C. Radioactive iodine therapy goiter?
D. Total thyroidectomy A. Ultrasound of the thyroid
135) A patient diagnosed with a thyroid storm is B. MRI of the neck
most likely to exhibit which of thefollowing sets C. CT scan of the chest
of symptoms? D. Radioiodine thyroid scan
A. Bradycardia, hypothermia, and lethargy 139) Which of the following histological types of
B. Tachycardia, hyperthermia, and thyroid cancer is associated with thebest
agitation prognosis?
C. Hypotension, bradypnea, and A. Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma
hypoglycemia B. Medullary thyroid carcinoma
D. Hypertension, constipation, and C. Follicular thyroid carcinoma
somnolence D. Papillary thyroid carcinoma
136) In managing a thyroid storm, which of the 140) . When evaluating a patient with a family
following actions should be taken first? history of Multiple Endocrine Neoplasiatype 2
A. Administering beta-blockers to control (MEN2), which type of thyroid cancer should be
heart rate closely monitored for?
B. Starting high-dose levothyroxine therapy A. Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma
C. Performing radioactive iodine ablation B. Papillary thyroid carcinoma
immediately C. Medullary thyroid carcinoma
D. Prescribing non-steroidal anti- D. Follicular thyroid carcinoma
inflammatory drugs for fever 141) Which preoperative assessment is crucial
137) A patient with toxic nodular goiter is most for patients undergoing thyroidectomyto
likely to have which of the followinglaboratory prevent postoperative complications related to
findings? hypocalcemia?
A. Elevated TSH, low T3, and T4 A. Serum calcium levels
B. Low TSH, elevated T3, and T4 B. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels
C. Normal TSH, elevated T3, and low T4 C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels
D. Elevated TSH, normal T3, and elevated T4 D. Serum thyroglobulin levels
142) Postoperatively, a patient who has
undergone thyroidectomy exhibits

hoarsenessand difficulty speaking loudly. Which 147) What is the effect of parathyroid hormone
complication should be evaluated as a priority (PTH) on bone?
bythe healthcare team? A. It decreases calcium release from bones.
A. Hypocalcemia B. It increases bone formation.
B. Hematoma formation at the surgical site C. It increases calcium release from bones
C. Laryngeal nerve damage D. It has no effect on bones.
D. Thyroid storm 148) Parathyroid hormone (PTH) has an
143) How many parathyroid glands are typically important relationship with vitamin D;
present in the human body? whatdoes PTH stimulate that affects vitamin D?
A. Two A. The degradation of vitamin D in the
B. Four kidneys.
C. Six B. The absorption of vitamin D from the
D. Eight gastrointestinal tract.
144) Which one is the primary hormone C. The conversion of inactive to active
produced by the parathyroid glands? vitamin D in the kidneys
A. Thyroxine (T4) D. The excretion of vitamin D in urine.
B. Triiodothyronine (T3) 149) In which region can you typically find the
C. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) parathyroid glands?
D. Calcitonin A. Within the thoracic cavity
145) The parathyroid glands are responsible for B. Attached to the posterior surface of the
regulating which mineral in the body? thyroid gland
A. Potassium C. Near the heart
B. Sodium D. Embedded within the adrenal glands
C. Calcium 150) Hyperparathyroidism can lead to all of the
D. Magnesium following except:
146) Which cells in the parathyroid gland are A. Kidney stones
primarily responsible for secreting B. Osteoporosis
parathyroid hormone (PTH)? C. Hypertension
A. Chief cells D. Hypocalcemia
B. Oxyphil cells 152) Analyzing the ECG of a patient with
C. Follicular cells hypoparathyroidism, which finding is
D. Parafollicular cells commonly associated with this condition?

A. Prolonged QT interval neuromuscular excitability due to hypocalcemia
B. Widened QRS complex in hypoparathyroidism?
C. Shortened PR interval A. Heart failure
D. Elevated ST segment B. Cataracts
153) In the clinical manifestations of C. Tetany
hypoparathyroidism, which neurological D. Vocal cord paralysis
symptomis most commonly associated with this 157) Analyzing the neuromuscular signs and
condition? symptoms of hypoparathyroidism,
A. Seizures whichsymptom sequence correctly represents
B. Ataxia the progression from mild to
C. Aphasia severemanifestations?
D. Hemiparesis A. Paresthesia , Stiffness in hands and feet
154) When evaluating the long-term ,Carpopedal spasm
complications of untreated B. Carpopedal spasm Paresthesia
hypoparathyroidism,which condition is a Bronchospasm
significant concern due to its impact on bone C. Laryngeal spasm Numbness Trousseau’s
health? sign
A. Osteoporosis D. Delirium Tingling Positive Chvostek’s sign
B. Osteomalacia 158) Which laboratory finding is a key indicator
C. Osteosarcoma of hypoparathyroidism?
D. Osteopenia A. Decreased serum phosphate and
155) When assessing the management of increased serum calcium levels
chronic hypoparathyroidism, which B. Increased serum phosphate and
therapeutic intervention is essential to prevent decreased serum calcium levels
long-term complications? C. Increased serum sodium and decreased
A. Regular administration of vitamin D serum potassium levels
analogs D. Decreased serum magnesium and
B. Continuous calcium infusion increased serum PTH levels
C. High-phosphate diet 159) What can a CT scan reveal in a patient with
D. Lifelong administration of PTH long-standing hypoparathyroidism?
156 ). Which of the following complications is A. Renal calculi
directly associated with the B. Pituitary adenoma

C. Frontal lobe and basal ganglia 164) Which of the following is a common cause
calcifications of primary hyperparathyroidism?
D. Cerebral atrophy A. Parathyroid adenoma
160) What is the therapeutic goal for serum B. Hypothyroidism
calcium levels in the treatment of C. Renal failure
hypoparathyroidism? D. Vitamin D overdose
A. To maintain serum calcium levels 165) When analyzing a patient's lab results,
between 7 and 8 mg/dL which combination would be indicative
B. To increase serum calcium levels to ofhyperparathyroidism?
between 9 and 10 mg/dL A. Low serum calcium and high phosphate
C. To decrease serum calcium levels to levels
below 8 mg/dL B. High serum calcium, low phosphate, and
D. To maintain serum calcium levels above high PTH levels
11 mg/dL C. High serum calcium, high phosphate, and
161) In hypoparathyroidism which sign low PTH levels
indicate as latent tetany? D. Low serum calcium, low phosphate, and
A) Positive chvostek's sign high PTH levels
B) cataract 166) Which diagnostic test is crucial for
C) Positive trousseau's sign confirming the diagnosis of
D) Both A & C hyperparathyroidism?
162) Which clinical manifestation is most A. Serum phosphate level
indicative of overt tetany? B. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) assay
A. Mild numbness in the extremities C. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) assay
B. Generalized muscle weakness D. 24-hour urinary free cortisol test
C. Intermittent muscle twitching 167) What is the primary treatment for
D. Carpopedal spasm symptomatic primary hyperparathyroidism?
163) What is the primary cause of overt tetany A. Bisphosphonates
in patients with hypoparathyroidism? B. Parathyroidectomy
A. Hypercalcemia C. Calcitonin injections
B. Hypocalcemia D. Thiazide diuretics
C. Hyperkalemia 168) A patient presents with a history of head
D. Hypokalemia and neck irradiation approximately 30years ago.

This history increases their risk for developing 172) When differentiating between parathyroid
which endocrine disorder? adenoma and parathyroid cancer,
A. Diabetes mellitus which feature is more indicative of cancer?
B. Addison's disease A. Presence of a palpable neck mass
C. Hyperparathyroidism B. Elevated serum calcium levels
D. Hypothyroidism C. High levels of parathyroid hormone (PTH)
169) Which complication is directly associated D. Local invasion or metastasis observed
with extreme elevations of serum on imaging
calcium levels in patients with 173) What is the primary treatment modality
hyperparathyroidism? for localized parathyroid cancer?
A. Osteoporosis A. Chemotherapy
B. Hypercalcemic crisis B. Radiation therapy
C. Cholelithiasis C. Parathyroidectomy
D. Renal calculi development D. Antithyroid medications
170) A patient with primary 174) Which imaging study is often used to
hyperparathyroidism has an adenoma locate parathyroid tumors preoperatively?
identified. Whichtreatment aligns with the A. Chest X-ray
standard recommendation for this condition? B. Sestamibi scan with single-photon
A. Surgical removal of the abnormal emission computed tomography (SPECT)
parathyroid tissue C. Abdominal ultrasound
B. Hydration therapy D. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the
C. Administration of bisphosphonates brain
D. Dialysis for renal failure 175) The management options for localized
171) When assessing the therapeutic approach parathyroid cancer, which surgical
to managing bone density in approach is preferred?
hyperparathyroidism, which medication would A. Minimally invasive parathyroidectomy
be most effective in reducing bone B. En bloc resection of the tumor with
turnover? ipsilateral thyroid lobectomy
A. Cinacalcet C. Bilateral neck exploration
B. Furosemide D. Focused parathyroidectomy
C. Alendronate
D. Calcium supplements

176) Which type of parathyroid cancer is most C. Oral phosphate therapy
common and known for secreting high levels of D. Calcitonin injections
PTH? 180 ) Which of the following is a classic
A. Parathyroid adenocarcinoma symptom of Addison's disease?
B. Parathyroid cystadenocarcinoma A. Hyperpigmentation
C. Parathyroid sarcoma B. Moon face
D. Metastatic parathyroid cancer C. Exophthalmos
177) An analysis of a patient's symptoms D. Hirsutism
reveals severe hypercalcemia and a palpable 181) What is the primary diagnostic test used to
neck mass.Which diagnostic procedure would confirm Addison's disease?
be most definitive for diagnosing parathyroid A. 24-hour urinary free cortisol test
cancer? B. ACTH stimulation test
A. Serum calcium and PTH level C. TSH assay
measurement D. Serum sodium level
B. Ultrasound of the neck 182) What is the standard treatment for
C. Fine-needle aspiration biopsy Addison's disease?
D. Sestamibi scan A. Insulin therapy
178) When evaluating a patient with confirmed B. Corticosteroid replacement therapy
parathyroid carcinoma, which surgical C. Thyroid hormone replacement
treatment isconsidered the gold standard? D. Parathyroidectomy
A. Minimally invasive parathyroidectomy 183) Which of the following is a potential
B. En bloc resection including the affected complication of Addison's disease if not
gland and surrounding tissue properly treated?
C. Bilateral neck exploration A. Addisonian crisis, characterized by
D. Thyroid lobectomy severe hypotension and shock
179) In assessing the management plan for a B. Cushingoid features, such as central
patient with metastatic parathyroid cancer, obesity and buffalo hump
which C. Hyperthyroidism with symptoms like
treatment option is typically considered when weight loss and palpitations
surgery is not feasible? D. Acromegaly with features like enlarged
A. High-dose vitamin D therapy hands and feet
B. Radiation therapy

184) In addition to low cortisol levels, what 188) Considering the management of Addison's
other hormone is typically deficient in patients disease, which treatment approach is essential
with for a
Addison's disease? patient with chronic adrenocortical
A. Estrogen insufficiency?
B. Aldosterone A. Lifelong corticosteroid replacement
C. Growth hormone therapy
D. Prolactin B. Antibiotic therapy targeting fungal
185) Analyzing the pathophysiology of infections
Addison's disease, which symptom directly C. High-dose insulin therapy for glucose
correlates withincreased levels of melanocyte- control
stimulating hormone? D. Diuretic therapy to manage fluid balance
A. Muscle weakness 189) When asses the patient's ability to respond
B. Weight loss to stress, which condition would significantly
C. Bronze pigmentation of the skin impair
D. Hypotension their physiological response to surgical
186) Which of the following is a direct stress or infection?
consequence of the autoimmune destruction of A. Excess androgen production
the adrenalcortex in Addison's disease? B. Cortisol insufficiency
A. Hyperglycemia C. Hyperaldosteronism
B. Hypertension D. Elevated levels of corticotropin-releasing
C. Adrenocortical insufficiency hormone (CRH)
D. Fluid retention 190) Which cluster of signs and symptoms
187) In evaluating a patient with suspected would most likely raise suspicion for Addison's
Addison's disease, which laboratory finding disease ina patient?
would bemost indicative of this diagnosis? A. Fatigue, muscle weakness, weight loss,
A. Elevated serum glucose levels and bronze pigmentation of the skin
B. Decreased serum sodium and increased B. Increased energy levels, weight gain,
potassium levels pallor of the skin, and hyperglycemia
C. Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and C. Polyuria, polydipsia, nocturia, and pale
creatinine levels mucous membranes
D. Elevated white blood cell count

D. Bradycardia, hypertension, hirsutism, D. Stable body temperature, normal blood
and hypernatremia pressure, headache, tachycardia, and
191) Which laboratory findings and test results hypernatremia
are consistent with a diagnosis of Addison's 193) which of the following type is associated
disease? with a pituitary adenoma causing excessive
A. Elevated plasma and urine cortisol, secretion
decreased plasma corticotrophin, of corticotropin?
hypokalemia, A. Corticotropin-dependent Cushing’s
hypernatremia syndrome
B. Normal plasma cortisol levels, increased B. Corticotropin-independent Cushing’s
response to I.V. corticotropin in syndrome
corticotropin C. Primary adrenal insufficiency
stimulation test D. Secondary adrenal insufficiency
C. Low levels of plasma and urine cortisol, 194) When examine a patient with signs of
elevated levels of plasma corticotrophin, hypercortisolism, which diagnostic approach
hyperkalemia, hyponatremia would bemost appropriate to differentiate
D. High levels of plasma and urine cortisol, between corticotropin-dependent and
decreased plasma corticotrophin, corticotropin-independentcauses?
leukopenia, A. Measurement of serum electrolyte levels
metabolic alkalosis B. Assessment of blood glucose levels
192) When analyzing a patient for potential C. Conducting a dexamethasone
signs of an adrenal crisis, which combination of suppression test followed by imaging
symptoms would be most indicative of this studies
emergency? D. Genetic testing for hereditary
A. Fever, hypotension, nausea, confusion, predisposition to tumors
and changes in GI function 195) When inspect the clinical presentation of
B. Hyperthermia, hypertension, Cushing's syndrome, which symptom is directly
constipation, euphoria, and stable GI related to cortisol's catabolic effect on
function connective tissue?
C. Hypothermia, bradycardia, polyuria, A. Muscle weakness and atrophy
lethargy, and increased cortisol levels B. Gynecomastia in men
C. Emotional lability

D. Striae and thinning of the skin B. Adrenalectomy
196)When analyzing the hormonal imbalances C. Radiation therapy
in Cushing's Disease, which of the following is a D. Chemotherapy
directresult of increased ACTH production by a 201) A patient presents with central obesity,
pituitary adenoma? moon-shaped face, and purple striae on the
A. Hyperpigmentation abdomen.
B. Hypokalemia What is the likely diagnosis?
C. Increased cortisol secretion a) Addison's Disease
D. Decreased glucose tolerance b) Hypothyroidism
197) ..........type of skin manifestation is directly c) Cushing's Syndrome
related to cortisol-induced fragility of small 202) A person with Cushing's Syndrome
bloodvessels? develops osteoporosis. What is a contributing
A. Vitiligo factor to bone
B. Psoriasis density loss in this condition?
C. Easy bruising a) Elevated cortisol levels
D. Urticaria b) Low cortisol levels
198) Which finding would you expect in a male c) Excessive thyroid hormone
patient with Cushing's Disease? 203) A healthcare provider suspects Cushing's
A. Testicular enlargement Syndrome and orders a 24-hour urine cortisol
B. Gynecomastia test.
C. Increased facial hair growth What result is indicative of Cushing's
D. Decreased body mass index (BMI) Syndrome?
199) What is the most common symptom a) Low urinary cortisol
associated with Cushing's Disease? b) High urinary cortisol
A. Moon face and buffalo hump c) Normal urinary cortisol
B. Weight loss 204) A patient with Cushing's Syndrome is
C. Hypotension scheduled for surgery to remove a tumor
D. Cold intolerance causing the
200) What is the primary treatment for condition. What is the common term for
Cushing's Disease caused by a pituitary this procedure?
adenoma? a) Thyroidectomy
A. Transsphenoidal surgery b) Adrenalectomy

c) Parathyroidectomy A. Chemotherapy
205) A patient is prescribed medication to B. Radiation therapy
manage Cushing's Syndrome. What type of C. Adrenalectomy
medication D. Hormone replacement therapy
inhibits cortisol synthesis? 210) Which of the following is a potential
a) Corticosteroids complication of adrenal gland cancer if not
b) Dopamine agonists properly treated?
c) Adrenolytics A. Hypothyroidism
206) A patient presents with severe B. Hormonal imbalances leading to
hypertension, headache, and palpitations. The 'Cushingoid' features or virilization
symptoms are C. Diabetes insipidus
intermittent and sudden. What condition D. Hyperparathyroidism
should be considered? 211) Before surgery for pheochromocytoma,
a) Essential hypertension which class of medication is typically
b) Pheochromocytoma administered tomanage hypertension?
c) Atrial fibrillation A. Beta-blockers alone
207) What is a common symptom of B. Alpha-blockers initially, followed by
pheochromocytoma? beta-blockers if necessary
A. Hypotension C. ACE inhibitors
B. Bradycardia D. Calcium channel blockers
C. Paroxysmal hypertension 212) A healthcare provider suspects
D. Weight gain Pheochromocytoma. What laboratory test is
208) . Which of the following tests is most commonly used toconfirm the diagnosis?
commonly used to diagnose a) Serum cortisol levels
pheochromocytoma? b) Plasma metanephrines or urine
A. Serum cortisol level catecholamines
B. 24-hour urinary metanephrines and c) Thyroid function tests
catecholamines 213) A patient is diagnosed with
C. ACTH stimulation test Pheochromocytoma. What imaging study is
D. TSH assay typically performed tolocate the tumor?
209) . What is the first-line treatment for a a) Chest X-ray
localized adrenal gland cancer? b) Abdominal ultrasound

c) CT or MRI of the adrenal glands 216) A patient with Pheochromocytoma
215) A patient with Pheochromocytoma is experiences a sudden hypertensive crisis. What
scheduled for surgery. What medication is medicationis administered in emergencies to
commonlyadministered preoperatively to rapidly lower blood pressure?
control blood pressure? a) ACE inhibitors
a) Beta-blockers b) Alpha-blockers
b) Diuretics c) Loop diuretics
c) Calcium channel blockers

Unit-3 Neurological Nursing
1. The ability to perceive touch, heat, pressure, d. Femoral artery

and pain is known as: 6. What is the function of the blood-brain
a. Central Nervous System barrier?
b. Peripheral Nervous System a. To protect the brain from harmful
c. Somatosensory pathway substances
d. Autonomic Nervous System b. To regulate blood pressure in the brain
2. Which one of the following is responsible for c. To deliver nutrients to the brain
detecting and processing pain? d. To remove waste products from the brain
a. Nociceptors 7. Which of the following are degenerative
b. Sensory receptors disorders that affect the nervous tissue?
c. Motor neurons a. Alzheimer's disease and Parkinson's
d. Interneurons disease
3. What is the term used to describe the body's b. Epilepsy and multiple sclerosis
natural pain relief system? c. Stroke and TIA
a. Nociceptors d. Hydrocephalus and brain tumors
b. Analgesics 8. Which of the following is not a risk factor for
c. Endorphins stroke?
d. Opioids a. Obesity
4. How does TENS work to relieve pain? b. Smoking
a. By increasing blood flow to the affected c. High blood pressure
area d. Low cholesterol level
b. By blocking the transmission of pain 9. Which type of stroke is caused by a blood
signals clot in an artery that leads to the brain?
c. By reducing inflammation a. Ischemic stroke
d. By increasing the number of nociceptors b. Hemorrhagic stroke
5. Which of the following is not one of the c. Transient ischemic attack
major vessels in the cerebral circulation? d. Silent stroke
a. Internal carotid artery 10. Which of the following is a common
b. Vertebral artery symptom of stroke?
c. Basilar artery

a. Numbness or weakness on one side of the c. Multiple sclerosis
body d. Dystonia
b. Extreme thirst 15. What is the most common type of
c. Vision changes dementia?
d. Heart palpitations a. Parkinson's disease
11. Why are transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) b. Alzheimer's disease
considered "mini-strokes"? c. Huntington's disease
a. Because they only last a few seconds d. Multiple sclerosis
b. Because they are not serious and do not 16. Which neurotransmitter is primarily
require medical attention affected in Parkinson's disease?
c. Because they are warning signs of a larger a. Dopamine
stroke b. Serotonin
d. Because they only affect a small area of the c. Acetylcholine
brain d. Norepinephrine
12. What is the term used to describe a 17. Which of the following is not a common
sudden, uncontrolled electrical disturbance in symptom of multiple sclerosis?
the brain? a. Muscle weakness
a. Seizure b. Vision changes
b. Stroke c. Tremors
c. TIA d. Nausea and vomiting
d. Migraine 18. What is the term used to describe a
13. Which of the following is a type of seizure condition in which the pressure inside the skull
that affects both sides of the brain? increases and causes brain damage?
a. Absence seizure a. Hydrocephalus
b. Complex partial seizure b. Brain tumor
c. Simple partial seizure c. Encephalitis
d. Generalized tonic-clonic seizure d. Meningitis
14. What is the term used to describe a group 19. Which of the following is a common
of neurological disorders that cause muscle symptom of encephalitis?
stiffness and spasms? a. Muscle weakness
a. Epilepsy b. Confusion and disorientation
b. Parkinson's disease c. Double vision

d. Chest pain b. False
20. Which of the following is a
neurodegenerative disorder that affects 26. In Melzack and Wall's Gate Control Model,
voluntary muscle movement? what is pain sensory related to?
a. Parkinson's disease a. Thoughts
b. Huntington's disease b. Emotion
c. Alzheimer's disease c. Attention
d. Multiple sclerosis d. All of the above
21. Pain is BEST described as 27. Where is pain sensation first modulated in
a. a creation of a person's imagination the Gate Control Model?
b. an unpleasant, subjective experience a. Brainstem
c. a maladaptive response to a stimulus b. Spinal cord
d. a neurologic event resulting from activation c. Frontal lobe
of nociceptors. d. Tissues
22. Nociceptors are pain receptors in the 28. In the Gate Control Model, inhibitory
peripheral nervous system. interneurons are stimulated by A-Delta fibers.
a. True a. True
b. False b. False (A-Beta fibers (this closes the gate)
23. What are the three parts of the Bottom-Up 29. Classification of pain by duration
pain model? a. Sharp, burning
a. Interneuron, Information, Perception b. Dull
b. Nociception, Myelination, Pericardium c. Chronic
c. Tactilation, Nociception, Fibration d. Throbbing
d. Nociception, Transmission, Perception 30. Threshold is :
24. Which of the following fibers are associated a. The duration and intensity of pain that a
with fast pain? person tolerates before openly expressing pain
a. A-Delta b. The intensity of the stimulus a person needs
b. A-Beta to sense pain
c. C c. The intensity of pain that restricts one from
d. A-Iota ADLS
25. A-Delta fibers transmit faster than C fibers. d. The intensity of pain that prompts one to
a. True seek medical attention

31. All are Pain Scales EXCEPT? a. A- beta primary afferent fibers.
a. Numeric rating scale b. C- Primary afferent fibers.
b. Visual analogue scale, c. Both C fiber & A- beta fibers.
c. Simple descriptor scale (pains or pqrst) d. A- delta primary afferent fibers.
d. Braden scale 36. The person feels pain which is perceived in a
32. All are Independent non-pharmacological part of the body that is different from the
measures to treat pain Except? part/tissue that is actually causing the pain. This
a. Massage is called ________
b. Use of heat/cold a. Static pain
c. Meditation b. Shooting pain
d. Opioids c. Referred Pain
33. A patient who uses a fentanyl (Duragesic) d. Burning pain
patch for chronic cancer pain suddenly 37. Which one of the following nerve fiber is
complains of rapid onset pain at a level 9 (0 to responsible for touch, vibration, movement
10 scale) and requests "something for pain that sensation?
will work now." How will the nurse document a. C fibres
the type of pain reported by this patient? b. Aδ fibres
a. Somatic pain c. A-β fibres
b. Referred pain d. A-βC fibres
c. Neuropathic pain 38. _____ happens when blood flow to part of
d. Breakthrough pain the brain is blocked or reduced, often by a
blood clot. After a short time, blood flows again
34. ____________fiber is mainly responsible for and the symptoms go away.
‘visceral’ type of pain a. Intraventricular Hemorrhage
a. C fibres b. TIA
b. Aδfibres c. Stroke
c. A-β fibres d. Hemorrhagic stroke
d. A-βC fibres 39. What is the primary function of the

somatosensory pathway?
a. Transmit visual information
35. While sewing clothes, a needle pierced her
b. Transmit auditory information
hand and she experienced sharp pain. Which
fibers were widely distributed in her skin?

c. Transmit sensations like touch, d. In the thalamus
temperature, pain, and proprioception 44. What is the destination of third-order
d. Transmit information related to muscle neurons in the somatosensory pathway?
contractions a. Cerebellum
40. What are the three neurons involved in the b. Somatosensory cortex in the parietal lobe
basic somatosensory pathway, in order of c. Occipital lobe
ascending processing? d. Temporal lobe
a. Primary neuron, secondary neuron, tertiary 45. What type of information is primarily
neuron transmitted through the spinothalamic tract in
b. First-order neuron, second-order neuron, the somatosensory pathway?
third-order neuron a. Fine touch and proprioception
c. Neuron I, Neuron II, Neuron III b. Pain and temperature
d. First neuron, secondary neuron, last neuron c. Visual information
41. Where do first-order neurons typically enter d. Auditory information
the central nervous system in the 46. What is the primary mechanism by which
somatosensory pathway? heat therapy can provide pain relief?
a. Through cranial nerves or spinal nerves a. Increases blood flow and relaxes muscles
b. Through the optic chiasm b. Reduces blood flow
c. Through the vestibular system c. Constricts blood vessels
d. Through the peripheral ganglia d. Stimulates nerve regeneration
42. What structure serves as a major relay 47. How does cold therapy (cryotherapy)
center for somatosensory information before it primarily help with pain relief?
reaches the cerebral cortex? a. By increasing blood flow
a. Hypothalamus b. By numbing the affected area and reducing
b. Thalamus inflammation
c. Medulla oblongata c. By relaxing muscles
d. Cerebellum d. By stimulating nerve regeneration
43. In the somatosensory pathway, where does 48. What is the key concept behind the Gate
decussation (crossing over) typically occur? Control Theory of pain relief, which is used in
a. At the level of the medulla or spinal cord TENS therapy?
b. In the cerebral cortex a. Pain signals can be blocked by non-painful
c. In the pons signals

b. Pain is related to the intensity of the b. Increases blood flow to the area
stimulus c. Increases nerve sensitivity
c. Pain signals bypass the brainstem d. Stimulates pain receptors
d. Pain is always proportional to tissue 54. What are the two main arteries supplying
damage blood to the brain?
49. What frequency range is commonly used in a. Carotid arteries and vertebral arteries
TENS to provide pain relief? b. Brachial arteries and radial arteries
a. 1-10 Hz c. Femoral arteries and popliteal arteries
b. 50-100 Hz d. Aorta and pulmonary arteries
c. 100-150 Hz 55. What structure connects the major arteries
d. 10-50 Hz at the base of the brain, providing collateral
50. What is a common effect of cold therapy on circulation?
nerve conduction? a. Circle of Willis
a. Slows down nerve conduction b. Cerebellum
b. Speeds up nerve conduction c. Hippocampus
c. No effect on nerve conduction d. Thalamus
d. Stimulates nerve regeneration 56. Which artery is responsible for supplying the
51. How does TENS therapy typically work to medial parts of the frontal and parietal lobes?
relieve pain? a. Anterior cerebral artery
a. By blocking or interfering with pain signals b. Middle cerebral artery
b. By causing muscle contractions c. Posterior cerebral artery
c. By constricting blood vessels d. Basilar artery
d. By relaxing muscles 57. The basilar artery is formed by the union of
52. What is a common physiological response to which two arteries?
heat therapy? a. Vertebral arteries
a. Vasodilation b. Carotid arteries
b. Vasoconstriction c. Subclavian arteries
c. Reduction in nerve sensitivity d. Brachial arteries
d. Increase in inflammation 58. What artery supplies blood to the lateral
53. What is a key benefit of using cold therapy aspects of the cerebral hemispheres, including
after an injury? the motor and sensory cortices?
a. Reduces swelling and inflammation a. Middle cerebral artery

b. Anterior cerebral artery c. Subclavian vein
c. Posterior cerebral artery d. Basilic vein
d. Basilar artery 64. What is the primary function of the blood-
59. Which artery supplies the occipital lobe and brain barrier (BBB)?
the inferior temporal lobe? a. To protect the brain from harmful
a. Posterior cerebral artery substances in the blood
b. Anterior cerebral artery b. To allow immune cells easy access to the
c. Middle cerebral artery brain
d. Basilar artery c. To circulate cerebrospinal fluid throughout
60. What structure does the internal carotid the brain
artery pass through to enter the cranial cavity? d. To control blood flow in the brain
a. Carotid canal 65. Which type of cell primarily forms the
b. Jugular foramen blood-brain barrier?
c. Foramen magnum a. Endothelial cells
d. Foramen ovale b. Astrocytes
61. What artery provides the primary blood c. Oligodendrocytes
supply to the brainstem and cerebellum? d. Microglia
a. Basilar artery 66. What unique feature do the endothelial
b. Middle cerebral artery cells of the blood-brain barrier have compared
c. Posterior cerebral artery to other endothelial cells?
d. Anterior cerebral artery a. Tight junctions
62. What is the primary artery responsible for b. Gap junctions
supplying the anterior portion of the brain, c. Desmosomes
especially the frontal and parietal lobes? d. Loose connections
a. Anterior cerebral artery 67. Which cells play a supportive role in
b. Middle cerebral artery maintaining the blood-brain barrier by signaling
c. Posterior cerebral artery to endothelial cells?
d. Basilar artery a. Astrocytes
63. Which vein is a major channel for draining b. Microglia
blood from the brain? c. Neurons
a. Internal jugular vein d. Schwann cells
b. External jugular vein

68. What type of molecules can typically cross 72. What type of molecule typically has
the blood-brain barrier? difficulty crossing the blood-brain barrier?
a. Lipid-soluble molecules a. Large and water-soluble molecules
b. Water-soluble molecules b. Lipid-soluble molecules
c. Large proteins c. Small ions
d. Immune cells d. Gases like oxygen and carbon dioxide
69. What happens when the blood-brain barrier 73. What is one approach to overcoming the
is disrupted? blood-brain barrier for drug delivery?
a. Increased risk of infection and a. Using nanoparticles to carry drugs across
inflammation in the brain the barrier
b. Improved nutrient and drug delivery to the b. Injecting drugs directly into the brain
brain c. Increasing blood pressure to force drug
c. Enhanced brain function and cognition entry
d. Increased blood flow to the brain d. Diluting drugs to increase absorption
70. What is one reason why certain neurological 74. Which of the following is a common risk
drugs have limited effectiveness due to the factor for ischemic stroke?
blood-brain barrier? a. Low blood pressure
a. The blood-brain barrier prevents many b. Smoking
drugs from entering the brain c. Young age
b. Drugs are metabolized too quickly in the d. Low cholesterol
brain 75. Which type of stroke is caused by a blood
c. The brain has limited blood supply clot blocking a blood vessel in the brain?
d. Drugs are diluted by cerebrospinal fluid a. Ischemic stroke
71. What role does the blood-brain barrier play b. Hemorrhagic stroke
in regulating the brain's microenvironment? c. Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
a. It controls the composition of substances d. Cardioembolic stroke
entering the brain 76. What is a common risk factor for
b. It stimulates neuron growth and hemorrhagic stroke?
differentiation a. Hypertension
c. It enhances brain's immune response b. Hypotension
d. It stimulates blood vessel formation c. Anemia
d. Low blood sugar

77. Which type of stroke involves bleeding into 82. Which type of hemorrhagic stroke occurs
the brain? when a blood vessel on the brain's surface
a. Ischemic stroke bursts?
b. Hemorrhagic stroke a. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
c. Transient ischemic attack (TIA) b. Intracerebral hemorrhage
d. Embolic stroke c. Subdural hematoma
78. Which condition is also known as a "mini- d. Epidural hematoma
stroke" and involves temporary stroke-like 83. What is a common cause of embolic
symptoms? strokes?
a. Hemorrhagic stroke a. Blood clot from another part of the body
b. Transient ischemic attack (TIA) b. Trauma to the brain
c. Ischemic stroke c. High blood sugar
d. Lacunar stroke d. Obesity
79. Which of the following is a common 84. Which type of stroke is generally caused by
treatment for ischemic stroke? atherosclerosis in the carotid arteries?
a. Anticoagulants a. Ischemic stroke
b. Surgery b. Hemorrhagic stroke
c. Blood transfusions c. Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
d. Physical therapy d. Lacunar stroke
80. Which factor is most closely associated with 85. Which medical test is commonly used to
an increased risk of stroke? diagnose a stroke?
a. High cholesterol a. CT scan
b. High blood pressure b. X-ray
c. Low body mass index c. Ultrasound
d. Low heart rate d. ECG
81. What is a potential outcome of an ischemic 86. What is a common early symptom of a
stroke if left untreated? transient ischemic attack (TIA)?
a. Brain tissue damage due to lack of oxygen a. Sudden weakness or numbness on one
b. Increased heart rate side of the body
c. Excessive blood flow to the brain b. Chronic fatigue
d. Blood clots in the veins c. Joint pain
d. Difficulty swallowing

87. Which of the following lifestyle factors can 92. Which of these is a typical symptom of a
reduce the risk of stroke? Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)?
a. Regular exercise a. Sudden weakness or numbness on one
b. High sodium diet side of the body
c. Smoking b. Slow heart rate
d. Excessive alcohol consumption c. Chronic back pain
88. Which type of stroke is most likely to occur d. Persistent fever
in older adults? 93. How long do symptoms of a Transient
a. Ischemic stroke Ischemic Attack (TIA) typically last?
b. Hemorrhagic stroke a. Less than 24 hours
c. Transient ischemic attack (TIA) b. 24 to 48 hours
d. Embolic stroke c. Several days
89. What is a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA) d. Longer than a week
often referred to as? 94. Which of the following is a key risk factor for
a. Mini-stroke Transient Ischemic Attacks (TIAs)?
b. Full-blown stroke a. High blood pressure
c. Heart attack b. Low blood sugar
d. Minor heart issue c. Low heart rate
90. How does a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA) d. High calcium levels
differ from a full-blown stroke? 95. What should a person do if they experience
a. A TIA doesn't cause permanent brain symptoms of a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)?
damage a. Seek immediate medical attention
b. A TIA is caused by hemorrhage b. Wait for the symptoms to pass
c. A TIA only affects the heart c. Take over-the-counter medication
d. A TIA has more severe symptoms d. Drink more water
91. Which of the following is a common cause 96. What can a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)
of a Transient Ischemic Attack (TIA)? be a warning sign for?
a. A temporary blood clot a. A future stroke
b. Burst blood vessel b. Heart attack
c. Low blood pressure c. Low blood pressure
d. High cholesterol d. Muscle strain

97. Which diagnostic test is commonly used to 102.What is the normal range for intracranial
evaluate Transient Ischemic Attacks (TIAs)? pressure (ICP) in adults?
a. MRI scan a) 0-15 mmHg
b. Blood test b) 5-10 mmHg
c. Urinalysis c) 10-25 mmHg
d. X-ray d) 15-20 mmHg
98. What type of medication is often prescribed 103.Which of the following signs or symptoms is
to prevent Transient Ischemic Attacks (TIAs) NOT typicallyassociated with increased ICP?
from progressing to a stroke? a) Severe headache
a. Anticoagulants b) Bradycardia
b. Pain relievers c) Pupillary dilation
c. Anti-inflammatories d) Hypertension
d. Sedatives 104.Which imaging modality is often used to
99. Cerebral blood receive …………… of cardiac assess for increased ICP inhead injury cases?
output. a) X-ray
a. 75% b) CT scan
b. 45% c) MRI
c. 15% d) PET scan
d. 5% 105.Which of the following is NOT a potential
100. Which of the following is the most potent complication of increasedICP?
symptom of hemorrhagic stroke? a) Brain herniation
a. Ataxia b) Seizures
b. Seizure c) Cerebral infarction
c. Head ach d) Hypotension
d. Weakness 106.Which medication is commonly
101.Which of the following is NOT a common administered to reduce intracranialpressure in
cause of increasedintracranial pressure? head injury cases?
a) Traumatic brain injury a) Aspirin
b) Cerebral edema b) Morphine
c) Meningitis c) Mannitol
d) Hypotension d) Ibuprofen

107.What is the most common cause of head c) They often present with a lucid interval
injury in young adults? followed by rapid
a) Falls deterioration
b) Sports injuries d) They are usually not associated with loss of
c) Motor vehicle accidents consciousness
d) Assaults 112.What is the most common initial symptom
108.What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) used of a subduralhematoma?
for in head injurycases? a) Headache
a) To measure blood pressure b) Seizures
b) To assess level of consciousness c) Nausea and vomiting
c) To diagnose skull fractures d) Confusion
d) To evaluate pupillary response 113.Which of the following statements about
109.Which of the following is a late sign of cerebral edema is FALSE?
increased ICP? a) It is an increase in the volume of the brain
a) Papilledema tissue due to the
b) Decerebrate posturing accumulation of fluid
c) Dilated pupils b) It can be classified as cytotoxic, vasogenic, or
d) Headache interstitial
110.What is the term for a type of brain injury c) It is not a serious complication of head injury
where the brain moveswithin the skull due to d) It can lead to increased intracranial pressure
sudden acceleration or deceleration? 114.What is the treatment for an acute
a) Concussion subdural hematoma?
b) Contusion a) Mannitol administration
c) Diffuse axonal injury b) Surgical evacuation
d) Coup-contrecoup injury c) Anticoagulant therapy
111.Which of the following statements about d) Observation
epidural hematomas isTRUE? 115.Which of the following is NOT a component
a) They are typically caused by tearing of of the GCS (GlasgowComa Scale)?
bridging veins a) Eye opening response
b) They occur between the dura mater and the b) Verbal response
arachnoid mater c) Motor response
d) Blood pressure measurement

116.Which imaging finding is characteristic of a d) Hypovolemia
diffuse axonal injury? 121.What is the most common cause of spinal
a) Epidural hematoma cord injury?
b) Linear skull fracture a) Motor vehicle accidents
c) Multifocal cerebral contusions b) Falls
d) Shearing of white matter tracts c) Sports injuries
117. What is the term for a spinal cord injury d) Violence
that results from compressionrather than from 122.Which of the following levels of the spine is
trauma? most commonlyaffected in spinal cord injuries?
a) Contusion a) Lumbar
b) Laceration b) Thoracic
c) Central cord syndrome c) Cervical
d) Compression fracture d) Sacral
118.What is the first step in managing a patient 123.Which of the following is NOT a common
with suspectedincreased intracranial pressure? symptom of spinal cordinjury?
a) Administering oxygen a) Paralysis
b) Initiating intravenous fluid resuscitation b) Loss of bowel or bladder control
c) Assessing the patient’s level of c) Increased sensation
consciousness d) Loss of sensation
d) Performing a CT scan 124.What is the primary goal of emergency
119.What is the most common type of primary management in spinal cordinjury?
brain injury in closedhead injuries? a) Preventing infection
a) Concussion b) Reducing pain
b) Contusion c) Preventing further damage
c) Intracerebral hematoma d) Restoring motor function
d) Diffuse axonal injury 125.What is the term for a spinal cord injury
120.Which of the following factors can resulting in loss ofmovement and sensation
contribute to the developmentof increased below the levelof injury?
intracranial pressure? a) Paraplegia
a) Hyperventilation b) Tetraplegia (Quadriplegia)
b) Hypoglycemia c) Hemiplegia
c) Hyperthermia d) Monoplegia

126.Which of the following statements about b) Immunosuppressive drugs
spinal shock is TRUE? c) Anticoagulant therapy
a) It typically resolves within hours of injury d) Surgical decompression
b) It is characterized by hyperactive reflexes 131.Which of the following levels of the spinal
c) It is caused by excessive spinal cord cord injury can result inquadriplegia?
stimulation a) T1-T5
d) It results in immediate loss of sensation and b) T6-T12
motor function c) L1-L5
127.What is autonomic dysreflexia, a potentially d) C1-C4
life-threateningcondition, commonly associated 132.What is the term for a type of spinal cord
within spinal cord injury patients? injury where only one sideof the cord is
a) Severe hypertension damaged?
b) Bradycardia a) Hemisection (Brown-Séquard syndrome)
c) Hypoglycemia b) Central cord syndrome
d) Hypotension c) Anterior cord syndrome
128.Which of the following diagnostic tests is d) Posterior cord syndrome
commonly used to assessspinal cord injuries? 133.Which of the following statements about
a) CT scan spinal cord injuries isFALSE?
b) MRI a) Spinal cord injuries are always irreversible
c) X-ray b) The severity of a spinal cord injury depends
d) All of the above on the location andextent of damage
129.Which of the following activities should be c) Incomplete spinal cord injuries may result in
avoided in patients withspinal cord injury to partial loss of functionbelow the level of injury
prevent further damage? d) Rehabilitation plays a crucial role in
a) Passive range of motion exercises optimizing functional outcomesafter spinal cord
b) Log-rolling for repositioning injury
c) Early mobilization 134.Which of the following complications is
d) Vigorous massage NOT commonly associatedwith spinal cord
130.What is the most common initial treatment injury?
for acute spinal cordinjury aimed at reducing a) Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
inflammation and swelling? b) Pressure ulcers
a) Corticosteroid therapy c) Osteoporosis

d) Diabetes mellitus 139.Which of the following interventions is NOT
135.What is the term for a spinal cord injury typically included in theacute management of
resulting from a sudden,excessive movement of spinal cord injury?
the head and neck? a) Immobilization of the spine
a) Flexion injury b) Administration of corticosteroids
b) Extension injury c) Surgical decompression
c) Rotational injury d) Early ambulation
d) Compression injury 140.What is the most common type of stroke?
136.What is the primary cause of death in the a) Ischemic stroke
acute phase of spinalacord injury? b) Hemorrhagic stroke
a) Respiratory failure c) Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
b) Cardiovascular complications d) Lacunar stroke
c) Neurogenic shock 141. Which of the following is a risk factor for
d) Infection ischemic stroke?
137.Which of the following statements about a) Hypertension
neurogenic shock inspinal cord injury patients is b) Thrombocytopenia
TRUE? c) Hypoglycemia
a) It is characterized by bradycardia and d) Hypoxemia
peripheral vasoconstriction 142. What is the primary cause of hemorrhagic
b) It is caused by sympathetic nervous system stroke?
hyperactivity a) Atherosclerosis
c) It is typically managed with vasoconstrictors b) Rupture of a blood vessel in the brain
d) It is a form of distributive shock c) Embolism
138.What is the term for a spinal cord injury d) Thrombosis
where the central portionof the cord is 143. Which type of stroke is characterized by a
damaged? temporary interruption ofblood flow to the
a) Central cord syndrome brain?
b) Anterior cord syndrome a) Ischemic stroke
c) Brown-Séquard syndrome b) Hemorrhagic stroke
d) Posterior cord syndrome c) Transient ischemic attack (TIA)
d) Lacunar stroke

144. Which imaging modality is typically used to 149. Which of the following medications is
diagnose acute stroke? commonly used to prevent clotformation and
a) X-ray reduce the risk of stroke recurrence?
b) MRI a) Aspirin
c) Ultrasound b) Warfarin
d) CT scan c) Insulin
145. Which of the following is NOT a symptom d) Metformin
of stroke according to theFAST acronym? 150. What is the term for the condition where
a) Facial drooping bleeding occurs into thesubarachnoid space
b) Arm weakness surrounding the brain?
c) Speech difficulty a) Epidural hemorrhage
d) Tachycardia b) Subdural hemorrhage
146. What is the recommended time window c) Intracerebral hemorrhage
for administeringthrombolytic therapy in d) Subarachnoid hemorrhage
ischemic stroke? 151. Which of the following is a common
a) 1 hour symptom of hemorrhagic stroke?
b) 3 hours a) Numbness or weakness on one side of the
c) 6 hours body
d) 12 hours b) Sudden severe headache
147. Which of the following is a potential c) Difficulty speaking or understanding speech
complication of ischemic stroke? d) Vision disturbances
a) Subarachnoid hemorrhage 152. What is the term for a type of stroke
b) Cerebral edema caused by a small artery diseasein the brain?
c) Hypertension a) Embolic stroke
d) Bradycardia b) Thrombotic stroke
148. What is the term for a type of ischemic c) Lacunar stroke
stroke caused by a clottraveling to the brain d) Cryptogenic stroke
from another part of the body? 153. Which of the following factors increases
a) Embolic stroke the risk of hemorrhagicstroke?
b) Thrombotic stroke a) High levels of LDL cholesterol
c) Lacunar stroke b) Hypertension
d) Cryptogenic stroke c) Sedentary lifestyle

d) Diabetes mellitus d) Cryptogenic stroke
154. Which artery is commonly affected in 159. Which of the following interventions is
anterior circulation strokes? NOT typically part of the acutemanagement of
a) Anterior cerebral artery hemorrhagic stroke?
b) Middle cerebral artery a) Blood pressure control
c) Posterior cerebral artery b) Surgical evacuation of hematoma
d) Basilar artery c) Administration of thrombolytics
155. What is the term for the sudden loss of d) Monitoring for signs of increased intracranial
consciousness and cessationof spontaneous pressure
breathing that can occur with massive 160. Which of the following pathogens is a
brainstemstrokes? common cause of bacterialmeningitis in adults?
a) Coma a) Herpes simplex virus
b) Locked-in syndrome b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
c) Brain death c) West Nile virus
d) Decerebrate posturing d) Varicella-zoster virus
156. Which of the following is NOT a modifiable 161. Which of the following is a classic symptom
risk factor for stroke? of meningitis?
a) Smoking a) Seizures
b) Age b) Photophobia
c) Obesity c) Hemiparesis
d) Hypertension d) Bradycardia
157. What is the term for a stroke that occurs 162. What is the primary route of transmission
during sleep and is firstnoticed upon waking? for viral meningitis?
a) Wake-up stroke a) Airborne droplets
b) Nocturnal stroke b) Fecal-oral route
c) Silent stroke c) Sexual contact
d) Insomnia stroke d) Vector-borne transmission
158. What is the term for a stroke with an 163. Which of the following is NOT a typical
unknown cause? symptom of encephalitis?
a) Embolic stroke a) Fever
b) Thrombotic stroke b) Headache
c) Lacunar stroke c) Confusion

d) Papilledema 169. Which of the following pathogens can
164. What is the most common cause of viral cause both meningitis andencephalitis?
encephalitis? a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
a) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) b) Neisseria meningitidis
b) Herpes simplex virus (HSV) c) Listeria monocytogenes
c) Streptococcus pneumoniae d) Herpes simplex virus
d) Neisseria meningitidis 170. What is the typical treatment for viral
165. Which of the following diagnostic tests is encephalitis?
most useful in confirmingthe presence of a) Antibiotics
meningitis or encephalitis? b) Antiviral medication
a) Blood culture c) Corticosteroids
b) Lumbar puncture (CSF analysis) d) Antifungal medication
c) Electroencephalogram (EEG) 171. What is the term for a localized collection
d) MRI of the brain of pus within the braintissue?
166. What is the hallmark sign of meningitis on a) Meningitis
lumbar puncture? b) Encephalitis
a) Elevated white blood cell count c) Brain abscess
b) Decreased glucose concentration d) Cerebral edema
c) Elevated protein concentration 172. Which of the following is NOT a common
d) Presence of red blood cells symptom of brain abscess?
167. What is the treatment of choice for a) Headache
bacterial meningitis? b) Seizures
a) Acyclovir c) Photophobia
b) Antifungal medication d) Focal neurological deficits
c) Antibiotics 173. What is the most common route of
d) Corticosteroids infection leading to a brainabscess?
168. Which of the following is a common a) Hematogenous spread
complication of bacterialmeningitis? b) Direct extension from adjacent structures
a) Guillain-Barré syndrome c) Lymphatic spread
b) Subarachnoid hemorrhage d) Congenital transmission
c) Hydrocephalus 174. Which of the following imaging modalities
d) Cerebral contusion is most useful indiagnosing a brain abscess?

a) X-ray 179. What is the term for inflammation of the
b) CT scan meninges and brainparenchyma
c) MRI simultaneously?
d) Ultrasound a) Meningoencephalitis
175. What is the treatment of choice for a brain b) Encephalomeningitis
abscess? c) Parenchymitis
a) Antibiotics d) Myelitis
b) Antiviral medication 180. What is epilepsy?
c) Surgical drainage a) A type of headache disorder
d) Corticosteroids b) A chronic neurological disorder
176. Which of the following is a common characterized by recurrent seizures
complication of untreated brainabscess? c) A psychiatric disorder
a) Meningitis d) A type of infectious disease
b) Hydrocephalus seizures
c) Cerebral edema 182. Which of the following is NOT a common
d) All of the above type of seizure?
177. Which type of brain abscess is most a) Absence seizure
commonly associated withinfections from b) Focal seizure
dental sources? c) Cardiac seizure
a) Cerebellar abscess d) Generalized tonic-clonic seizure
b) Temporal lobe abscess 183. What is the term for a seizure that affects
c) Frontal lobe abscess only one part of the brain?
d) Occipital lobe abscess a) Generalized seizure
178. Which of the following statements about b) Focal seizure
bacterial meningitis is FALSE? c) Absence seizure
a) It is most commonly caused by viruses d) Atonic seizure
b) It is a medical emergency requiring prompt 184. Which of the following is a common aura
treatment experienced by someindividuals before a
c) It can lead to serious complications if seizure?
untreated a) Auditory hallucinations
d) It can be prevented with vaccination b) Visual disturbances
c) Nausea

d) Muscle weakness d) It is characterized by recurrent, unprovoked
185. What is the hallmark symptom of an seizures
absence seizure? 190. What is the term for sudden muscle
a) Loss of consciousness and muscle tone weakness or loss of muscle tone,often resulting
b) Repetitive blinking or staring in falls?
c) Convulsions and tonic-clonic movements a) Myoclonic seizure
d) Sudden loss of muscle strength b) Atonic seizure
186. Which of the following is a potential trigger c) Tonic seizure
for seizures in individualswith epilepsy? d) Clonic seizure
a) Regular sleep patterns 191. Which of the following is a common side
b) Stress management techniques effect of antiepilepticmedications?
c) Alcohol consumption a) Insomnia
d) Adequate hydration b) Hypotension
187. Which medication is commonly used as a c) Weight gain
first-line treatment forepilepsy? d) Hypoglycemia
a) Ibuprofen 192. What is the term for a seizure that involves
b) Paracetamol (Acetaminophen) brief, shock-like musclecontractions?
c) Phenytoin a) Tonic seizure
d) Levothyroxine b) Clonic seizure
188. What is the term for a seizure that lasts c) Myoclonic seizure
longer than 5 minutes oroccurs consecutively d) Absence seizure
without recovery between seizures? 193. Which of the following activities should be
a) Simple partial seizure avoided by individuals withepilepsy to reduce
b) Status epilepticus the risk of seizures?
c) Complex partial seizure a) Regular exercise
d) Atonic seizure b) Adequate hydration
189. Which of the following statements about c) Swimming alone
epilepsy is TRUE? d) Meditation
a) It only affects children and adolescents 194. What is the term for a seizure
b) It is contagious characterized by stiffening of themuscles
c) It can be completely cured with medication followed by jerking movements?
a) Tonic seizure

b) Clonic seizure b) Migraine aura
c) Myoclonic seizure c) Panic attacks
d) Tonic-clonic seizure d) Sleep apnea
195. Which of the following is a common trigger 200. What is the term for the cessation of
for reflex seizures? seizures with the appropriate useof
a) Emotional stress antiepilepticmedications?
b) Flashing lights a) Seizure cessation
c) Loud noises b) Seizure suppression
d) All of the above c) Seizure remission
196. What is the term for a seizure that affects d) Seizure termination
both hemispheres of thebrain simultaneously? 201.What is Myasthenia Gravis (MG)?
a) Focal seizure a) A neurological disorder characterized by
b) Generalized seizure progressive muscleweakness
c) Absence seizure b) An autoimmune disorder affecting the
d) Atonic seizure peripheral nervous system
197. Which of the following is a potential c) A viral infection affecting the brain and spinal
consequence of untreated orpoorly controlled cord
epilepsy? d) A genetic disorder causing muscle
a) Loss of hearing wastingsystem
b) Vision impairment 202. Which of the following is a hallmark
c) Cognitive decline symptom of Myasthenia Gravis?
d) Increased muscle strength a) Tremors
198. What is the term for a seizure that occurs b) Muscle rigidity
in response to a specifictrigger, such as flashing c) Muscle weakness that worsens with activity
lights? and improves with rest
a) Generalized seizure d) Hyperreflexiawith rest
b) Reflex seizure 203. What is the underlying cause of
c) Tonic seizure Myasthenia Gravis?
d) Absence seizure a) Genetic mutations
199. Which of the following is a non-epileptic b) Viral infection
condition that can mimicseizures? c) Autoimmune attack on acetylcholine
a) Narcolepsy receptors

d) Traumatic brain injury c) Accumulation of abnormal proteins in the
204. Which of the following muscles is most spinal cord
commonly affected byMyasthenia Gravis? d) Autoimmune attack on peripheral nerves
a) Quadriceps 209. Which of the following is a common
b) Biceps complication of Guillain-BarréSyndrome?
c) Extraocular muscles a) Hypertension
d) Gastrocnemius b) Respiratory failure
205. Which diagnostic test is commonly used to c) Osteoporosis
confirm MyastheniaGravis? d) Diabetes mellitus
a) MRI 210. What is the typical progression of
b) CT scan weakness in Guillain-BarréSyndrome?
c) Electromyography (EMG) a) Ascending paralysis starting from the head
d) Blood culture b) Descending paralysis starting from the legs
206. What is Guillain-Barré Syndrome (GBS)? c) Symmetrical paralysis affecting both sides
a) A genetic disorder affecting the muscles simultaneously
b) An autoimmune disorder affecting the d) Alternating paralysis between upper and
central nervous system lower limbs
c) An autoimmune disorder affecting the 211. Which of the following medications is
peripheral nervous system commonly used to treatMyasthenia Gravis?
d) A viral infection affecting the lungssystem a) Corticosteroids
207. Which of the following is a common initial b) Anticholinergic drugs
symptom of Guillain-BarréSyndrome? c) Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
a) Seizures d) Beta-blockers
b) Muscle atrophy 212. What is the treatment of choice for
c) Tingling or weakness in the legs Guillain-Barré Syndrome?
d) Visual disturbances a) Antibiotics
208. What is the pathophysiology of Guillain- b) Antiviral medication
Barré Syndrome? c) Plasmapheresis or intravenous
a) Degeneration of the myelin sheath immunoglobulin (IVIG)
b) Destruction of motor neurons in the d) Corticosteroids
brainstem 213. Which of the following statements about
Myasthenia Gravis is TRUE?

a) It primarily affects the central nervous b) Emotional stress
system c) Poor sleep
b) It is a hereditary disorder d) All of the above
c) Symptoms typically worsen at night 218. Which of the following is a characteristic
d) It is characterized by muscle weakness feature of Miller Fishersyndrome, a variant of
exacerbated by repetitiveuse GuillainBarré Syndrome?
214. What is the term for the rapid onset of a) Severe muscle atrophy
symptoms in Guillain-BarréSyndrome? b) Ataxia and ophthalmoplegia
a) Acute inflammatory demyelinating c) Aphasia and hemiplegia
polyneuropathy (AIDP) d) Bilateral lower limb weakness
b) Chronic inflammatory demyelinating 219. What is the term for the temporary
polyneuropathy (CIDP) improvement in symptomsfollowing
c) Miller Fisher syndrome administration ofedrophonium in Myasthenia
d) Landry’s ascending paralysis Gravis?
215. Which of the following cranial nerves is a) Remission
often affected in MyastheniaGravis? b) Myasthenic crisis
a) Olfactory nerve (CN I) c) Cholinergic crisis
b) Optic nerve (CN II) d) Tensilon test response
c) Oculomotor nerve (CN III) 220. Which of the following statements about
d) Trigeminal nerve (CN V) Guillain-Barré Syndrome isTRUE?
216. Which of the following statements about a) It primarily affects sensory nerves
Guillain-Barré Syndrome isFALSE? b) It is a genetic disorder
a) It typically follows a viral or bacterial c) It is characterized by symmetric muscle
infection weakness
b) It is characterized by ascending muscle d) It is not associated with autoimmune
weakness mechanisms
c) It primarily affects the central nervous 221. What is trigeminal neuralgia?
system a) A neurological disorder causing weakness of
d) It can lead to respiratory failure facial muscles
217. Which of the following is a common trigger b) An autoimmune condition affecting the
for exacerbations inMyasthenia Gravis? trigeminal nerve
a) Physical exercise

c) A chronic pain condition affecting the b) Anticonvulsants
trigeminal nerve c) Opioid pain medications
d) A type of migraine headache d) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
222. Which cranial nerve is primarily affected in (NSAIDs)
trigeminal neuralgia? 227. Which of the following medications is
a) Olfactory nerve (CN I) commonly used to treattrigeminal neuralgia by
b) Optic nerve (CN II) stabilizingnerve membranes?
c) Trigeminal nerve (CN V) a) Carbamazepine
d) Facial nerve (CN VII) b) Propranolol
223. What is the typical presentation of c) Morphine
trigeminal neuralgia? d) Acetaminophen
a) Throbbing pain in the lower back 228. What is the term for a minimally invasive
b) Shooting or stabbing pain in the face procedure used to treattrigeminal neuralgia by
c) Tingling sensation in the limbs damagingthe nerve fibers?
d) Dull ache in the abdomen a) Nerve block
224. Which division of the trigeminal nerve is b) Rhizotomy
most commonly affected intrigeminal c) Decompression surgery
neuralgia? d) Microvascular decompression
a) Ophthalmic (V1) 229. Which of the following statements about
b) Maxillary (V2) trigeminal neuralgia is TRUE?
c) Mandibular (V3) a) It usually occurs bilaterally
d) Buccal b) It primarily affects the lower extremities
225. What triggers the pain episodes in c) It is commonly associated with numbness or
trigeminal neuralgia? weakness of the face
a) Emotional stress d) It typically affects older individualsthe face
b) Cold temperatures 230. What is the term for the brief period of
c) Chewing, speaking, or touching specific relief from trigeminal neuralgiapain after a
areas of the face rhizotomyprocedure?
d) Loud noises a) Remission
226. What is the first-line treatment for b) Pain cessation
trigeminal neuralgia? c) Pain recurrence
a) Antidepressants d) Pain latency

231. Which of the following conditions is d) Ultrasound
commonly associated withtrigeminal neuralgia? 236. Which of the following treatments for
a) Multiple sclerosis trigeminal neuralgia involvesinjecting a
b) Alzheimer’s disease medication directlyinto the trigeminal nerve to
c) Parkinson’s disease block painsignals?
d) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) a) Rhizotomy
232. What is the term for the surgical procedure b) Microvascular decompression
performed to relievepressure on the trigeminal c) Nerve block
nerveby repositioning nearby bloodvessels? d) Decompression surgery
a) Rhizotomy 237. What is the term for the type of pain
b) Decompression surgery experienced in trigeminalneuralgia, often
c) Microvascular decompression described aselectric shock-like or stabbing?
d) Nerve block a) Lancinating pain
233. Which of the following statements about b) Throbbing pain
trigeminal neuralgia isFALSE? c) Aching pain
a) It typically affects both sides of the face d) Burning pain
b) It can be triggered by activities such as eating 238. Which of the following factors may trigger
or brushing teeth or exacerbate trigeminalneuralgia?
c) It is more common in women than in men a) Warm temperatures
d) It is also known as tic douloureux b) Emotional stress
234. What is the term for the sudden, severe c) Soft foods
facial pain experienced intrigeminal neuralgia? d) Resting
a) Hyperesthesia 239. What is the term for the condition where
b) Paresthesia trigeminal neuralgia painbecomes resistant
c) Tic douloureux tomedication and other treatments?
d) Neuralgia a) Refractory trigeminal neuralgia
235. Which of the following imaging studies is b) Recurrent trigeminal neuralgia
often performed to rule outother causes of c) Secondary trigeminal neuralgia
facial pain intrigeminal neuralgia? d) Chronic trigeminal neuralgia
a) CT scan 240. What is a migraine?
b) MRI a) A type of tension headache
c) X-ray

b) A neurological disorder characterized by d) Antidepressants
recurrent moderate to 245. What is the term for a migraine headache
severe headaches lasting more than 72 hours?
c) A viral infection affecting the brain A) Chronic migraine
d) A type of sinusitismoderate to severe b) Episodic migraine
headaches c) Cluster headache
241. What is the primary symptom of a d) Tension headache
migraine? 246. Which of the following lifestyle changes
a) Nausea and vomiting may help prevent migraines?
b) Muscle weakness a) Smoking
c) Sensitivity to loud noises b) Irregular sleep patterns
d) Tingling sensation in the limbs c) Regular physical activity
242. Which of the following is a common trigger d) Excessive caffeine intake
for migraines? 247. Which of the following statements about
a) Regular sleep patterns migraines is TRUE?
b) Hydration a) Migraines are more common in men than in
c) Stress women
d) Sedentary lifestyle b) Migraines typically improve with exposure to
243. What is an aura in the context of bright lights
migraines? c) Migraines are always accompanied by an
a) A sensation of impending doom aura
b) Visual disturbances or other neurological d) Migraines may be triggered by certain foods
symptoms preceding the or beverages
headache 248. What is the first-line treatment for severe
c) A sudden loss of consciousness migraines in emergencysettings?
d) A feeling of numbness in the limbspreceding a) Opioid pain medications
the headache b) Acetaminophen
244. Which of the following medications is c) Triptans
commonly used to treat acutemigraines? d) Prophylactic antibiotics
A) Ibuprofen 249. Which of the following symptoms is NOT
b) Antibiotics typically associated withmigraines?
c) Insulin a) Visual disturbances

b) Fever 254. Which of the following statements about
c) Phonophobia (sensitivity to sound) migraines is FALSE?
d) Olfactory hallucinations a) Migraines can be triggered by hormonal
250. What is the term for a headache occurring changes
15 or more days per monthfor more than b) Migraines are more common in women than
threeonths? in men
a) Tension headache c) Migraines typically improve with rest and
b) Episodic migraine relaxation
c) Chronic migraine d) Migraines are not influenced by dietary
d) Cluster headache factors
251. Which of the following is a common 255. What is the term for a type of headache
preventive treatment formigraines? characterized by intense painon one side of the
a) Drinking excessive amounts of caffeine head,often accompanied by other symptoms
b) Avoiding regular sleep patterns suchas nasal congestion or eye tearing?
c) Taking over-the-counter painkillers daily a) Tension headache
d) Prescription medications such as beta- b) Migraine headache
blockers or antidepressants c) Cluster headache
antidepressants d) Sinus headache
252. What is the term for a migraine headache 256. Which of the following is NOT a common
with aura but withoutsubsequent headache symptom of migraines?
pain? a) Aura
a) Typical migraine b) Phonophobia
b) Migraine without aura c) Facial numbness
c) Migraine aura without headache d) Nausea
d) Silent migraine 257. What is the term for a migraine headache
253. Which of the following is a common aura preceded by neurologicalsymptoms such as
symptom experienced bymigraine sufferers? visual disturbances or tingling sensations?
a) Muscle weakness a) Typical migraine
b) Loss of balance b) Migraine without aura
c) Visual disturbances such as flashing lights or c) Migraine aura without headache
blind spots d) Silent migraine
d) Shortness of breath

258. Which of the following medications is 263. Which neurotransmitter is primarily
commonly used for migraineprophylaxis in affected in Parkinson’s disease?
individuals withfrequent or severe attacks? a) Serotonin
a) Acetaminophen b) Dopamine
b) Sumatriptan c) Acetylcholine
c) Topiramate d) GABA
d) Diphenhydramine 264. What is the term for the characteristic
259. What is the term for a headache slowness of movementobserved in Parkinson’s
characterized by a dull, non-throbbingpain and disease?
muscle tension inthe neck and scalp? a) Ataxia
a) Migraine headache b) Dysarthria
b) Cluster headache c) Bradykinesia
c) Tension headache d) Akathisia
d) Sinus headache 265. Which of the following is NOT a common
260. What is Parkinson’s disease? motor symptom ofParkinson’s disease?
a) A type of dementia a) Rigidity
b) A psychiatric disorder b) Akinesia
c) A progressive neurological disorder c) Athetosis
d) A viral infection d) Postural instability
261. Which of the following is a hallmark 266. Which part of the brain is primarily
symptom of Parkinson’s disease? affected in Parkinson’s disease?
a) Muscle weakness a) Cerebellum
b) Tremors at rest b) Basal ganglia
c) Visual hallucinations c) Hippocampus
d) Hyperactivity d) Cerebral cortex
262. What is the primary cause of Parkinson’s 267. What is the term for the characteristic
disease? shuffling gait seen inParkinson’s disease?
a) Genetic mutations a) Ataxic gait
b) Environmental factors b) Festinating gait
c) Viral infection c) Hemiplegic gait
d) Unknown, but likely a combination of d) Scissor gait
genetic and environmentalfactors

268. Which of the following is a common a) On-off phenomenon
non-motor symptom ofParkinson’s disease? b) Placebo effect
a) Muscle hypertonia c) Tolerance
b) Excessive sweating d) Rebound effect
c) Depression 273. Which of the following is a surgical
d) Hyperreflexia treatment option for Parkinson’sdisease
269. Which diagnostic imaging technique can that involves implantingelectrodes into the
be used to visualize changesin the brain brain to deliverelectrical impulses?
associated withParkinson’s disease? a) Deep brain stimulation (DBS)
a) X-ray b) Chemotherapy
b) CT scan c) Radiation therapy
c) MRI d) Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
d) PET scan 274. Which of the following is NOT a
270. What is the term for the involuntary, common early symptom ofParkinson’s
rhythmic shaking of a body partthat occurs disease?
in Parkinson’s disease? a) Micrographia
a) Myoclonus b) Bradyphrenia
b) Chorea c) Resting tremor
c) Athetosis d) Hypomimia
d) Tremor 275. What is the term for the freezing
271. Which of the following medications is episodes experienced by someindividuals
commonly used to manage themotor with Parkinson’s disease, where they
symptoms of Parkinson’s disease by suddenly becomeunable to move?
increasing dopaminelevels in the brain? a) Akinesia
a) Levodopa b) Dystonia
b) Aspirin c) Bradykinesia
c) Insulin d) Festination
d) Antibiotics 276. Which of the following statements
272. What is the term for the wearing-off about Parkinson’s disease is TRUE?
phenomenon observed inParkinson’s a) It primarily affects children and
disease, where medication effectiveness adolescents
diminishes overtime? b) It is a curable condition

c) It is associated with the presence of Lewy 281. Which of the following is a hallmark
bodies in the brain pathological feature ofAlzheimer’s disease?
d) It is caused by a deficiency of a) Lewy bodies
acetylcholine in the brain b) Neurofibrillary tangles
277. What is the term for the forward- c) Pick bodies
leaning posture observed inadvanced d) Huntington protein aggregates
stages of Parkinson’s disease? 282. What is the primary symptom of
a) Cogwheel rigidity Alzheimer’s disease in its earlystages?
b) Retropulsion a) Muscle weakness
c) Antecollis b) Memory impairment
d) Camptocormia c) Visual hallucinations
278. Which of the following is a common d) Muscle rigidity
non-motor symptom ofParkinson’s disease 283. Which neurotransmitter deficiency is
affecting speech and voice quality? associated with Alzheimer’sdisease?
a) Dysphagia a) Serotonin
b) Dysarthria b) Dopamine
c) Dysphonia c) Acetylcholine
d) Aphasia d) GABA
279. Which of the following is a potential 284. What is the term for the plaques
complication of long-termlevodopa use in formed by the accumulation of
Parkinson’s disease? betaamyloidprotein in the brain?
a) Worsening of motor symptoms a) Tau tangles
b) Hypertension b) Lewy bodies
c) Hypoglycemia c) Senile plaques
d) Peripheral neuropathy d) Pick bodies
280. What is Alzheimer’s disease? 285. Which of the following is a common
a) A type of cancer early sign of Alzheimer’s disease?
b) A type of infectious disease a) Loss of appetite
c) A progressive neurodegenerative b) Difficulty with language
disorder c) Excessive sweating
d) A psychiatric disorder d) Hearing loss

286. What is the Mini-Mental State 291. Which of the following is a genetic risk
Examination (MMSE) commonly usedfor in factor for early-onsetAlzheimer’s disease?
Alzheimer’s disease diagnosis? a) APOE gene
a) Blood test b) APP gene
b) Neuroimaging c) PS1 gene
c) Cognitive assessment d) BDNF gene
d) Genetic testing 292. Which of the following is a common
287. Which part of the brain is primarily non-pharmacological interventionfor
affected in Alzheimer’s disease? managing Alzheimer’s disease symptoms?
a) Cerebellum a) Antipsychotic medications
b) Hippocampus b) Physical restraints
c) Basal ganglia c) Cognitive stimulation activities
d) Brainstem d) Sedative-hypnotic drugs
288. Which of the following is NOT a 293. What is the term for the stage of
common risk factor for Alzheimer’sdisease? Alzheimer’s disease characterized bysevere
a) Age cognitive decline and inability to perform
b) Family history daily activitiesindependently?
c) Regular physical exercise a) Early-stage Alzheimer’s
d) Genetic predisposition b) Mild cognitive impairment
289. Which of the following is a common c) Late-stage Alzheimer’s
behavioral symptom ofAlzheimer’s disease? d) Moderate Alzheimer’s
a) Agitation 294. Which of the following is a common
b) Ataxia early symptom of Alzheimer’sdisease?
c) Hypertension a) Tremors
d) Hyperreflexia b) Apathy
290. What is the term for the gradual decline c) Dysphagia
in cognitive abilities seen inAlzheimer’s d) Diplopia
disease? 295. Which of the following medications is
a) Cognitive dissonance commonly used to managecognitive
b) Cognitive decline symptoms in Alzheimer’s disease?
c) Cognitive reserve a) Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
d) Cognitive distortion

b) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs d) Reduced risk of falls
(NSAIDs) 300. What is brain damage?
c) Antipsychotics a) A reversible condition affecting brain
d) Beta-blockers function temporarily
296. What is the term for the condition b) A permanent alteration of brain function
where a person with Alzheimer’sdisease due to injury or disease
wanders and becomes lost? c) A psychiatric disorder
a) Sundowning d) A genetic conditiondisease
b) Elated delirium 301. Which of the following is NOT a
c) Echolalia common cause of brain damage?
d) Wandering a) Traumatic brain injury (TBI)
297. Which of the following is a common b) Stroke
form of dementia that may bemistaken for c) Migraine headache
Alzheimer’s disease? d) Brain tumor
a) Parkinson’s disease dementia 302. What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)
b) Lewy body dementia used for?
c) Huntington’s disease a) To assess motor function in patients with
d) Frontotemporal dementia brain damage
298. Which of the following statements b) To measure intelligence levels in children
about Alzheimer’s disease is TRUE? c) To assess level of consciousness and
a) It primarily affects the peripheral nervous neurological function
system d) To diagnose brain tumorsfunction
b) It is a reversible condition 303. Which of the following is a common
c) It is characterized by the presence of Pick symptom of brain damage?
bodies in the brain a) Enhanced memory
d) It is the most common cause of dementia b) Improved coordination
299. Which of the following is a potential c) Seizures
complication of advancedAlzheimer’s d) Reduced anxiety
disease? 304. What is a vegetative state?
a) Increased cognitive function a) A state of deep sleep induced by
b) Malnutrition medication
c) Enhanced communication skills

b) A state of wakefulness without 309. What is the main difference between
awareness coma and locked-in syndrome?
c) A state of heightened sensory perception a) Coma is reversible, while locked-in
d) A state of active dreaming syndrome is not.
305. What is the term for a state of profound b) Coma is characterized by complete
unconsciousness from whicha person paralysis, while locked-insyndrome allows
cannot be aroused? for some degree of movement.
a) Stupor c) Coma is associated with memory loss,
b) Coma while locked-in syndrome isnot.
c) Delirium d) Coma can be treated with medication,
d) Catalepsy while locked-in
306. Which of the following is a common syndromecannot.syndrome allows for
cause of coma? some degree of movement.
a) Excessive caffeine intake 310. What is the term for a condition
b) Dehydration characterized by alternating periodsof deep
c) Traumatic brain injury sleep and wakefulness?
d) Adequate sleep a) Sleep apnea
307. What is the term for a state of b) Narcolepsy
confusion marked by c) Circadian rhythm disorder
disorientation,agitation, and hallucinations? d) Hypersomnia
a) Coma 311. Which of the following is a potential
b) Delirium complication of brain damage?
c) Vegetative state a) Enhanced cognitive function
d) Locked-in syndrome b) Amnesia
308. Which of the following is a symptom of c) Improved sensory perception
locked-in syndrome? d) Reduced risk of seizures
a) Complete paralysis and inability to 312. What is the term for a state of sleep
communicate verbally characterized by rapid eyemovement (REM)
b) Restlessness and agitation and vivid dreaming?
c) Memory loss and disorientation a) Stage 1 sleep
d) Profound unconsciousness b) Stage 2 sleep
c) Stage 3 sleep

d) REM sleep 316. What is the term for a state of reduced
313. Which part of the brain is primarily alertness and awareness?
responsible for regulating sleepwakecycles? a) Coma
a) Cerebellum b) Stupor
b) Hypothalamus c) Lethargy
c) Basal ganglia d) Delirium
d) Brainstem 317. Which of the following imaging
314. Which of the following is a common techniques is commonly used tovisualize
symptom of brain damageaffecting the brain damage?
frontal lobe? a) Electroencephalography (EEG)
a) Visual disturbances b) Positron emission tomography (PET)
b) Impaired judgment and reasoning c) Electrocardiography (ECG)
c) Memory loss d) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
d) Muscle weakness 318. Which of the following is a potential
315. What is the term for a temporary loss of consequence of prolongedhypoxia in the
consciousness and posturaltone due to brain?
decreased blood flow to the brain? a) Increased cognitive function
a) Syncope b) Memory improvement
b) Vertigo c) Brain damage
c) Lethargy d) Enhanced motor skills
d) Dysarthria

Unit-4 CVS Disorders
1. What is the primary pathological process D) Mycotic aneurysm

underlying atherosclerosis? 6.Atherosclerotic plaques are most commonly
A) Inflammation and fibrosis found in which layer of the arterial wall?
B) Hypertrophy of arterial smooth muscle A) Tunica intima
C) Accumulation of platelets B) Tunica media
D) Deposition of cholesterol in arterial walls C) Tunica externa
2.Which lipoprotein is often referred to as “bad D) Endothelium
cholesterol” and is associated with increased 7.Which of the following is NOT a common
risk of atherosclerosis? location for aneurysm formation?
A) HDL A) Abdominal aorta
B) LDL B) Coronary arteries
C) VLDL C) Intracranial arteries
D) IDL D) Popliteal artery
3. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for 8.What is the term for a localized dilation of a
developing atherosclerosis? blood vessel that involves all three layers of the
A) High blood pressure vessel wall?
B) Low levels of LDL cholesterol A) Atherosclerosis
C) Smoking B) Varix
D) Diabetes mellitus C) Aneurysm
4.What is the primary cause of aneurysm D) Thrombosis
formation in the arterial wall? 9.Which of the following is a characteristic
A) Thrombosis feature of an atherosclerotic plaque?
B) Arterial spasm A) Thin fibrous cap
C) Degeneration of the vessel wall B) High-density lipoprotein (HDL) accumulation
D) Infection C) Thin lipid core
5.Which type of aneurysm occurs most D) Endothelial integrity
commonly in the aorta? 10.Which of the following is a potential
A) Saccular aneurysm complication of aortic aneurysm?
B) Fusiform aneurysm A) Myocardial infarction
C) Dissecting aneurysm B) Pulmonary embolism

C) Aortic dissection 15.Which of the following is NOT a potential
D) Pneumothorax complication of aneurysm rupture?
11.What is the primary function of HDL A) Hemorrhagic shock
cholesterol in relation to atherosclerosis? B) Ischemic stroke
A) Transport cholesterol from the liver to C) Aortic regurgitation
peripheral tissues D) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
B) Promote the formation of atherosclerotic 16.Which layer of the arterial wall primarily
plaques provides structural support and elasticity?
C) Remove excess cholesterol from peripheral A) Tunica intima
tissues and transport it to the liver for B) Tunica media
excretion C) Tunica externa
D) Stimulate smooth muscle cell proliferation in D) Endothelium
arterial excretioN 17.Which of the following is a characteristic
12.Which of the following imaging modalities is feature of an atherosclerotic plaque that
typically used to diagnose abdominal aortic increases its stability?
aneurysms? A) Large lipid core
A) Echocardiography B) Thin fibrous cap
B) Computed tomography (CT) angiography C) Intraplaque hemorrhage
C) Electrocardiography (ECG) D) Endothelial denudation
D) Positron emission tomography (PET) 18.Which of the following is a common
13.Atherosclerosis commonly affects which symptom of a thoracic aortic aneurysm?
type of arteries? A) Abdominal pain
A) Elastic arteries B) Hematuria
B) Muscular arteries C) Dysphagia
C) Arterioles D) Claudication
D) Capillaries 19.What is the term for a type of aneurysm
14.What is the primary risk factor for characterized by a tear in the inner layer of the
developing an abdominal aortic aneurysm? arterial wall?
A) Hypercholesterolemia A) Saccular aneurysm
B) Hypertension B) Fusiform aneurysm
C) Diabetes mellitus C) Dissecting aneurysm
D) Smoking D) Ruptured aneurysm

20.Which of the following laboratory tests is 25. What is the term for the medical procedure
often elevated in individuals with used to treat varicose veins by removing or
atherosclerosis? closing off the affected vein?
A) Serum creatinine A) Vasodilation
B) Troponin B) Venoplasty
C) C-reactive protein (CRP) C) Sclerotherapy
D) Serum potassium D) Venous ablation
21. Varicose veins commonly occur in which of 26. Which of the following is a potential
the following areas? complication of untreated varicose veins?
A) Upper extremities A) Arterial thrombosis
B) Abdomen B) Venous stasis ulcers
C) Lower extremities C) Hypotension
D) Neck D) Cardiac arrhythmias
22. Which of the following is a risk factor for 27. What is the term for the condition
the development of varicose veins? characterized by the formation of a blood
A) Regular exercise clot within a vein?
B) Sedentary lifestyle A) Thrombophlebitis
C) Low body mass index (BMI) B) Atherosclerosis
D) Adequate hydration C) Venous insufficiency
23. What is the primary cause of varicose D) Varicose veins
veins? 28. Which of the following is NOT a common
A) Arterial insufficiency risk factor for venous thrombosis?
B) Venous insufficiency A) Obesity
C) Atherosclerosis B) Pregnancy
D) Thrombosis C) Regular exercise
24. Which of the following is a common D) Prolonged immobility
symptom of varicose veins? 29. Venous thrombosis most commonly occurs
A) Pallor of the skin in which part of the body?
B) Intermittent claudication A) Brain
C) Pruritus B) Lungs
D) Pulsatile mass C) Legs
D) Heart

30. Which of the following factors is involved in C) Doppler ultrasound
Virchow’s triad, contributing to the D) Positron emission tomography (PET)
formation of venous thrombosis? 35. Which of the following medications is
A) Arterial hypertension commonly used in the treatment and
B) Hyperlipidemia prevention of venous thrombosis?
C) Venous stasis A) Beta-blockers
D) Diabetes mellitus B) Statins
31. Which of the following laboratory tests is C) Heparin
commonly used to diagnose venous D) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
thrombosis? inhibitors
A) Serum creatinine 36. What is the primary symptom of venous
B) Troponin thrombosis?
C) D-dimer A) Chest pain
D) Serum potassium B) Shortness of breath
32. Which of the following is a potential C) Leg pain and swelling
complication of venous thrombosis? D) Headache
A) Hemorrhagic stroke 37. Which of the following conditions is
B) Pulmonary embolism characterized by the presence of blood clots
C) Hypertensive crisis in superficial veins, often accompanied by
D) Acute pancreatitis inflammation?
33. What is the term for a condition in which a A) Deep veins thrombosis (DVT)
blood clot breaks off and travels through B) Thrombophlebitis
the bloodstream, becoming lodged in the C) Pulmonary embolism (PE)
pulmonary arteries? D) Chronic venous insufficiency
A) Myocardial infarction 38. Which of the following measures is
B) Ischemic stroke recommended for preventing venous
C) Pulmonary embolism thrombosis in hospitalized patients?
D) Aortic dissection A) Prolonged bed rest
34. Which of the following imaging modalities is B) Smoking cessation
often used to diagnose venous thrombosis? C) Early mobilization
A) Electrocardiography (ECG) D) Increased dietary fat intake
B) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

39. Which of the following demographic groups A) Regular exercise
is at higher risk for developing venous B) Low sodium diet
thrombosis? C) Obesity
A) Children D) Vegetarian diet
B) Elderly individuals 45. What is the term for hypertension with no
C) Females identifiable cause?
D) Underweight individuals A) Primary hypertension
40. Which of the following is NOT a common B) Secondary hypertension
treatment option for varicose veins? C) Malignant hypertension
A) Compression stockings D) Hypertensive emergency
B) Endovenous laser treatment 46. Which of the following organs is primarily
C) Sclerotherapy affected by hypertension?
D) Anticoagulant therapy A) Liver
41. What is hypertension? B) Heart
A) Low blood pressure C) Pancreas
B) High blood pressure D) Spleen
C) Irregular heart rate 47. Which of the following lifestyle
D) Low oxygen saturation modifications is recommended for
42. What is the normal range for systolic blood managing hypertension?
pressure? A) High sodium diet
A) Less than 90 mmHg B) Sedentary lifestyle
B) 90-120 mmHg C) Smoking
C) 120-140 mmHg D) DASH diet
D) Greater than 140 mmHg 48. Which class of medications is commonly
43. What is the normal range for diastolic blood prescribed as first-line treatment for
pressure? hypertension?
A) Less than 60 mmHg A) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
B) 60-80 mmHg (NSAIDs)
C) 80-90 mmHg B) Antibiotics
D) Greater than 90 mmHg C) Diuretics
44. Which of the following is considered a risk D) Antidepressants
factor for developing hypertension? 49. Answer: C) Diuretics

50. What is the term for a hypertensive crisis B) Essential tremor
characterized by significantly elevated C) Osteoporosis
blood pressure along with evidence of acute D) Migraine headaches
target organ damage? 55. What is the term for a device used to
A) Malignant hypertension measure blood pressure?
B) Secondary hypertension A) Electrocardiogram (ECG)
C) Hypertensive urgency B) Stethoscope
D) Hypertensive emergency C) Sphygmomanometer
51. Which of the following is NOT a potential D) Spirometer
complication of hypertension? 56. Which of the following dietary factors is
A) Stroke associated with increased risk of
B) Heart attack hypertension?
C) Aneurysm rupture A) High potassium intake
D) Hypotension B) Low sodium intake
52. Which of the following is a modifiable risk C) High fiber intake
factor for hypertension? D) Low fat intake
A) Age 57. Which of the following age groups is most
B) Family history commonly affected by hypertension?
C) Smoking A) Children
D) Gender (male) B) Adolescents
53. Which of the following blood pressure C) Young adults
readings would classify as stage 2 D) Older adults
hypertension according to the American 58. What is the term for a blood pressure
Heart Association guidelines? reading between the normal range and
A) 120/80 mmHg hypertension?
B) 130/90 mmHg A) Hypertension stage 1
C) 140/90 mmHg B) Prehypertension
D) 160/100 mmHg C) Borderline hypertension
54. Which of the following conditions is D) Hypertension stage 2
commonly associated with secondary 59. Which of the following conditions is a
hypertension? known complication of long-standing
A) Primary aldosteronism uncontrolled

60. hypertension? 65. Which of the following lipid abnormalities is
A) Hypocalcemia associated with an increased risk of
B) Osteoarthritis Coronary Heart Disease?
C) Renal failure A) High levels of high-density lipoprotein (HDL)
D) Hyperthyroidism cholesterol
61. Which of the following lifestyle factors is B) Low levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL)
associated with a decreased risk of cholesterol
hypertension? C) High levels of triglycerides
A) Sedentary lifestyle D) Normal levels of total cholesterol
B) Excessive alcohol consumption 66. What is the term for the temporary
C) Stress management blockage of blood flow to the heart muscle,
D) High caffeine intake often resulting in chest pain or discomfort?
62. What is the term for a temporary increase A) Heart attack
in blood pressure due to stress or anxiety? B) Angina
A) White-coat hypertension C) Arrhythmia
B) Masked hypertension D) Cardiomyopathy
C) Isolated systolic hypertension 67. Which imaging technique is commonly used
D) Resistant hypertension to diagnose Coronary Heart Disease by
63. What is the primary cause of Coronary visualizing blockages in the coronary
Heart Disease? arteries?
A) Viral infection A) X-ray
B) Bacterial infection B) Electrocardiogram (ECG)
C) Atherosclerosis C) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
D) Genetic mutation D) Coronary angiography
64. Which of the following is a modifiable risk 68. Which of the following medications is
factor for Coronary Heart Disease? commonly prescribed to reduce the risk of
A) Age blood clots
B) Gender and prevent complications in patients with
C) Smoking Coronary Heart Disease?
D) Family history A) Antibiotics
B) Anticoagulants
C) Antidepressants

D) Antihypertensives C) Cardiac catheterization
69. Which of the following lifestyle D) Electrocardiogram (ECG)
modifications is recommended for 74. What is the term for the surgical procedure
managing Coronary Heart Disease? used to bypass blocked coronary arteries in
A) Sedentary lifestyle patients
B) High-fat diet with Coronary Heart Disease?
C) Regular exercise A) Angioplasty
D) Smoking B) Stenting
70. What is the term for the death of heart C) Coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG)
muscle tissue due to a lack of blood supply? D) Endarterectomy
A) Arrhythmia 75. Which of the following is a potential
B) Heart failure complication of untreated Coronary Heart
C) Myocardial infarction Disease?
D) Cardiomyopathy A) Hyperthyroidism
71. Which of the following is a common B) Pulmonary embolism
symptom of Coronary Heart Disease? C) Heart failure
A) Shortness of breath D) Cushing’s syndrome
B) Hypertension 76. What is the term for the chest pain or
C) Osteoporosis discomfort that occurs when the heart
D) Urinary incontinence muscle doesn’t get
72. Which of the following is NOT a typical risk enough oxygen-rich blood?
factor for Coronary Heart Disease? A) Heart attack
A) Obesity B) Angina
B) Physical inactivity C) Palpitations
C) Low cholesterol levels D) Arrhythmia
D) Diabetes mellitus 77. Which of the following dietary factors is
73. Which of the following diagnostic tests associated with an increased risk of
measures the electrical activity of the heart Coronary Heart
and can help Disease?
diagnose Coronary Heart Disease? A) High intake of fruits and vegetables
A) Echocardiogram B) Low intake of saturated fats
B) Stress test C) High intake of trans fats

D) Low intake of sodium 82. What is the term for the condition in which
78. Which of the following conditions is the heart muscle becomes weakened and
commonly associated with Coronary Heart unable
Disease? to pump blood efficiently?
A) Osteoarthritis A) Myocarditis
B) Hypertension B) Cardiomyopathy
C) Iron-deficiency anemia C) Endocarditis
D) Migraine headaches D) Pericarditis
79. What is the term for the buildup of plaque 83. Which of the following is a function of heart
in the coronary arteries, leading to reduced valves?
blood flow A) Regulation of blood pressure
to the heart muscle? B) Maintenance of heart rate
A) Atherosclerosis C) Prevention of backflow of blood
B) Thrombosis D) Production of red blood cells
C) Embolism 84. Which valve separates the left atrium from
D) Endocarditis the left ventricle?
80. Which of the following lifestyle A) Aortic valve
modifications is recommended for B) Mitral valve
managing Coronary Heart C) Pulmonary valve
Disease? D) Tricuspid valve
A) Smoking 85. Rheumatic fever is a common cause of
B) Sedentary lifestyle which valvular disorder?
C) High-fat diet A) Aortic stenosis
D) Stress management B) Mitral regurgitation
81. Which of the following medications is C) Pulmonary hypertension
commonly prescribed to reduce cholesterol D) Tricuspid regurgitation
levels and 86. Which valvular disorder is characterized by
lower the risk of Coronary Heart Disease? narrowing of the valve opening, restricting
A) Anticoagulants blood
B) Statins flow?
C) Beta-blockers A) Valvular insufficiency
D) Calcium channel blockers B) Valvular stenosis

C) Valvular prolapse 91. Which of the following symptoms is
D) Valvular regurgitation common in patients with severe aortic
87. Which of the following imaging techniques stenosis?
is commonly used to diagnose valvular A) Chest pain
disorders? B) Shortness of breath
A) Electrocardiogram (ECG) C) Palpitations
B) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) D) Lower back pain
C) Echocardiography 92. Which valve separates the right atrium from
D) Computed tomography (CT) scan the right ventricle?
88. Which valve is most commonly affected by A) Aortic valve
rheumatic heart disease? B) Mitral valve
A) Aortic valve C) Pulmonary valve
B) Mitral valve D) Tricuspid valve
C) Pulmonary valve 93. Which of the following valvular disorders is
D) Tricuspid valve commonly associated with aging?
89. What is the term for the backward flow of A) Aortic stenosis
blood caused by incomplete closure of a B) Mitral regurgitation
heart valve? C) Pulmonary hypertension
A) Valvular stenosis D) Tricuspid regurgitation
B) Valvular insufficiency 94. Which valvular disorder is characterized by
C) Valvular prolapse the bulging of valve leaflets into the atrium
D) Valvular regurgitation during
90. Which valvular disorder is characterized by ventricular contraction?
the backward flow of blood from the left A) Valvular stenosis
ventricle B) Valvular insufficiency
into the left atrium? C) Valvular prolapse
A) Aortic stenosis D) Valvular regurgitation
B) Mitral regurgitation 95. Which of the following conditions is
C) Pulmonary hypertension commonly associated with mitral valve
D) Tricuspid regurgitation prolapse?
A) Hypertension
B) Atrial fibrillation

C) Infective endocarditis D) Tricuspid regurgitation
D) Marfan syndrome 100. What is the term for the accumulation
96. Which valve separates the right ventricle of calcium deposits on the leaflets of the
from the pulmonary artery? aortic valve,
A) Aortic valve leading to narrowing of the valve opening?
B) Mitral valve A) Aortic stenosis
C) Pulmonary valve B) Aortic regurgitation
D) Tricuspid valve C) Aortic prolapse
97. Which of the following is a potential D) Aortic insufficiency
complication of untreated valvular 101. Which of the following diagnostic tests
disorders? is commonly used to assess the severity of
A) Hyperthyroidism valvular
B) Heart failure disorders?
C) Osteoporosis A) Electrocardiogram (ECG)
D) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease B) Blood glucose test
(COPD) C) Cardiac catheterization
98. What is the term for the condition in which D) Echocardiography
the mitral valve leaflets do not close 102. Which valve separates the left ventricle
properly, from the aorta?
causing blood to flow backward into the left A) Aortic valve
atrium? B) Mitral valve
A) Mitral stenosis C) Pulmonary valve
B) Mitral regurgitation D) Tricuspid valve
C) Mitral prolapse 103. What is heart failure?
D) Mitral insufficiency A) Complete cessation of heart function
99. Which valvular disorder is characterized by B) Inability of the heart to pump blood
incomplete closure of the tricuspid valve, effectively
leading to C) Rapid heartbeat
backflow of blood into the right atrium? D) Irregular heart rhythm
A) Aortic stenosis 104. Which of the following is a common
B) Mitral regurgitation symptom of heart failure?
C) Pulmonary hypertension A) Hypotension

B) Bradycardia 109. Which of the following medications is
C) Dyspnea on exertion commonly used to reduce fluid retention in
D) Hypertension patients with
105. Which of the following is NOT a risk heart failure?
factor for heart failure? A) Diuretics
A) Hypertension B) Beta-blockers
B) Diabetes mellitus C) Calcium channel blockers
C) Regular exercise D) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
D) Coronary artery disease inhibitors
106. What is the most common cause of 110. Which of the following is a common
heart failure? symptom of right-sided heart failure?
A) Viral infection A) Dyspnea
B) Genetic mutation B) Peripheral edema
C) Atherosclerosis C) Pulmonary edema
D) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease D) Orthopnea
(COPD) 111. Which of the following conditions is
107. Which type of heart failure occurs when commonly associated with left-sided heart
the heart muscle becomes stiff and cannot failure?
fill properly A) Cirrhosis
during diastole? B) Pulmonary embolism
A) Systolic heart failure C) Pulmonary hypertension
B) Diastolic heart failure D) Renal failure
C) Right-sided heart failure 112. What is the term for the accumulation
D) Left-sided heart failure of fluid in the lungs, a common
108. Which of the following diagnostic tests complication of heart
is commonly used to assess heart function failure?
in patients A) Ascites
with heart failure? B) Pleural effusion
A) Electroencephalogram (EEG) C) Pulmonary edema
B) Echocardiography D) Pericardial effusion
C) Colonoscopy
D) Bone scan

113. Which of the following lifestyle A) Pulmonary embolism
modifications is recommended for B) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
managing heart failure? (COPD)
A) Sedentary lifestyle C) Mitral valve prolapse
B) High-sodium diet D) Cirrhosis
C) Smoking 118. Which of the following is a common
D) Regular exercise symptom of left-sided heart failure?
114. Which of the following medications is A) Peripheral edema
commonly used to improve heart function B) Hepatomegaly
and reduce C) Orthopnea
symptoms in patients with heart failure? D) Jugular vein distention
A) Anticoagulants 119. Which of the following diagnostic tests
B) Statins measures the levels of certain proteins
C) Digitalis released into the
D) Antibiotics blood when the heart is damaged, often
115. Which of the following is a potential used in diagnosing heart failure?
complication of untreated heart failure? A) Complete blood count (CBC)
A) Hyperkalemia B) Blood glucose test
B) Hypoglycemia C) Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) test
C) Arrhythmias D) Liver function test
D) Osteoporosis 120. Which of the following is a common
116. What is the term for the buildup of fluid treatment approach for managing heart
in the abdomen, a common complication of failure?
right-sided A) Decreasing fluid intake
heart failure? B) Limiting physical activity
A) Ascites C) Increasing sodium intake
B) Pleural effusion D) Taking prescribed medications regularly
C) Pulmonary edema 121. Which of the following conditions can
D) Pericardial effusion exacerbate heart failure symptoms?
117. Which of the following conditions is A) Hypertension
commonly associated with right-sided heart B) Anemia
failure? C) Hypothyroidism

D) All of the above 126. Which of the following is characterized
122. What is the term for a sudden by rapid, disorganized electrical signals in
worsening of heart failure symptoms, often the
requiring atria, leading to irregular heart rhythm?
emergency medical treatment? A) Atrial fibrillation
A) Myocardial infarction B) Sinus tachycardia
B) Cardiogenic shock C) Atrial flutter
C) Heart failure exacerbation D) Premature ventricular contractions
D) Acute decompensated heart failure 127. What is the term for an abnormally
123. Which of the following structures is slow heart rate, typically less than 60 beats
responsible for initiating the electrical per
impulse in minute?
the heart? A) Bradycardia
A) Bundle of His B) Tachycardia
B) Purkinje fibers C) Atrial flutter
C) Sinoatrial (SA) node D) Ventricular fibrillation
D) Atrioventricular (AV) node 128. Which of the following conditions is
124. Which of the following rhythms is characterized by rapid heart rate originating
considered normal for the human heart? from
A) Atrial fibrillation the atria?
B) Ventricular tachycardia A) Atrial fibrillation
C) Sinus rhythm B) Ventricular tachycardia
D) Premature atrial contractions C) Atrial flutter
125. Which part of the heart’s conduction D) Sinus rhythm
system delays the electrical impulse to 129. What is the term for the absence of all
allow the cardiac electrical activity, often leading to
atria to contract before the ventricles? cardiac arrest?
A) Sinoatrial (SA) node A) Ventricular fibrillation
B) Atrioventricular (AV) node B) Asystole
C) Bundle of His C) Sinus arrest
D) Purkinje fibers D) Premature ventricular contractions

130. Which of the following cardiac D) Sinus rhythm
conduction disorders is characterized by a 134. Which of the following cardiac
delay or conduction disorders is characterized by
blockage of the electrical impulse between abnormal
the atria and ventricles? electrical pathways between the atria and
A) Bundle branch block ventricles?
B) Atrioventricular block A) Bundle branch block
C) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome B) Atrioventricular block
D) Sick sinus syndrome C) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
131. Which of the following rhythms is D) Sick sinus syndrome
characterized by irregular, chaotic electrical 135. Which of the following is a potential
activity in complication of untreated atrial fibrillation?
the ventricles, leading to ineffective A) Hypertension
pumping of blood? B) Stroke
A) Atrial fibrillation C) Peripheral artery disease
B) Ventricular tachycardia D) Chronic kidney disease
C) Ventricular fibrillation 136. What is the term for an abnormally fast
D) Sinus rhythm heart rhythm, typically above 100 beats per
132. What is the term for an additional minute?
heartbeat that occurs before the next A) Bradycardia
regular B) Tachycardia
heartbeat? C) Atrial fibrillation
A) Ectopic beat D) Asystole
B) Premature atrial contraction 137. Which of the following cardiac
C) Premature ventricular contraction conduction disorders involves a delay or
D) Atrial flutter blockage in the
133. Which of the following conditions is electrical impulse within the ventricles?
characterized by a rapid, regular heart rate A) Bundle branch block
originating from the ventricles? B) Atrioventricular block
A) Atrial fibrillation C) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
B) Ventricular tachycardia D) Sick sinus syndrome
C) Atrial flutter

138. What is the term for an irregular 142. Which of the following medications is
heartbeat caused by the SA node commonly used to treat atrial fibrillation by
dysfunction? controlling heart rate?
A) Atrial fibrillation A) Beta-blockers
B) Ventricular fibrillation B) Diuretics
C) Sick sinus syndrome C) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
D) Atrial flutter inhibitors
139. Which of the following is a potential D) Calcium channel blockers
complication of untreated ventricular 143. What is a heart block?
fibrillation? A) Complete cessation of heart function
A) Hypertension B) A condition where the electrical signals in
B) Myocardial infarction the heart are delayed or blocked
C) Cardiac arrest C) An irregular heart rhythm
D) Heart block D) An increase in heart rate
140. Which of the following rhythms is 144. Which of the following is NOT a type of
characterized by a slow, regular heartbeat heart block?
originating A) First-degree heart block
from the SA node? B) Second-degree heart block
A) Sinus rhythm C) Third-degree heart block
B) Atrial fibrillation D) Fourth-degree heart block
C) Ventricular tachycardia 145. In first-degree heart block, what
D) Ventricular fibrillation happens to the electrical signals in the
141. Which of the following cardiac heart?
conduction disorders is characterized by the A) They are completely blocked
presence of B) They are delayed in passing from the atria
an accessory pathway between the atria to the ventricles
and ventricles? C) They cause rapid heart rate
A) Bundle branch block D) They cause irregular heart rhythm
B) Atrioventricular block 146. Which of the following is a symptom of
C) Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome severe heart block?
D) Sick sinus syndrome A) Dizziness
B) Chest pain

C) Fainting A) Hypotension
D) Palpitations B) Bleeding or infection at the implant site
147. What is the primary function of a C) Stroke
pacemaker? D) Respiratory failure
A) To regulate blood pressure 152. What is the term for the process of
B) To maintain electrolyte balance adjusting the settings of a pacemaker to
C) To control heart rate and rhythm optimize its
D) To increase oxygen saturation function?
148. Which chamber of the heart do A) Pacemaker interrogation
pacemaker leads typically connect to? B) Pacemaker implantation
A) Right atrium C) Pacemaker revision
B) Left atrium D) Pacemaker programming
C) Right ventricle 153. Which component of a pacemaker
D) Left ventricle senses the heart’s natural electrical activity
149. Which type of heart block is and triggers
characterized by intermittent failure of pacing when needed?
electrical signals to pass A) Lead
from the atria to the ventricles? B) Battery
A) First-degree heart block C) Pulse generator
B) Second-degree heart block D) Electrode
C) Third-degree heart block 154. Which type of pacemaker continuously
D) Fourth-degree heart block paces the heart at a fixed rate, regardless of
150. In third-degree (complete) heart block, the heart’s
what is the relationship between the atrial own electrical activity?
and ventricular rhythms? A) Single-chamber pacemaker
A) They beat In sync B) Dual-chamber pacemaker
B) The atria beat faster than the ventricles C) Rate-responsive pacemaker
C) The ventricles beat faster than the atria D) Biventricular pacemaker
D) They beat independently of each other 155. Which of the following is a potential
151. Which of the following is a potential indication for a pacemaker implantation?
complication of a pacemaker implantation A) High blood pressure
procedure? B) Heart failure

C) Hypothyroidism A) Increased energy levels
D) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) B) Palpitations
156. Which type of pacemaker has leads C) Improved exercise tolerance
implanted in both the atrium and ventricle, D) Reduced heart rate
allowing for 160. Which component of a pacemaker
more natural pacing of the heart? contains the circuitry and battery necessary
A) Single-chamber pacemaker to generate
B) Dual-chamber pacemaker electrical impulses?
C) Rate-responsive pacemaker A) Lead
D) Biventricular pacemaker B) Electrode
157. What is the term for a temporary C) Pulse generator
pacemaker used in emergency situations or D) Antenna
during the 161. What is the term for the process of
immediate post-operative period? removing an existing pacemaker and
A) Permanent pacemaker replacing it with a new
B) External pacemaker one?
C) Transvenous pacemaker A) Pacemaker interrogation
D) Subcutaneous pacemaker B) Pacemaker implantation
158. Which of the following activities should C) Pacemaker revision
individuals with pacemakers avoid? D) Pacemaker explantation
A) Using cell phones 162. Which of the following conditions is
B) Swimming NOT typically treated with a pacemaker?
C) Driving A) Bradycardia
D) Moderate exercise B) Tachycardia
159. Which of the following symptoms may C) Heart block
indicate a malfunction of a pacemaker? D) Sick sinus syndrome

Unit-5 Pulmonary Nursing
1. Which of the following is a common 6. Which of the following is a non-

symptom of sinusitis? pharmacological treatment for sinusitis?
a) Fever a) Antibiotics
b) Diarrhea b) Nasal irrigation
c) Joint pain c) Corticosteroids
d) None of the above d) Antihistamines
2. Which sinuses are most commonly affected 7. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor
by sinusitis? for sinusitis?
a) Frontal a) Smoking
b) Maxillary b) Allergies
c) Ethmoid c) Frequent air travel
d) All of the above d) Regular exercise
3. Which of the following is NOT a common 8. Sinusitis can cause which of the following
cause of sinusitis? complications?
a) Bacterial infection a) Meningitis
b) Allergic reaction b) Pneumonia
c) Viral infection c) Otitis media
d) High blood pressure d) All of the above
4. Which imaging technique is often used to 9. Which of the following is a common
diagnose sinusitis? bacterial cause of acute sinusitis?
a) X-ray a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
b) Ultrasound b) Influenza virus
c) MRI c) Rhinovirus
d) CT scan d) None of the above
5. Chronic sinusitis is defined as sinusitis 10. Which type of sinusitis is characterized by
lasting longer than: thick, discolored nasal discharge?
a) 1 week a) Acute sinusitis
b) 1 month b) Chronic sinusitis
c) 3 months c) Allergic sinusitis
d) 6 months d) Fungal sinusitis

11. Which sinusitis symptom is most commonly 16. Which of the following is a common
associated with facial pain or pressure? allergen that can trigger sinusitis
a) Headache symptoms?
b) Toothache a) Dust mites
c) Earache b) Pollen
d) All of the above c) Pet dander
12. Which of the following is NOT a typical d) All of the above
symptom of sinusitis? 17. Which sinusitis symptom worsens when
a) Sneezing bending forward or lying down?
b) Coughing a) Nasal congestion
c) Fatigue b) Facial pain
d) Loss of smell c) Headache
13. Which age group is most commonly d) Sore throat
affected by sinusitis? 18. Which of the following statements about
a) Children sinusitis is true?
b) Young adults a) Sinusitis is always caused by bacterial
c) Middle-aged adults infection.
d) Elderly b) Sinusitis can be a complication of the
14. Which of the following is a primary goal of common cold.
treating sinusitis? c) Sinusitis symptoms typically resolve without
a) Relieving symptoms treatment.
b) Preventing recurrence d) Sinusitis only affects the sinuses on one side
c) Identifying underlying causes of the face.
d) All of the above 19. Which sinusitis complication can lead to
15. Which medication class is commonly vision problems if left untreated?
prescribed to reduce nasal inflammation in a) Sinus polyps
sinusitis? b) Sinus abscess
a) Antibiotics c) Orbital cellulitis
b) Antihistamines d) Septal deviation
c) Decongestants 20. Which of the following is a surgical option
d) Antipyretics for treating chronic sinusitis?
a) Adenoidectomy

b) Tonsillectomy d) Chest X-ray
c) Sinus irrigation 26. Chronic pharyngitis is defined as pharyngitis
d) Functional endoscopic sinus surgery (FESS) lasting longer than:
21. 1.What is the most common cause of acute a) 1 week
pharyngitis? b) 1 month
a) Bacterial infection c) 3 months
b) Viral infection d) 6 months
c) Fungal infection 27. Which of the following is a potential
d) Parasitic infection complication of untreated streptococcal
22. Which of the following viruses is a common pharyngitis?
cause of viral pharyngitis? a) Pneumonia
a) Influenza virus b) Endocarditis
b) Epstein-Barr virus c) Rheumatic fever
c) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) d) All of the above
d) Hepatitis B virus 28. Which of the following is a common
23. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of symptom of viral pharyngitis?
pharyngitis? a) White patches on the tonsils
a) Cough b) Exudate in the throat
b) Fever c) Swollen lymph nodes
c) Nasal congestion d) Petechiae on the soft palate
d) Sore throat 29. Which age group is most commonly
24. Streptococcal pharyngitis is commonly affected by acute pharyngitis?
caused by which bacterium? a) Infants
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae b) Children and adolescents
b) Staphylococcus aureus c) Adults
c) Streptococcus pyogenes d) Elderly
d) Haemophilus influenzae 30. Which of the following is a common viral
25. Which diagnostic test is commonly used to pathogen causing pharyngitis in children?
confirm streptococcal pharyngitis? a) Haemophilus influenzae
a) Blood culture b) Group A Streptococcus
b) Throat culture c) Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
c) Urinalysis d) Mycoplasma pneumoniae

31. Which condition can present with both a) Viral pharyngitis
pharyngitis and a characteristic rash? b) Bacterial pharyngitis
a) Mononucleosis c) Fungal pharyngitis
b) Scarlet fever d) Allergic pharyngitis
c) Hand, foot, and mouth disease 37. Which of the following conditions is NOT
d) Herpangina typically associated with sore throat?
32. Which medication is NOT typically used in a) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
the treatment of acute pharyngitis? b) Sinusitis
a) Antibiotics c) Tonsilloliths
b) Antipyretics d) Peritonsillar abscess
c) Antivirals 38. Which of the following is a common
d) Antihistamines complication of infectious mononucleosis?
33. Which of the following is NOT a common a) Peritonsillar abscess
symptom of allergic pharyngitis? b) Retropharyngeal abscess
a) Itchy throat c) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection
b) Sneezing d) Splenic rupture
c) Runny nose 39. Which of the following statements about
d) Difficulty swallowing pharyngitis is true?
34. Which of the following lifestyle factors can a) All cases of pharyngitis require antibiotic
contribute to chronic pharyngitis? treatment.
a) Smoking b) Pharyngitis is most commonly caused by
b) Excessive alcohol consumption fungal infections.
c) Environmental pollution c) Pharyngitis caused by viruses is not
d) All of the above contagious.
35. Which term refers to inflammation of both d) Pharyngitis can be caused by both
the pharynx and the tonsils? infectious and non-infectious factors.
a) Pharyngitis 40. Which of the following is a non-
b) Tonsillitis pharmacological treatment for acute
c) Laryngitis pharyngitis?
d) Rhinitis a) Antibiotics
36. Which type of pharyngitis is characterized b) Saltwater gargles
by the presence of pus on the tonsils? c) Antiviral medications

d) Oral corticosteroids a) Cough
41. Which of the following is the primary cause b) White or yellow spots on the tonsils
of tonsillitis? c) Hoarseness
a) Fungal infection d) Runny nose
b) Bacterial infection 47. Which diagnostic test is commonly
c) Viral infection performed to confirm bacterial tonsillitis?
d) Allergic reaction a) Blood culture
42. Which virus is commonly associated with b) Throat culture
viral tonsillitis? c) Chest X-ray
a) Streptococcus pyogenes d) Urinalysis
b) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) 48. Which age group is most commonly
c) Haemophilus influenzae affected by acute tonsillitis?
d) Staphylococcus aureus a) Infants
43. Chronic tonsillitis is typically defined as b) Children and adolescents
recurrent tonsillitis occurring at least: c) Young adults
a) Once a year d) Elderly
b) Twice a year 49. Which of the following is a potential
c) Four times a year complication of untreated bacterial
d) Six times a year tonsillitis?
44. Which of the following is a common a) Rheumatic fever
bacterial cause of acute tonsillitis? b) Pulmonary embolism
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae c) Otitis media
b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae d) Allergic reaction
c) Streptococcus pyogenes 50. Which condition involves enlargement of
d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa the tonsils to the point of obstructing the
45. What is the hallmark symptom of tonsillitis? airway during sleep?
a) Sore throat a) Tonsillitis
b) Nasal congestion b) Tonsilloliths
c) Ear pain c) Peritonsillar abscess
d) Cough d) Obstructive sleep apnea
46. Which of the following is a typical sign of 51. Which of the following is NOT a common
bacterial tonsillitis? symptom of tonsillitis?

a) Headache 56. The most common type of influenza virus
b) Swollen lymph nodes that affects humans belongs to which
c) Difficulty swallowing family?
d) Wheezing a) Retroviridae
52. What is the medical term for surgical b) Orthomyxoviridae
removal of the tonsils? c) Herpesviridae
a) Tonsillotomy d) Paramyxoviridae
b) Tonsillectomy 57. Which of the following is a common
c) Adenoidectomy symptom of influenza?
d) Tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy (T&A) a) Rash
53. Which medication class is commonly b) Nausea
prescribed to relieve pain associated with c) Sore throat
tonsillitis? d) All of the above
a) Antibiotics 58. Which subtype of influenza virus is typically
b) Antipyretics associated with seasonal flu outbreaks in
c) Antihistamines humans?
d) Antifungals a) H1N1
54. Which of the following statements about b) H3N2
chronic tonsillitis is true? c) H5N1
a) Chronic tonsillitis is typically caused by viral d) H7N9
infections. 59. Influenza vaccines are designed to provide
b) Chronic tonsillitis rarely requires medical immunity against:
intervention. a) All types of influenza viruses
c) Chronic tonsillitis can lead to persistent b) Only influenza A viruses
bad breath. c) Only influenza B viruses
d) Chronic tonsillitis is more common in d) Both influenza A and B viruses
infants than in adults. 60. Which age group is at the highest risk of
55. Influenza is caused by: developing severe complications from
a) Bacteria influenza?
b) Virus a) Infants
c) Fungus b) Young adults
d) Parasite c) Middle-aged adults

d) Elderly a) H1N1
61. Which of the following is NOT a common b) H3N2
route of influenza transmission? c) H5N1
a) Direct contact with infected individuals d) H7N9
b) Airborne droplets from coughs or sneezes 67. Which population group is recommended to
c) Ingestion of contaminated food or water receive annual influenza vaccination?
d) Touching contaminated surfaces a) Pregnant women
62. What is the incubation period for influenza? b) Healthcare workers
a) 24-48 hours c) Young children
b) 1-3 days d) All of the above
c) 5-7 days 68. Which of the following measures can help
d) 10-14 days prevent the spread of influenza?
63. Which of the following is a potential a) Washing hands frequently
complication of influenza? b) Covering mouth and nose when sneezing or
a) Pneumonia coughing
b) Encephalitis c) Avoiding close contact with sick individuals
c) Myocarditis d) All of the above
d) All of the above 69. What is the typical duration of illness for
64. Which antiviral medication is commonly uncomplicated influenza?
used for the treatment of influenza? a) 1-2 days
a) Acyclovir b) 3-5 days
b) Oseltamivir c) 7-10 days
c) Amantadine d) 14-21 days
d) Metronidazole 70. Which of the following is a symptom more
65. Which of the following is NOT a typical commonly associated with influenza in
symptom of influenza? children than
a) Fatigue in adults?
b) Runny nose a) Fever
c) Muscle aches b) Cough
d) Diarrhea c) Vomiting
66. The “Spanish flu” pandemic of 1918 was d) Headache
caused by which influenza subtype?

71. Which of the following is a complication of d) Individuals who have previously had
severe influenza infection that involves influenza
inflammation 75. Pneumonia is primarily an infection
of the heart muscle? affecting which organ of the body?
a) Myocarditis a) Liver
b) Encephalitis b) Lungs
c) Meningitis c) Kidneys
d) Pneumonia d) Heart
72. Which organization monitors and provides 76. Which of the following microorganisms is a
updates on influenza activity worldwide? common cause of bacterial pneumonia?
a) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention a) Influenza virus
(CDC) b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
b) World Health Organization (WHO) c) Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
c) National Institutes of Health (NIH) d) Human metapneumovirus (hMPV)
d) Food and Drug Administration (FDA) 77. Which of the following is NOT a typical
73. Which of the following statements about symptom of pneumonia?
influenza is true? a) Fever
a) Influenza is a bacterial infection. b) Cough with green sputum
b) Influenza is typically a mild illness with few c) Runny nose
complications. d) Shortness of breath
c) Influenza can cause pandemics when a 78. Pneumonia can be categorized into
novel virus emerges. different types based on:
d) Influenza vaccines are only effective if a) Age of the patient
received after the onset of symptoms. b) Severity of symptoms
74. Which group of individuals is at the highest c) Etiology and location of infection
risk of severe complications from influenza d) Allergic reactions
and is 79. Which imaging technique is commonly used
therefore strongly recommended to receive to diagnose pneumonia?
vaccination? a) X-ray
a) Healthy young adults b) MRI
b) Children aged 2-5 years c) Ultrasound
c) Individuals with chronic medical conditions d) CT scan

80. Which age group is at the highest risk of c) More than 48 hours after hospital
developing severe complications from admission
pneumonia? d) More than 72 hours after hospital
a) Infants admission
b) Young adults 85. Which of the following is a common
c) Middle-aged adults causative agent of viral pneumonia in
d) Elderly infants and young
81. Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) children?
refers to pneumonia that is acquired: a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
a) In a hospital or healthcare facility b) Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
b) From the community or outside of c) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
healthcare settings 86. Which vaccination is recommended to
c) Through contaminated water or food prevent pneumonia caused by
d) From animals or pets Streptococcus
82. Which of the following is a common pneumoniae?
symptom of atypical pneumonia? A) Influenza vaccine
a) Productive cough b) Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR)
b) Pleuritic chest pain vaccine
c) Diarrhea c) Pneumococcal vaccine
d) Hemoptysis d) Varicella (chickenpox) vaccine
83. Which of the following conditions is NOT a 87. Which of the following is a common
risk factor for developing pneumonia? complication of severe pneumonia?
a) Smoking a) Urinary tract infection (UTI)
b) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease b) Septicemia
(COPD) c) Otitis media
c) Regular exercise d) Gastroenteritis
d) Immunodeficiency 88. Which laboratory test is used to identify the
84. Hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP) is causative organism of pneumonia?
defined as pneumonia that occurs: a) Complete blood count (CBC)
a) Within 48 hours of hospital admission b) Blood culture
b) Within 72 hours of hospital admission c) Urinalysis
d) Liver function tests (LFTs)

89. Which of the following is NOT a typical a) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
treatment for pneumonia? (COPD)
a) Antibiotics b) Asthma
b) Antiviral medications c) Tuberculosis
c) Antifungal medications d) Bronchitis
d) Antipyretics 94. Which of the following is a complication
90. Which of the following is a common associated with severe pneumonia in
symptom of aspiration pneumonia? children?
a) Dry cough a) Osteoporosis
b) Chest pain exacerbated by deep breathing b) Kawasaki disease
c) Sudden onset of shortness of breath c) Acute respiratory distress syndrome
d) Foul-smelling sputum (ARDS)
91. Which population group is particularly d) Glaucoma
vulnerable to aspiration pneumonia? 95. Pulmonary tuberculosis primarily affects
a) Healthy young adults which organ of the body?
b) Elderly individuals with dysphagia a) Liver
c) Children with asthma b) Lungs
d) Athletes c) Kidneys
92. Which of the following statements about d) Heart
pneumonia is true? 96. Tuberculosis is caused by which bacterium?
a) Pneumonia is always caused by bacterial a) Streptococcus pyogenes
infection. b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b) Pneumonia is most commonly caused by c) Staphylococcus aureus
the common cold virus. d) Haemophilus influenzae
c) Pneumonia can be prevented by avoiding 97. Which of the following is NOT a common
vaccinations. symptom of pulmonary tuberculosis?
d) Pneumonia can be caused by a variety of a) Persistent cough
microorganisms, including bacteria, b) Night sweats
viruses, and fungi. c) Fever
93. Which respiratory condition often precedes d) Nausea
the development of pneumonia in 98. Tuberculosis is primarily transmitted
susceptible individuals? through:

a) Airborne droplets a) Antibiotics
b) Contaminated food and water b) Antifungal medications
c) Sexual contact c) Directly Observed Therapy (DOT)
d) Blood transfusions d) Isolation precautions
99. Which test is commonly used to diagnose 104. Pulmonary tuberculosis can lead to the
pulmonary tuberculosis? formation of small, rounded lesions in the
a) Chest X-ray lungs called:
b) Blood culture a) Granulomas
c) Mantoux tuberculin skin test b) Abscesses
d) Electrocardiogram (ECG) c) Cysts
100. Which population group is at the d) Nodules
highest risk of developing pulmonary 105. Which of the following statements
tuberculosis? about latent tuberculosis infection (LTBI) is
a) Infants true?
b) Young adults a) LTBI always progresses to active TB disease.
c) Middle-aged adults b) LTBI cannot be transmitted to others.
d) Elderly c) LTBI does not require treatment with
101. Which of the following is NOT a antibiotics.
common complication of untreated d) LTBI can be diagnosed using a chest X-ray.
pulmonary tuberculosis? 106. Which of the following is a common
a) Pleurisy side effect of tuberculosis medications?
b) Meningitis a) Weight gain
c) Bronchitis b) Hepatotoxicity
d) Tuberculosis spread to other organs c) Hypertension
102. Multidrug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR- d) Hyperglycemia
TB) refers to TB strains that are resistant to: 107. Which vaccination is used to prevent
a) One antibiotic tuberculosis in some parts of the world?
b) Two antibiotics a) Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR)
c) Three antibiotics vaccine
d) Four antibiotics b) Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine
103. Which of the following is NOT a typical c) Polio vaccine
treatment for pulmonary tuberculosis? d) Tetanus vaccine

108. Which of the following is NOT a typical d) Doctors Without Borders (MSF)
symptom of active pulmonary tuberculosis? 113. Which of the following is NOT a typical
a) Hemoptysis (coughing up blood) location for extrapulmonary tuberculosis?
b) Dyspnea (shortness of breath) a) Central nervous system
c) Painless lymphadenopathy b) Gastrointestinal tract
d) Chest pain c) Kidneys
109. Which type of healthcare worker is at d) Liver
the highest risk of occupational exposure to 114. Pulmonary tuberculosis can lead to
tuberculosis? which potentially life-threatening
a) Surgeon complication involving the
b) Nurse pleural space?
c) Radiologist A) Pneumothorax
d) Physical therapist b) Empyema
110. Pulmonary tuberculosis is characterized c) Hemothorax
by the presence of: d) Atelectasis
a) White blood cells in the lungs 115. What is a lung abscess?
b) Cancerous tumors in the lungs a) A condition characterized by inflammation
c) Mycobacterial infection in the lungs of the lung tissue
d) Fluid accumulation in the lungs b) An infectious process resulting in the
111. Which of the following is NOT a risk formation of a cavity within the lung
factor for developing pulmonary parenchyma
tuberculosis? c) A type of lung cancer
a) HIV infection d) A benign growth in the lung
b) Diabetes mellitus 116. Which of the following is the most
c) Smoking common cause of lung abscess?
d) Regular exercise a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
112. Which organization leads global efforts b) Staphylococcus aureus
to combat tuberculosis? c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
a) World Health Organization (WHO) d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b) Centers for Disease Control and Prevention 117. Which of the following is NOT a risk
(CDC) factor for developing a lung abscess?
c) National Institutes of Health (NIH)

a) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease c) Middle-aged adults
(COPD) d) Elderly
b) Smoking 123. What is the usual appearance of a lung
c) Recent lung surgery abscess on chest X-ray?
d) Regular exercise a) Well-defined mass
118. Which imaging modality is typically b) Ground-glass opacity
used to diagnose a lung abscess? c) Cavitary lesion with an air-fluid level
a) X-ray d) Diffuse infiltrates
b) MRI 124. Which of the following is NOT a
c) CT scan common symptom of lung abscess?
d) Ultrasound a) Fever
119. Which of the following symptoms is b) Chest pain
commonly associated with a lung abscess? c) Hemoptysis
a) Hematuria d) Peripheral neuropathy
b) Bradycardia 125. Which antibiotic is often used as
c) Cough with foul-smelling sputum empiric therapy for treating lung abscess?
d) Visual disturbances a) Penicillin
120. How is a lung abscess usually treated? b) Ciprofloxacin
a) Surgery c) Clindamycin
b) Antibiotics d) Vancomycin
c) Chemotherapy 126. What is the most common route of
d) Radiation therapy infection leading to lung abscess?
121. Which of the following is a potential a) Hematogenous spread
complication of a lung abscess? b) Direct extension from adjacent structures
a) Coronary artery disease c) Lymphatic spread
b) Pulmonary embolism d) Ingestion of contaminated food
c) Sepsis 127. Which of the following conditions is
d) Glaucoma NOT commonly associated with the
122. Which demographic group is most development of a lung
commonly affected by lung abscess? abscess?
a) Children a) Aspiration pneumonia
b) Young adults

b) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease 132. Which imaging finding suggests a
(COPD) complicated lung abscess with necrotizing
c) Bronchiectasis pneumonia?
d) Pulmonary embolism a) Air-fluid level
128. What is the hallmark symptom of a lung b) Cavitary lesion
abscess? c) Ground-glass opacity
a) Dyspnea d) Pleural effusion
b) Hemoptysis 133. Which of the following statements
c) Productive cough about lung abscess is true?
d) Wheezing a) Lung abscesses are usually sterile cavities.
129. Which diagnostic test is used to confirm b) Lung abscesses are typically caused by viral
the presence of anaerobic bacteria in a lung infections.
abscess? c) Lung abscesses often require surgical
a) Blood culture drainage.
b) Sputum culture d) Lung abscesses are commonly treated with
c) Bronchoscopy with bronchoalveolar lavage anticoagulant therapy.
(BAL) 134. What is the usual duration of antibiotic
d) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) treatment for uncomplicated lung abscess?
130. Which of the following is a common a) 3 days
complication of a large or untreated lung b) 7 days
abscess? c) 14 days
a) Pulmonary fibrosis d) 30 days
b) Lung cancer 135. What is asthma?
c) Empyema a) A bacterial infection of the lungs
d) Pulmonary hypertension b) A chronic inflammatory disease of the
131. Which lung lobe is most commonly airways
affected by a lung abscess? c) A condition characterized by fluid
a) Left upper lobe accumulation in the lungs
b) Right upper lobe d) A type of lung cancer
c) Left lower lobe 136. Which of the following is NOT a
d) Right lower lobe common symptom of asthma?
a) Coughing

b) Shortness of breath A) Asthma attack
c) Chest pain b) Asthma exacerbation
d) Wheezing c) Asthma remission
137. What is the primary characteristic d) Asthma cessation
feature of asthma? 142. Which of the following is NOT a risk
a) Inflammation of the bronchial tubes factor for developing asthma?
b) Accumulation of fluid in the alveoli a) Family history of asthma or allergies
c) Narrowing of the trachea b) Exposure to tobacco smoke
d) Expansion of the bronchial tubes c) Regular physical activity
138. Which of the following triggers can d) Occupational exposure to allergens or
exacerbate asthma symptoms? irritants
a) Regular exercise 143. What is the role of inhaled
b) Cold air corticosteroids in asthma management?
c) Fresh fruits and vegetables a) They relieve acute symptoms during asthma
d) High humidity attacks.
139. What medication is commonly used as a b) They reduce airway inflammation and
rescue inhaler for acute asthma attacks? prevent symptoms.
a) Corticosteroids c) They dilate the airways and improve
b) Anticholinergics airflow.
c) Short-acting beta-agonists (SABAs) d) They inhibit mucus production in the lungs.
d) Long-acting beta-agonists (LABAs) 144. Which of the following is a common
140. Which of the following is a common environmental trigger for asthma?
long-term controller medication for a) Emotional stress
asthma? b) Consumption of spicy foods
a) Albuterol c) Pet dander
b) Montelukast d) Exposure to sunlight
c) Prednisone 145. What is the recommended action for
d) Epinephrine someone experiencing an asthma attack?
141. What is the term for the sudden a) Lie down flat on their back
worsening of asthma symptoms, often b) Take slow, deep breaths
triggered by exposure to c) Use a rescue inhaler as prescribed
allergens or irritants?

d) Ignore the symptoms and wait for them to d) They measure lung volume during
pass spirometry tests.
146. Which of the following is a 150. Which of the following is a
characteristic feature of asthma-related characteristic feature of exercise-induced
cough? asthma?
a) Dry cough a) Symptoms typically occur during rest or
b) Productive cough with blood sleep.
c) Cough that worsens at night or early b) Symptoms improve with physical activity.
morning c) Symptoms typically occur during or after
d) Cough triggered by warm air exercise.
147. What is the role of allergens in d) Symptoms are not triggered by physical
triggering asthma symptoms? activity.
a) They dilate the airways 151. What is the primary goal of asthma
b) They reduce inflammation in the lungs treatment?
c) They stimulate an allergic response leading a) To cure the disease completely
to airway constriction b) To control symptoms and prevent
d) They inhibit mucus production exacerbations
148. Which of the following is a common c) To provide immediate relief during attacks
side effect of long-term use of oral d) To increase mucus production in the
corticosteroids for asthma? airways
a) Weight gain 152. Which of the following is a non-
b) Hypotension pharmacological intervention for managing
c) Hypoglycemia asthma?
d) Bradycardia a) Rescue inhaler use
149. What is the role of peak flow meters in b) Allergen avoidance
asthma management? c) Long-acting beta-agonist therapy
a) They measure the amount of oxygen in the d) Oral corticosteroid administration
blood. 153. What is the term for asthma symptoms
b) They monitor lung function and help assess that persist despite treatment with
asthma control. standard
c) They administer bronchodilator medications?
medications. a) Refractory asthma

b) Extrinsic asthma b) Productive cough with foul-smelling sputum
c) Occupational asthma c) Wheezing
d) Allergic asthma d) All of the above
154. 20.Which of the following conditions is 159. What is the most common cause of
characterized by chronic inflammation of COPD?
the airways, a) Genetic factors
similar to asthma, but is not reversible? b) Occupational exposure to asbestos
a) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease c) Smoking tobacco
(COPD) d) Viral infections
b) Pulmonary fibrosis 160. Which of the following diagnostic tests
c) Pneumonia is used to confirm the diagnosis of COPD?
d) Lung cancer a) Chest X-ray
155. What is COPD? b) Spirometry
a) A bacterial infection of the lungs c) Electrocardiogram (ECG)
b) A chronic inflammatory lung disease d) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
c) A type of lung cancer 161. What is the primary treatment goal for
d) A viral infection of the airways patients with COPD?
156. What are the primary risk factors for a) Cure the underlying cause of inflammation
developing COPD? b) Control symptoms and improve quality of
a) Age and gender life
b) Obesity and high cholesterol c) Prevent the development of lung cancer
c) Smoking and environmental pollutants d) Provide palliative care for end-stage disease
d) Family history of lung diseases 162. Which of the following medications is
157. Which of the following is NOT a commonly used as a long-term
characteristic feature of COPD? bronchodilator in COPD
a) Airway inflammation management?
b) Bronchospasm A) Albuterol
c) Excessive mucus production b) Montelukast
d) Alveolar hemorrhage c) Prednisone
158. Which of the following is a common d) Fluticasone
symptom of COPD? 163. Which of the following is NOT a
a) Hemoptysis (coughing up blood) common complication of COPD?

a) Pneumonia 168. Which of the following is a common
b) Pulmonary embolism symptom of COPD exacerbation?
c) Cor pulmonale a) Increased exercise tolerance
d) Stroke b) Decreased dyspnea
164. Which of the following lifestyle c) Increased sputum production
modifications is recommended for COPD d) Improved oxygen saturation
management? 169. Which of the following conditions is a
a) Smoking cessation common comorbidity associated with
b) High-fat diet COPD?
c) Sedentary lifestyle a) Hypertension
d) Indoor air pollution exposure b) Type 1 diabetes mellitus
165. What is the term for the progressive c) Osteoarthritis
decline in lung function observed in d) Depression
patients with COPD? 170. Which of the following interventions is
a) Respiratory failure aimed at preventing exacerbations in COPD
b) Bronchospasm patients?
c) Airway remodeling a) Regular physical activity
d) Disease exacerbation b) Long-term oxygen therapy
166. Which of the following is a surgical c) Pneumococcal and influenza vaccinations
treatment option for severe COPD? d) Smoking cessation counseling
a) Lung transplant 171. Which of the following is NOT a
b) Coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) classification stage of COPD severity
c) Angioplasty according to the GOLD
d) Pacemaker implantation guidelines?
167. What is the characteristic feature of a) Stage A
COPD on chest X-ray? b) Stage B
a) Normal lung fields c) Stage C
b) Hyperinflated lungs with flattened d) Stage D
diaphragms 172. Which of the following statements
c) Consolidation and air-fluid levels about COPD is true?
d) Pleural effusion a) COPD is a reversible condition.

b) COPD primarily affects the alveoli of the 177. What is a common symptom of lung
lungs. cancer?
c) COPD is more common in nonsmokers than a) Jaundice
smokers. b) Hematuria
d) COPD is characterized by a persistent c) Persistent cough
limitation of airflow. d) Abdominal pain
173. Which medication is commonly used for 178. Which imaging technique is commonly
COPD exacerbation management in the used for the diagnosis and staging of lung
emergency cancer?
department? a) X-ray
a) Oral corticosteroids b) MRI
a) Intravenous antibiotics c) CT scan
b) Intravenous diuretics d) Ultrasound
c) Intravenous anticoagulants 179. Which of the following is a risk factor
174. What is lung cancer? for developing lung cancer besides
a) A bacterial infection of the lungs smoking?
b) A chronic inflammatory disease of the a) Regular exercise
airways b) Air pollution exposure
c) Abnormal cell growth in the lungs c) Vitamin D deficiency
d) A type of autoimmune disorder d) Vegetarian diet
175. Which of the following is the leading 180. What is the term for cancer that has
cause of lung cancer? spread from the lungs to other parts of the
a) Radon exposure body?
b) Genetic predisposition a) Metastatic lung cancer
c) Environmental pollutants b) Primary lung cancer
d) Smoking tobacco c) Recurrent lung cancer
176. Which type of lung cancer accounts for d) Invasive lung cancer
the majority of cases? 181. Which of the following is NOT a
a) Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) common treatment for lung cancer?
b) Non-small cell lung cancer (NSCLC) a) Surgery
c) Adenocarcinoma b) Chemotherapy
d) Squamous cell carcinoma c) Radiation therapy

d) Antibiotic therapy d) Genetic factors
182. Which of the following is a known risk 187. Which type of lung cancer is most
factor for developing lung cancer? commonly associated with smoking?
a) High-fiber diet a) Adenocarcinoma
b) Regular consumption of fruits and b) Squamous cell carcinoma
vegetables c) Large cell carcinoma
c) Occupational exposure to asbestos d) Small cell lung cancer
d) Adequate sunlight exposure 188. What is the primary goal of lung cancer
183. What is the most common symptom of treatment?
advanced lung cancer? a) Palliative care
a) Weight gain b) Prevention of metastasis
b) Bone pain c) Cure of the disease
c) Constipation d) Symptom management
d) Frequent urination 189. Which of the following is a potential
184. Which of the following is a complication of lung cancer?
characteristic feature of small cell lung a) Osteoporosis
cancer (SCLC)? b) Paralysis
a) Slow growth rate c) Pneumonia
b) Early metastasis d) Glaucoma
c) Peripheral location 190. What is the term for cancer that has
d) Association with smoking recurred after initial treatment?
185. Which of the following is NOT a a) Metastatic cancer
common site for lung cancer metastasis? b) Invasive cancer
a) Liver c) Recurrent cancer
b) Brain d) Primary cancer
c) Spleen 191. Which of the following is a common
d) Bone side effect of chemotherapy in lung cancer
186. What is the primary cause of small cell patients?
lung cancer (SCLC)? a) Increased appetite
a) Smoking tobacco b) Hair loss
b) Radon exposure c) Weight gain
c) Asbestos exposure d) Hypertension

192. Which of the following is a staging 197. Which of the following arterial blood
system commonly used for lung cancer? gas (ABG) values indicates respiratory
a) TNM staging failure?
b) Rutherford staging a) pH > 7.45, PaCO2 < 35 mmHg, PaO2 > 80
c) Franklin staging mmHg
d) Jackson staging b) pH < 7.35, PaCO2 > 45 mmHg, PaO2 < 60
193. What is the term for the surgical mmHg
removal of a lung lobe affected by cancer? c) pH > 7.45, PaCO2 > 45 mmHg, PaO2 < 60
a) Pneumonectomy mmHg
b) Lobectomy d) pH < 7.35, PaCO2 < 35 mmHg, PaO2 > 80
c) Thoracotomy mmHg
d) Tracheostomy 198. Which of the following is a clinical
194. What is acute respiratory failure? manifestation of acute respiratory failure?
a) Sudden cessation of breathing a) Bradypnea
b) Inability of the respiratory system to b) Tachypnea
maintain adequate gas exchange c) Hypotension
c) Chronic lung disease d) Increased oxygen saturation
d) Difficulty in swallowing 199. Which type of respiratory failure is
195. Which of the following conditions is characterized by an elevated arterial partial
NOT a common cause of acute respiratory pressure of
failure? carbon dioxide (PaCO2)?
a) Pneumonia a) Type 1 respiratory failure
b) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease b) Type 2 respiratory failure
(COPD) exacerbation c) Hypoxemic respiratory failure
c) Anemia d) Hypercapnic respiratory failure
d) Pulmonary embolism 200. Which of the following conditions is
196. What is the hallmark sign of acute commonly associated with hypercapnic
respiratory failure? respiratory failure?
a) Bradycardia a) Asthma exacerbation
b) Hypertension b) Pulmonary embolism
c) Cyanosis c) Pneumonia
d) Hyperthermia d) Pulmonary fibrosis

201. What is the initial management priority b) Non-invasive positive pressure ventilation
for a patient with acute respiratory failure? (NIPPV)
a) Administering antibiotics c) Endotracheal intubation
b) Initiating mechanical ventilation d) Administration of bronchodilators
c) Supplemental oxygen therapy 206. Which of the following is a potential
d) Administering bronchodilators cause of hypoxemic respiratory failure?
202. Which of the following is NOT a a) Asthma exacerbation
potential complication of acute respiratory b) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
failure? (COPD)
a) Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) c) Pulmonary embolism
b) Cardiac arrest d) Pneumonia
c) Pneumothorax 207. Which of the following is a sign of
d) Hyperglycemia impending respiratory failure?
203. Which imaging modality is commonly a) Bradypnea
used to evaluate lung function in acute b) Increased level of consciousness
respiratory failure? c) Decreased work of breathing
a) Chest X-ray d) Use of accessory muscles
b) MRI 208. What is the goal oxygen saturation
c) CT scan range for patients with acute respiratory
d) Ultrasound failure?
204. Which of the following laboratory tests a) 90-92%
is commonly performed in the evaluation of b) 95-97%
acute c) 85-88%
respiratory failure? d) 98-100%
A) Complete blood count (CBC) 209. Which of the following medications is
b) Liver function tests (LFTs) commonly administered to reduce airway
c) Thyroid function tests inflammation in
d) Urinalysis acute respiratory failure?
205. Which of the following interventions is A) Epinephrine
used to manage hypercapnic respiratory b) Albuterol
failure? c) Methylprednisolone
a) High-flow oxygen therapy d) Nitroglycerin

210. Which of the following conditions can b) An acute infection of the respiratory tract
lead to acute on chronic respiratory failure? c) A type of lung cancer
a) Pneumothorax d) A severe form of acute respiratory failure
b) Asthma exacerbation 215. Which of the following is a
c) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease characteristic feature of ARDS?
(COPD) exacerbation a) High oxygen saturation levels
d) Pulmonary embolism b) Bilateral pulmonary infiltrates on imaging
211. Which arterial blood gas (ABG) c) Hypercapnia
parameter is typically elevated in d) Wheezing
hypercapnic respiratory failure? 216. What is the primary cause of ARDS?
a) pH a) Pneumonia
b) PaCO2 b) Pulmonary embolism
c) PaO2 c) Trauma
d) HCO3- d) All of the above
212. Which of the following is a potential 217. Which of the following conditions is
complication of prolonged mechanical commonly associated with the
ventilation in acute development of ARDS?
respiratory failure? a) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
A) Hypotension (COPD)
b) Bradypnea b) Asthma exacerbation
c) Ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) c) Sepsis
d) Decreased intracranial pressure d) Pulmonary fibrosis
213. What is the primary treatment for 218. What is the hallmark pathophysiological
hypoxemic respiratory failure? mechanism of ARDS?
a) High-flow oxygen therapy a) Airway constriction
b) Non-invasive positive pressure ventilation b) Pulmonary hypertension
(NIPPV) c) Alveolar and endothelial injury leading to
c) Mechanical ventilation increased permeability
d) Administration of bronchodilators d) Pleural effusion
214. What is Acute Respiratory Distress 219. Which of the following conditions is a
Syndrome (ARDS)? risk factor for developing ARDS?
a) A chronic lung condition a) Obesity

b) Regular exercise 225. What is the primary treatment for
c) Smoking cessation ARDS?
d) Adequate sunlight exposure a) Antibiotics
220. What is the main symptom of ARDS? b) Bronchodilators
a) Coughing c) Mechanical ventilation with low tidal
b) Dyspnea volumes
c) Chest pain d) Anticoagulants
d) Hemoptysis 226. Which of the following complications is
221. Which of the following conditions can associated with mechanical ventilation in
trigger the development of ARDS? ARDS patients?
a) Excessive oxygen therapy a) Hypercapnia
b) Administration of intravenous fluids b) Barotrauma
c) Inhalation of smoke or noxious fumes c) Hypoxemia
d) Regular physical exercise d) Pulmonary fibrosis
222. What is the PaO2/FiO2 ratio in ARDS? 227. What is the Berlin definition of ARDS
a) Less than 200 mmHg severity based on?
b) Greater than 300 mmHg a) Age and gender
c) Between 500-600 mmHg b) PaO2/FiO2 ratio
d) Approximately 100 mmHg c) Presence of comorbidities
223. Which of the following is a potential d) Smoking history
complication of ARDS? 228. What is the term for the phase of ARDS
a) Hypotension characterized by diffuse alveolar damage
b) Pulmonary embolism and acute
c) Bradycardia inflammation?
d) Urinary retention A) Exudative phase
224. Which imaging modality is typically b) Fibroproliferative phase
used to diagnose ARDS? c) Resolution phase
a) X-ray d) Recovery phase
b) MRI 229. Which of the following conditions is a
c) CT scan common predisposing factor for ARDS in
d) Ultrasound hospitalized
patients?

A) Regular ambulation d) Injury to the skin on the chest area
b) Administration of corticosteroids 235. Which of the following organs is NOT
c) Sepsis typically affected by chest trauma?
d) Maintenance of adequate hydration a) Lungs
230. Which of the following parameters is b) Heart
often used to assess the severity of ARDS? c) Liver
a) Serum creatinine level d) Spleen
b) Platelet count 236. What is the most common cause of
c) Lung compliance chest trauma?
d) Red blood cell count a) Stab wounds
231. What is the mainstay of supportive b) Motor vehicle accidents
therapy for ARDS? c) Falls
a) Diuretics d) Gunshot wounds
b) Vasopressors 237. Which of the following symptoms is
c) Prone positioning characteristic of tension pneumothorax, a
d) Inotropes potential
232. Which of the following is NOT a complication of chest trauma?
complication associated with ARDS? A) Bradycardia
a) Pulmonary hypertension b) Hypotension
b) Ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) c) Bradypnea
c) Acute kidney injury d) Hyperthermia
d) Hypercapnia 238. Which imaging modality is commonly
233. Which of the following is a potential used to diagnose chest trauma?
long-term consequence of ARDS? a) X-ray
a) Pulmonary fibrosis b) MRI
b) Hypertension c) CT scan
c) Diabetes mellitus d) Ultrasound
d) Osteoporosis 239. What is the term for a collection of air
234. What is chest trauma? or gas in the pleural cavity that leads to lung
a) Trauma to the bones of the chest collapse,
b) Injury to the organs inside the chest cavity commonly seen in chest trauma?
c) Trauma caused by burns to the chest A) Hemothorax

b) Tension pneumothorax 244. Which of the following structures is
c) Pneumomediastinum most commonly injured in blunt chest
d) Pneumothorax trauma?
240. Which of the following is a common a) Trachea
initial management step for chest trauma? b) Heart
a) Immediate surgical intervention c) Aorta
b) Administration of antibiotics d) Diaphragm
c) Stabilization of the patient’s airway, 245. What is the term for the condition
breathing, and circulation (ABCs) where air accumulates in the mediastinum,
d) Routine use of chest tubes often seen in
241. What is the term for the accumulation severe chest trauma cases?
of blood in the pleural cavity as a result of A) Pneumothorax
chest trauma? b) Hemothorax
a) Pneumothorax c) Pneumomediastinum
b) Hemothorax d) Flail chest
c) Flail chest 246. Which of the following is a potential
d) Cardiac tamponade complication of chest trauma related to the
242. Which of the following is a sign of flail heart?
chest, a severe chest trauma complication? a) Pulmonary embolism
a) Paradoxical chest movement b) Pericardial tamponade
b) Hyperresonance on percussion c) Diaphragmatic rupture
c) Absence of breath sounds d) Hemothorax
d) Increased breath sounds 247. Which of the following is a common
243. What is the initial step in managing an symptom of chest trauma?
open pneumothorax, also known as a a) Polyuria
“sucking chest b) Palpitations
wound”? c) Jaundice
a) Applying an occlusive dressing taped on d) Chest pain
three sides 248. What is the term for a severe chest
b) Administering supplemental oxygen injury where multiple adjacent ribs are
c) Placing the patient in a prone position fractured in two or
d) Starting immediate CPR

more places, resulting in a segment of the chest a) Renal failure
wall moving independently? b) Pancreatitis
A) Pneumothorax c) Pneumonia
b) Hemothorax d) Hepatitis
c) Flail chest 252. What is the term for the condition
d) Cardiac tamponade where blood accumulates in the pericardial
249. Which of the following is NOT a sac, compressing
potential treatment option for chest the heart and leading to decreased cardiac
trauma? output?
a) Chest tube insertion A) Cardiac tamponade
b) Mechanical ventilation b) Pericardial effusion
c) Administration of anticoagulants c) Aortic dissection
d) Surgical exploration and repair d) Atrial fibrillation
250. What is the primary goal of managing 253. Which of the following is a potential
chest trauma in the acute phase? complication of chest trauma involving the
a) Pain control respiratory
b) Prevention of infection system?
c) Stabilization of the patient’s condition a) Renal failure
d) Immediate surgical repair b) Pulmonary embolism
251. Which of the following conditions is a c) Pancreatitis
potential complication of rib fractures in d) Gastrointestinal bleeding
chest trauma?

Unit-6 Eye ENT Nursing
1. What is otitis media? 6. What is the term for fluid accumulation

a) Infection of the inner ear behind the eardrum in otitis media?
b) Infection of the middle ear a) Effusion
c) Infection of the outer ear canal b) Perforation
d) Infection of the inner ear canal c) Hemorrhage
2. Which of the following is a common d) Abscess
symptom of acute otitis media? 7. Which of the following is a complication of
a) Hearing loss untreated or recurrent otitis media?
b) Tinnitus a) Glaucoma
c) Ear pain b) Meningitis
d) Vertigo c) Psoriasis
3. What is the most common cause of otitis d) Rheumatoid arthritis
media? 8. What is the first-line treatment for acute
a) Fungal infection otitis media?
b) Viral infection a) Antibiotics
c) Bacterial infection b) Antifungal medication
d) Allergic reaction c) Antihistamines
4. Which age group is most commonly d) Decongestants
affected by otitis media? 9. Which of the following procedures may be
a) Adolescents necessary for recurrent or chronic otitis
b) Young adults media?
c) Infants and young children a) Tympanoplasty
d) Elderly b) Rhinoplasty
5. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor c) Gastrectomy
for otitis media? d) Cholecystectomy
a) Smoking exposure 10. Which of the following is a common
b) Bottle-feeding instead of breastfeeding complication of chronic otitis media?
c) Family history of otitis media a) Hearing loss
d) Regular ear cleaning with cotton swabs b) Hyperthyroidism
c) Hypertension

d) Diabetes mellitus b) Autoimmune disorder affecting the ear
11. What is mastoiditis? c) Chronic inflammatory disease of the ear
a) Infection of the middle ear d) Disorder of the inner ear characterized
b) Infection of the inner ear by vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus
c) Infection of the mastoid bone 17. Which of the following symptoms is
d) Infection of the external ear canal characteristic of Ménière’s disease?
12. What is a characteristic feature of a) Fever
mastoiditis on physical examination? b) Severe headache
a) Redness and swelling behind the ear c) Vertigo attacks
b) Discharge from the nose d) Nasal congestion
c) Tinnitus 18. What is the term for the sensation of
d) Toothache ringing or buzzing in the ears often
13. Which of the following is a common associated with Ménière’s disease?
causative organism of mastoiditis? A) Tinnitus
a) Candida albicans b) Hyperacusis
b) Staphylococcus aureus c) Otalgia
c) Streptococcus pyogenes d) Otorrhea
d) Escherichia coli 19. Which of the following treatments is
14. What is the treatment of choice for commonly used to manage symptoms of
mastoiditis? Ménière’s disease?
a) Topical corticosteroids a) Antibiotics
b) Oral antifungal medication b) Antifungal medication
c) Intravenous antibiotics c) Diuretics
d) Surgical drainage of the mastoid d) Corticosteroids
15. Which of the following is a potential 20. Which of the following lifestyle
complication of mastoiditis? modifications is recommended for patients
a) Osteoporosis with Ménière’s disease?
b) Intracranial abscess a) Smoking cessation
c) Retinal detachment b) Increased caffeine intake
d) Peripheral neuropathy c) High-sodium diet
16. What is Ménière’s disease? d) Sedentary lifestyle
a) Infection of the inner ear 21. Epistaxis and Deviated Nasal Septum

What is epistaxis? 26. What is the term for bleeding from the
a) Infection of the nasal sinuses posterior nasal cavity, often requiring
b) Inflammation of the nasal mucosa medical intervention?
c) Bleeding from the nose a) Anterior epistaxis
d) Blockage of the nasal passages b) Posterior epistaxis
22. What is the most common site of bleeding c) Septal hematoma
in epistaxis? d) Nasopharyngeal hemorrhage
a) Anterior nasal septum 27. Which of the following maneuvers is
b) Posterior nasal septum commonly performed to stop posterior
c) Nasal turbinates epistaxis?
d) Nasopharynx a) Nasal packing with gauze
23. Which of the following conditions is NOT a b) Cauterization of the nasal mucosa
common cause of epistaxis? c) Balloon catheter insertion
a) Dry air d) Nasal irrigation
b) Allergic rhinitis 28. Which of the following medications may be
c) Nasal polyps used to promote vasoconstriction and
d) Hypertension control epistaxis?
24. What is the initial step in managing anterior a) Antibiotics
epistaxis? b) Antifungal medication
a) Nasal packing c) Intranasal corticosteroids
b) Application of direct pressure d) Nasal decongestants
c) Cauterization 29. Which of the following conditions may
d) Nasal irrigation increase the risk of recurrent epistaxis?
25. Which of the following is a potential a) Regular nasal irrigation
complication of severe or recurrent b) Deviated nasal septum
epistaxis? c) High humidity environment
a) Vision loss d) Regular use of nasal saline sprays
b) Hearing loss 30. What is the term for bleeding from both
c) Meningitis nostrils?
d) Anemia a) Anterior epistaxis
b) Posterior epistaxis
c) Bilateral epistaxis

d) Septal hematoma d) Balloon sinuplasty
31. What is a deviated nasal septum? 36. Which of the following is NOT a potential
a) Infection of the nasal sinuses complication of a deviated nasal septum?
b) Inflammation of the nasal mucosa a) Nasal obstruction
c) Malformation or displacement of the b) Recurrent sinus infections
nasal septum c) Epistaxis
d) Blockage of the nasal passages d) Facial deformity
32. Which of the following symptoms is 37. What is the primary goal of septoplasty?
commonly associated with a deviated nasal a) To improve nasal aesthetics
septum? b) To correct deviated nasal bones
a) Epistaxis c) To improve nasal airflow and function
b) Facial pain d) To reduce the size of nasal turbinates
c) Hearing loss 38. Which of the following conditions may
d) Nasal congestion coexist with a deviated nasal septum?
33. What is a common cause of a deviated a) Glaucoma
nasal septum? b) Sleep apnea
a) Nasal polyps c) Psoriasis
b) Trauma to the nose d) Hyperthyroidism
c) Sinusitis 39. What is the term for a condition where the
d) Allergic rhinitis nasal septum is displaced to one side,
34. Which of the following imaging studies is causing airflow obstruction?
commonly used to diagnose a deviated A) Septal hematoma
nasal septum? b) Septal deviation
a) X-ray c) Nasal polyps
b) MRI d) Nasal obstruction
c) CT scan 40. Which of the following is a non-surgical
d) Ultrasound treatment option for a deviated nasal
35. Which of the following procedures is used septum?
to correct a deviated nasal septum? a) Topical corticosteroids
a) Rhinoplasty b) Antibiotics
b) Septoplasty c) Nasal packing
c) Turbinectomy d) Intranasal decongestants

41. What is conjunctivitis? c) Inflammation of the lens
a) Inflammation of the cornea d) Inflammation of the retina
b) Inflammation of the retina 47. Which of the following is a common
c) Inflammation of the conjunctiva symptom of keratitis?
d) Inflammation of the sclera a) Photophobia
42. Which of the following is a common b) Diplopia
symptom of conjunctivitis? c) Epistaxis
a) Hearing loss d) Tinnitus
b) Tinnitus 48. What is the most common cause of
c) Blurred vision infectious keratitis?
d) Redness and discharge from the eye a) Herpes simplex virus
43. What is the most common cause of b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
infectious conjunctivitis? c) Adenovirus
a) Allergic reaction d) Acanthamoeba
b) Bacterial infection 49. What is endophthalmitis?
c) Viral infection a) Inflammation of the retina
d) Fungal infection b) Inflammation of the optic nerve
44. Which of the following is NOT a viral cause c) Inflammation of the vitreous humor
of conjunctivitis? d) Inflammation of the sclera
a) Adenovirus 50. Which of the following is a common cause
b) Herpes simplex virus of endophthalmitis?
c) Influenza virus a) Viral infection
d) Streptococcus pneumoniae b) Fungal infection
45. What is the treatment for bacterial c) Bacterial infection
conjunctivitis? d) Allergic reaction
a) Antiviral medication 51. What is uveitis?
b) Topical antibiotics a) Inflammation of the conjunctiva
c) Oral corticosteroids b) Inflammation of the cornea
d) Artificial tears c) Inflammation of the uvea
46. What is keratitis? d) Inflammation of the lens
a) Inflammation of the cornea 52. Which of the following structures is part of
b) Inflammation of the iris the uvea?

a) Cornea a) Redness and discharge from the eye
b) Iris b) Itching and burning sensation
c) Retina c) Blurred vision
d) Lens d) Tinnitus
53. What is the most common cause of uveitis? 59. What is the treatment for blepharitis?
a) Trauma a) Topical antibiotics
b) Infection b) Oral corticosteroids
c) Autoimmune diseases c) Warm compresses and lid hygiene
d) Allergic reaction d) Artificial tears
54. What is dacryocystitis? 60. What is chalazion?
a) Inflammation of the lacrimal glands a) Inflammation of the eyelids
b) Inflammation of the eyelids b) Inflammation of the lacrimal glands
c) Inflammation of the tear ducts c) Inflammation of the meibomian glands
d) Inflammation of the meibomian glands d) Inflammation of the tear ducts
55. Which of the following is a common 61. What is glaucoma?
symptom of dacryocystitis? a) Inflammation of the cornea
a) Photophobia b) Inflammation of the retina
b) Diplopia c) Inflammation of the conjunctiva
c) Tearing 62. What is the primary risk factor for
d) Hearing loss glaucoma?
56. What is the treatment for dacryocystitis? a) Age
a) Topical corticosteroids b) Gender
b) Oral antibiotics c) Blood pressure
c) Artificial tears d) Allergic rhinitis
d) Warm compresses and massage 63. Which of the following types of glaucoma is
57. What is blepharitis? characterized by sudden, severe elevation
a) Inflammation of the cornea of intraocular pressure?
b) Inflammation of the eyelids A) Primary open-angle glaucoma
c) Inflammation of the conjunctiva b) Normal-tension glaucoma
d) Inflammation of the sclera c) Angle-closure glaucoma
58. Which of the following is a common d) Secondary glaucoma
symptom of blepharitis?

64. What is the mainstay of treatment for d) Blindness
glaucoma? 69. What is the target intraocular pressure
a) Topical corticosteroids (IOP) in the management of glaucoma?
b) Oral antibiotics a) Below 10 mmHg
c) Topical beta-blockers, prostaglandin b) Below 20 mmHg
analogs, or alpha-agonists c) Below 30 mmHg
d) Artificial tears d) Below 40 mmHg
65. What is the characteristic visual field defect 70. Which of the following types of glaucoma is
seen in glaucoma? also known as “the silent thief of sight” due
a) Central scotoma to its insidious progression?
b) Tunnel vision A) Primary open-angle glaucoma
c) Hemianopia b) Angle-closure glaucoma
d) Quadrantanopia c) Secondary glaucoma
66. Which of the following examinations is d) Congenital glaucoma
crucial for diagnosing glaucoma? 71. What is retinal detachment?
a) Blood pressure measurement a) Inflammation of the cornea
b) Ophthalmoscopy b) Separation of the neurosensory retina
c) Audiometry from the retinal pigment epithelium
d) Electrocardiogram (ECG) (RPE)
67. What is the term for the thinning and c) Inflammation of the optic nerve
cupping of the optic nerve head seen in d) Inflammation of the retina
glaucoma? 72. What is a common symptom of retinal
a) Papilledema detachment?
b) Papillitis a) Eye redness
c) Optic disc drusen b) Blurred vision
d) Cupping c) Decreased tear production
68. Which of the following is a potential d) Tinnitus
complication of untreated or poorly 73. Which of the following is a risk factor for
managed glaucoma? retinal detachment?
a) Macular degeneration a) Regular eye examinations
b) Retinal detachment b) Hyperopia (farsightedness)
c) Central retinal vein occlusion c) Previous eye surgery

d) Normal intraocular pressure c) Exudative detachment
74. What is the characteristic visual symptom d) Serous detachment
described by patients with retinal 79. Which of the following is a potential
detachment? complication of retinal detachment
a) Central scotoma surgery?
b) Floaters a) Increased intraocular pressure
c) Tunnel vision b) Glaucoma
d) Photophobia c) Cataract formation
75. Which imaging modality is commonly used d) Macular degeneration
to diagnose retinal detachment? 80. What is the prognosis for retinal
a) X-ray detachment if left untreated?
b) MRI a) Complete recovery
c) Ultrasound b) Partial recovery with vision loss
d) CT scan c) Vision loss but no further complications
76. What is the primary treatment for retinal d) Permanent vision loss
detachment? 81. What is a cataract?
a) Oral corticosteroids a) Inflammation of the cornea
b) Intravitreal injections b) Inflammation of the retina
c) Laser photocoagulation c) Clouding of the lens in the eye
d) Surgical repair d) Inflammation of the optic nerve
77. Which of the following procedures is 82. What is the most common cause of
commonly used in the surgical repair of cataracts?
retinal detachment? a) Trauma to the eye
a) Keratoplasty b) Infection
b) Cataract extraction c) Aging
c) Scleral buckle d) Glaucoma
d) Trabeculectomy 83. Which of the following is a common
78. What is the term for the accumulation of symptom of cataracts?
fluid under the retina, leading to retinal a) Eye redness
detachment? b) Blurred vision
a) Rhegmatogenous detachment c) Diplopia (double vision)
b) Tractional detachment d) Tinnitus

84. What is the treatment for cataracts? 89. Which of the following is a common
a) Topical corticosteroids complication of cataract surgery?
b) Oral antibiotics a) Macular degeneration
c) Surgical removal of the cloudy lens b) Retinal detachment
d) Artificial tears c) Glaucoma
85. Which imaging modality is commonly used d) Cystoid macular edema
to diagnose cataracts? 90. What is phacoemulsification?
a) X-ray a) Surgical removal of the entire lens
b) MRI b) Surgical removal of the cloudy lens using
c) CT scan ultrasound
d) Slit-lamp examination c) Surgical removal of the lens and insertion
86. What is a common risk factor for of an artificial lens
developing cataracts? d) Surgical removal of the lens and insertion
a) Regular use of sunglasses of a contact lens
b) Smoking 91. Which of the following is a common
c) High-fiber diet intraocular lens (IOL) used in cataract
d) Regular exercise surgery?
87. Which of the following types of cataracts is a) Silicone lens
associated with aging and occurs gradually b) Acrylic lens
over time? c) Polycarbonate lens
a) Congenital cataracts d) Glass lens
b) Traumatic cataracts 92. What is the term for the clouding of the
c) Nuclear sclerotic cataracts lens that occurs in the outer part of the lens
d) Posterior subcapsular cataracts cortex?
88. What is the term for the clouding of the a) Nuclear sclerotic cataract
lens that occurs at the back of the lens b) Cortical cataract
capsule? c) Posterior subcapsular cataract
a) Cortical cataract d) Anterior subcapsular cataract
b) Nuclear sclerotic cataract 93. Which of the following conditions is
c) Posterior subcapsular cataract associated with the development of
d) Anterior subcapsular cataract congenital cataracts?
a) Rubella infection during pregnancy

b) Chickenpox infection during childhood 98. What is the term for the clouding of the
c) Measles infection during infancy lens that occurs at the front of the lens
d) Mumps infection during adulthood capsule, just
94. What is the term for the clouding of the beneath the lens epithelium?
lens that occurs in the front part of the lens A) Cortical cataract
capsule? b) Nuclear sclerotic cataract
a) Cortical cataract c) Posterior subcapsular cataract
b) Nuclear sclerotic cataract d) Anterior subcapsular cataract
c) Posterior subcapsular cataract 99. Which of the following conditions may be
d) Anterior subcapsular cataract mistaken for cataracts?
95. Which of the following conditions is NOT a a) Glaucoma
risk factor for developing cataracts? b) Diabetic retinopathy
a) Diabetes mellitus c) Macular degeneration
b) Hypertension d) All of the above
c) Hyperthyroidism 100. What is the term for the clouding of the
d) UV radiation exposure lens that occurs in the nucleus of the lens?
96. What is the term for the clouding of the a) Cortical cataract
lens that occurs in both the nucleus and b) Nuclear sclerotic cataract
cortex of the c) Posterior subcapsular cataract
lens? d) Anterior subcapsular cataract
a) Cortical cataract 101. What is a burn?
b) Nuclear sclerotic cataract a) Inflammation of the skin
c) Posterior subcapsular cataract b) Damage to the skin or other tissues
d) Mixed cataract caused by heat, chemicals, electricity, or
97. Which of the following is a common radiation
symptom of advanced cataracts? c) Infection of the skin
a) Photophobia d) An allergic reaction
b) Diplopia 102. What is the most common cause of
c) Loss of color vision burns?
d) Night blindness a) Exposure to extreme cold
b) Contact with irritant substances
c) Exposure to extreme heat

d) Bacterial infection b) Hypertension
103. Which layer of the skin is affected by a c) Hypovolemic shock
superficial burn? d) Hyperglycemia
a) Epidermis 108. What is the primary goal of burn wound
b) Dermis management?
c) Subcutaneous tissue a) Preventing infection
d) Muscle tissue b) Promoting scar formation
104. What is the term for a burn that affects c) Inducing hypovolemic shock
the entire thickness of the skin? d) Enhancing pain sensation
a) Superficial burn 109. Which of the following is NOT a
b) Partial-thickness burn common method of burn wound
c) Full-thickness burn debridement?
d) Deep burn a) Surgical excision
105. Which of the following is NOT a b) Mechanical debridement
common classification of burns based on c) Enzymatic debridement
depth? d) Administration of antifungal medication
a) Superficial burn 110. What is escharotomy?
b) Partial-thickness burn a) Removal of dead tissue from the wound
c) Subcutaneous burn b) Surgical procedure to repair damaged
d) Full-thickness burn blood vessels
106. What is the rule of nines used for in the c) Surgical incision through the burned
assessment of burns? tissue to relieve pressure
a) Estimating the extent of burns on a child’s d) Administration of antibiotics to prevent
body infection
b) Estimating the total body surface area 111. Which of the following is a common
(TBSA) affected by burns method of pain management for burns?
c) Determining the depth of burns a) Intravenous fluids
d) Assessing the degree of pain associated b) Topical antibiotics
with burns c) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
107. Which of the following is a common (NSAIDs)
complication of severe burns? d) Opioid analgesics
a) Hypothermia

112. What is the term for a burn injury a) Hypovolemic shock
caused by exposure to chemicals? b) Hypothermia
a) Thermal burn c) Respiratory failure
b) Electrical burn d) Cardiac arrest
c) Radiation burn 117. Which of the following is a common
d) Chemical burn symptom of inhalation injury in burn
113. Which of the following is a common patients?
complication of electrical burns? a) Increased urine output
a) Hypothermia b) Hoarseness
b) Hypertension c) Bradycardia
c) Arrhythmias d) Decreased respiratory rate
d) Respiratory failure 118. What is the term for a burn injury
114. What is the Parkland formula used for caused by exposure to radiation?
in the management of burns? a) Thermal burn
a) Estimating the total body surface area b) Chemical burn
(TBSA) affected by burns c) Electrical burn
b) Calculating fluid resuscitation volume in d) Radiation burn
the first 24 hours after a burn injury 119. Which of the following is a common
c) Estimating the depth of burns method of cooling burns caused by thermal
d) Assessing pain intensity associated with injury?
burns a) Application of dry dressings
115. Which of the following is a common b) Immersion in cold water
method of preventing infection in burn c) Administration of antipyretic medications
wounds? d) Application of a heating pad
a) Application of honey 120. What is the term for a burn injury
b) Administration of antifungal medication caused by exposure to extreme cold?
c) Topical application of silver sulfadiazine a) Thermal burn
d) Mechanical debridement b) Chemical burn
116. What is the leading cause of death in c) Electrical burn
patients with severe burns? d) Frostbite

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MCQ’s of AHN-II

BY; ZIA UD DIN ZEB COLLEGE OF NURSING DIR LOWER

Unit-1- Orthopedic Nursing

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1. Action of parathormone in the human body d. ADH and growth hormone.

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1. The ability to perceive touch, heat, pressure, d. Femoral artery

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