MCQ on Maharashtra Stamp Act 1958

1. The Maharashtra Stamp Act formal knows as –

A. Bombay Stamp Act
B. Mumbai Stamp Act
C. Somashtra Stamp Act
D. None of the above
Answer- A
2. The most recent amendment in the Maharashtra Stamp Act done in the year-
A. 2013
B. 2015
C. 208
D. None of the above
Answer: - B
3. How stamp duty is paid as per Schedule -I of Maharashtra Stamp Act?
A. By way of cash only
B. By demand-draft or pay-order only
C. By means of franking machine only
D. By none of the above method/means
Answer- D
4. The expression “Impressed Stamp” includes:
A. Labels affixed and impressed by the property officer
B. Stamps which are embossed or engraved on stamp paper
C. Impression by franking machine and/or any machine as the State Govt may specific
by notification by the official gazette
D. All the above
Answer- D
5. If on instrument chargeable with duty is executed outside Maharashtra, it must be
stamped within ___from the date it was first received in Maharashtra
A. One month
B. Two months
C. Three months
D. Immediately on the next day
Answer: - C
6. What is the penalty for not paying the requisite stamp duty is percentage _ per month of
the deficient portion of the stamp duty for every month or part there of from the date of
execution of instrument?
A. 1 %
B. 2%
C. 3%
D. Not applicable
 Answer- B
7. As per section 30 of the Bombay Stamp Act 1958, in case of resale of the flat, if nothing
is mentioned in the agreement, who shall pay the stamp duty?
A. Seller
B. Purchaser
C. Both share equally
D. Nobody is required to pay
Answer: B
8. Who is the appellant authority against the order passed by the collector of stamps
determining the chargeability f stamp duty?
A. District Magistrate under the jurisdiction whom the property follows
B. State Government
C. Chief Controlling Revenue Authority
D. None of the above
Answer C
9. Stamp duty is payable on
A. Transactions
B. Instrument
C. On both A and B
D. None of the above
Answer – B
10. The purpose of cancellation of stamp u/s 12 of Maharashtra Stamp Act 1958-
A. If not cancelled collector will put penalty
B. In order to treat the document as duly stamped and can be admitted as evidence in a
court of law.
C. If not cancelled the document is treated as unstamped instrument
D. Both B and C
Answer D
 THE MAHARASHTRA LAND REVENUE CODE 1966
1. Government lessee means a person holding land from Government under a lease as
provided by __________
a. Section 38
b. Section 45
c. Section 48
d. Section 83
Ans- a
2. The chief controlling authority in all matters connected with the land revenue in his
division shall vest in___________________, subject to the superintendence, direction
and control of the State Government.
a. Landlord
b. Lessor
c. Commissioner
d. Collector
Ans- c
3. Procedure, for conversion of use of land from one purpose to another is mentioned
under
a. Section 41
b. Section 42
c. Section 46
d. Section 44
Ans- d
4. If a person fails to give a receipt as required by Section 76, he shall on the application
of the prayer, be liabel by an order of the Collector, to pay a penalty not exceeding
__________________the amount paid
a. Same
b. Triple
c. Double
d. Five times
Ans- c.
5. As per Chapter VI provisions- A settlement shall remain in force for a period of
___________ years
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40
Ans- c
6. Whenever a Talathi makes an entry in the register of mutations, he shall at the same
time post up a complete copy of the entry in a conspicuous place in ______.
a. Plot
 b. Other village
c. Chavdi
d. None of Above
Ans- c

7. As per Section 149 of the code, Any person acquiring any land by any mode situated
in any part of the State, shall report orally or in writing his acquisition of such right to
the Talathi with _____________ months from the date of such acquisition.
a. Four
b. Two
c. Three
d. Five
Ans-c
8. The pardi Land means a cultivated land appertaining to houses within a _______ site
a. Construction
b. City
c. Town
d. Village
Ans- d
9. Maharashtra Revenue Tribunal is mentioned under which Chapter of this Code?
a. XIV
b. XV
c. X
d. IX
Ans- b
10. As per the Section 313 of MLRC 1966, The Headquarters of the Tribunal shall be in
_____________
a. Brihan Mumbai
b. Near Village
c. In centre of Town
d. None of Above
Ans- a
MCQ on Registration Act 1908 (Registration, Maharashtra Amendment, Act 2010)
1) The main object and purpose of The Registration Act is _________
a) To provide authentic information about the status of particular property and the
legal right & obligations affecting to it.
b) To prevent fraud with respect to transfer of property.
c) Only (a)
d) Both (a) & (b).

Ans- (d)

2) Documents for which registration is compulsory is envisaged under section________ of

Registration Act.
a) Section 17 (2)
b) Section 17(1)
c) Section 18 (1)
d) Section 19

Ans- (b)

3) Registration of following documents is compulsory as per Registration Act

a) Gift Deed of Immoveable Property
b) Agreement related to Deposit of title deed for security of repayment of loan.
c) Only (a)
d) Both (a) & (b)
Ans- (d)

4) Registration of Lease Deed of immovable property is compulsory if it is formed _______

a) Year to year
b) Any term less than one year
c) It reserves monthly rent.
d) Non of above

Ans- (a)

5) Raman executed the equitable mortgage deed with ABC Bank as per due process under
section 17(1) of Registration Act. Thereafter Raman signed subsequent document for
acknowledging liability. Does the subsequent document require registration?
a) Yes
b) No
c) It is optional
d) Registration is compulsory within four months.

Ans- (b)
6) Following documents do not require registration under section 17(2) of Registration Act.
a) Instrument of Partition made by Revenue Officer
b) Gift deed
c) Endorsement on Mortgage Deed
d) Both (a) & (c)

Ans- (d)

7) If document is not presented for registration within prescribed period of four months
even if there was an urgent necessity or unavoidable accident then
a) Registrar will not allow registration on account of unjustified reason for delay
b) Registrar may allow on payment of fine if delay does not exceed four months
c) Only (b)
d) Both (a) & (b)

Ans- (d)

8) What is effect or legal consequence on non registration of documents required under

section 17 of Registration Act?
a) Such document neither affect any immoveable property nor confer any power to
adopt if such document is power to adopt.
b) Such documents cannot be received as evidence of any transaction except
evidence of any collateral transaction not effected by registration of documents
c) Such documents cannot be received as evidence of any transaction except as
evidence of a contract in suit for specific performance under chapter II of Specific
Relief Act 1877.
All of above. Ans- (d)

MCQ on The Land Acquisition Act 2013.

1) Considering the food safety of India, which state is correct from the flowing
a) Multi-cropped land cannot be acquired.
b) Multi-cropped land can be acquired in normal course.
c) Multi-cropped land can be acquired only as demonstrable last resort measures.
 d) All above

Ans- (c)

2) Which schedule of The Land Acquisition Act 2013 envisage the list of 25 infrastructure
amenities to be provided in the settlement area?
a) First Schedule
b) Second Schedule
c) Third Schedule
d) Non of above
Ans- (c)

3) When land is acquired for private companies and for public-private partnership projects,
then the prior consent of at least ______ and _______ respectively of affected families is
required to be obtained.
a) 70% and 80%
b) 80% and 70 %
c) 80% and 50%
d) 50% and 80%
Ans- (b)

4) Appropriate Government must ensure that the Social Impact Assessment study is
completed before _____ months from the date of its commencement.
a) 3 Months
b) 6 Months
c) 9 Months
d) 12 Months
Ans- (b)

5) The preliminary Notification for acquisition of land shall be issued within _____ months
from the date of submission of SIA report by the Expert Group Subject to extension of
time by the appropriate Government if it opined so.
a) 3 Months
b) 6 Months
c) 12 Months
d) 18 Months

Ans- (c)

6) The State Government must appoint “The Commissioner for Rehabilitation and
Resettlement” having rank not below the rank of _______
a) Commissioner or Secretary of the Government
b) Secretary
 c) Collector
d) All of above

Ans- (a)

7) Rehabilitation and Resettlement Committee is constituted u/s 45 of Land Acquisition Act

2013 only when the land proposed to be acquired is ________
a) 100 Acre or more
b) Less than 100 Acre
c) 500 Acre or more
d) More than one hector

Ans- (a)

8) As per Land Acquisition Act 2013, the Award is passed by _____ in Land Acquisition
cases.
a) The Commissioner for Rehabilitation and Resettlement
b) Rehabilitation and Resettlement Committee
c) The Collector
d) Tahsildar

Ans- (c)

9) Collector can procure the temporary occupation of waste and arable land for public
purpose for period not more than _______ from the date of such occupation.
a) One year
b) Two years
c) Three years
d) Five Years

Ans- (c)

10) As per the Land Acquisition Act 2013, any person giving false and misleading
information is liable to be punished with_________
a) Imprisonment up to one year or fine upto Rs. 2 lakh or both
b) Imprisonment up to Six Months or fine upto Rs.1 lakh or both
c) Imprisonment up to one year or fine upto Rs.5 lakh or both
d) Imprisonment up to Six Months or fine upto Rs.2 lakh or both
Ans- (b)
 THE ENVIRONMENT ACT 1986 MCQ
1. The CRZ Notification dated __________________ is applicable to the coastal
stretches of India
a. 6/01/2011
b. 05/05/2005
c. 09/8/1991
d. 31/01/1996
Ans- a
2. The High Tide line means the line on the land upto which the ____________ water
line reaches during the spring tide.
a. Highest
b. Lowest
c. Both a and b
d. None of Above
Ans- a
3. Under the CRZ Notification , how many activities are prohibited in the CRZ
a. 11
b. 12
c. 26
d. 14
Ans- d
4. Under the CRZ Notification, how many types of activities require clearance from the
Ministry of Environment and Forests-
a. Nine
b. Ten
c. Seven
d. None of Above
Ans- a
5. CRZ-1 comprise of
a. Mangroves
b. Corals and Coral reefs
c. Sand dunes
d. All of Above
Ans- d
6. Full form of NDZ is
a. No Destruction Zone
b. No Demolition Zone
c. Non Departmental Zone
d. No Development Zone.
Ans- d
 7. In CRZ-IV, the water area from the Low Tide line upto ____ nautical miles on the
seaward side;
a. 10
b. 12
c. 14
d. 100
Ans- b
8. The expression “tidal influenced water bodies” refers to
a. Rivers
b. Creeks
c. Lagoon
d. All of above
Ans- d

9. Land area between the HTL and Low tide line also known as____________
a. Intertidal zone
b. Intermedial line
c. Inter Line
d. Semi Line
Ans -a

MAL & MHADA & MRTP & DC Regulation

1. As per the MRTP Act, 1966 What is included in the term “Development”?
a) Building
b) Hut
c) Digging
d) Tent Ans A
2. Which section of the MRTP Act, 1966 covers the concept of Acquisition of Land?
a) Section 115
b) Section 125
c) Section 135
d) Section 145 Ans B
3. As per the MHADA Act, 1976 what includes in the term “Amenity”?
a) Supply of water
b) supply of grains
c) Drainage
d) Pipelines Ans A
4. Who can collect cess against property as per the MHADA Act 1976?
a) The Administrative Office
b) The Gram Panchayat
c) The Municipal Corporation
d) Lok Adalat Ans C
5. What is the Full Form of FSI?
a) Floor Size Indicator
b) Floor Space Indicator
c) Floor Space Index
d)Floor Space Indicator Ans C
6. What is the Formula of FSI?
a) Total plot area divided by total area on all floors
b) Total No. of floors divided by total area on all floors
c)Total area on all floors divided by total plot area
d) Total area on all floors divided by no. of floors Ans C
7.What is the full form of TDR?
a) Transfer of Development Rights
b) Transfer of Developing Rights
c) Transmission of Development Rights
d) Transmission of Developing Rights Ans A
8. As per the Maharashtra Agricultural land (Ceiling on Holdings) Act, 1961 what includes in
the term “Agriculture”?
a) Horticulture
b) Supply of grain
c) Tilling of municipal area
d) Construction Ans A
9. Article 31 of the Constitution provided that any State acquisition of property must only be
a) upon enactment of a valid law
b) for a public purpose
c) upon payment of compensation
d) all the above Ans D
10. 9) Today, Right to property in India is
a) Fundamental Right
b) Constitutional Right
c) Legal Right
d) Human Right Ans C
11) Salus Populi est Supreme lex means
a) Supreme Court laws are better
b) People should pay great respect to welfare law
c) Regard for the public welfare is the highest law
d) Supreme law should be popular Ans C
12) When a dispute arises concerning the boundaries of a village, a survey number or
subdivision of a survey number _____ decides the disputes by holding formal inquiry a) The
Collector
b) The Tahsildar
c) The Talathi
d) The Survey Officer Ans A
13) In _______ the High Court held that under section 50 of Maharashtra Land Revenue
Code, the Collector is empowered to abate or remove any encroachment made on any land /
property vested in State Government.
a) State of Bombay v. Fakir Umar
b) Babamiya Ahmed Shah v. Tahsildar, Beed
c) Yashwant Kulkarni v. State of Maharashtra
d) Popat Moti Rathod v. State of Maharashtra Ans B
14) The Supreme Court in ______ held that illegal encroachment on Gram Panchayat land
cannot be regularized.
a) Popat Moti Rathod v. State of Maharashtra
b) Jagpal Singh & others v. State of Punjab & others
c) State of Bombay v. Fakir Umar
d) Hinchal Tiwari v. Kamal Devi Ans B
15) The Collector has power to give permission
a) to convert the use of agricultural land for any non-agricultural purpose
b) to the change the use of land from one non-agricultural purpose to another non-agricultural
purpose
c) both (a) & (b) Ans C
16. As per Section 44A of MLR Code, No permission required for...................use of land.
a. Industrial
b. Stone quarry
c. Bona Fide Industrial
d. Mining Ans C
17.The term Cess is defined to mean a tax on ------------------ levied or leviable under chapter
viii of the MHADA, 1976
a. a road or a bridge
b. drainage and sewage facility
c. none of the above
d. lands and buildings Ans D
18.Under whose superintendence, direction and control, is the Mumbai Repairs &
Reconstruction Board are to exercise its powers
a. national monitoring committee
b. state monitoring committee
c. The Maharashtra Housing & Development Authority
d. All of the above Ans C
19. prior written permission is required from the commissioner for development or
redevelopment of the heritage building and precincts in consultation with or advice of
a. Regularising Committee
b. Pre-development Committee
c. Heritage Conservation Committee
d. none of the above Ans C
20. A “landless person” means a person who does not hold any land or who holds land for the
purpose of agriculture not in excess of
a. one hectare of irrigated land
b. one hectare of dry crop land
c. one hectare of agricultural land
d. one hectare of exempted land Ans B
21. S.47 of The Maharashtra Agricultural Lands (ceiling on holdings) Act, 1961 provides
certain exemptions to land to which the provisions of this act do not apply
a. eight categories of land exempted both by the Central Government & State Government
and other Authorities
b. five categories of land exempted by the State Government
c. Both a & b
MCQ ON MRTP ACT, 1966
1. M.R.T.P. Act was passed/introduced to address following deficiencies in Bombay Town
Planning 1954
a. Under 1954 Act, development was possible only within the area of locak authorities
b. The 1954 Act did not contain any provision for creation of new towns.
c. The provisions of 1954 Act were inadequate to control the development of land in
Maharashtra.
d. All of above.
Ans- D
2. Choose wrong Statement
Objective of the MRTP ACT 1966
a. For planning development in regions
b. To provide creation of new towns by means of development
c. To make provision of compulsory acquisition of land required for public purpose in
respect to plans.
d. None of Above
Ans- D
3. In which of the S.C. Case it was held that “ The MRTP ACT, 1966 is intend to make
provisions for planning the development and use of land and to ensure that town planning
scheme are made in a proper manner and their execution is made effective “.
a. GTL Infrastructure Ltd Vs Dhule Municipal Corporation, 2012
b. Dadaravanti CHS Ltd vs MCGM, 1997
c. Bharti Tele-Ventures vs State of Maharashtra, 2007
d. MCGM Vs Hakimwadi Tenants Association, 1988
Ans- B
4. As per Section 2(7) of MRTP ACT, development includes
a. Demolition of any existing building
b. Sub-division of Land
c. Carring out of building, engineering, miming or other operations in or over or under
land or the making of any material changes in any building or land or in the use of any
building or land or any material or structural change in any heritage building or its
precinct.
d. All of Above
Ans- D
5. As per Section 2 (13A) of MRTP Act, FSI means-
a. Total Carpet area of building Divide by Total Area of Plot
b. Total built up area on all floors of building divide by Total area of plot
c. Total built up area on all floors of building divide by Total Carpet area of Building
d. Total Carpet area of building divide by Total Built up area of Building
 Ans- B
6. In which of the following case written permission of planning authority is not required u/s
43 to 52 of MRTP Act, 1966
a. To carry out architectural & structural changes in the building.
b. To carry out “tenantable repairs” of the structure
c. Both a and b above
d. None of above
Ans- B
7. Which of these sections of MRTP Act, 1966 deals with “DEEMED SANCTION”
a. Section 44
b. Section 45
c. Section 43
d. Section 48
Ans- B
8. Under which section of MRTP Act 1966, the Planning Authority serve a Notice on the
owner for unauthorised development
a. Section 53
b. Section 54
c. Section 55
d. None of above
Ans- A
9. Which of the following section of MRTP ACT 1966 deals with power of planning
Authority to remove authorised development or use-
a. Section 53
b. Section 54
c. Section 56
d. Section 57
Ans- c
10. What is a time period of notice served by the owner of land on the planning authority
within such period if planning authority do moy acquire a land or no steps for acquisition
are commences then the reservation, allotment, or designation is deemed to have lapse
and the land become available to the owner u/s 127 of MRTP ACT 1966
a. 6 months
b. 12 months
c. 18 months
d. 24 months
Ans- B

MCQ ON DCR 1991

1. Which of the Regulation of DCR 1991 defines FSI
a. 2(40)
b. 2(41)
c. 2(42)
d. 2(43)
Ans- c
2. Regulation 33 of DCR 1991 deals with
a. Maximum permissible FSI laid down in tabular form
 b. Additional FSI in certain circumstances
c. Both a and b
d. Only a
Ans- B
3. TDR is made available to the owner in form of
a. TDR Certificate
b. Development permission
c. Development rights certificate
d. None of above
Ans- c
4. The purpose of TDR is
a. To shift building activities from intensively developed part of city to moderately
or sparsely developed part.
b. To provide additional FSI over above permissible FSI
c. Both a and b
d. Only b
Ans-
5. As per Appendix VII of DCR, 1991, DRC cannot be used in following areas
a. Where permissible FSI is less than 1.0
b. Coastal Areas in the NDZ
c. Areas in Tourism Development Zone
d. All of above
Ans- D
6. Which regulation of DCR 1991 deals with Heritage building and precincts
a. Reg.60
b. Reg.62
c. Reg.65
d. Reg.67
Ans- D
7. As per DCR, 1991, Commissioner must act in consultation with or in advice of which
committee for granting permission as regards to Heritage Building, Precincts :
a. Heritage Awareness Committee
b. Heritage Protection Committtee
c. Heritage Conservation Committee
d. None of Above
Ans- C
8. As per DC Reg 1991, Grade- I classification of Heritage Building and precincts
comprises of building and precincts:
a. Having national or historical importance
b. Regional or local importance only
c. Important for the townscape only
d. None of above
Ans- a
9. In case of Grade-II classification of any building, following things may be allowed
subject to strict scrutiny to maintain existing harmony of heritage building or precinct
a. Internal changes
b. Adaptive re-use
c. External changes
d. All of above
Ans- D
10. DRC can be used
a. On any plot in same ward where it is originated
b. On any plot lying to the north side of the plot in which they are originated
c. Both a and b
d. None of above
Ans- C