Prometric QR7 2

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One hour Prometric Test Instructor: Mr.

Jannen

First name: ……………………………………………

Last name: ……………………………………………

I.D number: ………………………………………….

Level:

1. Following surgery, Mario complains of mild incisional pain while performing deep-
breathing and coughing exercises. The nurse’s best response would be:

A. “Pain will become less each day.”


B. “This is a normal reaction after surgery.”
C. “With a pillow, apply pressure against the incision.”
D. “I will give you the pain medication the physician ordered.”

2. The nurse needs to carefully assess the complaint of pain of the elderly because older
people

A. are expected to experience chronic pain


B. have a decreased pain threshold
C. experience reduced sensory perception
D. have altered mental function

3. Mary received AtropineSO4 as a pre-medication 30 minutes ago and is now


complaining of dry mouth and her PR is higher, than before the medication was
administered. The nurse’s best

A. The patient is having an allergic reaction to the drug.


B. The patient needs a higher dose of this drug
C. This is normal side-effect of AtSO4
D. The patient is anxious about upcoming surgery
4. Ana’s postoperative vital signs are a blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg, a pulse of 140,
and respirations of 32. Suspecting shock, which of the following orders would the nurse
question?

A.Put the client in modified Trendelenberg’s position.


B. Administer oxygen at 100%.
C. Monitor urine output every hour.
D. Administer Demerol 50mg IM q4h

5. Mr. Pablo, diagnosed with Bladder Cancer, is scheduled for a cystectomy with the
creation of an ileal conduit in the morning. He is wringing his hands and pacing the
floor when the nurse enters his room. What is the best approach?

A. "Good evening, Mr. Pablo. Wasn’t it a pleasant day, today?"


B. "Mr, Pablo, you must be so worried, I’ll leave you alone with your thoughts.
C. “Mr. Pablo, you’ll wear out the hospital floors and yourself at this rate."
D. "Mr. Pablo, you appear anxious to me. How are you feeling about tomorrow’s surgery?"

6. An agitated, confused female client arrives in the emergency department. Her history
includes type 1 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and angina pectoris. Assessment reveals
pallor, diaphoresis, headache, and intense hunger. A stat blood glucose sample measures
42 mg/dl, and the client is treated for an acute hypoglycemic reaction. After recovery,
nurse Lily teaches the client to treat hypoglycemia by ingesting:

a. 2 to 5 g of a simple carbohydrate.
b. 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate.
c. 18 to 20 g of a simple carbohydrate.
d. 25 to 30 g of a simple carbohydrate.

7. A female adult client with a history of chronic hyperparathyroidism admits to being


noncompliant. Based on initial assessment findings, nurse Julia formulates the nursing
diagnosis of Risk for injury. To complete the nursing diagnosis statement for this client,
which “related-to” phrase should the nurse add?

a. Related to bone demineralization resulting in pathologic fractures


b. Related to exhaustion secondary to an accelerated metabolic rate
c. Related to edema and dry skin secondary to fluid infiltration into the interstitial spaces
d. Related to tetany secondary to a decreased serum calcium level

8. Nurse John is assigned to care for a postoperative male client who has diabetes
mellitus. During the assessment interview, the client reports that he’s impotent and says
he’s concerned about its effect on his marriage. In planning this client’s care, the most
appropriate intervention would be to:
a. Encourage the client to ask questions about personal sexuality.
b. Provide time for privacy.
c. Provide support for the spouse or significant other.
d. Suggest referral to a sex counselor or other appropriate professional.

9. During a class on exercise for diabetic clients, a female client asks the nurse educator
how often to exercise. The nurse educator advises the clients to exercise how often to
meet the goals of planned exercise?

a. At least once a week


b. At least three times a week
c. At least five times a week
d. Every day

10. Nurse Oliver should expect a client with hypothyroidism to report which health
concerns?

a. Increased appetite and weight loss


b. Puffiness of the face and hands
c. Nervousness and tremors
d. Thyroid gland swelling
11. Nurse Berlinda is assigned to a 41-year-old client who has a diagnosis of chronic
pancreatitis. The nurse reviews the laboratory result, anticipating a laboratory report
that indicates a serum amylase level of:

a. 45 units/L
b. 100 units/L
c. 300 units/L
d. 500 units/L

12. A male client who is recovering from surgery has been advanced from a clear liquid
diet to a full liquid diet. The client is looking forward to the diet change because he has
been “bored” with the clear liquid diet. The nurse would offer which full liquid item to
the client?

a. Tea
b. Gelatin
c. Custard
d. Popsicle

13. Nurse Juvy is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. To minimize the effects of
the disorder, the nurse teaches the client about foods that are high in thiamine. The
nurse determines that the client has the best understanding of the dietary measures to
follow if the client states an intension to increase the intake of:

a. Pork
b. Milk
c. Chicken
d. Broccoli

14. Nurse Oliver checks for residual before administering a bolus tube feeding to a client
with a nasogastric tube and obtains a residual amount of 150 mL. What is appropriate
action for the nurse to take?

a. Hold the feeding


b. Reinstill the amount and continue with administering the feeding
c. Elevate the client’s head at least 45 degrees and administer the feeding
d. Discard the residual amount and proceed with administering the feeding

15. A nurse is inserting a nasogastrictube in an adult male client. During the procedure,
the client begins to cough and has difficulty breathing. Which of the following is the
appropriate nursing action?

a. Quickly insert the tube


b. Notify the physician immediately
c. Remove the tube and reinsert when the respiratory distress subsides
d. Pull back on the tube and wait until the respiratory distress subsides
16. When planning care for a male client with burns on the upper torso, which nursing
diagnosis should take the highest priority?

a. Ineffective airway clearance related to edema of the respiratory passages


b. Impaired physical mobility related to the disease process
c. Disturbed sleep pattern related to facility environment
d. Risk for infection related to breaks in the skin

17. In a female client with burns on the legs, which nursing intervention helps prevent
contractures?

a. Applying knee splints


b. Elevating the foot of the bed
c. Hyperextending the client’s palms
d. Performing shoulder range-of-motion exercises

18. A male client comes to the physician’s office for treatment of severe sunburn. The
nurse takes this opportunity to discuss the importance of protecting the skin from the
sun’s damaging rays. Which instruction would best prevent skin damage?

a. “Minimize sun exposure from 1 to 4 p.m. when the sun is strongest.”


b. “Use a sunscreen with a sun protection factor of 6 or higher.”
c. “Apply sunscreen even on overcast days.”
d. “When at the beach, sit in the shade to prevent sunburn.”

19. A female client is brought to the emergency department with second- and third-
degree burns on the left arm, left anterior leg, and anterior trunk. Using the Rule of
Nines, what is the total body surface area that has been burned?

a. 18%
b. 27%
c. 30%
d. 36%

20. Which nursing intervention can help a client maintain healthy skin?

a. Keep the client well hydrated.


b. Avoid bathing the client with mild soap.
c. Remove adhesive tape quickly from the skin.
d. Recommend wearing tight-fitting clothes in hot weather.
21. If a male client experienced a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) that damaged the
hypothalamus, the nurse would anticipate that the client has problems with:

a. body temperature control.


b. balance and equilibrium.
c. visual acuity.
d. thinking and reasoning.

22. A female client admitted to an acute care facility after a car accident develops signs
and symptoms of increased intracranial pressure (ICP). The client is intubated and
placed on mechanical ventilation to help reduce ICP. To prevent a further rise in ICP
caused by suctioning, the nurse anticipates administering which drug endotracheally
before suctioning?

a. phenytoin (Dilantin)
b. mannitol (Osmitrol)
c. lidocaine (Xylocaine)
d. furosemide (Lasix)

23. After striking his head on a tree while falling from a ladder, a young man age 18 is
admitted to the emergency department. He’s unconscious and his pupils are
nonreactive. Which intervention would be the most dangerous for the client?

a. Give him a barbiturate.


b. Place him on mechanical ventilation.
c. Perform a lumbar puncture.
d. Elevate the head of his bed.

24. When obtaining the health history from a male client with retinal detachment, the
nurse expects the client to report:

a. light flashes and floaters in front of the eye.


b. a recent driving accident while changing lanes.
c. headaches, nausea, and redness of the eyes.
d. frequent episodes of double vision.

25. Which nursing diagnosis takes highest priority for a client with Parkinson’s crisis?

a. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements


b. Ineffective airway clearance
c. Impaired urinary elimination
d. Risk for injury
26. The nurse is caring for a male client with a chest tube. If the chest drainage system is
accidentally disconnected, what should the nurse plan to do?

a. Place the end of the chest tube in a container of sterile saline.


b. Apply an occlusive dressing and notify the physician.
c. Clamp the chest tube immediately.
d. Secure the chest tube with tape.

27. A male elderly client is admitted to an acute care facility with influenza. The nurse
monitors the client closely for complications. What is the most common complication of
influenza?

a. Septicemia
b. Pneumonia
c. Meningitis
d. Pulmonary edema

28. A female client has a tracheostomy but doesn’t require continuous mechanical
ventilation. When weaning the client from the tracheostomy tube, the nurse initially
should plug the opening in the tube for:
a. 15 to 60 seconds.
b. 5 to 20 minutes.
c. 30 to 40 minutes.
d. 45 to 60 minutes.

29. Gina, a home health nurse is visiting a home care client with advanced lung cancer.
Upon assessing the client, the nurse discovers wheezing, bradycardia, and a respiratory
rate of 10 breaths/minute. These signs are associated with which condition?

a. Hypoxia
b. Delirium
c. Hyperventilation
d. Semiconsciousness

30. A male client with Guillain-Barré syndrome develops respiratory acidosis as a result
of reduced alveolar ventilation. Which combination of arterial blood gas (ABG) values
confirms respiratory acidosis?
a. pH, 5.0; PaCO2 30 mm Hg
b. pH, 7.40; PaCO2 35 mm Hg
c. pH, 7.35; PaCO2 40 mm Hg
d. pH, 7.25; PaCO2 50 mm Hg
31. A male client who takes theophylline for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is
seen in the urgent care center for respiratory distress. Once the client is stabilized, the
nurse begins discharge teaching. The nurse would be especially vigilant to include
information about complying with medication therapy if the client’s baseline
theophylline level was:

a. 10 mcg/mL
b. 12 mcg/mL
c. 15 mcg/mL
d. 18mcg/mL

32. Nurse Kim is caring for a client with a pneumothorax and who has had a chest tube
inserted notes continuous gentle bubbling in the suction control chamber. What action is
appropriate?

a. Do nothing, because this is an expected finding.


b. Immediately clamp the chest tube and notify the physician.
c. Check for an air leak because the bubbling should be intermittent.
d. Increase the suction pressure so that bubbling becomes vigorous.

33. A nurse has assisted a physician with the insertion of a chest tube. The nurse
monitors the adult client and notes fluctuation of the fluid level in the water seal
chamber after the tube is inserted. Based on this assessment, which action would be
appropriate?

a. Inform the physician.


b. Continue to monitor the client.
c. Reinforce the occlusive dressing.
d. Encourage the client to deep-breathe.

34. The nurse caring for a male client with a chest tube turns the client to the side, and
the chest tube accidentally disconnects. The initial nursing action is to:

a. Call the physician.


b. Place the tube in a bottle of sterile water.
c. Immediately replace the chest tube system.
d. Place the sterile dressing over the disconnection site.

35. Nurse Paul is assisting a physician with the removal of a chest tube. The nurse
should instruct the client to:

a. Exhale slowly.
b. Stay very still.
c. Inhale and exhale quickly.
d. Perform the Valsalva maneuver.

36. Mental health is defined as:

a. The ability to distinguish what is real from what is not.


b. A state of well-being where a person can realize his own abilities can cope with normal
stresses of life and work productively.
c. Is the promotion of mental health, prevention of mental disorders, nursing care of patients
during illness and rehabilitation
d. Absence of mental illness

37. Which of the following describes the role of a technician?

a. Administers medications to a schizophrenic patient.


b. The nurse feeds and bathes a catatonic client
c. Coordinates diverse aspects of care rendered to the patient
d. Disseminates information about alcohol and its effects.

38. Liza says, “Give me 10 minutes to recall the name of our college professor who failed
many students in our anatomy class.” She is operating on her:

a. Subconscious
b. Conscious
c. Unconscious
d. Ego

39. The superego is that part of the psyche that:

a. Uses defensive function for protection.


b. Is impulsive and without morals.
c. Determines the circumstances before making decisions.
d. The censoring portion of the mind.

40. Primary level of prevention is exemplified by:

a. Helping the client resume self care.


b. Ensuring the safety of a suicidal client in the institution.
c. Teaching the client stress management techniques
d. Case finding and surveillance in the community

41. A nurse is reviewing a patient’s medication during shift change. Which of the
following medication would be contraindicated if the patient were pregnant? Note:
More than one answer may be correct.

A: Coumadin
B: Celebrex
C: Catapress
D: Habitrol

42. A nurse is reviewing a patient’s PMH. The history indicates photosensitive reactions
to medications. Which of the following drugs has not been associated with photosensitive
reactions? Note: More than one answer may be correct.

A: Cipro

B: Sulfonamide
C: Noroxin
D: Nitrodur

43. A patient tells you that her urine is starting to look discolored. If you believe this
change is due to medication, which of the following patient’s medication does not cause
urine discoloration?
A: Sulfasalazine

B: Levodopa
C: Phenolphthalein
D: Aspirin

44. You are responsible for reviewing the nursing unit’s refrigerator. If you found the
following drug in the refrigerator it should be removed from the refrigerator’s contents?

A: Corgard

B: Humulin (injection)
C: Urokinase
D: Epogen (injection)

45. A 34 year old female has recently been diagnosed with an autoimmune disease. She
has also recently discovered that she is pregnant. Which of the following is the only
immunoglobulin that will provide protection to the fetus in the womb?

A: IgA

B: IgD
C: IgE
D: IgG

46. The client presents to the clinic with a serum cholesterol of 275mg/dL and is placed
on rosuvastatin (Crestor). Which instruction should be given to the client?

a. Report muscle weakness to the physician.


b. Allow six months for the drug to take effect.
c. Take the medication with fruit juice.
d. Ask the doctor to perform a complete blood count before starting the medication.

47. The client is admitted to the hospital with hypertensive crises. Diazoxide (Hyperstat)
is ordered. During administration, the nurse should:

a. Utilize an infusion pump


b. Check the blood glucose level
c. Place the client in Trendelenburg position
d. Cover the solution with foil

48. The 6-month-old client with a ventral septal defect is receiving Digitalis for
regulation of his heart rate. Which finding should be reported to the doctor?
a. Blood pressure of 126/80
b. Blood glucose of 110mg/dL
c. Heart rate of 60bpm
d. Respiratory rate of 30 per minute

49. The client admitted with angina is given a prescription for nitroglycerine. The client
should be instructed to:

a. Replenish his supply every 3 months


b. Take one every 15 minutes if pain occurs
c. Leave the medication in the brown bottle
d. Crush the medication and take with water

50. The client is instructed regarding foods that are low in fat and cholesterol. Which
diet selection is lowest in saturated fats?

a. Macaroni and cheese


b. Shrimp with rice
c. Turkey breast
d. Spaghetti

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