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PUBLIC HEALTH MCQS

1. Occupational hazards to the nurse include the following except;


a. Accidents and injuries
b. Injuries from snake bite.
c. Sexual harassment.
d. Slippery floors.
2. The recommended diagnostic investigation for pulmonary tuberculosis include;
I. Sputum for AFB.
II. Blood for ESR and FBC.
III. Chest x-ray and chest scan.
IV. Blood for WBC and serology.
a. I, II only
b. II, III, IV only
c. III, IV only
d. I, II, III only
3. Which of the following is an effect of teenage pregnancy on the school girl?
I. Abortion
II. Suicide
III. Complication of labour
IV. Redraw from society
a. I, II, and III
b. II, III and IV
c. I, III and IV
d. I, II and IV
4. During the school-going period of a child he/she is examined how many times?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
5. The school nurse manages illness such as;
a. Chicken pox
b. Cholera
c. Influenza
d. Malaria
6. Which of the following is NOT a component of school health services?
a. Health education services
b. Hygiene inspection
c. Infant health services
d. Minor aliment services
7. What is the ideal time for food handlers at school canteen to undergo medical examination?
a. After assumption of duty
b. Every six months of employment
c. Every year
d. During health inspection
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8. Which school health team member liaises between the school and the team?
a. Environmental officer
b. Nutrition officer
c. Public health nurse
d. Social worker
9. Early signs of maladjustments in a school child can be detected by .....
a. Adolescents
b. Health worker
c. Peer groups
d. School teacher
10. During physical examination of the school child, the nurse should observe the child’s gait
when he or she …….
a. dresses up
b. lies down
c. walks in
d. stands still
11. In the school health program, which team member investigates into the pupil’s social issues?
a. Head teacher
b. Medical officer
c. SHEP coordinator
d. Social worker
12. Which of the following is a risk factor of child delinquency?
a. Exposure to social media
b. Poor mental health
c. School phobia
d. Poor school performance
13. These are psychosocial problems common among school children
I. Absenteeism
II. Armed robbery
III. Attention deficit
IV. School phobia
a. I, II and III
b. I, II and IV
c. I, III and IV
d. II, III and IV
14. Criminal or antisocial conduct commonly found in juveniles is termed;
a. Bad behavior in children.
b. Child delinquency.
c. Deviant child.
d. Personality problem.

15. When checking the sight of school pupil, the Snellen’s eye chart should be placed……….
meters away from the child.
a. 4
b. 6
c. 8

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d. 10
16. Ideally, full and accurate history about the school child during school hygiene inspection
should be provided by the ………..
a. Class teacher
b. Family doctor
c. Head teacher
d. Parent
17. The essence of providing the school meals is to……….......
a. Ensure that school children get a balance meal
b. Help school children develop good habit
c. Encourage pupils to come to school early
d. Facilitate learning
18. Which of the following is NOT an objective of the public health nurse?
a. Builds more clinics
b. Conducts Health education
c. Ensures safe delivery
d. Organises clinics
19. The scope of work of the public health nurse in relation to midwifery are the following
EXCEPT:
a. Counselling
b. Family Planning
c. Immunization
d. Surgical care
20. Which of the following is NOT a principle of public health nursing?
a. Decide for the family or the people
b. Review available literature
c. Work without expecting reward
d. Writing of report
21. The following are examples of preventive health services EXCEPT:
a. Family planning
b. Immunization
c. Pregnancy and infant care
d. Treatment of ailments
22. Select the appropriate combination of duties that could be performed by the Public Health
Nurse at the work place.
I. Assists in physical examination
II. Gives first aid management
III. Treats workers who are sick
IV. Visit employees at home
a. I, II and III
b. I, II and IV
c. I, III and IV
d. II, III and IV
23. The frequency of conduct of home visits to households are prioritized based on;
a. Availability of the nurse
b. Educational status of the family

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c. Economic status of the family
d. Needs of the family
24. Clients commonly nursed at home include;
I. The aged
II. Severed psychotic patient
III. HIV/AIDS patients
IV. Diabetes mellitus patients
a. I, II only
b. I, III only
c. I, III, IV only
d. I, II, III, IV
25. Which of the following items can be found in the inner compartment of the home visiting
bag?
a. Pen
b. Towel
c. Soap in a soap dish
d. Sterile gauze
26. Which of the listed activities serves the purpose of home visit?
I. Follow up discharged clients
II. Offering services to clients
III. Prescribing medication for clients
IV. Tracing of contacts of clients
a. I, II, III
b. I, II, IV
c. I, III, IV
d. II, III, IV
27. Which of the following are requirement to carry out routine home visit?
I. Area register
II. Small note book
III. Transport to site
IV. Well-equipped visiting bag
a. I, II, III
b. I, II, IV
c. I, III, IV
d. II, III, IV
28. The planning of care should involve;
a. Community
b. Family
c. Opinion leaders
d. Rural health midwife
29. Which of these are Challenges of home visits?
I. Disruption of invasive procedures
II. Physical attacks, sexual harassments
III. Snake bites, dog bites and falls
IV. Staff trekking long distance
a. I, II, III

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b. I, II, IV
c. I, III, IV
d. II, III, IV
30. What is the purpose of placing the home visit bag on top of a newspaper or paper lining?
a. To ensure continuity of care
b. To ensure completeness of the equipment
c. To rap used items and waste
d. To ensure that the bag will not be contaminated
31. Which of these are the techniques of home visiting?
I. Establish rapport
II. Asses family needs
III. Assist in solving family needs
IV. Ensure a well-equipped home visiting bag.
a. I, II and IV
b. II, III and IV
c. III and IV only
d. I, II and III
32. Reasons for nursing the sick in the home may include the following:
I. Decongest health care institution
II. Involve family members in the care
III. Prevent complication of illness
IV. Use available and familiar resources

A. I, II, III
B. I, II, IV
C. I, III, IV
D. II, III, IV Ans.………
33. The middle compartments of the home visiting bag include the following, EXCEPT ….
a. Dropper
b. Lotions
c. Medicine
d. Dressings
34. Which of these explains why home visiting is an essential component of the CHPS strategy?
a. Allow nurses to know clients home
b. Clients get support from family
c. Family is involved in care
d. Improves access of client to health services
35. During physical examination of a six months malnourished child, in the home, the skin will
be inspected for …..
a. Boils
b. Rashes
c. Spots
d. Turgor
36. In supervising a family with handicapped child, the public health nurse must:
I. Advise parent to send the child to a rehabilitation centre
II. Ensure that the child is kept indoors most of the time

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III. Give pieces of advice on management of the child
IV. Visit family frequently
A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and III
D. III and IV
37. In planning and preparing for home visit, which of the following preparations is NOT
necessary?
a. Collect the identity of client
b. Decide on the number of clients to visit
c. Inform the client before visiting
d. Set objective for the visit
38. Abrefi has worked with a cold store for 10 years now, she is likely to suffer from……..
a. Corns and callous
b. Frostbite
c. Numbness
d. Tinnitus
39. Occupational hazards to the nurse at the work place include the following EXCEPT;
a. Chemical toxicity
b. Exposure to radiations
c. Mechanical fumes
d. Sexual harassment
40. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of occupational health?
a. Early recognition of potential occupational disease
b. Easy recognition of hazard at the work place
c. Making the work place safe and healthy
d. Training the workers to develop their skills
41. Personal protection of the worker against exposure to occupational risk is to................
a. advise on the work environment
b. ensure collective bargaining
c. monitor daily schedule of workers
d. provide protective devices
42. Mr Johnson works at the sorting room of Ghana Textile Production Factory. Which of the
following personal protection equipment is he likely to use?
a. Ear plug
b. Goggles
c. Mask
d. Respirator
43. Benefits of occupational health include the following:
I. Easy recognition of hazard at the work place
II. Early recognition of potential occupational disease
III. Making the work place safe and healthy
IV. Training the workers to develop their skills to use machine
A. I, II, III
B. I, II, IV
C. I, III, IV

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D. II, II, IV
44. Personal protection of the worker against exposure to occupational risk is to:
A. Advise on the work environment
B. Ensure collective bargaining
C. Monitor daily schedule of workers
D. Provide protective devices

45. All the following are types of physical hazard except;


a. Noise.
b. Radiation.
c. Refraction.
d. Temperature.
46. Which of the following is a sign of contact dermatitis?
a. Darkening of the skin.
b. Flushing of the skin.
c. Numbness of the skin.
d. Redness of the skin.
47. Workers in Construction Company are high risk for which of the following medical
conditions?
I. Allergic diseases
II. Chest diseases
III. Malnutrition
IV. Traumatic injuries
a. I, II and IV
b. I, II and III
c. II, III and IV
d. I, III and IV
48. The restoration of individuals to their fullest physical, mental, social and vocational and
economic capacities is kwon as………………….
a. Reformation.
b. Rehabilitation.
c. Reinstatement.
d. Resentment.
49. Mr Appiah, an employee at the coca cola bottling company division has been diagnosed as
having tuberculosis just after 2years of employment. What type of examination was done on
him?
a. Health counselling
b. Periodic medical examination
c. Pre-placement examination
d. Terminal medical examination
50. A special plastic slender rod used by the visual impaired persons to guide their way is called
a ...........
a. baille.
b. calipers.
c. cane.
d. tricycles.

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51. Persons who work in areas with inadequate illumination are likely to suffer from which of
the following conditions?
a. Corneal ulcers
b. Lacrimation
c. Myopia
d. Squint
52. The occurrence of a sudden and increase number of cases of a disease above what is
normally expected in that population is referred to as ……………..
a. endemic
b. epidemic
c. pandemic
d. sporadic
53. To determine the possible source of sexually transmitted infections, which of these is the
BEST method that may be undertaken by the public health nurse?
a. Community survey
b. Contact tracing
c. Mass screening tests
d. Interview suspects
54. Which of these is a primary prevention intervention?
a. Breast self-examination
b. Home nursing
c. Keeping clients in hospice
d. Treatment of disease
55. What term is given to immunity that occurs when vaccination of the significant portion of a
population provides a measure of protection for individuals who have not had vaccination?
a. Acquired immunity
b. Cross immunity
c. Herd immunity
d. Radical immunity
56. Which of the following immunization produces a permanent scar?
a. Bacillus Calmette Guerin
b. Hepatitis B
c. Measles
d. Tetanus Diphtheria
57. Which term is given to the constant occurrence of a disease in an area?
a. Endemic
b. Epidemic
c. Pandemic
d. Sporadic
58. Quarantine is the means of restricting and observing contacts ……….
a. During the period of susceptibility
b. Throughout the incubation period
c. Till they recover from the diseases
d. Who show signs of the disease
59. The mode of transport of an infectious agent through the environment to a susceptible host is
called ………………

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a. Carrier
b. Reservoir
c. Vector
d. Vehicle
60. Incubation period is the interval between; …………………
a. Appearance of clinical symptoms and death
b. The time of the infection and death
c. Time of infection and appearance of antibodies
d. The time of infection and appearance of clinical symptoms
61. A fomite is defined as ……………..
a. Agent conducting aerosol
b. Blanket, door handle article on which agent resides
c. A vector between arthropod and susceptible host
d. Agent bearing substance that is eaten or drunk
62. Effective preventive strategies to reduce HIV transmission include; ……..
a. Consistence and correct use of condoms
b. Regular health education on abstinence
c. Incarceration of sexually promiscuous individual
d. Successful treatment of HIV-infected individuals
63. An effective surveillance system includes; ……………..
a. Ongoing data collection
b. Timely analysis
c. Rapid dissemination of results
d. Rapid investigations
64. The animal that serves as a reservoir for Ebola virus is called; …………..
a. Bat
b. Ferret
c. Guinea pig
d. Rabbit
65. Which level of health services have the greatest impact on population health?
a. Primary level
b. Secondary level
c. Tertiary level
d. Intermediary level
66. What is the required temperature(ºC) to maintain the potency of the vaccine?
a. O to +4
b. -1 to +7
c. +2 to +8
d. -2 to -8
67. What is the age (months) for the second dose of Measles-rubella
a. 3
b. 6
c. 9
d. 18
68. Which of these vaccines are given 3doses at one-month intervals?
a. DPT, BCG, TD

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b. DPT, TT, OPV
c. Measles, OPV, DPT
d. OPV, Hep.B, DPT
69. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of immunization?
a. Prevents deformities and disabilities in children
b. Promotes infant morbidity
c. Promotes health and well-being of individuals
d. Provides immunity and protection against specific diseases
70. The system of maintaining vaccines in their potent state from the manufacturer to the
community is called …………
a. chain distribution
b. cold box system
c. cold chain system
d. vaccine carrier system
71. Which of these vaccines should NOT be given to baby who tested positive for HIV
infection?
a. BCG
b. DPT
c. Hepatitis B
d. Rubella
72. Which of the following Personal Protective Equipment is REMOVED FIRST to ensure
infection prevention?
a. Gloves
b. Mask
c. Boots
d. Apron
73. Frequent hand washing before and after procedure is a measure to purposely …………
a. Eliminating the reservoir of all infections
b. Eliminate the pathway of transmission
c. Preventing the spread of infectious diseases
d. Protecting the susceptible host from spreading diseases
74. Which of the following Personal Protective Equipment is WORN LAST to ensure infection
prevention?
a. Apron
b. Boots
c. Gloves
d. Mask
75. A family is a group of people bonded by ……………
a. Adoption
b. Courtship
c. Friendship
d. Relationship
76. All these are types of family EXCEPT
a. Adaptive family
b. Blended family
c. Childless family

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d. Extended family
77. Inheritance by which the child succeeds the mother’s brother and not biological father is
called;
a. Conjugal inheritance
b. Matrilineal inheritance
c. Patrilineal inheritance
d. Orphan inheritance
78. Which of the following is not a surveillance function?
a. Detection
b. Investigation
c. Planning
d. Reporting
79. Which vitamin is given to a pregnant woman to prevent neural tube defect in their growing
foetus?
a. Folic acid
b. Niacin
c. Vitamin A
d. Vitamin B1
80. When a nurse immunizes a child against vaccine preventable disease, she is ………..
a. Eliminating the reservoir of infection
b. Interrupting pathway of transmission
c. Preventing the spread of infectious diseases
d. Protecting the susceptible host from disease
81. Which vaccine used in EPI is stored in the freezer?
a. DPT
b. Tetanus
c. Measles
d. Hepatitis B vaccine
82. In preventing Hepatitis A, you decide to conduct health education activities. Which of the
following is irrelevant?
a. Immediate report of water pipe leaks
b. Use of sterile needles and syringes
c. Proper disposal of human excreta and personal hygiene
d. Safe food preparation and food handling by venders
83. In vaccine management, when is it appropriate to discard a vaccine?
a. When the inner square matches the colour of the outer circle
b. When the vaccine has been opened at outreach vaccination
c. When the vaccine is one week to expire
d. When the vaccine has been stored at +1-degree Celsius
84. Which of these vaccines is most sensitive to heat?
a. BCG
b. Measles
c. Pentavalent
d. Tetanus Diphtheria
85. In the shake test experiment, which vial is labelled as control vial?
a. An entirely new sample with different batch number

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b. The sample deliberately frozen
c. The sample suspected to be frozen
d. The sample we are testing
86. A disease is said to be of public health importance if; ……...
a. It mostly affects the reproductive age group
b. The incident and prevalent rate are unknown
c. The mortality rate is high among the aged
d. There is no antigen to be given to individuals
87. The sudden attack of shivering accompanied by rapid rise of body temperature is known as ...
a. Crisis
b. Lysis
c. Rigor
d. Heat exhaustion
88. Brufen is an example of ........
a. Anti-hypertension
b. Antipyretic
c. NSAIDS
d. Oral hypoglycaemic
89. The total number of vitamin A doses given to a baby up to 4years of age is ....
a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. 10
90. The simplest and most effective technique of barrier nursing is
a. Disinfection
b. Handwashing
c. Sterilization
d. Use of PPEs
91. Ideally, baby weaning should start at the age of .....
a. 4months
b. 6months
c. 8months
d. 1year
92. What is the exchange of information between individuals of the same status or designation?
a. Downward communication
b. Horizontal communication
c. Non-verbal communication
d. Vertical communication
93. Which of these diseases is caused only by protein deficiency?
a. Beriberi
b. Kwashiorkor
c. Marasmus
d. Pellagra
94. The cheapest source of vitamin D can be obtained from?
a. Eggs
b. Fish

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c. Palm oil
d. Sunlight
95. The disease affecting a large proportion of population in a wide geographical area is known
as
a. Endemic
b. Epidemic
c. Pandemic
d. Sporadic
96. Koplik’s spot is a characteristic lesion of .....
a. Herpes
b. Measles
c. Rubella
d. Varicella
97. Which term is used for the number of people who died within a population?
a. Case Fatality
b. Fecundity
c. Morbidity
d. Mortality
98. Baby Akua weighs 2.5kg at birth, what will be her expected weight at 6months is all is well
with her diet?
a. 5.0kg
b. 6.5kg
c. 8.0kg
d. 8.5kg
99. Main determinants of health status of a person include;
a. Education
b. Income and social status
c. Physical environment
d. All of the above
100. Which of these refers to the work of health care professionals who act as a first point of
consultation for all patients within the health care system?
a. Emergency care
b. Primary care
c. Secondary care
d. Tertiary care
101. Which of these is example of tertiary health care?
a. Cardiac surgery
b. Caesarean section
c. Nutritional rehabilitation
d. Treatment of minor ailments
102. Which of these is example of life style disease?
a. Cancer
b. Chikungunya
c. Malaria
d. Typhoid fever
103. Which of these is example of communicable disease?

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a. Diabetes
b. Dengue
c. Heart attack
d. Pernicious anaemia
104. What are the four fluids that can transmit HIV?
a. Blood, semen, vaginal secretion and breast milk
b. Blood, semen, urine and saliva
c. Blood, semen, vaginal secretion and urine
d. Blood, semen, saliva and breast milk
105. The state of being diseased or unhealthy within a population means;
a. Fecundity
b. Fatality
c. Morbidity
d. Mortality
106. Which of these is the causative organism for Buruli Ulcer?
a. Mycobacterium buruli
b. Mycobacterium ulcerans
c. Treponema pallidum
d. Rhabdoviridae
107. The causative organism for Tetanus is called .......
a. Ascariasis
b. Clostridium tetani
c. Treponema pallidum
d. Mycobacteria ulcerans
108. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of occupational health?
a. Early recognition of potential occupational disease
b. Easy recognition of hazard at the work place
c. Making the work place safe and healthy
d. Training the workers to develop their skills
109. Personal protection of the worker against exposure to occupational risk is to................
a. advise on the work environment
b. provide protective devices
c. ensure collective bargaining
d. monitor daily schedule of workers
110. The role of Public Health Nurse includes....................
I. Focusing on wellness
II. Monitoring the quality of services
III. Providing free patient care
IV. Providing physical care
a. I, II and III
b. I, II and IV
c. II, III and IV
d. I, III and IV
111. Medical history is important in family planning screening to:
a. Choose a method for the client

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b. Ensure client is given a safe method
c. Ensure lesser side effects
d. Provide client’s choice of method
112. Family planning is said to be successful to a client when:
a. Client has lesser side effects
b. Client’s conception is delayed during its use
c. Her partner gives maximum support
d. Majority of the clients use the same method
113. Family planning services include which of the following?
I. Checking of vital measurements
II. Conducting physical, abdominal and pelvic examinations
III. Counselling of clients to make informed choices
IV. Making home visits
V. Provision of family planning methods
a. I, II, III and IV
b. I, II, III and V
c. II, III, IV and V
d. I, II, III, IV and V
114. After sounding the uterus, the midwife proceeds to insert the intrauterine device when the
uterus when the depth is between:
a. 4 to 10cm
b. 5 to 12cm
c. 6 to 10cm
d. 6 to 12cm
115. The provider instructs the client to ensure the IUD in place by asking her to:
a. Chart her menstrual cycle on a calendar
b. Check for the IUD strings after each menstrual cycle
c. Check for the IUD strings before the beginning of the menstrual cycle
d. Monitor her menstrual flow
116. When inserting the female condom, the woman can adopt the under listed positions
EXCEPT;
a. Lying down
b. Raising one foot
c. Squatting
d. Standing upright
117. The emergency contraceptive pills work by
I. Affecting egg function
II. Delaying ovulation
III. Disrupting pregnancy
IV. Inhibiting ovulation
a. I, II and III
b. I, II and IV
c. II, III and IV
d. I, II, III and IV
118. Adiza is breastfeeding a 3-month-old baby. Which of the following contraceptives is
NOT recommended for her?

15
a. Combined oral contraceptive pills
b. Intrauterine device
c. Implants
d. Progestin-only contraceptive pills
119. To prevent condom failure, the client must NOT use:
a. Condoms exposed to intense heat
b. New condoms
c. Oil-based lubricants
d. Gel-based lubricants
120. In using the natural family planning method of contraception, the woman should be
instructed to begin;
a. Day her menstrual period ends
b. Day of her ovulation
c. First day after her menstrual period ends
d. First day of her menstrual period
121. Which of the following is a chemical method of contraception?
a. Cervical cap
b. Diaphragm
c. Spermicide
d. Vaginal ring
122. Natural family planning can be practiced effectively if:
a. Couples abstain during the mid-cycle
b. Couples abstain from sex during menses
c. Couples use condom on ovulation periods
d. Husbands co-operate with their wives
123. Which of the following is the BEST contraceptive option for a sexually active adolescent
with multiple sexual partners?
a. Combined oral pill
b. Condom
c. Jadelle
d. Natural family planning
124. The copper IUD works by:
a. Causing chemical damage to the sperm
b. Disrupting pregnancy
c. Suppressing ovulation
d. Thickening the cervical mucous
125. Which of the following contraceptives offers dual protection?
a. Cervical caps
b. Condoms
c. Diaphragm
d. Spermicides
126. Which of the following BEST describe the Implanon?
a. One rod effective for three years
b. One rod effective for five years
c. Two rods effective for three years
d. Two rods effective for five years

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127. In a vasectomy, the …………. is ligated.
a. Epididymis
b. Seminal duct
c. Urethra
d. Vas deferens
128. Which of these organs are would be targeted for bilateral tubal ligation?
a. Fallopian tubes
b. Cervix
c. Ovaries
d. Uterus
129. In which of these cases will you approve the use of natural family planning method?
a. Amenorrhea
b. Breastfeeding
c. Irregular menses
d. Severe hypertension
130. Which of the following is not an advantage of the family planning to the child? It
A. Allows child limited time to breast-feed.
B. Enables the child to enjoy good education.
C. Prevents infant morbidity and mortality.
D. Prevents malnutrition in the child.

131. Identify which one of the following family planning method is not a hormonal.
A. Injectable.
B. Norplant.
C. Oral pills.
D. Spermicidal.

132. Which of the following is not a barrier method of family planning?


A. Condom.
B. Diaphragm.
C. Rhythm.
D. Spermicidal.
133. A client missed her oral pills for four continuous days. How would you counsel her?
a. Continue immediately with the old pills
b. Do pregnancy test and start new pills
c. Stop using old pill, use back up method and start new pill
d. Stop using old pill, use back up method start new pill after menstruation.
134. Which of these is a natural family planning method?
a. Basal Body temperature method
b. Tracing changes in cervical lining
c. Using Spermicide
d. Vasectomy
135. The first aid treatment for choking is
a. Give something to drink
b. Call for ambulance
c. Try to remove the object with your fingers

17
d. Give five sharp back blows between shoulder blades
136. Which of this is an immediate first aid treatment for dog bit?
a. Suture the wound
b. Cover wound with dressings
c. Apply antiseptic lotion
d. Wash site with soap and water for 15minutes
137. Notifiable diseases as per WHO are;
a. Plague, Yaws, Influenza
b. Cholera, Plague, Yellow fever
c. Polio, Tetanus, Typhoid, Hepatitis
d. Cholera, Polio, Influenza
138. A child has missed the third dose of the pentavalent vaccine by one month. What should
the parents do?
a. Administer the dose even though it is late
b. Skip the dose altogether
c. Wait for another two months before administering the missed dose
d. Repeat the first two doses, and then administer the third dose.
139. Tuberculosis accelerates the progression of which disease?
a. Leprosy
b. HIV
c. Rubella
d. Asthma
140. A vaccine administered to young girls to prevent cervical cancer is;
a. Tetanus diphtheria
b. Oral polio vaccine
c. Human papilloma virus vaccine
d. Hemophilus influenza type B
141. All these vaccines can be used against COVID-19 EXCEPT;
a. AstraZeneca
b. Afluria
c. BioNTech
d. Moderna
142. What is Palliative care?
a. Is an approach to quality of life of patients with terminal cancer
b. Is an approach to improve quality of life of patient and their family who are facing
life treatment illness
c. An approach to reduce mortality and morbidity among cancer patients
d. An approach to reduce cost of treating cancer
143. Which of these are attributed to cervical cancer illness
a. H. Pylori
b. Human papilloma virus
c. Human immune deficiency virus
d. Hepatitis B

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144. Which behavioural factor contributes to a person developing a ncommunicable disease?
a. Tobacco use
b. Harmful alcohol consumption
c. Physical inactivity
d. Sharing razors
145. Contributing factors for causation of cardiovascular disease are....
a. Genetic, Tobacco, Alcohol, and Physical inactivity
b. Genetic, Obesity, Congenital heart disease
c. Genetic, Alcohol, Air pollution, Diabetes
d. Water pollution, Obesity, Diabetes
146. In which communicable disease is the Acid-Fast Bacilli Test positive?
a. Diphtheria and tetanus
b. Tetanus and leprosy
c. Poliomyelitis and tetanus
d. Tuberculosis and leprosy
147. The mode of transmission of Leprosy is;
a. Droplet infections
b. Fecal oral route
c. Sexual contact
d. Air borne
148. Botulism is caused by;
a. Clostridium botulinum
b. Clostridium Tetani
c. Salmonellosis
d. Staphylococci
149. Rubella is also known as;
a. Tetanus
b. Whooping cough
c. German measles
d. Pertussis
150. SARS stands for;
a. Showing All Respiratory Symptoms
b. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome
c. Standard Acute Respiratory Syndrome
d. Sub-Acute respiratory Symptoms
151. Which of the following is a DNA virus?
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D
152. Antibiotics are used to treat infections by;
a. Algae
b. Bacteria
c. Fungi
d. Viruses

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153. The process of burning municipal waste under suitable temperature and condition furnace
is called;
a. Landfill
b. Incineration
c. Recycling
d. Tipping
154. What do male condoms offer those other forms of birth control do not?
a. Best protection against STIs
b. Cheapest to use
c. Least chance of failure
d. No need for prescription
155. Besides the condom, which among these birth control options is a barrier method?
a. Diaphragm
b. IUD
c. Withdrawal
d. Sterilization
156. Which of these is a possible side effect of birth control pills?
a. Nausea
b. Regular bleeding
c. Migraine
d. Infections
157. Which method of contraception is suitable for a client with diabetes?
a. IUD
b. Oral contraceptives
c. Diaphragm
d. Vaginal ring
158. How long can a diaphragm be place inside the vagina following intercourse?
a. 1hour
b. 3hours
c. 6hours
d. 24hours
159. How many calories does a lactating mother need?
a. 200
b. 300
c. 400
d. 500
160. One can tell if the baby is consuming enough breastmilk with all these signs EXCEPT
a. Baby’s stool is yellow and loose
b. Baby empties his bladder often
c. Baby steadily gains weight
d. Baby does not cry
161. Which of these contraceptives provides less effective protection against pregnancy?
a. Oral pills
b. Injectables
c. IUD
d. Spermicide

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