ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT 2022 ĐỀ 1 20
ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT 2022 ĐỀ 1 20
ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT 2022 ĐỀ 1 20
PHẦN 1
ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 1 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2022
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
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(Đề thi có 07 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. worked B. stopped C. forced D. amounted
Question 2: A. course B. courtesy C. resource D. force
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the
primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. focus B. injure C. offer D. provide
Question 4: A. counterpart B. obedience C. aggressive D. tradition
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: As soon as the teacher came in, she _________ John why he ________ to class the previous day.
A. asked/didn’t go B. had asked/hadn’t gone
C. will have asked/hasn’t gone D. asked/hadn’t gone
Question 6: It was not until later _________ the man discovered that he had been cheated by salesgirl.
A. when B. that C. before D. while
Question 7: ________ a scholarship, I entered one of the most privileged universities of the United Kingdom.
A. To award B. Being awarded
C. Having awarded D. Having been awarded
Question 8: She's been promising to pay back the money for six months, but she is forgetfull ____ the promise
she has made.
A. at B. with C. to D. of
Question 9: If it hadn't been for the storm, the farmers _________ a great harvest last year.
A. would have B. would have had
C. had had D. should have
Question 10: It would be nice to work with _________ people who accept new ideas.
A. pig-headed B. open-minded C. strong-willed D. single-handed
Question 11: Carl suggested _________ to the gym for a good workout.
A. to go B. going C. to have gone D. having gone
Question 12: When my boyfriend found a fly in his drink, he started to create a scene. Oh, honey, please don't
make a ______ with it.
A. fuss B. mess C. play D. scene
Question 13: Descriptive analysis of language merely reflects ______used without concern for the social
prestige of these structures.
A. how grammar structures and vocabulary is
B. which are grammar structures and vocabulary
C. how grammar structures and vocabulary are
D. it is how grammar structures and vocabulary are
Question 14: Regular radio broadcasting to inform and entertain the general public started in _______ 1920s.
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A. the B. a C. 0 D. an
Question 15: Against all the _______, he won the national song contest and became quite well-known.
A. successes B. failures C. chances D. odds
Question 16: With a good _________ of both Vietnamese and English, Miss Loan was assigned the task of oral
interpretation for the visiting American delegation.
A. insight B. knowledge C. command D. proficiency
Question 17: There are some similarities in table _________ of different cultures in the world.
A. ways B. etiquette C. styles D. manners
Question 18: Despite the initial _________ result, they decided to go on with the proposed scheme.
A. courage B. courageous C. discouraged D. discouraging
Question 19: I bought my wife a(n) ______________ hat when I went abroad on a business trip.
A. beautiful large copper Italian B. beautiful large Italian copper
C. beautiful copper large Italian D. Italian beautiful large copper
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each
of the following questions.
Question 20: All the condition seemed optimal: the congenial company, the wonderful weather, the historic
venue.
A. hospitable B. difficult C. advanced D. complex
Question 21: If you’re travelling through a tunnel and your vehicle stops working, a team will be sent out to
you immediately.
A. breaks down B. passes away C. gives up D. dozes off
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in
each of the following questions.
Question 22: In some countries, so few students are accepted by the universities that admission is almost a
guarantee of a good job upon graduation.
A. a promise B. an uncertainty C. an assurance D. a pledge
Question 23: The burglar crept into the house without making any noise. That's why no one heard anything.
A. inaudibly B. boisterously C. shrilly D. hurly-burly
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
A part-time job is generally considered to be employment that is less than 40 hours of work per week.
Some employers consider between 32 and 40 hours of work per week to be full-time, (24) ____ part-time jobs
are usually classified as anything less than 40 hours.
Working on a part-time schedule has many perks and provides the optimal flexibility needed by some
individuals. For example, parents (25) ____ young children, students, and people who have out-of-work (26)
_______ often find that part-time work is their only option. Others work in part-time jobs because they are
unable to find full-time positions - and working part-time is better for them than not working at all. In some
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situations, part-time employees can earn as much as full-time employees on an hourly basis, but most employers
do not offer (27) ____ such as health insurance, vacation time, and paid holidays to their part-time employees.
There are many pros and cons to working part-time and there are also several specific industries that are
known to have many part-time positions available. You should (28) ____ the factors before deciding if a part-
time or a full-time position will work better for your specific situation.
Question 24: A. because B. since C. furthermore D. but
Question 25: A. with B. without C. for D. among
Question 26: A. responsibly B. responsibilities C. responsible D. response
Question 27: A. profits B. benefits C. earnings D. rights
Question 28: A. think B. consider C. regard D. believe
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 29: If there is one thing that all the world's various cultures have been in common, it is marriage.
A B C D
Question 30: Sylvia Earle, an underwater explorer and marine biologist, who was born in the USA in 1935.
A B C D
Question 31: The Niagara Falls, one of the world’s most famous waterfalls, lay half in North America and
A B C
half in Canada.
D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
The relationship between Britain and the US has always been a close one. Like all close relationships it
has had difficult times. The US was first a British colony, but between 1775 and 1783 the US fought a war to
become independent. The US fought the British again in the War of 1812.
In general, however, the two countries have felt closer to each other than to any other country, and their
foreign policies have shown this. During World War I and World War II, Britain and the US supported each
other. When the US looks for foreign support, Britain is usually the first country to come forward and it is
sometimes called “the 51st state of the union”.
But the special relationship that developed after 1945 is not explained only by shared political interests.
An important reason for the friendship is that the people of the two countries are very similar. They share the
same language and enjoy each other’s literature, films and television. Many Americans have British ancestors,
or relatives still living in Britain. The US government and political system are based on Britain’s, and there are
many Anglo-American businesses operating on both sides of the Atlantic. In Britain, some people are worried
about the extent of US influence, and there is some jealousy of its current power. The special relationship was
strong in the early 1980s when Margaret Thatcher was Prime Minister in Britain and Ronald Reagan was
President of the US.
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Question 32: What is the passage mainly about?
A. The strong friendship between the UK and the US.
B. The close relationship between Britain and the US
C. A special relationship the UK developed during the World Wars
D. A special influence the US had on the UK during the World Wars
Question 33: The phrase “come forward” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______ .
A. be willing to help B. be able to help
C. be reluctant to help D. be eager to help
Question 34: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. countries B. people C. political interests D. British ancestors
Question 35: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason for the special relationship between Britain
and the US?
A. The people of the two countries are similar.
B. Many Americans have British ancestors.
C. British Prime Minister and the US President are close friends.
D. Many Anglo-American businesses are operating in the two countries
Question 36: Britain and the US are close to each other NOT because of their ______.
A. foreign policies B. power C. political interest D. language
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Saving the planet is very much in vogue. It's also in Harper's Bazaar, Elle and Mademoiselle. It's the
message on fashion runways, in marketing strategies, in jewelry and accessory designs, on shopping bags and
totes, in advertisements and on price tags.
A naked fashion model wearing a hat of birch branches and lichen, as shown in Vogue this month, may
not be everyone's idea of environmental awareness. But the pervasiveness of ecological themes in the images
and marketing of fashion is undeniable. It is also somewhat paradoxical. The fashion industry, whose driving
philosophy involves encouraging consumers to discard the old and embrace the new, is now trying to push itself
to the forefront of efforts to conserve and preserve.
The environmental theme in fashion began as wispy touches and graphic exhortations in designer
collections, not as some well-thought-out strategy of ''green'' marketing in which the environmental advantages
of a product become part of the sales approach. Tendrils of ivy dangled from the ceiling at a Paris fashion show;
a carpet of grass covered a runway in New York; models marched along in T-shirts or carrying signs all bearing
slogans like ''Clean Up or Die,'' ''Save the Sphere,'' and ''Environmental Protection Agents.
The environmental spin on fashion has now moved into the mass market, where ''clothes with
conscience'' make an extra tug at the buyer's self-image. Bonjour, a jeans and sportswear company based in
New York, has embarked on a program to ''change the individual's outlook toward saving the environment''
through educational tags. This summer, the first wave of what Bonjour executives said would be 50 million
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fashion items a year are to arrive in stores carrying tags with environmental tips from how to save water to how
to reduce pollutants.
Whether these tributes to nature will benefit the environment or even raise environmental awareness,
with concomitant changes in individual behavior, is not clear. There is some skepticism. Professor Ewen says
the new environmental symbolism should be viewed as part of an overall change in America's economy, from
one built on industrial production of hard goods to one based on ''pure representation”. “Going back to fashion,
the environment has become a commercial cliche separated from real concerns. What can be attached to this
year's fashion is merely the symbolism of environmental sanity.''
Question 37: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The green movement in the fashion world
B. The long-forgotten theme of the fashion industry.
C. Fashion and environment can never go hand in hand.
D. Going green is the new big thing.
Question 38: The word “paradoxical” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. inconsistent B. conflicting C. confusing D. zealous
Question 39: According to paragraph 2, why is the green effort of the fashion world so much of an irony?
A. No one has ever imagined the harmonious future of fashion and environment.
B. Fast fashion’s main features are premeditated waste and disposability.
C. It is predicted that the green trend can only remain as a niche market.
D. The concept of ethical fashion was once rejected by the industry.
Question 40: The word “wispy” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. fine B. small C. silvery D. flamboyant
Question 41: According to paragraph 4, what is the main focus of the current green fashion?
A. Attracting wider consumers through the promotion of self-concept.
B. The combination of aesthetics and sustainability.
C. Realistic strategy to deliver a positive message for the environment.
D. Raising global awareness of the environmental conservation.
Question 42: Which of the following statements is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. The initial manifestation of green fashion is relatively superficial.
B. Creating eco-conscious fashion does not take away anything from the beauty of the garments.
C. Not many fashion brands pay attention to the prospect of the eco-friendly element.
D. The contradiction between green fashion’s approach and motto is unreal.
Question 43: The word “one” in paragraph 5 refers to _____.
A. economy B. change C. symbolism D. environment
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 44: My father is the most handsome man I have ever known.
A. I have never known a more handsome man than my father.
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B. My father is not as handsome as the men I have ever known.
C. I have ever known such a handsome man. It’s my father.
D. No man in the world is as handsome as my father.
Question 45: “Nowhere can I find a kind man like you”, she said to him.
A. She said that she could find a kind man like him anywhere.
B. She told him that nowhere could she find a kind man like you.
C. She told him that nowhere could she find a kind man like him.
D. She said to him that nowhere she could find a kind man like him.
Question 46: It is a pity he was late for the job interview.
A. I think he mustn't have been late for the job interview.
B. I hear he hasn't been late for the job interview.
C. I remember he wasn't late for the job interview.
D. I wish he hadn't been late for the job interview.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the option that best completes the following exchanges.
Question 47: - "May I speak to Dr. Thomas, please?"
- "____________________. "
A. I'm sorry, he's seeing a patient at the moment.
B. Yes, you may and he will connect you later.
C. That's fine, but I don't think he's working now.
D. No, you can't as he must be free in a few minutes.
Question 48: – Jack: “John, you look terrible! What’s wrong with you?”
- John: “_________”
A. Thanks for your question. B. I was so sick yesterday.
C. The weather will be better. D. You must be wrong, too.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following questions.
Question 49: David loves Hannah. That’s why he bought tickets for her live show last week.
A. David loves Hannah so much that he bought tickets for her live show last week.
B. Although David loves Hannah, he bought tickets for her live show last week.
C. David loves Hannah too much to buy tickets for her live show last week.
D. Much as David loves Hannah, he bought tickets for her live show last week.
Question 50: You did not tell her the truth. It was wrong of you.
A. You must have told her the truth.
B. You should have told her the truth.
C. You may have told her the truth.
D. You could have told her the truth.
-----THE END-----
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ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 2 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2022
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. confide B. conceal C. convention D. concentrate
Question 2: A. landed B. planted C. naked D. looked
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. particular B. electrify C. fashionable D. geneticist
Question 4: A. construct B. constant C. connect D. contain
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: Some English words have the same pronunciation _______ they are spelled differently, for
example, dear and deer.
A. unless B. even though C. even if D. since
Question 6: WHO's objective is ___________ by all people of the highest possible level of health.
A. attainment B. approach C. advance D. acquisition
Question 7: In 1791, Pierre-Charles L' Enfant ________ plan for the new capital city at Washington.
A. had submitted B. has submitted C. was submitting D. submitted
Question 8: He did not want __________ his fears and insecurity to anyone.
A. to expose B. to be exposed C. to have exposed D. exposing
Question 9: My brother and his friend, Duong and Son, aged 15 and 16, ___________ won the first and the
third prize in the contest "Nation’s Brain.”
A. each B. respectively C. one by one D. every
Question 10: "You _____________ be thirsty! You've just drunk a lot of water.”
A. mayn’t B. shouldn’t C. can't D. mustn't
Question 11: The man was innocent; it was a case of mistaken ______________ .
A. identically B. identified C. identity D. identification
Question 12: This book is an __________ of a series lectures given last year.
A. expense B. extension C. addition D. expansion
Question 13: Culture shock is a feeling of confusion and anxiety that someone experiences ________ with a
very different culture, especially a different country.
A. as they leave a place and go to another B. while visiting or leaving a place
C. visiting or going to live in a place D. when they visit or go to live in a place
Question 14: The police officer said two of the victims were known gang members; the other was an innocent
__________ .
A. bystander B. stander by C. standing-by D. by-standing
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Question 15: This clock is always slow; I put it ___________ ten minutes every morning.
A. back B. up C. forward D. ahead
Question 16: If Tom ____________ a bit more ambitious, he would have found himself a better job years ago.
A. had been B. is C. were D. was
Question 17: I was told by my friends not to believe __________ girl’s tears.
A. the B. some C. a D. 0
Question 18: Now that the scandal is in the ______, the Minister will have to resign.
A. string B. offing C. swing D. spring
Question 19: A strong wind spread the flames, __________?
A. doesn’t it B. does it C. did it D. didn’t it
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of
the following exchanges.
Question 20: - "Hi. You must be new here." - “_____________“
A. Yes, this is my first day on the job. B. Yes, am you surprised?
C. No, I’m very old here. D. Are you new here, too?
Question 21: - "Excuse me. Where’s the parking lot?" - “ ___________ “
A. Why do you ask me? I don’t know. B. Do you get lost? I do too.
C. You missed the turn. It’s back that way. D. You are wrong. It's not here. .
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The architect was let down that his new city plan had been turned down.
A. disappointed B. satisfied C. emotional D. optimistic
Question 23: You must drive it home to him that spending too much time playing computer games will do
him no good.
A. let him drive his car B. make him understand
C. allow him to stay D. give him a lift home
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: Experts often forecast an upswing in an economy after a protracted slowdown.
A. a reform B. inflation C. an improvement D. a decline
Question 25: When people are angry, they seldom act in a rational way.
A. impolite B. dissatisfied C. unreasonable D. inconsiderate
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 26: Despite the fact that it has been a long debate, I hope that the dispute will be settled
A B C
without resource to litigation.
D
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Question 27: In some countries, octopuses and snails are considered being great delicacies to eat.
A B C D
Question 28: Although Mark had been cooking for many years, he still doesn’t know how to prepare
A B
French foods in the traditional manner.
C D
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Each year thousands of people travel to Britain in order to improve their standard of English. For many,
however, this can be a painful experience due to the fact that it involves (29) ________ a strange school, staying
in sometimes unpleasant accommodation and living in an unfamiliar culture. One (30) _____________ these
problems is the Homestay method. With this, students are each assigned a teacher suited to their language
requirements and interests. As well as giving individual tuition, the teacher provides the student with
information about (31) ______________activities that are available locally, and takes them on trips. Students
get “Between ten and twenty hours of tuition a week and are also expected to join in the family’s daily
activities. The students speak English at all times and therefore learn how to use the language in everyday (32)
______________. Homestay programs usually last for up to four weeks. Although costs are higher than of
regular language schools, students can feel (33) ___________ that they will be receiving top - class language
teaching in a safe and pleasant environment.
Question 29: A. attending B. going C. studying D. learning
Question 30: A. requirement B. answer C. argument D. reaction
Question 31: A. what B. where C. how D. why
Question 32: A. positions B. chances C. situations D. occasions
Question 33: A. confidence B. confidential C. confidently D. confident
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Myriad occupational schools in the central coastal city of Da Nang have received just a small number of
applications over the past few years. “Last year we only had 142 new students, but the number of new enrollees
is 50 this school year,” Truong Van Hung, rector of the Duc Tri Da Nang Vocational College, said, adding the
school has set a target of recruiting 1,200 students for the 2014-2015 academic year. “Closing the school is just
a matter of time,” he said.
Similarly, the Viet A Vocational School in Hai Chau District in Da Nang has not recruited any new
enrollee for over one year given the absence of job opportunities for its graduates. “We do not want to enroll
because we cannot help students land jobs after they graduate,” a leader of Viet A said. “We will only admit
new students when we can have a partnership with companies who can employ our students after they finish
their studies.”
Elsewhere, vocational schools in the southern province of Dong Nai are ‘frozen’. The Dong Nai
Information Technology-Telecommunications Vocational School in the academic year of 2013-2014 enrolled
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only 82 students compared with a target of 1,000; the Nhon Trach Industrial Engineering Vocational School
only had 200 out of its goal of 600 students for the school year; the 26-3 Vocational School received 150
students while they set a target of 250; and the South-Eastern Electromechanical Vocational School only
recruited 300 out of the 500 students they planned to admit.
The situation means that equipment for training programs at those schools has been left unused and
covered with rust. Local experts have commented that if the lack of students persists, vocational schools are at
high risk of being closed, sooner or later.
(Source: https://tuoitrenews.vn/)
Question 34: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Vocational schools in Vietnam struggling to survive.
B. Several principals failing to manage local schools.
C. Students turning their back at tertiary education.
D. More and more teenagers choosing to work.
Question 35: According to paragraph 1, what was the attitude of the headmaster of the Duc Tri Da Nang
Vocational College?
A. He regretted not making any effort.
B. He was upset at his own incompetence.
C. He lamented the tragic plight of his school.
D. He was pleased to be able to change schools.
Question 36: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. companies B. students C. studies D. jobs
Question 37: According to paragraph 3, what is the reason for the vocational schools in the southern province
of Dong Nai being ‘frozen’?
A. Because their invested money cannot return.
B. Because they do not have enough students.
C. Because they cannot pay a debt from the land rent.
D. Because the government has suddenly changed the policy.
Question 38: The word “persists” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. withstands B. sustains C. insists D. continues
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
The number of people accessing the State’s and community’s priority policies and programmes is
increasing, said Minister of Labour, Invalids and Social Affairs Dao Ngoc Dung. Vietnam has around 6.2
million people over the age of two with disabilities, making up 7.06 per cent of the country’s population. Of
those, 28 per cent are severely disabled, 58 per cent female, 28 per cent children and 10 per cent living in
poverty. Most live in rural areas and many are victims of Agent Orange.
Minister Dung said in the past, the State, the Party and Vietnamese people had paid much care to people
with disabilities. Vietnam ratified the United Nations Convention on the Rights of People with Disabilities in
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2014. In March this year, the country ratified the International Labour Organisation’s Convention 159 about jobs
for people with disabilities. It strongly confirmed Vietnam’s commitment to ensuring the disabled would not be
discriminated against at work.
Last month, the Secretariat Committee issued Instruction 39 about the Party’s leading work on affairs
related to people with disabilities . The National Assembly later ratified the amended Law on Labour with many
adjustments relating to disabled people. Dung said that every year, millions of disabled people receive an
allowance from the State and all provinces and cities had rehabilitation centres. Attending the event, Truong Thi
Mai, head of the Party Central Committee’s Commission for Mass Mobilisation, said besides the achievements,
Vietnam still sees many obstacles. Infrastructure is still limited in demand for people with disabilities and many
life below the poverty line depending heavily on their families.
Mai asked organisations to improve education to raise people’s awareness of the meaning of supportive
work to people with disabilities. This year, more than VNĐ17 trillion (US$735.4 million) from the State budget
was allocated to provinces and cities to implement policies for people with disabilities, according to the
Ministry of Labour, Invalids and Social Affairs.
The Ministry of Planning and Investment on Thursday launched the programme “White stick for
Vietnamese visual impaired people”. Its aim is to present one million white sticks to visually impaired people
across the country. Training to use the device will also be provided. Minister of Planning and Investment
Nguyen Chi Dung said the ministry will listen to disabled people’s demands and wishes and put them into its
policies. Deputy chairwoman of the National Assembly Tong Thi Phong said Vietnam has committed to
developing socio-economy, taking care of social equality and improving social management ability.
Question 39: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. The plight of overflowing number of the handicapped.
B. The healthier the people, the stronger the nation.
C. Generous financial support for the visually impaired.
D. More disabled people access to supportive policies.
Question 40: The word “Invalids” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. Sufferers B. Valetudinarian
C. Convalescents D. Bedridden patients
Question 41: The word “It” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.
A. Commitment B. Disability C. Country D. Convention
Question 42: According to paragraph 3, what was the view of Vietnam’s governing bodies towards the
disabled?
A. They displayed an entirely altruistic and selfless act.
B. They expressed a philanthropic and supportive attitude.
C. They aimlessly enacted laws in the interest of the people.
D. They tried their best but handled situations nonchalantly.
Question 43: The word “implement” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. prepare B. follow C. clarify D. establish
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Question 44: According to paragraph 5, what did the Ministry of Planning and Investment have in mind when
launching the project?
A. Encouraging the handicapped to be confident. B. Fulfilling the responsibility as a part of the nation.
C. Ensuring no people in need would be left behind. D. Improving the overall image of the government.
Question 45: Which of the following statements is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. The matter concerning the disabled’s welfare has only gained recognition in recent years.
B. The handicapped are annually supported by the government financially and physically.
C. Sectors and localities have drafted policies for their sustainable development strategy.
D. Dao Ngoc Dung is the current Minister of Planning and Investment of Vietnam.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 46: Our grandmother might have phoned while we were out.
A. Unfortunately we were out when our grandmother phoned.
B. We were sure our grandmother had phoned while we were out.
C. Possibly our grandmother phoned while we were out.
D. Our grandmother ought to have phoned while we were out.
Question 47: He was such a wet blanket at the party tonight!
A. He brought a wet blanket to the party.
B. He was wet through when going home from the party.
C. He made people at the party wet through.
D. He spoiled other people’s pleasure at the party.
Question 48: Fansipan is the highest mountain in the Indochinese Peninsula.
A. There are some mountains in the Indochinese Peninsula higher than Fansipan.
B. The Indochinese Peninsula includes one of the highest mountains on earth.
C. The highest mountain in the Indochinese Peninsula is exclusive of Fansipan.
D. No mountains in the Indochinese Peninsula are higher than Fansipan.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: You have just passed your final examination. This makes your parents happy
A. Having just passed your final examination making your parents happy.
B. You have just passed your final examination makes your parents happy.
C. That you have just passed your final examination makes your parents happy.
D. What you have just passed your final examination makes your parents happy.
Question 50: He thought he must have made a mistake somewhere. He went through his calculations again.
A. Thinking he had made a mistake somewhere, he would go through his calculations again.
B. Thinking he must have made a mistake somewhere, he went through his calculations again.
C. He went through his calculations again before he went thought of making mistake somewhere.
D. He thought to have made a mistake somewhere and had gone through his calculations again.
13
ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 3 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2022
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 07 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. compose B. support C. precise D. challenge
Question 2: A. interactive B. electronic C. ecology D. individual
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. features B. inserts C. reveals D. destroys
Question 4: A. access B. championship C. laborer D. democratic
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: ______ committee is expected to reach ______ decision this evening.
A. A/a B. The/0 C. 0/a D. The/a
Question 6: There are signs _________ restaurants are becoming more popular with families.
A. that B. which C. what D. whose
Question 7: Euthanasia, also mercy killing, is the practice of ending a life so as to release an individual from an
incurable disease or _________ suffering.
A. tolerated B. tolerant C. tolerate D. intolerably
Question 8: _________, she spent nearly an hour walking all around the neighborhood looking for her car.
A. Unable to remember where she was parking B. Unable to remember where she has parked
C. Forgetting where to park D. Not remembering where she had parked
Question 9: She is bored with her job which is only concerned _________ costs and fees.
A. about B. to C. with D. of
Question 10: But for my mother’s help for the last two years, I ________________.
A. would succeed B. would not have succeeded
C. would not succeed D. could have not succeeded
Question 11: _______________ having a well-paid job, Jake is not contented with his life.
A. Although B. Besides C. Despite D. Because
Question 12: Over a third of the population was estimated to have no __________ to the health service.
A. relation B. connection C. access D. link
Question 13: Among all the changes resulting from the ___________ entry of women into the workforce, the
transformation that has occurred in the women themselves is not the least important.
A. quantitative B. massive C. surplus D. formidable
Question 14: We talked to each other all night and resolved some of our problem. It's good to have a proper
______________ sometimes.
14
A. head-to-head B. heart-to-head C. heart-to-heart D. head-to-heart
Question 15: The new airport was constructed in the _______ of fierce opposition.
A. face B. name C. teeth D. fangs
Question 16: The series became so popular that it was moved to the _______ time spot of 8 pm.
A. prime B. leading C. main D. major
Question 17: My mother ________ for a computer company, but she ___________ at home today.
A. works – is working B. works – works
C. is working – works D. is working – is working
Question 18: My father told me that If we wanted to catch the 6.30 train, that would mean _______ the house
at 6.00.
A. to leave B. having left
C. leaving D. having to be leaving
Question 19: Corona Virus __________ from China is threatening the health of people all over the world.
A. is thought to have originated B. is thought to have been originated
C. thought to have originated D. thought to have originated
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of
the following exchanges.
Question 20: Linh: "How often does your brother have to do a night shift?"
Mary: " ______________ "
A. Usually by car, but sometimes he cycles. B. Three times a week, but sometimes twice.
C. He often starts work at 6, and sometimes at 7. D. Not much, only a couple of hours every day.
Question 21: John: "___________"
Lucy: "Great. I have twenty students and they can speak English very well."
A. How is your class this term?
B. How many students in your class can speak English?
C. What are you going to do this term?
D. What is the problem with your English students?
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 22: She said to me that she had just read an interesting book which had a new approach Shakespeare.
A B C D
Question 23: From bones found in the United States, we have learned that many animals which existed no
A B C
longer in the world once made their homes there.
D
Question 24: Companies spend millions of dollars on advertisings and commercials trying to persuade the
A B C
public to buy their products.
15
D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: You must drive it home to him that spending too much time playing computer games will do
him no good.
A. let him drive his car B. make him understand
C. allow him to stay D. give him a lift home
Question 26: Young people often dispense with the traditional ceremonies of marriage. They think weddings
are money-consuming and nonsensical.
A. do away with B. pay no attention to
C. ignore D. put an end
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 27: Many of us fret about ways in which modern technology distances us from understanding and
keeping our customs and traditions.
A. no worry about B. feel like
C. get involved in D. are unconcerned about
Question 28: Because of her conservative views, the professor never accepts anything not related to traditional
values and the status.
A. conservational B. progressive C. modern D. economic
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
An astronaut living in space begins a day in much the same way as he would on earth. The astronaut is
able to brush his teeth and use the toilet in space. It is, however, rather challenging as the water droplets will
(29)__________ around. The astronaut will also have to make to do with sponge baths.
There is a special plan for the astronaut on (30)____________ a spaceship which includes beverages and
food items. The astronaut is allowed to have a maximum of three main meals a day. The meal varies each day
until the sixth day. On that day, the menu is (31)_____________ and the astronaut eats the meals he had on the
first day. The food (32) ________ is brought on a shuttle mission can be dehydrated, in natural form for fresh.
Sometimes, they are kept in thermostabilised cans or sealed pouches. It takes only thirty minutes to cook a
delicious meal for a crew of up to seven people on a space mission. (33)_________, astronauts have to eat
slowly and carefully or the food will float away.
Question 29: A. dive B. fall C. float D. fly
Question 30: A. board B. move C. air D. business
Question 31: A. repetition B. repeatedly C. repeating D. repeated
Question 32: A. what B. that C. whose D. 0
Question 33: A. However B. Moreover C. Instead D. In contrast
16
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 34 to 38.
Earthquakes are destructive events in nature. The damage depends on the size or magnitude of the
quake. There have never been so many people living in cities in quake zones, and so the worse the damage can
be from a big quake, bringing fires, tsunamis, and the loss of life, property, and maybe an entire city.
We understand how earthquakes happen but not exactly where or when they will occur. Until recently,
quakes seemed to occur at random. In Japan, government research is now showing that quakes can be predicted.
At the Earthquake Research Institute, University of Tokyo, Koshun Yamaoka says earthquakes do follow a
pattern—pressure builds in a zone and must be released. But a colleague, Naoyuki Kato, adds that laboratory
experiments indicate that a fault slips a little before it breaks. If this is true, predictions can be made based on
the detection of slips.
Research in the U.S. may support Kato’s theory. In Parkfield, California earthquakes occur about every
22 years on the San Andreas fault. In the 1980s, scientists drilled into the fault and set up equipment to record
activity to look for warning signs. When an earthquake hit again, it was years off schedule. At first the event
seemed random but scientists drilled deeper. By 2005 they reached the bottom of the fault, two miles down, and
found something. Data from two quakes reported in 2008 show there were two “slips’—places where the plates
widened—before the fault line broke and the quakes occurred.
We are learning more about these destructive events every day. In the future we may be able to track
earthquakes and design an early-warning system. So if the next great earthquake does happen in Tokai, about
100 miles southwest of Tokyo, as some scientists think, the citizens of Tokai may have advance warning.
(Adapted from Reading Explorer 3, Nancy Douglas et al., 2010)
Question 34: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. We can predict earthquakes using pre-slip theory.
B. There are now many theories about earthquakes.
C. Research is showing that we may be able to predict earthquakes.
D. Earthquakes are the most destructive natural disaster on earth.
Question 35: The underlined phrase “the worse the damage” in the passage means ___________.
A. The result of a great earthquake is a tsunami or fire that causes great damage.
B. Greater damage will occur from earthquakes in highly populated cities in danger zones.
C. Tsunamis and fire are caused by big earthquakes that we have not been able to predict.
D. Cities and other populous areas may suffer from worse earthquakes than other places.
Question 36: The underlined word “it” in the passage refers to _____________.
A. a fault B. a little C. an experiment D. a pattern
Question 37: Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. The San Andreas fault is two miles deep.
B. Scientists in the U.S. found slips in the fault in the 1980’s.
C. Earthquakes occur about every 22 years along the San Andreas Fault.
D. The slip at a fault can predict when the fault will break.
17
Question 38: Evidence for the pre-slip theory has been found by scientists in __________.
A. Japan and the United States B. Tokai and San Andreas
C. Parkfield and Kato D. California and Tokyo
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 39 to 45.
If you go back far enough, everything lived in the sea. At various points in evolutionary history,
enterprising individuals within many different animal groups moved out onto the land, sometimes even to the
most parched deserts, taking their own private seawater with them in blood and cellular fluids. In addition to the
reptiles, birds, mammals and insects which we see all around us, other groups that have succeeded out of water
include scorpions, snails, crustaceans such as woodlice and land crabs, millipedes and centipedes, spiders and
various worms. And we mustn’t forget the plants, without whose prior invasion of the land, none of the other
migrations could have happened.
Moving from water to land involved a major redesign of every aspect of life, including breathing and
reproduction. Nevertheless, a good number of thoroughgoing land animals later turned around, abandoned their
hard-earned terrestrial re-tooling, and returned to the water again. Seals have only gone part way back. They
show us what the intermediates might have been like, on the way to extreme cases such as whales and dugongs.
Whales (including the small whales we call dolphins) and dugongs, with their close cousins, the manatees,
ceased to be land creatures altogether and reverted to the full marine habits of their remote ancestors. They
don’t even come ashore to breed. They do, however, still breathe air, having never developed anything
equivalent to the gills of their earlier marine incarnation. Turtles went back to the sea a very long time ago and,
like all vertebrate returnees to the water, they breathe air. However, they are, in one respect, less fully given
back to the water than whales or dugongs, for turtles still lay their eggs on beaches.
There is evidence that all modern turtles are descended from a terrestrial ancestor which lived before
most of the dinosaurs. There are two key fossils called Proganochelys quenstedti and Palaeochersis
talampayensis dating from early dinosaur times, which appear to be close to the ancestry of all modern turtles
and tortoise. You might wonder how we can tell whether fossil animals lived in land or in water, especially if
only fragments are found. Sometimes it’s obvious. Ichthyosaurs were reptilian contemporaries of the dinosaurs,
with fins and streamlined bodies. The fossils look like dolphins and they surely lived like dolphins, in the water.
With turtles it is a little less obvious. One way to tell is by measuring the bones of their forelimbs.
(Adapted from Cambridge English IELTS 9)
Question 39: Which of the following best serves as the main idea for the passage?
A. The evidences of the time marine animals moved to land.
B. The relationship between terrestrial species and marine creatures.
C. The reasons why species had to change their living place.
D. The evolution of marine species in changing places to live.
Question 40: According to the first paragraph, reptiles, birds, mammals and insects __________.
A. were the ones living on the marine organisms.
B. moved to deserts to find feeding grounds.
18
C. left the water at the same time of scorpions, snails and crustaceans.
D. are the species whose ancestors succeeded in moving from water to land.
Question 41: As mentioned in paragraph 2, which of the following species returned to the water least
completely?
A. Whales B. manatees C. turtles D. dugongs
Question 42: The word “ceased” in paragraph 2 mostly means ______________.
A. stopped happening or existing B. got familiar
C. began to happen or exist D. decided to become
Question 43: The word “incarnation” in the second paragraph could be best replaced by __________.
A. ancestor B. embodiment C. evolution D. natural selection
Question 44: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Seals are able to live on land and in the water.
B. Some terrestrial habits were remained when the species reverted to water life.
C. Apart from breathing and breeding, marine species were expected to change nothing to live on land.
D. Ichthyosaurs might have resembled dolphins.
Question 45: What does the word “they” in the last paragraph refer to?
A. dinosaurs B. fins and streamlined bodies
C. ichthyosaurs D. dolphins
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 46: “Shall I post the letter for you?”
A. He asked me if I should post the letter for him. B. He offered to post the letter for me.
C. He said I should post the letter myself. D. I wanted him to post the letter for me.
Question 47: It is never too late to give up your prejudices.
A. It is high time you gave up your prejudices.
B. There is not enough time to give your prejudices.
C. There is no point giving up your prejudices.
D. It is too early for you to give up your prejudices
Question 48: As a conductor of heat and electricity, aluminum exceeds all metals except silver, copper and
gold.
A. With the exception of aluminum, silver, copper and gold are better than any other metal as conductors of
heat and electricity.
B. Aluminum is a better conductor of heat and electricity than silver, copper and gold.
C. Silver, copper and gold are better conductors of heat and electricity than aluminum.
D. Silver, copper and gold are exceeded only by aluminum as conductors of heat and electricity.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: David was alone and lost in the woods. He did not panic.
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A. David did not panic though he was alone and lost in the woods.
B. David wouldn't be panic if he had been alone and lost in the woods.
C. David was alone and lost in the woods so he did not panic.
D. David was alone and lost in the woods because he did not panic.
Question 50: The president failed to explain the cause of the crisis. He did not offer any solutions.
A. The president either failed to explain the cause of the crisis or offered any solutions.
B. The president failed to explain the cause of crisis, nor did he offered any solutions.
C. The president neither explained the cause of the crisis nor offered any solutions.
D. The president didn’t either fail to explain the cause of crisis or offered no solutions too.
-----THE END-----
ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 4 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2022
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. hostile B. hotel C. hourglass D. honest
Question 2: A. chocolate B. difference C. identity D. vegetable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. meet B. free C. prefer D. repeat
Question 4: A. coughed B. ploughed C. laughed D. roughed
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: Would you care for __________________ cup of tea?
A. other B. more C. one other D. one more
Question 6: John, you know what I feel for you and I’ve told you enough times, _______________?
A. don’t you B. don’t I C. doesn’t he D. haven’t I
Question 7: To become a good teacher, you have to have such a lot of ________ when you’re dealing with
kids.
A. patient B. patience C. patients D. impatience
Question 8: I think our guests will ________________.
A. be here shortly B. shortly be here C. here be shortly D. here shortly be
Question 9: We have much to ____________ today, so please concentrate.
20
A. discuss B. discuss about C. discuss over D. discuss with
Question 10: __________________ Tom’s opposition, we would have agreed to the contract.
A. But for B. If hadn’t it been for C. If it hadn’t had D. Hadn’t it been for
Question 11: _______________, the woman was visibly happy after the birth of her child.
A. Tired though she is B. She being tired C. Despite being tired D. Though was tired
Question 12: ___________ all the lights and other electric devices, the student left the classroom.
A. Having been turned off B. Turning off
C. To have turned off D. Having turned off
Question 13: The entire staff was thrown off _______ when the news of the takeover was announced.
A. stable B. balance C. composure D. disarray
Question 14: Micelle looked really sunburnt. She must have been _______________ in the sun for long.
A. screening B. wading C. swimming D. bathing
Question 15: When his parents are away for wok, his oldest brother _________.
A. is in the same boat B. calls the shots C. draws the line D. knocks it off
Question 16: I made it quite clear that I had no ________________ of selling the portrait.
A. aim B. intention C. meaning D. purpose
Question 17: By the end of this year, they _____________ on that bridge for more than a decade.
A. will work B. will be working C. will have worked D. have work
Question 18: Most educators today consider computer literacy _________ a necessary addition to the basic
scholastic requirements.
A. being B. to be C. having been D. be
Question 19: I remember you have ever said that you like her, __________?
A. don’t I B. haven’t you C. don’t you D. have you
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of
the following exchanges.
Question 20: “What’s the best place to have lunch?”
-: “_________________.”
A. I’ll have a soup, please B. There’s a great restaurant at the street corner
C. I usually eat lunch at twelve there D. Twelve would be convenient for us
Question 21: “I’ve got an earache in this ear. I couldn’t sleep last night because it was so painful.”
-: “___________”
A. Let me check your temperature…. Yes, it’s higher than normal.
B. Drink lots of water and come back if you don’t feel better.
C. Let me have a look …… ah …. Yes, it’s very red in there.
D. Well, you should take this medicine twice a day. It’s good for a sore throat.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 22: The fire was so important to early cultures that scientists now study it to learn more about
21
A B C
ancient civilizations.
D
Question 23: Perhaps the most distinctive features of insects and undoubtedly one of the most important
A B
reasons for their success is their quite well-developed sensory system.
C D
Question 24: Unless the money is returned, we shall shortly be contacting our lawful department.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: He said he had never come across such a pleasing painting.
A. run into B. bump into C. cross his path D. hook up
Question 26: John was in the news during the latter part of the Watergate scandal.
A. former B. second C. eventual D. end
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 27: The Beatles were a phenomenon – nobody had heard anything like them before.
A. success B. wonder C. disastrous D. failure
Question 28: This task is not rocket science. Just focus on observing this reaction and you can reach a
conclusion on chemical properties of bronze.
A. difficult B. uncomplicated C. effortless D. trivial
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
While many behaviors and practices associated with going green are designed to save money, there are
certain ways in which green living can actually be moderately to very expensive. Much of the technology
associated with green (29) ___________provides benefits to the environment but often at a much higher cost
than their traditional counterparts. For instance, the use of solar panels can potentially save you money on your
energy bills, but they can (30) ______________ thousands of dollars to install. Energy-efficient appliances are
designed to use less electricity and water but they often come with a high price tag.
Going green can also potentially have a negative effect on the environment. (31) ______________, the
development of alternative fuels is an innovation in the green movement in an effort to reduce reliance on (32)
___________ natural resources. While these fuels are intended to reduce the toxic emissions caused by the
burning of traditional gasoline, they may have unintentionally caused the opposite effect. One of these
alternative fuels, E85, actually gives (33) ___________ more ozone into the atmosphere than traditional fuel.
While ozone is a natural part of the Earth’s upper atmosphere, if it becomes concentrated in the lower
atmosphere, it can potentially increase air pollution in areas where smog is a concern, which can in turn impact
the health of those living in these areas.
22
Question 29: A. living B. lives C. live D. lively
Question 30: A. spend B. take C. cost D. charge
Question 31: A. Such as B. However C. In addition D. For example
Question 32: A. advanced B. alternative C. nonstop D. nonrenewable
Question 33: A. out B. away C. off D. in
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 34 to 38.
May 1 is marked as International Labour Day, also referred as May Day. The day celebrates labourers
and the working class. Labour Day is an annual public holiday in many countries. It is also referred as
International Workers’ Day or just Worker’s Day.
During industrialization in beginning of the 19th Century, the industrialists used to exploit the labour class and
made them work up to 15 hours a day. The workers in the U.S. rose against this exploitation and demanded paid
leaves, proper wages and breaks for the workforce. The eight-hour day labour movement advocated eight hours
for work, eight hours for recreation, and eight hours for rest. The Labour Day annually celebrates the
achievements of the workers.
The day has different story for different places. May 1 was chosen to be International Workers’ Day to
commemorate the 1886 Haymarket affair in Chicago. In that year, on May 1, there was a general strike for the
eight-hour workday. On May 4, the police acted to disperse a public assembly in support of the strike when an
unidentified person threw a bomb. The police responded by firing on the workers. The event lead to several
deaths. The incident is remembered as the Haymarket affair, or the Haymarket massacre. The place in
Haymarket Square where the incident happened was designated a Chicago Landmark in 1992.
Labour Day or May Day has been a focal point of protests by various socialist and communist groups
and is an important holiday in communist countries like China, North Korea, Cuba and the former Soviet Union
countries. In India, the first Labour day or May Day was celebrated in the year 1923. It was the Labour Kisan
Party who had organised the May Day celebrations in Chennai (then Madras).
Question 34: What is main topic of the passage?
A. The birth of the day dedicated to workers. B. Holidays that fall on Mondays.
C. Why and how Labour Day is celebrated. D. The rights of working class.
Question 35: The word “It” in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. workforce B. Labour Day C. public holiday D. working class
Question 36: According to paragraph 2, what is the origin of May Day being described?
A. Labour Day dates back to the late 1900s when the heavy industries were blooming.
B. Worker’s Day beginning was linked with the advent of class consciousness.
C. Labour Day has its origins in the labour union movement in the United States.
D. Worker’s Day concept has been brewing since the dawn of capitalism.
Question 37: According to paragraph 3, what is NOT correct about the incident of Haymarket?
A. Many people were killed when the police intervened by random gunfire.
B. The Haymarket tragedy inspired generations of rightist activists.
23
C. The Haymarket riot happened in the late 1800s in Chicago.
D. A bomb was thrown by an individual never positively identified.
Question 38: The word “focal” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. permanent B. leading C. basic D. central
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 39 to 45.
The World Health Organization on Wednesday declared the rapidly spreading coronavirus outbreak a
pandemic. Director-General Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus said that “We expect to see the number of cases,
the number of deaths, and the number of affected countries climb even higher.”
WHO officials had said earlier they were hesitant to call the outbreak a pandemic in case it led governments and
individuals to give up the fight. On Wednesday, they stressed that fundamental public health interventions can
still limit the spread of the virus and drive down cases even where it was transmitting widely, as the work of
authorities and communities in China, Singapore, and South Korea has shown.
The virus, which probably originated in bats but passed to people via an as yet unrecognized
intermediary animal species, is believed to have started infecting people in Wuhan, China, in late November or
early December. Since then the virus has raced around the globe. South Korea, which has reported nearly 8,000
cases, also appears poised to bring its outbreak under control with aggressive measures and widespread testing.
But other countries have struggled to follow the leads of China and South Korea — a reality that has frustrated
WHO officials who have exhorted the world to do everything possible to end transmission of the virus. Tedros
used the fact that 90% of the cumulative cases have been reported in just four countries as evidence that the rest
of the world still had time to prevent an explosion of cases with action.
WHO officials also stressed that countries should be implementing a strategic combination two types of
measures. One involves trying to detect and stop known chains of transmission by isolating cases and following
and potentially quarantining their contacts. The other involves community-level steps like social distancing and
comes into play when the virus is spreading more broadly and transmission chains can’t be tracked. Mike Ryan,
the head of the WHO’s emergency program, said that the public health interventions might not have
straightforward effect, but to slow the spread of the virus. People with severe cases can require long periods of
critical care and strain the resources of hospitals. He said he was worried about “the case load, the demand on
the health workers, the dangers that come with fatigue, and potentially shortages of personal protective
equipment.”
Question 39: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Some contracted with coronavirus get very ill but most don’t.
B. What scientists still don’t know about coronavirus patients.
C. What governors are doing to tackle spreading coronavirus.
D. The WHO declares the coronavirus outbreak a pandemic.
Question 40: The word “pandemic” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. epidemic B. ebullition C. epizootic D. endemic
Question 41: The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.
24
A. outbreak B. spread C. fight D. virus
Question 42: According to paragraph 3, what is NOT mentioned about the virus and its state of spreading?
A. The WHO suggested that all countries can still change the course of this pandemic.
B. The current spreading virus is the second coronavirus to reach pandemic levels.
C. Coronavirus primitively circulates among animals but somehow spreads to human.
D. China is the assumed country of virus origin and where the disease hits the hardest.
Question 43: The word “poised” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. composed B. confident C. excited D. ready
Question 44: According to paragraph 4, what is the objective of the measures mapped out by the WHO?
A. To buy time for the invention of vaccines. B. To stop the virus sharply in its tracks.
C. To avoid an overwhelmed health system. D. To achieve the point of zero transmission.
Question 45: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The WHO acknowledged that the virus will likely spread to all countries on the globe.
B. Local factors related to healthcare systems have no effect on the course of the disease.
C. Countries used to an authoritarian government is most suitable to contain the virus.
D. The pandemic is an opportunity to see the backfire of an expensive healthcare system.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 46: “Will you give this to Tony when you see him, please?”, he said to me.
A. He asked me if I would give that to Tony when I saw him.
B. He asked me whether I could give that to Tony when he saw me.
C. He asked me to give that to Tony when I saw him.
D. He begged me to give that to Tony when I saw him.
Question 47: All the children will receive a prize, whatever their score in the competition.
A. No matter how their score in the competition is, all the children will receive a prize.
B. Each children will receive a prize no matter what their score is in the competition.
C. Each children will receive a prize no matter how much their score in the competition is.
D. All the children will receive a prize whatever their score in the competition.
Question 48: What a pity! They missed the football match on TV yesterday.
A. They wish they attended the football match on TV yesterday.
B. They wish they had come the football match on TV yesterday.
C. If only they hadn’t missed the football match on TV yesterday.
D. If only they would attend the football match on TV yesterday.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Mr. Watson is a strict teacher in our school. Do you know him?
A. Do you know him, Mr. Watson is a strict teacher in our school?
B. Do you know Mr. Watson, is a strict teacher in our school?
25
C. Do you know Mr. Watson, a strict teacher in our school?
D. Do you know a strict teacher in our school is Mr. Watson?
Question 50: Many people start plant-based diets. They want to improve their health.
A. Many people start plant-based diets because they want to improve their health.
B. Many people start plant-based diets although they want to improve their health.
C. Many people start plant-based diets, so they want to improve their health.
D. Many people start plant-based diets, but they want to improve their health.
-----THE END-----
ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 5 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2022
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 07 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. defend B. deny C. repeat D. borrow
Question 2: A. quality B. cinema C. importance D. reference
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. health B. wealth C. breathe D. dealt
Question 4: A. plays B. travels C. seems D. thinks
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: Your brother is living in HCM city, ___________?
A. is he B. isn’t he C. isn’t she D. does he
Question 6: My neighbor offered ____________ us to the airport.
A. taking B. take C. to taking D. to take
Question 7: My mother says that we__________ the party in the garden if the weather is good.
A. would have B. would have had C. will have D. will be having
Question 8: Who ___________ over the company when the manager retires?
A. took B. will take C. take D. was taking
Question 9: Everyone in the company knew that he had revealed the confidential information ,_____ nobody
dared to report it.
A. so B. but C. and D. for
Question 10: It won’t be safe to use these stairs __________ .
A. before they repair them B. after they will repair them
C. when they repaired them D. until they have them repaired
26
Question 11: The topic is very interesting and I'd like to continue it but we're all __________ time.
A. on B. out of C. off D. up
Question 12: A lot of people have ignored the warning of air pollution __________ health problems.
A. seriously causing B. is seriously causing C. seriously caused D. is seriously caused
Question 13: We were banned from entering this area for _____________ reasons.
A. secure B. security C. securely D. securities
Question 14: Daddy, how can I ___________ so little money? Please send me some more money.
A. get through B. get over C. get by on D. get by
Question 15: When the pregnant woman got on the bus, one of the young men stood up and _______ room for
her.
A. made B. put C. got D. did
Question 16: There's a shortage of cheap accommodation in this city of five million __________.
A. citizens B. dwellers C. inhabitants D. residents
Question 17: Farmers ___________ into big cities to find work when the harvest time is up.
A. migrate B. emigrate C. immigrate D. stuff
Question 18: Many patients think optimistically. They are never in the ______of death.
A. scary B. fear C. dream D. threat
Question 19: I bought my __________ camera from a friend of mine.
A. expensive new German golden B. German new golden expensive
C. expensive new golden German D. golden German new expensive
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of
the following exchanges.
Question 20: - “Waiter! I’d like the menu, please.”
- “_____________”
A. Do you really like it, sir? B. Here you are, sir.
C. But you don’t need it, sir D. Yes, sure. Thank you.
Question 21: - “I’m sorry, I’m late.” - “____________”
A. You are welcome
B. No, I don’t mind
C. All right. The early bird catches the worm!
D. No worries. Better late than never.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 22: Athletics were his favourite sport when he was young.
A B C D
Question 23: When I was a little girl, I used to play hide-and-seek, making toys and draw pictures.
A B C D
Question 24: The treatment for people addictive to tranquillizers includes training in stress management
27
A B C
and relaxation techniques.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: Physical barriers can be a range of things, such as speech impairments which affect the ability of
a person to communicate.
A. talk B. skill C. dialogue D. language
Question 26: When Tom revealed that Peter was secretly planning to quit his job, he upset the apple cart for
Peter, who wanted nobody to know of his plans.
A. ruined carefully laid plans B. caused trouble
C. spoil secretly laid plans D. object to the plan
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 27: Passing this important English test was such a boost to my confidence.
A. inefficiency B. disability C. untruth D. uncertainty
Question 28. Being self-reliant means that you are able to do or decide things by yourself, rather than
depending on other people for help.
A. decisive B. selfish C. reliable D. dependent
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Father's Day was created to complement Mother’s Day. Like Mother's Day (29)________ honors
mothers and motherhood, Father's Day celebrates fatherhood and paternal bonds; it highlights the
(30)___________ of fathers in society. Many countries celebrate it on the third Sunday of June, but it is also
celebrated widely on other days. Historically, Sonora Smart Dodd was the woman behind the celebration of
male parenting. Her father, the Civil War veteran William Jackson Smart, was a single parent who (31)
________ his six children there. After hearing a sermon about Jarvis' Mother's Day in 1909, she told her pastor
that fathers should have a similar holiday honoring them. Although she initially suggested June 5, her father's
birthday, the pastors did not have enough time to prepare their sermons, and the celebration was deferred to the
third Sunday of June. The first celebration was in Spokane, Washington at the YMCA (Young Men's Christian
Association) on June 19, 1910. Since then it has become a traditional day (32) ________ year.
In recognition of what fathers do for their families, on this day people may have a party celebrating male
parenting or simply make a phone call or send a greeting card. (33) _______, schools help children prepare
handmade gifts for their fathers many days before the celebration.
28
Question 32: A. another B. other C. any D. every
Question 33: A. Besides B. In contrast C. However D. Then
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 34 to 38.
As the pace of life continues to increase, we are fast losing the art of relaxation. Once you are in the
habit of rushing through life, being on the go from morning to night, it is hard to slow down. But relaxation is
essential for a healthy mind and body.
Stress is a natural part of every life and there is no way to avoid it. In fact, it is not the bad thing it is
often supposed to be. A certain amount of stress is vital to provide motivation and give purpose to life. It is only
when the stress gets out of control that it can lead to poor performance and ill health.
The amount of stress a person can withstand depends very much on the individual. Some people are not
afraid of stress, and such characters are obviously prime material for managerial responsibilities. Others lose
heart at the first signs of unusual difficulties. When exposed to stress in whatever form, we react both
chemically and physically. In fact we make choice between “fight” or “flight”, and in more primitive days the
choice made the difference between life or death. The crises we meet today are not likely to be so extreme, but
however little the stress, it involves the same response. It is when such a reaction lasts long, through continued
exposure to stress that health becomes endangered. Such serious conditions as high blood pressure and heart
disease have established links with stress. Since we cannot remove stress from our lives (and it would be unwise
to do so even if we could), we need to find ways to deal with it.
Question 34: People are finding less and less time for relaxing themselves because __________.
A. they do not know how to enjoy themselves
B. they do not believe that relaxation is important for health
C. they are travelling fast all the time
D. they are becoming busier their work
Question 35: According to the writer, the most important character for a good manager is his _______.
A. not fearing stress B. high sense of responsibility
C. knowing the art of relaxation D. having control over performance
Question 36: Which of the following statements is true?
A. We can find some ways to avoid stress
B. Stress is always harmful to people
C. It’s easy to change the habit of keeping oneself busy with work
D. Different people can withstand different amounts of stress
Question 37: In paragraph 3, “such a reaction” refers back to__________.
A. making a choice between “fight” or “flight”
B. reaction to stress both chemically and physically
C. responding to crises quickly
D. losing heart at the signs of difficulties
29
Question 38. In the last sentence of the passage, “do so” refers to _________.
A. expose ourselves to stress B. find ways to deal with stress
C. remove stress from our lives D. establish links between diseases and stress
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 39 to 45.
The Socialist Republic of Vietnam has stood out as one such example of how to effectively respond to
the pandemic. Vietnam, which shares a border with China and is about 1,200 miles from where the outbreak
was first reported in Wuhan, has overcome steep odds in the global fight against COVID-19. As of April 6, the
Vietnamese government has reported 245 confirmed cases with 95 recoveries and no fatalities.
The country’s response to the outbreak has received international recognition, including from the World
Health Organization and World Economic Forum, for its comprehensive, low-cost model of disease prevention.
WHO representative in Vietnam, Dr. Ki Dong Park, attests the government “has always been proactive and
prepared for necessary actions”.
The Communist Party of Vietnam has strengthened its anti-pandemic measures by implementing
nationwide social distancing rules, such as banning outside gatherings of more than two people while keeping a
distance of 6.5 feet, and temporary shutdowns of “non-essential” businesses, including restaurants,
entertainment centers and tourist sites.
Supermarkets and other essential services remain open, but are instructed to safeguard customers’ health
by checking their temperatures before entering the building and providing them with hand sanitizers. In
addition, the government has warned against panic buying and has taken action against businesses engaged in
price gouging. To ensure social security for affected workers, Vietnam has approved a 111.55 million dollar
financial support package that includes covering all costs for workers in quarantine or are recovering from the
disease.
Unlike the U.S. capitalist class and the Trump administration, the Vietnamese government took early
measures to combat the current coronavirus epidemic. Officials began preparing strategies to combat the
outbreak immediately after the first cases emerged in China.
On February 1, Prime Minister Nguyen Xuan Phuc signed Decision No.173.QD-TTG, categorizing the
virus as a Class A contagious disease “that can transmit very rapidly and spread widely with high mortality
rates.” This declaration of a national emergency came after the sixth case of coronavirus in the country was
reported. In contrast, the Trump administration only declared a national emergency over the global pandemic on
March 13, when there were at least 1,920 confirmed cases across 46 states.
(Adapted from https://vietnaminsider.vn/)
Question 39: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Vietnam and the U.S in the campaign to combat the pandemic.
B. Why has no one in Vietnam died of COVID 19?
C. How does the pandemic affect Vietnam’s society?
D. The international recognition for Vietnam’s response to COVID 19.
30
Question 40: Vietnam’s reaction to the epidemic was acknowledged as a ____________ by the WHO and
WEF.
A. comprehensible and economical model of disease prevention
B. perfect and expensive model of disease prevention
C. complete and inexpensive example of disease prevention
D. incomplete and luxurious example of disease prevention
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a measure to the pandemic in Vietnam?
A. prohibiting outside gatherings
B. keeping a distance of 6.5 feet
C. closing unnecessary businesses permanently
D. warning inhabitants against panic buying
Question 42: The word “their” in paragraph 4 refers to ___________.
A. supermarkets’ B. customers’ C. governments’ D. essential services’
Question 43: The word “gouging” in the fourth paragraph most probably means ____________.
A. rising B. reducing C. stabilizing D. remaining
Question 44: The word “contagious” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. dangerous B. fatal C. hazardous D. infectious
Question 45: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Vietnam implemented the measures to push back the outbreak after the first cases emerged in China.
B. The Trump administration declared a national emergency over the global pandemic earlier than the
Vietnamese government did.
C. Vietnam has become the country that combats the epidemic most effectively.
D. The strategies to deal with the disease of Vietnam and the U.S are familiar.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 46: You are obliged to show your ID card when you enter this place.
A. You may show your ID card when you enter this place.
B. You can show your ID card when you enter this place.
C. You had better show your ID card when you enter this place.
D. You must show your ID card when you enter this place.
Question 47: “Please don't tell anyone what happened," he said to me.
A. He said to me please don't tell anyone what happened.
B. He told me didn't tell anyone what had happened.
C. He said me not to tell anyone what happened.
D. He told me not to tell anyone what had happened.
Question 48: China is the country with the largest population.
A. China is larger than any other country.
B. China has more population than any other country.
31
C. China is as crowded as other countries.
D. Other countries are more crowded than China.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: He was an incompetent director. The company lost a lot of money.
A. If he were an incompetent director, the company wouldn’t lose a lot of money.
B. If it hadn’t been for the director’s incompetence, the company wouldn’t have lost a lot of money.
C. If he had been an incompetent director, the company wouldn’t have lost a lot of money.
D. Had it been for the director’s incompetence, the company wouldn’t have lost a lot of money.
Question 50: Spring hasn’t come. We can’t see the blooming flowers.
A. Only when spring has come can we see the blooming flowers.
B. Only when spring has come we can see the blooming flowers.
C. Only after spring has come we can see the blooming flowers
D. Only if spring has come we can see the blooming flowers.
-----THE END-----
ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 6 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2022
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. admit B. reply C. cancel D. discuss
Question 2: A. information B. comparative C. economic D. independence
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. control B. unfold C. record D. hold
Question 4: A. hopes B. changes C. cakes D. hates
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: You have to leave early, ___________?
A. haven’t you B. don’t you C. have you D. do you
Question 6: Barney stopped ____________ when doctors told him he had lung cancer.
A. to smoke B. smoking C. smoke D. to smoking
Question 7: We ____________ for three hours straight! Where’s the bus?
A. have been waiting B. had been waiting C. has been waiting D. has waited
32
Question 8: ______________ some assistance with your essay, feel free to ring me up.
A. Were you to need B. Had you needed
C. Should you need D. Will you need
Question 9: Kate Bouman is ______ scientist whose algorithm allowed researchers to take _______ first ever
image of a black hole.
A. a/a B. a/the C. the/the D. the/a
Question 10: Mathematics, ____ by many students as a difficult subject, is actually very fascinating.
A. which are considered B. considered
C. considering D. to be considered
Question 11: My father’s company, which has its base _______ Ho Chi Minh city, plans to set up an office in
Quang Binh.
A. on B. in C. out D. up
Question 12: If you are caught cheating, half of your total score will be ______________.
A. reduced B. deducted C. deduced D. distracted
Question 13: Although his first book was a roaring success, his later ones never really __________.
A. took in B. took on C. took up D. took off
Question 14: _______________, she was visibly happy after the birth of her child.
A. Because the woman was tired B. When the woman was tired
C. Despite tired D. Tired though the woman was
Question 15: It is important that Mike ___________ a training course if he wants to participate in scuba-diving.
A. make B. hold C. take D. has
Question 16: One of the _________ related to weddings is that the bride should wear something blue.
A. superstition B. superstitious C. superstitiously D. superstitions
Question 17: The Hurricane laid ___________ to the entire village and left the villagers homeless.
A. waste B. rubbish C. garbage D. trash
Question 18: Indonesia got off to a ____________ start with a goal in the first half, but Vietnam still won the
match in the end.
A. jumping B. flying C. leaping D. kicking
Question 19: We couldn’t find the hotel _________ we used google map.
A. so B. but C. and D. if
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of
the following exchanges.
Question 20: Tony and Steve are friends. They have just finished dinner in a restaurant.
- Tony: “The food is great. I’ll get the bill.”
- Steve: “ _________________”
A. Yes, speak to you soon. B. It’s nothing
C. No, it is on me. D. Don’t mention it.
33
Question 21: Stark goes to the bank for a money change.
- Stark: “Do you have a change for a 100-dollar note, please?”
- Bank clerk: “___________”
A. What kind of money do you want? B. How much money do you want?
C. How do you want your money? D. How many notes do you want?
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 22: Jonas, along with his friend Joseph, are travelling to Portland next week .
A B C D
Question 23: In the 1980s, actress Sarah Bernhardt made an important attribution to the role of Lady
A
Macbeth when she displayed an overt sensuality that has been stressed by her twentieth-century successors.
B C D
Question 24: How does the organization address the problems identified and found out the best
A B C
solution to them.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: The enemy can attack us at any minute, so stay sharp or they will take us by surprise!
A. intense B. alert C. rapid D. precise
Question 26: When I came across him in front of the office, he was conspicuous as usual with a big yellow
bow tie.
A. easily seen B. popular C. unnoticeable D. open
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 27: Some research has shown that acupuncture might help with the alleviation of headaches and
migraines.
A. eradication B. aggravation C. prevention D. reduction
Question 28: If you want to be a successful gardener, of course you’ve got to have green fingers.
A. make plants grow well B. bad at doing the gardening
C. lack skills in gardening D. don’t have a good head for gardening
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Like high schools, American colleges are sometimes criticized for discarding required courses and
offering too (29)____________ electives. In the mid-1980s, the Association of American Colleges issued a
report that called for teaching a body of common knowledge to all college students. A similar report,
“Involvement in Learning,” issued by the National Institute of Education, concluded that the college curriculum
34
had become “excessively work-related”. The report also (30) __________ that college education may no longer
be developing in students “the shared values and knowledge” that traditionally bind Americans together.
These reports coincided with a trend away from the liberal arts. (31)____________, students were
choosing major fields designed to prepare them for specific jobs. In 1992, 51 percent of the bachelor’s degrees
were conferred in the fields of business and management, communications, computer and sciences, education,
engineering, and health sciences.
This trend raises questions (32)___________ apply to the educational philosophy of all industrialized
countries. In an age of technological breakthroughs and highly specialized disciplines, is there still a need for
the generalist with a broad background and well-developed abilities to reason and communicate? And if the
answer to that question is yes, should society take steps to encourage its colleges and universities to produce
more such generalists? Like their (33) ____________ in other countries, American educators continue to debate
these questions.
(Adapted from http://usa.usembassy.de/etexts/factover/ch6.htm)
Question 29: A. a lot of B. many C. lots of D. a great many
Question 30: A. threatened B. urged C. warned D. expected
Question 31: A. alternatively B. consequently C. additionally D. frequently
Question 32: A. which B. what C. who D. whose
Question 33: A. friends B. supporters C. counterparts D. opponents
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 34 to 38.
Australia is suffering from one of its worst fire seasons in history, with more than two dozen people
killed, thousands of homes destroyed, and millions of acres burned so far. Unfortunately, fires like this,
exacerbated by the effects of climate change, will likely rage again, but Australia’s government can take steps
to minimize their destruction.
With warming temperatures, Australia will face longer fire seasons. To reduce future damage,
governments at all levels must act. Areas of focus should include enhancing early warning systems and fire
prediction capabilities; launching public awareness campaigns on the dangers posed by climate-fueled bushfires
and necessary prevention measures; conducting more controlled burns; and developing more stringent building
codes that address climate risk.
At the state and local levels, communities need to professionalize their firefighting capabilities. They
should invest in improved training that educates firefighters and local leaders about the changing characteristics
of bushfires. And, once this fire season subsides, states should oversee how and where rebuilding occurs,
including restricting redevelopment of particularly fire-prone areas.
(Adapted from https://www.cfr.org/)
Question 34: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Australia’s measures to reduce the forest fires’ damage
B. The harmful effects of the Australia’s forest fires
C. The causes of forest fires in Australia
35
D. How Australia reconstructs the forests
Question 35: The word “rage” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. stop B. spread C. change D. maintain
Question 36: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT the solution taken by the Australia’s
government?
A. improving early warning systems and fire prediction capabilities
B. raising public awareness of the dangers of bushfires and essential prevention measures
C. limiting the number of controlled burns
D. developing more stringent building codes to address climate risk.
Question 37: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ________________.
A. local levels B. communities
C. firefighting capabilities D. local leaders
Question 38: As mentioned in paragraph 3, what should the states do to decrease the effects of the fires after
this fire season?
A. They should professionalize their firefighting capabilities.
B. They should invest in improved training that educates firefighters and local leaders.
C. They should take steps to minimize their destruction.
D. They should oversee how and where rebuilding occurs, including restricting redevelopment of particularly
fire-prone areas.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 39 to 45.
Children are not the face of this pandemic, but they risk being among its biggest victims. While they
have thankfully been largely spared from the direct health effects of COVID-19 - at least to date – the crisis is
having a profound effect on their wellbeing. All children, of all ages, and in all countries, are being affected, in
particular by the socio-economic impacts and, in some cases, by mitigation measures that may inadvertently do
more harm than good. This is a universal crisis and, for some children, the impact will be lifelong. Moreover,
the harmful effects of this pandemic will not be distributed equally. They are expected to be most damaging for
children in the poorest countries, and in the poorest neighborhoods, and for those in already disadvantaged or
vulnerable situations.
There are three main channels through which children are affected by this crisis: infection with the virus
itself; the immediate socioeconomic impacts of measures to stop transmission of the virus and end the
pandemic; and the potential longer-term effects of delayed implementation of the Sustainable Development
Goals.
All of this is affecting children in multiple ways. An estimated 42-66 million children could fall into
extreme poverty as a result of the crisis this year, adding to the estimated 386 million children already in
extreme poverty in 2019. 188 countries have imposed countrywide school closures, affecting more than 1.5
billion children and youth. The potential losses that may accrue in learning for today’s young generation, and
for the development of their human capital, are hard to fathom. More than two-thirds of countries have
36
introduced a national distance learning platform, but among low-income countries the share is only 30 percent.
Before this crisis, almost one-third of the world’s young people were already digitally excluded.
Lockdowns and shelter in place measures come with a heightened risk of children witnessing or
suffering violence and abuse. Children in conflict settings, as well as those living in unsanitary and crowded
conditions such as refugee and IDP settlements, are also at considerable risk. Children’s reliance on online
platforms for distance learning has also increased their risk of exposure to inappropriate content and online
predators.
(Adapted from https://unsdg.un.org/
Question 39: Which of the following could be the most suitable title of the passage?
A. Protecting children from COVID-19
B. The impact of COVID-19 on children
C. What do children do in the COVID-19 pandemic?
D. Are children affected by COVID-19-controlling measures?
Question 40: The word “they” in the first paragraph refers to ____________.
A. children B. measures C. harmful effects D. countries
Question 41: The word “channels” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. ways B. programs C. factors D. steps
Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. All children, of all ages, and in all countries, are being affected equally by the pandemic.
B. The measures to stop the spread of the virus and control the pandemic are not harmful to children.
C. The pandemic could put millions of children into extreme poverty this year.
D. Only one third developed countries have introduced distance learning in the pandemic.
Question 43: The word “fathom” in paragraph 4 most probably means _________.
A. solve B. prove C. recover D. understand
Question 44: It can be inferred from the last paragraph that in the pandemic_______________.
A. children may be unsafe even in their houses.
B. children have more risks than adults.
C. the number of violent cases is increasing.
D. most children don’t want to learn online.
Question 45: According to the passage, the following are the impacts of the pandemic on children, EXCEPT
_____________.
A. falling into poverty B. exacerbating the learning crisis
C. risks for child safety D. threats to child survival and health
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 46: I don’t know but I guess a faulty electrical connection caused the explosion.
A. The explosion must have been caused by a faulty electrical connection.
B. A faulty electrical connection may have been caused the explosion.
37
C. The explosion should have been caused by a faulty electrical connection.
D. The explosion may have been caused by a faulty electrical connection.
Question 47: “I was just getting into the shower when the phone rang." he said to me.
A. He said to me he was just getting into the shower when the phone rang.
B. He told me he had just been getting into the shower when the phone had rung.
C. He said to me that he had just been getting into the shower when the phone rang.
D. He told to me he was just getting into the shower when the phone rang.
Question 48: Though my bag may be cheaper than Lucas’s, it is bigger and more attractive.
A. Lucas’s bag might be more expensive than me but it is not so big and attractive as mine.
B. Lucas’s bag may be more expensive than mine but it is not bigger and attractive than mine.
C. Lucas’s bag may be more expensive than mine but it is not as big and attractive as mine.
D. Lucas’s bag might be more expensive than me but it is not bigger or more attractive than mine.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Collin is not very good at English. He failed the English exam last week.
A. Were Collin good at English, he wouldn’t have failed the English exam last week.
B. If Collin were better at English, he would pass the English exam last week.
C. Should Collin be good at English, he would not fail the English exam last week.
D. Had Collin been better at English, he would’ve passed the English exam last week.
Question 50: She decided to move to the city. She didn’t bring any money with her.
A. No money with her did she decide to move to the city.
B. Not money did she bring with her, she decided to move to the city.
C. Not a penny did she bring with her when she decided to move to the city.
D. Not a penny she brought with her did she decide to move to the city.
-----THE END-----
ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 7 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2022
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. mental B. dental C. canal D. nasal
Question 2: A. television B. informative C. employee D. responsible
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. book B. foot C. moon D. wood
Question 4: A. hatred B. naked C. hacked D. sacred
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: You are very unhappy with the service, _________?
A. aren’t you B. are you C. won’t you D. have you
Question 6: His parents suggested _____________ a break from studying.
A. having B. him to have C. he have D. that he had
Question 7: By the time my brother went to bed last night, he _____________ his homework
A. has already finished B. will have already finished
C. had already finished D. were already finishing
Question 8: Had they listened to their parents’ advice, they _____________ happier now.
A. would be B. am C. will be D. would have been
Question 9: It’s believed that __________ car is one of the main factors causing a lot of damage to our
environment.
A. a B. the C. an D. 0
Question 10: I am not a selfish man ___________ in the past of my girlfriend.
A. interested B. interesting C. who interests D. to interest
Question 11: My brother is a very industrious student who spent the past few months doing research ________
the library.
A. on B. in C. at D. up
Question 12: I would like to take this opportunity to _________ my gratitude for your ongoing support.
A. extend B. expand C. enlarge D. broaden
Question 13: My petrol tank was empty so I pulled into a garage to ____________.
A. fill up B. top up C. speed up D. blow up
Question 14: Mary has applied for a lot of jobs recently, which suggests ___________ her present job.
A. that she not be altogether satisfied with B. that she’s not altogether satisfied with
C. she doesn’t altogether satisfy D. that she not altogether satisfy
Question 15: On hearing the news of her mother’s death, she __________ into tears.
A. burst B. break C. run D. set
Question 16: She was very ____________, and brought me at least fifteen pairs of shoes to try on.
A. obliged B. obliging C. obligated D. obligatory
Question 17: Violent crime has been reduced since the laws came into___________.
A. influence B. impact C. effect D. affect
Question 18: Be honest! Don’t let success go to your ____________.
A. head B. hairs C. eyes D. mouth
Question 19: ____________ John’s being usually late for work, he was dismissed.
A. Because B. Because of C. Despite D. Although
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of
the following exchanges.
39
Question 20: - “What a gorgeous make-up style you have got, Jane!”
- “___________________.”
A. I am afraid not. B. You are telling a joke.
C. Thank you for your compliment D. I don’t like your sayings
Question 21: “Have you seen the movie Joker?”
- “________________.”
A. Of course! I’m going to see it on Monday! B. I haven’t had a chance to see it.
C. The cinema is closed today. D. Yes, the tickets were too expensive.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 22: Not only the students but also the teacher feel that the school should offer computer classes.
A B C D
Question 23: My friend decided to change his life by moving abroad and set up his new company.
A B C D
Question 24: Look out! The frightening horse may injure you, so you’d better not play near it.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: This national event not only helps enhance city’s reputation but also brings happiness and
fulfillment to local residents.
A. boost B. accumulate C. diversify D. tarnish
Question 26: Who knows how many different chemicals there are in our water, mixing and forming all kinds of
deadly compounds.
A. important B. ghostly C. avoidable D. fatal
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 27: In some countries, employers have no legitimate rights to directly dismiss their employees.
A. invalid B. illegal C. improper D. lawful
Question 28: During the third quarter of the 20th century, coincidence with a dramatic rise in the popularity of
television, many general-interest, especially illustrated magazines went out of business.
A. like hot cakes B. like a streak of lightning
C. like you need a hole in the head D. like a cat on a hot tin roof
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
There have never been so (29)___________ people living in cities in quake zones because the worse the
damage can be from a big quake, bringing fires, tsunamis, and the loss of life, property, and maybe an entire
city. We understand how earthquakes happen but not exactly where or when they will occur. Until recently,
quakes seemed to occur at random. In Japan, government research is now showing that quakes can be predicted.
At the Earthquake Research Institute, University of Tokyo, Koshun Yamaoka says earthquakes do follow a
(30)__________ —pressure builds in a zone and must be released. But a colleague, Naoyuki Kato, adds that
40
laboratory experiments indicate that a fault slips a little before it breaks. If this is true, predictions can be made
based on the detection of slips.
Research in the U.S. may support Kato’s theory. In Parkfield, California earthquakes occur about every
22 years on the San Andreas Fault. In the 1980s, scientists drilled into the fault and set up equipment to record
activity to look for warning signs. (31)________ an earthquake hit again, it was years of schedule. At first the
event seemed random but scientists drilled deeper. By 2005 they reached the bottom of the fault, two miles
down, and found something. Data from two quakes reported in 2008 show there were two “slips’—places
(32)_______ the plates widened—before the fault line broke and the quakes occurred.
We are learning more about these destructive events every day. In the future we may be able to track
earthquakes and design an early-warning system. So if the next great earthquake does (33)_______ in Tokai,
about 100 miles southwest of Tokyo, as some scientists think, the citizens of Tokai may have advance warning.
Question 29: A. a great many B. many C. a lot of D. a large number of
Question 30: A. manner B. pattern C. method D. approach
Question 31: A. When B. If C. Although D. Unless
Question 32: A. which B. what C. that D. where
Question 33: A. take place B. go on C. come up D. follow on
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 34 to 38.
Most Americans say they know at least some of their neighbors, but only about three-in-ten say they
know all or most of them. Rural residents are more likely than those in urban or suburban areas to say they
know all or most of their neighbors, but they don’t necessarily interact with their neighbors more than their
counterparts in other community types.
Overall, Americans tend to be trusting of their neighbors, but this is particularly the case in suburban
and rural areas. About six-in-ten in these types of community say they have a neighbor they would trust with a
key to their home, compared with about half in urban areas.
The longer people have lived in their community, the more likely they are to have a neighbor they would
trust with a key to their home. But even among those who report that they have lived in their community for less
than one year, 34% say they would be comfortable with a neighbor having their keys. Meanwhile, 64% of those
who have lived in their community for six or more years and 47% of those who have done so for one to five
years say the same. Those who own their home are more likely than renters to say they would be comfortable
with a neighbor having a set of keys to their home (67% vs. 45%).
When asked to describe their neighbors, people in rural areas are far more likely than those in cities and
suburbs to say all or most of their neighbors share their race or ethnicity. Suburbanites are somewhat more
likely than their urban and rural counterparts to say their neighbors are the same social class as they are, while
relatively few across community types say all or most of their neighbors share their political views.
(Adapted from https://www.pewsocialtrends.org/)
Question 34: Which of the following could be the main topic of the passage?
A. The similarities and differences in the neighborhood in urban, suburban and rural areas
B. How urban, suburban and rural residents interact with their neighbors
C. The number of neighbors that urban, suburban and rural residents have
D. How people trust their neighbors
41
Question 35: According to paragraph 2, how many Americans in suburban and rural areas wouldn’t have
enough belief in their neighbors to have a key to their home?
A. about 60% B. about 50% C. about 40% D. about 30%
Question 36: The phrase “the same” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. they would be comfortable with a neighbor having their keys
B. they have lived in their community for six or more years
C. they have done so for one to five years
D. they have lived in their community for less than one year
Question 37: The word “share” in paragraph 4 most probably means _____________.
A. experience their race or ethnicity at the same time
B. give other people something you have
C. have the same race or ethnicity
D. tell people about your race or ethnicity
Question 38: According to the passage, the following are true, EXCEPT __________.
A. More rural inhabitants know all or most of their neighbors than their urban and suburban counterparts do.
B. People trust their neighbors more if they live in the same community for a longer time.
C. More than half of people renting a room wouldn’t like to give their neighbors their home key.
D. People living in rural areas are often in the same social class as their neighbors.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 39 to 45.
While the debate regarding how much screen time is appropriate for children rages on among educators,
psychologists, and parents, it’s another emerging technology in the form of artificial intelligence and machine
learning that is beginning to alter education tools and institutions and changing what the future might look like
in education. It is expected that artificial intelligence in U.S. education will grow by 47.5% from 2017-2021
according to the Artificial Intelligence Market in the US Education Sector report. Even though most experts
believe the critical presence of teachers is irreplaceable, there will be many changes to a teacher’s job and to
educational best practices.
AI has already been applied to education primarily in some tools that help develop skills and testing
systems. As AI educational solutions continue to mature, the hope is that AI can help fill needs gaps in learning
and teaching and allow schools and teachers to do more than ever before. AI can drive efficiency,
personalization and streamline admin tasks to allow teachers the time and freedom to provide understanding and
adaptability—uniquely human capabilities where machines would struggle. By leveraging the best attributes of
machines and teachers, the vision for AI in education is one where they work together for the best outcome for
students. Since the students of today will need to work in a future where AI is the reality, it’s important that our
educational institutions expose students to and use the technology.
Artificial intelligence tools can help make global classrooms available to all including those who speak
different languages or who might have visual or hearing impairments. Presentation Translator is a free plug-in
for PowerPoint that creates subtitles in real time for what the teacher is saying. This also opens up possibilities
for students who might not be able to attend school due to illness or who require learning at a different level or
on a particular subject that isn’t available in their own school. AI can help break down silos between schools
and between traditional grade levels.
42
(Adapted from https://www.forbes.com/)
Question 39: Which of the following best describes the main topic of the passage?
A. The roles of teachers in the time of technology
B. Is AI appropriate for students using in classrooms?
C. How AI is used in education
D. What AI tools are used in the classrooms
Question 40: The word “that” in paragraph 2 refers to ____________.
A. AI B. education C. some tools D. testing systems
Question 41: The word “mature” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. improve B. replace C. change D. decrease
Question 42: According to paragraph 2, what can AI do to help teachers in the classrooms?
A. It can work to give the best outcome for students.
B. It can urge the students to get familiar to the technology before working in the future.
C. It can help teachers to control the class more effectively.
D. It can drive efficiency, personalization and streamline admin tasks.
Question 43: The following are the benefits of Presentation Translator mentioned in paragraph 3, EXCEPT
___________.
A. creating subtitles in real time for what is being said in the lessons
B. giving chance for the students to follow the lessons without attending school because of sickness
C. allowing students to learn the particular subject unavailable at their own school
D. providing opportunities for students to learn different languages
Question 44: The phrase “break down” in the last paragraph most probably means __________.
A. maintain B. stop C. develop D. implement
Question 45: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. The blind and the deaf are able to join the class with the help of AI tools.
B. The use of AI in education in the United States will reach the peak in the near future.
C. Experts believe that teachers will lose their presence in classroom by AI.
D. Students can work together to have good results of the job.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 46: Diana is the most intelligent woman I have ever met.
A. Diana is not as intelligent as the women I have ever met.
B. I have never met a more intelligent woman than Diana.
C. Diana is more intelligent than any women I ever met.
D. This is the first time I have met such an intelligent woman as Diana.
Question 47: “Why were you absent from the class yesterday?” The teacher said to Andrew.
A. The teacher wondered why Andrew has been absent from the class the day before.
B. The teacher told Andrew why had he been absent from the class the previous day.
C. The teacher wanted to know why Andrew was absent from the class the previous day.
D. The teacher asked Andrew why he had been absent from the class the day before.
Question 48: It’s almost impossible for us to get them to agree on anything.
43
A. We can’t have got them to agree on anything.
B. We can’t get them to agree on anything.
C. We mustn’t get them to agree on anything.
D. We needn’t have got them to agree on anything.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: You can choose your favorite university. Make sure that it is suitable for your ability.
A. You can’t choose your favorite university if it is suitable for your ability.
B. You can’t choose your favorite university in case it is suitable for your ability.
C. You can choose your favorite university unless it is suitable for your ability.
D. You can choose your favorite university provided it is suitable for your ability.
Question 50: Her living conditions were not good. However, she studied very well.
A. Living in difficult conditions, she had no choice but to study well.
B. Difficultly as her living conditions were, she studied very well.
C. She studied very well just because she lived in difficult conditions.
D. However difficult her living conditions were, she studied very well.
-----THE END-----
ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 8 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2022
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. angry B. climate C. upset D. footprint
Question 2: A. vulnerable B. psychologist C. society D. responsible
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. breath B. health C. heart D. head
Question 4: A. motivated B. flooded C. wicked D. looked
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: I am not a good husband, __________?
A. am I B. aren’t I C. are I D. isn’t I
Question 6: They claim that advertising encourages _________ three times higher than the average
consumption.
A. to purchase B. purchasing C. purchase D. to purchasing
Question 7: He has just said that my piano playing ___________ on since he last _________me play.
A. had really come/ heard B. had really come/ had heard
C. has really come/ heard D. has really come/ had heard
Question 8: If I _________ rich, I ___________ the shoes we saw at the shopping mall yesterday.
44
A. were/would buy B. had been/would have bought
C. were/would have bought D. had been/would buy
Question 9: He politely asked me to pass _______ salt and ________pepper.
A. a/the B. the/a C. the/0 D. 0/0
Question 10: Boys! Put away all the toys ___________ at the bottom of the wardrobe.
A. which lied B. lay C. lying D. that are lain
Question 11: I saw some boys swimming _________ the river this afternoon.
A. on B. in C. at D. up
Question 12: The government decided to close the frontiers off with a view to ________ the disease.
A. containing B. holding C. including D. comprising
Question 13: There was an accident on the highway, ___________ traffic.
A. putting off B. holding off on C. holding up D. holding over
Question 14: He will drop you a line _____________.
A. providing he settled down in his new house B. as soon as he has settled down in his new house
C. when he settled down in his new house D. till he settles down in his new house
Question 15: The teacher ___________ an example of Tom to the class for cheating in the exam.
A. set B. followed C. made D. gave
Question 16: The doctor warned us not to let other family members share towels because the infection is
highly____________.
A. contagion B. contagious C. contagiously D. contagions
Question 17: Thanks to __________ provision, many women who wish to work are capable of doing so.
A. childbearing B. childrearing C. childcare D. child-centred
Question 18: The poor mother was forced to have her baby adopted, __________herself.
A. despite B. because C. although D. because of
Question 19: He shouldn’t have hurt her feelings, ___________.
A. any way you slice it B. be that as it may
C. with the best will in the world D. never mind that
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of
the following exchanges.
Question 20: Two colleagues are talking with each other:
A: “Your day was just like mine.”
B: “_______________.”
A. So was I. B. It is sure.
C. Of course it was. We work together! D. We have to work for 30 years!
Question 21: A: “Sometimes I wish I was back to school.”
B: “__________________________.”
A. Me, too. School was fun. B. I thought school was hard.
C. Me, too. I couldn’t wait to graduate. D. Life is hard.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 22: Playing cards is most commonly used for playing card games as well as for fortune-telling.
45
A B C D
Question 23: Every morning, we make our bed, eating breakfast, feed the dog and do exercise.
A B C D
Question 24: My boss is the person who is so bored a man that no one wants to work with him.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: Although Mr. Anderson is very rich, in fact he is a millionaire, he lives in a small house in the
suburbs.
A. resides B. relaxes C. experiments D. employs
Question 26: In twenty years’ time, the food supplies will be so scarce for some countries that people will start
immigrating in huge numbers.
A. in short supply B. in large number
C. abundant and nutritious D. nourishing but limited
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 27: The burglar crept into the house without making any noise. That’s why no one heard anything.
A. silently B. slowly C. rapidly D. noisily
Question 28: The country’s infrastructure is in poor condition and needs to be upgraded.
A. improved B. repaired C. examined D. deteriorated
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Each family forms its own set of values and decides what is most important to them. Discipline also
varies among families. Families have different ways of dealing with different issues. In some families, one or
both parents make all the decisions with no (29)________from the children, while other families may encourage
input from all family members before decisions are made. Perhaps you know of a family (30)_______ there is
equal decision making among family members.
There is no one family style for everyone. A family’s style develops based on each family’s individual
situation and the values they care about. (31)_______, your family may be laid-back, while another family is
very active and hurried. Many different ways of living together can work. What makes a family strong is not
just (32)__________ of people in it, whether its members are related, or their pace of life; people caring for one
another and sharing their lives is what really matters.
Many families also share faiths such as religious activities with one another. As a Scout, part of your
duty is to do your best to make your family strong and help your family thrive. By doing this, you are helping to
lay the (33)__________ for a stronger community and society.
Question 29: A. import B. export C. output D. input
Question 30: A. which B. that C. when D. where
Question 31: A. For instance B. Such as C. In other words D. Furthermore
Question 32: A. a number B. most C. the number D. amount
Question 33: A. base B. background C. ground D. groundwork
46
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 34 to 38.
When it comes to discussing AI and the future of work we exhale in relief when someone says machines
will have a hard time replacing us. This statement is backed by the argument that most AI systems are ‘narrow’.
AI systems only do one thing but do it really well, for example, predicting what you want to watch on Netflix. If
you ask the same system to make you a cup of coffee or drive your car, you’re likely to be disappointed.
But what happens when the AI system can perform the most significant tasks that a job entails? One
interesting example we found came from the fashion industry, where a company had implemented two AI
systems to produce novel designs. Together, they did all work and the human’s role was only to surveil the
work.
Research published earlier this year coined the term ‘Shadow Learning’. As explained in the Harvard
Business Review article titled ‘Learning to work with intelligent machines’, the researcher studied the
challenges new surgeons faced when learning robotic surgery skills. Previously, they learned how to perform
surgery by working alongside expert surgeons, but now they’re forced to watch over the surgeon’s shoulder as,
thanks to robotics, individuals can handle entire surgeries with one pair of hands. The term, however, does not
mean that you learn by shadowing someone. The phrase refers to students who gained experience with robotic
tools by taking it upon themselves to acquire new skills outside of the curriculum.
If we look beyond the current discussion of AI and the future of work – which usually revolves
around the number of jobs that will be impacted by AI – we can focus on how to create inspiring new ways to
work with machines.
(Source: https://www.ericsson.com/)
Question 34: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. AI and the future of work. B. Finding the sweet spot of trust.
C. Overreliance on AI systems. D. Ensure that work remains meaningful.
Question 35: According to paragraph 1, why should we not worry about AI snatching away our jobs?
A. Because creating something new and unique is an ability exclusive to humans.
B. Because nothing can replace the caring and empathy that a live person can extend.
C. Because AI can take over certain tasks, but possibly not entire multidisciplinary roles.
D. Because AI cannot proactively find and start new tasks without some sort of prompt.
Question 36: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. designs B. systems C. tasks D. students
Question 37: According to paragraph 3, what is the problem for surgical apprentices in the time of AI
universality?
A. Offer of exposure to new technologies would be used as recruiting strategy.
B. There would be fewer hands-on learning opportunities for the students.
C. Ability to work individually, however brilliantly, would not give a competitive edge.
D. The students could advance only by upstaging other people around them.
Question 38: The word “revolves” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. spins B. worries C. muses D. pivots
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 39 to 45.
47
Stephen Cameron, Vietnam’s patient number 91, has recovered from COVID-19 and is returning home
today (July 12th). The symbol of Vietnam’s pandemic success, as referred to by Reuters (the ABC news), will
be accompanied by a team of doctors during the flight to London.
The 43-year-old Scot, arriving in Vietnam in early March, was tested positive for COVID-19 only three
days after his first flight for Vietnam Airlines, following a visit to a bar in Ho Chi Minh City that became a
coronavirus outbreak. Cameron’s illness and the highly publicized efforts of Vietnam’s doctors to save him
became a symbol in Vietnam of the country’s successful fight against the virus, as reported by Reuters.
The ABC news recognized Vietnam’s huge efforts to save the man, who had been critically ill and spent
65 days on life support. Doctors said at one point they considered a lung transplant as the man’s lungs were
90% damaged and non-functional. With the vast majority of Vietnam’s COVID-19 patients already recovered,
the news of a potential first death prompted a national outpouring of support, with dozens of people coming
forward as potential lung donors.
However, like a miracle, after he woke from a coma at the end of May, there were small signs of
improvement – a thumbs-up sign for an attentive doctor, a trip on to the balcony to catch some sunshine and a
video of him holding a Motherwell football club scarf aloft. Every little progress was closely followed by the
media and attracted great attention.
“The patient’s recovery has been like a very long flight” – Dr. Tran Thanh Linh, the deputy head of the
ICU ward at Cho Ray Hospital, said during a meeting between hospital officials, the British Consulate and
Vietnam Airlines representatives just before Cameron’s discharge – the Washing Post reported. “All of the
health workers are overwhelmed with joy to see him fully recovered and being discharged from the hospital
today.”
The UK’s Daily Mail quoted Mr Cameron: “I’m overwhelmed by the generosity of the Vietnamese
people, the dedication and professionalism of the doctors and nurses working at Cho Ray Hospital. I’m going
home with a happy heart because I’m going home, but it is sad that I’m leaving so many people here that I’m
friends with”.
Vietnam has reported 370 coronavirus cases with no local transmitted infection for nearly three months.
All recent cases are people who were infected abroad and had been under compulsory quarantine upon their
arrival in Vietnam.
(Adapted from https://vietnamtimes.org.vn/)
Question 39: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. Patient 91: “Miracle” Flight Heading Home
B. The COVID-19 British Pilot –A Great Man
C. The Progress of Vietnam’s Medicine in COVID-19
D. Patient 91: The Pride of Vietnamese Doctors
Question 40: The word “accompanied” in the first paragraph most probably means ________.
A. gone through with B. warmly welcomed C. out of control D. under the care of
Question 41: The word “that” in paragraph 2 refers to ______________.
A. the 43-year-old Scot B. his first flight C. a bar D. Ho Chi Minh city
Question 42: The word “critically” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. extremely important B. seriously C. censoriously D. essentially
Question 43: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the Patient 91?
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A. This is the first Stephen Cameron’s flight to Vietnam as a pilot for Vietnam Airlines.
B. His lungs got over nine tenths of functions and need transplanting.
C. More than ten people all over the country volunteer to donate their lung for the British pilot.
D. A lot of people closely followed his every little improvement after a coma.
Question 44: As mentioned in Cameron’s quotation on the UK’s Daily Mail, how does he feel when leaving
Vietnam for home?
A. devoted B. nostalgic C. heart-breaking D. providential
Question 45: According to the passage, which statement is TRUE?
A. The plane getting patient 91 home became a symbol of Vietnam’s success in fighting against COVID-19.
B. The pilot’s recovery made people in all over the world joyful.
C. The 43-year-old Scot feels quite lucky to be treated in Vietnam.
D. There are still new cases tested positive for COVID-19 in Vietnam.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 46: Jane is less orderly than her roommate.
A. Jane’s roommate is less orderly than she is. B. Jane is not as orderly as her roommate.
C. Jane’s roommate is not as orderly as she is. D. Jane is more orderly than her roommate.
Question 47: I’m sure this isn’t the type of house that Tom is looking for.
A. This can’t be the type of house that Tom is looking for.
B. This mustn’t be the type of house that Tom is looking for.
C. This shouldn’t be the type of house that Tom is looking for.
D. This can’t have been the type of house that Tom is looking for.
Question 48: “I will fix your bike tomorrow” Paul said to his son.
A. Paul said that he would fix his son’s bike tomorrow.
B. Paul said that he will fix his son’s bike the following day.
C. Paul said that he would fix his son’s bike next day.
D. Paul promised to fix his son’s bike the following day.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Covid-19 is highly contagious. Over eight million people have been infected worldwide.
A. So contagious Covid-19 is that over eight million people have been infected worldwide.
B. Such is the contagious disease that Covid-19 had infected over eight million people worldwide.
C. Only when over eight million people have been infected worldwide is Covid-19 so contagious.
D. Covid-19 is so contagious a disease that it has infected over eight million people worldwide.
Question 50: You can drink some beer. Make sure you don’t get drunk.
A. You can drink some beer if you get drunk.
B. You can drink some beer as long as you aren’t drunk.
C. You can drink any beer unless you get drunk.
D. You can drink some beer provided you aren’t got drunk.
-----THE END-----
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ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 9 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2022
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. thinks B. seems C. plays D. sends
Question 2: A. blind B. kind C. right D. chilly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. usual B. pretty C. canal D. listen
Question 4: A. marriage B. supportive C. musical D. different
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: Your father won’t let you go out with me anymore, _________?
A. is he B. will he C. can he D. won’t he
Question 6: Believe me! There will be ______ few problems with that car as it’s quite new.
A. a B. an C. the D. Ø (no article)
Question 7: We spent our long holiday ___________ the sea last summer.
A. by B. in C. at D. on
Question 8: She denied ________ in the exam.
A. to cheat B. cheating C. being cheated D. having cheat
Question 9: If I _______ you earlier, you could be my husband now.
A. met B. meet C. had met D. have met
Question 10: There __________ many changes in my village since they built a new bridge.
A. has been B. are C. had been D. have been
Question 11: ___________ applying for hundreds of jobs, he is still out of work.
A. Although B. In spite of C. Because D. Because of
Question 12: He won’t get married _____________.
A. when he has a distinguished career B. as soon as he had had a distinguished career
C. until he had a distinguished career D. till he has a distinguished career
Question 13: The people ________ the virus must be isolated to prevent its spread.
A. who were caught B. catching C. caught D. catch
Question 14: According to some sources of ________information, his father will be elected to be the
headmaster next year.
A. reliant B. reliability C. rely D. reliable
Question 15: When he _________ from Jimmy as head of department last year, he had to deal with many
financial problems.
A. took on B. took over C. took up D. took in
Question 16: I ____________ the impression that he was lying to all of us.
A. made B. created C. got D. did
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Question 17: According to the __________of this game, you mustn’t touch the ball with both hands.
A. regulations B. laws C. rules D. norms
Question 18: Regardless of the law, there are practices that __________against women and in favor of men
A. discriminate B. distinguish C. differentiate D. dissociate
Question 19: His mother had a _________ when his teacher said that he had played truant many times.
A. bee B. cow C. buffalo D. deer
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: The impact of increased urbanization has been harmful to the environment and has led to the
growth of greenhouse gas emissions
A. detrimental B. beneficial C. advantageous D. favorable
Question 21: The number of students in school A increased significantly in the last 5 years. Likewise, that in
school B experienced a substantial rise.
A. Adversely B. Conversely C. Comparably D. Similarly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Because trees can prevent land erosion, afforestation projects should be launched steadily.
A. reforestation B. forestry C. forestation D. deforestation
Question 23: The reality is the economy is hitting the ceiling and the growth rate must slow.
A. is reaching the highest limit B. is becoming extremely angry
C. is reaching the smallest level D. is keeping calm
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: David and Anna are talking about joining a club.
- Anna: “How about this advertisement? Are you interested in acting?”
- David: “_________________.”
A. You’re joking. I hate standing in front of people. B. Yes, I’d love to. I like the poster the most.
C. Oh no. I’m not a liar. I’m an honest person. D. Never mind. Let’s go to the cinema tonight.
Question 25: Jack and Jill are going to school together.
- Jack: “________________”
- Jill: “Relax. It doesn’t start until quarter past seven. It’s only five past.”
A. Where are you going? B. I’m anxious about the exam.
C. We are going to be late. D. Sorry. I forgot your address.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
As the Covid-19 pandemic is becoming more complicated, resulting in a (26) __________school break
for all students in Vietnam, many schools turn to the e-learning method as a sensible alternative. Vietnam Posts
and Telecommunications Group (VNPT) is providing educational institutes in (27) ______ areas with its E-
Learning platform at no cost until the end of the academic year 2019-2020. Teachers can access this platform to
transform their current lesson plans into the electronic version. They can also monitor students’ learning
process, check attendance, and have learners sit exams. (28)__________, parents can access the website to
51
check their children’s learning process as well. Additionally, VioEdu by FPT Group is one prominent online
learning product (29) _______ makes use of AI to offer subscribers more than 500 exciting video lessons, along
with a large quantity of exercises, online tests. It aims at making the learning and evaluation process more
convenient for both teachers and students with features to assign tasks, mark them, and prepare a corresponding
academic report. One week after the product allows free (30)_________, students in all 63 provinces of
Vietnam eagerly sign up for an account and nearly 8,000 school are now using it to deliver lessons to their
learners.
Question 26: A. lengthy B. prolonging C. durable D. extending
Question 27: A. most of B. lot of C. many of D. a good many
Question 28: A. In addition B. While C. In the meantime D. However
Question 29: A. whose B. which C. what D. where
Question 30: A. description B. subscription C. transcription D. prescription
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35
Marine ecotourism focuses specifically on activities that take place on the coast or in the ocean. It
includes activities like eco-friendly boating, dolphin and whale watching, snorkeling, scuba diving and fishing,
but in a sustainable way and with an emphasis on education.
One of the most popular forms of marine ecotourism is whale watching. Whales are worth more alive
than dead these days, after decades — maybe even centuries — of whaling. While commercial whaling is
banned in most countries, Japan, Norway and Iceland have continued the practice through finding loopholes or
just rebelling against the international law. A recent National Geographic article discussed the fact that the
Japanese, for example, are eating much less whale meat than in the past. They’re also spending a lot more time
whale watching.
Mexico is another example of this. The shark watching revenue in the Gulf of California region
represents more than half the value from shark fisheries in the country. Ecotourism has become a much-needed
source of employment in the Gulf of California (and other coastal regions) because of warming ocean
temperatures, extreme weather events that are taking place more often than they have in the past, and declining
fish stocks. In Newfoundland, Canada’s main sealing province, over 1.3 million people participated in whale
watching. That contributed to nearly $20 million to the local economy and is seen as a possible alternative to the
sealing economy.
Ecotourism Australia says that “ecotourism has rocketed from an unknown entity to global
phenomenon in the last 30 years and nature-based tourism already makes up 75 percent of the international
tourism market.” It’s an example of knowing better and doing better, and can make a positive impact on
conservation efforts on the coast and in the ocean.
(Source: https://www.renewableenergymagazine.com/)
Question 31: Which could be the best title of the passage?
A. Whaling and sealing – gruesome tradition.
B. Ecotourism collapse threatens the wildlife.
C. Helping the environment through ecotourism.
D. From personal gratification to public satisfaction.
Question 32: The word “It” in paragraph 1 refers to _____.
52
A. Marine ecotourism B. Eco-friendly boating
C. Sustainable way D. Tourism market
Question 33: According to the passage, marine ecotourism has achieved its goal of _________
A. helping people value the ecosystem and changing behaviors for a better cause.
B. reminding people of their history of creating havoc in and around the oceans.
C. stopping overtourism by selecting the travelers based on environmental criteria.
D. providing tourists with an adventurous experience of visiting fascinating places.
Question 34: The word “rocketed” in paragraph 4 mostly means _______.
A. plunged B. risen C. soared D. passed
Question 35: Which of the following is TRUE about the situation of marine ecotourism?
A. Japanese marine ecotourism cannot fix what has been broken.
B. Marine ecotourism has already succeeded in making things better.
C. Many travelers still prefer the traditional tourism to ecotourism.
D. Marine tourism is the only one that has not emerged from obscurity.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42
Whether you’re put off by student loans, you need a break from education, or you’re keen on starting
work straight after school – going to university isn’t the right choice for everyone. And you might be surprised
at the career prospects available to those without a degree. If you’re considering not going to university, here
are a few options of what you could do next.
If you’ve just finished school and you don’t have any work experience, traineeships and internships are
a great way to prepare yourself for your future career. Traineeships usually last from six weeks to six months,
and are offered exclusively to 16-23 year olds. Not only do they provide essential work preparation training,
they’re also the perfect opportunity to gain the practical skills and experience needed to move onto an
apprenticeship or job. While internships are similar to traineeships, they are available to people of all ages – and
usually focus more on providing practical work experience, rather than guided training and work preparation.
School leaver programmes are becoming a popular choice for A-level students who aren’t interested in
university, but still want the learning and training that’s involved with further education. These programmes are
designed to give school leavers the chance to earn a qualification whilst working part-time or full-time (and
earning a wage). The exact structure of a school leaver programmes will largely depend on the company you
work for. School leaver programmes could last anything from three to seven years, and are most common in
industries like accountancy, finance, retail, engineering, and IT. .
If you’re keen to start work straight away, an entry-level job could be well within your reach. And you may be
surprised at what kinds of jobs are available. Whether you want to start a career in education, you’re interested
in breaking into the marketing industry, or you’re passionate about IT – you don’t always need extensive
experience or qualifications to start a career in your preferred sector. And with many employers providing on-
the-job training for new recruits, you’ll be able to learn a range of key skills to help you progress within the
industry.
(Adapted from https://www.reed.co.uk/)
Question 36: Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?
A. Different Paths after School B. University is Still the Best Choice
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C. The Benefits of Not Going to University D. How to choose the Correct Job
Question 37: The word “prospects” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to __________.
A. benefits B. chances C. incomes D. disadvantages
Question 38: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT provided by traineeships?
A. work preparation B. practical skills C. work experience D. degrees
Question 39: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to ______________.
A. traineeships B. internships C. practical skills D. people of all ages
Question 40: According to paragraph 3, what benefit do people receive from school leaver programmes?
A. They are able to learn the knowledge about their job while working to get their salary.
B. They can receive the training directly from the company they work for.
C. They are capable of doing many different kinds of jobs at the same time.
D. They can learn about the most common industries when being a student at school.
Question 41: The phrase “breaking into” in the last paragraph most probably means ____________.
A. running B. stopping C. taking part in D. keeping on
Question 42: According to the passage, which statement is TRUE?
A. Internships bring more benefits to people than traineeships.
B. School leavers may have to spend from three to seven years on training before being employed.
C. New employees may make a progress in their job thanks to the training when being recruited.
D. You have to prepare quite carefully before running the business by yourself.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 43: Due to his obesity, my father is advised to avoid eating fatty foods, having more vegetables
A B C
and drink water.
D
Question 44: My school where I used to study is a very permissible school because students are allowed
A B C
to do whatever they want.
D
Question 45: In the pool near my flat is little silvery fish darting around.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 46: “If I were you, I wouldn’t work too much” said David’s sister.
A. David’s sister required him not to work too much.
B. David’s sister advised him not to work too much.
C. David’s sister promised not to force him to work too much.
D. David’s sister ordered him not to work too much.
Question 47: You are not allowed to wear casual clothes to school.
A. You needn’t wear casual clothes to school.
B. You mustn’t wear casual clothes to school.
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C. You can’t wear casual clothes to school.
D. You shouldn’t wear casual clothes to school.
Question 48: His previous co-workers are more helpful than his new ones.
A. His new co-workers aren’t as helpful as his previous ones.
B. His previous co-workers and his new ones are not at all helpful.
C. His new co-workers are the most helpful ones he’s ever met.
D. His previous co-workers are less helpful than his new ones.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: They were exhausted. They could hardly continue the journey.
A. They were so exhausted that they could continue the journey.
B. Such were their exhaustion that they could hardly continue the journey.
C. Exhausted as they were, they tried to continue the journey.
D. So exhausted were they that they could hardly continue the journey.
Question 50: It was raining. That’s the only reason I didn’t take the children to the beach.
A. If it hadn’t been raining, I would take the children to the beach.
B. But for it raining, I would have taken the children to the beach.
C. It was raining; otherwise I would have taken the children to the beach.
D. Hadn’t it been for the rain, I would have taken the children to the beach.
-----THE END-----
ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 10 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2022
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. agree B. import C. prepare D. demand
Question 2: A. urbanize B. develop C. variety D. proposal
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. play B. train C. nation D. urban
Question 4: A. looked B. booked C. naked D. cooked
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 5: Just think, in ___________three months, you will be 18. Why are you always behaving like a
child?
A. other B. others C. the other D. another
Question 6: Her father bought her _________ when he went on holiday in Singapore last week.
A. a beautiful wooden yellow scarf B. a scarf wooden beautiful yellow
55
C. a yellow beautiful scarf wooden D. a beautiful yellow wooden scarf
Question 7: I _________ them yesterday to check when they____________, but I couldn’t contact them.
A. was ringing/arrived B. rang/were arriving C. rang/arrived D. rang/had arrived
Question 8: “It’s ____________ to know that you all are safe and sound”, said he.
A. comfort B. comfortable C. comforting D. comfortably
Question 9: Taking his behaviors into consideration, I guess you and he have been friends for a long time, so he
is familiar ___________ you.
A. to B. with C. for D. towards
Question 10: If you __________him in his office, please tell him to call me back.
A. see B. saw C. had seen D. have seen
Question 11: The man _______________ is my best friend’s father.
A. who I lent the money from B. whom I lent to the money
C. I lent the money D. whose money I lent
Question 12: You don’t think that she is suitable for this position, ________?
A. is she B. isn’t she C. do you D. don’t you
Question 13: ___________ she was late for the interview, she didn’t get the job.
A. Although B. Despite C. Because D. Because of
Question 14: I asked for his help but he refused _____________ me a hand.
A. to giving B. to give C. giving D. give
Question 15: The investments made now in infrastructure, housing and public services ___________ promise
for the economic development of this city.
A. make B. keep C. break D. hold
Question 16: I can’t believe_____________. Are you telling me a lie?
A. what I am hearing B. that I am hearing
C. what I am hearing from D. that I am hearing from
Question 17: We regret to inform you that the trip was cancelled through ___________ of interest.
A. shortage B. scarcity C. deficiency D. lack
Question 18: The weather forecast has reported that the snowstorm is ________ to reach the coast the next
morning.
A. expected B. predicted C. anticipated D. foretold
Question 19: They spent a lot of money on doing a _____________ to find out what our customers think of
their local bus service.
A. research B. experiment C. campaign D. survey
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 20: I’m sorry but the manager and accountant have been on business since last Monday and he
A B C
won’t return until tomorrow.
D
Question 21: He finds it annoyed at the way she is trying to take over the whole meeting.
A B C D
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Question 22: This school has become heavily reliable on government support, so it can’t have autonomy
A B C
in determining its curriculum.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 23: Before the 1950s, urbanization mainly occurred in more economically developed countries
(MEDCs).
A. happened B. take place C. concentrated D. expanded
Question 24: Too many urban residents grapple with extreme poverty, exclusion, vulnerability and
marginalization.
A. struggle for B. struggle against C. dealt with D. struggle to
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: I really like him, but I’m confused. He seems to blow hot and cold - one minute he likes me, and
the next, he’s ignoring me!
A. changeable B. ambivalent C. loyal D. constant
Question 26: Your dress is really beautiful, Cindy! You look very awesome in it.
A. terrible B. terrific C. enjoyable D. pleasant
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
A group of researchers and experts in America and Australia listed 12 countries affecting
(27)_________ to the ocean by the year 2018 and Southeast Asia area has up to 5 representatives: Thailand,
Vietnam, Malaysia, Indonesia, and the Philippines. China ranks the first with (28) _________ 8.8 million plastic
wastes, and Vietnam ranks the fourth with 1.8 million. It is really alarming that the developing countries are
main causes of environmental pollution in 10 recent years. A terrible fact probably occurring by 2050 is that the
ocean (29) ________much more wastes than sea creatures if the plastic wastes situation is still continuing,
according to the United Nations report. (30)________, the unexpected fact is that it takes only 5 seconds to
produce a plastic bag, 1 second to throw, but up to 500 or even 1000 years to decompose.
A reason for water pollution in Vietnam is that many companies and enterprises cannot manage rubbish
and then pour wastes into rivers and streams, (31)________ the government cannot control at all.
Question 27: A. deeply B. considerately C. significantly D. largely
Question 28: A. mostly B. almost C. most D. most of
Question 29: A. consists B. comprises C. includes D. contains
Question 30: A. Moreover B. Therefore C. However D. Whereas
Question 31: A. where B. that C. which D. what
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 32 to 38
Once your child is born, they start learning motor skills, language skills, cognitive skills, and emotional
skills.
57
Regarding motor skills, it is largely the family’s responsibility for teaching these skills. Even if your
child is in daycare, the work that parents put in at home to teach these skills is much more effective than in the
few hours your child is under someone else’s care. Your child will learn how to sit up, walk, run, climb, hold a
spoon and so on. These seem quite natural to us as adults, but they are skills that have to be fine-tuned at a very
young age, and they also reinforce your child’s independence which is essential for their development.
Language skills are another essential component of the role of family in child development. If you do
not speak to your child and teach them your language, they will never learn. One infamous example of this
occurring is with Genie, a child who was locked in a dark room with extremely little human contact until she
was rescued at age 13. She was never able to develop language fluency because it was never taught to her. So,
teaching your children language skills from a young age is also essential to child development.
Another skill that is very important for child development is emotion. Emotional skills are important
throughout your child’s entire life as they teach them when to have sympathy and compassion for others as well
as teach them how to deal with the highs and lows that come with life. If your child does not have proper
emotional skills, they will not be able to deal with bad outcomes. If they lack emotional skills, it could lead to
destructive choices when they are older.
To help develop your child’s emotional skills, teaching them to smile and wave when they are babies is
a good place to start. When they get a bit older, teaching them to share is very important. In a family, because
there are multiple people, the family can be very helpful in developing a child’s skills with the multiple
perspectives. To bring this more to foundational building blocks, while your child is very young, something
very helpful for family members to do is to teach children basic emotions. When a child is feeling a certain way,
naming emotions and describing them are important ways for your child to understand how they are feeling.
Once this foundation is set, children can learn how to respond to their feelings and move forward.
Question 32: Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?
A. Skills and the Relation with Child Development
B. The Most Essential Skills in Child Development
C. Teaching Skills: When is the Best Time?
D. Family’s Roles in Child’s Skill Development
Question 33: The word “reinforce” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by ______________.
A. strengthen B. harbor C. subside D. damage
Question 34: The story of Genie mentioned in paragraph 3 proves that _____________.
A. communication with others may help children develop their language skills.
B. public did not know anything about the evil that happened to the poor girl.
C. a teenager is unable to learn language skills as naturally as a child.
D. children may not grow up without having human contact daily.
Question 35: The phrase “highs and lows” in paragraph 4 most probably means _________.
A. joys and sorrows B. happiness and sadness
C. love and hatred D. successes and failures
Question 36: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Parents have the greater influence on their child’s motor skills than others do.
B. Children have to make great efforts to learn the skills considered spontaneous to adults.
C. Emotion is the most indispensable skill for a child to become mature.
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D. Children should be taught how to express their emotions when they are babies.
Question 37: The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to ____________.
A. emotions B. your children C. ways D. family members
Question 38: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Children may become depraved if their parents cannot be a good model.
B. Children probably develop their skills completely in an extended family.
C. The situation of Genie is not popular in the modern society.
D. A child will be more independent if he knows how to respect others’ emotions.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct response to each of the following exchanges.
Question 39: - Mike: “How lovely the present is!”
- Jane: “____________”
A. It’s lucky you love it. B. I think so.
C. Yes, it’s lovely. D. No. I don’t like it.
Question 40: - Sue: “Historic events are always hard to remember. Do you think so?”
- Harry: “_______”
A. I think it’s good. B. I am not intelligent.
C. I don’t think it will happen. D. I can’t agree with you more.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 41: Mary left home to start an independent life. She realized how much her family meant to her.
A. Only when Mary realized how much her family meant to her did she leave home to start an independent
life.
B. To realize how much her family meant to her, Mary decided to leave home to start an independent life.
C. Not until Mary had left home to start an independent life did she realized how much her family meant to
her.
D. Only after Mary had left home to start an independent life did she realize how much her family meant to
her.
Question 42: Many airlines are offering discount tickets for flights. More people are flying for weekend trips to
scenic cities.
A. If many airlines are offering discount tickets for flights, more people will be flying for weekend trips to
scenic cities.
B. Although many airlines are offering discount tickets for flights, more people are flying for weekend trips
to scenic cities.
C. As many airlines are offering discount tickets for flights, more people are flying for weekend trips to
scenic cities.
D. Many airlines are offering discount tickets for flights, or more people are flying for weekend trips to
scenic cities.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the
sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 43: It’s impossible for you to meet the boss right now because he is out.
A. You can’t have met the boss right now because he is out.
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B. You can’t be met the boss right now because he is out.
C. The boss can’t be met right now because he is out.
D. Meeting the boss right now is possible unless he is out.
Question 44: My boss asked me: “Why are you late? Did you miss the bus?”
A. My boss asked me why I was late and if did I miss the bus.
B. My boss asked me why was I late and did I miss the bus.
C. My boss asked me why you were late and if you missed the bus.
D. My boss asked me why I was late and whether I had missed the bus.
Question 45: Mary is more intelligent than her brother.
A. Mary isn’t as intelligent as her brother.
B. Mary’s brother is more intelligent than she is.
C. Mary’s brother isn’t as intelligent as she is.
D. Mary is less intelligent than her brother.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 46 to 50.
The sound of music has changed as society has changed over the years, thus the change in the sound of
music is really a reflection of our cultural evolution. In the beginning humans made music that closely
mimicked the sounds they heard around them in nature in terms of tones and repetitions.
In Indigenous cultures, music played a role in ceremonies and traditions. Traditional instruments were
played, and lyrics were often strongly linked to nature. The sounds of music reflected this close association that
indigenous cultures had with the land and its wildlife. Over time, modern society has lost this connection. This
is reflected in the changing sound of the music and in the changing lyrics of songs that are sung. With time,
more musical instruments were developed and played together, which resulted in more sophisticated and
complex sounds being produced. The beats, rhythms, tempo and lyrics of songs all changed along with the
change in cultures.
Although some indigenous cultures such as many of the African tribes, Native American tribes, South
American ethnic people, and Australian aborigines still retain the playing of their indigenous music, there have
been influences from the western world incorporated into some of the music. Features of the sound of music
have changed over the decades. The sound has definitely gotten louder. The pace and rhythm in many cases
have become faster, possibly reflecting the fast pace of the modern world that we live in today. However the
feature of music bounciness (how spiky and energetic the music feels) has become less today when compared
with the music of the1980s. Techno and reggae music are typical examples of what is known as bouncy music.
The sound of music has become more complex over history mainly due to the increased migration of
people and their exposure to new elements. Today much of music has sounds with elements from more than one
region. The increasing tendency for music artists to collaborate today is another reason we see more complexity
and diversity in how music sounds.
(Adapted from https://sonicspace.org/)
Question 46: Which of the following could serve as the best title for the passage?
A. Why People Changed the Sound of Music?
B. Music: Now and Then
C. The Role of Music in Indigenous Cultures
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D. Nature and Music
Question 47: The word “which” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. musical instruments
B. developing and playing many musical instruments together
C. the changing sound of the music
D. the changing lyrics of songs
Question 48: The word “retain” in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by __________.
A. preserve B. reduce C. exchange D. combine
Question 49: According to the passage, the following features of music have increased over years, EXCEPT
__________.
A. the sound volume B. the pace and rhythm
C. the connection to nature D. the sound’s complexity and diversity
Question 50: Which of the following is TRUE?
A. Western music has more influence on indigenous music than others.
B. The fast pace of life has caused the loss of connection to nature.
C. Almost every feature of music sounds changed when the cultures altered.
D. Modern music sounds contain different regional elements due to the collaboration of music artists.
-----THE END-----
ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 11 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2022
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. mistake B. village C. client D. picture
Question 2: A. finds B. stays C. brings D. smarts
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the other three in
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. network B. interest C. decide D. mountain
Question 4: A. condition B. generate C. encourage D. remember
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5: Winning an incredible prize from the state lottery was a turning point in my life, which I have
never imagined before.
A. unbelievable B. unpopular C. unacceptable D. unclear
Question 6: I really wanted to get my homework done early today, but my favorite TV show proved to be a
serious distraction.
A. attention B. interruption C. depression D. combination
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
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Question 7: It’s pretty tough to find a job when you don’t have any previous experience.
A. difficult B. normal C. simple D. common
Question 8: The future of the project is up in the air as the management has failed to finalize the budget.
A. undecided B. certain C. distant D. particular
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of
the following exchanges.
Question 9: Marry and John are talking about drinking water at night.
- Marry: “I don’t think we should drink too much water at night “
- John: “___________. This can interrupt your sleep cycle and negatively impact heart health.”
A. You can say it again B. I have no idea
C. I’m afraid that I can’t agree with you D. I couldn’t agree more
Question 10: Linda is talking to Brown after knowing the results. Linda passed her test with flying colours.
- Brown: “Sincere congratulations on your hard-earned success.”
- Linda: “________________”
A. Not at all. B. Thank you.
C. Make yourself at home. D. There’s no doubt about it
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
Question 11: Although the child was scolded by his parents at home, he did not display any __________
change at school.
A. noticeable B. notify C. notice D. notification
Question 12: I couldn’t have a nice conversation with him because his girlfriend kept on _____________ when
we were talking to each other.
A. turning up B. taking off C. breaking up D. cutting in
Question 13: Nobody understood what was going on, ____________?
A. didn’t they B. did them C. did they D. do them
Question 14: Because the little boy would not stop playing with matches, it was ___________ that he would
burn himself.
A. inevitable B. incompatible C. intractable D. incomparable
Question 15: ____________ my mother knew of my hatred for green beans, she still made me eat them when I
was a child.
A. Because B. Therefore C. Although D. Because of
Question 16: He has lost weight since he _____________ eating chocolate bars.
A. was stopping B. stopped C. would stop D. will stop
Question 17: He received a pat on the _________ from his boss from the new project that he had done.
A. back B. hand C. hair D. mind
Question 18: It is hard to _____________ the difference between the two versions of this phone.
A. make B. hold C. tell D. keep
Question 19: If a doctor does not abide _______________ the laws of his profession, he may lose the right to
practice medicine.
A. at B. to C. on D. by
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Question 20: We’ll give a reward to anyone _____________ the police with information about the missing
child.
A. to provide B. providing C. provided D. provides
Question 21: When I researched into the singer Rihanna’s hometown of Saint Michael Parish, I learned that her
_____________ was Barbadian.
A. citizenship B. partnership C. nationality D. ethnicity
Question 22: Between his son and his daughter, his daughter is ______________ better athlete.
A. the B. an C. ∅ D. a
Question 23: The dolphin injured itself while struggling ____________ out of the fisherman’s net.
A. to get B. getting C. to getting D. get
Question 24: ______wants to marry too early.
A. Neither the man nor the woman B. Whether the man or the woman
C. Both the man and the woman D. Not only the man but also the women
Question 25: You ___________ take this course if you know English grammar well.
A. don’t need take B. won’t need to take C. needn’t to take D. won’t need take
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs to correction on
each of the following questions.
Question 26: We usually walk to work but sometimes takes a cab when it is raining.
A B C D
Question 27: This book contains stories which are moving, enjoyable, and surprise.
A B C D
Question 28: No matter how hard he has tried to learn English, he is rubbishy at it.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 29: I don’t know but I guess a faulty electrical connection caused the explosion.
A. The explosion must have been caused by a faulty electrical connection.
B. A faulty electrical connection may have been caused the explosion.
C. The explosion should have been caused by a faulty electrical connection.
D. The explosion may have been caused by a faulty electrical connection.
Question 30: “I will fix your bike tomorrow” Paul said to his son.
A. Paul said that he would fix his son’s bike tomorrow.
B. Paul said that he will fix his son’s bike the following day.
C. Paul said that he would fix his son’s bike next day.
D. Paul promised to fix his son’s bike the following day.
Question 31: His previous co-workers are more helpful than his new ones.
A. His new co-workers aren’t as helpful as his previous ones.
B. His previous co-workers and his new ones are not at all helpful.
C. His new co-workers are the most helpful ones he’s ever met.
D. His previous co-workers are less helpful than his new ones.
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Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: Her living conditions were not good. However, she studied very well.
A. Living in difficult conditions, she had no choice but to study well.
B. Difficultly as her living conditions were, she studied very well.
C. She studied very well just because she lived in difficult conditions.
D. However difficult her living conditions were, she studied very well.
Question 33: You can drink some beer. Make sure you don’t get drunk.
A. You can drink some beer if you get drunk.
B. You can drink some beer as long as you aren’t drunk.
C. You can drink any beer unless you get drunk.
D. You can drink some beer provided you aren’t got drunk.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best
fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
There have never been so (34)___________ people living in cities in quake zones because the worse the
damage can be from a big quake, bringing fires, tsunamis, and the loss of life, property, and maybe an entire
city. We understand how earthquakes happen but not exactly where or when they will occur. Until recently,
quakes seemed to occur at random. In Japan, government research is now showing that quakes can be predicted.
At the Earthquake Research Institute, University of Tokyo, Koshun Yamaoka says earthquakes do follow a
(35)__________ - pressure builds in a zone and must be released. But a colleague, Naoyuki Kato, adds that
laboratory experiments indicate that a fault slips a little before it breaks. If this is true, predictions can be made
based on the detection of slips. Research in the U.S. may support Kato’s theory. In Parkfield, California
earthquakes occur about every 22 years on the San Andreas Fault. In the 1980s, scientists drilled into the fault
and set up equipment to record activity to look for warning signs. (36)________ an earthquake hit again, it was
years of schedule. At first the event seemed random but scientists drilled deeper. By 2005 they reached the
bottom of the fault, two miles down, and found something. Data from two quakes reported in 2008 show there
were two “slips’ - places (37)_____ the plates widened—before the fault line broke and the quakes occurred.
We are learning more about these destructive events every day. In the future we may be able to track
earthquakes and design an early-warning system. So if the next great earthquake does (38)_______ in Tokai,
about 100 miles southwest of Tokyo, as some scientists think, the citizens of Tokai may have advance warning.
Question 34: A. a great many B. many C. a lot of D. a large number of
Question 35: A. manner B. pattern C. method D. approach
Question 36: A. When B. If C. Although D. Unless
Question 37: A. which B. what C. that D. where
Question 38: A. take place B. go on C. come up D. follow on
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 39 to 43.
What is the difference between friendship and love? This question has always been in the minds of
people for centuries. Though a definite answer cannot be given for this question, one can come across some
differences between the two.
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When love can be termed as a sacrifice, friendship can be termed as a trust. Love is a feeling that is
uncontrollable, and a feeling which one has for another individual. On the other hand, friendship is quite
different from love in this aspect.
Love is a feeling between two individuals, and most of the time when they say “She/ he is my one and
only” and in this case only two individuals are involved. But there are times people may fall in love with more
than one individual, but it is considered morally wrong when you already have a partner or a boy/girlfriend. On
the contrary, friendship involves more individuals without any guilty feelings involved. One can have many
friends, but most of the time an individual can only have one person to love. You can love your family and
that’s another topic for discussion.
In love, there is great attachment for the other. Most of the time an individual gets strong feeling of hurt
if his loved one is in pain or hurt. This attachment may not be strong in friendship. Regarding the emotions,
individuals in love will experience a faster heartbeat when they meet their loved one. This is not so when
friends meet. There is no way that one will lie awake and think of his friends for a whole night, but lovers will
have sleepless nights, and dream about their lovers. The lovers even sleep and wake up with the thoughts of his
or her lover.
Another difference that can be seen is that in love, some physical element is also involved between
individuals. On the other hand, there is no such physical element involved in friendship.
(Adapted from http://www.differencebetween.net/)
Question 39: Which can be the title of the passage?
A. Love or Friendship
B. Distinction between Love and Friendship
C. Should We Love Our Friends?
D. The Connection between Love and Friendship
Question 40: According to the passage, what is TRUE about friendship?
A. People often sacrifice for their friends.
B. The feeling of friendship is uncontrollable.
C. People can have more than one friend at the same time.
D. Not all people trust their friends.
Question 41: The word “guilty” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. ashamed B. criminal C. regretful D. unacceptable
Question 42: The word “this” in paragraph 4 refers to ____________.
A. a faster heartbeat B. the emotions
C. their loved one D. strong feeling of hurt
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true about love and friendship mentioned in the passage?
A. People always have a greater attachment for the one they love.
B. Lovers often involve physical element which doesn’t happen in friendship.
C. People are blameworthy if they have many loved ones simultaneously.
D. People may have a sleepless night to think of their friends.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 44 to 50.
65
There has always been a problem with teachers being from a different generation to their pupils,
particularly older educators. But the dominance of digital technology has spread that generation gap even wider,
as young people become conversant with mobile digital devices, games and social media that didn’t exist when
their teachers were growing up. Teachers now face pupils using devices and online systems that they don’t use
themselves, and don’t really understand either. The generation gap is more prevalent than ever, but teachers can
bridge that gap if they receive the right guidance with appropriate technology.
Some schools and teachers have particular trouble grasping the role of social media and mobile devices
in teenage life. They consider Facebook a threat and warn parents against it at parent-teacher evenings, without
realizing that preventing teenagers from using social media like this, or messaging apps such as Snapchat and
Instagram, is nearly impossible. Online social media and network gaming are now such an integral part of
teenage behavior that any attempt to prize the mobile devices out of the hands of young people is likely to
widen the generation gap rather than narrow it.
The generation gap in education isn’t just between pupils and teachers – it exists within the staffroom,
too. A teaching career can span more than 40 years, and those towards the end of their working life will not
have grown up with digital technology, whereas teaching staff in their 20s and 30s could well be “digital
natives”.
Keeping up with the latest online trend is like a dog chasing its tail; every time you think you’ve caught
up, kids move on. However, it’s not beneficial to get fixated on how young people are using social networks
that are, in the case of Snapchat, hard for the older generation to understand. The key factor to consider is that
today’s school students now take for granted that a lot of their communication with their peers will be online,
and predominantly using smartphones and other mobile devices. Young people expect their educational
experience to be similarly interactive, and partially delivered via these kinds of devices.
(Adapted from https://www.alphr.com/)
Question 44: Which of the following could be the best title of the passage?
A. How to Bridge the Generation Gap Between Teachers and Students
B. The Technology Problems of Older Teachers
C. What Causes Difficulties for Teachers Nowadays?
D. The Generation Gap in Education
Question 45: The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to _____________.
A. teachers B. pupils C. devices D. online systems
Question 46: The word “bridge” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______________.
A. form B. connect C. reduce D. build
Question 47: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT true?
A. Some teachers and schools don’t want their children to use social networks.
B. It’s unlikely to stop students from using social media.
C. Separating teenagers from the mobile devices can help to narrow the generation gap.
D. Social media and network gaming become an important part of the behavior of teenagers.
Question 48: The generation gap exists even in the staffroom mostly because ______________.
A. the teaching career span is too long to adapt new technology.
B. the older teachers are not as familiar with digital technology as the younger.
C. many young teachers prefer using digital devices to operating others.
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D. the older teachers are less unaffected by the development of technology than the younger.
Question 49: The phrase “a dog chasing its tail” in the last paragraph most probably means _________.
A. keeping on doing something futile B. moving around a circle
C. doing harm to yourself D. getting tired of your behavior
Question 50: According to the last paragraph, what is the main factor to consider in the generation gap between
teachers and students?
A. It’s hard for the older generation to understand the social networks used by the young.
B. Students get accustomed to communicating with their friends online by smartphones and mobile devices.
C. Teachers should use these social networks to provide education.
D. Students are competing with the latest online trend with their peers.
-----THE END-----
ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 12 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2022
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word those underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. cleaned B. opened C. learned D. leaned
Question 2: A. purpose B. propose C. expose D. suppose
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the other three in
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. conserve B. concern C. confirm D. conquer
Question 4: A. horizon B. additive C. interview D. continent
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: It was ___________ most beautiful morning, so we decided to make for Sam Son beach.
A. the B. a C. 0 D. an
Question 6: Although travelling by air is quite expensive, its beauty consists _______ its speed and ease.
A. in B. of C. for D. at
Question 7: The dogs and their ____________ owners stood waiting to see who would be crowned winner of
the pet show.
A. respected B. respectable C. respectful D. respective
Question 8: Ask a friend to recommend a doctor or, ____________that, ask for a list in your local library.
A. except B. failing C. for all of D. according to
Question 9: We can’t rely on Peter because he always looks for any excuse he can __________ work.
A. to blow off B. put off C. set back D. call off
Question 10: His latest movie has won high praise from the critics but I don’t think it’s _______ good.
A. much B. such C. too D. that
Question 11: The reason is ________, he estimated how much the population of London would increase in the
next 100 years.
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A. why when Bazalgette designed the tunnels
B. that Bazalgette designed the tunnels
C. what Bazalgette designed the tunnels
D. that when Bazalgette designed the tunnels
Question 12: Nobody thought that he could achieve success, _______________?
A. could he B. didn’t they C. did they D. couldn’t he
Question 13: I didn’t even have time to complete all homework assignments, ____________ hang out with my
friends.
A. now that B. in case C. instead of D. let alone
Question 14: If I _____________ younger, I ________ in the contest held last week.
A. were/would participate B. had been/would have participated
C. were/would have participated D. had been /would participate
Question 15: The woman wasn’t sure where she __________the rare illness since no one else in her family had
the disease.
A. contracted B. distracted C. extracted D. attracted
Question 16: Apart from entertaining, art may be used as a _____________for propaganda.
A. means B. vehicle C. method D. way
Question 17: Because I can’t handle all my customer orders by telephone, I need to hire an engineer to
____________ an app for order processing.
A. deduce B. define C. devise D. deduct
Question 18: If you feel like you are catching a cold, try to nip it in the ___________ so that it does not cause
you to miss work.
A. bush B. bulk C. bud D. bunch
Question 19: Harry went for a picnic with her friends after she ____________ her work.
A. has finished B. would have finished C. had finished D. will finish
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs to correction on
each of the following questions.
Question 20: My father was given a delicious Spanish white wine by a friend of him who had just returned from
Spain. A B C D
Question 21: Over a half of all accidents happens in the home because people aren’t aware of potential dangers.
A B C D
Question 22: I find it difficult to understand the full importance of this statement, so I ask my brother for his
help. A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 23: I need an assistant - I’m very busy with work.
A. am up to my eyes B. am up to my ears C. have my hands full D. am up to my neck
Question 24: Although I have received the money from the bank, I am still dubious about the currency because
of the unusual color of the bills.
A. doubtful B. conscious C. suspicious D. accurate
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Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: When the captain realized his efforts to steer his ship were futile, he commanded his officers to
release the lifeboats.
A. pointless B. priceless C. worthwhile D. trustworthy
Question 26: I don’t think we should kick the can down the road and let our next generation solve the global
warming problem.
A. determine to solve a problem B. delay dealing with a problem
C. avoid dealing with a problem D. try in vain to address a problem
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of
the following exchanges.
Question 27: Leon and Drake are talking about drinking water.
- Leon: “As far as I know, drinking warm water is really good for our health”
- Drake “ ________________ because warm water helps to get rid of harmful toxins from your body and also
works to prevent skin issues like acne.”
A. You must say that again B. I’d say the exact opposite.
C. I have to side with you on this one D. That’s not always true.
Question 28: “Have you seen the movie Joker?”
– “________________.”
A. Of course! I’m going to see it on Monday! B. I haven’t had a chance to see it.
C. The cinema is closed today. D. Yes, the tickets were too expensive.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the
sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 29: Stella said to me: “My company was established in 2000”.
A. Stella told to me that her company was established in 2000.
B. Stella told me that her company had been established in 2000.
C. Stella said me that her company was established in 2000.
D. Stella said her company was established in 2000.
Question 30: I’m pretty sure the burglar got in through the kitchen window.
A. The burglar must be got in through the kitchen window.
B. The burglar should have got in through the kitchen window.
C. The burglar must have got in through the kitchen window.
D. The burglar could have got in through the kitchen window.
Question 31: As students get closer to their exams, they become more nervous.
A. The closer students get to their exams, the more nervous they become.
B. The closer students get to their exams, they become more nervous.
C. The students get closer to their exams, the nervous they become more.
D. The students get to their exams closer, the nervous they become more.
Mark the letter A, B, C, on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: Some websites are really interesting. They may expose us to unreliable sources of information.
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A. So interesting some websites are that they limit our exposure to unreliable sources of information.
B. It is the interest of some websites that they expose us to unreliable sources of information.
C. Not only some websites are really interesting, they also expose us to unreliable sources of information.
D. Interesting though some websites are, they may expose us to unreliable sources of information.
Question 33: Tim betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again. She broke up with him because she
couldn’t put up with that anymore.
A. Hadn’t Tim betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again, she wouldn’t have broken up with him.
B. If it hadn’t been for his continual betrayal to his girlfriend’s trust, she would have broken up with him.
C. Had Tim not betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again, she wouldn’t have broken up with him.
D. Provided that Tim betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again, she wouldn’t have broken up with
him.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best
fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Famously being one of Vietnam’s seven UNESCO World Heritage Sites, the Imperial City of Hue has
long been a (34)____________attraction for tourists visiting a hidden charm of Vietnam. The Imperial City of
Hue was actually a walled fortress and palace belonged to the ancient city of Hue (35)__________ was a capital
city of the Nguyen Dynasty for 140 years date back from 1805 until 1945.
The Imperial City of Hue has a circumference of 10 kilometers with the height of 6.6 meters and 21
meters thick with forts being meanderingly arranged, accompanied by cannons, artilleries and ammunitions.
(36)________the fortress was built solely by soil, only to be replaced by bricks afterward. Surrounding the city
is the complicated canal system served not only as a protection but also as a waterway with nearly seven
kilometers.
There are total of ten main majestic gates (37) _______to the Imperial City of Hue, which can be
divided into two main parts excluding houses and mansions: The Citadel and The Forbidden City. The former
served to protect the important palaces inside while the (38)_________was where the emperor and the royal
family stayed as well as the court’s workplace. All the typically traditional Eastern architectures including
majestic palaces, tombs and museums stand accordantly together to make an utmost amusing attraction right in
the heart of Vietnam.
(Adapted from https://www.vietnamonline.com/)
Question 34: A. must-have B. must-read C. must-see D. must-do
Question 35: A. what B. where C. that D. who
Question 36: A. At first B. At least C. At most D. At that
Question 37: A. lead B. leading C. led D. having led
Question 38: A. later B. late C. lately D. latter
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 39 to 43.
Most Americans say they know at least some of their neighbors, but only about three-in-ten say they
know all or most of them. Rural residents are more likely than those in urban or suburban areas to say they
know all or most of their neighbors, but they don’t necessarily interact with their neighbors more than their
counterparts in other community types.
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Overall, Americans tend to be trusting of their neighbors, but this is particularly the case in suburban
and rural areas. About six-in-ten in these types of community say they have a neighbor they would trust with a
key to their home, compared with about half in urban areas.
The longer people have lived in their community, the more likely they are to have a neighbor they would
trust with a key to their home. But even among those who report that they have lived in their community for less
than one year, 34% say they would be comfortable with a neighbor having their keys. Meanwhile, 64% of those
who have lived in their community for six or more years and 47% of those who have done so for one to five
years say the same. Those who own their home are more likely than renters to say they would be comfortable
with a neighbor having a set of keys to their home (67% vs. 45%).
When asked to describe their neighbors, people in rural areas are far more likely than those in cities and
suburbs to say all or most of their neighbors share their race or ethnicity. Suburbanites are somewhat more
likely than their urban and rural counterparts to say their neighbors are the same social class as they are, while
relatively few across community types say all or most of their neighbors share their political views.
(Adapted from https://www.pewsocialtrends.org/)
Question 39: Which of the following could be the main topic of the passage?
A. The similarities and differences in the neighborhood in urban, suburban and rural areas
B. How urban, suburban and rural residents interact with their neighbors
C. The number of neighbors that urban, suburban and rural residents have
D. How people trust their neighbors
Question 40: According to paragraph 2, how many Americans in suburban and rural areas wouldn’t have
enough belief in their neighbors to have a key to their home?
A. about 60% B. about 50% C. about 40% D. about 30%
Question 41: The phrase “the same” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. they would be comfortable with a neighbor having their keys
B. they have lived in their community for six or more years
C. they have done so for one to five years
D. they have lived in their community for less than one year
Question 42: The word “share” in paragraph 4 most probably means _____________. A. experience their race
or ethnicity at the same time
A. experience their race or ethnicity at the same time
B. give other people something you have
C. have the same race or ethnicity
D. tell people about your race or ethnicity
Question 43: According to the passage, the following are true, EXCEPT __________.
A. More rural inhabitants know all or most of their neighbors than their urban and suburban
B. People trust their neighbors more if they live in the same community for a longer time.
C. More than half of people renting a room wouldn’t like to give their neighbors their home key.
D. People living in rural areas are often in the same social class as their neighbors.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 44 to 50.
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The name is a bit of a mouthful, but cultural appropriation happens when a dominant culture takes things
from another culture that is experiencing oppression. Cultural exchange is different from cultural appropriation.
Things like tea, gunpowder and pasta have been shared between different cultures throughout history. These
‘borrowings’ aren’t the same as cultural appropriation, because they don’t involve power. When dominant
groups take from an oppressed group, we’re dealing with appropriation, not cultural exchange. Cultural
appropriation is also very different from assimilation. ‘Assimilation’ describes what happens when minority
cultures are forced to adopt features from a dominant culture in order to fit in.
When we look at a culture that’s experiencing oppression, it’s often a result of colonization, where a
dominant group has claimed ownership of the land and its people. When the dominant group continues to steal
aspects of the non-dominant culture, it continues the economic oppression and disadvantage of that culture. In
Australia, there are cases where white Australian businesses have stolen Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander
artworks for use on T-shirts and souvenirs. This allows the dominant culture to make money from the non-
dominant culture, without benefiting the original artists.
Cultural appropriation also has a nasty habit of giving the dominant group credit for aspects of a culture
that they have taken, reinforcing the power imbalance between the two groups. For example, Kylie Jenner was
credited with starting an ‘edgy’ new hair trend, while black actress Zendaya faced criticism for wearing her hair
the same way. What’s interesting about this, is that Zendaya’s natural hair was seen as a negative. But Kylie
Jenner, a person with no ties to black culture, was given credit for taking something that wasn’t hers.
Cultural appropriation creates stereotypes. The Native American chief, the Japanese geisha or the Arab
sheikh can be examples of stereotypes that pop up during Halloween. When people from dominant cultures
‘dress up’ like this, it reduces something of cultural significance to a costume just so that the dominant group
can have ‘a bit of fun’. It also keeps these kinds of stereotypes going.
There are times when it’s encouraged to try something from a different culture. Being invited to an
Indian wedding where the hosts are cool with you wearing traditional clothing is not cultural appropriation.
(Source: https://au.reachout.com/)
Question 44: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Cross-cultural exchange. B. Cultural exploitation.
C. Cultural appreciation. D. Cultural appropriation.
Question 45: According to paragraph 1, what can be suggested about cultural exchange, cultural appropriation
and assimilation?
A. Cultural exchange and assimilation are the subcategories of cultural appropriation.
B. Cultural exchange happens when different cultures come together on an equal footing.
C. The three practices involve dominant cultures taking some features from minority ones.
D. Cultural assimilation is practiced to ensure survival and to avoid discrimination.
Question 46: The word “it” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. group B. ownership C. land D. oppression
Question 47: The word “ties” in paragraph 3 refers to _____.
A. strings B. friendships C. ropes D. connections
Question 48: According to the passage, which is NOT true about cultural appropriation?
A. It does not give people credit for their own culture.
B. It continues the oppression of the non-dominant culture.
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C. It is the savior of a cultural product that has faded away.
D. It adds to stereotypes faced by non-dominant cultures.
Question 49: Which statements is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Cultural appreciation is the forceful adoption of certain elements from another culture.
B. Being invited to take part by people from that culture is not cultural appropriation.
C. A non-dominant culture is the most visible and accepted culture within a society.
D. Oppression is just one-on-one behavior and not a form of structural discrimination.
Question 50: The word “cool” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. okay B. keen C. fresh D. quiet
-----THE END-----
ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 13 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2022
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word those underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. loves B. likes C. hates D. makes
Question 2: A. device B. derive C. delete D. decent
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the other three in
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. oceanic B. physician C. determine D. objective
Question 4: A. comment B. commerce C. commit D. common
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: She died of liver cancer on _________ Tuesday after _________18-month battle against it.
A. a – an B. no article – a C. a – a D. no article - no article
Question 6: We hope the problem can be ___________ by getting the two sides together to discuss it.
A. cleared out B. cleared up C. cleared off D. cleared away
Question 7: I have to complete all homework assignments, _______________?
A. don’t I B. haven’t I C. do I D. have I
Question 8: There are many doubts about the quality of the school. ______________, some families are
enrolling their children to it.
A. As yet B. Even so C. Even as D. As if
Question 9: As a teacher, I am always eager to find ways to ________ a love of learning in my students.
A. institute B. inscribe C. instill D. inspect
Question 10: When his father passed away, he received an _________ amount of money from his estate.
A. appreciative B. appreciation C. appreciate D. appreciable
Question 11: If the plane tickets _____________ a little cheaper, my parents ____________ coming to visit me
last month.
A. were/would consider B. had been/would consider
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C. were/would have considered D. had been/would have considered
Question 12: Her story ____________ really moved me a lot.
A. of what had happened throughout her life B. of which had happened throughout her life
C. what had happened throughout her life D. had happened throughout her life
Question 13: The working conditions in their factories ________ dramatically during the last few months.
A. improved B. have improved C. was improved D. have been improved
Question 14: Teachers at this school are encouraged to ___________ themselves of the full range of
educational facilities.
A. accord B. avert C. avail D. apply
Question 15: My husband seemed indifferent _______ the food on his plate and ate it without comment.
A. for B. at C. to D. from
Question 16: Supporters at the event ___________ students from a local school, as well as their parents.
A. being included B. having included C. included D. including
Question 17: Mutual understanding is very important because it allows all parties ________ to learn about one
another.
A. involved B. to involve C. involving D. involve
Question 18: My aunt has a parking ________ which allows her to park on the street outside her house.
A. allowance B. permission C. permit D. acceptance
Question 19: She doesn’t have time for idle talk, so you should cut to the ____ and tell her what you want.
A. point B. chase C. race D. side
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: It gave my brother a kick to see his own play on television.
A. thrust B. threat C. thrill D. thread
Question 21: We had a quarrel about money, but we decided to clear the air by sitting together and discussing
things frankly.
A. make a terrible mess at trivial things
B. explain everything that someone had understood
C. remove all dirty and untidy things
D. get rid of all doubts and negative feelings
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Rapid economic growth is the most concrete evidence of the overall success of South-South
cooperation in Asia.
A. abnormal B. discrete C. conscious D. abstract
Question 23: My boss is convinced that we will find a satisfactory solution to the problem.
A. irrational B. reasonable C. affordable D. irrelevant
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: Brian and Robert are discussing the topic of nutrition.
- Brian: “People should eat five daily portions of fruit and vegetables, as far as I’m concerned.”
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- Robert “ ________________ since fruit and vegetables are packed with essential vitamins, minerals, and
fiber”
A. I shouldn’t agree with you more B. That’s just what I am thinking.
C. I’m not so sure about that. D. I must take issue with you on that.
Question 25: Maria is thanking Daniel for giving her a lift home.
Maria: “Thanks for taking me to my house.”
Daniel: “You’re welcome. ________________ now that I have a car.”
A. It’s very kind of you to say so B. There’s a first time for everything
C. There’s no doubt about it D. It’s the least I could do
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs to correction on
each of the following questions.
Question 26: Succeeding in getting a steady job, you need to take advantage of opportunities and follow your
dreams. A B C D
Question 27: A survey conducted by our team almost three weeks ago indicate that people’s attitudes to
A B C
the disabled are quite good.
D
Question 28: I know beyond a shade of a doubt that she will decide to stand as a candidate in the local
A B C
election.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the
sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 29: My girlfriend said to me “I was waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock yesterday”.
A. My girlfriend told me that she had been waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the previous day.
B. My girlfriend told me that I had been waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the day before.
C. My girlfriend told me that I was waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the previous day.
D. My girlfriend told me that she was waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the day before.
Question 30: Since my father is not home yet, I’m pretty sure that he is on his way.
A. My father must have been on his way since he is not home yet.
B. My father may be on his way since he is not home yet.
C. My father must be on his way since he is not home yet.
D. My father may have been on his way since he is not home yet.
Question 31: Her essay is more terrific than my essay.
A. Her essay isn’t as terrific as mine. B. My essay isn’t as terrific as her.
C. Her essay is more terrific than me. D. My essay isn’t as terrific as hers.
Mark the letter A, B, C, on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: My father has many new clothes. However, he always wears his old coat.
A. However old his coat is, my father still has many new clothes.
B. As old as his coat is, my father still has many new clothes.
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C. However many new clothes he has, my father always wears his old coat.
D. Many clothes as he has worn, my father always wears his old coat.
Question 33: My team lacked consistency in the competition. We lost all matches with an unacceptable result.
A. Suppose that we lacked consistency in the competition, we wouldn’t have lost all matches with an
unacceptable result.
B. But for our lack of consistency in the competition, my team wouldn’t have lost all matches with an
unacceptable result.
C. If it had not been for our team’s inconsistency in the competition, we would have lost all matches with an
unacceptable result.
D. Without our team’s inconsistency in the competition, we would lose all matches with an unacceptable
result.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best
fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
How can solar cells become (34)__________ enough to be commercially viable?
There are, of course, a huge range of ongoing efforts to address this problem. Among the most recent
approaches to this problem comes from a team of physicists and engineers at MIT (35)_____ is using computer
modeling and advanced chip-manufacturing techniques.
In December of 2008, researchers from the Research Laboratory of Electronics, and the departments of
materials science and engineering and physics applied an antireflection coating to the front of ultrathin silicon
films, plus a novel combination of multi-layered reflective coatings and a tightly spaced array of lines to the
backs of the films. The result is photovoltaic cells with as much as 50 (36)______ more electrical output.
The carefully designed layers deposited on the back of the cell cause light to (37) _________ around
longer inside the silicon layer, giving it more time to deposit its energy and produce an electric current.
The work has attracted interest from industry for (38) _______ranging from generating remote off-grid
electricity to dedicated clean power.
(Source: https://engineering.mit.edu/)
Question 34: A. cost-efficient B. cost-benefit C. cost-conscious D. cost-free
Question 35: A. whom B. whose C. that D. what
Question 36: A. percentage B. percent C. proportion D. rate
Question 37: A. burst B. reflect C. bounce D. pour
Question 38: A. applications B. appliances C. applicants D. applicability
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 39 to 43.
Contrary to the perception that small talk is inconsequential, researchers have found that chit-chat
actually has many profound benefits. “As we broke down daily interaction, we realized our most meaningful
interactions are not when we’re talking about actual work. It’s when we’re greeting administrative staff, or the
friendly gabbing before a meeting,” said Jessica R. Methot of Rutgers University and University of Exeter.
To measure the impact of small talk on employee well-being, the researchers surveyed 151 full-time
employees working at traditional 9 to 5 jobs outside the home. After controlling for participants’ baseline
engagement for small talk, the researchers queried about levels of small talk throughout the day, and asked
respondents to rate their emotions, work productivity, and overall engagement.
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“It didn’t matter if you were an introvert whose average amount of small talk was lower than what it is
for an extrovert, small talk enhanced employees’ daily positive social emotions and contributed to employees
feeling connected,” Methot said. Methot was quick to explain what small talk is not. It is not long-winded
ranting about an ineffective supervisor. It is not a sensitive discussion about someone’s personal life. “It is
surface level. It is ‘Weather looks great this weekend, any plans?’ Surface level is what gives it its benefits.”
Because small talk builds trust and connections, it also can lead to creative ideas and foster
inclusiveness. “Culturally, there are differences in the content and cadence of small talk, which can create a
barrier for new employees to engage with colleagues. In this age of greater awareness about diversity and
inclusion, small talk can be an asset to a company. It can be a road to more inclusion by helping socialize and
embed employees into the organizational culture.” Methot said.
(Source: https://journals.aom.org/)
Question 39: Which could be the best title of the passage?
A. Office chit-chat. B. Sober socializing. C. Workplace guide. D. Gossip-mongers.
Question 40: The word “inconsequential” in paragraph 1 mostly means _______.
A. infinitesimal B. intangible C. insignificant D. irrelevant
Question 41: Which benefit of small talk in the workplace is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Small talk boosts employees’ ability to multitask.
B. Small talk contributes to employees’ positive emotions.
C. Small talk inspires new thoughts and ideas.
D. Small talk fosters good workplace citizenship.
Question 42: Which of the following sentences is NOT an example of small talk?
A. “Can you believe all of this rain we’ve been having?”
B. “It looks like Steve is getting the promotion I wanted.”
C. “Did you hear about that fire on Fourth Street?”
D. “You look like you could really use a cup of coffee.”
Question 43: The word “it” in paragraph 4 refers to _____.
A. trust B. connection C. talk D. idea
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 44 to 50.
In a paper published in Science Advances, an international team of researchers have examined traits of
marine megafauna species to better understand the potential ecological consequences of their extinction under
different future scenarios.
Defined as the largest animals in the oceans, with a body mass that exceeds 45kg, examples include
sharks, whales, seals and sea turtles. These species serve key roles in ecosystems, including the consumption of
large amounts of biomass, transporting nutrients across habitats, connecting ocean ecosystems, and physically
modifying habitats. Traits, such as how large they are, what they eat, and how far they move, determine
species’ ecological functions. As a result, measuring the diversity of traits allows scientists to quantify the
contributions of marine megafauna to ecosystems and assess the potential consequences of their extinction.
The team of researchers – led by Swansea University’s Dr Catalina Pimiento – first compiled a species-
level trait dataset for all known marine megafauna to understand the extent of ecological functions they perform
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in marine systems. Then, after simulating future extinction scenarios and quantifying the potential impact of
species loss on functional diversity, they introduced a new index (FUSE) to inform conservation priorities.
The results showed a diverse range of functional traits held by marine megafauna, as well as how the
current extinction crisis might affect their functional diversity. If current trajectories are maintained, in the next
100 years we could lose, on average, 18% of marine megafauna species, which will translate in the loss of 11%
of the extent of ecological functions. Nevertheless, if all currently threatened species were to go extinct, we
could lose 40% of species and 48% of the extent of ecological functions. Sharks are predicted to be the most
affected, with losses of functional richness far beyond those expected under random extinctions.
(Adapted from https://www.sciencedaily.com/)
Question 44: Which of the following best serve as the title of the passage?
A. How marine megafauna species’ extinction affects the ecology
B. The consequences of trait examination of marine megafauna species
C. What should be examined in the research in marine megafauna species?
D. The causes of marine megafauna species’ extinction
Question 45: According to paragraph 2, the following are the main roles of the largest animals in the oceans,
EXCEPT _______________.
A. consuming large amounts of biomass B. transporting nutrients across habitats
C. associating ocean ecosystems D. mentally modifying habitats
Question 46: The word “determine” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______________.
A. affect B. establish C. describe D. cover
Question 47: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to _____________.
A. researchers B. ecological functions
C. marine systems D. future extinction scenarios
Question 48: According to paragraph 4, what proportion of ecological functions could we lose if all currently
threatened species became extinct?
A. nearly one fifth B. more than one tenth C. two fifths D. nearly a half
Question 49: The word “translate” in paragraph 4 most probably means ___________.
A. interpret B. increase C. cause D. require
Question 50: As mentioned in the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. The animals weighing about 45kg are classified as the largest ones in the ocean.
B. Measuring the extinction of marine megafauna allows scientists to know the consequences to ecosystems.
C. The species guessed to be the most affected by random extinction are sharks.
D. The researchers now have known all the extent of ecological functions of marine megafauna.
-----THE END-----
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ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 14 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2022
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word those underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. laughs B. ploughs C. mouths D. clothes
Question 2: A. creative B. threaten C. breadwinner D. heavy
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the other three in
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. industry B. register C. optimist D. courageous
Question 4: A. complain B. borrow C. listen D. injure
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: The campaign is trying to get ___________ message across that parental education plays an
important role in ___________ development of a child.
A. no article-the B. a - no article C. the-the D. a-the
Question 6: My parents could hardly afford a house in the city, so we had to settle ____________ the second
best in my hometown.
A. down B. into C. for D. in
Question 7: She thought somebody had broken into her house last night, ____________?
A. hadn’t they B. had they C. didn’t she D. did she
Question 8: She expects _________ compensation for all direct expenses _________ out of the accident.
A. to be received-arising B. to receive-arising C. to be received- arisen D. to receive-arisen
Question 9: His laziness caused the company to perform badly last quarter. ___________, his attitude toward
the boss has put his job in jeopardy.
A. Moreover B. However C. Therefore D. In addition to
Question 10: Governments need to provide a viable _________ to car travel in order to reduce pollution in the
country.
A. alternation B. alternative C. alternate D. alternating
Question 11: She’d rather you ____________ anyone that she’d lost her job as a hotel manager.
A. won’t tell B. wouldn’t have told C. didn’t tell D. don’t tell
Question 12: We have just launched our annual campaign to improve the ____ of women’s health issues.
A. credential B. profile C. portrait D. background
Question 13: He won’t return home ____________________ given to him this morning.
A. until he had finished all the assignments B. until he has finished all the assignments
C. till he finishes all the assignments D. as soon as he has finished all the assignments
Question 14: Jack has an amazingly _____________ memory and can easily recall the capitals of three hundred
different countries in the world.
A. attentive B. reactive C. tentative D. retentive
Question 15: Providing a vaccine against the pandemic virus is a __________ issue.
79
A. scorching B. sweltering C. sizzling D. burning
Question 16: Research needs _____________ the impact of play on the rest of the child’s life.
A. to study B. to studying C. studying D. to be studied
Question 17: He talked about his incredible experience of being _____ space, looking down on the Earth.
A. on B. above C. in D. at
Question 18: Students _____________ cheating in any exam will be disqualified from all their exams.
A. who found B. founded C. found D. having founded
Question 19: It __________ my mind that it’s my friend’s birthday tomorrow and I haven’t got her a present
yet.
A. bore B. kept C. crossed D. bent
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: If you have a food allergy, you should avoid any of the ingredients that can trigger an attack.
A. set up B. set apart C. set back D. set off
Question 21: She gave up her job as a secretary last year and teaching is her bread and butter right now.
A. likelihood B. livelihood C. selfhood D. manhood
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: There are specific areas within the festival where children under ten years old are not allowed.
A. peculiar B. ambiguous C. particular D. delicate
Question 23: By setting up a camera system to monitor his property, the homeowner hoped he would catch
trespassers or thieves.
A. supervise B. revise C. overlook D. oversee
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: Fred and Jerry are discussing the time they arrive at the airport.
- Fred: “We should arrive at the airport two hours before flight within the country.”
- Jerry: “______________. Traffic congestion is getting worse.”
A. I don’t think that’s a good idea
B. You took the words right out of my mouth
C. Mind your own business
D. I see your point, but I can’t completely agree with your solution
Question 25: Jack is asking Justine about the destination for his summer vacation.
- Jack: “Have you picked your next summer destination? Italy?”
- Justine: “ ______________. I’m going to Thailand.”
A. It’s up to you B. It’s on me
C. Not even close D. Not a moment too soon
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction on
each of the following questions.
Question 26: Recent research in the field has concentrated on academic support rather than integrated into
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A B C
the wider social world of the university.
D
Question 27: She’s one of the most consistent student in her class, despite the many disadvantages she
A B C D
has experienced in her life.
Question 28: Although she has fought a long battle against cancer, she always tries to keep a positive
A B C
lookout on life.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the
sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 29: How long have you been living in Viet Nam?”, said Fiona to me.
A. Fiona told me that I had been living in Viet Nam for a long time.
B. Fiona asked me how long had I been living in Viet Nam.
C. Fiona asked me how long I had been living in Viet Nam.
D. Fiona told me how long I had been living in Viet Nam.
Question 30: I’m annoyed that Charles forgot to invite us to his wedding ceremony.
A. Charles didn’t have to forget to invite us to his wedding ceremony.
B. Charles must have invited us to his wedding ceremony.
C. Charles should have invited us to his wedding ceremony.
D. Charles might have invited us to his wedding ceremony.
Question 31: As more people come to the relief camp, our work will probably get more difficult.
A. The more people come to the relief camp, the more difficult our work will probably get.
B. More and more people come to the relief camp, more and more difficult our work will probably get.
C. The more people come to the relief camp, the difficult our work will probably get more.
D. Our work will probably get less difficult if there are more people come to the relief camp.
Mark the letter A, B, C, on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: The explosion was devastating. We felt the impact of it a mile away.
A. As was the explosion devastating that we felt the impact of it a mile away.
B. The explosion was such devastating that we felt the impact of it a mile away.
C. So devastating was the explosion that we felt the impact of it a mile away.
D. However devastating the explosion was, we felt the impact of it a mile away.
Question 33: The process of global warming continues at its present rate. The polar bears will ultimately
disappear.
A. But for the process of global warming continues at its present rate, the polar bears will ultimately
disappear.
B. Should the process of global warming continue at its present rate, the polar bears will ultimately
disappear.
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C. Were not the process of global warming to continue at its present rate, the polar bears wouldn’t ultimately
disappear.
D. As long as the process of global warming didn’t continue at its present rate, the polar bears wouldn’t
ultimately disappear.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best
fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Financial independence is one of the many markers used to designate the crossover from childhood into
young adulthood, and it’s a (34)_________ most Americans (64%) think young adults should reach by the time
they are 22 years old, according to a new Pew Research Center study. But that’s not the reality for most young
adults who’ve achieved this age.
The share of young adults who could be considered “financially independent” from their parents by their
early 20s – an assessment based on their annual income – has gone down somewhat in recent decades. Looking
more broadly at young adults aged 18 to 29, the share who are financially independent has been
(35)__________stable in recent decades. Overall, young men are more likely than young women to be
financially independent, but this gender gap has diminished significantly.
The new survey findings underscore the extent to which many young adults are financially reliant on
their parents. (36) ________ young adults who have received financial help from their parents say at least some
of it was for recurring expenses. Six-in-ten say the money went toward household expenses such as groceries or
bills, and significant shares used it to pay their tuition, rent, or mortgage. Beyond financial independence, the
pace with (37)_________ young adults are reaching other markers of adulthood has slowed significantly over
the past several decades. Today’s young adults are staying in school longer and are marrying and establishing
their own households later than previous generations. (38)_________, a growing share is living in their parents’
homes well into their 20s and even early 30s. Some of these changes are linked to economic challenges, while
others may represent a realignment of goals and priorities.
(Source: https://www.pewsocialtrends.org)
Question 34: A. springboard B. milepost C. breadwinner D. milestones
Question 35: A. comparatively B. approximately C. considerably D. significantly
Question 36: A. Almost B. Mostly C. Most D. Most of
Question 37: A. where B. that C. which D. who
Question 38: A. In addition B. In contrast C. In short D. Instead
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 39 to 43.
Two-thirds of people in the world will be living in cities by 2050 and the boom will be concentrated in
India, China and Nigeria, according to United Nations estimates released on Wednesday. The world’s rural
population will peak in a few years then decline by 2050, according to the report by the UN’s population
division.
Tokyo is currently the world’s largest city with 37 million people, followed by Delhi with 29 million,
Shanghai with 26 million, and Mexico City and São Paulo, each with around 22 million inhabitants. Cairo,
Mumbai, Beijing and Dhaka all have close to 20 million inhabitants. However, Delhi will overtake Tokyo in
top spot by around 2028, the report said. At about the same time, India is expected to surpass China as the
country with the world’s largest total population.
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Around 55% of the world population lives in urban areas today, increasing to 68% by 2050. India, China
and Nigeria will account for more than a third of that expansion. There will also be more megacities. In 1990,
there were just 10 megacities, classed as places with populations of 10 million or more. There are now 33
megacities and by 2030, 43 megacities are projected, mostly in developing countries.
However, a few cities in Japan and South Korea – for example, Nagasaki and Busan – have experienced
population decline since 2000. Several cities in Eastern Europe, such as in Poland, Romania, Russia and
Ukraine, have lost population since the turn of the century. However, urbanization could be seen as positive,
said John Wilmoth, director of the population division. “The increasing concentration of people in cities
provides a way of more economically providing services,” he said. “We find that urban populations have better
access to health care and education.” The concentration of population may also help to minimize our
environmental impact on the planet, he said, and help cities design policies and practices to prepare for the
influx.
(Adapted from https://www.theguardian.com/)
Question 39: What topic does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The population of cities in the future
B. The new increasing trend of rural population
C. The cities with the largest number of population
D. The future of populations in developing countries
Question 40: The word “overtake” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. overdue B. outstrip C. keep up with D. come along
Question 41: The phrase “that expansion” in paragraph 3 refers to the increase of __________.
A. urban population B. world population C. urban areas D. rural areas
Question 42 : According to the passage, some cities of the following countries have seen the downward trend in
population, EXCEPT __________.
A. Japan B. South Korea C. Russia D. India
Question 43: According to John Wilmoth, more people living in urban areas may reduce __________.
A. the quality of health care and education
B. the people’s influence on the Earth’s environment
C. the results of cities’ policies and practices
D. the population of the whole country
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 44 to 50.
The earliest recorded festivities in honor of a new year’s arrival date back some 4,000 years to ancient
Babylon. For the Babylonians, the first new moon following the vernal equinox heralded the start of a new year.
Throughout antiquity, civilizations around the world developed increasingly sophisticated calendars. In Egypt,
for instance, the year began with the annual flooding of the Nile, which coincided with the rising of the star
Sirius. The first day of the Chinese new year, meanwhile, occurred with the second new moon after the winter
solstice.
The early Roman calendar consisted of 10 months and 304 days. Over the centuries, the calendar fell out
of sync with the sun, and in 46 B.C. the emperor Julius Caesar decided to solve the problem by consulting with
the most prominent astronomers and mathematicians of his time. He introduced the Julian calendar, which
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closely resembles the more modern one that most countries around the world use today.
In many countries, New Year’s celebrations begin on the evening of December 31—New Year’s Eve—and
continue into the early hours of January 1. In Spain and several other Spanish-speaking countries, people bolt
down a dozen grapes-symbolizing their hopes for the months ahead-right before midnight. In many parts of the
world, traditional New Year’s dishes feature legumes, which are thought to resemble coins and herald future
financial success; examples include lentils in Italy and black-eyed peas in the southern United States. Because
pigs represent progress and prosperity in some cultures, pork appears on the New Year’s Eve table in Cuba,
Austria, Hungary, Portugal and other countries. Ring-shaped cakes and pastries, a sign that the year has come
full circle, round out the feast in the Netherlands, Mexico, Greece and elsewhere. In Sweden and Norway,
meanwhile, rice pudding with an almond hidden inside is served on New Year’s Eve; it is said that whoever
finds the nut can expect 12 months of good fortune.
Other customs that are common worldwide include watching fireworks and singing songs to welcome
the new year, including the ever-popular “Auld Lang Syne” in many English-speaking countries. The practice
of making resolutions for the new year is thought to have first caught on among the ancient Babylonians, who
made promises in order to earn the favor of the gods and start the year off on the right foot.
(Source: https://www.history.com/)
Question 44: Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A. How January 1st becomes special. B. Best destinations to celebrate New Year.
C. New Year’s gatherings. D. New Year’s celebrations.
Question 45: The word “occurred” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. happened B. befell C. take place D. surfaced
Question 46: The word “one” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.
A. astronomer B. calendar C. sun D. emperor
Question 47: According to paragraph 3, revelers often enjoy specific meals and snacks during New Year
because ________.
A. they are thought to bestow good luck for the coming year.
B. each represents the history and evolution of each country.
C. people want to enjoy their favorite foods in this special holiday.
D. they are on discount, thus cheaper, at this time of the year.
Question 48: The word “favor” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. assistance B. permission C. partiality D. goodwill
Question 49: According to the passage, which is NOT mentioned as a common tradition during New Year?
A. Watching fireworks displays. B. Eating special New Year’s foods.
C. Dropping a giant ball from the sky. D. Making resolutions for the next year.
Question 50: Which statements is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. Civilizations over the world have celebrated the start of a year for at least 4 millennia.
B. The New Year’s Day served an important political purpose for the ancient Babylonians.
C. Nations across the world typically pinned the first day of a year to an astronomical event.
D. To realign the Roman calendar with the sun, Julius Caesar introduced his Julian calendar.
-----THE END-----
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ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 15 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2022
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word those underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. pleased B. laughed C. brushed D. liked
Question 2: A. divorce B. reliant C. promise D. idiot
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the other three in
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. deceive B. debate C. decade D. dessert
Question 4: A. recommend B. necessary C. represent D. university
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: My sister is working in _________ call center and getting paid by ________ hour.
A. a-no article B. the-an C. the-no article D. a-the
Question 6: I had told her that I would help her repair her light, but she __________ asking me about it all the
time.
A. kept on B. carried on C. kept at D. stuck to
Question 7: Neither of your parents speaks a foreign language, ___________?
A. do they B. don’t they C. are they D. aren’t they
Question 8: When I saw the book on the bookshelf, I knew it was exactly what I __________ for.
A. have been looking B. was looking C. had been looking D. looked
Question 9: Strict regulations regarding the number of hours workers must work _________ improvements in
efficiency at the factory
A. in lieu of B. in the interests of C. in regard to D. in harmony with
Question 10: Researchers are conducting a ___________ study of health problems of people living in urban
and rural areas.
A. comparability B. comparison C. comparable D. comparative
Question 11: The city’s housing authority is in discussion with Marry, ____________ land most of the village
is built.
A. in which B. on whose C. in whose D. on where
Question 12: Maria will have to experience a nine-month ___________of physiotherapy after she broke her leg
in an accident.
A. stage B. chapter C. course D. episode
Question 13: If it hadn’t been for his carelessness, the worker __________ in a critical condition in hospital last
night.
A. won’t be B. wouldn’t be C. hadn’t been D. wouldn’t have been
Question 14: Governments have already taken drastic measures to ____________ minerals and natural
resources for our next generations.
A. handle B. remain C. husband D. shoulder
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Question 15: In an interview, smart presentation and high level of fluency can ___________ the balance in
your favour.
A. keep B. bear C. strike D. tip
Question 16: I couldn’t watch my favorite channel due to the noise made from the next room, so I paused for a
moment and then continued ___________.
A. to watch B. having watched C. watching D. to watching
Question 17: My family used to live and work _________ a farm, so I have quite a good knowledge of
farming.
A. on B. above C. in D. for
Question 18: The issue ________ at the conference was an extremely complicated one.
A. discussing B. to be discussed C. discussed D. having discussed
Question 19: I have to gather her information to make an important decision, so I need a copy of her CV on the
____________.
A. level B. blink C. edge D. double
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Parents can entice their children to eat by promising them a reward after they have finished
eating.
A. incite B. discourage C. persuade D. satisfy
Question 21: The retailer said that their profits would be lower than those in the previous year, due largely to
an increase in clothing promotions.
A. brochures B. advancements C. encouragements D. advertisements
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Recent economic conditions have intensified the pressure on industry to raise prices.
A. heightened B. exaggerated C. varied D. diminished
Question 23: She used to smoke two packets of cigarettes a day, but then she deciced to stop smoking and quit
cold turkey.
A. suddenly and completely B. abruptly and thoroughly
C. calmly and regretfully D. gradually and partially
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: Harry and Meghan are discussing ways of learning English.
- Harry: “I think that if I learn enough vocabulary, I won’t have any trouble using English.”
- Meghan: “________. Not only should we focus on vocabulary, we should focus on grammar as well.”
A. I couldn’t agree with you more B. It is not as simple as it seems
C. I don’t think so either D. There’s no doubt about that
Question 25: Tung is asking Tram about her favorite drink.
- Tung: “Do you want green tea or milk tea?”
- Tram: “______________.”
A. It’s up to me B. I really hate green tea
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C. Oh, either. It doesn’t matter D. Mind your own business
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction on
each of the following questions.
Question 26: Locating in a tranquil setting, this hotel is ideally situated for the beach and nearby fishing
A B C D
village of Fuenigirolia.
Question 27: The advantages of travelling by public transport is that it’s convenient and cheap.
A B C D
Question 28: While it was not formally announced, there was an intimacy from the public that he would
A B C
win the election.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the
sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 29: “You’d better spent the weekend revising for your exam.”, said my mother to me.
A. My mother scolded me to spend the weekend revising for my exam.
B. My mother advised me to spend the weekend revising for my exam.
C. My mother suggested me to spend the weekend revising for my exam.
D. My mother obliged me to spend the weekend revising for my exam.
Question 30: In most developed countries, it is not necessary for people to boil water before they drink it.
A. In most developed countries, people ought to boil water before they drink it.
B. In most developed countries, people don’t need to boil water before they drink it.
C. In most developed countries, people should have boiled water before they drink it.
D. In most developed countries, people mustn’t boil water before they drink it.
Question 31: It is more expensive to produce recycled glass than to manufacture new glass.
A. Manufacturing new glass is more expensive than producing recycled glass.
B. Producing recycled glass is less expensive than manufacturing new glass.
C. Manufacturing new glass is as expensive as producing recycled glass.
D. Manufacturing new glass is less expensive than producing recycled glass.
Mark the letter A, B, C, on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: The weather conditions became so dangerous. People were evacuated to safer parts of the city.
A. So dangerous were the weather conditions become that people were evacuated to safer parts of the city.
B. Such dangerous did the weather conditions become that people were evacuated to safer parts of the city.
C. So dangerous did the weather conditions become that people were evacuated to safer parts of the city.
D. The weather conditions became such dangerous that people were evacuated to safer parts of the city.
Question 33: She is the winner of the beauty pageant. That is the only reason people pay attention to her.
A. Were she the winner of the beauty pageant, people would pay attention to her.
B. Should she be the winner of the beauty pageant, people will pay attention to her.
C. If it hadn’t been for the fact that she was the winner of the beauty pageant, people wouldn’t have paid
attention to her
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D. If it weren’t for the fact that she is the winner of the beauty pageant, people wouldn’t pay attention to her.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best
fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
URBANIZATION
Especially for those coming from rural areas, urban areas can create an overall better quality of life in
several ways. When urban areas become (34)_________ cities and towns, they become a society of culture that
can facilitate financial and educational growth.
With industrialization comes the creation of jobs. Usually making a shift from an agricultural economy,
industrialization paves the way for modern industries and will need more people to perform various jobs. Rural
jobs such as farming and mining may be (35)_________, while urban employment opportunities - such as
healthcare, business, and education - will need a considerable amount of people with a variety of skills to fill
many jobs.
Modern technology provides for better city infrastructure. With modernization, cities can adapt to
cultural needs and provide support systems for future development. (36)_________, modernization can make
for a more sustainable city layout, with better housing/businesses, market centers, and public transit systems.
For example, in advanced cities, mobile technology can assist large businesses in advanced mobility hubs for
vehicles, (37)_________ significantly reduces the amount of traffic in growing cities.
The very presence of the Internet and IoT technology can expand communication to nearly any corner of
the globe, and has the capability to efficiently run (38)_________ and lighting for a whole city. These are just a
few illustrations of how technology and modernization can provide efficient solutions to many facets of life,
facilitating a better standard of living.
(Source: https://www.flashparking.com)
Question 34: A. bustling B. secluded C. adventurous D. shallow
Question 35: A. labor-intensity B. labor-intensively C. labor-intension D. labor-intensive
Question 36: A. Subsequently B. Additionally C. Previously D. Differently
Question 37: A. who B. what C. that D. which
Question 38: A. utilities B. practicalities C. benefits D. possibilities
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 39 to 43
Flirting is a fundamental fixture in the sexual behavior repertoire, a time-honored way of signaling
interest and attraction. It is a kind of silent language spoken by men and women around the world. The ways
people communicate interest are so deeply rooted in human nature that the signals are automatically understood
by all: from ways of glancing to movements such as licking one’s lips, to meet nature’s most basic command—
find a good mate and multiply.
Flirting is not a trivial activity; it requires many skills: intellect, body language, creativity, empathy. At
its best, flirting can be high art, whether the flirter is vying for a soul mate, manipulating a potential customer,
or just being playful.
The process of flirting allows the signaling of interest to another in small increments, which is especially
appealing to a partner. Flirting is driven by emotions and instinct rather than logical thought. Yet the gestures
and movements used in flirting also provide reliable clues to a person’s biological and psychological health.
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Flirting has many parallels in the animal world, seen in the behavioral displays many animals engage in
to signal not only their availability but their suitability. For example, penguins search for small pebbles to
deliver to their partner of interest. Seahorses lock their tails together for a romantic swim. Bower birds use
leaves, grass, and twigs to construct elaborate nests.
Across the animal kingdom, such actions are closely tied to seasonal reproductive readiness and signal
reproductive fitness by one creature to another. Among humans, the repertoire of flirting behaviors can be
deployed at will and the exact meaning of any gesture is usually a matter of interpretation.
(Source: https://www.psychologytoday.com/)
Question 39: What is the main topic of the passage?
A. Flirting B. Charisma C. Nonverbal cues D. Romantic feelings
Question 40: The word “vying” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______.
A. seeking B. challenging C. competing D. clashing
Question 41: The word “their” in paragraph 4 refers to _____.
A. nests’ B. pebbles’ C. penguins’ D. seahorses’
Question 42: According to the passage, what can be suggested about the flirting of animals?
A. Animal courtship varies tremendously between species.
B. Birds prefer subtle movements to lavish displays.
C. Aquatic animals do not flirt due to their breeding habits.
D. Animals cannot feel the excitement of flirting like humans.
Question 43: Which of the following statements is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. The behavior of flirting is not restricted to humans.
B. Humans generally flirt with thinly veiled innuendoes.
C. All humans are equipped with the language of flirtation.
D. There is profound information transmitted in flirting.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 44 to 50.
Education technology (EdTech) is one of the few industries experiencing a sharp upward demand,
reinforcing its potential for profitability and the role it can play in societal wellbeing.
The global spreading of the coronavirus (COVID-19) has required drastic regulations in an effort to
contain it. One of the first compulsory measures taken by affected countries has been the closure of all schools.
The sudden adjustments of educational processes and altered dynamics between all involved parties - schools,
teachers, students and parents – are challenging familiar routines and threatening crucial public objectives.
Accordingly, the World Bank has commissioned its EdTech expertise team to support policymakers worldwide
in facilitating the continuation of basic education by adapting to modern technologies.
EdTech’s practical value has hence rapidly improved from its pre-pandemic standing. Previously
considered an option for quality education and a supplement to traditional schooling systems, it is now essential
for preserving a progressing society.
Institutions previously working with digitalized education platforms have already benefitted during the
COVID-19 crisis from their contemporary approach. These schools smoothly mastered the sudden transition to
homeschooling, easing the adjustment process for students and parents. Their early investment in equipment
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and software and in coaching of educational staff has allowed them to continue their operations with minimal
interruption.
Investors have long identified the windows of opportunity offered by technology in the classrooms.
However, its recent unprecedented expansion highlights even more its sustainable profitability. “So far only 2 to
3% of the 5 trillion USD spent globally on education is digital. This, combined with EdTech’s sudden vital role
during COVID-19 and the significant differences seen up to now in its geographical investments, intensify the
previously unseized global growth opportunities”, says Dr. Kirill Pyshkin, Fund Manager at Credit Suisse Asset
Management.
(Adapted https://www.credit-suisse.com/)
Question 44: What does the article mainly discuss?
A. The upward trend in demand of education technology.
B. The development of education technology in the pandemic.
C. The measures to develop education technology.
D. The benefits and role of education technology.
Question 45: The word “contain” in paragraph 2 most probably means _____________.
A. control B. overcome C. defeat D. treat
Question 46: As mentioned in paragraph 2, the following are affected by the sudden adjustments of educational
processes, EXCEPT __________.
A. teachers B. students C. parents D. policymakers
Question 47: What does the word “their” in paragraph 4 refer to?
A. platforms’ B. institutions’ C. the COVID-19 crisis’s D. schools’
Question 48: The word “coaching” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ____________.
A. hiring B. inviting C. training D. employing
Question 49: According to paragraph 4, what have those schools done to minimize education interruption?
A. Early preparing for teaching facilities and human resources.
B. Smoothly transferring to teaching online.
C. Previously working with digitalized education platforms.
D. Rapidly improving from its pre-pandemic standing.
Question 50: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Investors are uninterested in technology in the classrooms.
B. Education technology is a more and more profitable sector to invest.
C. People invest less money in education technology during COVID – 19.
D. Students and parents need much time to adjust their learning at home.
-----THE END-----
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ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 16 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2022
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. handed B. naked C. looked D. flooded
Question 2: A. search B. heart C. earth D. heard
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the other three in
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. paddle B. cautious C. preface D. extend
Question 4: A. relevant B. survival C. potential D. tuition
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: I remember you have ever said that you like her, __________?
A. don’t I B. haven’t you C. don’t you D. have you
Question 6: Our rule is that all the volunteers must ________ and must have a clean criminal record.
A. employ B. be employed
C. have employed D. have been employed
Question 7: What I lack ____my life is an attentive boyfriend who always stands by me through thick and thin.
A. for B. in C. of D. with
Question 8: You are advised to avoid __________ to the confidential information of the company if you don’t
want to have trouble.
A. access B. accessing C. to access D. to accessing
Question 9: __________ that 5,00 famous doctors from around the world were invited to attend.
A. It was at the conference B. It was the conference
C. It was in the conference D. It was on the conference
Question 10: To everyone’s surprise, __________ lion is a member of the cat family.
A. a B. an C. the D. 0
Question 11: I got caught in the traffic, __________ I would have been here sooner.
A. however B. although C. anyway D. otherwise
Question 12: I bought my __________ camera from a friend of mine.
A. expensive new German golden B. German new golden expensive
C. expensive new golden German D. golden German new expensive
Question 13: By the time John read her letter, she __________ the city.
A. will have left B. had left
C. will have been left D. had been leaving
Question 14: During a __________ business career, she accumulated a great amount of wealth.
A. succeed B. success C. successfully D. successful
Question 15: Mary looks sad because she's just __________ with her boyfriend.
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A. broken up B. broken out C. broken off D. broken into
Question 16: Tom really made a ______ when he was young. He bought a new car and a new house.
A. bomb B. money C. will D. bundles
Question 17: There has been a(n) __________ of interest in networking websites in many parts of the world in
the last ten years.
A. outbreak B. breakthrough C. explosion D. advent
Question 18: Laura's suggestion was turned down because it lacked convincing experimental ______.
A. help B. assistance C. aid D. support
Question 19: Everyone else in my class laughed loudly about something my teacher had said, but I didn't
__________ the joke.
A. take B. tell C. make D. get
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Going to a highly prestigious university is a mixed blessing because I’ll have to study far harder
and can be under much pressure.
A. something that is neither good nor bad B. something that produces unexpected results
C. something that has both the pros and cons D. something either negative or positive in nature
Question 21: It is the fifth largest supermarket chain in Vietnam where rigorous standards in the food industry
are applied.
A. thorough B. careful C. adverse D. strict
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The strict regulations governing the sale of weapons will come into force next week and
everyone must comply with them.
A. wear on B. wear away C. wear off D. wear out
Question 23: The fact that our team scored up to twenty points in the competition was a fair achievement.
A. unjust B. poor C. partial D. unequal
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: Chi is enjoying her moment in the USA and she is talking to Tram on the phone.
- Chi: “Life is really simple, but we insist on making it complicated.”
- Tram: “__________. We all have many problems, pressures and tragedies to deal with.”
A. There’s no doubt about that B. I couldn’t agree with you more
C. You can say that again D. I'm afraid, I can't agree with you
Question 25: - Minh: "It's true that she's going to leave the company." - Huong: “__________.”
A. Not to my knowledge B. Not to my mind
C. I not think so D. Not by my knowledge
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction on
each of the following questions.
Question 26: We need to conduct a feasible study to check whether this alternative method can be
A B
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suitable for development.
C D
Question 27: Laura decided to play safe and allow an extra ten minutes to leave the scene of the accident.
A B C D
Question 28: A survey conducted by our team almost three weeks ago indicate that people's attitudes
A B C
towards the disabled are quite good.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the
sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 29: My girlfriend said to me “I was waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock yesterday”.
A. My girlfriend told me that she had been waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the previous day.
B. My girlfriend told me that I had been waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the day before.
C. My girlfriend told me that I was waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the previous day.
D. My girlfriend told me that she was waiting for the bus at 8 o’clock the day before.
Question 30: Her essay is more terrific than my essay.
A. Her essay isn’t as terrific as mine. B. My essay isn’t as terrific as her.
C. Her essay is more terrific than me. D. My essay isn’t as terrific as hers.
Question 31: Since my father is not home yet, I’m pretty sure that he is on his way.
A. My father must have been on his way since he is not home yet.
B. My father may be on his way since he is not home yet.
C. My father must be on his way since he is not home yet.
D. My father may have been on his way since he is not home yet.
Mark the letter A, B, C, on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: Some websites are really interesting. They may expose us to unreliable sources of information.
A. So interesting some websites are that they limit our exposure to unreliable sources of information.
B. It is the interest of some websites that they expose us to unreliable sources of information.
C. Not only are some websites really interesting, they also expose us to unreliable sources of information.
D. Interesting though some websites are, they may expose us to unreliable sources of information.
Question 33: Tim betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again. She broke up with him because she
couldn’t put up with that anymore.
A. Hadn’t Tim betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again, she wouldn’t have broken up with him.
B. If it hadn’t been for his continual betrayal of his girlfriend’s trust, she would have broken up with him.
C. Had Tim not betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again, she wouldn’t have broken up with him.
D. Provided that Tim betrayed his girlfriend’s trust over and over again, she wouldn’t have broken up with
him.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best
fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
A hundred million tourists from China travel to all corners of the world every year. In 2013 alone,
Chinese travellers spent over 100 billion dollars abroad. A booming economy and a growing Chinese middle
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class allow more people to travel than ever before. Western countries have been preparing for the mass influx of
Chinese tourists for some time. They are also making it easier for Chinese travellers to feel at home when on
holiday.
France, (34) __________, has started hiring police officers from China to protect tourists in Paris and
other cities. Other countries, including the United States and Great Britain, are not (35) __________ visas for
Chinese travellers anymore. Chinese credit cards are becoming more and more accepted in Europe and
elsewhere. Hotels, airports and shopping malls around the world have been hiring Mandarin speakers.
Shopping is the main reason for Chinese citizens to travel abroad. China is becoming the biggest market
for luxury goods. Louis Viton bags and Rolex watches are only two items (36) __________ Chinese are fond
of, and they will do anything and go anywhere to get them. Luxury items are bought as status symbols. Many
Chinese buy them abroad because there are high taxes on (37) __________ goods inside China.
However, Chinese citizens also go to other countries for sports and leisure (38)__________. Canada, for
example, wants to help Chinese tourists during the winter months by hiring Chinese skiing instructors. They
also go on extended tours of Europe and the US and enjoy a new culture that is different from what they
experience at home.
Question 34: A. in contrast B. for instance C. in general D. after all
Question 35: A. demanding B. ordering C. requesting D. offering
Question 36: A. who B. when C. whose D. that
Question 37: A. every B. many C. such D. each
Question 38: A. incidents B. pursuits C. actions D. duties
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 39 to 43.
The coronavirus disease (COVID-19) pandemic has upended family life around the world. School
closures, working remotely, physical distancing — it’s a lot for parents to navigate. Robert Jenkins, UNICEF’s
Global Chief of Education, offers some tips to help keep children’s education on track while they’re staying
home.
First, plan a routine together. Try to establish a routine that factors in age-appropriate education
programmes that can be followed online, on the television or through the radio. Also, factor in playtime and
time for reading. Use everyday activities as learning opportunities for your children. Although establishing a
routine and structure is critically important for children and young people, in these times you may notice your
children need some level of flexibility. If your child seems restless and agitated when you’re trying to follow
an online learning programme with them, flip to a more active option. Do not forget that planning and doing
house chores together safely is great for the development of fine and gross motor functions.
Next, have open conversations. Encourage your children to ask questions and express their feelings with
you. Remember that your child may have different reactions to stress, so be patient and understanding. Start by
inviting your child to talk about the issue. Find out how much they already know and follow their lead. Discuss
good hygiene practices. You can use everyday moments to reinforce the importance of things like regular and
thorough handwashing. Make sure you are in a safe environment and allow your child to talk freely. Drawing,
stories and other activities may help to open a discussion.
Last, protect children online. Digital platforms provide an opportunity for children to keep learning, take
part in play and keep in touch with their friends. But increased access online brings heightened risks for
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children’s safety, protection and privacy. Discuss the internet with your children so that they know how it
works, what they need to be aware of, and what appropriate behavior looks like on the platforms they use, such
as video calls.
(Adapted from https://www.unicef.org/)
Question 39: Which of the following questions does the passage answer?
A. How can parents maintain their children’s education in the pandemic?
B. What should parents do to help their children reduce stress?
C. How does the pandemic affect children’s education?
D. What are the new ways to learn in the COVID-19 pandemic?
Question 40: According to paragraph 2, what does Robert Jenkins suggest that parents should do?
A. Separating learning online from doing everyday activities.
B. Letting their children free in their leisure time.
C. Not involving their children in doing domestic chores.
D. Planning a flexible routine that is suitable for the age of their children.
Question 41: The word “agitated” in paragraph 2 most probably means __________.
A. excited and enjoyable B. anxious and nervous
C. tired and bored D. relaxed and comfortable
Question 42: According to the passage, the following are the ways to have open conversations with children,
EXCEPT __________.
A. Stimulate children to ask questions and express their emotions
B. Realizing the current understanding level of children
C. Talking in a secure environment
D. Reacting in different ways to children’s stress
Question 43: The word “it” in the last paragraph refers to __________.
A. internet B. privacy C. safety D. risk
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
A new study shows that urbanization shifts this seasonal cue in nuanced ways, with cities in cold
climates triggering earlier spring plant growth and cities in warm climates delaying it. The study also found that
the urban heat island effect, the phenomenon in which cities are warmer than their surroundings, is not the only
culprit behind the shift, suggesting that other aspects of urbanization, such as pollution, changes in humidity and
fertilizer runoff, may also influence plants' seasonal patterns.
Researchers analyzed millions of observations of 136 plant species across the U.S. and Europe to study
how regional temperature and the local density of people—a proxy for urbanization—affect when plants sprout
leaves and blossoms. Their results revealed a complex story: Separately, warmer temperatures and higher
population density each spurred earlier springs. A 3.6-degree Fahrenheit increase in temperature bumped up
plants' production of leaves and flowers by about five and six days, respectively. A fourfold increase in human
population density advanced flowering and leaf production dates by about three days. But the team found that
when these two factors worked together, local temperature had an outsized influence.
In cold regions — areas with an average November-to-May temperature of about 18 degrees—plants
produced leaves and flowers about 20 days earlier in locations with about 26,000 people per square mile,
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compared with equally frigid wildland. When an area's average November-to-May temperature jumped to 68,
however, leaves and flowers appeared four and six days later, respectively, in locations with about 26,000
people per square mile, compared with equally balmy wildland. In New York, for example, plants are likely
sprouting leaves about 9.5 days earlier and blossoms eight days earlier than uninhabited regions with the same
temperature. Jacksonville, in contrast, is likely pushing leaf production later by about one day and flowers by
about half a day, with leaves appearing two days later and flowers a day later in Houston.
Even after accounting for urban heat islands, the team's models revealed cities significantly affect plants'
springtime growth. "Not only are there other things going on, but they actually matter quite a lot," said study co-
author Brian Stucky, Florida Museum research scientist. Plants may not be the only organisms affected by
seasonal shifts, he added. "Seasons are such a big part of our lives. We define our world around seasonal things.
Those rhythms are what we think of as the normal way the world works."
(Source: https://phys.org/)
Question 44: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Fauna and flora reply to human influences.
B. Embracing the urbanization challenges.
C. Urbanization may hold the key to plant survival.
D. Urbanization delays spring plant growth.
Question 45: The word “nuanced” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. subtle B. trivial C. obvious D. refined
Question 46: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to __________.
A. warm climate B. spring plant C. seasonal cue D. plant growth
Question 47: According to paragraph 2, what will rising temperature combined with increased crowdedness
cause?
A. The plants that are supposed to be summer species will bloom in springtime.
B. The stimulating effect prompted by temperature increase will be immense.
C. The two forces will cancel each other and deliver a normal spring outcome.
D. The fruits will ripen before the appearance of leaves due to early blossom.
Question 48: The word “proxy” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. guide B. proof C. demonstration D. representative
Question 49: According to paragraph 3, what can be generalized from different pairs of comparison cases?
A. One is the place where residents use the Celsius scale while the other favors Fahrenheit.
B. Both investigated areas are selected due to their typicality for research purposes.
C. One is a populous region while the other is desolate with the same weather settings.
D. Both places have immigrants traveling from countries with opposite climates.
Question 50: Which of the following statements is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Human activities within urban environments only affect the biogeochemical cycles.
B. One key area for future temperature research is climate change in suburbs and exurbs.
C. The frigid areas from November to May boast an average temperature of 18 degrees Celsius.
D. Pollution is one of the aspects of urbanization leading to disrupted plant growth.
-----THE END-----
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ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 17 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2022
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. reserved B. locked C. forced D. touched
Question 2: A. goat B. load C. broad D. road
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in
the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. donate B. patient C. pressure D. planet
Question 4: A. volcanic B. official C. aquatic D. ultimate
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 5: Aurora and Linda are reacting to the BLACKPINK member Lisa and her solo debut.
- Aurora: “I think Lisa showed her great sense of patriotism through her debut.”
- Linda: “___________. She included some elements of her Thai heritage in some of her outfits.”
A. I don't think so either B. You’re absolutely right
C. That’s not the same thing at all D. Neither do I
Question 6: Giang is showing his appreciation for Loan’s new shirt.
- Giang: “You look great in that new shirt.”
- Loan: “________________________.”
A. You like it, right? B. I appreciate it.
C. I don’t think so. D. That’s kind of you to say so.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 7: During the 19th century, Britain became the world's first modern ___________ society.
A. urbanize B. urbanized C. urbanization D. urban
Question 8: You have hurt her feelings. You should have put yourself in her __________ to understand the
reason for her reaction.
A. boots B. sandals C. shoes D. sneakers
Question 9: ________ in 1635, the Boston Latin School is the oldest public school in the United States.
A. To found B. Having been found
C. Founded D. Founding
Question 10: We’ll go and have a party outdoor __________.
A. before we have finished our work B. as soon as we have finished our work
C. after we had finished our work D. when we finished our work
Question 11: In the past, the __________ exam was very difficult and only a small minority of candidates got
through.
A. national B. mock C. final D. entrance
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Question 12: If we continue to use our natural resources at this alarming rate, they will __________ by the end
of the century.
A. run out B. use up C. go off D. bring back
Question 13: Her aunt gave her a handbag on her birthday last week.
A. new nice big yellow B. big nice yellow new
C. nice big new yellow D. nice yellow big new
Question 14: They want to assimilate into the new culture, but they also want to _____ their own culture.
A. maintain B. reserve C. conserve D. preserve
Question 15: Many domestic flights have been cancelled __________ adverse weather conditions.
A. although B. because of C. despite D. because
Question 16: We had some friends to dinner last night, __________?
A. hadn’t we B. had we C. didn’t we D. did we
Question 17: Valentine’s Day, __________ in many countries, is the time when lovers express their affection
with greetings and gifts.
A. is celebrated B. celebrates C. celebrated D. was celebrated
Question 18: I have to take on more extra work so that I could __________ ends meet with a big family.
A. give B. put C. take D. make
Question 19: My youngest sister always dreams __________ becoming an English teacher.
A. with B. for C. at D. of
Question 20: The boy __________ a lot before his mother came back from work.
A. is crying B. has cried C. was crying D. had cried
Question 21: The more I know her, __________ I admire her.
A. less B. the more C. the most D. the least
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The reason why his teacher asked him to repeat the question was that he wasn’t attending during
the lesson.
A. joining B. presenting C. noticing D. appearing
Question 23: If violent crime continues unchecked, the government will take more drastic measures in this
country.
A. untreated B. uninsured C. untested D. uncontrolled
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: I was fairly positive about the fact that I’d heard it before because it’s quite familiar to me.
A. negative B. pessimistic C. hopeless D. uncertain
Question 25: The government took a range of measures to reduce poverty in the area, but they just drew a
blank.
A. had a consequence B. got a result
C. gained an advantage D. took a chance
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
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WHO has been tracking mutations and variants since the start of the COVID-19 outbreak. Our global
SARS-CoV-2 laboratory network includes a dedicated Virus Evolution Working Group, which (26)
__________ to detect new changes quickly and assess their possible impact.
Research groups have carried out genomic sequencing of the COVID-19 virus (27) __________ shared
these sequences on public databases, including GISAID. This global collaboration allows scientists to better
track how the virus is changing. WHO recommends that all countries increase the sequencing of the COVID-19
virus where possible and share data to help one (28) __________ monitor and respond to the evolving
pandemic.
WHO has also established a SARS-CoV-2 Risk Monitoring and Evaluation Framework to identify,
monitor and assess variants of concern. It will involve components like surveillance, research on variants of
concern, and (29) __________ of the impact on diagnostics, therapeutics and vaccines. The framework will
serve as a guide for manufacturers and countries on changes (30) __________ may be needed for COVID-19
vaccines.
Question 26: A. relies B. varies C. aims D. loses
Question 27: A. and B. as C. until D. but
Question 28: A. many B. another C. every D. other
Question 29: A. prediction B. expectation C. preparation D. evaluation
Question 30: A. which B. when C. whom D. where
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
The main idea behind ecotourism is to educate tourists about conservation efforts and research
developments in fragile natural areas, while also offering travelers a chance to experience those areas firsthand.
Unfortunately, when those fragile areas start to receive a lot of traffic from tourists, it can negatively impact
their ecosystems.
Tourism inevitably leads to development – even in ecotourism efforts. When natural areas become
popular in the travel industry, they usually become the site of hotels, excavations and other tourist industry
activities. These activities sometimes displace indigenous groups and local people from their homelands, which
not only damages the integrity of those local communities, but prevents its members from benefiting from the
economic benefits of a growing tourism industry.
On top of ecotourism’s potential impacts on locals, the industry can also take a toll on surrounding
wildlife. It’s ironic, given that ecotourism aims to educate ecotourists and promote the conservation of natural
habitats, but, for some species, the increased presence of humans may by default negatively impact their natural
behaviors. Increased foot traffic can also affect soil quality and plant life in general, damaging the area’s overall
ecosystem.
Finally, not all travel organizations that market themselves as ecotourist programs are actually
environmentally friendly. These organizations know ecotourism is growing in popularity and may take
advantage of that fact by parading as ecotouristic when in reality they ignore eco-friendly practices. For that
reason, it’s important that would-be ecotourists do their homework before giving an organization their
business.
(Adapted from https://traveltips.usatoday.com/)
Question 31: What does the author mainly discuss in the passage?
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A. Drawbacks of ecotourism B. Benefits of ecotourism on local areas
C. Ecotourism: A new trend for tourists D. The ways to develop potential ecotourism
Question 32: The word “which” in paragraph 2 refers to __________.
A. homelands
B. tourist industry activities
C. displacing indigenous groups and local people from their homelands
D. natural areas become popular in the travel industry
Question 33: According increase in the employment rate of the local people to the passage, what is the major
goal of ecotourism?
A. to increase the employment rate of the local people
B. to stimulate the preservation of natural habitats
C. to enhance tourists’ knowledge about the beauty of surrounding wildlife
D. to diminish the foot traffic affecting the soil quality
Question 34: Which of the following negative impacts of ecotourism is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Some indigenous groups and local inhabitants may not receive the economic benefits of ecotourism.
B. The increase in the number of vehicles will make pollution worse.
C. Some travel organizations do not actually provide environmentally friendly tours.
D. The surrounding wildlife may be influenced by the frequent presence of humans.
Question 35. What does the author mean when suggesting that ecotourists should “do their homework”?
A. Ecotourists should attend some courses about ecotourism.
B. Ecotourists should finish their school work before the journey.
C. Ecotourists should take advantage of the trips to understand more about their school lessons.
D. Ecotourists should find out information about ecotourism and the travel organization before travelling.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
The administrative room, which serves as the department headquarters, is noisy like a market. Health
workers from all over the country are present. People dispersed to various corners where we carefully put on
our personal protective equipment (PPE). After putting on the PPE, we slowly entered the danger zone, where
the patients were waiting. The ward with the most seriously ill patients is the red zone, which is completely
isolated since it is the most dangerous. Next is the transition area called the yellow zone, and finally the medical
staff's safe base, the briefing room, dubbed the green zone. When going from green to red we must wear the
PPE, and when leaving the red zone we must remove the PPE and carefully disinfect it from head to toe before
entering the green zone.
We finally entered the ward. With the PPE on, every movement became very difficult, the goggles
became foggy, and even breathing was difficult. Every one of the patients was suffering from shortness of
breath, coupled with anxiety and panic from witnessing other patients in the room get worse and occasionally
pass away. We had to practice speaking and breathing gently to avoid creating strong air flows through our
masks, which makes it easy to spread the infection. Nurses struggle to perform venipuncture. Normally very
dexterous at drawing blood, here they sometimes need two or three attempts since having to wear multiple
pairs of gloves hinder their ability to feel with their fingers. It is also difficult for doctors to examine the patients
since they cannot use stethoscopes and must be very brief when asking patients questions. Instead, by observing
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whether patients breathe gently, with difficulty or abnormally, and noting their facial expressions, sweat, skin
color, we can assess the progress of the disease.
As the day went by, severe patients were treated and less severe patients were recovering, and so we
finally felt reassured despite being drenched in sweat. Just as it was time for us to return to the green zone to
write up medical records, there was a commotion from the room next door. A patient's condition was
worsening. All the medical staff in the room rushed in for emergency treatment. After a few minutes the
patient's heartbeat returned, and the ventilator was reattached for the patient to resume breathing. My colleagues
were covered in sweat as if they had just showered.
(Source: https://e.vnexpress.net/)
Question 36: Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A. Life in a Covid-19 field hospital.
B. A doctor’s perspective on COVID-19.
C. Dynamics between patients and doctors.
D. A day battle inside a Covid hospital.
Question 37: The word “dispersed” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. scattered B. disunited C. disbanded D. sprinkled
Question 38: According to paragraph 2, what is NOT mentioned as a challenge for the medics?
A. tight protective equipment B. some uncooperative patients
C. the restrictions on speaking D. the looming risk of infection
Question 39: The word “dexterous” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. quick B. graceful C. brilliant D. adroit
Question 40: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. nurses B. doctors C. patients D. colleagues
Question 41: Which is NOT true about the hospital in this story?
A. Speaking too much or with force is discouraged to avoid the risk of infection.
B. Only until very late at night could the health workers return to the safe area.
C. Observation skills become crucial for the doctors in this difficult time.
D. Movements between the green and red zones are carefully regulated.
Question 42: Where would the author and his colleagues most possibly go right next?
A. The blue zone B. The red zone C. The yellow zone D. The green zone
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 43: Mike doesn't feel well today. He can't go out with his friends.
A. If Mike felt well today, he could go out with his friends.
B. Mike wishes he felt well today so that he can go out with his friends.
C. If only Mike had felt well today, he couldn't have gone out with his friends.
D. Provided that Mike feels well today, he can't go out with his friends.
Question 44: Students are forbidden to bring their phones into the exam room. There is no exception
whatsoever.
A. Under no circumstances are students prohibited from bringing their phones into the exam room.
B. On no account are students permitted to bring their phones into the exam room.
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C. At no time were students permitted to bring their phones into the exam room.
D. In no way are students prohibited from bringing their phones into the exam room.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 45: “If I were you, I would take the job,” said my room-mate.
A. My room-mate urged me to take the job. B. My room-mate persuaded me to take the job.
C. My room-mate insisted on me taking the job. D. My room-mate advised me to take the job.
Question 46: It isn’t necessary for you to go out at this time at night.
A. You must go out at this time at night. B. You should go out at this time at night.
C. You needn’t go out at this time at night. D. You may not go out at this time at night.
Question 47: I haven’t seen my aunt and her husband for years.
A. I last saw my aunt and her husband years ago.
B. I didn’t see my aunt and her husband years ago.
C. I saw my aunt and her husband for years.
D. I have seen my aunt and her husband for years.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 48: Everyone has his own ideas about the best way to bring up children.
A B C D
Question 49: Marry was on a real height after easily winning the competition because she really didn't
A B C
expect to win.
D
Question 50: Economics in my classes at Sul Ross University were very difficult for me to learn
A B C
and understand.
D
-----THE END-----
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ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 18 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2022
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. passed B. wished C. touched D. moved
Question 2: A. search B. heart C. earth D. heard
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the other three in
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. complete B. access C. supply D. confirm
Question 4: A. confidence B. computer C. document D. maximum
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: He is a highly intelligent person, __________?
A. wasn’t he B. isn’t he C. has he D. was he
Question 6: My mother bought a __________ lunch box for me yesterday.
A. blue new plastic B. new plastic blue C. new blue plastic D. blue new plastic
Question 7: This expensive car __________ me lots of trouble ever since I got it.
A. has been given B. gave C. has given D. gives
Question 8: __________ nutritious your breakfast is, the healthier you feel during the day.
A. Most of B. More C. Most D. The more
Question 9: __________ poverty and faced problems in pursuing her career, Marry finally realized the
importance of perseverance and bravery.
A. Have experienced B. Having experienced
C. To experience D. Having been experienced
Question 10: The conventional dessert was topped __________ whipped cream and pieces of fruit.
A. by B. on C. for D. with
Question 11: __________ young, she has become a success as a businesswoman.
A. Despite B. Due to C. Although D. Because
Question 12: You must have a guarantor in order to get __________ visa to enter the country.
A. the B. an C. no article D. a
Question 13: Before __________, we had gone home.
A. raining B. having rained C. rained D. it rained
Question 14: According to a new research, The Air Force is the number one ranked __________ in this area.
A. employer B. employee C. employment D. employ
Question 15: Marry was born in Korea but ______ in Los Angeles and quickly became Americanized.
A. grew up B. brought up C. turned up D. came up
Question 16: Government has already ____ all reasonable precautions to limit the spread of coronavirus.
A. taken B. done C. made D. carried
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Question 17: I have to gather her information to make an important decision, so I need a copy of her CV on the
__________.
A. level B. blink C. edge D. double
Question 18: My vegetarian diet seems to be __________ because I've lost five pounds since I started this diet.
A. operating B. working C. performing D. driving
Question 19: Ho Chi Minh president raised six urgent issues that government needed to solve immediately to
ease the food __________ in 1945.
A. lack B. deficiencies C. inadequacies D. shortages
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: Laura would like to be financially secure by age 50, so she is working hard to earn a lot of
money.
A. safe B. stable C. confident D. protected
Question 21: He didn’t realize his ambition of becoming a dancer because he lost a leg in a motorcycle
accident.
A. recognize B. achieve C. identify D. succeed
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: I like modern art to a certain degree, but I don't like the really experimental stuff.
A. unsure B. unlimited C. unchanged D. uncertain
Question 23: Some doctors in this hospital came under suspicion of unethical behavior towards their patients.
A. betrayed people’s trust B. found not guilty
C. received people’s approval D. considered to be dishonest
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: Giang is showing his appreciation of Loan’s new shirt.
- Giang: “You look great in that new shirt.”
- Loan: “__________”
A. You like it, right? B. I appreciate it.
C. I don’t think so. D. That’s kind of you to say so.
Question 25: Thanh and Hung are talking about a businesswoman.
- Thanh: “Mrs Phuong Hang is an exceptionally talented businesswoman to make such an enormous fortune”
- Hung: “__________. Very few women can achieve great success like her.”
A. I totally disagree with you B. I couldn’t agree with you more
C. I’m afraid I can’t side with you on this one D. There’re no doubtful about it
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction on
each of the following questions.
Question 26: The boy collided with the car is making recovery from operation.
A B C D
Question 27: It’s reported that the number of cars which is stolen every year has risen.
A B C D
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Question 28: I wonder if I can pay for the car by instalments because I really want it but I don’t have
A B C
money.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the
sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 29: This is the most enjoyable wedding party I have ever attended.
A. I have never attended such an enjoyable wedding party before.
B. I have never attended a more enjoyable wedding party than this one.
C. I didn’t attend such an enjoyable wedding party for a long time.
D. I have never attended such an enjoyable wedding party like this.
Question 30: "It's you who broke my vase." Jane said to Ann.
A. Jane accused Ann of breaking her vase. B. Ann prevented Jane from breaking her vase.
C. Jane denied breaking Ann's vase. D. Jane admitted having broken Ann’s vase.
Question 31: It wasn’t necessary for you to worry about these trivial things.
A. You may not have worried about these trivial things.
B. You needn’t have worried about these trivial things.
C. You shouldn’t have worried about these trivial things.
D. You can’t have worried about these trivial things.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: My team lacked consistency in the competition. We lost all matches with an unacceptable result.
A. Suppose that we lacked consistency in the competition, we wouldn’t have lost all matches with an
unacceptable result.
B. But for our lack of consistency in the competition, my team wouldn’t have lost all matches with an
unacceptable result.
C. If it had not been for our team’s inconsistency in the competition, we would have lost all matches with an
unacceptable result.
D. Without our team’s inconsistency in the competition, we would lose all matches with an unacceptable
result.
Question 33: The explosion was devastating. We felt the impact of it a mile away.
A. As was the explosion devastating that we felt the impact of it a mile away.
B. The explosion was such devastating that we felt the impact of it a mile away.
C. So devastating was the explosion that we felt the impact of it a mile away.
D. However devastating the explosion was, we felt the impact of it a mile away.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best
fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
Exploration has changed a lot over time. In the past, only adventurers who were willing to take (34)
__________ were considered explorers. In contrast, anyone can be an explorer today thanks to modern
technology.
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In the past, when explorers traveled the world, people back home had to wait for months to hear about
their adventures. Explorers kept (35) __________ and wrote letters about their experiences. They would only be
able to tell (36)__________what they saw after they returned. By the end of the nineteenth century, explorers
were also able to take photos in the same way (37)__________ they do today. However, they were unable to see
the photos right away. It often took a long time for them to get photos printed.
(38) __________, today’s explorers can travel around the globe and can send back live, real-time
images. Thanks to high-tech devices and the Internet, anyone can interact with them. When a discovery is made,
we can see photos on social media and read blog posts the same day. We may not be there, but we still take part
in the adventure.
(Adapted from Thomas Fast, 2017)
Question 34: A. dangers B. possibilities C. risks D. chances
Question 35: A. magazines B. journals C. history D. publication
Question 36: A. another B. other C. the others D. others
Question 37: A. what B. where C. that D. when
Question 38: A. In the same way B. On one hand C. By comparison D. Similarly
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions from 39 to 43.
When I surveyed over 5,000 middle grade students for my book, kids were already reminding me of the
technology gap between them and their parents. They claimed that parents “didn’t have a clue” as to what they
were experiencing on screens. While generation gap is often characteristic of adolescence in any generation, it
is even wider because of rapidly changing technology.
Even the guidelines I prescribed six years ago would be impossible to implement for this generation of
tablets, cellphones and notebooks that travel in children’s backpacks. Setting and enforcing guidelines early for
children is helpful. Taking technology away at bedtime is still possible and at least allows them a good night’s
rest. Cautioning your children about not sharing real names, addresses or phone numbers in chatrooms or for
any emails protects them somewhat. Making sure your hardworking home is balanced by non-screen family fun
can be enormous protection. Beware of over-consequencing and over-punishing for small problems. We don’t
want your children to think of their parents as enemies in a battle of wills.
Tell your children how wise and experienced you are and how much you love them at least five times a
week. They need to know they can count on you in this complex, fast-moving world even if they know more
about technology than you do. Like every generation, your children will grow up and hopefully find responsible
directions for their own lives. Technology skills are valued in the work force and technology is here to stay.
Learning as much about it as possible will help you stay tuned-in to what your children aren’t saying.
(Source: https://www.wdtimes.com/)
Question 39: Which could be the best title of the passage?
A. Technology - a great challenge to parents. B. Negative aspects of technology.
C. Kids don’t want to talk about their lives. D. Technology facilitates communication.
Question 40: The word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to __________.
A. characteristic B. middle grade student
C. generation gap D. technology gap
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Question 41: According to the passage, what shouldn’t the parents do in order to regulate the children’s use of
technology?
A. Confiscating the technology when bedtime comes.
B. Preserving time for activities beyond screens and technology.
C. Warning kids against oversharing on social media.
D. Demanding kids to share with the parents all their passwords.
Question 42: The word “tuned-in” in paragraph 3 mostly means __________.
A. oblivious B. alien C. sensitive D. helpful
Question 43: Which of the following is TRUE about the technology in this day and age?
A. Guidelines for technological parental control are still the same.
B. People can’t live successfully without technical skills.
C. Technology has made community activities more crucial than ever.
D. The detrimental effects of technology are holding it back.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
If we really care about nature, then surely conservation has to be practical; it needs to work. Everything
we hear on the news seems to say the opposite: nature continues to go down the tube; extinction rates are
increasing; new threats like climate change are emerging; and beautiful places are being destroyed before our
eyes. All this is true; and yet…
If things are getting worse, it is obvious that conservation is failing. Well, no. In 2006, scientists at
BirdLife International showed that conservation action had prevented 16 bird species from going extinct during
the 1994-2004 time period. In 2014, scientists from the Durrell Wildlife Conservation Trust found that
sustained conservation action from 1988 to 2012 resulted in eight species being down-listed to lower categories
of threat on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species. In a pivotal study in 2015, a group of researchers from
the IUCN Species Survival Commission found that without conservation action that took place between 1996
and 2008, the status of the world’s ungulates (deer, antelopes, cattle and their relatives) would have been nearly
eight times worse than was actually observed. In 2017, researchers were able to quantify how conservation
investments made between 1996 and 2008 reduced biodiversity loss in 109 countries by 29% per country on
average.
Once again, this suggests that although too little was spent on conservation, it had a significant level of
success. As a result, decision-makers are now in a position, for the first time, to forecast what the positive
impacts of any increase in conservation spending are likely to be in relation to different scenarios of human
development pressure, and then compare these forecasts to their policy targets.
There is one clear conclusion from these and similar studies: conservation does work, but we do not do
anywhere close to enough of it. The threats to nature are certainly growing and this means that we have to spend
more on conservation just to stand still. On the other hand, if some of the commitments made by the world’s
governments are actually acted upon, such as the 2010 Aichi Biodiversity Targets and the 2015 Sustainable
Development Goals, then the number of resources to be allocated to conservation is set to increase. Let’s hope
that this will indeed be the case.
(Source: https://www.synchronicityearth.org/)
Question 44: Which question is the passage most possibly the answer to?
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A. What exactly do conservationists need to do?
B. Why do we conserve nature in the first place?
C. Does conservation actually work?
D. What is and isn’t conservation?
Question 45: The word “emerging” in paragraph 1 can be replaced by__________.
A. proceeding B. waning C. popping D. arising
Question 46: According to paragraph 2, what is NOT mentioned as a successful effort in conservation?
A. Many bird species were brought back from the brink of extinction.
B. Situation of the ungulates has become better.
C. Eight species are now less at risk of extinction.
D. The decline in biological diversity in many countries slowed down.
Question 47: The word “quantify” in paragraph 2 can be replaced by __________.
A. evaluate B. rate C. determine D. judge
Question 48: The word “this” in paragraph 4 refers to __________.
A. establishing new conservation goals B. support from the governments
C. the amount of resources D. more investment in conservation
Question 49: According to the passage, the overall situation is getting worse, __________.
A. and could turn even worse within the next decade.
B. despite some small local successes in conservation.
C. but not as fast as if we were doing no conservation at all.
D. yet many people still think that we are making progress.
Question 50. Which statements is NOT true, according to the passage?
A. There is increasing evidence that conservation is actually working.
B. There are many different views on how to achieve conservation.
C. Governments will need to do more to reach the necessary level of success.
D. Dears and antelopes are the species belonging to the ungulates group.
-----THE END-----
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ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 19 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2022
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. passed B. wished C. touched D. moved
Question 2: A. shame B. drank C. cable D. blaze
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the other three in
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. defend B. precede C. decent D. expand
Question 4: A. confidence B. computer C. document D. maximum
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: Many people are deeply unhappy about the way the government has handled this matter, ______?
A. are they B. aren’t they C. do they D. don’t they
Question 6: Nylon __________ by an American chemist, Julian Hill in the 1930s.
A. invented B. was invented C. invent D. was inventing
Question 7: The basic design of the car is very similar __________ that of earlier models.
A. in B. with C. to D. of
Question 8: __________ a car is, the more comfortable it is.
A. More expensive B. Most expensive
C. The more expensive D. The most expensive
Question 9: We’ll go and have a party outdoor __________.
A. before the weather was good B. as long as the weather is good
C. after the weather has been good D. when the weather will be good
Question 10: I will tell David you are looking for him when I __________ him tomorrow.
A. see B. will see C. saw D. was seeing
Question 11: __________ young, she has become a success as a businesswoman.
A. Despite B. Due to C. Although D. Because
Question 12: It was made of a __________ material.
A. metallic strange green B. strange green metallic
C. green strange metallic D. green metallic strange
Question 13: __________ by my success, Tom decided not to quit his job.
A. To encourage B. Having encouraged C. Encouraged D. Encouraging
Question 14: During a __________ business career, she accumulated a great amount of wealth.
A. succeed B. success C. successfully D. successful
Question 15: I know you don’t like Jack’s idea, but just __________ with him for a while.
A. get out B. get along C. play along D. play out
Question 16: Everyone else in my class laughed loudly about something my teacher had said, but I didn't
__________ the joke.
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A. take B. tell C. make D. get
Question 17: If you have any information that is __________ to the investigation, you should call the police.
A. substantial B. material C. identical D. rational
Question 18: The hospital hit the __________ and became the center of a media storm when a number of
suspicious deaths occurred.
A. books B. ceiling C. buffers D. headlines
Question 19: The judge has decided to __________ his decision until a later date because there wasn’t enough
evidence.
A. preserve B. reserve C. maintain D. conserve
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: It is an independent voluntary organization which aims to provide assistance to people in need.
A. necessity B. hardship C. obstacle D. requirement
Question 21: Manufacturing plants which produce large amounts of carbon dioxide should closely monitor the
emission.
A. nearly B. exactly C. carefully D. strongly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: That visitors throw garbage into the ocean shows how shallow their commitment to the
environment really is.
A. deep B. serious C. attentive D. significant
Question 23: She demonstrated a clear determination to win because she didn’t throw in the towel just
because she had lost one game.
A. admit that she has been defeated B. stop trying to win
C. have the chance to succeed D. do her best to achieve victory
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: Ronaldo and Messi are meeting at an outdoor cafe serving drinks.
- Messi: “Which drink do you want, coke or water?”
- Ronaldo: “__________ because it’s better for our health than coke.”
A. Either will do B. I’d prefer a glass of water
C. I don’t like both of them D. No thanks, I’ve just had some
Question 25: Giang is showing his appreciation of Loan’s new shirt.
- Giang: “You look great in that new shirt.”
- Loan: “__________”
A. You like it, right? B. I appreciate it.
C. I don’t think so. D. That’s kind of you to say so.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction on
each of the following questions.
Question 26: He introduced himself to me and asked if I’d like him to visit once in awhile on his rounds.
A B C D
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Question 27: I am watching an interesting football match at the same time yesterday.
A B C D
Question 28: All the candidates for the scholarship will be equally treated regardless of her age, sex, or
nationality. A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the
sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 29: This is the first time I have attended such an enjoyable wedding party.
A. I have ever attended such an enjoyable wedding party before.
B. I attended such an enjoyable wedding party a long time ago.
C. I didn’t attend such an enjoyable wedding party for a long time.
D. I have never attended such an enjoyable wedding party before.
Question 30: "It's me who broke your vase." Jane said to Ann.
A. Jane accused Ann of breaking her vase. B. Ann prevented Jane from breaking her vase.
C. Jane denied breaking Ann's vase. D. Jane admitted having broken Ann’s vase.
Question 31: It isn’t necessary for you to worry about these trivial things.
A. You may worry about these trivial things.
B. You needn’t worry about these trivial things.
C. You shouldn’t worry about these trivial things.
D. You must worry about these trivial things.
Mark the letter A, B, C, on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: She lives so far away. He really wants her to visit him more regularly.
A. If she doesn’t live so far away, she will be able to visit him more regularly.
B. He wishes she lived near here and could have visited him more regularly.
C. If only she lived near here and could visit him more regularly.
D. As long as she lives near here, she will be able to visit him more regularly.
Question 33: His wife helped him much in his work. He was promoted to chief executive.
A. Only after he had been promoted to chief executive did his wife help him much in his work.
B. Not only was he promoted to chief executive but his wife also helped him much in his work.
C. Had it not been for his wife’s help in his work, he couldn’t have promoted to chief executive.
D. But for his wife’s help in his work, he couldn’t have been promoted to chief executive.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best
fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
The (34) __________ girl who fell off a 12th floor apartment in Hanoi and was saved by a truck driver
last Sunday was discharged from hospital Friday morning. Hoang Hai Duc, head of pediatric orthopedics at the
National Children’s Hospital, said a dislocated hip has been fixed and the child would have a ( 35) __________
after two or three weeks to see if her hips have regained their full function. "This is truly too big a joy for our
family," the girl’s mother said. The three-year-old dislocated (36) __________ falling 50 m from the balcony in
an apartment complex on Nguyen Huy Tuong Street. She fortunately survived after Nguyen Ngoc Manh, a 31-
year-old truck driver (37) __________ had parked nearby, clambered up a corrugated roof and caught the
falling child. Manh, who slightly injured his arms in the ordeal, said the (38) __________ has turned his life
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upside down. His story was picked up by the national and international media, turning him into a celebrity
overnight. Many called him a hero to his discomfort. "I don’t see myself as a hero; I just want to do good," he
had said at the time.
Question 34: A. a little B. little C. few D. much
Question 35: A. checkup B. breakup C. outbreak D. breakthrough
Question 36: A. when B. before C. after D. while
Question 37: A. which B. what C. whose D. that
Question 38: A. occasion B. incident C. accident D. situation
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
The 21st century has become another important century for inventions and discoveries. We are only in
the 2nd decade of this century currently but we have already witnessed many big innovations that have
drastically changed our way of living. Bluetooth technology, broadband internet, artificial heart, genetic
engineering, virtual reality, 3D printing are some to name a few. These inventions are changing the way we live,
do our things and communicate with the others. Even though some of these developments are in the early stage
of innovation, they have a more sophisticated and promising future. Social media is one of the most important
aspects that has affected each person in this modern time.
According to Heidi Cohen, Social Media are the platforms that enable the interactive web by engaging
users to participate in, comment on and create content as means of communicating with their social graph, other
users and the public. The power of social media has changed most of the things in our daily life. Social media
has revolutionized and completely changed the way we send and receive information. It is more interactive, can
be done in realtime and uses a wide number of media like text, audio, video, pictures, graphics and more. With
these sites, sending and receiving messages offline and in realtime, audio and video chatting, sharing pictures,
video and text, going “Live” to many audiences, meeting old friends and making new has revolutionized our
way of establishing connections with others.
There are also the negative sides of the innovation of social media and their usage. Increase in cyber-
crime, invasion of privacy, security threats etc. is some of the issues associated with social networks. But at the
same time social networks are working themselves to cope with the increasing problems that arise with the
improper use of it. With more and more sophistication and versatility of use, social media have undoubtedly
proved to be a boon to connectivity and social interaction between people in this age of communication and
information technology.
(Adapted from https://arjungelal.wordpress.com/)
Question 39: Which of the following could serve as the best title of the passage?
A. Social Media – One of the Greatest Inventions of the 21st Century
B. How Positive Social Media Changes Our Lives?
C. Advantages and Disadvantages of Social Media
D. Important Inventions in Modern Society
Question 40: What does the word “it” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. information B. the way C. social media D. the power
Question 41: The following are benefits brought by social media mentioned in paragraph 2, EXCEPT
__________.
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A. connecting people all over the world
B. keeping contact with others via various ways
C. helping people exchange information in a more interactive way
D. increasing the private invasion of users
Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following sentences is TRUE?
A. The new inventions remain the way we interact with each other.
B. It’s unlikely for people to process documents on social media.
C. Using social media improperly will increase the problems for users.
D. People nowadays send and receive more online messages than normal.
Question 43: The word “boon” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to __________.
A. benefit B. drawback C. challenge D. advance
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
Six the Musical tells the stories of King Henry VIII's six wives through a collection of pop songs as they
compare lives to see who suffered the most and who should therefore lead their girl group. The songs are
catchy, fun, and exciting, and they are genuinely great pop tunes. The singing performances from the Australian
actresses were amazing, and all of them were technically very skilled.
It originated as a college student's concept album and it is clear even in performance that it is not
designed to exist as anything more than that. The dialogue is clumsy and tonally confused. It gives the audience
proverbial whiplash by sounding like a Hi-5 concert one moment to hammy, beginner improv-style dialogue the
next, before snapping to blunt, and pretty overt, British jokes about sex and adultery.
Six tries to emulate Hamilton's success by using modern musical elements and basing the story on a
'woke' and empowering retelling of history. But, as a revision on Henry VIII's wives, it just regurgitates a bunch
of facts that the audience already knows and sets it to the song. In performance most of the characters are
portrayed as strong, independent women, and they pull it off well by anchoring their music in modern-day pop
feminists. But the squabbles between the wives play into the stereotype that women are catty and bitch about
each other behind their backs. The entire musical is steeped in the idea that these women are only notable
because of their relationship with King Henry VIII. Only in the last song of the show do the women finally
reject Henry VIII and come to support and appreciate each other. Six didn't have to be like that. It could have
been about the women supporting each other from the start.
And that is my other problem with Six. It tries to sell itself as a musical when it really isn’t. Most of the
actresses cannot act or dance, they can only sing, and the choreography they are working with is very static
compared to the likes of West Side Story, Moulin Rouge or most other musicals. At the same time, the set and
lighting design are barely used and don't add much to their performances.
(Source: https://www.arc.unsw.edu.au/)
Question 44: Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A. Feminism in the musical genre. B. Reviewing Six the musical.
C. The fame of a new musical. D. A failed copy of Hamilton.
Question 45: The word “them” in paragraph 1 refers to __________.
A. Henry VIII's wives B. pop tunes C. performances D. actresses
Question 46: The phrase “steeped in” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
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A. imbued with B. connected with C. soaked in D. implanted in
Question 47: According to paragraph 3, what is the problem with Six the musical?
A. It tries to follow in the footsteps of the legendary historical musical – Hamilton.
B. The musical fails to provide a new perspective as a revision on Henry VIII's wives.
C. The characters can’t portray the pop stars they are modelled after.
D. The cast of Six the musical all consists of female performers.
Question 48: The word “static” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. stable B. steady C. unvarying D. orderly
Question 49: The author’s criticism about the musical is based on the rationale that __________.
A. a rendition of history should not stray too far from the original version.
B. historical stories should not be told with adulterous humor and sass.
C. a musical should combine acting, dancing, singing and set design together.
D. in Broadway, women’s stories don’t count unless they are about suffering.
Question 50: Which of the following statements is mentioned about Six the musical?
A. Six the musical is nothing more than a concept album.
B. Six the musical’s songs belong on the Billboard Hot 100.
C. Six the musical is a celebration of 16th-century girl power.
D. Six the musical has a witty, clever, and powerful dialogue.
-----THE END-----
ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 20 ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2022
Biên soạn: Cô Trang Anh Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 06 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from
the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. damaged B. practiced C. attacked D. escaped
Question 2: A. search B. heart C. earth D. heard
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word which differs from the other three in
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. complete B. access C. supply D. confirm
Question 4: A. effective B. romantic C. concentrate D. addiction
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 5: These roads were barely wide enough for us to pass, __________?
A. were they B. weren’t they C. did they D. didn’t they
Question 6: Relations between the two countries _______ further recently due to territorial disputes.
A. have been deteriorated B. have deteriorated
C. were deteriorated D. deteriorates
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Question 7: Parents must keep an eye on their kids because they may eat stuff like pills or marbles __________
mistake for candies.
A. at B. by C. for D. in
Question 8: __________ the students concentrate on their lessons, the more impatient their teachers will
become.
A. The least B. The less C. The fewer D. The fewest
Question 9: A fashionable couple bought two ____ rings at one of the most luxurious jewelry stores.
A. wedding beautiful gold B. gold beautiful wedding
C. beautiful gold wedding D. beautiful wedding gold
Question 10: Before the Olympic Games __________, the home team had been well trained to deal with
difficult situations.
A. had been taken place B. took place C. were taken place D. will take place
Question 11: __________ the fact that they did not know English, the visitors were unaware of what their tour
guide asked them to do.
A. Despite B. Due to C. In spite of D. Because
Question 12: Susan will have done voluntary work in hospitals for ten years __________ another job.
A. as soon as she had moved on to B. when she moved on to
C. by the time she moves on to D. after she will move on to
Question 13: __________ a number of difficulties in the first week, Maria ultimately decided to quit her new
job.
A. Having been encountered B. Being encountered
C. Having encountered D. To encounter
Question 14: Intensive farming has brought about a __________ increase in outbreaks of food poisoning in the
countryside.
A. significance B. significantly C. significant D. signify
Question 15: My family highly encourage me to __________ a place at Oxford University because it has a high
reputation for academic achievement.
A. try out B. try on C. try for D. try out for
Question 16: TV viewers are beginning to get very annoyed with advertisements which are arranged to
__________ the gaps between game shows.
A. bridge B. fill C. narrow D. close
Question 17: You should seek advice from your sister because she knows a lot about the __________ of
running a hotel business.
A. structures B. mechanics C. incentives D. constituents
Question 18: I would encourage every individual to support the staff who are under the __________ because of
the overload of work.
A. weather B. table C. gun D. knife
Question 19: The ambulances were in _______ within 22 minutes to rush all victims to the hospital.
A. emergency B. presence C. league D. attendance
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
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Question 20: The state government is determined to tackle the problem of poverty in the inner cities.
A. attack B. encounter C. appeal D. impair
Question 21: All ingredients you need to cook soup are readily available from your local store, so you can buy
them whenever you want.
A. willingly B. commonly C. freely D. scarcely
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: His report was harshly criticized by fellow students because the information was deemed too
sensitive to be discussed.
A. softly B. slightly C. gently D. severely
Question 23: He finally made a clean breast of everything and admitted that he had broken into the art
gallery and got away with two valuable paintings.
A. concealed the fact of everything B. revealed the truth of everything
C. exposed the truth to the public D. knew the fact of everything
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of
the following exchanges.
Question 24: Jury is asking Nanno, her new fellow student, about her hometown.
- Jury: “Where are you from?”
- Nanno: “__________.”
A. I come from nowhere
B. It’s Thailand, which is a country in South East Asia
C. About five kilometers
D. My parents take me to school every day
Question 25: Billy and Laura are talking about working part-time.
- Billy: “I think working part-time is a distraction from our study.”
- Laura: “__________. It gives us the ability to spend money wisely and improve our time management skills”
A. It makes sense to me B. It’s right
C. I totally agree with you D. I don’t quite agree
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction on
each of the following questions.
Question 26: Yesterday evening, the search for the missing men are conducted in poor weather conditions.
A B C D
Question 27: A qualified engineer together with a friend of him has worked tirelessly for the construction
A B C D
of a new office for a week.
Question 28: This leaflet will give you the essence of how to prepare for a hurricane so that you can
A B C
minimize potential damage.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the
sentence given in each of the following questions.
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Question 29: We haven’t gone to the concert for two years.
A. We last went to the concert for two years ago.
B. We have gone to the concert for two years.
C. We went to the concert for two years.
D. The last time we went to the concert was two years ago.
Question 30: “Don’t forget to turn off the air conditioner or you will be punished” said my mother to me.
A. My mother reminded me of forgetting to turn off the air conditioner or I would be punished.
B. My mother warned me to turn off the air conditioner or I would be punished.
C. My mother reminded me to turn off the air conditioner or I would be punished.
D. My mother warned me against forgetting to turn off the air conditioner or I would be punished.
Question 31: It’s high time that the school improved its educational facilities.
A. The school ought to improve its educational facilities.
B. The school doesn’t have to improve its educational facilities.
C. The school should have improved its educational facilities.
D. The school must have improved its educational facilities.
Mark the letter A, B, C, on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 32: You don’t know how hard I’ve tried to please you. I hope that you can have sympathy for me.
A. I wish you knew how hard I have tried to please you and could have sympathy for me.
B. If only you knew how hard I had tried to please you and could have sympathy for me.
C. If you knew how hard I had tried to please you, you could have sympathy for me.
D. As long as you know how hard I’ve tried to please you, you can have sympathy for me.
Question 33: I put the mobile on the table. She then called me back.
A. Only after she had called me back did I put the mobile on the table.
B. Had it not been for her call, I wouldn’t have put the mobile on the table.
C. Not only did she call me back but I also put the mobile on the table.
D. Hardly had I put the mobile on the table when she called me back.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best
fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38.
In the book The Population Bomb, which crystallized fears about the planet’s burgeoning population,
Paul Ehrlich predicted widespread famine, social upheaval and a deterioration in environmental conditions.
The author was wrong. The green revolution that vastly increased agricultural production starting in the
1960s meant his (34) __________ didn’t come to pass. From the 1960s through the 1900s, yields of rice and
wheat in Asia doubled. (35)__________ as the continent’s population increased by 60 per cent, grain prices fell,
the average Asian consumed nearly a third more calories, and the poverty rate was cut in half.
To keep doing that between now and 2050, we’ll need (36) __________green revolution. There are two
competing visions of (37)__________it will happen. One is high-tech, with a heavy emphasis on continuing
work of breeding better crops, but with modern genetic techniques. Scientists can now identify and manipulate a
huge variety of plant genes, for traits like disease (38) __________ and drought tolerance. That is going to make
farming more productive and resilient.
(Adapted from newscientist.com)
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Question 34: A. predictions B. implication C. guesses D. anticipation
Question 35: A. When B. If C. Much D. Even
Question 36: A. other B. another C. many D. others
Question 37: A. how B. when C. what D. which
Question 38: A. insistence B. resistance C. persistence D. existence
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43.
Education has been the focus of media attention since the virus has intermittently closed classrooms
and campuses over the past year. But despite the disruption, the widespread shift to online learning has given
learners and education providers a glimpse of the future.
For our latest Better Managers Briefing, I spoke with Paul Geddes – CEO of technology training
provider QA; and Tim Stewart – the vice chancellor of BPP University and a professor of business education.
Taking education online was the first and most obvious short-term delivery impact of the pandemic. For
example, Tim says that for him and BPP as an awarding body, the biggest accomplishment was being able to
move assessments online, enabling thousands of students to sit hundreds of exams under supervision and be
able to continue gaining credits and to graduate. “Inevitably, after the pandemic, some of this will move back
offline,” he predicts, “but I think we will see a much more significant role for online teaching, online
assessment, online socializing and online libraries.”
Mixing “on-demand” digital delivery with live online learning has been essential at QA, says Paul. “For
learners, live lessons mean that you’re more likely to turn up, you're focused, you're going to pay attention and
not be distracted… because your trainer could ask you a question at any time,” he says. “You can ask questions,
you're part of a cohort that can learn from each other and the subject matter can be tailored to your
understanding.” Paul believes, “If you're in a cohort of learners, it’s still important that you can have a cup of
coffee with them and chat through what you’ve just learned in class. But I don’t think things will return fully to
where they were in terms of physical attendance.”
(Source: https://www.managers.org.uk/)
Question 39: Which could be the best title of the passage?
A. The changing landscape of education.
B. Between going online or staying offline.
C. What makes teaching and learning successful.
D. How to thrive in the workforce of the future.
Question 40: The word “intermittently” in paragraph 1 mostly means __________.
A. customarily B. repeatedly C. sporadically D. continually
Question 41: Which is NOT mentioned about online learning during the pandemic?
A. Students can continue their degree and graduate normally.
B. Students can be supervised individually through technology.
C. Students can interact with the teacher and other students.
D. Students can sit through tests and be graded.
Question 42: The word “them” in paragraph 4 refers to __________.
A. trainers B. things C. learners D. questions
Question 43: According to the passage, how will the education change post-pandemic?
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A. Digital delivery will be blended with live learning.
B. Companies will invest more in digital infrastructure.
C. Physical classrooms will have lower rates of attendance.
D. Technical and soft skills will be added to the curriculum.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50.
You’ve heard all the reasons why some people don’t learn languages, many of these founded on long-held
myths and misconceptions. The truth is, in today’s increasingly interconnected and interdependent world,
proficiency in other languages is a vital skill that gives you the opportunity to engage with the world in a more
immediate and meaningful way—whether in your neighborhood or thousands of miles away—while better
preparing you to compete and succeed in the global economy.
One of the most rewarding aspects of the human experience is our ability to connect with others. Being able
to communicate with someone in his or her language is an incredible gift. Bilinguals have the unique
opportunity to communicate with a wider range of people in their personal and professional lives. Knowing the
language makes you a local no matter where you are, opening up your world literally and figuratively. You will
be shaped by communities. You will be humbled by the kindness of strangers. You will build lifelong
friendships. And for these reasons alone, you will see the reward of learning languages for many years to come.
Language skills can be a significant competitive advantage that sets you apart from your monolingual peers.
They are among the top eight skills required of all occupations—no matter your sector or skill level—and the
demand for bilingual professionals is rising exponentially. In fact, between 2010 and 2015, the number of U.S.
job postings specifically geared toward bilingual candidates more than doubled. Employers are seeking
professionals who can communicate seamlessly with customers in new and expanding overseas markets, as well
as serve and sell to a large foreign-born population here at home. With more than 60 million U.S. residents who
speak a language other than English at home, you don’t need to get on a plane to put your language skills to
work. As an added incentive, in many instances, language skills also lead to hiring bonuses and increased
salaries. Whatever your career aspiration—with language skills added to the mix, you’re ahead of the crowd!
(Adapted from https://www.leadwithlanguages.org/)
Question 44: Which of the following best serves as the title of the passage?
A. Reasons Not to Learn Foreign Languages B. Why Learn Foreign Languages?
C. What Foreign Languages to Learn? D. Who Need to Learn Foreign Languages?
Question 45: According to paragraph 2, the following are the benefits of knowing another language,
EXCEPT__________.
A. you can communicate with more people in their personal and professional lives.
B. you may become a local person wherever you go.
C. you will get suspicious if strangers are kind to you.
D. you will have many intimate friends.
Question 46: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to __________.
A. language skills B. monolingual peers C. eight skills D. occupations
Question 47: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE?
A. Our ability to communicate with others is the first requirement in our jobs.
B. You have to learn languages for many years to travel alone.
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C. There is an exponential increase in the demand for bilingual professionals.
D. You cannot succeed if you are unable to compete in the global economy.
Question 48: The word “geared” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. tended B. avoided C. trained D. left
Question 49: According to paragraph 3, what kind of employees do the U.S employers want to hire?
A. the professionals who can speak a language other than English at home
B. the foreign employees who were born in their nation
C. the workers who can get on a plane to put their language skills to work
D. the professionals who can satisfy the demands to work with the international customers in their nation and
abroad
Question 50: The phrase “ahead of the crowd” in the last paragraph most probably means _______.
A. moving fast B. being outstanding C. becoming the owner D. being the tallest
-----THE END-----
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