PHYSICS

4. A jet plane flying in atmosphere gets reaction from

RELATIVE MOTION
RELATIVE MOTION (a) gravity
(b) atmosphere
(c) gases ejected by the plane
1. A person travelling in a straight line moves with a constant velocity (d) gravity and atmosphere
v1 for certain distance ‘x’ and with a constant velocity v2 for next equal
distance. The average velocity v is given by the relation GRAVITATION

(NEET 2019)
5. If The escape velocity of a body on the earth surface is 11.2 km/s. If
(a)
the same body is projected upward with velocity 22.4 km/s, the velocity
of this body at infinite distance from the centre of the earth will be:
(NEET 2023)
(a)
b)

(b)
c)
(c)

d) Zero (d)

2. If the velocity of a particle is v At Bt = + 2 ,where A and B are

constants, then the distance travelled by it between 1s and 2s is 6. A body of mass 60 g experiences a gravitational force of 3.0 N, when
placed at a particular point. The magnitude of the gravitational field
(NEET 2016) intensity at that point is ( NEET 2022)
(a) 0.05 N/kg
(a)
(b) 50 N/kg
(c) 20 N/kg
(b)
(d) 180 N/kg

(c)
7. If the density of Earth is doubled keeping its radius
constant then acceleration due to gravity will become
(the present value is 9,8 ms-2)
(d) (a) 9.8 ms-2
(b) 4.9 ms-2
(c) 19.6 ms-2
(d) 2.45 ms-2
3. Two trians , each 40 m long are treveling in opposite
direction with equal velocity 20 m/s , The time of crossing 8. Two satellites of mass m, and 10m, are put in the same
is orbit around the sun. If T1 and T2 be their time periods,
a) 1s then T1T2 =
b) 2s (a) 4
c) 3s (b) 1
d) Zero (c) 1/2
(d) ¼
 b. Decreasing
c. Constant
GRAPHS d. None of the options

DIMENSION FORMULA
9. Rapid change in velocity is given by

13. The angle of 1′ (minute of arc) in radian is nearly equal to

. [NEET (Oct.) 2020]

(a)
(b)
(c)

(a) B (d)

14. The unit of thermal conductivity is :

(b) C
. [NEET (National) 2019]

(a)
(c) D
(b)
(d) A (c)

(d)

15. Which of the following is not the name of physical

10. The displacement-time graph of moving particle is shown below quantity?
(a) Kilogram
(b) Density
(c) Impulse
(d) Energy

The instantaneous velocity of the particle is negative at the point . 16. If the unit of force and length are doubled, the unit of
. (CBSE AIPMT 1994)
energy will be
(a) 1/2 times
a. D (b) 2 times
b. F (c) 4 times
c. C (d) 1/4 times
d. E
ERROR % AND VERNIER

11. Rapid change in velocity is given by

17. The percentage errors in the measurement of mass and speed are 2%
and 3% respectively. The error in kinetic energy obtained by measuring
( AIPMT 2008) mass and speed, will be. [CBSE AIPMT 1995]
(a) 12%
a. Shallow slope (b) 10%
b. Steep slope (c) 8%
(d) 2%
c. No slope
d. None of the options 18. A certain body weighs 22.42 g and has a measured volume of 4.7 cc.
The possible error in the measurement of mass and volume are 0.01 g
and 0.1 cc. Then, maximum error in the density will be
. [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
12. Fill in the blanks: If the slope is zero, the motion is (a) 22%
said to have ____ acceleration. (b) 2%
(c) 0.2%
a. Increasing (d) 0.02%
19. . The Vernier scale used for measurement has a d. 0.02 mm
positive zero error of 0.2 mm. If while taking a
24. Which of the following is incorrect about a screw gauge?
measurement it was noted that ‘0’ on the Vernier scale
lies between 8.5 cm and 8.6 cm, Vernier coincidence is 6, a. The graduated surface diameter of the barrel should be 5
mm
then the correct value of measurement is _____cm. [least b. The thimble and barrel should have a dull finish
c. The screw has 10 or 20 threads per cm
count = 0.01 cm] d. The total travel of the measuring spindle is called the
measuring range
(a) 8.56 cm

(b) 8.36 cm CENTER OF MASS

(c) 8.54 cm
25. A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g is balanced on a
(d) 8.58 cm wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A mass of 2 kg is suspended from the rod at
20 cm and another unknown mass m is suspended from the rod at 160
cm mark as shown in the figure. Find the value of m such that the rod is in
20.The least count of a vernier calliper is also known as equilibrium. (g = 10 m/s2 ) [NEET 2021]
_____.

(a) Vernier count

(b) Vernier sample

(c) Vernier Constant

(d) Vernier Calibration

CALIPERS AND SCREW GUAGE

21. A screw gauge gives the following readings when used to measure the
diameter of a wire Main scale reading : 0 mm Circular scale reading : 52
divisions Given that, 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100 divisions on
the circular scale. The diameter of the wire from the above data is 26. Three identical spheres, each of massM, are placed at the corners of
. [NEET 2021] a right angle triangle with the mutually perpendicular sides equal to 2 m
(a) 0.52 cm (see figure). Taking the point of intersection of the two mutually
(b) 0.026 cm perpendicular sides as the origin, find the position vector of centre of
(c) 0.26 cm mass. [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
(d) 0.052 cm

22. The main scale of a vernier calliper has n divisions/cm. n divisions of

the vernier scale coincide with ( ) n −1 divisions of main scale. The least
count of the vernier callipers is [NEET (Odisha) 2019]

27. Three identical balls each of radius 10cm and mass 1kg each
are placed touching each other on a horizontal surface. Where is
their C.M. located?
(a) At the centre of one ball.
(b) On the horizontal surface.
23. What is the least count of a screw gauge? (c) At the point of contact of any two spheres.
(d) None of these.
a. 0.1 mm
b. 0.01 mm
c. 0.2 mm
28. A body is under the action of two equal and oppositely directed
forces and the body is rotating with constant acceleration. Which of
the following cannot be the separation between the lines of action of
the forces?
(a) zero
(b) 0.25m
(c) 0.4m
(d) 1.0m
35. The temperature determines the direction of net change of:
(a) gross potential energy
CARNOT ENGIEN EFFICIENCY (b) intermolecuiar potential energy
(c) gross kinetic energy
(d) intermolecuiar kinetic energy

29. The efficiency of a Carnot engine depends upon 36. Thermal equilibrium implies equality of:
. [NEET (Oct.) 2020] (a) energy
(a) the temperature of the sink only (b) internal energy
(b) the temperatures of the source and sink (c) K.E.
(c) the volume of the cylinder of the engine (d) temperature
(d) the temperature of the source only

NEWTON’S LAW OF COOLING

30. 4 The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working between the freezing
point and boiling point of water, is [NEET 2018]
(a) 6.25%
(b) 20% 37.
(c) 26.8%
(d) 12.5%

31. A refrigerator works between 4°C and 30°C. It is required to remove

600 calories of heat every second in order to keep the temperature of the
refrigerated space constant. The power required is (Take, 1 cal =4 2.
Joules)

(a) 23.65 W
(b) 236.5 W
(c) 2365 W
(d) 2.365 W
38.

32. In a Carnot’s engine, at the end point of the cycle, the

temperature is
(a) less than the initial temperature.
(b) more than the initial temperature.
(c) equal to the initial temperature.
(d) zero

V(rms) , V (av) , V (mp)

39. A jet plane flying in atmosphere gets reaction from
(a) gravity
(b) atmosphere
33. A cup of coffee cools from 90°C to 80°C int minutes, when the room (c) gases ejected by the plane
temperature is 20°C. The time taken by a similar cup of coffee to cool (d) gravity and atmosphere
from 80°C to 60°C at a room temperature same at 20°C, is
. [NEET 2021] 40. Ratio of force and acceleration measures :
(a) inertia
(b) velocity
(c) impulse
(d) momentum
.

BEATS AND DOPPLERS EFFECT

34. Three stars A B C , , have surface temperaturesT T T A B C , , ,

41. Two cars moving in opposite directions approach each other with
respectively. Star A appears bluish, startBappears reddish and starC
speed of 22 m/s and 16.5 m/s respectively. The driver of the first car
yellowish. Hence [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
blows a horn having a frequency 400 Hz. The frequency heard by the
SIMPLE RESISTANCE
driver of the second car is [velocity of sound 340 m/s] [NEET 2017]
(a) 350 Hz
(b) 361 Hz 49. A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7) kΩ is to be marked with rings of
(c) 411 Hz different colours for its identification. The colour code sequence will be
(d) 448 Hz . [NEET 2018]
(a) Yellow - Green - Violet – Gold
(b) Yellow - Violet - Orange - Silver
42. A siren emitting a sound of frequency 800 Hz moves away from an (c) Violet - Yellow - Orange - Silver
observer towards a cliff at a speed of 15ms −1 . Then, the frequency of (d) Green - Orange - Violet – Gold
sound that the observer hears in the echo reflected from the cliff is (Take,
velocity of sound in air =330ms −1 ) [NEET 2016] 50. Across a metallic conductor of non-uniform cross-section, a constant
(a) 800 Hz potential difference is applied. The quantity which remain constant along
(b) 838 Hz the conductor is [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
(c) 885 Hz (a) current density
(d) 765 Hz (b) current
(c) drift velocity
43. Name the type of vibrations that are produced in a sitar wire (d) electric field
(a) progressive transverse.
(b) progressive longitudinal. 51. In 10 minutes, 3000 Coulombs of free electrons enter one end of
(c) stationary longitudinal. a conductor and 3000 Coulomb of then leave the conductor at its
(d) stationary transverse. other end. The current in the conductor is:
(a) 5 A
44. An organ pipe, open at both the ends, produces (b) 10 A
(a) longitudinal progressives waves. (c) 0 A
(b) longitudinal stationary waves. (d) 30 A
(c) transverse stationary waves.
(d) transverse progressive waves.

52. Three equal registers connected in series across a source of

e.m.f. together dissipate 10 watts of power. What would be the
COP/OP power dissipated if the same resistors are connected in parallel
across the same source of e.m.f.?
(a) 9 watts
(b) 90 watts
(c) 10 watts
45. Velocity of sound waves in air is 330 m/s. For a particular sound wave (d) 100 watts
in air, path difference of 40 cm is equivalent to phase difference of 1.6 π.
The frequency of this wave is [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
(a) 165 Hz
(b) 150 Hz METER BRIDGE AND POTENTIOMETER
(c) 660 Hz
(d) 330 Hz 53. In a potentiometer circuit, a cell of emf 1.5 V gives balance point at
36 cm length of wire. If another cell of emf 2.5 V replaces the first cell,
46. With the propagation of a longitudinal wave through a material then at what length of the wire, the balance point occurs? [NEET 2021]
medium, the quantities transmitted in the propagation direction are . (a) 60 cm
. [CBSE AIPMT 1992] (b) 21.6 cm
(a) energy, momentum and mass (c) 64 cm
(b) energy (d) 62 cm
(c) energy and mass
(d) energy and linear momentum 54. A resistance wire connected in the left gap of a metre bridge balances
a 10 Ω resistance in the right gap at a point which divides the bridge wire
47With the propagation of longitudinal wave through a material in the ratio 3 : 2. If the length of the resistance wire is 1.5 m, then the
medium, the quantities transmitted in the propagation direction are : length of 1 Ω of the resistance wire is [NEET (Sep.) 2020]
(a) energy.
(b) energy and linear momentum. (a)10 10 1 . × − m
(c) energy and mass. (b)15 10 1 . × − m
(d) energy, mass and momentum
(c)15 10 2 . × − m
(d)10 10 2 . × − m

48. When a tuning fork vibrates, the waves produced in tuning the
55. In an experiment to measure the internal resistance of a cell by
Fork are
a potentiometer, it is found that the balance point is at a length of 2
(a) transverse both in the prongs and the stem.
m, when the cell is shunted by a 5Ω resistance and is at 3 m when
(b) longitudinal in both the prongs and stem.
the cell is shunted by a 10Ω resistance. The internal resistance of
(c) longitudinal in stem and transverse in prongs.
the cell is:
(d) longitudinal in prongs and transverse in the stem.
(a) 10 Ω
(b) 15 Ω
(c) 1 Ω
(d) 1.5 Ω
56. The effective wattage of 60 W and 40 W lamps connected in:
(A) series is equal to: (a) 16
(a) 24 W (b) 40
(b) 20 W (c) 54
(c) 100 W (d) 4
(d) 80 W.
62. A 5 A fuse wire can withstand a maximum power of 1 W in circuit.
The resistance of the fuse wire is [CBSE AIPMT 2005]
HEATER IN SERIES / PARALLEL
(a) 0.2 Ω
(b)5 Ω
(c) 0.4Ω
(d) 0.04Ω
57. Six similar bulbs are connected as shown in the figure with a DC
source of emf E and zero internal resistance. The ratio of power
63.What is the total charge on the parallel plate
consumption by the bulbs when (i) all are glowing and (ii) in the situation
when two from section A and one from section B are glowing, will be . . capacitor shown?
. [NEET (National) 2019]

(a) 9 : 4
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 4 : 9 64. What happens to the capacitance when a dielectric material is
inserted between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor?
a) Capacitance decreases
58. A filament bulb (500 W, 100 V) is to be used in a 230 V main supply.
b) Capacitance remains same
When a resistanceR is connected in series, it works perfectly and the bulb
c) Capacitance increases
consumes 500 W. The value ofR is [ NEET 2016]
d) Depends upon the material of the dielectric
(a) 230 Ω
(b) 46 Ω
(c) 26 Ω
(d) 13 Ω DIFFRENT WAVES TABLE

59. If voltage across a bulb rated 220 V-100 W drops by 2.5% of its rated
value, the percentage of the rated value by which the power would
decrease is
(a) 20%
65. The electromagnetic wave with shortest wavelength among the
(b) 2.5%
following is NEET (Oct.) 2020]
(c) 5%
(a) UV-rays
(d) 10%
(b) X-rays
(c) γ-rays (
60. An electric kettle takes 4 A current at 220 V. How much time will it
d) microwaves
take to boil 1 kg of water from temperature 20°C?

66. The energy of the EM waves is of the order of 15 keV. To which part
(a) 6.3 min
of the spectrum does it belong? [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
(b) 8.4 min
(a) X-rays
(c) 12.6 min
(b) Infrared rays
(d) 4.2 min
(c) Ultravioiet rays
(d) γ-rays

67. An electromagnetic wave can be produced, when charge is

PARALLEL / SERIES (a) moving with a constant velocity
(b) moving in a circular orbit
(c) falling in an electric field
61. The total power dissipated in watts in the circuit shown here is
(d) both (b) and (c)
, [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
68. Which of the following has/have zero average value in a plane
electromagnetic wave?
(a) Both magnetic and electric fields
(b) Electric field only
(c) Magnetic field only
(d) None of these
 (a) 30°
(b) 90°
(c) 60°
(d) 120°
RESONANT FREQUENCY
76. Two slits in Young’s double slit experiment have widths in the
ratio 81 :1. The ratio of the amplitudes of light waves is
69. A series L-C-R circuit containing 5.0 H inductor, 80µF capacitor and 40 (a) 3 :1
Ω resistor is connected to 230 V variable frequency AC source. The (b) 3 : 2
(c) 9 :1
angular frequencies of the source at which power transferred to the
(d) 6:1
circuit is half the power at the resonant angular frequency are likely to be
. [NEET 2021]
(a) 25 rad/s and 75 rad/s CRITICAL ANGLE
(b) 50 rad/s and 25 rad/s
(c) 46 rad/s and 54 rad/s
77. Assume that, light of wavelength 600 nm is coming from a star. The
(d) 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s
limit of resolution of telescope whose objective has a diameter of 2 m is
. [NEET (Sep.) 2020]
70. A series L-C-R circuit is connected to an AC voltage source. When L is
removed from the circuit, the phase difference between current and
voltage is π /3 . If instead C is removed from the circuit, the phase
difference is again π/ 3 between current and voltage. The power factor of
the circuit is [NEET (Sep.) 2020]
(a) 0.5
(b) 1.0
(c) −10.
(d) zero 78. The Brewster’s angle i b for an interface should be
. [NEET (Sep.) 2020]
71. The capacitive reactance in an a.c. circuit is:
(a) effective wattage
(b) effective voltage
(c) effective resistance due to capacity
(d) None of these.

72. With increase in frequency of applied a.c. supply, the impedance

of LCR series circuit: 79. The angular resolution of a 10 cm diameter telescope at a
(a) increases wavelength of 5000 A is of the order of
(b) decreases (a) 106 rad
(c) first decreases, becomes minimum and then increases. (b) 10-2 rad
(d) remains constant. (c) 10-4 rad
(d) 10-6 rad
Young’s double slit experiment
80. The velocity of light in air is 3 * 108 ms-1 and that in water is 2.2
* 108 ms” . The polarising angle of incidence is
(a) 45°
73. In Young’s double slit experiment, if the separation between (b) 50°
coherent sources is halved and the distance of the screen from the (c) 53.74°
coherent sources is doubled, then the fringe width becomes (d) 63
. [NEET (Sep.) 2020]

(a) half DE BROGLIE WAVELENGTH

(b) four times
(c) one-fourth
(d) double
81. The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron moving with kinetic energy
74. 3 In a Young’s double slit experiment, if there is no initial phase- of 144 eV is nearly [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
difference between the light from the two slits, a point on the screen
corresponding to the fifth minimum has path difference.
. [NEET (Odisha) 2020]

82. The wave nature of electrons was experimentally verified by

. [NEET (Oct.) 2020]

(a) de-Broglie
75. A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror at an angle of (b) Hertz
incidence 30°. The ray after reflection is deviated through (c) Einstein
(d) Davisson and Germer (d) Doubled

83. Identify the de – Broglie expression from the following. 90. When the light of frequency2 0 ν (where, ν0 is threshold frequency),
a) λ=h×p is incident on a metal plate, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted is
b) λ=hp v1 . When the frequency of the incident radiation is increased to 5 0 ν ,
c) λ=h+p the maximum velocity of electrons emitted from the same plate is v2 .
d) λ=h-p The ratio of v1 tov2 is [NEET 2018]

(a) 4 : 1
2
84. The sun gives light at the rate of 1500 W/m of area (b) 1 : 4
perpendicular to the direction of light. Assume the wavelength of (c) 1 : 2
light as 5000Å. Calculate the number of photons/s arriving at 1 (d) 2 : 1
m2 area at that part of the earth.
a) 4.770 × 1021 91. Ultra-violet radiation of 6.2 eV falls on an aluminium surface
b) 3.770 × 1011 having work-function 4.2 eV. The kinetic energy (in J) of the fastest
c) 3.770 × 1021 electron emitted is nearly.
d) 3.770 × 1020 (a) 3 × 10-19
(b) 3 × 10-15
(c) 3 × 10-17
RADIOACTIVITY (d) 3 × 10-21

92. For light of wavelength 5000 Å, the photon energy is nearly 2.5
85. A mixture consists of two radioactive materials A1 and A2 with half eV. For X-rays of wavelength 1 Å, the photon energy will be close
lives of 20 s and 10 s respectively. Initially the mixture has 40 g of A1 and to:
160 g of A2 . The amount of the two in the mixture will become equal (a) 2.5 × 5000 eV
after [CBSE AIPMT 2012] (b) 2.5 ÷ 5000 eV
(c) 2.5 × (5000)² eV
(a) 60 s (d) 2.5 ÷ (5000)² eV
(b) 80 s
(c) 20 s
(d) 40 s BOHR’S MODEL
86. The half-life of a radioactive isotope X is 50 yr. It decays to another
element Y which is stable. The two elements X and Y were found to be in 93. The ionisation energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. Following Bohr’s
the ratio of 1 : 15 in a sample of a given rock. The age of the rock was theory, the energy corresponding to a transition between 3rd and 4th
estimated to be [CBSE AIPMT 2011] orbit is [CBSE AIPMT 1992]

(a) 200 yr (a) 3.40 eV

(b) 250 yr (b) 1.51 eV
(c) 100 yr (c) 0.85 eV
(d) 150 yr (d) 0.66 eV

87. How much energy will approximately be released if all the 94. The Bohr model of atoms
atoms of 1 kg of deuterium could undergo fusion? . [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
(a) 2 × 107 kWh
(b) 9 × 1013J (a) assumes that the angular momentum of electrons is quantised
(c) 6 × 1027 Cal (b) uses Einstein’s photoelectric equation
(d) 8 × 1023 MeV. (c) predicts continuous emission spectra for atoms
(d) predicts the same emission spectra for all types of atoms

88.. Question 3. 95. Bohr atomic model can explain

The packing fraction for 147N isotope whose mass is 14.003 amu (a) the spectrum of hydrogen atom only
is: (b) spectrum of an atom or ion containing one electron only
(a) 0.9 (c) the spectrum of hydrogen molecule
(b) 7.8 × 10-3 (d) the solar spectrum
(c) 1.0002
(d) 2.1 × 10-4
96 .What is the wavelength of light. Given energy = 2.91 × 10-19], h =
PHOTOELECTRIC EFFECT 6.36 × 10-34 Js, c = 3.0 × 108 m/s?
(a) 6.56 nm
(b) 656 nm
89. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency is incident on a (c) 0.656 nm
photosensitive material. What will be the photoelectric current if the (d) 65.6 nm
frequency is halved and intensity is doubled? [NEET (Sep.) 2020]

(a) Four times

LOGIC GATES
(b) One-fourth
(c) Zero
97. The electron concentration in an n-type semiconductor is the same as
hole concentration in a p-type semiconductor. An external field (electric)
is applied across each of them. Compare the currents in them.
. [NEET 2021]

(a) Current in n-type = Current in p-type

(b) Current in p-type > Current in n-type
(c) Current in n-type> Current in p-type
(d) No current will flow in p-type. current will only flow in n-type

98. For a p-type semiconductor, which of the following statements is true

? [NEET (National) 2019]

(a) Holes are the majority carriers and trivalent atoms are the dopants.
(b) Holes are the majority carriers and pentavalent atoms are the
dopants.
(c) Electrons are the majority carriers and pentavalent atoms are the
dopants.
(d) Electrons are the majority carriers and trivalent atoms are the
dopants.

99. A hole in a p-type semiconductor is-

(a) an excess electron
(b) A missing atom
(c) A missing electron
(d) A donor level.

100. The mobility of conduction electrons is greater than that of

holes since electrons is greater than that of holes since electrons.
(a) are negatively charged.
(b) are lighter
(c) require smaller energy for moving through the crystal lattice.
(d) Undergo smaller number of collisions.