00POF All

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1. The units of wing loading &I& W / S and &II& dynamic pressure q are:
A) &I& N / m?, &II& N / m?.
B) &I& N / m, &II& kg.
C) &I& kg / m, &II& N / m?.
D) &I& N / m?, &II& kg / m?.
2. Which formula or equation describes the relationship between force &F&,

acceleration &a& and mass &m&?
A) F = m / a
B) m = F & a
C) a = F & m
D) F = m & a
3. Static pressure acts:

A) only in the direction of the total pressure.
B) in all directions.
C) only perpendicular to the direction of the flow.
D) only in the direction of the flow.
4. If in a two&dimensional incompressible and subsonic flow, the streamlines

converge the static pressure in the flow will:
A) not change.
B) decrease.
C) increase initially, then decrease.
D) increase.
5. “Bernoulli’s equation can be written as:&pt = total pressure, ps = static

pressure and q = dynamic pressure&”
A) pt = q & ps
B) pt = ps & q
C) pt = ps / q
D) pt = ps + q
6. The SI unit of measurement for density is:

A) kg/cm?.
B) kg/m?.
C) psi.
D) bar.
7. “Total pressure is:&rho = density&”

A) static pressure minus dynamic pressure.
B) measured at a small hole in a surface, parallel to the local stream.
C) static pressure plus dynamic pressure.
D) ? rho V?.
8. The &subsonic& static pressure:

A) is the pressure in a point at which the velocity has become zero.
B) decreases in a flow in a tube when the diameter decreases.
C) is the total pressure plus the dynamic pressure.
D) increases in a flow in a tube when the diameter decreases.
9. “Assuming subsonic incompressible flow, how will air density change as air
flows through a tube of increasing cross&sectional area? The air density:”
A) increases with increasing cross&sectional area.
B) decreases with increasing cross&sectional area.
C) does not vary.
D) depends upon the shape of the tube alone and not its cross&sectional area.
10. “Bernoulli’s equation can be written as:&pt = total pressure, ps = static

pressure, q = dynamic pressure&”
A) pt + ps = q.
B) pt & q = ps.
C) pt = q & ps.
D) pt = ps & q.
11. For a subsonic flow the continuity equation states that if the
cross&sectional area of a tube decreases, the speed of the flow:
A) increases.
B) decreases.
C) does not change.
D) first decreases then increases.
12. Which of these statements about weight or mass is correct?

A) The weight of an object depends on the acceleration due to gravity.
B) The mass of an object depends on the acceleration due to gravity.
C) Mass = weight & volume.
D) In the SI system the unit of measurement for weight is the kilogram.
13. Which of these statements about Bernoulli’s equation is correct?

A) Dynamic pressure is maximum at the stagnation point.
B) Dynamic pressure increases as static pressure increases.
C) Total pressure is equal to static pressure when the flow velocity is zero.
D) Dynamic pressure decreases as static pressure decreases.

A) Dynamic pressure decreases as static pressure decreases.
B) Total pressure is zero when the flow velocity is zero.
C) Dynamic pressure increases as static pressure decreases.
D) Dynamic pressure is at its maximum in the stagnation point.

A) The mass of a body can be determined by multiplying its weight by the acceleration due
to gravity.
B) The mass of a body can be determined by dividing its weight by the acceleration due to
gravity.
C) The weight of a body can be determined by dividing its mass by the acceleration due to
gravity.
D) The weight of a body can be determined by dividing the acceleration due to gravity by its
mass.

A) Total pressure is zero when the flow velocity is zero.
B) Dynamic pressure is at its maximum at the stagnation point.
C) Dynamic pressure decreases as static pressure increases.
D) Dynamic pressure increases as static pressure increases.

A) The weight of an object is independent of the acceleration due to gravity.
C) In the SI system the unit of measurement for weight is the Newton.

C) In the SI system the unit of measurement for mass is the kilogram.

B) Mass = weight & volume.
C) The mass of an object is independent of the acceleration due to gravity.
20. “Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, which

statement is correct?1. The static pressure in the throat is lower than in the
undisturbed airflow.2. The speed of the airflow in the throat is the same as in
the undisturbed airflow.”
A) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.
B) 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect.
C) 1 is correct, 2 is correct.
D) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.

undisturbed airflow.2. The speed of the airflow in the throat is higher than in
B) 1 is correct, 2 is correct.
C) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.
D) 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect.

statement is correct?1. The static pressure in the throat is the same as in the
undisturbed airflow.2. The speed of the airflow in the throat is lower than in the
undisturbed airflow.”
A) 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect.
C) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.

statement is correct? 1. The static pressure in the throat is the same as in the
undisturbed airflow. 2. The speed of the airflow in the throat is higher than in

statement is correct?1. The static pressure in the throat is higher than in the
C) 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect.

undisturbed airflow.2. The speed of the airflow in the throat is the same as in
D) 1 is correct, 2 is correct.

undisturbed airflow.2. The speed of the airflow in the throat is higher than in

statement is correct?1. The static pressure in the undisturbed airflow is the
same as in the throat.2. The speed in the undisturbed airflow is higher than in
the throat.”
A) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.
B) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.

statement is correct?1. The static pressure in the undisturbed airflow is higher
than in the throat.2. The speed in the undisturbed airflow is the same as in the
throat.”

statement is correct?1. The static pressure in the undisturbed airflow is higher
than in the throat.2. The speed in the undisturbed airflow is higher than in the
throat.”
D) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.

A) 1 is correct, 2 is correct.
31. “Which of these statements about a steady subsonic flow are correct or
incorrect?1. The static pressure decreases as the streamlines converge.2. The
velocity increases as the streamlines converge.”
incorrect?1. The static pressure increases as the streamlines converge.2. The
velocity decreases as the streamlines converge.”
B) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.
incorrect?1. The static pressure decreases as the streamlines converge.2. The
velocity decreases as the streamlines converge.”
incorrect?1. The static pressure increases as the streamlines diverge.2. The
velocity increases as the streamlines diverge.”
incorrect?1. The static pressure does not change as the streamlines diverge.2.
The velocity increases as the streamlines diverge.”
incorrect?1. The static pressure decreases as the streamlines diverge.2. The
velocity increases as the streamlines diverge.”
velocity does not change as the streamlines diverge.”
The velocity does not change as the streamlines diverge.”

statement is correct?I. The dynamic pressure in the undisturbed airflow is the
same as in the throat.II. The total pressure in the undisturbed airflow is lower
than in the throat.”
A) I is incorrect, II is correct.
B) I is incorrect, II is incorrect.
C) I is correct, II is correct.
D) I is correct, II is incorrect.

same as in the throat.II. The total pressure in the undisturbed airflow is higher
than in the throat.”
A) I is correct, II is correct.
B) I is correct, II is incorrect.
C) I is incorrect, II is incorrect.
D) I is incorrect, II is correct.

statement is correct?I. The dynamic pressure in the undisturbed airflow is
higher than in the throat.II. The total pressure in the undisturbed airflow is
lower than in the throat.”
B) I is correct, II is correct.

higher than in the throat.II. The total pressure in the undisturbed airflow is the
same as in the throat.”
C) I is correct, II is incorrect.
D) I is incorrect, II is incorrect.

statement is correct?I. The dynamic pressure in the throat is lower than in the
undisturbed airflow.II. The total pressure in the throat is lower than in the

undisturbed airflow.II. The total pressure in the throat is the same as in the
A) I is correct, II is incorrect.
B) I is incorrect, II is correct.
D) I is correct, II is correct.

undisturbed airflow.II. The total pressure in the throat is higher than in the

statement is correct?I. The dynamic pressure in the throat is the same as in
the undisturbed airflow.II. The total pressure in the throat is lower than in the
C) I is incorrect, II is correct.

statement is correct?I. The dynamic pressure in the throat is the same as in
the undisturbed airflow.II. The total pressure in the throat is higher than in the

statement is correct?I. The dynamic pressure in the throat is higher than in the
undisturbed airflow.II. The total pressure in the throat is lower than in the

undisturbed airflow.II. The total pressure in the throat is the same as in the
A) I is incorrect, II is incorrect.

undisturbed airflow.II. The total pressure in the throat is higher than in the
velocity does not change as the streamlines diverge.”
velocity decreases as the streamlines diverge.”
The velocity decreases as the streamlines diverge.”
velocity decreases as the streamlines diverge.”

same as in the throat.II. The total pressure in the undisturbed airflow and in the
throat is the same.”

lower than in the throat.II. The total pressure in the undisturbed airflow is
lower than in the throat.”

lower than in the throat.II. The total pressure in the undisturbed airflow and in
the throat is the same.”

lower than in the throat.II. The total pressure in the undisturbed airflow is
higher than in the throat.”
59. “Bernoulli’s equation is…&Note:rho is air density

A) q is dynamic pressure
B) ptot is total pressure
C) & is to multiply by.&”
D) 2
60. The SI units of air density and force are respectively…
A) kg/m? and kg.
B) N/kg and kg.
C) N/m? and N.
D) kg/m? and N.
61. What is the SI unit of measurement for power?

A) W
B) N
C) Pa
D) J
62. The following unit of measurement: kgm/s? is expressed in the SI&system

as…
A) joule.
B) pascal.
C) watt.
D) newton.
63. The pascal is the SI derived unit of pressure. It is equivalent to…

A) bar/dm?.
B) N/m?.
C) kg/m?.
D) lb/gal.

A) The weight of a body can be determined by dividing the acceleration due to gravity by its
mass.
B) The mass of a body can be determined by multiplying its weight by the acceleration due
to gravity.
C) The weight of a body can be determined by dividing its mass by the acceleration due to
gravity.
D) The weight of a body can be determined by multiplying its mass by the acceleration due
to gravity.
65. Which of these statements is correct with regard to Bernoulli’s equation?

A) Dynamic pressure decreases as static pressure decreases.
B) Dynamic pressure is zero when the flow velocity is zero.
C) Dynamic pressure increases as static pressure increases.
D) Total pressure is zero when the flow velocity is zero.
66. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, in the

undisturbed airflow the static pressure is…
A) lower and the speed is higher than in the throat.
B) lower and the speed is lower than in the throat.
C) higher and the speed is higher than in the throat.
D) higher and the speed is lower than in the throat.
67. For a subsonic flow, the continuity equation states that if the
cross&sectional area of a stream tube increases, the speed of the flow…
A) first increases then decreases.
B) decreases.
C) does not change.
D) increases.
68. The difference between IAS and TAS will…

A) increase as air density increases.
B) decrease as speed increases.
C) increase as temperature decreases.
D) decrease as altitude decreases.
69. “Given that:pstat= static pressure

A) q= dynamic pressure
B) ptot= total pressure
C) & = multiply by.Bernoulli’s equation reads as which of the following?”
D) 2
70. “Given: pstat= static pressure

A) ptot= total pressure. In a convergent tube with an incompressible subsonic airflow, what
pressure changes will occur?”
B) 3
C) Pstat decreases, q increases, ptot decreases.
D) Pstat decreases, q increases, ptot increases.
71. “Which formula expresses the relationship between pressure, density, and
absolute temperature of a given mass of air?The following mathematical
symbols are used:p: pressurerho: densityT: absolute temperaturex: multiplied
by/: divided by”
A) p x T / rho = constant
B) rho / &T x p& = constant
C) p x rho / T = constant
D) p / &rho x T& = constant
72. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, in the

undisturbed airflow, the dynamic pressure…
A) and static pressure are both higher than in the throat.
B) and static pressure are both lower than in the throat.
C) is higher and the static pressure is lower than in the throat.
D) is lower and the static pressure is higher than in the throat.

A) The weight of a body is the product of its mass and the acceleration due to gravity.
B) The weight of a body is independent of the acceleration due to gravity.
C) The mass of a body depends solely on the acceleration due to gravity.
D) Mass equals weight multiplied by volume.
74. For a steady subsonic airflow, which statement is correct?
A) The static pressure increases as the streamlines converge.
B) The static pressure decreases as the streamlines converge.
C) The velocity does not change as the streamlines converge.
D) The velocity decreases as the streamlines converge.
75. Consider a steady, low subsonic flow through a stream tube. An increase
in the temperature of the airflow will…
A) increase the mass flow.
B) increase the mass flow when the tube is divergent in the direction of the flow.
C) decrease the mass flow.
D) not affect the mass flow.
76. In relation to subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, which of

the following statements is correct?
A) The speed of the airflow in the throat is lower than in the undisturbed airflow.
B) The static pressure in the throat is the same as in the undisturbed airflow.
C) The speed in the undisturbed airflow is lower than in the throat.
D) The static pressure in the undisturbed airflow is lower than in the throat.

A) The dynamic pressure in the throat is lower than in the undisturbed airflow.
B) The static pressure in the throat is equal to that of the undisturbed airflow.
C) The static pressure in the throat is higher than in the undisturbed airflow.
D) The dynamic pressure in the throat is higher than in the undisturbed airflow.

A) The static pressure in the undisturbed airflow is lower than in the throat.
B) The static pressure in the undisturbed airflow is higher than in the throat.
C) The speed in the undisturbed airflow is higher than in the throat.
D) The speed in the undisturbed airflow is the same as in the throat.

A) The dynamic pressure in the throat is equal to that of the undisturbed airflow.
B) The speed of the airflow in the throat is higher than in the undisturbed airflow.
C) The speed of the airflow in the throat is the same as in the undisturbed airflow.
D) The dynamic pressure in the throat is lower than in the undisturbed airflow.
80. “In relation to subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, which of

the following statements is correct?The static pressure…”
A) after the passing through the throat falls.
B) in the throat is equal to that of the undisturbed airflow.
C) in the throat is lower than in the undisturbed airflow.
D) in the throat is higher than in the undisturbed airflow.
81. The angle of attack of a two&dimensional wing section is the angle

between:
A) the chord line of the aerofoil and the fuselage centreline.
B) the fuselage centreline and the free stream direction.
C) the chord line and the camber line of the aerofoil.
D) the chord line of the aerofoil and the free stream direction.
82. The angle between the direction of the undisturbed airflow &relative wind&
and the chord line of an aerofoil is the:
A) climb path angle.
B) same as the angle between chord line and fuselage axis.
C) angle of attack.
D) glide path angle.
83. Drag is in the direction of & and lift is perpendicular to the:

A) horizon.
B) longitudinal axis.
C) relative wind/airflow.
D) chord line.
84. The lift& and drag forces, acting on an aerofoil:

A) are normal to each other at just one angle of attack.
B) vary linearly with the angle of attack.
C) depend on the pressure distribution around the aerofoil.
D) are proportional to each other, independent of angle of attack.
85. “The lift force, acting on an aerofoil: &no flow separation&”

A) is mainly caused by reduced pressure on the upper surface.
B) increases, proportional to the angle of attack until 40 degrees.
C) is mainly caused by overpressure at the underside of the aerofoil.
D) is maximum at an angle of attack of 2 degrees.
86. Lift is the:

A) vertical component of the total aerodynamic force, perpendicular to the undisturbed
airflow.
B) component of the total aerodynamic force, perpendicular to the local airflow.
C) component of the total aerodynamic force, perpendicular to the mean aerodynamic chord.
D) component of the total aerodynamic force, perpendicular to the undisturbed airflow.
87. The angle of attack of an aerofoil section is defined as the angle between
the:
A) undisturbed airflow and the chord line.
B) undisturbed airflow and the mean camber line.
C) local airflow and the chord line.
D) local airflow and the mean camber line.
88. A flat plate, when positioned in the airflow at a small angle of attack, will
produce:
A) neither lift nor drag.
B) lift but no drag.
C) drag but no lift.
D) both lift and drag.
89. The forces of lift and drag on an aerofoil are, respectively, normal and
parallel to the…
A) chord line.
C) relative airflow.
D) horizontal.
90. When the lift coefficient of a symmetrical aerofoil section is zero, the
pitching moment is…
A) negative.
B) maximum.
C) zero.
D) positive.
91. When the lift coefficient of a positively cambered aerofoil section is zero,
the pitching moment is…
A) zero.
B) maximum.
C) positive.
D) negative.
92. When the lift coefficient of a negatively cambered aerofoil section is zero,
the pitching moment is…
A) negative.
B) zero.
C) positive.
D) maximum.
93. The angle of attack of an aerofoil section is the angle between the…
A) chord line and the relative undisturbed airflow.
B) camber line and the horizontal.
C) chord line and the bottom surface of the aerofoil.
D) camber line and the downwash.
94. The term Angle of Attack in a two&dimensional flow is defined as the

angle…
A) between the aeroplane flight path and the horizon.
B) formed by the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane and the chord line of the wing.
C) between the chord line and the relative airflow.
D) for maximum lift/drag ratio.
95. The relative thickness of an aerofoil is expressed in:

A) camber.
B) meters.
C) & chord.
D) degrees cross section tail angle.
96. An aerofoil is cambered when:

A) the upper surface of the aerofoil is curved.
B) the maximum thickness is large compared with the length of the chord.
C) the chord line is curved.
D) the line, which connects the centres of all inscribed circles, is curved.
97. A line connecting the leading and trailing edge midway between the upper
and lower surface of an aerofoil, is the definition of the…
A) upper camber line.
B) chord line.
C) camber line.
D) mean aerodynamic chord line.
98. The angle between the aeroplane longitudinal axis and the wing root chord
line is the:
A) glide angle.
B) angle of attack.
C) flight path angle.
D) angle of incidence.
99. The aspect ratio of a wing is the ratio between the:

A) wing span and the mean geometric chord.
B) tip chord and the wing span.
C) wing span and the root chord.
D) chord and root chord.
100. Wing sweep angle is the angle between:

A) the quarter&chord line of the wing and the lateral axis.
B) the leading edge of the wing and the lateral axis.
C) the quarter&chord line of the wing and the normal axis.
D) the wing plane and the horizontal with the aeroplane in an unbanked, level condition.
101. The Mean Aerodynamic Chord &MAC& for a given wing of any planform
is…
A) the average chord of the aeroplane’s wing, which is used to determine the pitching
moment and lift characteristic of the whole wing.
B) the chord of an equivalent untwisted, rectangular wing with the same pitching moment
and lift characteristics as the actual wing.
C) determined by dividing the actual aeroplane’s wing area by the wing span.
D) the chord of a equivalent rectangular wing with the same leading and trailing edge
positions as the actual wing half way between the wing root and wing tip.
102. Aspect ratio of a tapered wing, is the ratio of…

A) net wing area over wing span.
B) wing span squared over gross wing area.
C) average wing chord over wingspan.
D) wing tip chord over wing root chord.
103. An aeroplane’s angle of incidence is defined as the angle between the…

A) longitudinal axis and the wing root chord line.
B) fin chord line and the horizontal plane.
C) lateral axis and the wing tip chord line.
D) horizontal stabiliser chord line and the normal axis.
104. The mean geometric chord of a wing is the…

A) wing area divided by the mean aerodynamic chord.
B) wing area divided by the wing span.
C) wingspan divided by the gross wing area.
D) wingspan squared divided by the wing area.
105. The taper ratio of a wing is the ratio between the…

A) mean geometric chord and average chord.
B) average chord and mean geometric chord.
C) root chord and tip chord.
D) tip chord and root chord.
106. “For this question use annex ECQB&FCL&081&00002.Given the wing

planform represented in the diagram and the following dimensions:Span 12.5
m Root chord 1.5 m Tip chord 1.0 mThe correct values of wing area and taper
ratio or aspect ratio are:”
A) Wing area: 18.75 m2 Aspect ratio: 10
B) Wing area: 15.625 m2 Aspect ratio: 12.5
C) Wing area: 18.75 m2 Taper ratio: 1.5
D) Wing area: 15.625 m2 Taper ratio: 0.666
107. Upon extension of a wing spoiler, if the angle of attack remains constant:
A) CD increases and CL decreases.
B) CL decreases but CD remains unaffected.
C) both CL and CD increase.
D) CD increases but CL remains unaffected.
108. When a wing spoiler is extended at constant angle of attack:

A) drag increases but lift remains constant.
B) both drag and lift increase.
C) both drag and lift decrease.
D) drag increases but lift decreases.
109. Wing spoilers are deflected symmetrically in flight in order to:

A) assist the ailerons in obtaining a higher roll rate.
B) prevent aeroplane yaw.
C) decelerate the aeroplane and/or increase its rate of descent.
D) improve glide performance &increase lift /drag ratio&.
110. Spoilers mounted on the wing upper surface can be used to:
A) increase lift and drag.
B) prevent aeroplane yaw following engine failure.
C) assist the ailerons.
D) assist the elevators.
111. Which statement is correct?

A) Flap extension reduces the maximum lift/drag ratio thus reducing the minimum rate of
descent.
B) Spoiler extension increases the stall speed, the minimum rate of descent and the
minimum angle of descent.
C) Flap extension reduces the stall speed, which increases the maximum glide distance.
D) Flap extension has no effect on the minimum rate of descent as this is only affected by
TAS.
112. “When “”spoilers”” are used as speed brakes:”

A) for the same CL, the angle of attack must be reduced.
B) the CLMAX is not affected.
C) at the same angle of attack, CL remains unaffected.
D) at the same angle of attack, CD is increased and CL is decreased.
113. What would happen to an aircraft’s rate of descent and the angle of
descent when deploying the speed brakes in flight?
A) The rate of descent will increase and the descent angle will decrease.
B) Both the rate of descent and the descent angle will decrease.
C) Both the rate of descent and the descent angle will increase.
D) The rate of descent will decrease and the descent angle will increase.
114. The transition point is the point where:

A) changes in lift due to variations in angle of attack are constant.
B) the velocity of the relative airflow is reduced to zero.
C) the boundary layer changes from laminar to turbulent.
D) the aeroplane becomes longitudinally unstable when the cg is moved beyond it in an aft
direction.
115. One important advantage a turbulent boundary layer has over a laminar
layer is that the turbulent boundary layer:
A) has less tendency to separate from the surface.
B) is thinner.
C) has less energy.
D) has a lower skin friction drag.
116. The effects of very heavy tropical rain on the aerodynamic characteristics
of an aeroplane are:
A) decrease of CLMAX and decrease of drag coefficient.
B) increase of CLMAX and decrease of drag coefficient.
C) increase of CLMAX and increase of drag coefficient.
D) decrease of CLMAX and increase of drag coefficient.
117. While flying under icing conditions, the largest ice build&up will occur,
principally, on:
A) the frontal areas of the aeroplane.
B) the upper and lower surfaces on the rear of the wing.
C) the upper and lower rudder surfaces.
D) the pitot and static probes only.
118. In which phase of the take&off is the aerodynamic effect of ice located on
the wing leading edge most critical?
A) All phases of the take&off are equally critical.
B) During climb with all engines operating.
C) The take&off run.
D) The rotation.
119. What will happen to the stall speed, stalling Angle Of Attack &AOA& and
controllability of an aircraft in flight due to icing?
A) Stall speed, stalling AOA and controllability will all decrease.
B) Stall speed, stalling AOA and controllability will all increase.
C) Stall speed will increase but stalling AOA and controllability will both decrease.
D) Stall speed will decrease but stalling AOA and controllability will both increase.
120. When flying in icing conditions, ice build&up on an aerofoil will usually
occur:
A) Close to the trailing edge.
B) Close to the centre of pressure.
C) In the area of the stagnation point.
D) On upper surface from leading to trailing edge.
121. On which type of drag does airframe ageing have the greatest influence?
A) Induced drag
B) Wave drag
C) Form drag
D) Skin&friction drag
122. “When speed is increased in straight and level flight on a positively

cambered aerofoil, what happens to the: 1. centre of pressure and 2. the
magnitude of the total lift force?”
A) 1 moves forward and 2 decreases.
B) 1 moves forward and 2 remains constant.
C) 1 moves aft and 2 increases.
D) 1 moves aft and 2 remains constant.
123. An aerofoil with positive camber at a positive angle of attack will have the
highest flow velocity:
A) In front of the stagnation point.
B) on the lower side.
C) at the trailing edge.
D) on the upper side.
124. “Assuming no flow separation, when speed is decreased in straight and

level flight on a positively cambered aerofoil, what happens to the: 1. centre of
pressure and 2. the magnitude of the total lift force?”
A) 1 moves aft and 2 remains constant.
B) 1 moves aft and 2 increases.
C) 1 moves forward and 2 decreases.
D) 1 moves forward and 2 remains constant.
125. “&For this question use annex 081&005 issue date July 2004&.How are
the speeds at point 1 and point 2 related in the figure to the relative
wind/airflow V?”
A) V1 < V2 and V2 < V.
B) V1 = 0 and V2 > V.
C) V1 = 0 and V2 = V.
D) V1 > V2 and V2 < V.
126. Assuming incompressible flow, when considering streamlines in the

vicinity of an aerofoil, which of the following answers is correct?
A) Converging streamlines indicate that the speed of the flow is increasing and that the static
pressure is decreasing.
B) Converging streamlines indicate that the speed of the flow is decreasing and that the
static pressure is increasing.
C) Diverging streamlines indicate that the speed of the flow is increasing and that the static
pressure is increasing.
D) Diverging streamlines indicate that the speed of the flow is decreasing and that the static
pressure is decreasing.
127. Select the correct statement in regard to a steady subsonic airflow.

A) Velocity increases as streamlines converge.
B) Static pressure increases as streamlines converge.
C) Static pressure does not change as streamlines converge.
D) Velocity does not change as streamlines converge.
128. Select the correct statement in regards to a steady subsonic airflow.

A) Velocity does not change as streamlines converge.
B) Static pressure decreases as streamlines converge.
C) Velocity does not change as streamlines diverge.
D) Static pressure increases as streamlines converge.

A) Static pressure decreases as streamlines converge.
B) Velocity decreases as streamlines converge.
C) Velocity decreases as streamlines diverge.
D) Static pressure decreases as streamlines diverge.

A) Velocity increases as streamlines diverge.
B) Velocity decreases as streamlines diverge.
C) Static pressure does not change as streamlines converge.
D) Static pressure does not change as streamlines diverge.

A) Velocity does not change as streamlines converge.
B) Static pressure increases as streamlines converge.
C) Static pressure increases as streamlines diverge.
D) Velocity increases as streamlines diverge.
132. “Assuming no flow separation, which of these statements about the flow
around an aerofoil as the angle of attack increases are correct or incorrect?I.
The stagnation point moves down.II. The point of lowest static pressure moves
forward.”
133. The stagnation point is the point:

A) relative to which the sum of all moments is independent of angle of attack.
B) of the intersection of the thrust vector and the chord line.
C) of the intersection of the total aerodynamic force and the chord line.
D) where the velocity of the relative airflow is reduced to zero.

A) The stagnation point is another name for centre of pressure.
B) The centre of pressure is the point on the wing’s leading edge where the airflow splits up.
C) The stagnation point is always situated on the chord line, the centre of pressure is not.
D) As the angle of attack increases, the stagnation point on the wing’s aerofoil section
moves downwards.
around an aerofoil as the angle of attack increases are correct or incorrect?I.
The stagnation point moves up. II. The point of lowest static pressure moves
aft.”
around an aerofoil as the angle of attack increases are correct or incorrect? I.
forward.”
around an aerofoil as the angle of attack increases are correct or incorrect? I.
The stagnation point moves down. II. The point of lowest static pressure
moves aft.”
around an aerofoil as the angle of attack decreases are correct or incorrect? I.
moves forward.”
aft.”
moves aft.”
forward.”
142. Considering the airflow around a positively cambered aerofoil that is

producing lift, the point of minimum static pressure is found…
A) where the streamlines are closest together.
B) slightly below the point at which the chord line originates from the leading edge.
C) at the point where the chord line originates from the leading edge.
D) at the point of maximum camber on the upper surface.
143. The aerodynamic centre of the wing is the point, where:

A) aerodynamic forces are constant.
B) changes of lift due to variations in angle of attack are constant.
C) the pitching moment coefficient does not vary with angle of attack.
D) the aeroplane’s lateral axis intersects with the centre of gravity.
144. The point, where the aerodynamic lift acts on a wing is:
A) the point of maximum thickness of the wing.
B) the CG location.
C) the centre of pressure.
D) the suction point of the wing.
145. The location of the centre of pressure of a positively cambered aerofoil

section at increasing angle of attack will:
A) not shift.
B) shift in spanwise direction.
C) shift aft until approaching the critical angle of attack.
D) shift forward until approaching the critical angle of attack.
146. An aeroplane in straight and level flight is subjected to a strong vertical

gust. The point on the wing, where the instantaneous variation in wing lift
effectively acts is known as the:
A) centre of gravity.
B) neutral point.
C) centre of thrust.
D) aerodynamic centre of the wing.
147. Assuming no flow separation and no compressibility effects the location
of the aerodynamic centre of an aerofoil section:
A) is independent of angle of attack.
B) moves backward when the angle of attack increases.
C) moves forward when the angle of attack increases.
D) is at approximately 50 & chord irrespective of angle of attack.

of the centre of pressure of a symmetrical aerofoil section:
A) moves forward when the angle of attack decreases.
B) moves backward when the angle of attack decreases.
C) is at approximately 50 & chord irrespective of angle of attack.
D) is at approximately 25 & chord irrespective of angle of attack.

of the centre of pressure of a positively cambered aerofoil section:
B) is at approximately 25 & chord irrespective of angle of attack.
C) moves backward when the angle of attack decreases.
D) moves forward when the angle of attack decreases.

of the aerodynamic centre of an aerofoil section:
A) moves backward when the angle of attack increases.
B) is at approximately 25 & chord irrespective of angle of attack.
C) is at approximately 50 & chord irrespective of angle of attack.
D) moves backward when the angle of attack decreases.

of the centre of pressure of a symmetrical aerofoil section:
B) moves forward when the angle of attack decreases.
C) moves backward when the angle of attack decreases.
D) is at approximately 50 & of the chord irrespective of angle of attack.
152. Assuming no flow separation and no compressibility effects, the location

of the Centre of Pressure of a positively cambered aerofoil section…
A) moves backward when the Angle Of Attack increases.
B) is at approximately 25& chord irrespective of Angle Of Attack.
C) moves forward when the Angle Of Attack increases.
D) moves backwards and then forwards when the Angle Of Attack increases.
153. The aerodynamic centre of a wing is the point relative to which…

A) the boundary layer changes from laminar to turbulent.
B) assuming no flow separation, the pitching moment coefficient does not change with
varying Angle Of Attack.
C) the velocity of the relative airflow is reduced to zero.
D) the aeroplane becomes longitudinally unstable when the CG is moved beyond it in a
forward direction.
154. Lift is generated when:

A) a symmetrical aerofoil is placed in a high velocity air stream at zero angle of attack.
B) a certain mass of air is retarded.
C) the flow direction of a certain mass of air is changed.
D) a certain mass of air is accelerated in its flow direction.
155. Regarding downwash, which of the following answers is correct?

A) Downwash is caused by the lower surface of the aerofoil deflecting the airflow
downwards, producing lift upwards.
B) The greater the downwash, the less lift is being produced by the aerofoil due to energy
loss.
C) Downwash is caused by the converging airflow above the aerofoil.
D) The greater the downwash, the greater the lift being generated by the aerofoil.
156. Airflow separation is characterised by:

A) Increased velocity on the surface of the body.
B) Airflow reversal on the surface of the body.
C) A reduction in form drag.
D) The transition from laminar to turbulent boundary layer.
157. Skin friction drag is caused by the…

A) air’s viscosity producing shear forces within the boundary layer.
B) difference in pressure acting on the aerofoil’s surface in the direction of flight.
C) loss of momentum within an airflow caused by the aerofoil changing the flow direction.
D) friction between the surface and the air molecules in direct contact with the surface.
158. At a constant airspeed, a reduction in an aerofoil’s angle of attack results

in the speed of the flow over the upper surface to…
A) decrease and the lifting ability of the aerofoil to decrease.
B) increase and the lifting ability of the aerofoil to increase.
C) decrease and the lifting ability of the aerofoil to increase.
D) increase and the lifting ability of the aerofoil to decrease.
159. “The lift formula can be written as:&rho = density&”

A) L = CL & 2 rho & V? & S.
B) L = CL & ? rho & V? & S.
C) L = CL & ? rho & V & S.
D) L = CL & rho & V? & S.
160. An aeroplane in straight and level flight at 300 kt is subjected to a sudden

disturbance in speed. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant initially
and the load factor reaches a value of 1.21:
A) the speed will have decreased by 60 kt.
B) the speed will have decreased by 30 kt.
C) the speed will have increased by 30 kt.
D) the speed will have increased by 60 kt.
161. A positively cambered aerofoil will generate:

A) zero lift at a negative angle of attack.
B) zero lift at zero angle of attack.
C) zero lift at a positive angle of attack.
D) lift at all angles of attack.
162. “Regarding a positively cambered aerofoil section, which statement is

correct? I. The angle of attack has a negative value when the lift coefficient
equals zero. II. A nose down pitching moment exists when the lift coefficient
equals zero.”
A) I is correct and II is correct.
B) I is incorrect and II is incorrect.
C) I is incorrect and II is correct.
D) I is correct and II is incorrect.
163. The lift coefficient of a symmetrical aerofoil section at zero angle of attack
is:
A) zero.
B) negative.
C) positive, if the centre of pressure coincides with the centre of gravity.
D) positive.
164. Assuming standard atmospheric conditions, in order to generate the

same amount of lift as altitude is increased, an aeroplane must be flown at:
A) a lower TAS for any given angle of attack.
B) the same TAS regardless of angle of attack.
C) a lower TAS and a lower angle of attack.
D) a higher TAS for any given angle of attack.
165. Regarding the lift formula, if airspeed doubles, lift will:

A) not change.
B) also double.
C) halve.
D) be 4 times greater.
166. If the airspeed is doubled, whilst maintaining the same control surface
deflection the aerodynamic force on this control surface will:
A) become four times greater.
B) increase by the square root of the airspeed.
C) become four times smaller.
D) double.
167. Assuming ISA conditions and no compressibility effects, if an aeroplane
maintains straight and level flight at the same angle of attack at two different
altitudes, the:
A) IAS is higher at the lower altitude.
B) TAS is higher at the lower altitude.
C) IAS is lower at the lower altitude.
D) TAS is lower at the lower altitude.
168. A symmetric aerofoil will generate:

A) zero lift at a negative angle of attack.
B) zero lift at a positive angle of attack.
C) lift at all angles of attack.
D) zero lift at zero angle of attack.
169. A negatively cambered aerofoil will generate:

A) lift at all angles of attack.
B) zero lift at a negative angle of attack.
C) zero lift at zero angle of attack.
D) zero lift at a positive angle of attack.
170. “An aeroplane flying at 200 kt in straight and level flight is subjected to a
disturbance that suddenly increases the speed by 10 kt. Assuming the angle of
attack remains constant, the load factor will initially:”
A) increase to 1.21.
B) increase to 1.05.
C) remain unchanged, since the angle of attack does not change.
D) increase to 1.10.
disturbance that suddenly increases the speed by 20 kt.Assuming the angle of
B) remain unchanged, since the angle of attack does not change.
C) increase to 1.21.
B) increase to 1.3.
D) increase to 1.6.
B) increase to 1.8.
D) increase to 1.4.
disturbance that suddenly increases the speed by 100 kt. Assuming the angle
of attack remains constant, the load factor will initially:”
A) remain unchanged, since the angle of attack does not change.
B) increase to 2.
D) increase to 1.5.
disturbance that suddenly decreases the speed by 10 kt. Assuming the angle
B) decrease to 0.90.
C) decrease to 0.99.
D) decrease to 0.95.
A) decrease to 0.90.

B) the speed will have increased by 20 kt.
C) the speed will have decreased by 20 kt.



A) the speed will have increased by 40 kt.



D) the speed will have decreased by 30 kt.


altitudes, the:
A) IAS is higher at the higher altitude .
B) IAS at both altitudes is the same.
C) TAS at both altitudes is the same.
D) TAS is lower at the higher altitude.

altitudes, the:
A) TAS at both altitudes is the same.
B) IAS is higher at the lower altitude.
C) TAS is higher at the higher altitude.
D) TAS is higher at the lower altitude.
193. An aeroplane flying at 100 kt in straight and level flight is subjected to a

attack remains constant, the load factor will initially…
B) increase to 1.20.
D) remain unchanged, since the Angle Of Attack does not change.
194. Select the option that lists the variables required for the lift formula.
A) Total Pressure and wing area only.
B) Angle Of Attack, Aspect Ratio and Dynamic Pressure.
C) Dynamic Pressure, Lift Coefficient and wing area.
D) Square root of wing area, density and wing loading.
195. If the lift generated by a given wing is 1000 kN, what will be the lift if the
wing area is doubled?
A) 2000 kN.
B) 4000 kN.
C) 8000 kN.
D) 6000 kN.
196. If the wing area is increased, lift will…

A) remain constant provided the coefficient of lift remains constant.
B) increase with the square of the wing area.
C) increase in direct proportion to wing area.
D) increase with the square root of the wing area.
197. Select the correct statement with regard to positively cambered aerofoils.
A) The angle of attack will have a positive value when the lift coefficient equals zero.
B) They will always have a negative lift coefficient at all angles of attack.
C) The angle of attack will have a negative value when the lift coefficient equals zero.
D) They will always have a positive lift coefficient at all angles of attack.
198. Select the correct statement with regard to positively cambered aerofoils.
A) A Lift Coefficient of zero will always have a positive Angle Of Attack.
B) At any Angle Of Attack they produce a Lift Coefficient greater than zero.
C) At any Angle Of Attack they produce a zero Lift Coefficient.
D) A Lift Coefficient of zero will always have a negative Angle Of Attack.
199. Regarding a positively cambered aerofoil section, which statement is

correct?
A) It will always produce a nose&up pitching moment at every Angle Of Attack.
B) It will always produce a nose&down pitching moment at every Angle Of Attack.
C) A nose&down pitching moment exists when the Lift Coefficient equals zero.
D) A nose&up pitching moment exists when the Lift Coefficient equals zero.
200. Select the correct statement in regard to a symmetrical aerofoil section.

A) A nose up pitching moment exists when the Lift Coefficient equals zero.
B) A nose down pitching moment exists when the Lift Coefficient equals zero.
C) The Angle Of Attack has a positive value when the lift coefficient equals zero.
D) The Angle Of Attack is zero when the Lift Coefficient equals zero.
201. “Regarding a symmetrical aerofoil section, which statement is correct?

When the Lift Coefficient equals zero…”
A) a nose up/down oscillating pitching moment exists.
B) no nose pitching moment exists.
C) a nose down pitching moment exists.
D) a nose up pitching moment exists.

The Lift Coefficient…”
A) equals zero when the Angle Of Attack is positive.
B) equals zero when the Angle Of Attack is zero.
C) can never equal zero at any Angle Of Attack.
D) equals zero when the Angle Of Attack is negative.
203. The Lift Coefficient versus Angle Of Attack curve of a positive cambered
aerofoil section intersects the vertical axis of the graph…
A) to the right of the origin.
B) at the origin.
C) above the origin.
D) below the origin.
204. The Lift Coefficient versus Angle Of Attack curve of a symmetrical aerofoil
section intersects the vertical axis of the graph…
A) above the origin.
B) below the origin.
C) to the right of the origin.
D) at the origin.
205. The Lift Coefficient versus Angle Of Attack curve of a negatively

cambered aerofoil section intersects the vertical axis of the graph…
A) to the left of the origin.
B) below the origin.
C) at the origin.
D) above the origin.
206. The Lift Coefficient versus Angle Of Attack curve of a positively cambered
aerofoil section intersects the horizontal axis of the graph…
A) at no point.
B) at the origin.
C) to the right of the origin.
D) to the left of the origin.
207. The Lift Coefficient versus Angle Of Attack curve of a symmetrical aerofoil
section intersects the horizontal axis of the graph…
A) at no point.
B) to the left of the origin.
C) at the origin.
D) to the right of the origin.
208. The Lift Coefficient versus Angle Of Attack curve of a negatively

cambered aerofoil section intersects the horizontal axis of the graph…
A) at the origin.
B) at no point.
C) to the left of the origin.
D) to the right of the origin.
209. Which statement is correct regarding the Lift Coefficient and Angle Of
Attack?
A) For an asymmetrical aerofoil section, if the Angle Of Attack is zero, Cl is zero.
B) For an asymmetrical aerofoil section, if the Angle Of Attack is positive, Cl is zero.
C) For a symmetrical aerofoil section, if the Angle Of Attack is zero, Cl is zero.
D) For a symmetrical aerofoil section, if the Angle Of Attack is zero, Cl is positive.

The Lift Coefficient is only…”
A) positive when the AOA is negative.
B) positive when the AOA is positive.
C) zero when the AOA is negative.
D) zero when the AOA is positive.

When the Angle Of Attack…”
A) is positive, the pitching moment is negative, the CL is zero.
B) is negative, the pitching moment is positive, the CL is positive.
C) and pitching moment are zero, the CL is zero.
D) and the pitching moment is positive, the CL is negative.
212. “&For this question use annex 081&006 issue date July 2004&.The point
in the annex corresponding to CL for minimum horizontal flight speed is:”
A) point d.
B) point b.
C) point c.
D) point a.
213. “&For this question use annex 081&006 issue date July 2004&.The point
in the annex showing zero lift is:”
A) point b.
B) point c.
C) point a.
D) point d.
214. “The frontal area of a body, placed in a certain airstream is increased by a

factor 3. If the shape does not alter, the form drag will increase by a factor of:”
A) 9.
B) 1.5.
C) 3.
D) 6.
215. The aerodynamic drag of a body, placed in a certain airstream depends

amongst others on:
A) the weight of the body.
B) the specific mass of the body.
C) the airstream velocity.
D) the CG location of the body.
216. A body is placed in a certain airstream. If the airstream velocity increases

by a factor of 4, the parasite drag will increase by a factor of:
A) 4.
B) 12.
C) 8.
D) 16.
217. Comparing the lift coefficient and drag coefficient for conventional
aeroplanes:
A) CL is much greater than CD.
B) CL is much lower than CD.
C) CL is lower than CD.
D) CL has approximately the same value as CD.
218. Increasing dynamic pressure will have the following effect on the total
drag of an aeroplane:
A) total drag decreases across the whole speed range.
B) at speeds below the minimum drag speed, total drag increases.
C) total drag increases across the whole speed range.
D) at speeds above the minimum drag speed, total drag increases.
219. Increasing air density will have the following effect on the drag of a body
in an airstream &angle of attack and TAS are constant&:
A) the drag is only affected by the ground speed.
B) this has no effect.
C) the drag decreases.
D) the drag increases.
220. Minimum drag of an aeroplane in straight and level flight occurs at the:
A) minimum angle of attack.
B) minimum CD value.
C) maximum CL&CD ratio.
D) minimum speed.
221. Which of these variables are required to calculate drag from the drag
formula?
A) Frontal wing area, density and wing loading.
B) Total pressure and wing area only.
C) Dynamic pressure, drag coefficient and wing area.
D) Angle of attack, aspect ratio and dynamic pressure.
222. Considering the polar curve of a subsonic aerofoil, the maximum

lift&to&drag ratio is determined by…
A) drawing a tangent to the curve from the origin.
B) the maximum value of the lift coefficient.
C) the point where total lift and total drag are equal.
D) the minimum value of the drag coefficient.
223. A body is placed within an airstream. If the density of the airstream

decreases to half its original value, the parasite drag will decrease by a factor
of…
A) 1.4.
B) 2.
C) 4.
D) 8.
224. “&For this question use annex 081&002 issue date April 2005&. Assuming
all bodies have the same cross&sectional area and are in motion, which body
will have the highest form drag?”
A) Body 2.
B) Body 3.
C) Body 1.
D) Body 4.
225. The polar curve of an aerofoil section is a graphic relationship between…

A) Drag Coefficient &Cd& and Angle Of Attack.
B) drag and airspeed.
C) Lift Coefficient &Cl& and Drag Coefficient &Cd&.
D) Angle Of Attack and Lift Coefficient &Cl&.
226. “&For this question use annex 081&002 issue date April 2005&.Assuming
all bodies have the same cross&sectional area and are in motion, which body
will have the lowest pressure drag?”
A) Body 4.
B) Body 2.
C) Body 1.
D) Body 3.
all bodies have the same cross&sectional area and are in motion, place these
bodies in order of increasing pressure drag.The correct answer is:”
A) 2, 1, 4, 3.
B) 3, 4, 1, 2.
C) 3, 1, 4, 2.
D) 4, 3, 2, 1.
all bodies have the same cross&sectional area and are in motion, place these
bodies in order of decreasing pressure drag.The correct answer is:”
A) 2, 1, 3, 4.
B) 3, 4, 1, 2.
C) 1, 2, 4, 3.
D) 2, 1, 4, 3.
229. “The correct drag formula can be written as…&rho = density&”

A) D = CD x ? rho x V? x S.
B) D = CD x 2 x rho x V? x S.
C) D = CD x ? rho x V x S.
D) D = CD / &? rho x V? x S&.
230. The fundamental difference between the aerodynamic characteristics of

two and three&dimensional flow is that, in a three&dimensional flow about a
wing:
A) a spanwise component exists in addition to the chordwise speed component.
B) an upward component is added to the chordwise speed component.
C) a downward component is added to the chordwise speed component of the flow behind
the wing.
D) flow separation occurs at the stall.
231. An aeroplane’s angle of attack can be defined as the angle between its:
A) longitudinal axis and the horizontal plane.
B) lateral axis and the horizontal plane.
C) speed vector and the horizontal plane.
D) speed vector and longitudinal axis.
232. Assuming zero wing twist, the wing planform that gives the highest local
lift coefficient at the wing root is:
A) rectangular.
B) tapered.
C) elliptical.
D) swept&back.
233. “Which of these statements about the strength of wing tip vortices are
correct or incorrect?I. Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip
vortices increases as the angle of attack increases.II. The strength of wing tip
vortices increases as the aspect ratio decreases.”
vortices decreases as the angle of attack increases.II. The strength of wing tip
vortices increases as the aspect ratio increases.”
vortices is not affected by angle of attack.II. The strength of wing tip vortices
increases as the aspect ratio decreases.”
vortices is not affected by aspect ratio.”
correct or incorrect? I. Assuming no flow separation, the strength of wing tip
vortices is not affected by angle of attack. II. The strength of wing tip vortices
increases as the aspect ratio increases.”
is not affected by aspect ratio.”
vortices decreases as the angle of attack decreases. II. The strength of wing
tip vortices increases as the aspect ratio decreases.”
vortices increases as the angle of attack decreases. II. The strength of wing tip
tip vortices increases as the aspect ratio increases.”
vortices increases as the angle of attack increases. II. The strength of wing tip
vortices is not affected by aspect ratio.”
tip vortices is not affected by aspect ratio.”
vortices is not affected by aspect ratio decreases.”
vortices increases as the angle of attack increases. II. The strength of wing tip
vortices decreases as the aspect ratio increases.”
vortices is not affected by the angle of attack. II. The strength of wing tip
tip vortices decreases as the aspect ratio increases.”
vortices decreases as the aspect ratio decreases.”
vortices decreases as the angle of attack increases. II. The strength of wing tip
decreases as the aspect ratio decreases.”
tip vortices decreases as the aspect ratio decreases.”
258. In straight and level flight, the spanwise flow on an unswept wing is from
the…
A) lower surface via the trailing edge to the upper wing surface.
B) lower surface to the upper surface via the wing tip.
C) upper surface via the trailing edge to the lower wing surface.
D) upper surface to the lower surface via the wing tip.
259. Considering a rectangular unswept wing, which statement is correct?

A) The flow on the upper surface of the wing has a component acting in the direction of the
wing root.
B) Tip vortices can be diminished by vortex generators.
C) Tip vortices and induced drag decrease with increasing Angle Of Attack.
D) The flows on the upper and lower surfaces of the wing are both in the direction of the
wing tip.
260. The intensity or strength of the wing&tip vortices is…

A) smallest in the clean configuration.
B) inversely proportional to the speed of the aeroplane.
C) greater the faster the aeroplane flies.
D) directly proportional to the wingspan of the aeroplane.
261. Wing&tip vortices are formed by the…

A) spanwise flow of higher pressure air from beneath the wing outward and upward into the
lower pressure air above the wing.
B) rotational velocity imparted to the free stream air resulting from the propeller wash across
the top of the wing.
C) aerodynamic interference of boundary layers from different parts of the aeroplane with
those of the wing.
D) mixing of the high energy airflow over the wing with the free stream air behind the trailing
edge of the wing.
262. What is the effect of increasing wing aspect ratio on induced drag?
A) It increases because increasing aspect ratio increases frontal area.
B) It is unaffected because there is no relation between aspect ratio and induced drag.
C) It increases because increasing aspect ratio produces greater downwash.
D) It reduces because the effect of wing&tip vortices is reduced.
263. “Which of the following wing planforms produces the lowest induced
drag? &assume zero wing twist&”
A) Tapered.
B) Rectangular.
C) Circular.
D) Elliptical.
264. The value of the induced drag of an aeroplane in straight and level flight
at constant mass varies linearly with:
A) V?.
B) 1/V.
C) V.
D) 1/V?.
265. Assuming no compressibility effects, induced drag at constant IAS is

affected by:
A) altitude.
B) outside air temperature.
C) aeroplane mass.
D) engine thrust.
266. Induced drag is created by the:

A) interference of the air stream between wing and fuselage.
B) spanwise flow pattern resulting in the tip vortices.
C) separation of the boundary layer over the wing.
D) propeller wash blowing across the wing.
267. The induced angle of attack is:

A) the angle by which the relative airflow is deflected due to downwash.
B) the angle between the local flow at the wing and the horizontal tail.
C) caused by the fuselage and is greatest at the wing root.
D) the angle by which the flow over the wing is deflected when landing flaps are set.
268. Induced drag may be reduced by:

A) an increase in aspect ratio.
B) an increase in wing sweep back.
C) a decrease of the aspect ratio.
D) the use of a wing tip with a much thinner aerofoil.
269. The relationship between induced drag and the aspect ratio is:
A) an increase in the aspect ratio increases the induced drag.
B) induced drag = 1.3 aspect ratio value.
C) there is no relationship.
D) a decrease in the aspect ratio increases the induced drag.
270. Increasing the aspect ratio of a wing:

A) decreases induced drag.
B) decreases gust load.
C) increases induced drag.
D) increases stall speed.
271. Excluding constants, the coefficient of induced drag &CDi& is the ratio of:
A) CL? and AR &aspect ratio&.
B) CL and CD.
C) CL? and S &wing surface&.
D) CL and b &wing span&.
272. High aspect ratio, as compared with low aspect ratio, has the effect of:
A) decreasing induced drag and critical angle of attack.
B) increasing lift and critical angle of attack.
C) increasing induced drag and decreasing critical angle of attack.
D) increasing lift and drag.
273. Induced drag is the result of:

A) propeller slipstream over the wing.
B) boundary layer separation on the aft portion of the wing.
C) aerodynamic interaction between aeroplane parts.
D) downwash generated by tip vortices.
274. Which part of the aeroplane has the largest effect on induced drag?
A) Landing gear.
B) Wing root junction.
C) Wing tip.
D) Engine cowling.
275. Winglets:
A) create an elliptical lift distribution.
B) increase the manoeuvrability.
C) decrease the induced drag.
D) decrease the static lateral stability.
276. The induced drag coefficient, CDi is proportional to:

A) CLMAX.
B) CL.
C) square root &CL&.
D) CL?.
277. Which statement concerning the local flow pattern around a wing is
correct?
A) By fitting winglets to the wing tip, the strength of the wing tip vortices is reduced which in
turn reduces induced drag.
B) Slat extension, at a constant angle of attack and normal extension speeds, will increase
the lift coefficient, which will also increase the induced drag coefficient.
C) Vortex generators on the wing partially block the spanwise flow over the wing leading to a
reduction in induced drag.
D) Sweepback reduces drag since, compared with a straight wing of equal area, the span
increases.
278. What is the effect on induced drag of an increase in aspect ratio?

A) Induced drag increases, because the effect of tip vortices increases.
B) Induced drag decreases, because the effect of tip vortices decreases.
C) Induced drag increases, because a larger aspect ratio increases the frontal area.
D) Induced drag decreases, because a larger aspect ratio causes more downwash.
279. An aeroplane transitions from steady straight and level flight into a
horizontal co&ordinated turn with a load factor of 2, the speed remains
constant and the:
A) induced drag increases by a factor of 4.
B) angle of attack increases by a factor of 1/4.
C) lift increases by a factor of 4.
D) total drag increases by a factor of 4.
280. What is the effect of winglets on the drag of the wing?

A) Increase induced drag, decrease friction drag.
B) Increase friction drag, decrease form drag.
C) Increase parasite drag, decrease induced drag.
D) Increase induced drag, decrease interference drag.
281. The induced angle of attack is the result of:

A) downwash due to flow separation.
B) a large local angle of attack in a two&dimensional flow.
C) downwash due to tip vortices.
D) change in direction of flow due to the effective angle of attack.
282. If the aspect ratio of a wing increases whilst all other relevant factors
remain constant, the critical angle of attack will:
A) remain constant.
B) increase.
C) remain constant only for a wing consisting of symmetrical aerofoils.
D) decrease.
283. Assuming constant speed induced drag is:

A) proportional to the lift coefficient.
B) directly proportional to the airspeed.
C) inversely proportional to the square of the lift coefficient.
D) proportional to the square of the lift coefficient.
284. “Which statement, about the effects on drag of fitting external tip tanks to
the wings of an aeroplane, is correct? I. Parasite drag increases.II. Induced
drag increases.”
the wings of an aeroplane, is correct?I. Parasite drag decreases. II. Induced
drag increases.”
the wings of an aeroplane, is correct?I. Parasite drag increases.II. Induced
drag decreases.”
the wings of an aeroplane, is correct?I. Parasite drag decreases.II. Induced
drag decreases.”
288. “Which statement, about the effects on drag of removing external tip
tanks from the wings of an aeroplane, is correct?I. Parasite drag increases.II.
Induced drag increases.”
tanks from the wings of an aeroplane, is correct?I. Parasite drag decreases.II.
Induced drag increases.”
tanks from the wings of an aeroplane, is correct?I. Parasite drag increases.II.
Induced drag decreases.”
tanks from the wings of an aeroplane, is correct?I. Parasite drag decreases.II.
Induced drag decreases.”
292. “Which of these statements about induced drag are correct or incorrect?I.
An elliptical spanwise lift distribution generates less induced drag than a
rectangular lift distribution.II. Induced drag increases with decreasing aspect
ratio.”
An elliptical spanwise lift distribution generates more induced drag than a
rectangular lift distribution.II. Induced drag decreases with decreasing aspect
ratio.”
An elliptical spanwise lift distribution generates more induced drag than a
rectangular lift distribution.II. Induced drag increases with decreasing aspect
ratio.”
An elliptical spanwise lift distribution generates less induced drag than a
rectangular lift distribution.II. Induced drag decreases with decreasing aspect
ratio.”
An rectangular spanwise lift distribution generates less induced drag than an
elliptical lift distribution.II. Induced drag increases with increasing aspect
ratio.”
An rectangular spanwise lift distribution generates more induced drag than an
elliptical lift distribution.II. Induced drag decreases with increasing aspect
ratio.”
An rectangular spanwise lift distribution generates less induced drag than an
elliptical lift distribution.II. Induced drag decreases with increasing aspect
ratio.”
An rectangular spanwise lift distribution generates more induced drag than an
elliptical lift distribution.II. Induced drag increases with increasing aspect
ratio.”
Induced drag increases as angle of attack increases.II. At constant load factor,
induced drag increases with increasing aeroplane mass.”
Induced drag decreases as angle of attack increases.II. At constant load factor,
induced drag decreases with increasing aeroplane mass.”
Induced drag decreases as angle of attack increases.II. At constant load factor,
induced drag increases with increasing aeroplane mass.”
303. “Which statement about induced drag is correct?I. Induced drag

increases as angle at attack increases.II. At constant load factor, induced drag
decreases with increasing aeroplane mass.”
Induced drag increases as angle of attack decreases.II. At constant load factor,
induced drag increases with decreasing aeroplane mass.”
305. “Which of these statements about induced drag are correct or incorrect?
I. Induced drag increases as angle of attack decreases.II. At constant load
factor, induced drag decreases with decreasing aeroplane mass.”
Induced drag decreases as angle of attack decreases.II. At constant load
factor, induced drag increases with decreasing aeroplane mass.”
307. Decreasing the aspect ratio of a wing:

A) increases gust load.
B) increases induced drag.
C) decreases stall speed.
D) decreases induced drag.
308. Reducing wing aspect ratio will:

A) Increase the lift coefficient obtained for a given angle of attack and increase the critical
angle of attack.
B) Reduce the lift coefficient obtained for a given angle of attack and increase the critical
angle of attack.
C) Increase the lift coefficient obtained for a given angle of attack and reduce the critical
angle of attack.
D) Reduce the lift coefficient obtained for a given angle of attack and reduce the critical
angle of attack.
309. Which is the correct statement for induced drag at a constant load factor?
A) Induced drag increases when the aeroplane mass is decreased.
B) Induced drag decreases when the aeroplane mass is decreased.
C) Induced drag increases as flap setting increases.
D) Induced drag decreases as angle of attack increases.
310. The induced drag increases as the…

A) magnitude of the tip vortices decreases.
B) Lift Coefficient increases.
C) Lift Coefficient decreases.
D) aspect ratio increases.
311. The coefficient of drag can be defined as the…

A) sum of induced drag and parasite drag.
B) ratio of lift forces to drag forces.
C) measure of the efficiency of the aeroplane.
D) ratio of drag pressure to dynamic pressure.
312. Which of the following are means to reduce induced drag?

A) Increasing the wing thickness, camber, and span.
B) Decreasing the taper ratio, increasing the root chord and sweep angle.
C) Increasing the aspect ratio and wing twist, adding winglets.
D) Decreasing the wingspan, increasing the approach speed and take&off weight.
313. An aeroplane’s Lift/Drag &L/D& ratio is…

A) a measure of its efficiency.
B) maximum when drag is maximum.
C) obtained by multiplying CL with CD.
D) the inverse of the glide ratio.
314. “Which drag components make up parasite drag?1. pressure drag.2.

friction drag.3. induced drag.4. interference drag.The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 4.
B) 1, 2, 3, 4.
C) 2, 3, 4.
D) 1, 3, 4.
315. The total drag of a three dimensional wing consists of:

A) induced drag and interference drag.
B) induced drag and parasite drag.
C) parasite drag and pressure drag.
D) pressure drag, friction drag and parasite drag.
316. The total drag of an aerofoil in two dimensional flow comprises:

A) pressure drag and skin friction drag.
B) induced drag and form drag.
C) skin friction drag and induced drag.
D) interference drag and skin friction drag.
317. Interference drag is the result of:

A) the addition of induced and parasite drag.
B) separation of the induced vortex.
C) downwash behind the wing.
D) aerodynamic interaction between aeroplane parts &e.g. wing/fuselage&.
318. Which component of drag increases most when an aileron is deflected

upwards?
A) Form drag.
B) Wave drag.
C) Induced drag.
D) Interference drag.
319. The value of the parasite drag in straight and level flight at constant
weight varies linearly with the:
A) speed.
B) angle of attack.
C) square of the speed.
D) square of the angle of attack.
320. In what way do &1& induced drag and &2& parasite drag alter with
increasing speed in straight and level flight?
A) &1& decreases and &2& decreases.
B) &1& increases and &2& increases.
C) &1& decreases and &2& increases.
D) &1& increases and &2& decreases.
321. “What happens to parasite drag if the true airspeed of an aircraft is

multiplied by two, and all other parameters are kept constant?The parasite
drag…”
A) is unaffected by speed.
B) will be multiplied by four.
C) will be divided by two.
D) will be multiplied by two.
322. “An aeroplane accelerates from 80 kt to 160 kt at a load factor equal to 1.

By what factors will the induced drag coefficient &i& and the induced drag
&ii& change?”
A) &i& 1/2 &ii& 1/16.
B) &i& 1/4 &ii& 2.
C) &i& 4 &ii& 1/2.
D) &i& 1/16 &ii& 1/4.
323. “Given a constant load factor, which of these statements about the
variation of induced drag with changes of speed and mass are correct or
incorrect? 1. When speed increases, induced drag decreases.2. When mass
increases, induced drag increases.”
324. “Given a constant load factor, which of these statements is correct about
the variation of induced drag with changes of speed and mass are correct or
incorrect? 1. When speed increases, induced drag decreases. 2. When mass
increases, induced drag decreases.”
incorrect? 1. When speed increases, induced drag increases2. When mass
increases, induced drag increases.”
incorrect? 1. When speed decreases, induced drag increases. 2. When mass
decreases, induced drag decreases.”
incorrect? 1. When speed decreases, induced drag decreases. 2. When mass
decreases, induced drag increases.”
incorrect? 1. When speed decreases, induced drag increases. 2. When mass
decreases, induced drag increases.”
incorrect? 1. When speed decreases, induced drag decreases. 2. When mass
decreases, induced drag decreases.”
330. “&For this question use annex 081&004 issue date November 2005&.The
diagram shows the parameter Y against TAS. If horizontal flight is considered
axis Y represents:”
A) parasite drag.
B) lift force.
C) induced drag.
D) total drag.
331. The aeroplane drag in straight and level flight is lowest when the:
A) parasite drag equals twice the induced drag.
B) induced drag is equal to zero.
C) parasite drag is equal to the induced drag.
D) induced drag is lowest.
332. Which one of the following statements about the lift&to&drag ratio in
straight and level flight is correct?
A) The highest value of the lift/drag ratio is reached when the lift is zero.
B) The lift/drag ratio always increases as the lift decreases.
C) The highest value of the lift/drag ratio is reached when the lift is equal to the aeroplane
weight.
D) At the highest value of the lift/drag ratio the total drag is lowest.
333. At a load factor of 1 and the aeroplane’s minimum drag speed, what is the
ratio between induced drag Di and parasite drag Dp?
A) It varies between aeroplane types.
B) Di/Dp = 2.
C) Di/Dp = 1.
D) Di/Dp = 1/2.
334. How does the total drag change, in straight and level flight at constant
mass, as speed is increased from the stall speed &VS& to maximum IAS &VNE
or VMO&?
A) Increases.
B) Decreases.
C) Initially increases, then decreases.
D) Initially decreases, then increases.
335. Total drag is the sum of:

A) friction drag and pressure drag.
B) parasite drag, interference drag and pressure drag.
C) induced drag and friction drag.
D) parasite drag and induced drag.
336. If the airspeed reduces in level flight below the speed for maximum L/D,
the total drag of an aeroplane will:
A) reduce because of reduced induced drag.
B) reduce because of reduced friction drag.
C) increase because of increased parasite drag.
D) increase because of increased induced drag.
337. “An aeroplane is maintaining straight and level flight at the stalling speed.
If the pilot now reduces the angle of attack and accelerates, the total drag will
initially:”
A) Remain constant.
B) Decrease.
C) Exceed the thrust.
D) Increase.
338. “&For this question use annex 081&003 issue date July 2004&.Which line
represents the total drag line of an aeroplane?”
A) Line a.
B) Line c.
C) Line b.
D) Line d.
339. An aeroplane, being manually flown in the speed unstable region,

experiences a disturbance that causes a speed reduction. If the altitude is
maintained and thrust remains constant, the aeroplane speed will:
A) initially further decrease and thereafter increase.
B) increase.
C) initially increase and thereafter decrease.
D) further decrease.
340. Consider an aircraft flying in unaccelerated level flight in the non&stable
region. What would be the result on Indicated Airspeed &IAS& and drag
following a sudden decrease in aircraft speed with no change in thrust
available?
A) IAS would further decrease due to the increased drag.
B) IAS would increase due to the increased drag.
C) IAS would increase due to the decreased drag.
D) IAS would further decrease due to the decreased drag.
341. When an aeroplane enters ground effect:

A) drag and lift are reduced.
B) the induced angle of attack is increased.
C) the effective angle of attack is decreased.
D) the lift is increased and the drag is decreased.
342. Assuming constant IAS, when an aeroplane enters ground effect:

A) the effective angle of attack decreases.
B) the effective angle of attack increases.
C) induced drag increases.
D) the induced angle of attack increases.
343. “Which statement, about an aeroplane entering ground effect at constant

angle of attack, is correct?I. The lift coefficient CL increases.II. The induced
drag coefficient CDi decreases.”

angle of attack, is correct?I. The lift coefficient CL remains constant.II. The
induced drag coefficient CDi decreases.”

angle of attack, is correct?I. The lift coefficient CL decreases.II. The induced
drag coefficient CDi remains constant.”


drag coefficient CDi increases.”

induced drag coefficient CDi increases.”

351. “Which statement, about an aeroplane leaving ground effect at constant

induced drag coefficient CDi increases.”





induced drag coefficient CDi decreases.”
359. “Which statement about an aeroplane entering ground effect is correct?I.

The downwash angle increases.II. The induced angle of attack decreases.”

The downwash angle remains constant.II. The induced angle of attack
decreases.”

The downwash angle decreases.II. The induced angle of attack decreases.”

The downwash angle increases.II. The induced angle of attack remains
constant.”

The downwash angle decreases.II. The induced angle of attack remains
constant.”
The downwash angle increases.II. The induced angle of attack increases.”

increases.”

The downwash angle decreases.II. The induced angle of attack increases.”
367. “Which statement about an aeroplane leaving ground effect is correct?I.

The downwash angle increases.II. The induced angle of attack increases.”

increases.”

The downwash angle decreases.II. The induced angle of attack increases.”

The downwash angle increases.II. The induced angle of attack remains
constant.”

The downwash angle decreases.II. The induced angle of attack remains
constant.”

The downwash angle increases.II. The induced angle of attack decreases.”

decreases.”

The downwash angle decreases.II. The induced angle of attack decreases.”

A) downwash does not change.
B) the effective angle of attack decreases.
C) the induced angle of attack increases.
D) induced drag reduces.

A) induced drag increases.
B) the effective angle of attack decreases.
C) downwash does not change.
D) downwash reduces.
377. Assuming constant IAS, when an aeroplane leaves ground effect:
A) the effective angle of attack decreases.
B) induced drag decreases.
C) the effective angle of attack increases.
D) the induced angle of attack decreases.

A) the effective angle of attack does not change.
B) the induced angle of attack reduces.
D) the effective angle of attack decreases.

A) the effective angle of attack increases.
B) the induced angle of attack increases.
C) the effective angle of attack does not change.
D) induced drag decreases.

B) the induced angle of attack decreases.
D) the effective angle of attack increases.

B) downwash increases.
C) induced drag decreases.
D) the effective angle of attack increases.
382. What will happen in ground effect?

A) The wing tip vortices increase in strength.
B) The wing downwash on the tail surfaces increases.
C) The induced angle of attack and induced drag decrease.
D) The thrust required will increase significantly.
383. An aeroplane entering the ground effect during the landing phase will
experience…
A) a reduction in interference drag.
B) an increase in wing&tip vortices.
C) a nose&down pitching moment.
D) an increase in induced drag.
384. An aeroplane leaving the ground effect after take&off will experience…
A) an increase in induced drag.
B) a reduction in wing&tip vortices.
C) a nose&down pitching moment.
D) an increase in form drag.
385. When entering ground effect, maintaining the same coefficient of lift, CL,
requires…
A) flaps to be set to the landing configuration.
B) a greater angle of attack.
C) a lower angle of attack.
D) an increase in thrust.
386. During the landing phase of flight, an aeroplane entering ground effect
with a constant angle of attack will…
A) experience an increase in coefficient of lift and have a tendency to float.
B) require a gradual increase in the required thrust in order to avoid a hard landing.
C) indicate a higher airspeed and require more rudder for directional control.
D) experience an increase in induced drag and have a tendency to land short.
387. Ground effect has the following influence on the landing distance:
A) increases, only if the landing flaps are fully extended.
B) does not change.
C) decreases.
D) increases.
388. Which aircraft design would be the most sensitive to changes in airflow
patterns when entering ground effect?
A) A high&wing aircraft with a high&mounted tailplane.
B) A low&wing aircraft with a low&mounted tailplane.
C) A high&wing aircraft with a low&mounted tailplane.
D) A low&wing aircraft with a high&mounted tailplane.
389. “An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight while the IAS is doubled.
The change in lift coefficient will be:”
A) & 0.5.
B) & 2.0.
C) & 0.25.
D) & 4.0.
390. In straight and level flight at a speed of 1.3 VS, the lift coefficient,
expressed as a percentage of its maximum CLMAX, would be:
A) 130&.
B) 169&.
C) 77&.
D) 59&.
391. Whilst maintaining straight and level flight with a lift coefficient CL=1,
what will be the new value of CL after the speed has doubled?
A) 0.25.
B) 0.50.
C) 2.00.
D) 1.00.
392. Whilst maintaining straight and level flight with a lift coefficient CL = 1,
what will be the new approximate value of CL after the speed is increased by
41 &?
A) 0.50.
B) 0.60.
C) 0.30.
D) 0.25.
393. Whilst maintaining straight and level flight with a lift coefficient CL = 1
what will be the new approximate value of CL after the speed is increased by
30 &?
A) 0.30.
B) 0.60.
C) 0.50.
D) 0.25.
A) 91 &.
B) 83 &.
C) 110 &.
D) 121 &.
A) 83 &.
B) 69 &.
C) 144 &.
D) 120 &.
A) 196 &.
B) 140 &.
C) 71 &.
D) 51 &.
A) 67 &.
B) 150 &.
C) 225 &.
D) 44 &.
A) 256 &.
B) 160 &.
C) 63 &.
D) 39 &.
A) 59 &.
B) 35 &.
C) 289 &.
D) 170 &.
A) 180 &.
B) 31 &.
C) 56 &.
D) 324 &.
A) 53 &.
B) 190 &.
C) 361 &.
D) 28 &.
402. In straight and level flight at a speed of 2 VS, the lift coefficient, expressed
as a percentage of its maximum CLMAX, would be:
A) 25 &.
B) 400 &.
C) 200 &.
D) 50 &.
403. An aeroplane in straight and level flight decelerates whilst maintaining its
configuration, the lift coefficient will…
A) remain the same.
B) decrease and then increase.
C) decrease.
D) increase.
404. “&For this question use annex ECQB&081&044&v2015&08.jpeg.& What

will be the consequence on the speed of the aircraft while going from Point B
to Point C and maintaining steady, straight and level flight?”
A) The aircraft’s speed remains unchanged.
B) The aircraft will stall.
C) The aircraft will be flown at a slower speed.
D) The aircraft will be flown at a faster speed.
405. Which of the following statements about boundary layers is correct?

A) The turbulent boundary layer gives a lower skin friction than the laminar boundary layer.
B) The turbulent boundary layer is thinner than the laminar boundary layer.
C) The turbulent boundary layer will separate more easily than the laminar boundary layer.
D) The turbulent boundary layer has more kinetic energy than the laminar boundary layer.
406. As angle of attack is increased on a conventional low speed aerofoil at

low subsonic speeds, flow separation normally starts on the:
A) lower surface near the trailing edge.
B) upper surface near the trailing edge.
C) upper surface near the leading edge.
D) lower surface near the leading edge.
407. Compared with level flight prior to the stall, the lift &1& and drag &2& in
the stall change as follows:
A) &1& increases &2& decreases.
B) &1& increases &2& increases.
C) &1& decreases &2& decreases.
D) &1& decreases &2& increases.
408. “Which of these statements about the effect of wing sweep on centre of
pressure location are correct or incorrect?1. The centre of pressure on an
unswept wing moves aft as the angle of attack approaches and exceeds the
critical angle of attack. 2. When sweep back increases the centre of pressure
has an increased tendency to move forward as the angle of attack approaches
and exceeds the critical angle of attack.”
409. The boundary layer of a wing is:

A) created by the normal shock wave at transonic speeds.
B) a layer on the wing in which the stream velocity is lower than the free stream velocity.
C) caused by suction on the upper wing surface.
D) a turbulent flow around the wing.
410. A laminar boundary layer is a layer, in which:

A) the velocity is constant.
B) no velocity components exist, normal to the surface.
C) the vortices are weak.
D) the temperature varies constantly.
411. The critical angle of attack:

A) remains unchanged regardless of gross weight.
B) decreases if the CG is moved aft.
C) changes with an increase in gross weight.
D) increases if the CG is moved forward.
412. Which statement is correct about the laminar and turbulent boundary
layer:
A) friction drag is lower in the laminar layer.
B) friction drag will be equal in both types of layers.
C) separation point will occur earlier in the turbulent layer.
D) friction drag is lower in the turbulent layer.
413. Behind the transition point in a boundary layer:

A) the boundary layer gets thinner and the mean speed increases.
B) the boundary layer gets thicker and the mean speed decreases.
C) the mean speed increases and the friction drag decreases.
D) the mean speed and friction drag increase.
414. Which boundary layer, when considering its velocity profile perpendicular
to the flow, has the greatest change in velocity close to the surface?
A) The boundary layer in the transition between turbulent and laminar.
B) No difference.
C) Turbulent boundary layer.
D) Laminar boundary layer.
415. The transition point is where the boundary layer changes from:
A) separated flow into attached flow.
B) turbulent into laminar.
C) attached flow into separated flow.
D) laminar into turbulent.
416. Which of these statements about boundary layers is correct?

A) A turbulent boundary layer produces less friction drag than a laminar one.
B) A laminar boundary layer turns into a turbulent one at the transition point.
C) A laminar boundary layer is thicker than a turbulent one.
D) Compared with a turbulent boundary layer, a laminar boundary layer is better able to
resist a positive pressure gradient before it separates.
pressure location are correct or incorrect? 1. The centre of pressure on an
unswept wing moves forward as the angle of attack approaches and exceeds
the critical angle of attack. 2. When sweep back increases the centre of
pressure has an increased tendency to move aft as the angle of attack
approaches and exceeds the critical angle of attack.”
unswept wing moves aft as the angle of attack approaches and exceeds the
critical angle of attack.2. When sweep back increases the centre of pressure
has an increased tendency to move aft as the angle of attack approaches and
exceeds the critical angle of attack.”
unswept wing moves forward as the angle of attack approaches and exceeds
the critical angle of attack.2. When sweep back increases the centre of
pressure has an increased tendency to move forward as the angle of attack
approaches and exceeds the critical angle of attack.”
420. An aeroplane stalls due to excessive:

A) Angle of attack.
B) Aeroplane mass.
C) Attitude.
D) Angle of incidence.

A) A turbulent boundary layer turns into a laminar one at the transition point.
B) A turbulent boundary layer produces more friction drag than a laminar one.
C) A laminar boundary layer is thicker than a turbulent one.
D) Compared with a turbulent boundary layer, a laminar boundary layer is better able to

A) A turbulent boundary layer turns into a laminar one at the transition point.
B) A laminar boundary layer is thinner than a turbulent one.
C) Compared with a turbulent boundary layer, a laminar boundary layer is better able to
D) A turbulent boundary layer produces less friction drag than a laminar one.
A) A turbulent boundary layer becomes laminar at the transition point.
B) Compared with a laminar boundary layer, a turbulent boundary layer is better able to
C) A turbulent boundary layer produces less friction drag than a laminar one.
D) A laminar boundary layer is thicker than a turbulent one.
424. Given an aeroplane in steady, straight and level flight at low speed and
considering the effects of CG location and thrust, the highest value of wing lift
occurs at:
A) forward CG and high thrust.
B) forward CG and low thrust.
C) aft CG and high thrust.
D) aft CG and low thrust.
425. In a steady, level, co&ordinated turn the load factor n and the stall speed
VS will be:
A) n greater than 1, VS higher than in straight and level flight.
B) n greater than 1, VS lower than in straight and level flight.
C) n smaller than 1, VS lower than in straight and level flight.
D) n smaller than 1, VS higher than in straight and level flight.
426. Which of the following situations leads to a decreasing stall speed

&IAS&?
A) decreasing weight.
B) increasing air density.
C) increasing altitude.
D) increasing load factor.
427. An increase in wing loading will:

A) decrease the minimum glide angle.
B) increase sensitivity to turbulence.
C) increase the stall speed.
D) increase CLMAX.
428. The stall speed:

A) increases with an increased weight.
B) decreases with an increased weight.
C) increases with the length of the wingspan.
D) does not depend on weight.
429. Stall speed &IAS& varies with:

A) weight.
B) altitude. &below approximately 10000 ft&
C) density.
D) temperature.
430. During a steady horizontal turn, the stall speed:
A) increases inversely with the load factor.
B) increases with the square of the load factor.
C) increases with the square root of the load factor.
D) increases linearly with the load factor.
431. The stall speed in a 60° banked turn increases by the following factor:
A) 1.41.
B) 1.07.
C) 2.00.
D) 1.30.
432. “An aeroplane has a stall speed of 78 kt at its mass of 6850 kg. What is
the stall speed when the mass is 5000 kg?”
A) 67 kt.
B) 91 kt.
C) 57 kt.
D) 78 kt.
433. Dividing lift by weight gives:

A) wing loading.
B) lift & drag ratio.
C) aspect ratio.
D) load factor.
434. Load factor is:

A) 1/Bank angle.
B) Weight/Lift.
C) Lift/Weight.
D) Wing loading.
435. The wing of an aeroplane will never stall at low subsonic speeds as long
as….
A) there is a nose&down attitude.
B) the IAS exceeds the power&on stall speed.
C) the CAS exceeds the power&on stall speed.
D) the angle of attack is smaller than the value at which the stall occurs.
436. The stall speed increases, when: &all other factors of importance being
constant&
A) spoilers are retracted.
B) minor altitude changes occur e.g. 0&10.000 ft.
C) weight decreases.
D) pulling out of a dive.
437. By what approximate percentage will the stall speed increase in a
horizontal co&ordinated turn with a bank angle of 45°?
A) 19 &.
B) 52 &.
C) 41 &.
D) 31 &.
438. “An aeroplane has a stall speed of 100 kt. When the aeroplane is flying a
level co&ordinated turn with a load factor of 1.5, the aeroplane will stall in this
turn at:”
A) 122 kt.
B) 150 kt.
C) 82 kt.
D) 141 kt.
439. “Which statement is correct?I. Stall speeds are determined with the CG at
the aft limit.II. Minimum control speeds are determined with the CG at the
forward limit.”
440. “An aeroplane has a stall speed of 100 kt at a load factor n = 1. In a turn
with a load factor of n = 2, the stall speed is:”
A) 141 kt.
B) 282 kt.
C) 70 kt.
D) 200 kt.
441. “The stall speed decreases: &all other relevant factors are constant&”
A) when flaps are retracted.
B) in a horizontal turn.
C) when the CG is moved forward.
D) when, during a manoeuvre, the aeroplane nose is suddenly pushed firmly downwards
&e.g. as in a push over&.
442. The following factors increase stall speed:

A) a lower weight, decreasing bank angle, a smaller flap setting.
B) a higher weight, selecting a higher flap setting, a forward CG movement.
C) increasing bank angle, increasing thrust, slat extension.
D) an increase in load factor, a forward CG movement, decrease in thrust.
443. Given an initial condition in straight and level flight with a speed of 1.4 VS.
The maximum bank angle attainable without stalling in a steady co&ordinated
turn, whilst maintaining speed and altitude, is approximately:
A) 30°.
B) 32°.
C) 44°.
D) 60°.
444. “An aeroplane has a stall speed of 100 kt at a mass of 1000 kg. If the mass
is increased to 2000 kg, the new value of the stall speed will be:”
A) 200 kt.
B) 123 kt.
C) 150 kt.
D) 141 kt.
445. Wing loading is the ratio between:

A) aeroplane weight and lift coefficient.
B) chord and aeroplane weight.
C) aeroplane weight and wing span.
D) aeroplane weight and wing area.
446. If the stall speed of an aeroplane is 60 kt, at what speed will the aeroplane
stall if the load factor is 2?
A) 120 kt.
B) 72 kt.
C) 66 kt.
D) 85 kt.
the forward limit. II. Minimum control speeds are determined with the CG at the
aft limit.”
the aft limit. II. Minimum control speeds are determined with the CG at the aft
limit.”
the forward limit.II. Minimum control speeds are determined with the CG at the
forward limit.”
450. The load factor is greater than 1 &one&:
A) in steady wings level horizontal flight.
B) during a steady wings level climb.
C) during a wings level stall before recovery.
D) when lift is greater than weight.
451. Given an aeroplane in steady, straight and level flight at low speed and
considering the effects of CG location and thrust, the lowest value of wing lift
occurs at:
A) forward CG and high thrust.
B) aft CG and low thrust.
C) aft CG and high thrust.
D) forward CG and low thrust.
452. The load factor is less than 1 &one&:

B) during recovery after a wings level stall.
C) when lift is less than weight.
D) during a steady horizontal turn.

A) during a steady wings level climb.
B) during a wings level stall before recovery.
C) in steady wings level horizontal flight.
D) during a pull&up manoeuvre
454. VS1 is:

A) the stall speed in the landing configuration.
B) the reference stall speed.
C) the stall speed in a specified configuration.
D) the minimum speed at which the aeroplane can develop a lift force &normal to the flight
path& equal to its weight.
455. VS0 is:

A) the minimum speed at which the aeroplane can develop a lift force &normal to the flight
B) the stall speed in a specified configuration.
C) the reference stall speed.
D) the stall speed in the landing configuration.
456. VSR is:

A) the stall speed in a specified configuration.
B) the stall speed in the landing configuration.
C) the reference stall speed.
457. VS1g is:
A) the reference stall speed.
B) the stall speed in the landing configuration.
C) the stall speed in a specified configuration.
458. The correct definition of VS1 is:

A) the stall speed obtained in a specified configuration.
B) the minimum steady flight speed obtained in a specified configuration.
C) the stall speed or the minimum steady flight speed obtained in a specified configuration.
D) the stall speed in the clean configuration.
459. The reference stall speed is represented by the following:

A) VS1g.
B) VS0.
C) VS1.
D) VSR.
460. The minimum speed at which lift equals weight is called:

A) VS0.
B) VS1.
C) VS1g.
D) VSR.

B) when weight is greater than lift.
C) during recovery after a wings level stall.
462. VS1g is:

A) the maximum speed at which the aeroplane can develop a lift force &normal to the flight
B) the minimum speed at which the aeroplane can develop a lift force equal to its mass.
C) the minimum speed at which the aeroplane can develop a lift force &normal to the flight
D) the maximum speed at which the aeroplane can develop a lift force equal to its mass.

B) during a wings level stall before recovery.
C) during a steady co&ordinated horizontal turn.
D) when weight is greater than lift.
A) when lift is greater than weight.
B) during recovery after a wings level stall.
C) during a steady wings level climb.
D) in steady wings level horizontal flight.

A) during a wings level stall before recovery.
B) during a steady wings level climb.
C) in steady wings level horizontal flight.
D) when weight is less than lift.

B) during a steady wings level descent.
D) when weight is less than lift.

A) during recovery after a wings level stall.
B) in steady wings level horizontal flight.
C) when weight is greater than lift.
D) during a steady wings level climb.

A) when lift is greater than weight.
B) during a steady horizontal turn.
C) during a wings level stall before recovery.
D) in steady wings level horizontal flight.

B) during a push&over manoeuvre.
470. A boundary layer fence on a swept wing will improve the:

A) Dutch roll characteristics.
B) low&speed stall characteristics.
C) Mach buffet characteristics.
D) lift coefficient of the trailing edge flap.
471. “Wing twist &geometric and aerodynamic& is used to:1. improve stall
characteristics.2. reduce induced drag.3. reduce interference drag.4. increase
VMO.The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2.
B) 2, 3.
C) 3, 4.
D) 1, 3.
472. The main purpose of a boundary&layer fence on a swept wing is to:

A) increase the critical Mach number.
B) improve the high speed handling characteristics.
C) improve the low speed handling characteristics.
D) improve the lift coefficient of the trailing edge flaps.
473. How is stall warning presented to the pilots of a large transport

aeroplane?
A) Aural warning only.
B) Stick pusher.
C) Stall warning light only.
D) Stick shaker and/or aerodynamic buffet.
474. The vane of a stall warning system with a flapper switch is activated by
the change of the:
A) centre of pressure.
B) point of lowest pressure.
C) stagnation point.
D) centre of gravity.
475. The sensor of a stall warning system can be activated by a change in the
location of the:
A) transition region.
B) centre of gravity.
C) stagnation point.
D) centre of lift.
476. At stalling speed, the stall warning vane on the leading edge of small
aeroplanes moves:
A) Up due to movement of the centre of pressure.
B) Up due to movement of the stagnation point.
C) Down due to movement of the centre of pressure.
D) Down due to movement of the stagnation point.
477. Which stall&detection device uses the movement of the leading&edge

stagnation point to detect a stall?
A) A flapper switch.
B) A stick shaker.
C) An angle of attack vane.
D) An angle of attack probe.
478. “On a swept wing aeroplane at low airspeed, the “”pitch up””
phenomenon:”
A) “never occurs, since a swept wing is a “”remedy”” to pitch up.”
B) is caused by extension of trailing edge lift augmentation devices.
C) is caused by boundary layer fences mounted on the wings.
D) is caused by wingtip stall.
479. Low speed pitch up can be caused by the:

A) dihedral effect.
B) boundary layer separation at the wing tip of a forward swept wing.
C) outward drift of the boundary layer on a swept&back wing.
D) wing tip vortices on high aspect ratio wings.
480. Which of these statements about stall speed is correct?

A) Increasing sweepback decreases stall speed.
B) Decreasing wing anhedral decreases stall speed.
C) Increasing sweepback increases stall speed.
D) Increasing wing anhedral decreases stall speed.
481. During an normal spin recovery:

A) the control stick is moved side ways, against the angle of bank.
B) the ailerons are held in the neutral position.
C) the control stick is pulled to the most aft position.
D) the control stick is moved side ways, in the direction of the angle of bank.
482. Which combination of design features is known to be responsible for

deep stall?
A) Swept&back wings and a T&tail.
B) Swept&back wings and wing&mounted engines.
C) Straight wings and a T&tail.
D) Straight wings and aft, fuselage&mounted engines.
483. When a strongly swept&back wing stalls and the wake of the wing
contacts the horizontal tail, the effect on the stall behaviour can be a&n&:
A) nose down tendency.
B) nose up tendency and/or lack of elevator response.
C) increase in sensitivity of elevator inputs.
D) tendency to increase speed after initial stall.
484. A stick pusher:

A) vibrates the elevator control.
B) pushes the elevator control to avoid a stall at a negative load factor.
C) pushes the elevator control forward when a specified value of angle of attack is
exceeded.
D) pushes the elevator control forward prior to stick shaker activation.
485. Dangerous stall characteristics, in large transport aeroplanes that require

stick pushers to be installed, include:
A) distinct aerodynamic buffet.
B) pitch down and increase in speed.
C) excessive wing drop and deep stall.
D) pitch down and yaw.
486. The type of stall that has the largest associated angle of attack is:
A) an accelerated stall.
B) a shock stall.
C) a low speed stall.
D) a deep stall.
487. The most important problem of ice accretion on a transport aeroplane

during flight is:
A) increase in drag.
B) reduction in CLMAX.
C) increase in weight.
D) blocking of control surfaces.
488. “Which statement is correct?I. A stick pusher activates at a higher angle

of attack than a stick shaker.II. A stick pusher prevents the pilot from
increasing the angle of attack further.”
489. When considering a swept&back wing, without corrective design features,

at the stall:
A) tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose&up pitching moment.
B) tip stall will occur first, which produces a nose&down pitching moment.
C) leading edge stall will occur first, which produces a nose&down pitching moment.
D) wing root stall will occur first, which produces a rolling moment.
490. “Regarding deep stall characteristics, identify whether the following

statements are correct or incorrect:I. The combination of a wing with
sweepback and a T&tail make an aeroplane prone to deep stall.II. A stick
pusher system can be fitted to an aeroplane that exhibits abnormal stall
characteristics.”
491. The pitch up tendency of an aeroplane with swept back wings during a
stall is caused by the:
A) forward movement of the centre of gravity.
B) aft movement of the centre of pressure.
C) forward movement of the centre of pressure.
D) aft movement of the centre of gravity.
492. The pitch up effect of an aeroplane with swept&back wing in a stall is due
to the:
A) wing root stalling first.
B) forward movement of the centre of gravity.
C) wing tip stalling first.
D) aft movement of the centre of gravity.
493. During a co&ordinated climbing turn to the right the:

A) angle of attack of the left wing is larger than the angle of attack of the right wing.
B) stall angle of attack of the left wing will be larger than the corresponding angle for the right
wing.
C) angle of attack of both wings is the same.
D) angle of attack of the left wing is smaller than the angle of attack of the right wing.
494. One disadvantage of wing sweepback is:

A) a severe pitch down moment when the centre of pressure shifts forward.
B) the tendency of the wing root section to stall prior to the wingtip section.
C) that the critical Mach number is significantly lower.
D) the tendency of the wingtip section to stall prior to the wing root section.

statements are correct or incorrect:I. A wing with forward sweep and a low
horizontal tail makes an aeroplane prone to deep stall.II. A stick shaker system
is fitted to an aeroplane to resolve deep stall problems.”

statements are correct or incorrect:I. The combination of a wing with
sweepback and a T&tail make an aeroplane prone to deep stall. II. A stick
shaker system is fitted to an aeroplane to resolve deep stall problems.”

statements are correct or incorrect:I. A wing with forward sweep and a low
horizontal tail makes an aeroplane prone to deep stall.II. A stick pusher system
can be fitted to an aeroplane that exhibits abnormal stallcharacteristics.”

statements are correct or incorrect:I. An aeroplane with a low horizontal tail
and wings with sweepback is normally prone to deep stall. II. An aeroplane
with a canard is normally prone to deep stall.”
499. “Which statement is correct?I. A stick pusher activates at a lower angle of

attack than a stick shaker.II. A stick shaker prevents the pilot from increasing
the angle of attack further.”
500. “Which statement is correct?I. A stick pusher activates at a higher angle

of attack than a stick shaker.II. A stick shaker prevents the pilot from
increasing the angle of attack further.”
501. Negative tail stall is:

A) a typical aerodynamic problem for canards.
B) flow separation at the rear of the lower surface of the wing.
C) a sudden reduction in the downward aerodynamic force on the tailplane.
D) flow reversal on the fin leading to flow re&attachment.
502. Which statement about negative tail stall is correct?

A) Negative tail stall is a stall of the tailplane when the aerodynamic force is in upward
direction.
B) When negative tail stall occurs, the aeroplane will show an uncontrollable pitch&down
moment.
C) When negative tail stall occurs, the aeroplane will show an uncontrollable pitch&up
moment.
D) Negative tail stall is a stall of the fin with a negative sideslip angle &nose pointing to the
right of the relative airflow&.
503. A spin could arise from:

A) Abrupt use of the rudder during cruising flight.
B) Large rudder deflection during a stall.
C) A forward centre of gravity.
D) Maximum load factor exceedance.

A) Decreasing forward sweep decreases stall speed.
B) Increasing wing anhedral decreases stall speed.
C) Decreasing wing anhedral decreases stall speed.
D) Decreasing forward sweep increases stall speed.

A) Increasing forward sweep decreases stall speed.
B) Increasing wing anhedral decreases stall speed.
C) Increasing forward sweep increases stall speed.
D) Decreasing wing anhedral decreases stall speed.

A) Increasing wing anhedral decreases stall speed.
B) Decreasing wing anhedral decreases stall speed.
C) Decreasing sweepback decreases stall speed.
D) Decreasing sweepback increases stall speed.
507. “Given the following aeroplane configurations:1. Clean wing.2. Slats only
extended.3. Flaps only extended.Place these configurations in order of
increasing critical angle of attack:”
A) 1, 3, 2.
B) 3, 1, 2.
C) 2, 1, 3.
D) 2, 3, 1.
508. “An aeroplane has the following flap settings: 0°, 15°, 30° and 45°. Slats
can also be selected. Which of the following selections will most adversely
affect the CL/CD ratio?”
A) Flaps from 15° to 30°.
B) The slats.
C) Flaps from 30° to 45°.
D) Flaps from 0° to 15°.
509. After take&off the slats &when installed& are always retracted later than
the flaps. Why?
A) Because SLATS EXTENDED provides a better view from the cockpit than FLAPS
EXTENDED.
B) Because VMCA with SLATS EXTENDED is more favourable compared with the FLAPS
EXTENDED situation.
C) Because FLAPS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less
drag.
D) Because SLATS EXTENDED gives a large decrease in stall speed with relatively less
drag.
510. Slat or flap asymmetry occurring after either extension or retraction, may
have an effect on controllability since:
A) slat asymmetry causes a large rolling moment, whereas flap asymmetry causes a large
yawing moment.
B) slat and flap asymmetry both cause a large yawing moment.
C) slat and flap asymmetry both cause a large rolling moment.
D) slat asymmetry causes a yawing moment, whereas flap asymmetry causes a large rolling
moment.
511. The purpose of correctly setting the leading and trailing edge devices on
the wing of an aeroplane during take&off, approach and landing is to:
A) reduce the take&off roll and increase the landing roll.
B) reduce stall speed, increase CLMAX with minimum increase in drag for take&off, but with
a relatively high drag for approach and landing.
C) increase stall speed and CLMAX during take&off, but reduce stall speed with a relatively
high drag during approach and landing.
D) reduce stall speed and drag during take&off and landing.
512. “An large jet transport aeroplane has the following four flap positions: Up,
Take&off, Approach and Landing and two slat positions: Retracted and
Extended. Generally speaking, the selection that provides the highest positive
contribution to CLMAX is:”
A) flaps from Approach to Landing.
B) slats from Retracted to Extended.
C) flaps from Up to Take&off.
D) flaps from Take&off to Approach.
513. Ignoring downwash effects on the tailplane, extension of Fowler flaps, will
produce:
A) no pitching moment.
B) a nose down pitching moment.
C) a nose up pitching moment.
D) a force which reduces drag.
514. Upon extension of Fowler flaps whilst maintaining the same angle of
attack:
A) CL decreases, while the centre of lift shifts forward.
B) CL and CD increase.
C) CD decreases, while the centre of lift shifts aft.
D) CL increases, while CD remains unaffected.
515. The main function of a trailing edge flap is to:

A) trim the aeroplane longitudinally.
B) increase the angle of attack at which a wing will stall.
C) increase the maximum lift coefficient of the wing.
D) alter the position of the centre of gravity.
516. “On a wing fitted with a “”Fowler”” type trailing edge flap, the “”Full
extended”” position will produce:”
A) an increase in wing area and camber.
B) an unaffected wing area and increase in camber.
C) an increase in wing area only.
D) an unaffected CD, at a given angle of attack.
517. What is the effect on an aeroplane’s characteristics of extending Fowler

flaps to their fully extended position?
A) wing area remains constant but camber increases.
B) CLMAX occurs at a higher angle of attack.
C) wing area and camber increase.
D) CD remains constant for a given angle of attack.
518. When flaps are extended whilst maintaining straight and level flight at
constant IAS, the lift coefficient will:
A) eventually remain the same.
B) eventually decrease.
C) eventually increase.
D) first decrease and then increase.
519. When flaps are deployed at constant angle of attack the lift coefficient
will:
A) vary as the square of IAS.
B) remain the same.
C) increase.
D) decrease.
520. Trailing edge flap extension will:

A) increase the critical angle of attack and increase the value of CLMAX.
B) increase the critical angle of attack and decrease the value of CLMAX.
C) decrease the critical angle of attack and decrease the value of CLMAX.
D) decrease the critical angle of attack and increase the value of CLMAX.
521. What is the most effective flap system?

A) Fowler flap.
B) Split flap.
C) Plain flap.
D) Single slotted flap.
522. Deploying a Fowler flap, the flap will:

A) turn down, then move aft.
B) just turn down.
C) move aft, then turn down.
D) just move aft.
523. A slotted flap will increase the CLMAX by:

A) increasing the camber of the aerofoil and re&energising the airflow.
B) increasing only the camber of the aerofoil.
C) decreasing the skin friction.
D) increasing the critical angle of attack.
524. In order to maintain straight and level flight at a constant airspeed, whilst
the flaps are being retracted, the angle of attack must be:
A) held constant.
B) increased.
C) decreased.
D) increased or decreased depending upon the type of flap.
525. Flap extension at constant IAS whilst maintaining straight and level flight
will increase the:
A) lift coefficient and the drag.
B) stall speed.
C) lift and the drag.
D) maximum lift coefficient &CLMAX& and the drag.
526. Trailing edge flaps once extended:

A) significantly lower the drag.
B) degrade the minimum glide angle.
C) significantly increase the angle of attack for maximum lift.
D) increase the zero lift angle of attack.
527. A plain flap will increase CLMAX by:

A) centre of lift movement.
B) increasing angle of attack.
C) increasing the camber of the aerofoil.
D) boundary layer control.
528. From an initial condition of level flight the flaps are retracted at a constant
pitch attitude. The aeroplane will subsequently:
A) maintain level flight.
B) start to bank.
C) start to climb.
D) start to sink.
529. “From an initial condition of level flight the flaps are extended at a
constant pitch attitude. The aeroplane will subsequently:”
A) maintain level flight.
B) start to sink.
C) start to bank.
D) start to climb.
530. Compared with the clean configuration, the angle of attack at CLMAX with
trailing edge flaps extended is:
A) smaller or larger depending on the degree of flap extension.
B) unchanged.
C) larger.
D) smaller.
531. “The difference between the effects of slat and flap asymmetry is that:
&””large”” in the context of this question means not or hardly controllable by
normal use of controls&”
A) flap asymmetry causes a large difference in CLMAX whereas slat asymmetry causes a
large rolling moment at any speed.
B) flap asymmetry causes a large yawing moment whereas slat asymmetry causes a large
rolling moment at any speed.
C) flap asymmetry causes a large rolling moment whereas slat asymmetry causes a large
yawing moment.
D) flap asymmetry causes a large rolling moment at any speed whereas slat asymmetry
causes a large difference in CLMAX.
532. When Fowler type trailing edge flaps are extended at a constant angle of
attack, the following changes will occur:
A) CD decreases and the centre of pressure moves aft.
B) CL increases and CD remains constant.
C) CL increases and the centre of pressure moves forward.
D) CL and CD increase.

A) Flap extension will increase &CL/CD&max thus causing a reduction in the minimum rate
of descent.
B) Flap extension has no influence on the minimum rate of descent, as only TAS has to be
taken into account.
C) Spoiler extension causes a reduction in stall speed and the minimum rate of descent, but
increases the minimum descent angle.
D) Flap extension causes a reduction in stall speed and the maximum glide distance.
534. The highest value of the CL/CD ratio of an aeroplane is obtained:

A) in the configuration where both the leading and trailing edge flaps are fully extended.
B) in the configuration where only the leading edge slats are fully extended.
C) in the clean configuration.
D) in the configuration where only the trailing edge flaps are fully extended.
535. When flaps are retracted at constant angle of attack the lift coefficient will:
A) increase.
B) vary as the square of IAS.
C) decrease.
D) remain the same.
536. High lift devices are used:

A) When cruising with a high gross mass.
B) During approach in order to reduce flight speed.
C) During take&off and are retracted when cruising altitude has been reached.
D) To increase lift during the approach.
537. “&For this question use annex 081&008 issue date July 2004&.Which type
of flap is shown in the figure?”
A) Split flap.
B) Plain flap.
C) Double slotted flap.
D) Fowler flap.
538. “&For this question use annex 081&009 issue date July 2004&.Which type
of flap is shown in the figure?”
A) Single slotted flap.
B) Fowler flap.
C) Split flap.
D) Plain flap.
539. Which of the following statements about the difference between Krueger
flaps and slats is correct?
A) Deploying a Krueger flap will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a slat does not.
B) Deploying a Krueger flap will form a slot, deploying a slat does not.
C) Deploying a slat will form a slot, deploying a Krueger flap does not.
D) Deploying a slat will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a Krueger flap does not.
540. The function of the slot between an extended slat and the leading edge of
the wing is to:
A) allow space for vibration of the slat.
B) slow the airflow in the slot so that more pressure is created under the wing.
C) cause a venturi effect, which energises the boundary layer.
D) reduce the wing loading.
541. Extension of leading edge flaps will:

A) increase critical angle of attack.
B) decrease CLMAX.
C) not affect critical angle of attack.
D) decrease drag.
542. Slat extension will:

A) increase the critical angle of attack.
B) decrease the energy in the boundary layer on the upper side of the wing.
C) reduce tip vortices.
D) create gaps between leading edge and engine nacelles.
543. What increases the critical angle of attack? Use of:

A) spoilers.
B) flaps.
C) fuselage&mounted speed brakes.
D) slats.
544. The use of a slot in the leading edge of the wing enables the aeroplane to
fly at a slower speed because:
A) it delays the stall to a higher angle of attack.
B) the laminar part of the boundary layer gets thicker.
C) it changes the camber of the wing.
D) it decelerates the upper surface boundary layer air.
545. Slat extension:

A) provides a boundary layer suction on the upper surface of the wing.
B) decreases the camber of the aerofoil and diverts the flow around the sharp leading edge.
C) increases the lift by increasing the wing area and the camber of the aft portion of the
wing.
D) delays the stall to a higher angle of attack.
546. For most jet transport aeroplanes, slat extension has:

A) a minor effect on stall speed whereas flap extension has a significant effect.
B) the same minor effect on stall speed as flap extension.
C) the same significant effect on stall speed as flap extension.
D) a greater effect on stall speed than flap extension.
547. “&For this question use annex 081&010 issue date July 2004&.The high
lift device shown in the figure is a:”
A) Krueger flap.
B) slotted flap.
C) Fowler flap.
D) slat.
548. “&For this question use annex 081&011 issue date July 2004&.The high
lift device shown in the figure is a:”
A) Fowler flap.
B) Krueger flap.
C) slotted flap.
D) slot or slat.
549. What is the purpose of vortex generators?

A) To increase the kinetic energy of the boundary layer.
B) To increase high&speed buffet due to shock wave formation.
C) To reduce the aerofoil’s critical Angle Of Attack.
D) To promote an earlier separation of the boundary layer.
550. Vortex generators:

A) transfer energy from the free airflow into the boundary layer.
B) take kinetic energy out of the boundary layer to reduce separation.
C) reduce the spanwise flow on swept wing.
D) change the turbulent boundary layer into a laminar boundary layer.
551. The speed of sound is determined only by:
A) density.
B) humidity.
C) pressure.
D) temperature.
552. Which statement with respect to the speed of sound is correct?

A) Is independent of altitude.
B) Increases always if the density of the air decreases.
C) Doubles if the temperature increases from 9° to 36° Centigrade.
D) Varies with the square root of the absolute temperature.
553. What is the relationship between the Speed of Sound &a& and Absolute
Temperature &T&?
A) &a& is inversely proportional to the square of &T&.
B) &a& is proportional to the square root of &T&.
C) &a& is proportional to the square of &T&.
D) &a& is inversely proportional to the square root of &T&.
554. “How does the speed of sound change with changing altitude in
International Standard Atmosphere &ISA& conditions?As the altitude
increases, the speed of sound…”
A) increases in the troposphere.
B) decreases in the lower part of the stratosphere.
C) increases in the lower part of the stratosphere.
D) decreases in the troposphere.
555. “The formula for the Mach number is:&a = speed of sound&”
A) M = TAS / a.
B) M = TAS & a.
C) M = a / TAS.
D) M = IAS / a.
556. The Mach number is the ratio between the:

A) IAS of the aeroplane and the speed of sound of the undisturbed flow.
B) TAS of the aeroplane and the speed of sound at sea level.
C) TAS of the aeroplane and the speed of sound of the undisturbed flow.
D) IAS of the aeroplane and the speed of sound at sea level.
557. if the Mach number is 0.8 and the TAS is 480 kt, what is the speed of
sound?
A) 750 kt.
B) 560 kt.
C) 600 kt.
D) 384 kt.
558. “Calculate the Mach number, given the following:CAS: 293 kt TAS: 385 kt
Temperature: &48° C”
A) 0.582
B) 0.761
C) 0.658
D) 0.501
559. “A jet transport aeroplane is in a straight climb at a constant IAS and

constant weight. The operational limit that may be exceeded is:”
A) MD.
B) MMO.
C) VA.
D) VMO.
560. If the altitude is increased and the TAS remains constant in the
troposphere under standard atmospheric conditions, the Mach number will:
A) increase or decrease, depending on the type of aeroplane.
B) not change.
C) decrease.
D) increase.
561. Assuming ISA conditions, climbing at a constant Mach number up the

tropopause the TAS will:
A) increase.
B) decrease.
C) first increase, then decrease.
D) remain constant.
562. A commercial jet aeroplane is performing a straight descent at a constant

Mach number with constant mass. The operational speed limit that may be
exceeded is:
A) MMO.
B) VD.
C) VNE.
D) VMO.
563. An aeroplane is descending at a constant Mach number from FL 350.

What is the effect on true airspeed?
A) It decreases as altitude decreases.
B) It decreases as pressure increases.
C) It increases as temperature increases.
D) It remains constant.
564. During a climb at a constant IAS, the Mach number will:

A) increase initially and remain constant subsequently.
B) decrease initially and increase subsequently.
C) remain constant.
D) increase.
565. How does the Mach number change during a climb at constant IAS from
sea level to 40000 ft?
A) Initially remains constant until approximately 25000 ft and then increases with increasing
altitude.
B) Initially remains constant until approximately 25000 ft and then decreases with increasing
altitude.
C) Decreases with increasing altitude.
D) Increases with increasing altitude.
566. Assuming ISA conditions, which statement with respect to the climb is
correct?
A) At constant TAS the Mach number decreases.
B) At constant IAS the TAS decreases.
C) At constant Mach number the IAS increases.
D) At constant IAS the Mach number increases.
567. During a descent at a constant Mach number &assume zero thrust and
standard atmospheric conditions&:
A) the angle of attack will decrease.
B) the TAS will decrease.
C) the pitch angle will increase.
D) the descent angle will decrease.
568. Assuming ISA conditions and a climb above the tropopause at constant
Mach number and aeroplane mass, the:
A) lift coefficient decreases.
B) lift coefficient remains constant.
C) TAS increases.
D) IAS decreases.
569. Assuming ISA conditions and a descent above the tropopause at constant
A) IAS decreases.
B) lift coefficient decreases.
C) TAS increases.
D) lift coefficient increases.
A) lift coefficient decreases.
B) TAS decreases.
C) IAS increases.
A) lift coefficient increases.
C) TAS remains constant.
D) IAS decreases.
A) IAS increases.
D) lift coefficient decreases.
573. Assuming ISA conditions and a climb below the tropopause at constant
A) TAS remains constant.
C) IAS decreases.
D) lift coefficient remains constant.
574. Assuming ISA conditions and a descent below the tropopause at constant
A) lift coefficient remains constant.
B) lift coefficient increases.
C) TAS increases.
D) IAS decreases.
A) lift coefficient increases.
B) TAS remains constant.
C) IAS increases.
A) IAS decreases.
A) IAS increases.
B) TAS decreases.
C) lift coefficient remains constant.
Mach number and aeroplane mass, the…
B) TAS decreases.
C) IAS increases.
D) IAS decreases.
Mach number and aeroplane mass, the…
B) IAS decreases.
D) IAS increases.
580. You are in cruise flight and maintaining a constant pressure altitude
&flight level& and IAS, which keeps you flying close to Mcrit. You suddenly
encounter a cold air mass. What is most probable to happen?
A) Mach speed stays constant.
B) Mach speed increases or decreases, depending on the exact temperature of the cold air
mass.
C) Mach speed decreases, and you could stall if you do not intervene.
D) “Mach speed increases
581. An aircraft is descending from FL290 at a constant Mach number close to

MMO. What must the flight crew do to avoid accidentally exceeding VMO?
A) At the changeover altitude the flight crew must stop flying at a Mach number and fly at an
increased IAS.
B) At the transition level the flight crew must stop flying at a Mach number and fly at a
constant IAS.
C) At the transition level the flight crew must stop flying at a Mach number and fly at an
increased IAS.
D) At the changeover altitude the flight crew must stop flying at a Mach number and fly at a
constant IAS.
582. “An aircraft is climbing at a constant IAS close to VMO above FL230. What
could the flight crew do to avoid accidentally exceeding MMO?The flight crew
must…”
A) decelerate past VS0 to avoid exceeding MMO.
B) stop flying at a constant IAS and fly at a constant TAS.
C) stop flying at a constant IAS and fly at a constant Mach number.
D) accelerate past VMO to avoid exceeding MMO.
583. Compressibility effects depend on:

A) EAS.
B) IAS.
C) TAS.
D) Mach number.
584. Compared with the low subsonic regime, in the high subsonic regime the
streamlines ahead of the wing change direction…
A) at the same distance from the leading edge but are closer together above the wing due to
compressibility.
B) closer to the leading edge, resulting in an increased indicated stall speed.
C) further from the leading edge, resulting in an increased Mach number for the low&speed
stall.
D) further from the leading edge, resulting in a reduced Mach number for the high&speed
stall.
585. In the transonic range the aeroplane characteristics are strongly

determined by the:
A) CAS.
B) TAS.
C) IAS.
D) Mach number.
586. The regime of flight from the critical Mach number up to approximately M
= 1.3 is called the:
A) supersonic range.
B) hypersonic range.
C) transonic range.
D) subsonic range.
587. The speed range from approximately M = 1.3 to approximately M = 5 is

called the:
A) subsonic range.
B) hypersonic range.
C) supersonic range.
D) transonic range.
588. Transonic speed is:

A) a speed at which compressibility effects are first noticeable.
B) a speed at which locally around the aeroplane both supersonic and subsonic speeds
exist.
C) a speed at which locally an oblique shock wave has developed in the flow along the
aeroplane.
D) the speed range between Mcrit and MMO.
589. A transonic Mach number is a Mach number:

A) at which both subsonic and supersonic local speeds occur.
B) at which only supersonic local speeds occur.
C) between the buffet onset Mach number and the Mach number corresponding to total
supersonic flow.
D) in the range between Mcrit and MMO.
590. Which of these statements about the transonic speed range is correct ?
A) The airflow everywhere around the aeroplane is supersonic.
B) The transonic speed range starts at M = 0.5 and ends at Mcrit.
C) The airflow everywhere around the aeroplane is subsonic.
D) The transonic speed range starts at Mcrit and extends to Mach numbers above M = 1.
591. Regarding the transonic speed range:

A) it starts at a Mach number equal to 1.
B) it starts at Mcrit and extends to Mach number equal to 1.
C) it starts at a Mach number just above 1.
D) both subsonic and supersonic speeds exist in the flow around the aeroplane.
592. The subsonic speed range:

A) ends at Mcrit.
B) ends at a Mach number just above M = 1.
C) implies both subsonic and supersonic speeds exist in the flow around the aeroplane.
D) ends at M = 1.
593. Which of these statements about the supersonic speed range is correct?
A) The airflow around the aeroplane is transonic.
B) The supersonic speed range starts at M = 1 and ends at Mcrit.
C) The supersonic speed range starts at a Mach number below M = 1 and extends to Mach
numbers above M = 1.
D) The airflow everywhere around the aeroplane is supersonic.
594. When the air is passing through a shock wave the static temperature will:
A) stay constant.
B) decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again.
C) decrease.
D) increase.
595. When the air is passing through a shock wave the density will:
A) decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again.
B) decrease.
C) increase.
D) stay constant.
596. When air has passed through a shock wave the local speed of sound is:
A) increased.
B) not affected.
C) decreased.
D) decreased and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again.
597. As the Mach number increases in straight and level flight, a shock wave
on the upper surface of the wing will:
A) disappear.
B) not move.
C) move towards the trailing edge.
D) move towards the leading edge.
598. Which of these statements about Mcrit is correct?

A) Mcrit is always greater than 1.
B) As speed increases above Mcrit, parasite drag decreases rapidly.
C) Shock waves cannot occur at speeds below Mcrit.
D) Flight at any speed above Mcrit causes severe vibration of the aeroplane.
599. How will the density and static temperature change in a supersonic flow
from a position in front of a shock wave to behind it?
A) Density will decrease, static temperature will decrease.
B) Density will decrease, static temperature will increase.
C) Density will increase, static temperature will increase.
D) Density will increase, static temperature will decrease.
600. A shock wave on a lift generating wing will:

A) move slightly forward in front of a downward deflecting aileron.
B) reach its highest strength when flying at the critical Mach number.
C) move aft as Mach number is increased.
D) be situated at the greatest wing thickness when the aeroplane reaches the speed of
sound.

A) reach its highest strength when flying at the critical Mach number.
B) move forward as Mach number is decreased.
C) move slightly forward in front of a downward deflecting aileron.
sound.

A) reach its highest strength when flying at the critical Mach number.
B) move forward as Mach number is increased.
C) move slightly forward in front of a upward deflecting aileron.
sound.
603. When the Mach number is slowly increased in straight and level flight the
first shock waves will occur:
A) on the lower surface of the wing.
B) somewhere on the horizontal tail.
C) somewhere on the fin.
D) on the upper surface at the wing root.
604. The bow wave will first appear at:

A) the critical Mach number.
B) a free stream Mach number just below M = 1.
C) a free stream Mach number exactly equal to 1.
D) a free stream Mach number just above M = 1.
605. A normal shock wave is a discontinuity plane:

A) across which the temperature drops suddenly.
B) that is normal to the local flow.
C) across which the pressure drops suddenly.
D) that is always normal to the surface.
606. Which statement is correct about a normal shock wave?

A) The airflow changes from supersonic to subsonic.
B) The airflow changes direction.
C) The airflow changes from subsonic to supersonic.
D) The airflow expands when passing the aerofoil.
607. Behind a normal shock wave on an aerofoil section the local Mach
number is:
A) higher than before.
B) lower than before but still greater than 1.
C) equal to 1.
D) less than 1.
608. Just above the critical Mach number the first evidence of a shock wave
will appear at the:
A) upper side of the wing.
B) trailing edge of the wing.
C) lower side of the wing.
D) leading edge of the wing.
609. What is the effect of aeroplane mass on shock wave intensity at constant
Mach number?
A) Increasing mass increases shock wave intensity.
B) A change in mass does not influence shock wave intensity.
C) Decreasing mass increases shock wave intensity at below standard temperatures.
D) Decreasing mass increases shock wave intensity.
610. Regarding a normal shock wave on the upper surface of a wing, as Mach
number increases towards Mach drag divergence…
A) the shock wave moves aft and the coefficient of lift increases.
B) the reduction in the local speed of sound from in front of the shock wave to behind it
increases.
C) the coefficient of drag increases and the coefficient of lift decreases.
D) the shock wave intensifies and the reduction in air density from in front of the shock wave
to behind it increases.
611. A shock wave that is perpendicular to the direction of the flow is…
A) a normal shock wave.
B) an oblique shock wave.
C) a bow wave.
D) an expansion wave.
612. Air passes a normal shock wave. Which of the following statements is
correct?
A) The static temperature increases.
B) The velocity increases.
C) The static temperature decreases.
D) The static pressure decreases.
613. What happens to the airflow’s static temperature &T&, Mach number &M&,
and total pressure &Pt& when passing through a normal shock wave?
A) T decreases, M increases, Pt increases.
B) T decreases, M increases, Pt decreases.
C) T increases, M decreases, Pt increases.
D) T increases, M decreases, Pt decreases.
614. “What happens to the strength, the length, and the location of a normal
shock wave when the Mach number &M& is increasing at positive lift?The
strength of the shock wave…”
A) decreases, its length decreases, and the shock wave moves downstream.
B) increases, its length increases, and the shock wave moves upstream.
C) decreases, its length decreases, and the shock wave moves upstream.
D) increases, its length increases, and the shock wave moves downstream.
615. What is the impact of a change in Angle of Attack &AoA& on a normal

shock wave at a constant Mach number?
A) The intensity of the shock wave decreases as AoA increases.
B) The location of the shock wave moves forwards on the wing.
C) The location of the shock wave moves rearwards on the wing.
D) The intensity of the shock wave increases as AoA increases.
616. When supersonic airflow passes through an oblique shock wave, how do
&1& static pressure, &2& density, and &3& local speed of sound change?
A) &1& decreases, &2& decreases, &3& decreases.
B) &1& increases, &2& increases, &3& decreases.
C) &1& remains constant, &2& decreases, &3& increases.
D) &1& increases, &2& increases, &3& increases.
617. Compared with an oblique shock wave at the same Mach number a
normal shock wave has a:
A) smaller expansion.
B) smaller compression.
C) higher expansion.
D) higher compression.
618. Compared with an oblique shock wave a normal shock wave has a:
A) higher total temperature.
B) lower static temperature.
C) higher loss in total pressure.
D) higher total pressure.
619. “Which of these statements about an oblique shock wave are correct or
incorrect? I. The local speed of sound in front of an oblique shock wave is
higher than behind it. II. The Mach number in front of an oblique shock wave is
lower than behind it.”
higher than behind it. II. The Mach number in front of an oblique shock wave is
higher than behind it.”
lower than behind it. II. The Mach number in front of an oblique shock wave is
lower than behind it.”
incorrect? I. The density behind an oblique shock wave is higher than in front
of it. II. The local speed of sound behind an oblique shock wave is higher than
in front of it.”
incorrect? I. The density behind an oblique shock wave is lower than in front
of it. II. The local speed of sound behind an oblique shock wave is lower than
in front of it.”
incorrect? I. The density behind an oblique shock wave is lower than in front
of it. II. The local speed of sound behind an oblique shock wave is higher than
in front of it.”
incorrect? I. The density behind an oblique shock wave is higher than in front
of it. II. The local speed of sound behind an oblique shock wave is lower than
in front of it.”
incorrect? I. The Mach number behind an oblique shock wave is lower than in
front of it. II. The total pressure behind an oblique shock wave is lower than in
front of it.”
incorrect? I. The static temperature in front of an oblique shock wave is lower
than behind it. II. The static pressure in front of an oblique shock wave is lower
than behind it.”
incorrect? I. The static temperature in front of an oblique shock wave is higher
than behind it. II. The static pressure in front of an oblique shock wave is
incorrect? I. The static temperature in front of an oblique shock wave is higher
than behind it. II. The static pressure in front of an oblique shock wave is lower
than behind it.”
incorrect? I. The static temperature in front of an oblique shock wave is lower
than behind it. II. The static pressure in front of an oblique shock wave is
incorrect? I. The density in front of an oblique shock wave is lower than
behind it. II. The total pressure in front of an oblique shock wave is higher than
behind it.”
incorrect? I. The density in front of an oblique shock wave is higher than
behind it. II. The total pressure in front of an oblique shock wave is lower than
behind it.”
incorrect? I. The density in front of an oblique shock wave is higher than
behind it. II. The total pressure in front of an oblique shock wave is higher than
behind it.”
incorrect? I. The density in front of an oblique shock wave is lower than
behind it. II. The total pressure in front of an oblique shock wave is lower than
behind it.”
lower than behind it. II. The Mach number in front of an oblique shock wave is
incorrect? I. The Mach number behind an oblique shock wave is higher than in
front of it. II. The total pressure behind an oblique shock wave is higher than in
front of it.”
incorrect? I. The Mach number behind an oblique shock wave is higher than in
front of it. II. The total pressure behind an oblique shock wave is lower than in
front of it.”
incorrect? I. The Mach number behind an oblique shock wave is lower than in
front of it. II. The total pressure behind an oblique shock wave is higher than in
front of it.”
incorrect? I. The static temperature behind an oblique shock wave is higher
than in front of it. II. The static pressure behind an oblique shock wave is
higher than in front of it.”
incorrect? I. The static temperature behind an oblique shock wave is lower
than in front of it. II. The static pressure behind an oblique shock wave is lower
than in front of it.”
incorrect? I. The static temperature behind an oblique shock wave is lower
than in front of it. II. The static pressure behind an oblique shock wave is
higher than in front of it.”
incorrect? I. The static temperature behind an oblique shock wave is higher
than in front of it.II. The static pressure behind an oblique shock wave is lower
than in front of it.”
643. What happens to the airstream’s Velocity &V&, Mach number &M&, Static
Pressure &Ps&, density, and Total Pressure &Pt& when passing through an
oblique shock wave?
A) V, M and Pt increase, but Ps and density decrease.
B) V, M and Pt decrease, but Ps and density increase.
C) V, M and Ps increase, but Pt and density decrease.
D) V, M and Ps decrease, but Pt and density increase.
644. What happens to the airflow’s velocity &V&, static pressure &Ps&, and
density when passing through an oblique shock wave?
A) V decreases, Ps increases, density increases.
B) V increases, Ps decreases, density decreases.
C) V increases, Ps decreases, density increases.
D) V decreases, Ps increases, density decreases.
645. In supersonic flight, all disturbances produced by an aeroplane are:
A) outside a conical zone, dependent on the Mach number.
B) very weak and negligible.
C) in front of the aeroplane.
D) within a conical zone, dependent on the Mach number.
646. In supersonic flight, any disturbance around a body affects the flow only:
A) outside the Mach cone.
B) in front of the normal shock wave.
C) within the Mach cone.
D) in front of the body.
647. If the Mach number of an aeroplane in supersonic flight is increased, the

Mach cone angle will:
A) decrease and beyond a certain Mach number start increasing again.
B) decrease.
C) increase.
D) stay constant.
648. What is the value of the Mach number if the Mach angle equals 45°?
A) 1.4
B) 2.0
C) 0.7
D) 1.2
649. The relation between the Mach angle &mu& and the corresponding Mach
number is:
A) tan mu = 1 / M.
B) sin mu = M.
C) sin 2mu = 1 / M.
D) sin mu = 1 / M.
650. The sonic boom of an aeroplane flying at supersonic speed is created by:
A) aerodynamic heating.
B) the centre of pressure, which is moving aft on the aerofoil.
C) the expansion flow behind the aeroplane.
D) shock waves around the aeroplane.
651. Which of the following flight phenomena can occur at Mach numbers
below the critical Mach number?
A) Shock stall.
B) Dutch roll.
C) Tuck under.
D) Mach buffet.
652. What is the influence of decreasing aeroplane mass on Mcrit at constant

IAS? &n=1&
A) Mcrit increases as a result of compressibility effects.
B) Mcrit decreases.
C) Mcrit increases as a result of flying at a smaller angle of attack.
D) Mcrit decreases as a result of flying at a greater angle of attack.
653. Whilst flying at a constant IAS and at n = 1, as the aeroplane mass

decreases, the value of Mcrit:
A) increases.
B) is independent of the angle of attack.
C) remains constant.
D) decreases.
654. Whilst flying at a constant IAS and at n = 1, as the aeroplane mass

increases, the value of Mcrit:
A) remains constant.
B) is independent of the angle of attack.
C) increases.
D) decreases.
655. What is the influence of increasing aeroplane mass on Mcrit at constant

IAS? &n = 1&
A) Mcrit decreases as a result of flying at a smaller angle of attack.
B) Mcrit increases as a result of flying at a larger angle of attack.
C) Mcrit increases as a result of compressibility effects.
D) Mcrit decreases as a result of flying at a larger angle of attack.
656. Mcrit is the free stream Mach number at which:

A) the critical angle of attack is reached.
B) Mach buffet occurs.
C) shock stall occurs.
D) somewhere about the airframe Mach 1 is reached locally.
657. The critical Mach number of an aeroplane is the free stream Mach number
at which for the first time, somewhere on the aeroplane, the following occurs:
A) supersonic flow.
B) buffet.
C) a shock wave.
D) local sonic flow.
658. The critical Mach number of an aerofoil is the free stream Mach number at
which:
A) the maximum operating temperature is reached.
B) a shock wave appears on the upper surface.
C) an area of local supersonic flow exists on the lower surface.
D) sonic speed &M = 1& is first reached on the upper surface.
659. The critical Mach number of an aeroplane is the Mach number:
A) at which there is subsonic flow over all parts of the aeroplane.
B) at which there is supersonic flow over a part of the aeroplane.
C) above which, locally, supersonic flow exists somewhere over the aeroplane.
D) at which the aeroplane has zero buffet margin.
660. What is the highest speed possible without supersonic flow over the
wing?
A) Critical Mach number.
B) Tuck under speed.
C) M = 1.
D) Initial Mach buffet speed.
661. How does stall speed &IAS& vary with altitude?

A) It increases with increasing altitude, because the density decreases.
B) It remains constant at lower altitudes but decreases at higher altitudes due to
compressibility effects.
C) It remains constant.
D) It remains constant at lower altitudes but increases at higher altitudes due to
compressibility effects.
662. During which type of stall does the angle of attack have the smallest
value?
A) Low speed stall.
B) Accelerated stall.
C) Deep stall.
D) Shock stall.
663. Which type of buffet will occur if a jet aeroplane slowly accelerates in
level flight from its cruise speed in still air at high altitude?
A) Accelerated stall buffet.
B) Flutter speed buffet.
C) Low speed buffet.
D) Mach buffet.
664. Shock stall:

A) results from flow separation at the underside of the aerofoil.
B) occurs as soon as Mcrit is exceeded.
C) results from flow separation behind the bow wave.
D) occurs when the lift coefficient, as a function of Mach number, reaches its maximum
value.
665. Which of the following flight phenomena can only occur at Mach numbers
above the critical Mach number?
A) Elevator stall.
B) Dutch roll.
C) Speed instability.
D) Mach buffet.
666. Which of these statements on shock stall is correct?
A) Shock stall is a stall due to flow separation caused by a shock wave.
B) Shock stall is caused by sudden loss of lift due to a rise in load factor.
C) CLmax does not change as the Mach number increases.
D) Shock stall is a stall due to flow separation at high angles of attack.
667. As altitude increases, the stall speed &IAS&:

A) remains constant regardless of altitude.
B) remains constant until the tropopause but at higher altitudes increases.
C) initially remains constant but at higher altitudes increases.
D) initially remains constant but at higher altitudes decreases.
668. Shock induced separation results in:

A) increasing lift.
B) decreasing drag.
C) decreasing lift.
D) constant lift.
669. When shock stall occurs, lift will decrease because:

A) the bow wave appears.
B) Mcrit is reached.
C) flow separation occurs behind the shock wave.
D) of the existence of a shock wave being located at the trailing edge of the wing.
670. High&speed buffet is induced by:

A) a shift of the centre of gravity.
B) the bow wave in front of the wing.
C) interaction between flow separation and shock wave motion.
D) boundary layer control.
671. The increase in stall speed &IAS& with increasing altitude is due to:
A) exceedance of Mcrit.
B) the larger angle of attack necessary in lower&density air to obtain the same lift as at sea
level.
C) an increase in TAS.
D) compressibility effects.
672. When altitude increases, the stall speed &IAS& will:

A) decrease due to decreasing temperature and decreasing Mach number.
B) increase due to decreasing Mcrit.
C) decrease due to increasing Mcrit.
D) increase due to increasing compressibility effects as a result of increasing Mach number.
673. Mach buffet occurs:

A) directly after exceeding Mcrit.
B) when the stall angle of attack is exceeded.
C) when the Mach number has increased to Mcrit.
D) following boundary layer separation due to shock wave formation.
674. When shock stall occurs:

A) this results from flow separation at the underside of the aerofoil.
B) there will be flow separation behind the bow wave.
C) Mcrit is reached.
D) there will be flow separation.
675. Shock induced separation can occur…

A) at high Mach numbers, only at low angles of attack.
B) at high Mach numbers, only at high angles of attack.
C) in supersonic flow only.
D) behind a strong, normal shock wave, ranging from low to high angles of attack.
676. In the transonic speed regime, when is the CL at its maximum for a given
angle of attack?
A) At Mcrit.
B) At the beginning of the transonic speed regime.
C) Shortly before shock stall occurs.
D) At the upper end of the transonic speed regime.
677. At a constant angle of attack CL will, …

A) at high subsonic speeds, decrease until boundary layer separation occurs.
B) at supersonic speeds, increase until boundary layer separation occurs.
C) regardless of speed, remain constant.
D) at high subsonic speeds, increase until boundary layer separation occurs.
678. Above Mcrit in the transonic speed regime, at a constant angle of attack,
CL will…
A) remain constant throughout this regime.
B) always increase as the Mach number increases.
C) always decrease as the Mach number increases.
D) vary depending on the Mach number.
679. Immediately above Mcrit in the transonic speed regime, at a constant

angle of attack, stall speed will…
A) decrease at high altitudes.
B) remain constant until reaching the lower end of the transonic speed regime.
C) remain constant until reaching the upper end of the transonic speed regime.
D) increase at high altitudes.
680. The boundary layer will separate from the aerofoil immediately…
A) behind the shock wave on the lower wing surface.
B) in front of the shock wave on the lower wing surface.
C) behind the shock wave on the upper wing surface.
D) in front of the shock wave on the upper wing surface.
681. The additional increase in drag at Mach numbers above the critical Mach
number is due to:
A) increased angle of attack.
B) increased interference drag.
C) increased skin friction.
D) wave drag.
682. The drag coefficient at constant angle of attack:

A) increases only when Mcrit is above unity.
B) starts to increase rapidly above the drag divergence Mach number.
C) starts to decrease rapidly above the drag divergence Mach number.
D) starts to increase rapidly above Mcrit .
683. “Which of these statements about drag divergence Mach number are
correct or incorrect? 1. Mcrit is lower than the drag divergence Mach number.
2. Assuming a given angle of attack and for M < 1 the drag coefficient CD
remains practically constant above the drag divergence Mach number."
correct or incorrect? 1. Mcrit is equal to the drag divergence Mach number. 2.
Assuming a given angle of attack and for M < 1 the drag coefficient CD
correct or incorrect? 1. Mcrit is higher than the drag divergence Mach number.
increases above the drag divergence Mach number."
decreases above the drag divergence Mach number."
correct or incorrect? 1. The drag divergence Mach number is lower than Mcrit.
2. Below the drag divergence Mach number and for a given angle of attack the
drag coefficient CD increases as the Mach number increases.”
correct or incorrect? 1. The drag divergence Mach number is higher than Mcrit.
drag coefficient CD decreases as the Mach number decreases.”
correct or incorrect? 1. The drag divergence Mach number is equal to Mcrit. 2.
Below the drag divergence Mach number and for a given angle of attack the
drag coefficient CD is practically constant as the Mach number changes.”
701. In the transonic speed region the L/D ratio is…

A) always at its maximum.
B) reduced.
C) constant.
D) increased.
702. Above Mcrit in the transonic speed regime, at a constant angle of attack,
the CD will…
A) increase as Mach number increases.
B) decrease as Mach number increases.
C) remain constant in the entire regime.
D) vary depending on Mach number.
703. Wave drag above Mcrit consists of…

A) shock drag.
B) Mcrit drag and wave drag.
C) energy drag and boundary layer separation.
D) induced drag and parasite drag.
704. When the speed over an aerofoil section increases from subsonic to
supersonic, its aerodynamic centre:
A) does not move.
B) moves from approximately 25& to about 50& of the chord.
C) moves aft by approximately 10& of the chord.
D) moves slightly forward.
705. “””Tuck under”” is the:”

A) shaking of the control column at high Mach number.
B) nose down pitching tendency when the control column is pulled rearwards.
C) nose down pitching tendency as speed is increased in the transonic range.
D) nose up pitching tendency as speed is increased in the transonic range.
706. “””Tuck under”” may happen at:”

A) low Mach numbers.
B) only at low altitudes.
C) high Mach numbers.
D) all Mach numbers.
707. “Which of these statements about “”tuck under”” are correct or

incorrect? I. “”Tuck under”” is caused by an aft movement of the centre of
pressure of the wing. II. “”Tuck under”” is caused by a reduction in the
downwash angle at the location of the horizontal stabiliser.”
708. Which of the following statements about a Mach trimmer is correct?

A) The Mach trimmer corrects the natural tendency of a swept wing aeroplane to pitch up.
B) A Mach trimmer corrects the change in stick force stability of a swept wing aeroplane
above a certain Mach number.
C) A straight wing aeroplane always needs a Mach trimmer for flying at Mach numbers close
to MMO.
D) A Mach trimmer reduces the stick force stability of a straight wing aeroplane to zero at
high Mach numbers.
709. As the Mach number increases from subsonic to supersonic, the centre of
pressure moves:
A) to a position near the leading edge.
B) to the mid chord position.
C) forward.
D) to a position near the trailing edge.
710. The Mach trim system will:

A) adjust the elevator trim tab, depending on the Mach number.
B) keep the Mach number automatically constant.
C) pump the fuel from tank to tank, depending on the Mach number.
D) adjust the stabiliser, depending on the Mach number.
711. The Mach trim system will prevent:

A) buffeting.
B) tuck under.
C) Dutch roll.
D) shock stall.
712. “An aeroplane is entering the transonic range whilst maintaining straight
and level flight.If the Mach number increases, what additional input or action
will be required to maintain straight and level flight to compensate for the
centre of pressure’s movement, when the transonic region has been entered?”
A) No pitch control input.
B) A pitch up input of the elevator or the stabiliser.
C) A higher IAS to compensate the nose down effect.
D) A pitch down input of the elevator or the stabiliser.
713. The Mach&trim function is installed on most commercial jets in order to

minimise the adverse effects of:
A) changes in the position of centre of pressure.
B) uncontrolled changes in stabiliser setting.
C) increased drag due to shock wave formation.
D) compressibility effects on the stabiliser.
714. Tuck under can happen:

A) only below the critical Mach number.
B) only above the critical Mach number.
C) above or below the critical Mach number depending on the angle of attack.
D) only at the critical Mach number.
715. If a symmetrical aerofoil is accelerated from subsonic to supersonic

speed, the aerodynamic centre will move:
A) forward to the leading edge.
B) aft to approximately mid chord.
C) aft to the trailing edge.
D) forward to approximately mid chord.
716. The movement of the aerodynamic centre of the wing when an aeroplane
accelerates through the transonic range causes:
A) a decrease in static longitudinal stability.
B) a decrease in static directional stability.
C) an increase in static longitudinal stability.
D) an increase in static directional stability.
717. In the event of failure of the Mach trimmer:

A) the Mach number must be limited.
B) the speed must be kept constant.
C) the centre of gravity must be moved aft.
D) the aeroplane mass must be limited.
718. A Mach trimmer:

A) corrects insufficient stick force stability at high Mach numbers.
B) is necessary for compensation of the autopilot at high Mach numbers.
C) increases the stick force per g at high Mach numbers.
D) has no effect on the shape of the elevator position versus speed &IAS& curve for a fully
hydraulically controlled aeroplane.
719. What is the effect of exceeding Mcrit on the stick force stability of an
aeroplane with swept&back wings without any form of stability augmentation?
A) A decrease, due to loss of lift in the wing root area.
B) No effect, because Mcrit is not relevant when considering stick force stability.
C) An increase, due to shock wave formation in the wing root area.
D) No effect, because stick force stability is independent of Mach number.
720. An aeroplane should be equipped with a Mach trimmer, if:

A) at high IAS and low altitude the aeroplane displays an unacceptable decrease in
longitudinal stick force stability.
B) stick force per g strongly decreases at low Mach numbers.
C) at transonic Mach numbers the aeroplane displays an unacceptable decrease in
longitudinal stick force stability.
D) stick force stability becomes independent of IAS and altitude.
721. The position of the centre of pressure on an aerofoil of an aeroplane

cruising at supersonic speed when compared with that at subsonic speed is:
A) further forward.
B) undetermined since there is no defined centre of pressure location at supersonic speeds.
C) identical.
D) further aft.
incorrect?I. A contributing factor to “”tuck under”” is a forward movement of
the centre of pressure of the wing.II. A contributing factor to “”tuck under”” is
an increase in the downwash angle at the location of the horizontal stabiliser.”

incorrect?I. A contributing factor to “”tuck under”” is an aft movement of the
centre of pressure of the wing.II. A contributing factor to “”tuck under”” is an
increase in the downwash angle at the location of the horizontal stabiliser.”

incorrect?I. A contributing factor to “”tuck under”” is an forward movement of
the centre of pressure of the wing.II. A contributing factor to “”tuck under”” is
a reduction in the downwash angle at the location of the horizontal stabiliser.”
725. “An aeroplane is flying in the transonic speed range in straight and level
flight. If the Mach number decreases, what additional input or action will be
required to maintain straight and level flight to compensate for the centre of
pressure’s movement, whilst exiting the transonic region?”
A) A pitch up input to the elevator or the stabiliser.
B) No pitch control input.
C) A pitch down input to the elevator or the stabiliser.
D) A lower IAS to compensate the nose up effect.
726. To compensate for tuck under effect, what action could be taken by the
Mach trim system?
A) Decrease the incidence of the variable incidence trimming tailplane.
B) Deflect the elevator down in order to create a nose&down pitching moment.
C) Move the CG forward by transferring fuel from the rear trim tank to the wing tanks.
D) Reduce the stick force stability to zero above Mcrit.
727. What may be the consequences of exceeding Mcrit in a swept&wing

aeroplane? Assume no corrective devices, straight and level flight.
A) Buffeting of the aeroplane and a tendency to pitch up.
B) Engine unbalance and buffeting.
C) Buffeting of the aeroplane and a tendency to pitch down.
D) An increase in speed and a tendency to pitch up.
728. In transonic flight the ailerons will be less effective than in subsonic flight
because:
A) behind the shock wave pressure is lower.
B) aileron deflection only affects the air in front of the shock wave.
C) aileron down deflection moves the shock wave forward.
D) aileron deflection only partly affects the pressure distribution around the wing.
729. While flying slightly above the critical Mach number &Mcrit&, a control
surface is deflected down by a pilot input. What could happen?
A) The control surface’s efficiency might be reduced due to shock&induced separation.
B) The shock wave will disappear due to the downwards deflection of the control surface.
C) The control surface’s efficiency might be increased due to the shock wave itself.
D) Low speed buffet could take place due to shock&induced separation.
730. What data may be obtained from the Buffet Onset Boundary chart?
A) The values of the Mach number at which low speed and shock stall occur at different
masses and altitudes.
B) The values of Mcrit at different masses and altitudes.
C) The values of the Mach number at which low speed and Mach buffet occur at different
masses and altitudes.
D) The values of MMO and VMO at different masses and altitudes.
731. The maximum cruise altitude can be limited by a 1.3 g load factor because
when exceeding that altitude:
A) use of normal manoeuvring bank angles may cause the limit load factor to be exceeded.
B) high speed buffet will occur immediately after exceeding this maximum altitude.
C) turbulence may cause the limit load factor to be exceeded.
D) turbulence may induce high speed or low speed buffet.
732. A jet aeroplane is cruising at high altitude with a Mach number that
provides a buffet margin of 0.3 g. In order to increase the buffet margin to 0.4 g
the pilot must:
A) fly at a lower altitude and the same Mach number.
B) extend the flaps to the first selection.
C) fly at a larger angle of attack.
D) fly at a higher Mach number.
733. “What is the significance of the maximum allowed cruising altitude, based
on the 1.3 g margin?At this altitude:”
A) a manoeuvre with a load factor of 1.3 will cause a Mach number at which accelerated low
speed stall occurs.
B) exceeding a load factor of 1.3 will cause permanent deformation of this aeroplane.
C) a manoeuvre with a load factor of 1.3 will cause Mcrit to be exceeded.
D) a manoeuvre with a load factor of 1.3 will cause buffet onset.
734. The speed range between high& and low speed buffet:
A) increases during a descent at a constant IAS.
B) is always positive at Mach numbers below MMO.
C) decreases during a descent at a constant Mach number.
D) increases during climb.
735. “From the buffet onset graph of a given jet transport aeroplane it is
determined that at FL 310 at a given mass buffet free flight is possible between
M = 0.74 and M = 0.88.In what way would these numbers change if the
aeroplane is suddenly pulled up e.g. in a traffic avoidance manoeuvre?”
A) Both Mach numbers decrease.
B) Both Mach numbers increase.
C) The lower Mach number increases and the higher Mach number decreases.
D) The lower Mach number decreases and the higher Mach number increases.
736. “Which of these statements about the buffet free range in a buffet onset
boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1. When initiating a steady horizontal
turn from steady straight and level flight the buffet free range decreases.2.
When mass decreases the buffet free range increases.”
turn from steady straight and level flight the buffet free range increases. 2.
When mass decreases the buffet free range decreases.”
boundary graph are correct or incorrect?1. When initiating a steady horizontal
turn from steady straight and level flight the buffet free range decreases.2.
When mass decreases the buffet free range decreases.”
turn from steady straight and level flight the buffet free range increases. 2.
When mass decreases the buffet free range increases.”
boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1. During a push&over manoeuvre
the buffet free range increases. 2. When the mass increases the buffet free
range decreases.”
the buffet free range decreases. 2. When the mass increases the buffet free
range increases.”
the buffet free range increases. 2. When the mass increases the buffet free
range increases.”
the buffet free range decreases. 2. When the mass increases the buffet free
range decreases.”
boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1. When altitude increases the buffet
free range decreases. 2. When load factor increases the buffet free range
decreases.”
free range increases. 2. When load factor increases the buffet free range
increases.”
free range decreases. 2. When load factor increases the buffet free range
increases.”
free range increases. 2. When load factor increases the buffet free range
decreases.”
boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1. When speed increases the buffet
free range does not change. 2. When altitude decreases the buffet free range
increases.”
free range decreases. 2. When altitude decreases the buffet free range
decreases.”
free range does not change. 2. When altitude decreases the buffet free range
decreases.”
free range increases. 2. When altitude decreases the buffet free range
increases.”
boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1. When speed decreases the buffet
free range does not change. 2. When the CG moves forward the buffet free
range decreases.”
free range increases. 2. When the CG moves forward the buffet free range
increases.”
free range does not change. 2. When the CG moves forward the buffet free
range increases.”
free range decreases. 2. When the CG moves forward the buffet free range
increases.”
boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1. When the Mach number increases
the buffet free range does not change. 2. When the load factor decreases the
buffet free range increases.”
boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1. When the Mach number increases
the buffet free range decreases. 2. When the load factor decreases the buffet
free range decreases.”
boundary graph are correct or incorrect? 1. When the CG moves aft the buffet
free range increases. 2. When the Mach number decreases the buffet free
range does not change.”
free range decrease s. 2. When the Mach number decreases the buffet free
range decreases.”
free range increases. 2. When the Mach number decreases the buffet free
range increases.”
free range decreases. 2. When the Mach number decreases the buffet free
range does not change.”
762. “&For this question use annex 081&001 issue date July 2009&.A jet
transport aeroplane with a mass of 100 tons carries out a steady level 50
degree bank turn at FL350. The buffet free speed range extends from:”
A) M = 0.72 to M > 0.84.
B) M = 0.65 to M > 0.84.
C) M = 0.69 to M > 0.84.
D) M = 0.74 to M = 0.84.
763. “&For this question use annex 081&001 issue date July 2009&. A jet
degree bank turn at FL360. The buffet free speed range extends approximately
from:”
A) M = 0.65 to M > 0.84.
B) M = 0.74 to M = 0.84.
C) M = 0.70 to M > 0.84.
D) M = 0.72 to M > 0.84.
degree bank turn at FL320. The buffet free speed range extends approximately
from:”
A) M = 0.65 to M > 0.84.
B) M = 0.72 to M > 0.84.
C) M = 0.74 to M = 0.84.
D) M = 0.70 to M > 0.84.
transport aeroplane with a mass of 90 tons carries out a manoeuvre with a
load factor of 1.6 at FL 380. The buffet free speed range extends approximately
from:”
A) M = 0.72 to M > 0.84.
B) M = 0.70 to M > 0.84.
C) M = 0.65 to M > 0.84.
D) M = 0.74 to M = 0.84.
766. “&For this question use annex 081&001 issue date July 2009&. At a mass
of 130 tons:”
A) the buffet free range in 1 g flight at FL410 is from approximately M = 0.76 to M = 0.83.
B) buffet free flight is possible at M = 0.80 only.
C) buffet free flight at 1 g at FL410 is possible without any Mach number restriction.
D) the buffet free range in a level 30 degree bank turn at FL360 is from approximately M =
0.75 to M = 0.84.
of 140 tons:”
A) the buffet free range in 1 g flight at FL400 is from approximately M = 0.76 to M = 0.83.
B) buffet free flight at 1 g at FL400 is possible without any Mach number restriction.
C) the buffet free range in a level 30 degree bank turn at FL390 is from approximately M =
0.75 to M = 0.84.
D) at FL400 buffet free flight is possible at M = 0.80 only.
768. “&For this question use annex 081&001 issue date July 2009&. The
maximum achievable load factor without buffet onset at FL400 at a mass of
140 tons is approximately:”
A) 1 g at M = 0.80.
B) 2 g at M = 0.80.
C) 1.75 g at M = 0.80.
D) 1.5 g at M = 0.80.
A) 1.5 g at M = 0.80.
B) at M = 0.80.
C) 1 g at M = 0.80.
D) 2 g at M = 0.80.
A) 1.5 g at M = 0.80.
B) 1.75 g at M = 0.80.
C) 1 g at M = 0.80.
D) 2 g at M = 0.80.
maximum achievable load factor without buffet onset at FL380 at a mass of 90
tons is approximately:”
A) 2 g at M = 0.80.
B) 1.5 g at M = 0.80.
C) 1 g at M = 0.80.
D) 1.75 g at M = 0.80.
772. “&For this question use annex 081&001 issue date July 2009&. To avoid
low speed buffet in a turn at 30 degrees of bank and at a mass of 100 tons the
following conditions must be fulfilled &approximately&:”
A) FL <= 410 at M >= 0.69 or FL <= 380 at M >= 0.64.
B) FL > 410 at M >= 0.69 or FL > 380 at M > 0.64
C) FL <= 410 at M >= 0.69 or FL <= 380 at M < 0.64
D) FL <= 410 at M >= 0.64 or FL <= 380 at M >= 0.69.
773. “&For this question use annex 081&001 issue date July 2009&. Determine
the maximum altitude with respect to buffet onset according to Certification
Specifications for a mass of 120 tons?”
A) FL380 from M >= 0.62 to M >= 0.84.
B) FL380 from M >= 0.725 to M >= 0.84.
C) FL380 at any Mach number.
D) FL380 at M = 0.80.
774. “&For this question use annex 081&001 issue date July 2009&. Determine
the maximum mass with respect to buffet onset according to Certification
Specifications for FL400?”
A) 110 tons.
B) 104 tons.
C) 91 tons for a 45 degree banked turn.
D) 121 tons for a 30 degree banked turn.
775. “&For this question use annex 081&001 issue date July 2009&. Regarding
the Buffet Onset Boundary Chart in the annex which of these statements are
correct or incorrect?1. Flying at M = 0.8 provides the optimum margin with
respect to buffet onset. 2. The maximum altitude that can be achieved with
respect to buffet onset according to Certification Specifications is higher at M
= 0.82 than at M = 0.75.”
776. “&For this question use annex 081&001 issue date July 2009&. Regarding
correct or incorrect? 1. Flying at M = 0.84 provides the optimum margin with
respect to buffet onset according to Certification Specifications is lower at M =
0.82 than at M = 0.75.”
777. “&For this question use annex 081&001 issue date July 2009&.Regarding
correct or incorrect? 1. Flying at M = 0.84 provides the optimum margin with
respect to buffet onset according to Certification Specifications is higher at M
= 0.82 than at M = 0.75.”
of 140 tons:”
A) buffet free flight at 1 g at FL410 is not possible.
B) the buffet free range in a level 30 degree bank turn at FL390 is from approximately M =
0.75 to M = 0.84.
C) at FL410 buffet free flight is possible at M = 0.80 only.
D) the buffet free range in 1 g flight at FL400 is from approximately M = 0.76 to M = 0.83.
of 140 tons:”
A) the buffet free range in a level 30 degree bank turn at FL360 is from approximately M =
0.74 to M = 0.84.
B) buffet free flight at 1 g at FL410 is possible.
C) at FL410 buffet free flight is possible at M = 0.80 only.
D) the buffet free range in 1 g flight at FL400 is from approximately M = 0.76 to M = 0.835.
780. Two methods to increase the critical Mach number are:

A) thin aerofoils and sweepback of the wing.
B) thick aerofoils and dihedral of the wing.
C) positive cambering of the aerofoil and sweepback of the wing.
D) thin aerofoils and dihedral of the wing.
781. Mcrit is increased by:

A) sweepback, thin aerofoils and area ruling.
B) sweepback, dihedral and thin aerofoils.
C) sweepback, area ruling and high aspect ratio.
D) dihedral, thin aerofoils and supercritical aerofoil sections.
782. The critical Mach number of an aeroplane can be increased by:

A) vortex generators.
B) sweepback of the wings.
C) dihedral of the wings.
D) control surface deflection.
783. The effect of increasing angle of sweep is:

A) an increase in the critical Mach number.
B) a decrease in stall speed.
C) a decrease in the critical Mach number.
D) an increase in longitudinal stability.
784. “Which of these statements about wing sweepback are correct or
incorrect?I. Increasing wing sweepback increases Mcrit.II. Increasing wing
sweepback increases the drag divergence Mach number.”
785. The critical Mach number can be increased by:

A) increasing wing aspect ratio.
B) changing the tail into a T&tail configuration.
C) increasing wing sweepback.
D) increasing wing dihedral.
786. Which of the following wing designs would have the least effective high
lift devices &airspeed and all other factors being constant&?
A) Wing with a sweepback angle of 15 degrees.
B) Wing with a sweepback angle of 25 degrees.
C) Wing with no sweep angle.
D) Sweep angle has no influence on the effectiveness of high lift devices.

incorrect? I. Increasing wing sweepback decreases Mcri II. Increasing wing

incorrect? I. Increasing wing sweepback increases Mcri II. Increasing wing
sweepback decreases the drag divergence Mach number.”

incorrect? I. Increasing wing sweepback decreases Mcri II. Increasing wing
incorrect? I. Decreasing wing sweepback increases Mcri II. Decreasing wing

incorrect? I. Decreasing wing sweepback decreases Mcri II. Decreasing wing
792. Wing sweep has:

A) A positive influence on stall characteristic, as it provides positive pitch stability during a
stall.
B) A negative influence on stall characteristics, as it increases stalling speed and could
cause tip stall.
C) A positive influence on the stall characteristic, as it increases controllability by the
ailerons.
D) No influence on stall characteristics, as it is used only to increase the critical Mach
number.

incorrect?I. Decreasing wing sweepback decreases Mcrit.II. Decreasing wing

incorrect?I. Decreasing wing sweepback increases Mcrit.II. Decreasing wing
795. “Which of the following items are needed to correctly complete the
statement? The characteristics of wing sweep include: 1. a decreased
tendency to tip stall 2. increased take&off and landing distances 3. a higher
stall speed 4. an increased effectiveness of trailing edge control surfaces 5. a
decreased effectiveness of high lift devices.”
A) 2, 3, and 5
B) 4 and 5
C) 1, 2, and 3
D) 1, 2, and 4
796. A swept&back wing, in comparison to a straight wing, has an increased

tendency to…
A) mid&wing stall.
B) high&speed stall.
C) tip stall.
D) root stall.
797. A swept&back wing compared to a straight wing of the same dimensional

thickness and free stream velocity increases Mcrit because sweeping the wing
back, …
A) reduces the effective chord.
B) increases the local velocity.
C) increases the effective aspect ratio.
D) increases the effective chord.
798. The pitch&up stall behaviour of a swept wing aircraft is due to the centre
of pressure moving…
A) backward when the wing tips stall first.
B) forward when the wing roots stall first.
C) backward when the wing roots stall first.
D) forward when the wing tips stall first.
799. Which of the following &1& aerofoils and &2& angles of attack will
produce the lowest Mcrit values?
A) &1& thick and &2& small.
B) &1& thin and &2& small.
C) &1& thick and &2& large.
D) &1& thin and &2& large.
800. A supercritical wing:

A) will develop no noticeable shock waves when flying just above Mcrit.
B) will develop no transonic flow just above Mcrit.
C) will be free of Mach buffet in the transonic range.
D) always cruises at Mcrit.
801. In comparison to a conventional aerofoil section, typical shape

characteristics of a supercritical aerofoil section are:
A) a larger nose radius, flatter upper surface and negative as well as positive camber.
B) a sharper pointed nose, flatter lower surface and positive camber at the rear of the
aerofoil section.
C) a larger nose radius, flatter lower surface and negative as well as positive camber.
D) a sharper pointed nose, negative camber and a flatter upper surface.
802. The critical Mach number of a conventional aerofoil section increases if:
A) its leading edge radius is increased.
B) its thickness to chord ratio is increased.
C) it is flown at higher angles of attack.
D) its camber is decreased.
803. The critical Mach number of a conventional aerofoil section decreases if:
A) its thickness to chord ratio is reduced.
B) it is flown at lower angles of attack.
C) its camber is increased.
D) its leading edge radius is decreased.
804. Which of the following &1& aerofoils and &2& angles of attack will
produce the highest Mcrit values?
A) &1& thick and &2& large.
B) &1& thin and &2& large.
C) &1& thick and &2& small.
D) &1& thin and &2& small.
A) its camber is increased.
B) its leading edge radius is decreased.
C) it is flown at higher angles of attack.
D) its thickness to chord ratio is increased.
A) its leading edge radius is decreased.
C) its camber is decreased.
D) its thickness to chord ratio is increased.
A) its leading edge radius is increased.
B) it is flown at higher angles of attack.
C) its camber is increased.
D) its thickness to chord ratio is reduced.
A) its leading edge radius is decreased.
B) it is flown at higher angles of attack.
C) its camber is decreased.
D) its thickness to chord ratio is reduced.
A) its camber is increased.
C) its thickness to chord ratio is increased.
D) its leading edge radius is increased.
A) it is flown at lower angles of attack.
B) its thickness to chord ratio is reduced.
C) its leading edge radius is increased.
D) its camber is decreased.
811. Which design characteristic is typical for a supercritical aerofoil when

compared to a conventional positive&cambered aerofoil?
A) A flatter upper surface.
B) A smaller leading edge radius.
C) A smaller thickness.
D) A thinner trailing edge.
812. One of the advantages of a supercritical aerofoil when compared with a

conventional aerofoil is that…
A) it increases Mcrit.
B) it produces less trim drag.
C) it gives less negative pitching moments.
D) complex high lift devices can be omitted.
813. An aerofoil with reduced camber compared to one with increased camber
at high subsonic speed, at the same level and configuration will…
A) be more sensitive to gust turbulence.
B) produce more lift.
C) have a lower Mcrit.
D) have a higher Mcrit.
814. Compared to a conventional aerofoil at a given flight level, the Mcrit of a

supercritical aerofoil will be…
A) lower.
B) the same at lower speeds and higher at transonic speeds.
C) higher.
D) the same.
815. One advantage of a supercritical wing aerofoil over a conventional one is:
A) that there is no need for spoilers.
B) improved Dutch roll damping at cruise altitude.
C) it allows a wing of increased relative thickness to be used for approximately the same
cruise Mach number.
D) a lower value of Mcrit at the same relative thickness.
816. What will help against shock&induced separation of the boundary layer?
A) Using vortex generators.
B) Increasing the Mach number.
C) Increasing the Angle of Attack.
D) Deploying the high lift devices.
817. At speeds above the critical Mach number, vortex generators fitted to a
wing’s upper surface will…
A) retard shock&induced separation.
B) reduce the kinetic energy within the boundary layer.
C) increase the stall speed.
D) promote shock&induced separation.
818. Vortex generators on the upper side of the wing surface will:
A) increase the magnitude of the shock wave.
B) decrease the span wise flow at high Mach numbers.
C) increase the critical Mach number.
D) decrease shock wave induced flow separation.
819. Vortex generators mounted on the upper wing surface will:

A) decrease the interference drag of the trailing edge flaps.
B) decrease the shock wave induced separation.
C) decrease the stall speed by increasing spanwise flow on the wing.
D) increase the effectiveness of the spoiler due to increase in parasite drag.
820. “Some aeroplanes have a ‘waist’ or ‘coke bottle’ contoured fuselage. This
is done to:”
A) apply area rule.
B) increase the strength of the wing root junction.
C) improve the low speed characteristics.
D) fit the engine intakes better to the fuselage.
821. The application of the area rule on aeroplane design will decrease the:
A) form drag.
B) induced drag.
C) wave drag.
D) skin friction drag.
822. “Some aeroplanes have a local reduction in fuselage cross&section

&waistline or “”coke bottle”” shape&. This is to:”
A) reduce friction drag by reducing surface areas.
B) improve airflow to the engine air inlet.
C) reduce wave drag through application of the area rule.
D) improve aerodynamic stability.
823. “The effect of a ventral fin on the static stability of an aeroplane is as

follows:&1=longitudinal, 2=lateral, 3=directional&”
A) 1: negative, 2: positive, 3: positive.
B) 1: no effect, 2: positive, 3: negative.
C) 1: positive, 2: negative, 3: negative.
D) 1: no effect, 2: negative, 3: positive.
824. Positive static stability of an aeroplane means that following a
disturbance from the equilibrium condition:
A) the initial tendency is to diverge further from its equilibrium condition.
B) the tendency is to move with an oscillatory motion of increasing amplitude.
C) the tendency is to move with an oscillatory motion of decreasing amplitude.
D) the initial tendency is to return towards its equilibrium condition.
825. “Following a disturbance, an aeroplane oscillates about the lateral axis at

constant amplitude. The aeroplane is:”
A) statically stable & dynamically neutral.
B) statically stable & dynamically unstable.
C) statically unstable & dynamically stable.
D) statically unstable & dynamically neutral.
826. An aeroplane that has positive static stability:

A) can be dynamically stable, neutral or unstable.
B) is always dynamically stable.
C) is always dynamically unstable.
D) is never dynamically stable.
827. A statically unstable aeroplane is:

A) never dynamically stable.
B) sometimes dynamically stable.
C) always dynamically stable.
D) sometimes dynamically unstable.
828. One of the requirements for positive dynamic stability is:

A) a small CG range.
B) an effective elevator.
C) positive static stability.
D) a large deflection range of the stabiliser trim.
829. Static stability means that:

A) the amplitude of the oscillatory motion of an aeroplane tends to decrease over time.
B) following a disturbance from the equilibrium condition, a force and/or moment is
generated that tends to counter the effects of that disturbance.
C) following a disturbance from the equilibrium condition, a force and/or moment is
generated that tends to increase the effects of that disturbance.
D) the amplitude of the oscillatory motion of an aeroplane tends to increase over time.
830. For an aeroplane to possess dynamic stability, it needs:

A) a large CG range.
B) static stability only.
C) static stability and sufficient damping.
D) sufficient damping only.
831. A statically unstable aeroplane:
A) reduces its instability as the CG moves aft.
B) will become stable at high speed.
C) is always dynamically stable.
D) can never be dynamically stable.
832. A statically stable aeroplane:

A) can show positive, neutral or negative dynamic longitudinal stability.
B) is always dynamically stable.
C) is never dynamically stable.
D) will never show positive dynamic longitudinal stability, but always neutral dynamic
longitudinal stability.
833. Positive static longitudinal stability means that a:

A) nose up moment occurs after encountering an upgust.
B) nose down moment occurs with a speed change at constant angle of attack.
C) nose down moment occurs after encountering an upgust.
D) nose up moment occurs with a speed change at constant angle of attack.
834. An aeroplane that tends to return to its pre&disturbed equilibrium

position after the disturbance has been removed is said to have:
A) positive static stability.
B) positive dynamic stability.
C) neutral dynamic stability.
D) neutral static stability.
835. As the stability of an aeroplane decreases:

A) its tendency to tuck under decreases.
B) its manoeuvrability decreases also.
C) there is no effect on its stability.
D) its manoeuvrability increases.
836. As the stability of an aeroplane increases:

A) its manoeuvrability decreases.
B) there is no effect on its stability.
C) its manoeuvrability increases also.
D) its tendency to tuck under increases.

A) Dynamic stability is possible only when the aeroplane is statically stable about the
relevant axis.
B) Static stability means that the aeroplane is also dynamically stable about the relevant
axis.
C) Dynamic stability about the lateral axis implies that after being displaced from its original
equilibrium condition, the aeroplane will return to that condition without oscillation.
D) A dynamically stable aeroplane would be almost impossible to fly manually.
838. “&For this question use annex 081&022 issue date June 2006&.Assuming
no pilot input the motion of the aeroplane in the diagram shows:”
A) dynamic longitudinal instability.
B) dynamic longitudinal stability.
C) neutral dynamic longitudinal stability.
D) static longitudinal instability.
A) dynamic longitudinal stability.
B) static longitudinal instability.
C) dynamic longitudinal instability.
D) neutral dynamic longitudinal stability.
A) static and dynamic longitudinal stability.
B) static longitudinal stability and dynamic longitudinal instability.
C) neutral dynamic longitudinal stability.
D) static longitudinal instability.
841. “&For this question use annex 081&012 issue date July 2004&.The
aeroplane motion, schematically illustrated in the annex, is an example of a
dynamically:”
A) stable periodic motion.
B) indifferent periodic motion.
C) indifferent aperiodic motion.
D) unstable periodic motion.
842. If the total sum of moments about one of its axes is not zero, an aeroplane
would:
A) experience an angular acceleration about that axis.
B) fly a path with a constant curvature.
C) be difficult to control.
D) not be affected because the situation is normal.
843. If the sum of all the moments in flight is not zero, the aeroplane will rotate
about the:
A) neutral point of the aeroplane.
B) centre of gravity.
C) aerodynamic centre of the wing.
D) centre of pressure of the wing.
844. When an aeroplane with the centre of gravity forward of the centre of
pressure of the combined wing / fuselage is in straight and level flight, the
vertical load on the tailplane will be:
A) upwards.
B) zero because in steady flight all loads are in equilibrium.
C) downwards because it is always negative regardless of the position of the centre of
gravity.
D) downwards.
845. An aeroplane, with a CG location behind the centre of pressure of the

wing can only maintain a straight and level flight when the horizontal tail
loading is:
A) zero.
B) downwards.
C) upwards.
D) upwards or downwards depending on elevator deflection.
846. The air loads on the horizontal tailplane &tail load& of an aeroplane in
straight and level cruise flight are generally directed:
A) downwards and will reduce in magnitude as the CG moves aft.
B) upwards and will increase in magnitude as the CG moves aft.
C) downwards and will increase in magnitude as the CG moves aft.
D) upwards and will reduce in magnitude as the CG moves aft.
847. In cruising flight, with the centre of gravity forward of main wing centre of
pressure, the force on the horizontal tailplane is directed:
A) Upward in order to balance the aerodynamic moment about the centre of gravity.
B) Downward in order to balance the aerodynamic moment about the centre of gravity.
C) Upward and is equal to weight.
D) Downward which reduces the induced drag.
848. The CG of an aeroplane is in a fixed position forward of the neutral point.

Which of these statements about the stick force stability is correct?
A) An increase of 10 kt from the trimmed position at low speed has more effect on the stick
force than an increase of 10 kt from the trimmed position at high speed.
B) Maintaining a steady speed above the trim speed requires a pull force.
C) Stick force stability is not affected by trim.
D) Aeroplane nose up trim decreases the stick force stability.
849. How can a pilot recognise static stick force stability in an aeroplane
during flight?
A) When speed increases the pull force increases.
B) The elevator stick force remains constant with speed changes.
C) To maintain a speed below the trim speed requires a push force.
D) To maintain a speed below the trim speed requires a pull force.
850. “The CG of an aeroplane is in a fixed position forward of the neutral point.

Which of these statements about the stick force stability is correct?”
A) Maintaining a steady speed below the trim speed requires a push force.
B) Aeroplane nose down trim increases the stick force stability.
C) An increase of 10 kt from the trimmed position at high speed has less effect on the stick
force than an increase of 10 kt from the trimmed position at low speed.
D) Stick force stability is not affected by trim.
851. How can a pilot recognise static stick force stability in an aeroplane
during flight?
A) The elevator stick force remains constant with speed changes.
B) To maintain a speed above the trim speed requires a push force.
C) To maintain a speed above the trim speed requires a pull force.
D) When speed decreases the push&force increases.
852. What is the effect of elevator trim tab adjustment on the static longitudinal
stability of an aeroplane?
A) No effect.
B) Aeroplane nose down trim increases the static longitudinal stability.
C) Aeroplane nose up trim increases the static longitudinal stability.
D) Depends on the value of stick force/g.
853. Which statement concerning longitudinal stability and control is correct?

A) A bob weight reduces the stick force per g.
B) A down spring only improves the manoeuvre stability.
C) A down spring has the same function as a stick pusher.
D) A bob weight and a down spring have the same effect on the stick force stability.
854. Which statement about stick force per g is correct?

A) The stick force per g must have both an upper and lower limit in order to ensure
acceptable control characteristics.
B) If the slope of the stick force versus load factor line becomes negative, generally speaking
this is not a problem for control of an aeroplane.
C) The stick force per g can only be corrected by means of electronic devices &stability
augmentation& in case of an unacceptable value.
D) The stick force per g increases, when centre of gravity is moved aft.
855. Considering the longitudinal stability of an aeroplane, why does the stick
force per ‘g’ decrease with pressure altitude, at a given IAS?
A) Because increasing pressure altitude produces a smaller aerodynamic damping.
B) Because increasing pressure altitude produces a bigger aerodynamic damping.
C) Because the aeroplane has a greater longitudinal stability at higher pressure altitude.
D) Because the manoeuvring point is in front of the neutral point at a higher pressure
altitude.
856. The &1& stick force stability and the &2& manoeuvre stability are
positively affected by:
A) &1& aft CG movement &2& aft CG movement.
B) &1& forward CG movement &2& forward CG movement.
C) &1& forward CG movement &2& trimming the aeroplane nose up.
D) &1& trimming the aeroplane nose up &2& trimming the aeroplane nose up.
857. A CG location beyond the aft limit can cause:
A) an unacceptably low value of manoeuvre stability.
B) a higher than normal stick force during normal take off rotation.
C) an increase in static longitudinal stability.
D) improved spin recovery characteristics.
858. When moving the centre of gravity forward the stick force per g will:
A) not change.
B) decrease.
C) change but only at very high speeds.
D) increase.
859. Stick force per g:

A) does not change with increasing altitude.
B) has a maximum value related to acceptable controllability, the minimum value is of no
concern.
C) is selected by the pilot by electronic means before each flight.
D) is dependent on CG location.
860. If an aeroplane exhibits insufficient stick force per g, this problem can be
resolved by installing:
A) a spring which pulls the stick backwards.
B) a bobweight in the control system which pulls the stick forwards.
C) a spring which pushes the stick forwards.
D) a bobweight in the control system which pulls the stick backwards.
861. “Which statement is correct? I. Stick force per g is independent of

altitude. II. Stick force per g increases when the centre of gravity moves
forward.”
862. A CG location beyond the forward limit can cause:

A) a lower than normal stick force during normal take off rotation.
B) an unacceptably high value of manoeuvre stability.
C) a decrease in static longitudinal stability.
D) degraded spin recovery characteristics.
863. “The value of the manoeuvre stability of an aeroplane is 150 N/g. The stick
force required to achieve a load factor of 2.5 from steady straight and level
trimmed flight is:”
A) 225 N.
B) 375 N.
C) 450 N.
D) 150 N.
864. “The stick force per g of a heavy transport aeroplane is 300 N/g.What stick
force is required, if the aeroplane in the clean configuration is pulled to the
limit manoeuvring load factor from a trimmed horizontal straight and steady
flight?”
A) 1125 N.
B) 750 N.
C) 825 N.
D) 450 N.
865. “The manoeuvre stability of a large jet transport aeroplane is 280 N/g.
What stick force is required, if the aeroplane is pulled to the limit manoeuvring
load factor from a trimmed horizontal straight and steady flight? &cruise
configuration&”
A) 630 N.
B) 770 N.
C) 1050 N.
D) 420 N.
866. “Which of the following statements is correct? I. A high limit load factor
enables the manufacturer to design for a lower stick force per g. II. The stick
force per g is a limitation on the use of an aeroplane, which the pilot should
determine from the Aeroplane Flight Manual.”
A) I is incorrect and II is incorrect.
B) I is correct and II is correct.
C) I is incorrect and II is correct.
D) I is correct and II is incorrect.
A) 450 N.
B) 625 N.
C) 150 N.
D) 375 N.
A) 225 N.
B) 450 N.
C) 750 N.
D) 150 N.
A) 250 N.
B) 225 N.
C) 450 N.
D) 150 N.
force required to achieve a load factor of 4 from steady straight and level
A) 450 N.
B) 150 N.
C) 225 N.
D) 200 N.
A) 500 N.
B) 225 N.
C) 450 N.
D) 375 N.
A) 150 N.
B) 450 N.
C) 600 N.
D) 225 N.
A) 450 N.
B) 150 N.
C) 300 N.
D) 225 N.
874. When the stick force required to achieve a load factor of 2.5 from steady
straight and level trimmed flight is 225 N, the value of the manoeuvre stability
of that aeroplane is:
A) 300 N/g.
B) 150 N/g.
C) 90 N/g.
D) 100 N/g.
A) 100 N/g.
B) 150 N/g.
C) 300 N/g.
D) 250 N/g.
A) 150 N/g.
B) 180 N/g.
C) 100 N/g.
D) 300 N/g.
A) 60 N/g.
B) 300 N/g.
C) 100 N/g.
D) 150 N/g.
878. When the stick force required to achieve a load factor of 3 from steady
A) 150 N/g.
B) 80 N/g.
C) 50 N/g.
D) 75 N/g.
A) 75 N/g.
B) 180 N/g.
C) 150 N/g.
D) 120 N/g.
A) 75 N/g.
B) 33 N/g.
C) 25 N/g.
D) 50 N/g.
A) 120 N/g.
B) 50 N/g.
C) 80 N/g.
D) 100 N/g.
882. Which statement on dynamic longitudinal stability of a conventional

aeroplane is correct?
A) Period time of the phugoid is normally 5 s.
B) Damping of the short period oscillation is normally very weak.
C) Damping of the phugoid is normally very weak.
D) Speed remains constant during one period of the phugoid.
883. “The “”short period mode”” is an:”

A) oscillation about the longitudinal axis.
B) unstable movement of the aeroplane, induced by the pilot.
C) oscillation about the lateral axis.
D) oscillation about the normal axis.
884. During a phugoid, the speed:

A) remains approximately constant, as it does during a short period oscillation.
B) remains approximately constant, whereas during a short period oscillation it varies
significantly.
C) varies significantly, as it does during a short period oscillation.
D) varies significantly, whereas during a short period oscillation it remains approximately
constant.
885. During a short period oscillation, the altitude:

A) varies significantly, whereas during a phugoid it remains approximately constant.
B) remains approximately constant, as it does during a phugoid.
C) varies significantly, as it does during a phugoid.
D) remains approximately constant, whereas during a phugoid it varies significantly.

A) When the phugoid is slightly unstable, an aeroplane becomes uncontrollable.
B) A slightly unstable short period oscillation is no problem for an aeroplane.
C) The short period oscillation should always be heavily damped.
D) The phugoid should always be heavily damped.
887. The manoeuvrability of an aeroplane is best when the:

A) CG is on the aft CG limit.
B) speed is low.
C) CG position is on the forward CG limit.
D) flaps are down.
888. An aeroplane exhibits static longitudinal stability, if, when the angle of
attack changes:
A) the resulting moment is nose&up.
B) the change in total aeroplane lift acts aft of the centre of gravity.
C) the change in total aeroplane lift acts through the centre of gravity.
D) the change in wing lift is equal to the change in tail lift.
889. Considering an aeroplane’s manoeuvrability in pitch, the further forward

the centre of gravity…
A) the less the manoeuvrability due to the increased static longitudinal stability.
B) the less the manoeuvrability due to the increased dynamic longitudinal stability.
C) the greater the manoeuvrability due to the increased elevator forces that can be
achieved.
D) the greater the manoeuvrability due to a longer elevator to CG arm, which increases the
pitching moment.
890. Longitudinal static stability is created by the fact that the:

A) centre of gravity is located in front of the leading edge of the wing.
B) centre of gravity is located in front of the neutral point of the aeroplane.
C) aeroplane possesses a large trim speed range.
D) wing surface is greater than the horizontal tail surface.
891. “Which of the following statements about static longitudinal stability is

correct?I. A requirement for positive static longitudinal stability of an
aeroplane is, that the neutral point is behind the centre of gravity.II. A wing
with positive camber provides a positive contribution to static longitudinal
stability, when the centre of gravity of the aeroplane is in front of the
aerodynamic centre of the wing.”
892. The neutral point of an aeroplane is the point where:

A) the velocity of the relative airflow is reduced to zero.
B) the boundary layer changes from laminar to turbulent.
C) the aeroplane becomes longitudinally unstable when the CG is moved beyond it in an aft
direction.
D) assuming no flow separation, the pitching moment coefficient does not change with
varying angle of attack.
893. The contribution of the wing to the static longitudinal stability of an

aeroplane:
A) is always negative.
B) depends on the wing location relative to the fuselage.
C) is positive if the wing has a positively cambered aerofoil section and the aerodynamic
centre is ahead of the CG.
D) depends on CG location relative to the wing aerodynamic centre.
894. The aerodynamic contribution to the static longitudinal stability of the
nacelles of aft fuselage&mounted engines is…
A) always negative.
B) always positive.
C) always zero.
D) only determined by speed.
895. For a normal stable aeroplane, the centre of gravity is located:

A) aft of the neutral point of the aeroplane.
B) at the neutral point of the aeroplane.
C) with a sufficient minimum margin ahead of the neutral point of the aeroplane.
D) between the aft limit and the neutral point of the aeroplane.
896. The maximum aft position of the centre of gravity is, amongst others,
limited by the:
A) required minimum value of the stick force per g.
B) maximum longitudinal stability of the aeroplane.
C) maximum elevator deflection.
D) inability to achieve maximum rotation rate during take&off.
897. “The most aft CG location may be limited by:1. insufficient stick force
stability.2. insufficient flare capability. 3. excessive in&flight manoeuvrability.4.
insufficient in&flight manoeuvrabilityThe combination that regroups all of the
correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 4.
B) 1, 3.
C) 2, 3.
D) 1, 4.
898. Longitudinal stability is directly influenced by:

A) the vertical stabiliser.
B) elevator deflection only.
C) centre of gravity position.
D) wing dihedral.
899. Which CG position with respect to the neutral point ensures static
longitudinal stability?
A) CG and neutral point at the same position.
B) CG behind the neutral point.
C) CG ahead of the neutral point.
D) CG can be ahead of or behind the neutral point as long as the forward or aft CG limits are
not exceeded.
900. For a statically stable aeroplane, the relationship between the neutral
point and centre of gravity &CG& is such that the neutral point is located:
A) ahead of the CG.
B) anywhere, provided it is between the CG’s forward and aft limits.
C) aft of the CG.
D) at the CG.
901. An aft CG shift:

A) decreases static longitudinal stability.
B) decreases longitudinal manoeuvrability.
C) increases static longitudinal stability.
D) has no influence on longitudinal manoeuvrability.
902. The aft CG limit can be determined by the:

A) maximum elevator deflection available.
B) minimum acceptable static longitudinal stability.
C) maximum static longitudinal stability required.
D) minimum acceptable elevator deflection.
903. A forward CG shift:

A) increases longitudinal manoeuvrability.
B) decreases static longitudinal stability.
C) has no influence on static longitudinal stability.
D) decreases longitudinal manoeuvrability.
904. An aeroplane has static longitudinal stability when the:

A) Centre of pressure is in front of the neutral point.
B) Centre of gravity is in front of the neutral point.
C) Centre of pressure is in front of the aerodynamic centre.
D) Aerodynamic centre is in front of the neutral point.
905. An aft CG shift:

A) decreases longitudinal manoeuvrability.
B) increases longitudinal manoeuvrability.
C) increases static longitudinal stability.
D) has no influence on static longitudinal stability.
906. A forward CG shift:

A) has no influence on longitudinal manoeuvrability.
B) increases static longitudinal stability.
C) increases longitudinal manoeuvrability.
D) decreases static longitudinal stability.
907. “The most forward CG location may be limited by:1. insufficient flare
capability 2. excessive in&flight manoeuvrability. 3. insufficient in&flight
manoeuvrabilityWhich option contains all of the correct statements?”
A) 1 and 3.
B) 2 only.
C) 3 only.
D) 1 and 2.
908. When an aeroplane has zero static longitudinal stability, the pitching
moment coefficient Cm versus angle of attack line:
A) has a negative slope.
B) has a positive slope.
C) is vertical.
D) is horizontal.
909. “&For this question use annex 081&017 issue date November
2004&.Which line in the annexed Cm versus angle of attack graph shows a
statically stable aeroplane?”
A) Line 4.
B) Line 2.
C) Line 1.
D) Line 3.
in the diagram illustrates an aeroplane which is statically longitudinally stable
at all angles of attack?”
A) Line 2.
B) Line 1.
C) Line 3.
D) Line 4.
911. “&For this question use annex 081&026 issue date October 2006&.Where
on the curve in the diagram does the aeroplane exhibit static longitudinal
stability?”
A) Point 2.
B) Part 1.
C) Part 3.
D) The whole curve.
on the curve in the diagram does the aeroplane exhibit neutral static
longitudinal stability?”
A) Part 3.
B) Part 1.
C) The whole curve.
D) Point 2.
913. “&For this question use annex 081&025 issue date July 2006&. Which line
in the diagram illustrates an aeroplane with neutral static longitudinal stability
at all angles of attack?”
A) Line 2.
B) Line 3.
C) Line 4.
D) Line 1.
in the diagram represents decreasing positive static longitudinal stability at
higher angles of attack?”
A) Line 4.
B) Line 2.
C) Line 1.
D) Line 3.
in the diagram represents an aeroplane with static longitudinal instability at all
angles of attack?”
A) Line 1.
B) Line 4.
C) Line 3.
D) Line 2.
916. “&For this question use annex 081&025 issue date July 2006&.Which
statement is correct regarding the pitching moment coefficient Cm versus
angle of attack diagram?”
A) Line 4 shows an aeroplane with a greater static longitudinal stability at low angles of
attack than that shown in line 3.
B) Line 3 shows an aeroplane with increasing static longitudinal stability at high angles of
attack.
C) Line 4 shows an aeroplane with reducing static longitudinal stability at very high angles of
attack.
D) Line 1 shows an aeroplane with reducing static longitudinal instability at very high angles
of attack.
A) Line 3 shows an aeroplane with reducing static longitudinal stability at high angles of
attack.
B) Line 4 shows an aeroplane with reducing static longitudinal stability at very high angles of
attack.
C) Line 4 shows an aeroplane with greater static longitudinal stability at low angles of attack
than that in shown line 3.
D) Line 1 shows an aeroplane with increasing static longitudinally instability at very high
angles of attack.
on the curve in the diagram does the aeroplane exhibit static longitudinal
instability?”
A) Point 2.
B) Part 1.
C) The whole curve.
D) Part 3.
A) Line 3 shows an aeroplane with greater static longitudinal stability at low angles of attack
than that shown in line 4.
B) Line 1 shows an aeroplane with increasing static longitudinal instability at very high
angles of attack.
C) Line 3 shows an aeroplane with increasing static longitudinal stability at high angles of
attack.
D) Line 4 shows an aeroplane with reducing static longitudinal stability at very high angles of
attack.
A) Line 4 shows an aeroplane with increasing static longitudinal stability at very high angles
of attack.
B) Line 1 shows an aeroplane with increasing static longitudinal instability at very high
angles of attack.
C) Line 4 shows an aeroplane with a greater static longitudinal stability at low angles of
attack than that shown in line 3.
D) Line 3 shows an aeroplane with increasing static longitudinal stability at high angles of
attack.
921. A negative contribution to the static longitudinal stability of conventional

jet transport aeroplanes is provided by:
A) a fixed trim position.
B) a fixed elevator deflection.
C) the tail.
D) the fuselage.
922. Which part of an aeroplane provides the greatest positive contribution to

static longitudinal stability?
A) The horizontal tailplane.
B) The fuselage.
C) The engine.
D) The wing.
923. “&For this question use annex 081&027 issue date July 2006&.The
pitching moment versus angle of attack line in the diagram, which
corresponds to a CG located at the neutral point of a given aeroplane at low
and moderate angles of attack is:”
A) line 1.
B) line 3.
C) line 2.
D) line 4.
924. “&For this question use annex 081&027 issue date July 2006&.Which of
these statements about the pitching moment coefficient versus angle of attack
lines in the annex is correct?”
A) The CG position is further forward at line 4 when compared with line 1.
B) The CG position is further aft at line 4 when compared with line 1.
C) Static longitudinal stability is greater at line 3 when compared with line 4 at low and
moderate angles of attack.
D) In its curved part line 2 illustrates a decreasing static longitudinal stability at high angles
of attack.
925. “&For this question use annex 081&027 issue date July 2006&. Which of
A) The CG position is further forward at line 1 when compared with line 4.
B) In its curved part line 2 illustrates a decreasing static longitudinal stability at high angles of
attack.
C) Static longitudinal stability is greater at line 3 compared with line 4 at low and moderate
angles of attack.
D) Static longitudinal stability is greater at line 4 when compared with line 3 at low and
926. “&For this question use annex 081&027 issue date July 2006&. Which of
A) The CG position is further aft at line 4 when compared with line 1.
B) The horizontal part of line 2 illustrates static longitudinal instability.
D) In its curved part at high angles of attack line 2 illustrates increasing static longitudinal
stability.
927. “&For this question use annex 081&027 issue date July 2006&.Which of
A) In its curved part at high angles of attack line 2 illustrates a decreasing static longitudinal
stability.
B) The CG position is further forward at line 1 when compared with line 4.
D) The CG position is further aft at line 1 when compared with line 4.
928. During landing of a low&winged jet aeroplane, the greatest elevator up

deflection is normally required when the flaps are:
A) fully down and the CG is fully aft.
B) fully down and the CG is fully forward.
C) up and the CG is fully forward.
D) up and the CG is fully aft.
929. “Consider two elevator control systems:1 is fitted with a trim tab.2 is fitted
with fully powered hydraulic controls and an adjustable horizontal
stabiliser.For both cases and starting from a trimmed condition, how will the
neutral position of the control column change, after trimming for a speed
increase?”
A) 1 does not change, 2 does not change.
B) 1 does not change, 2 moves forward.
C) 1 moves forward, 2 moves forward.
D) 1 moves forward, 2 does not change.
930. A downward adjustment of a trim tab in the longitudinal control system,

has the following effect:
A) the stick force stability remains constant.
B) the stick force stability decreases.
C) the stick position stability increases.
D) the stick position stability remains constant.
931. After an aeroplane has been trimmed:

A) the trim&tab will always be deflected in the same direction as the control surface itself.
B) the stick position stability will be increased.
C) the stick position stability will be unchanged.
D) the stick force per g is reduced.
932. Upward deflection of a trim tab in the longitudinal control results in:
A) the stick force stability remaining constant.
B) increasing the stick force stability.
C) the stick position stability remaining constant.
D) increasing the stick position stability.
933. “Consider two elevator control systems:1 is fitted with a trim tab.2 is fitted
with fully powered hydraulic controls and an adjustable horizontal
stabiliser.For both cases and starting from a trimmed condition, how will the
neutral position of the control column change, after trimming for a speed
decrease?”
A) 1 does not change, 2 moves aft.
B) 1 moves aft, 2 does not change.
C) 1 does not change, 2 does not change.
D) 1 moves forward, 2 moves forward.
934. An aeroplane has static directional stability if, when in a sideslip with the
relative airflow coming from the right, initially the:
A) nose of the aeroplane tends to yaw left.
B) right wing tends to go down.
C) nose of the aeroplane tends to yaw right.
D) nose of the aeroplane does not move.
935. Static directional stability is the…
A) tendency of an aeroplane to recover from a disturbance about the lateral axis.
B) natural ability of an aeroplane to recover from a disturbance about the longitudinal axis.
C) tendency of an aeroplane to recover from a skid without control input from the pilot.
D) tendency of an aeroplane to raise the low wing in a sideslip.
936. “Which of these statements are correct or incorrect regarding a sideslip,

with the relative airflow coming from the right, on an aeroplane that exhibits
both directional and lateral stability? I. The initial tendency of the nose of the
aeroplane is to move to the right. II. The initial tendency of the left wing is to
move down.”

aeroplane is to move to the left. II. The initial tendency of the right wing is to
move down.”

aeroplane is to move to the right. II. The initial tendency of the right wing is to
move down.”

aeroplane is to move to the left. II. The initial tendency of the left wing is to
move down.”

with the relative airflow coming from the left, on an aeroplane that exhibits
both directional and lateral stability?I. The initial tendency of the nose of the
aeroplane is to move to the left.II. The initial tendency of the right wing is to
move down.”

aeroplane is to move to the right.II. The initial tendency of the left wing is to
move down.”

aeroplane is to move to the left. II. The initial tendency of the left wing is to
move down.”

aeroplane is to move to the right.II. The initial tendency of the right wing is to
move down.”
944. An aeroplane’s sideslip angle is defined as the angle between the:

A) speed vector and normal axis.
B) speed vector and the horizontal plane.
C) lateral axis and the horizontal plane.
D) speed vector and the plane of symmetry.
945. An aeroplane has static directional stability if, when in a sideslip with the
relative airflow coming from the left, initially the:
A) left wing tends to go down.
B) nose of the aeroplane tends to yaw right.
C) nose of the aeroplane does not move.
D) nose of the aeroplane tends to yaw left.
946. An aircraft demonstrates positive static directional stability. How does

this relate to the interaction between the aircraft’s yawing moment coefficient,
Cn, and sideslip angle, B &beta&?
A) Cn is positive and the aircraft experiences a negative sideslip angle.
B) Cn=0 and the aircraft experiences a negative sideslip angle.
C) Cn is positive and the aircraft experiences a positive sideslip angle.
D) Cn is negative and the aircraft experiences a positive sideslip angle.
947. The effect of a wing with sweepback on static directional stability is as

follows:
A) no effect.
B) destabilising dihedral effect.
C) negative dihedral effect.
D) stabilising effect.
948. “Which of the following statements is correct?I. A dorsal fin increases the
contribution of the vertical tail plane to the static directional stability, in
particular at large angles of sideslip.II. A dorsal and a ventral fin both have a
positive effect on static lateral stability.”
949. Static directional stability is mainly provided by:

A) wing anhedral.
B) the fin.
C) the elevator.
D) wing dihedral.
950. The contribution of wing sweep back to static directional stability is:
A) positive.
B) positive or negative depending on sweepback angle.
C) zero.
D) negative.
951. The contribution of swept&back wings to static directional stability:

A) is nil.
B) decreases as the sweepback increases.
C) is negative.
D) is positive.
952. Which of the following provides a positive contribution to static

directional stability?
A) Moving the centre of gravity aft.
B) A forward swept wing.
C) A low wing as compared with a high wing.
D) A dorsal fin.
953. The purpose of a dorsal fin is to:

A) maintain static directional stability at large sideslip angles.
B) reduce tendency for spiral instability.
C) stabilise forebody vortices.
D) provide pitch and yaw control.
954. Positive static lateral stability is the tendency of an aeroplane to:

A) roll to the right in a right turn.
B) roll to the left in the case of a sideslip angle &with the aeroplane nose pointing to the right
of the incoming flow&.
C) roll to the left in a right turn.
D) roll to the left in the case of a sideslip &with the aeroplane nose pointing to the left of the
incoming flow&.
955. Static lateral stability should not be too large, because:

A) constant aileron deflection would be required during cruise in case of crosswind.
B) the roll trim sensitivity would increase sharply.
C) too much rudder deflection would be required in a crosswind landing.
D) too much aileron deflection would be required in a crosswind landing.
956. Excessive static lateral stability is an undesirable characteristic for a

transport aeroplane because:
A) it would impose excessive demands on roll control during a sideslip.
B) it would result in excessive wing loading during a co&ordinated turn.
C) it would result in a proportional decline in static directional stability.
D) performing co&ordinated turns would be very difficult.
957. “Which design features improve static lateral stability?1. High wing.2.
Low wing.3. Large and high vertical fin.4. Ventral fin.The combination that
A) 2, 4.
B) 1, 4.
C) 1, 3.
D) 2, 3.
958. Which wing design feature decreases the static lateral stability of an
aeroplane?
A) Dihedral.
B) Increased wing span.
C) High wing.
D) Anhedral.
959. Wing dihedral:
A) is the only way of ensuring static lateral stability.
B) does not affect static lateral stability.
C) is particularly applied on aeroplanes with high mounted wings.
D) contributes to static lateral stability.
960. Which statement concerning sweepback is correct?

A) Sweepback provides a positive contribution to static lateral stability.
B) Sweepback increases speed stability at Mach numbers above Mcrit.
C) Sweepback is mainly intended to increase static directional stability.
D) A disadvantage of sweepback is that it decreases Mcrit.
961. An increase in geometric dihedral in a steady sideslip condition at

constant speed would:
A) not affect the required lateral control force.
B) decrease the required lateral control force.
C) increase the required lateral control force.
D) decrease the stick force per g.
962. How can the designer of an aeroplane with straight wings increase the
static lateral stability?
A) By applying wing twist.
B) By fitting a ventral fin &a fin at the under side of the aeroplane&.
C) By increasing anhedral.
D) By increasing the aspect ratio of the vertical stabiliser, whilst maintaining a constant area.
963. “Sweepback of a wing positively influences:1. static longitudinal stability.

2. static lateral stability. 3. dynamic longitudinal stability. The combination that
A) 3.
B) 1.
C) 1, 2, 3.
D) 2.
964. The primary purpose of dihedral is to:

A) increase dynamic stability.
B) decrease sensitivity to Dutch roll.
C) increase static directional stability.
D) increase static lateral stability.
965. Static lateral stability will be decreased by:

A) the use of a high, rather than low, wing mounting.
B) increasing wing anhedral.
C) increasing wing sweepback.
D) increasing the size of the vertical tail.
A) reducing wing sweepback.
B) reducing wing anhedral.
C) the use of a high, rather than low, wing mounting.
D) increasing the size of the vertical tail.
967. Static lateral stability will be increased by:

A) the use of a low, rather than high, wing mounting.
B) reducing the size of the vertical tail.
C) reducing wing sweepback.
D) reducing wing anhedral.
968. “Which design features improve static lateral stability? 1. Anhedral. 2.

Dihedral. 3. Forward sweep. 4. Sweepback. The combination that regroups all
of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 3.
B) 1, 4.
C) 2, 3.
D) 2, 4.
969. “Which design features reduce static lateral stability? 1. High wing. 2. Low
wing. 3. Large and high vertical fin. 4. Ventral fin. The combination that
A) 1, 4.
B) 2, 4.
C) 1, 3.
D) 2, 3.
970. “Which design features reduce static lateral stability? 1. Anhedral. 2.

Dihedral. 3. Forward sweep. 4. Sweepback. The combination that regroups all
of the correct statements is:”
A) 2, 4.
B) 1, 3.
C) 2, 3.
D) 1, 4.

A) reducing the size of the vertical tail.
B) the use of a high, rather than low, wing mounting.
C) increasing wing anhedral.
D) reducing wing sweepback.

A) increasing wing anhedral.
B) increasing wing sweepback.
C) reducing the size of the vertical tail.
D) the use of a low, rather than high, wing mounting.
A) increasing the size of the vertical tail.
B) the use of a low, rather than high, wing mounting.
C) reducing wing anhedral.
D) increasing wing sweepback.
974. Which of the following statements about static lateral and directional
stability is correct?
A) Static directional stability can be increased by installing more powerful engines.
B) The effects of static lateral and static directional stability are completely independent of
each other because they take place about different axes.
C) An aeroplane with an excessive static directional stability in relation to its static lateral
stability, will be prone to spiral dive &spiral instability&.
D) “An aeroplane with an excessive static directional stability in relation to its static lateral
stability, will be prone to “”Dutch roll””.”
975. An example of a combined lateral and directional aperiodic motion is a:

A) short period oscillation.
B) Dutch roll.
C) spiral dive.
D) phugoid.
976. Static lateral stability should not be too small because:

A) after a disturbance around the longitudinal axis the aeroplane would show too strong a
tendency to return to the original attitude.
B) the aeroplane would show too strong a tendency to Dutch roll.
C) the stick force per g would become unacceptably small.
D) the aeroplane would show too strong a tendency to spiral dive.
977. Sensitivity for spiral dive will occur when:

A) the static directional stability is positive and the static lateral stability is relatively weak.
B) the Dutch roll tendency is too strongly suppressed by the yaw damper.
C) the static lateral and directional stability are both negative.
D) the static directional stability is negative and the static lateral stability is positive.
978. Which moments or motions interact in a Dutch roll?

A) Pitching and adverse yaw.
B) Pitching and rolling.
C) Rolling and yawing.
D) Pitching and yawing.
979. What is the recommended action following failure of the yaw damper&s&
of a jet aeroplane, flying at normal cruise altitude and speed prior to
encountering Dutch roll problems?
A) Increase Mach number to improve aerodynamic damping of any subsequent Dutch roll
motion.
B) No action is required.
C) Manually recover any subsequent Dutch roll motion using rudder.
D) Reduce altitude and Mach number.
980. “Which one of the following systems suppresses the tendency to “”Dutch
roll””?”
A) Rudder limiter.
B) Roll spoilers.
C) Yaw damper.
D) Spoiler mixer.
981. An aeroplane is sensitive to Dutch roll when…

A) an aeroplane has anhedral.
B) static stability is less pronounced than dynamic stability.
C) static lateral stability is much less pronounced than static directional stability.
D) static lateral stability is much more pronounced than static directional stability.
982. An example of a combined lateral and directional periodic motion is a…

A) phugoid.
B) spiral dive.
C) Dutch roll.
D) short period oscillation.
983. Which is the correct statement with regards to Dutch roll?

A) A roll damper is used in most aeroplanes to counteract Dutch roll.
B) If Dutch roll occurs, try to counteract the oscillations by opposite rudder.
C) Dutch roll is usually encountered during an approach in turbulence.
D) If the yaw damper is inoperative, consider reducing speed and altitude.
984. If the static lateral stability of an aeroplane is increased, whilst its static
directional stability remains constant, …
A) turning flight becomes more difficult.
B) its spiral stability decreases.
C) its sensitivity to Dutch roll increases.
D) the nose&down pitching moment in a turn increases.
985. Rolling is the rotation of the aeroplane about the:

A) vertical axis.
C) wing axis.
D) lateral axis.
986. Rotation around the lateral axis is called:

A) yawing.
B) slipping.
C) pitching.
D) rolling.
987. Which statement about elevators is correct?
A) The elevator is the primary control surface for control about the lateral axis and is
operated by a forward or backward movement of the control wheel or stick.
B) The elevator is used only to trim an aeroplane and is normally operated by a dedicated
control wheel, which is usually situated close to the throttle.
C) The elevator is the primary control surface for control about the longitudinal axis and is
operated by a forward or backward movement of the control wheel or stick.
D) The elevator is the primary control surface for control about the longitudinal axis and is
operated by a left or right rotation of the control wheel.
988. An aeroplane’s pitch angle is defined as the angle between its:

A) longitudinal axis and the horizontal plane.
B) speed vector and its longitudinal axis.
C) lateral axis and the horizontal plane.
D) speed vector and the horizontal plane.
989. Rotation around the longitudinal axis is called:

A) yawing.
B) rolling.
C) pitching.
D) slipping.
990. An aeroplane’s bank angle is defined as the angle between its…

A) lateral axis and the horizon.
B) longitudinal axis and the horizon.
C) lateral axis and the relative airflow.
D) longitudinal axis and the relative airflow.
991. “&For this question use annex 081&021 issue date March 2005&.What
kind of horizontal control surface is shown in the figure?”
A) Canard.
B) Frise type control.
C) Elevator.
D) All&flying tail.
992. To pitch a conventional aeroplane nose up, the pilot applies backpressure
on the control column. This moves the elevator relatively…
A) downwards, increasing the positive camber of the tailplane and elevator.
B) upwards, increasing the positive camber of the tailplane and elevator.
C) upwards, increasing the negative camber of the tailplane and elevator.
D) downwards, increasing the negative camber of tailplane and elevator.
993. Considering the effect of wing downwash on the direction of the airflow
approaching the tailplane, when flaps are extended the tailplane’s negative
angle of attack…
A) increases, decreasing the tailplane’s effectiveness.
B) increases, increasing the tailplane’s effectiveness.
C) decreases, decreasing the tailplane’s effectiveness.
D) decreases, increasing the tailplane’s effectiveness.
994. “Which of the following statements about tailplanes is correct?A T&tail

is…”
A) more stabilising than a low tailplane because it is less affected by downwash behind the
wings.
B) less stabilising than a low tailplane because it is less affected by downwash behind the
wings.
C) less stabilising than a low tailplane because it is more affected by downwash behind the
wings.
D) more stabilising than a low tailplane because it is more affected by downwash behind the
wings.
995. When an aeroplane wing’s angle of attack is increased, downwash causes

the horizontal tailplane to experience…
A) a lower increase in angle of attack.
B) an initial lower angle of attack which then increases.
C) the same increase in angle of attack.
D) a higher increase in angle of attack.
996. For a conventional aeroplane with the aerodynamic centre behind the
aeroplane’s centre of gravity, the presence of significant ice on the leading
edge of the tailplane can cause the tailplane to stall. This could cause an
uncontrollable pitch…
A) up, and is more likely when the elevator is moved relatively down or the wing flaps are
retracted.
B) down, and is more likely when the elevator is moved relatively up or when the wing flaps
are extended.
C) down, and is more likely when the elevator is moved relatively up or the wing flaps are
retracted.
D) up, and is more likely when the elevator is moved relatively down or when the wing flaps
are extended.
997. When the CG position is moved forward, the elevator deflection to achieve
an increase in load factor will be:
A) smaller.
B) unchanged.
C) larger.
D) dependent on trim position.
998. What is the effect of an aft shift of the centre of gravity on &1& static
longitudinal stability and &2& the required control deflection for a given pitch
change?
A) &1& increases, &2& reduces.
B) &1& reduces, &2& increases.
C) &1& increases, &2& increases.
D) &1& reduces, &2& reduces.
999. For a given elevator deflection, aeroplane longitudinal manoeuvrability

increases when:
A) the CG moves forward.
B) IAS decreases.
C) the CG moves aft.
D) flaps are retracted at constant IAS.
1000. Which statement is about CG limits is correct?

A) The forward CG limit is determined by stability considerations only.
B) The aft CG limit is determined by the maximum elevator deflection available.
C) If the aft CG limit is correctly chosen, the forward CG limit is automatically determined as
well.
D) The forward CG limit is mainly determined by the amount of pitch control available from
the elevator.
1001. The elevator deflection required for a given manoeuvre will be:
A) larger for an aft CG position when compared to a forward position.
B) the same at all speeds.
C) the same for all CG positions.
D) smaller at high IAS when compared to low IAS.
1002. For a given elevator deflection, aeroplane longitudinal manoeuvrability

decreases when:
A) the CG moves forward.
B) IAS increases.
C) flaps are retracted at constant IAS.
D) the CG moves aft.
1003. Aeroplane manoeuvrability increases for a given control surface

deflection when:
A) flaps are retracted at constant IAS.
B) IAS decreases.
C) the CG moves forward.
D) IAS increases.
1004. Aeroplane manoeuvrability decreases for a given control surface

deflection when:
A) IAS decreases.
B) IAS increases.
C) flaps are retracted at constant IAS.
D) the CG moves aft.
1005. When the CG position is moved aft, the elevator deflection to achieve an
increase in load factor will be:
A) larger.
B) unchanged.
C) smaller.
1006. When the CG position is moved forward, the elevator deflection to

achieve an decrease in load factor will be:
A) dependent on trim position.
B) unchanged.
C) smaller.
D) larger.
1007. When the CG position is moved aft, the elevator deflection to achieve an
decrease in load factor will be:
A) unchanged.
B) larger.
C) smaller.
A) the same at all speeds.
B) larger at low IAS when compared to high IAS.
C) the same for all CG positions.
D) larger for an aft CG position when compared to a forward position.
A) the same at all speeds.
B) larger at high IAS when compared to low IAS.
C) smaller for a aft CG position when compared to an forward position.
D) larger for an aft CG position when compared to a forward position.
A) larger for an aft CG position when compared to a forward position.
B) larger for a forward CG position when compared to an aft position.
C) larger at high IAS when compared to low IAS.
D) the same at all speeds.
1011. As the CG of an aircraft moves forward from the neutral point, the
amount of elevator deflection required to control the aircraft…
A) decreases and then increases.
B) remains the same.
C) increases.
D) decreases.
1012. “On a jet aeroplane &engines mounted below the low wing& the thrust is
suddenly increased. Which of these statements is correct about the elevator
deflection required to maintain zero pitching moment?”
A) The elevator must be deflected upwards.
B) No elevator deflection be will required because the thrust line of the engines remains
unchanged.
C) The elevator must be deflected downward.
D) The amount of elevator deflection is independent of CG location.
1013. Low speed pitch&up can be caused by a significant thrust:

A) decrease with podded engines located beneath a low&mounted wing.
B) increase with podded engines located beneath a low&mounted wing.
C) increase with engines located on the rear fuselage.
D) decrease with engines located on the rear fuselage.
1014. A jet transport aeroplane exhibits pitch up when thrust is suddenly

increased from an equilibrium condition, because the thrust line is below the:
A) drag line of action.
B) neutral point.
C) CG.
D) centre of pressure.
1015. If a propeller is located ahead of an aeroplane’s CG, when the aeroplane

is inclined to the airstream, this creates a…
A) pitch&up moment and the effect is stabilising.
B) pitch&down moment and the effect is destabilising.
C) pitch&up moment and the effect is destabilising.
D) pitch&down moment and the effect is stabilising.
1016. If the thrust line is located above an aeroplane’s CG, it will create a…
A) positive pitch moment that is stabilising.
B) positive pitch moment that is destabilising.
C) negative pitch moment that is destabilising.
D) negative pitch moment that is stabilising.
1017. Why is there a limit on the full rudder deflection as airspeed &IAS&
increases on transport aeroplanes?
A) To reduce the risk of entering a spiral divergence in cruise.
B) Full rudder deflection is not to be limited on transport aeroplanes as airspeed increases.
C) Because full rudder deflection could create an excessive load on the structure.
D) To reduce the directional stability at high airspeed.
1018. When large transport aeroplanes are flying at high speed, full rudder
deflection would cause excessive loads on the structure. What system is fitted
to the rudder to prevent this happening?
A) Rudder trim system.
B) Fully powered rudder control.
C) Rudder ratio or rudder travel changer.
D) Yaw damper system.
1019. Flaperons are controls, which combine the function of:

A) flaps and elevator.
B) ailerons and flaps.
C) flaps and speed brakes.
D) ailerons and elevator.
1020. A jet aeroplane equipped with inboard and outboard ailerons as well as
spoilers is cruising at its normal cruise Mach number. In this case:
A) only the spoilers will be active, not the ailerons.
B) the inboard and outboard ailerons are active.
C) outboard ailerons are locked out.
D) spoilers are locked out.
1021. “An aeroplane is provided with spoilers and both inboard and outboard
ailerons. Roll control during cruise is provided by:”
A) outboard ailerons and roll spoilers.
B) outboard ailerons only.
C) inboard and outboard ailerons.
D) inboard ailerons and roll spoilers.
1022. When are outboard ailerons &if present& de&activated?

A) Landing gear retracted.
B) Landing gear extended.
C) Flaps &and/or slats& extended or speed below a certain value.
D) Flaps &and slats& retracted or speed above a certain value.
1023. In what phase of flight are the outboard ailerons &if fitted& not active?
A) Landing with a strong and gusty crosswind, to avoid over&controlling the aeroplane.
B) Take&off, until lift&off.
C) Approach.
D) Cruise.
1024. The function of ailerons is to rotate the aeroplane about the:

A) longitudinal axis.
B) normal axis.
C) yaw axis.
D) lateral axis.
1025. Outboard ailerons &if present& are normally used:

A) in high speed flight only.
B) when the landing gear is up.
C) at transonic and supersonic speeds only.
D) in low speed flight only.
1026. What are the primary roll controls on a conventional aeroplane?

A) The ailerons.
B) Symmetrically deflected spoilers.
C) Asymmetrically extended leading edge flaps.
D) The rudder.
1027. Aileron deflection causes a rotation around the longitudinal axis by:
A) aileron secondary effect.
B) causing sideslip, which generates a rolling moment.
C) changing the wing drag and the two wings therefore produce different lift values resulting
in a moment about the longitudinal axis.
D) changing the wing camber and the two wings therefore produce different lift values
resulting in a moment about the longitudinal axis.
1028. The correct aileron and rudder deflection to fly a sideslip to the right is:
A) Bank left, rudder left.
B) Bank right, rudder left.
C) Bank right, rudder right.
D) Bank left, rudder right.
1029. In a sideslip, rudder effectiveness may be reduced. Deflection of which

control surface will aid, through secondary &or coupled& aerodynamic effects,
the rudder yawing moment?
A) Slats
B) Flaps
C) Ailerons
D) Elevators
1030. When roll spoilers are extended, the part of the wing on which they are
mounted:
A) stalls. This causes a difference in lift between both wings, which generates the desired
rolling moment.
B) experiences extra drag, which generates a yawing moment. The speed difference
between both wings generates the desired rolling moment.
C) is forced downwards as a reaction to the increased drag.
D) experiences a reduction in lift, which generates the desired rolling moment. In addition
there is a local increase in drag, which suppresses adverse yaw.
1031. Where spoilers are used to assist ailerons with lateral control, when
rolling to the right, the left aileron moves down and the right aileron moves up.
How do the spoilers move?
A) The left spoilers remain flush and the right spoilers move up.
B) The left spoilers move up and the right spoilers remain flush.
C) The right spoilers and the left spoilers remain flush.
D) The right spoilers and the left spoilers move up.
1032. When a turn is initiated, adverse yaw is:

A) a momentary yawing motion opposite to the turn due to an incorrect differential aileron
movement.
B) the tendency of an aeroplane to yaw in the opposite direction of turn mainly due to the
difference in aileron form drag.
C) the tendency of an aeroplane to yaw in the same direction of turn due to the different wing
speeds.
D) the tendency of an aeroplane to yaw in the opposite direction of turn mainly due to the
difference in induced drag on each wing.
1033. The use of ailerons induces adverse &aileron& yaw. This occurs as a
result of the…
A) up&going wing producing more drag than the down&going wing.
B) up&going wing having a higher rate of roll when compared to the down&going wing.
C) down&going wing producing more drag than the up&going wing.
D) up&going wing being subjected to more aerodynamic damping than the down&going
wing.
1034. Differential aileron deflection:

A) increases the CLMAX.
B) is required to keep the total lift constant when ailerons are deflected.
C) equals the drag of the right and left aileron.
D) is required to achieve the required roll rate.
1035. An example of differential aileron deflection during initiation of left turn

is:
A) Left aileron: 2° up. Right aileron: 5° down.
B) Left aileron: 2° down. Right aileron: 5° up.
C) Left aileron: 5° up. Right aileron: 2° down.
D) Left aileron: 5° down. Right aileron: 2° up.
1036. How is adverse yaw compensated for during entry into and roll out from
a turn?
A) Differential aileron deflection.
B) Servo tabs.
C) Horn balanced controls.
D) Anti&balanced rudder control.
1037. One method to compensate adverse yaw is:

A) a balance panel.
B) a differential aileron.
C) an anti&balance tab.
D) a balance tab.
1038. Which of the following statements concerning control is correct?

A) Hydraulically powered control surfaces do not need mass balancing.
B) In general the maximum downward elevator deflection is larger than upward.
C) On some aeroplanes, the servo tab also serves as a trim tab.
D) In a differential aileron control system the control surfaces have a larger upward than
downward maximum deflection.
1039. Which phenomenon is counteracted with differential aileron deflection?

A) Adverse yaw.
B) Turn co&ordination.
C) Sensitivity for spiral dive.
D) Aileron reversal.
1040. The device or method used to counteract adverse yaw is/are:

A) A link between rudder and elevator.
B) An anti&balance tab.
C) A balance tab.
D) Differential ailerons.
1041. Frise ailerons are used to reduce adverse aileron yaw. To achieve this
the…
A) up&going aileron moves through a larger angle than the down&going aileron.
B) down&going aileron moves through a larger angle than the up&going aileron.
C) leading edge of the up&going aileron protrudes below the lower surface of the wing,
causing more drag.
D) leading edge of the down&going aileron protrudes above the upper surface of the wing,
causing more drag.
1042. When using aileron&rudder coupling to prevent adverse yaw, when the
aircraft is rolled to the right, the left aileron is deflected…
A) down, the right aileron is deflected up, and the rudder is automatically deflected to the
right.
B) up, the right aileron is deflected down, and the rudder is automatically deflected to the
right.
C) up, the right aileron is deflected down, and the rudder is automatically deflected to the
left.
D) down, the right aileron is deflected up, and the rudder is automatically deflected to the
left.
1043. If the nose of an aeroplane yaws left, this causes:

A) an increase in lift on the left wing.
B) a decrease in relative airspeed on the right wing.
C) a roll to the left.
D) a roll to the right.
1044. Rotation about the longitudinal axis of an aeroplane can be achieved by:
A) symmetrical spoiler deflection and/or elevator deflection.
B) speed brake extension or wing flap deflection.
C) aileron deflection and/or rudder deflection.
D) elevator deflection and/or slat extension.
1045. Yaw is followed by roll because the:

A) yawing motion generated by rudder deflection causes a speed increase of the outer wing,
which increases the lift on that wing so that the aeroplane starts to roll in the same direction
as the yaw.
B) yawing motion generated by rudder deflection causes a speed increase of the inner wing,
which increase the lift on that wing so that the aeroplane starts to roll in the same direction
as the yaw.
C) rolling motion generated by rudder deflection causes a speed increase of the outer wing
which increases the lift on that wing so the aeroplane starts to roll in the direction of the turn.
D) rudder is located above the longitudinal axis and when it is deflected, it causes a rolling
moment in the same direction as the yaw.
1046. Which statement is correct about a spring tab?

A) At high IAS it behaves like a fixed extension of the elevator.
B) At low IAS it behaves like a servo tab.
C) At high IAS it behaves like a servo tab.
D) Its main purpose is to increase stick force per g.
1047. Which aerodynamic design features can be used to reduce control

forces?
A) Balance tab, control surfaces with increased area behind the hinge, artificial feel system.
B) Servo tab, bobweight, control surfaces with increased area.
C) Mass balance, horn balance, artificial feel system.
D) Horn balance, balance tab, servo tab.
1048. Which statement about a primary control surface controlled by a servo

tab, is correct?
A) The control effectiveness of the primary surface is increased by servo tab deflection.
B) The position is undetermined during taxiing, in particular with tailwind.
C) Due to the effectiveness of the servo tab the control surface area can be smaller.
D) The servo tab can also be used as a balance tab.
1049. What is the fundamental difference between a trim tab and a servo tab?
A) The functioning of a trim tab is based on aerodynamic balancing, whereas a servo tab is
usually adjusted via a screwjack.
B) A servo tab affects the stick force stability, whereas a trim tab does not.
C) A trim tab is automatically adjusted when its particular control surface moves, whereas a
servo tab is moved independently of its particular control surface.
D) The main purpose of a trim tab is to reduce stick force to zero in steady flight, a servo tab
only reduces stick force.
1050. Examples of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces are:

A) weight in the nose of the control surface, horn balance.
B) Fowler flaps, upper and lower rudder.
C) upper and lower rudder, seal between wing’s trailing edge and leading edge of a control
surface.
D) seal between wing’s trailing edge and leading edge of a control surface, horn balance.
1051. Which three aerodynamic means decrease manoeuvring stick forces?

A) Spring tab & trim tab & mass balancing weight.
B) Servo tab & trim tab & balance tab.
C) Spring tab & horn balance & bobweight.
D) Servo tab & horn balance & spring tab.
1052. “An aeroplane has a servo tab controlled elevator. What will happen if
the elevator jams during flight?”
A) Pitch control sense is reversed.
B) The servo tab now works as a negative trim tab.
C) Pitch control is lost.
D) The pitch control forces double.
1053. In general, control forces are reduced by:

A) mass balancing, a trim tab and spring tab.
B) a horn balance, servo tab and spring tab.
C) a balance tab, forward shift of the CG and a servo tab.
D) a servo tab, spring tab and mass balancing.
1054. A horn balance in a control system has the following purpose:

A) to prevent flutter.
B) to obtain mass balancing.
C) to decrease stick forces.
D) to decrease the static longitudinal stability of the aeroplane.
1055. Examples of aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces are:

A) spring tab, servo tab, and power assisted control.
B) balance tab, horn balance, and mass balance.
C) servo tab, spring tab, seal between the wing trailing edge and the leading edge of control
surface.
D) mass in the nose of the control surface, horn balance and mass balance.
1056. “&For this question use annex 081&019 issue date March 2005&.The tab
in the figure represents:”
A) a trim tab.
B) an anti&balance tab.
C) a control tab.
D) a balance tab that also functions as a trim tab.
1057. “&For this question use annex 081&020 issue date March 2005&.The tab
in the figure represents:”
A) a balance tab .
B) a servo tab.
C) a trim tab.
D) an anti&balance tab.
1058. The horn balance is used for aerodynamic balancing. It consists…

A) of a tab which moves opposite to the movement of the main control surface.
B) in locating part of the control surface behind the hinge line to protrude in the airflow.
C) in locating part of the control surface ahead of the hinge line to protrude in the airflow.
D) of a downspring which contributes to stick force stability.
1059. An aerodynamic balancing device, which makes it possible for a large
surface to be deflected by a relatively small control force, is called…
A) a servo tab.
B) a balance tab.
C) an anti&balance tab.
D) a horn balance.
1060. Which tab used in aerodynamic balancing moves in the same direction
as the control surface and also increases control effectiveness?
A) Servo tab
B) Trim tab
C) Anti&balance tab
D) Balance tab
1061. Artificial feel is required:

A) when the flight control surfaces are fitted with control tabs or trim tabs.
B) when there is a trimmable stabiliser.
C) with fully powered flight controls.
D) with power assisted flight controls.
1062. Stick forces, provided by an elevator feel system, depend on:

A) elevator deflection, static pressure.
B) stabiliser position, static pressure.
C) elevator deflection, dynamic pressure.
D) stabiliser position, total pressure.
1063. When power assisted controls are used for pitch control:
A) trimming is superfluous.
B) they only function in combination with an elevator trim tab.
C) a part of the aerodynamic forces is still felt on the column.
D) aerodynamic balancing of the control surfaces is meaningless.
1064. What is the primary input for an artificial feel system?

A) Mach number.
B) TAS.
C) Static pressure.
D) IAS.
1065. In a power&assisted flight control system, most of the force is provided

by the…
A) servo valve.
B) hydraulic system.
C) pilot.
D) servo tab.
1066. In a fully powered flight control system, the pilot supplies the force to…
A) move the servo valve.
B) move the spring tab.
C) move the servo tab.
D) “provide the “”aerodynamic feel””.”
1067. In straight flight, as speed is increased, whilst trimming to keep the stick
force zero:
A) the elevator is deflected further upwards and the trim tab further downwards.
B) both elevator and trim tab are deflected further downwards.
C) the elevator and trim tab do not move.
D) the elevator is deflected further downwards and the trim tab further upwards.
1068. Which of the following tab devices contributes positively to the

effectiveness of a control surface?
A) An anti&balance tab.
B) A balance tab.
C) A servo tab.
D) A trim tab.
1069. “Which of the following are reasons for trimming an aircraft in pitch? 1.
Changes of speed 2. Changes of power 3. Varying CG positions 4. Lateral
displacement of CG”
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2, and 3
C) 2, 3, and 4
D) 1 and 4 only
1070. “When comparing a trim tab with an anti&balance tab, which of the
following statements is correct?The trim tab…”
A) moves in the opposite direction to the control surface and the anti&balance tab moves in
the same direction as the control surface.
B) is moved by pilot input and the anti&balance tab is moved by an electrical input.
C) moves in the same direction as the control surface and the anti&balance tab moves in the
opposite direction to the control surface.
D) increases control effectiveness and the anti&balance tab reduces it.
1071. If the elevator trim tab is deflected up, the cockpit trim indicator shows:
A) neutral.
B) nose down.
C) nose up.
D) nose left.
1072. In straight flight, as speed is reduced, whilst trimming to keep the stick
force zero:
A) the elevator is deflected further upwards and the trim tab further downwards.
B) the elevator and trim tab do not move.
C) both elevator and trim tab are deflected further upwards.
D) the elevator is deflected further downwards and the trim tab further upwards.
1073. If the elevator becomes jammed, then the:
A) Aeroplane can only be controlled by the use of a stabiliser trim.
B) Elevator trim tab’s effect will be reversed.
C) Elevator trim will become inoperative.
D) Static longitudinal stability is reduced.
1074. A trim tab is an adjustable surface which can reduce the moment at the
hinge line of the main control surface to zero. It can achieve this because its
lift force…
A) is set far from the hinge line of the main control surface.
B) can be deflected through a larger angle compared to the main control surface.
C) is controlled from the cockpit just like the main control surface.
D) is set close to the hinge line of the main control surface.
1075. The most important factor determining the required position of the
Trimmable Horizontal Stabiliser &THS& for take off is the:
A) stall speed.
B) centre of gravity position of the fuel.
C) total mass of the aeroplane.
D) position of the aeroplane’s centre of gravity.
1076. What should be usually done to perform a landing with the stabiliser
jammed in the cruise flight position?
A) choose a higher landing speed than normal and/or use a lower flap setting for landing.
B) choose a lower landing speed than normal.
C) use the Mach trimmer until after landing.
D) if possible, relocate as many passengers as possible to the front of the cabin.
1077. In general jet transport aeroplanes with power assisted flight controls
are fitted with an adjustable stabiliser instead of trim tabs on the elevator. This
is because:
A) trim tab deflection increases VMO.
B) the pilot does not feel the stick forces at all.
C) mechanical adjustment of trim tabs creates too many problems.
D) an adjustable stabiliser is a more powerful means to generate the tail loads required for
these kind of aeroplanes.
1078. What is the position of the elevator in relation to the trimmable horizontal
stabiliser of an aeroplane with fully hydraulically operated flight controls that
is in trim?
A) Elevator deflection is zero.
B) The elevator is always deflected slightly downward in order to have sufficient remaining
flare capability.
C) At a forward CG, the elevator is deflected upward and at an aft CG, it is deflected
downward.
D) The position depends on speed, the position of flaps and slats and the position of the
centre of gravity.
1079. What is the effect on landing speed when a trimmable horizontal
stabiliser jams at high IAS?
A) In most cases, a higher than normal landing speed is required.
B) No effect with a forward CG.
C) No effect when landing on a high elevation runway.
D) In most cases, no effect.
1080. What is the position of the elevator in relation to the trimmable horizontal
stabiliser of a power assisted aeroplane that is in trim?
A) The elevator deflection &compared with the stabiliser position& is always zero.
B) The position depends on speed, the position of slats and flaps and the position of the
centre of gravity.
C) At a forward CG the elevator is deflected upward and at an aft CG the elevator is
deflected downward.
D) The elevator is always deflected slightly downwards in order to have sufficient remaining
flare capability.
1081. When a jet transport aeroplane takes off with the CG at the forward limit
and the trimmable horizontal stabiliser &THS& is positioned at the maximum
allowable nose down position for take&off:
A) early nose wheel raising will take place.
B) there will be a tendency to over&rotate.
C) rotation will be normal using the normal rotation technique.
D) rotation will require a higher than normal stick force.
1082. When a jet transport aeroplane takes off with the CG at the forward limit
and the trimmable horizontal stabiliser &THS& is positioned at the maximum
allowable nose up position for take&off:
A) rotation will be normal using the normal rotation technique.
B) there will be a tendency to over&rotate.
C) early nose wheel raising will take place.
D) rotation will require a higher than normal stick force.
1083. When a jet transport aeroplane takes off with the CG at the aft limit and
the trimmable horizontal stabiliser &THS& is positioned at the maximum
allowable nose down position for take&off:
A) rotation will require higher than normal stick force.
B) early nose wheel raising will take place.
C) there will be a tendency to under&rotate.
D) rotation will be normal using the normal rotation technique.
1084. When a jet transport aeroplane takes off with the CG at the aft limit and
the trimmable horizontal stabiliser &THS& is positioned at the maximum
allowable nose up position for take&off:
A) there will be a tendency to under&rotate.
B) early nose wheel raising will take place.
C) rotation will be normal using the normal rotation technique.
D) rotation will require higher than normal stick force.
1085. Which of these statements about a trimmable horizontal stabiliser is

correct?
A) At the forward CG limit, stabiliser trim is adjusted fully nose down to obtain maximum
elevator authority at rotation during take&off.
B) A trimmed aeroplane with a forward CG requires the stabiliser leading edge to be lower
than in the case of an aft CG in the same condition.
C) Because take&off speeds do not vary with CG position, the need for stabiliser adjustment
is dependent on flap position only.
D) A trimmed aeroplane with a forward CG requires the stabiliser leading edge to be higher
than in the case of an aft CG in the same condition.
1086. “Comparing the differences between a horizontal trimmable stabiliser

and an elevator trim tab, which of these statements are correct or incorrect? I.
When trimmed for zero elevator stick force an elevator trim tab causes more
drag. II. A horizontal trimmable stabiliser enables a larger CG range.”

and an elevator trim tab which of these statements are correct or incorrect? I.
When trimmed for zero elevator stick force a horizontal trimmable stabiliser
causes more drag. II. An elevator trim tab enables a larger CG range.”

When trimmed for zero elevator stick force a horizontal trimmable stabiliser
causes more drag. II. A horizontal trimmable stabiliser enables a larger CG
range.”

When trimmed for zero elevator stick force an elevator trim tab causes more
drag. II. An elevator trim tab enables a larger CG range.”

and an elevator trim tab, which statement is correct? I. A trim tab is less
suitable for jet transport aeroplanes because of their large speed range. II. A
stabiliser trim is a more powerful means of trimming.”

and an elevator trim tab, which statement is correct? I. A stabiliser trim is less
trim tab is a more powerful means of trimming.”

and an elevator trim tab, which statement is correct? I. A stabiliser trim is less
stabiliser trim is a more powerful means of trimming.”

and an elevator trim tab, which statement is correct? I. A trim tab is less
trim tab is a more powerful means of trimming.”

A stabiliser trim is more suitable to cope with the large trim changes generated
by the high lift devices on most jet transport aeroplanes. II. A trim tab runaway
causes less control difficulty.”
A elevator trim tab is more suitable to cope with the large trim changes
generated by the high lift devices on most jet transport aeroplanes. II. A
stabiliser trim runaway causes less control difficulty.”

A elevator trim tab is more suitable to cope with the large trim changes
generated by the high lift devices on most jet transport aeroplanes. II. A trim
tab runaway causes less control difficulty.”

A stabiliser trim is more suitable to cope with the large trim changes generated
by the high lift devices on most jet transport aeroplanes. II. A stabiliser trim
runaway causes less control difficulty.”

The effects of a stabiliser trim runaway are more seriou II. A jammed trim tab

The effects of a trim tab runaway are more seriou II. A jammed stabiliser trim
The effects of a trim tab runaway are more seriou II. A jammed trim tab causes
less control difficulty.”
1101. Which of these statements about a trimmable horizontal stabiliser is

correct?
A) At the aft CG limit, stabiliser trim is adjusted fully nose up to obtain maximum elevator
authority at rotation during take&off.
B) Because take&off speeds do not vary with CG position, the need for stabiliser adjustment
is dependent on flap position only.
C) A trimmed aeroplane with an aft CG requires the stabiliser leading edge to be higher than
in the case of a forward CG in the same condition.
D) A trimmed aeroplane with an aft CG requires the stabiliser leading edge to be lower than
in the case of a forward CG in the same condition.
1102. When comparing an elevator trim system with a stabiliser trim system,
which of these statements is correct?
A) An elevator trim system is better adapted to larger flight speed ranges.
B) An elevator trim system is more suitable for aeroplanes with a large CG range.
C) An elevator trim system is more sensitive to flutter.
D) An elevator trim system is able to compensate larger changes in pitching moments.
1103. When comparing a stabiliser trim system with an elevator trim system,
A) A stabiliser trim is not as capable to compensate large changes in pitching moments.
B) An elevator trim is more suitable for aeroplanes with a large CG range.
C) A stabiliser trim is less sensitive to flutter.
D) An elevator trim is able to compensate larger changes in pitching moments.
A) A stabiliser trim is more sensitive to flutter.
B) An elevator trim is less suitable for aeroplanes with a large CG range.
C) A elevator trim is able to compensate larger changes in pitching moments.
D) An elevator trim is able to compensate larger changes in pitching moments.
A) An elevator trim is able to compensate larger changes in pitching moments.
B) A stabiliser trim is more sensitive to flutter.
C) A stabiliser trim is able to compensate larger changes in pitching moments.
D) An elevator trim is more suitable for aeroplanes with a large CG range.
1106. “When an aircraft with stabiliser trim is trimmed “”nose up””, what is the
position of the stabiliser and elevator compared to the horizontal axis of the
aircraft? Consider the stabiliser movement to be that occurring at its trailing
edge.The stabiliser will be…”
A) parallel to the horizontal axis, with the elevator in line with it.
B) defected up with the elevator down.
C) deflected up with the elevator in line with it.
D) deflected down with the elevator in line with it.
1107. An aircraft with a forward CG has the stabiliser trim set incorrectly for
take&off with insufficient nose&up trim. At the correctly determined rotate
speed, the normal rotation technique is followed. However, in this situation it
is likely that…
A) higher&than&usual stick forces will be felt by the pilot and the rate of rotation may be
reduced.
B) lighter&than&usual stick forces will be felt by the pilot and there maybe an increased
possibility of a tail&strike.
C) a shorter take&off distance will be required.
D) the aircraft will have an excessive rate of pitch change when rotated.
1108. One of the main disadvantages of stabiliser trim system, compared to a

conventional trim tab system, is that…
A) it reduces the effective range of pitch control.
B) it is more complex and heavy.
C) it is less powerful and gives a decreased ability to trim for larger CG ranges.
D) the drag is greater in the trimmed state.
1109. “Which of the following affect the setting of the stabiliser trim for
take&off? 1. Flap setting 2. CG position 3. Actual take&off mass 4. Outside air
temperature”
A) 1 and 4 only
B) 1, 2, and 3
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 3, and 4
1110. The stabiliser of an aircraft, whose CG is within the normal range, is

mistakenly set with its leading edge at a more positive angle of incidence than
required. As a result the pilot will encounter…
A) lighter&than&normal control forces requiring a longer take&off run.
B) higher&than&normal control forces but would require a shorter take&off run.
C) lighter&than&normal control forces, which may lead to over&rotation.
D) higher&than&normal control forces, which may lead to a later&than&normal lift&off.
1111. Wing flutter may be caused by a:

A) combination of bending and torsion of the wing structure.
B) combination roll control reversal and low speed stall.
C) aerodynamic wing stall at high speed.
D) combination of fuselage bending and wing torsion.
1112. Flutter of control surfaces is:

A) aileron reversal.
B) divergent oscillatory motion of a control surface caused by the interaction of aerodynamic,
inertia and friction forces.
C) the accelerated stall of a wing.
D) a divergent oscillatory motion of a control surface caused by the interaction of
aerodynamic forces, inertia forces and the stiffness of the structure.
1113. Aileron flutter can be caused by:

A) aileron reversal.
B) continuous deformations in one direction generated by bending and twisting of the wing.
C) the elastic centre of the wing section coinciding with the centre of gravity of that wing
section.
D) cyclic deformations generated by aerodynamic, inertial and elastic loads on the wing.
1114. Mass balancing of control surfaces is used to:

A) limit the stick forces.
B) prevent flutter of control surfaces.
C) ensure that the control surfaces are in the mid&position during taxiing.
D) increase the stick force stability.
1115. When flutter damping of control surfaces is obtained by mass balancing,

these weights will be located with respect to the hinge of the control surface:
A) behind the hinge.
B) in front of the hinge.
C) above the hinge.
D) below the hinge.
1116. Control surface flutter can be eliminated by:

A) aerodynamic balancing of the control surface.
B) increasing airspeed.
C) reducing structural stiffness of the control surface attachment structure.
D) mass balancing of the control surface.
1117. “Which of these statements about flutter are correct or incorrect?I. Wing
mounted engines extending ahead of the wing contribute to wing flutter
suppression.II. Excessive free play or backlash reduces the speed at which
control surface flutter occurs.”
1118. “Which of these statements about flutter are correct or incorrect?I.
Moving the engines from the wing to the aft fuselage improves wing flutter
suppression.II. Excessive free play or backlash increases the speed at which
1119. “Which of these statements about flutter are correct or incorrect?I.

Moving the engines from the wing to the fuselage improves wing flutter
suppression.II. Excessive free play or backlash reduces the speed at which
1120. “Which of these statements about flutter are correct or incorrect? I. Wing
mounted engines extending ahead of the wing contribute to wing flutter
suppression. II. Excessive free play or backlash increases the speed at which
1121. “Which of these statements about flutter are correct or incorrect? I.

Aero&elastic coupling affects flutter characteristics II. The risk of flutter
increases as IAS increases.”

Aero&elastic coupling does not affect flutter characteristics II. Occurrence of
flutter is independent of IAS.”

Aero&elastic coupling does not affect flutter characteristics II. The risk of
flutter increases as IAS increases.”

Aero&elastic coupling affects flutter characteristics II. Occurrence of flutter is
independent of IAS.”
1125. “Which of these statements about flutter are correct or incorrect? I. If

flutter occurs, IAS should be reduced. II. Resistance to flutter increases with
increasing wing stiffness.”

flutter occurs, IAS should be kept constant. II. Resistance to flutter increases
with reducing wing stiffness.”

flutter occurs, IAS should be kept constant. II. Resistance to flutter increases
with increasing wing stiffness.”

flutter occurs, IAS should be reduced. II. Resistance to flutter increases with
reducing wing stiffness.”
1129. Aileron reversal can occur at…

A) low speeds when wing with the up&going aileron exceeds that wing’s critical Angle Of
Attack.
B) low speeds when the wing with the down&going aileron twists, increasing that wing’s
camber.
C) high speeds when the wing with the down&going aileron twists, reducing that wing’s Lift
Coefficient.
D) high speeds when the wing with the up&going aileron causes sufficient drag, leading to
adverse yaw.
1130. VLE is defined as the:

A) maximum speed at which the landing gear may be extended or retracted.
B) maximum authorised speed.
C) maximum flap extended speed.
D) maximum landing gear extended speed.
1131. The speed VLE is the maximum speed to be flown:

A) With the leading edge devices extended.
B) During extension of the leading edge devices.
C) During extension of the landing gear.
D) With the landing gear extended.
1132. What is VFE?

A) The maximum speed for operation of the landing gear.
B) The recommended penetration speed for severe turbulence.
C) The speed never to be exceeded in flight.
D) The maximum speed for a specified flap configuration.
1133. Regarding the speeds VNO, VMO and VNE, which of the following
answers is correct?
A) For an aeroplane certified under CS&23, VNE is the maximum speed to be flown with the
flaps extended.
B) VMO is the maximum operating speed permitted in normal conditions for an aeroplane
certified under CS&25. It may be exceeded by a maximum of 10 & in an emergency descent.
C) For an aeroplane certified under CS&25, VMO is the maximum speed that must not be
deliberately exceeded in any regime, unless a higher speed has been authorised for a
particular flight.
D) VNO is the maximum normal operating airspeed for an aeroplane certified under CS&25.
It can only be exceeded in smooth air.
1134. For an aeroplane certified under CS&23, VNE is the maximum speed…
A) an aeroplane can be flown at with flaps extended.
B) at which the aeroplane may be flown in cruise.
C) at which the aeroplane may be flown.
D) which must not be exceeded in a dive.
1135. For most jet transport aeroplanes, the maximum operating limit speed,
VMO:
A) is replaced by MMO at higher altitudes.
B) is equal to VD.
C) is lower than VNE.
D) is expressed as a true air speed.
1136. Which load factor determines VA?
A) manoeuvring flap limit load factor.
B) gust load factor at 66 ft/s gust.
C) manoeuvring ultimate load factor.
D) manoeuvring limit load factor.
1137. What can happen to the aeroplane structure flying at a speed just
exceeding VA?
A) It may break if the elevator is fully deflected upwards.
B) It will collapse if a turn is made.
C) It may suffer permanent deformation if the elevator is fully deflected upwards.
D) It may suffer permanent deformation because the flight is performed at too large dynamic
pressure.
1138. What is the limit load factor of a large transport aeroplane?

A) 3.75.
B) 4.4.
C) 2.5.
D) 6.
1139. VA is:
A) the maximum speed at which maximum elevator deflection up is allowed.
B) the speed at which a heavy transport aeroplane should fly in turbulence.
C) the maximum speed at which rolls are allowed.
D) the speed that should not be exceeded in the climb.
1140. VMO:
A) should be chosen in between VC and VD.
B) should be not greater than VC.
C) should not be less than VD.
D) is equal to the design speed for maximum gust intensity.
1141. For an aeroplane with one fixed value of VA the following applies. VA is:
A) the speed at which the aeroplane stalls at the manoeuvring limit load factor at MTOW.
B) just another symbol for the rough air speed.
C) the maximum speed in smooth air.
D) the speed at which unrestricted application of elevator control can be used, without
exceeding the maximum manoeuvring limit load factor.
1142. Assuming no compressibility effects, the correct relationship between

stall speed, limit load factor &n& and VA is:
A) VA <= VS & 1/n.
B) VA >= VS & SQRT &n&.
C) VA >= VS & 1/n.
D) VA <= VS & SQRT &n&.
1143. The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for a light aeroplane in the
utility category in the clean configuration may not be less than:
A) 4.4.
B) 6.0.
C) 3.8.
D) 2.5.
1144. A fundamental difference between the manoeuvring limit load factor and
the gust limit load factor is, that:
A) the gust limit load factor can be higher than the manoeuvring limit load factor.
B) the gust limit load factor is independent of the wing’s aspect ratio, whereas the
manoeuvring limit load factor is not.
C) the gust limit load factor has a fixed value for every transport aeroplane, whereas the
manoeuvring limit load factor has not.
D) the manoeuvring limit load factor is independent of the size of the aeroplane, whereas the
numerical value of the gust limit load factor is laid down in the regulations.
1145. Which factor should be taken into account when determining VA?
A) The limit load factor.
B) The calculation factor.
C) The ultimate load factor.
D) The safety factor.
1146. “Which statement regarding the manoeuvre and gust load diagram in the
clean configuration is correct?I. The gust load diagram has a symmetrical
shape with respect to the n = 1 line for speeds above VB.II. The manoeuvre
load diagram does not extend beyond the speed VC.”
1147. The positive manoeuvring limit load factor for an aeroplane with flaps
extended is:
A) 2.5.
B) 2.0.
C) 1.5.
D) 3.75.
1148. “What may happen if the “”ultimate load factor”” is exceeded?”

A) Structural failure.
B) No structural failure, only plastic or permanent deformation.
C) Flutter.
D) Elastic or temporary deformation only.
1149. The stall speed lines in the manoeuvring load diagram originate from a
point where the:
A) speed = VS, load factor = 0.
B) speed = 0, load factor = +1.
C) speed = VA, load factor = +1.
D) speed = 0, load factor = 0.
1150. The stall speed line in the manoeuvring load diagram runs through a
point where the:
A) speed = VA, load factor = limit load factor.
B) speed = VS, load factor = 0.
C) speed = VB, load factor = gust load factor.
D) speed = 0, load factor = +1.
normal category in the clean configuration may not be less than:
A) 6.0.
B) 4.4.
C) 2.5.
D) 3.8.
aerobatic category in the clean configuration may not be less than:
A) 4.4.
B) 2.5.
C) 6.0.
D) 3.8.
1153. The negative manoeuvring limit load factor for a light aeroplane in the
aerobatic category in the clean configuration may not be less than:
A) &1
B) &1.76.
C) &1.52.
D) &3.0.
normal category in the clean configuration may not be less than:
A) &1.76.
B) &3.0.
C) &1
D) &1.52.
utility category in the clean configuration may not be less than:
A) &1
B) &3.0.
C) &1.52.
D) &1.76.
1156. The negative manoeuvring limit load factor for a transport aeroplane in
the clean configuration up to VC may not be less than:
A) &3.0.
B) &1.52.
C) &1.76.
D) &1.
1157. The negative manoeuvring limit load factor for a transport aeroplane in
the clean configuration at VD may not be less than:
A) &1.
B) &1.52.
C) &3.0.
D) 0.
1158. The stall speed line in the manoeuvring load diagram runs through a
point where the:
A) speed = VA, load factor = +1.
B) speed = VS, load factor = +1.
C) speed = VB, load factor = +1.
1159. VC is…
A) a specially recommended penetration speed for severe turbulence.
B) the maximum tested airspeed where the aircraft is free from any signs of dynamic
pressure overload, flutter, and/or control reversal.
C) a speed selected by the designer and used to assess the strength requirements in cruise.
D) the highest speed at which sudden, full elevator deflection &nose up& can be made
without exceeding the design limit load factor.
1160. An aircraft with a 1 g stalling speed of 70 kt and limit load factor of 2.5
would have a VA of…
A) 111 kt.
B) 175 kt.
C) 44 kt.
D) 105 kt.
1161. How does VA &EAS& alter when the aeroplane’s mass decreases by 19
&?
A) No change
B) 10 & reduction.
C) 19 & reduction.
D) 4.36 & reduction.
1162. The significance of VA for jet transport aeroplanes is reduced at high

cruising altitudes because:
A) the engine has insufficient thrust to reach the limit load factor.
B) at high altitudes the bank angle is normally limited to 15° to prevent exceeding the limit
load factor.
C) the elevator deflection is limited to prevent exceeding the limit load factor.
D) buffet onset limitations normally become limiting.
1163. The manoeuvring speed VA, expressed as indicated airspeed, of a

transport aeroplane:
A) is a constant value.
B) depends on aeroplane mass and is independent of pressure altitude.
C) is independent of aeroplane mass, but dependent on pressure altitude.
D) depends on aeroplane mass and pressure altitude.
1164. All other parameters remaining constant, what happens to VA &Design

Manoeuvring Speed& if the weight of an aeroplane reduces by 20 &?
A) VA will decrease by approximately 10 &.
B) VA will decrease by approximately 20 &.
C) VA will increase by approximately 10 &.
D) VA will increase by approximately 20 &.
1165. VRA is:

A) a speed just above low speed buffet.
B) the recommended turbulence penetration airspeed.
C) a speed just below Mach buffet.
D) the stall speed in turbulent conditions.
1166. The extreme right limitation for both gust and manoeuvre diagrams is
created by the speed:
A) Vflutter.
B) VC.
C) VMO.
D) VD.
1167. Load factor is increased by:

A) upward gusts.
B) an increase in aeroplane mass.
C) a decrease in air density.
D) forward CG movement.
1168. All gust lines in the gust load diagram originate from a point where the:
A) speed = VB, load factor = +1.
B) speed = 0, load factor = 0.
C) speed = VS, load factor = 0.
1169. Which of these statements concerning flight in turbulence is correct?

A) VB is the recommended turbulence penetration air speed.
B) In severe turbulence, speed should be reduced to approximately 1.2 VS.
C) The load factor in turbulence may fluctuate above and below 1, but will not become
negative.
D) VRA is the recommended turbulence penetration air speed.

A) In severe turbulence, speed should be reduced to approximately 1.2 VS.
B) Above VB the aeroplane can never be overstressed by a gust.
C) When encountering turbulence during flight, the speed should be adjusted to the design
speed for maximum gust intensity VB.
D) The load factor in turbulence may fluctuate above and below 1 and can even become
negative.
1171. Load factor is decreased by:

A) downward gusts.
B) an increase in air density.
C) a decrease in aeroplane mass.
D) aft CG movement.
1172. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 2 VS. If, at
this speed, a vertical gust causes a load factor of 2, the load factor n caused
by the same gust at a speed of 1.2 VS would be:
A) not greater than 1.44, because the aeroplane is stalled with a higher load factor at 1.2 VS.
B) n = 2.00.
C) n = 1.60.
D) n = 1.20.
B) n = 2.00.
C) n = 1.10.
D) n = 1.55.
A) n = 1.70.
B) not greater than 1.70, because the aeroplane is stalled with a higher load factor at 1.4 VS.
C) n = 1.40.
D) n = 1.96.
A) n = 1.50.
B) n = 2.25.
C) n = 1.75.
D) not greater than 1,75, because the aeroplane is stalled with a higher load factor at 1.5
VS.
A) n = 3.25.
B) irrelevant, since the aeroplane would already be in a stalled condition at 2 VS with that
gust.
C) n = 3.00.
D) n = 2.30.
A) n = 3.00.
B) n = 2.20.
C) not greater than 1.44, because the aeroplane is stalled with a higher load factor at 1.2
VS.
D) n = 1.80.
A) n = 2.30.
C) n = 3.00.
D) n = 1.95.
A) n = 3.00.
B) n = 2.10.
C) n = 2.40.
D) not greater than 1.96, because the aeroplane is stalled with a higher load factor at 1.4
VS.
A) n = 2.50.
C) n = 3.00.
D) n = 2.30.
A) n = 2.60.
B) n = 2.40.
C) n = 3.00.
VS.
A) n = 2.89.
B) n = 2.70.
C) n = 2.55.
VS.
B) n = 3.24.
C) n = 2.8.
D) n = 2.70.
A) n = 2.85.
C) n = 2.90.
D) n = 3.61.
1185. An aeroplane maintains straight and level flight at a speed of 1.5 VS. If, at
this speed, a vertical gust causes a load factor of 2.5, the load factor n caused
A) n = 2.20.
B) irrelevant, since the aeroplane would already be in a stalled condition at 1.5 VS with that
gust.
C) n = 2.25.
D) n = 1.44.
this speed, a vertical gust causes a load factor of 1.75, the load factor n
caused by the same gust at a speed of 1.1 VS would be:
A) n = 1.10.
B) n = 2.00.
VS.
D) n = 1.55.
B) n = 1.60.
C) n = 2.00.
D) n = 1.20.
B) n = 1.96.
C) n = 1.70.
D) n = 1.40.
B) n = 1.60.
C) n = 1.80.
D) n = 2.56.
A) n = 2.89.
B) n = 1.85.
VS.
D) n = 1.70.
A) n = 3.24.
B) n = 1.90.
C) n = 1.80.
VS.
B) n = 1.90.
C) n = 3.61.
D) n = 1.95.
A) n = 1.60.
C) n = 2.56.
D) n = 1.80.
A) n = 1.70.
C) n = 2.89.
D) n = 1.85.
B) n = 1.80.
C) n = 3.24.
D) n = 1.90.
A) n = 1.95.
B) n = 3.61.
C) n = 1.90.
VS.
caused by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be:
A) n = 1.21.
B) n = 1.10.
C) n = 2.00.
D) irrelevant, since the aeroplane would already be in a stalled condition at 1.1 VS with that
gust.
by the same gust at a speed of 2 VS would be:
A) n = 1.44.
B) n = 1.20.
C) irrelevant, since the aeroplane would already be in a stalled condition at 1.2 VS with that
gust.
D) n = 2.00.
A) n = 1.30.
B) n = 1.69.
gust.
D) n = 2.00.
A) n = 1.96.
B) n = 1.40.
C) n = 2.00.
D) irrelevant, since the aeroplane would already be in a stalled condition at 1.4 VS with that
gust.
A) n = 1.70.
gust.
C) n = 2.89.
D) n = 2.00.
A) n = 1.80.
B) n = 2.00.
gust.
D) n = 3.24.
A) n = 3.61.
B) n = 1.90.
gust.
D) n = 2.00.
A) n = 1.80.
gust.
C) n = 3.00.
D) n = 1.44.
A) irrelevant, since the aeroplane would already be in a stalled condition at 1.3 VS with that
gust.
B) n = 1.69.
C) n = 3.00.
D) n = 1.95.
A) n = 3.00.
B) n = 1.96.
gust.
D) n = 2.10.
A) n = 2.30.
B) n = 2.25.
gust.
D) n = 3.00.
A) irrelevant, since the aeroplane would already be in a stalled condition at 1.7 VS with that
gust.
B) n = 2.89.
C) n = 3.00.
D) n = 2.55.
A) n = 3.24.
B) n = 2.70.
gust.
D) n = 3.00.
A) n = 3.61.
gust.
C) n = 3.00.
D) n = 2.85.
A) n = 2.25.
B) n = 2.00.
C) irrelevant, since the aeroplane would be already be in a stalled condition at 1.5 VS with
that gust.
D) n = 4.00.

A) In severe turbulence, speed should be reduced to approximately 1.2 VS.
B) The load factor in turbulence cannot exceed the ultimate load factor.
C) VB is the design speed for maximum gust intensity.
D) The load factor in turbulence may fluctuate above and below 1, but will not become
negative.
1213. The lift coefficient &CL& of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is

0.42. An increase in angle of attack of 1 degree increases CL by 0.1. A vertical
up gust instantly changes the angle of attack by 3 degrees. The load factor will
be:
A) 1.49
B) 0.74
C) 2.49
D) 1.71
1214. The lift coefficient &CL& of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0.4.
An increase in angle of attack of 1 degree will increase CL by 0.09. A vertical
up gust instantly changes the angle of attack by 5 degrees. The load factor will
be:
A) 1.09
B) 2.0
C) 2.13
D) 3.18
1215. “The lift coefficient &CL& of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is

0.35. An increase in angle of attack of 1 degree would increase CL by 0.079.If a
vertical gust instantly changes the angle of attack by 2 degrees, the load factor
will be:”
A) 1.45.
B) 0.9.
C) 0.45.
D) 1.9.
1216. What wing shape or wing characteristic is the least sensitive to

turbulence?
A) Swept wings.
B) Straight wings.
C) Elliptical wing.
D) Wing dihedral.
1217. The gust load factor due to a vertical upgust increases when:
A) altitude increases.
B) wing loading increases.
C) weight increases.
D) the gradient of the CL&alpha graph increases.
1218. “Which of these statements about the gust load factor on an aeroplane
are correct or incorrect?I. When the mass decreases, the gust load factor
increases.II. When the altitude increases, the gust load factor increases.”
are correct or incorrect? I. When the mass increases, the gust load factor
increases. II. When the altitude decreases, the gust load factor increases.”
1220. Which of the following statements is true?
A) By increasing the flap setting in severe turbulence at constant speed the stall speed will
be reduced and the risk for exceeding the structural limits will be decreased.
B) Flap extension in severe turbulence at constant speed increases both the stall speed and
the structural limitation margins.
C) Flap extension in severe turbulence at constant speed moves the centre of pressure aft,
which increases the structural limitation margins.
D) Flight in severe turbulence may lead to a stall and/or structural limitations being
exceeded.
are correct or incorrect? I. When the mass decreases, the gust load factor
increases. II. When the altitude decreases, the gust load factor increases.”
increases. II. When the altitude increases, the gust load factor increases.”
decreases. II. When the altitude increases, the gust load factor decreases.”
are correct or incorrect?I. When the mass decreases, the gust load factor
decreases.II. When the altitude decreases, the gust load factor decreases.”
are correct or incorrect? I. When the mass decreases, the gust load factor
decreases. II. When the altitude increases, the gust load factor decreases.”
decreases.II. When the altitude decreases, the gust load factor decreases.”
are correct or incorrect? I. When the slope of the lift versus angle of attack
curve increases, the gust load factor increases. II. When the wing loading
increases, the gust load factor decreases.”
curve increases, the gust load factor decreases. II. When the wing loading
increases, the gust load factor increases.”
are correct or incorrect?I. When the slope of the lift versus angle of attack
curve increases, the gust load factor decreases.II. When the wing loading
increases, the gust load factor decreases.”
curve decreases, the gust load factor decreases. II. When the wing loading
decreases, the gust load factor increases.”
curve decreases, the gust load factor increases. II. When the wing loading
decreases, the gust load factor decreases.”
curve decreases, the gust load factor increases. II. When the wing loading
decreases, the gust load factor increases.”
are correct or incorrect? I. When the slope of the lift curve versus angle of
attack curve decreases, the gust load factor decreases. II. When the wing
loading decreases, the gust load factor decreases.”
are correct or incorrect? I. When the wing area increases, the gust load factor
increases. II. When the EAS increases, the gust load factor increases.”
decreases.II. When the EAS increases, the gust load factor decreases.”
decreases. II. When the EAS increases, the gust load factor increases.”
increases. II. When the EAS increases, the gust load factor decreases.”
are correct or incorrect? I. When the wing area decreases, the gust load factor
decreases. II. When the EAS decreases, the gust load factor decreases.”
increases. II. When the EAS decreases, the gust load factor increases.”
increases. II. When the EAS decreases, the gust load factor decreases.”
decreases. II. When the EAS decreases, the gust load factor increases.”
1242. For a given gust speed and aircraft TAS, what is the impact of the lift
curve’s slope on the gust load factor?
A) The steeper the lift curve’s slope, the greater the gust load factor.
B) The steeper the lift curve’s slope, the smaller the gust load factor.
C) The lift curve’s slope has no impact on the gust load factor.
D) The shallower the lift curve’s slope, the greater the gust load factor.
1243. For a given gust velocity, by how much would the gust load increase for
an aircraft flying at 40000 ft, compared to the same aircraft flying at sea level, if
the EAS remains the same? The gust load would increase by…
A) zero, there will be no increase at all.
B) twice as much.
C) half as much.
D) a quarter.
1244. “An aircraft is flying in steady, straight and level flight with a Coefficient
of Lift of 0.47. Calculate the final load factor if a vertical gust increases the
angle of attack by 3°.Consider that a change in 1° of Angle of Attack produces
a change in CL of 0.1.”
A) 1.64
B) 1.77
C) 1.47
D) 0.61
1245. For any propeller:

A) the total aerodynamic force on a blade element may be resolved into two components,
torque and lift.
B) thrust is the component of the total aerodynamic force on the propeller in the plane of
rotation.
C) thrust is the component of the total aerodynamic force on the propeller parallel to the
rotational axis.
D) the force contributing to propeller torque is perpendicular to the propeller plane of
rotation.
1246. The reference section of a propeller blade with radius R is usually taken
at a distance from the propeller axis equal to:
A) 0.90 R.
B) 0.50 R.
C) 0.25 R.
D) 0.75 R.
1247. The difference between a propeller’s blade angle and its angle of attack
is called:
A) propeller slip.
B) the helix angle.
C) the effective pitch.
D) the propeller angle.
1248. The angle of attack of a propeller blade element is the angle between the
blade element chord line and the:
A) TAS vector.
B) propeller axis.
C) propeller plane.
D) resultant airflow vector.
1249. The geometric pitch of a propeller is the:

A) the angle between the chordline of a blade element and the propeller plane of rotation.
B) distance a propeller advances with slippage.
C) distance a propeller would have to advance in one revolution to give no thrust.
D) theoretical distance a propeller would advance in one revolution at zero blade angle of
attack.
1250. The blade angle of a propeller is usually referenced at:

A) 50 & of blade radius.
B) 75 & of blade radius.
C) 25 & of blade radius.
D) 99 & of blade radius.
1251. “Which statement is correct?I. A propeller with a small blade angle is

referred to as being in fine pitch.II. A propeller with a large blade angle is
referred to as being in coarse pitch.”
1252. “Which statement is correct?I. A propeller with little blade twist is

referred to as being in fine pitch.II. A propeller with significant blade twist is
1253. “Which statement is correct?I. A propeller with little blade twist is

referred to as being in fine pitch.II. A propeller with a large blade angle is

referred to as being in fine pitch.II. A propeller with significant blade twist is

referred to as being in coarse pitch.II. A propeller with a large blade angle is
referred to as being in fine pitch.”
1256. The effective pitch of a propeller is the:

A) the distance a propeller advances with slippage.
B) angle between the chordline of a blade element and the propeller plane of rotation.
C) actual distance a propeller advances in one revolution.
D) theoretical distance a propeller would advance in one revolution at zero blade angle of
attack.
1257. Which definition of propeller parameters is correct?

A) Blade angle is the angle between the blade chord line and the propeller axis.
B) Angle of attack is the angle between the blade chord line and the propeller vertical plane.
C) Helix angle is the angle between the actual path of the propeller and the plane of rotation.
D) Geometric pitch is the actual distance a propeller would advance in one revolution.

A) Helix angle is the angle between the actual path of the propeller and the propeller axis.
B) Geometric pitch is the actual distance a propeller would advance in one revolution.
C) Propeller angle of attack is the angle between the blade chord line and the relative
airflow.
D) Blade angle is the angle between the blade chord line and the propeller axis.

A) Helix angle is the angle between the actual path of the propeller and the propeller axis.
B) Blade angle is the angle between the blade chord line and the propeller axis.
C) Angle of attack is the angle between the blade chord line and the propeller vertical plane.
D) Geometric pitch is the theoretical distance a propeller would advance in one revolution at
zero blade angle of attack.

A) Blade angle is the angle between the blade chord line and the plane of rotation.
B) Geometric pitch is the actual distance a propeller would advance in one revolution.
C) Angle of attack is the angle between the blade chord line and the propeller vertical plane.
D) Helix angle is the angle between the actual path of the propeller and the propeller axis.
1261. “&For this question use annex 081&013 issue date November 2005&. The
angle of attack of a rotating propeller blade element shown in the annex is:”
A) angle 3.
B) angle 2.
C) not correctly indicated in the diagram.
D) angle 1.
helix or advance angle of a rotating propeller blade element shown in the
annex is:”
A) angle 2.
B) angle 3.
C) angle 1.
D) not correctly indicated in the diagram.
blade angle of a rotating propeller blade element shown in the annex is:”
A) angle 3.
B) angle 2.
C) not correctly indicated in the diagram.
D) angle 1.
1264. “For this question use annex ECQB&FCL&081&00003.The force vector

which correctly represents Thrust force is:”
A) 1.
B) 4.
C) 2.
D) 3.
1265. “For this question use annex ECQB&FCL&081&00004.Angle “”Y”” in the

diagram corresponds to the:”
A) Blade angle of attack.
B) Advance or helix angle.
C) Slipstream angle.
D) Pitch or blade angle.
1266. Why is a propeller blade twisted from root to tip?

A) To ensure that the tip produces most thrust.
B) To ensure the angle of attack is greatest at the tip.
C) To maintain a constant angle of attack along the whole length of the propeller blade.
D) To ensure that the root produces most thrust.
1267. Propeller blade twist is the:

A) varying of the blade angle from the root to the tip of a propeller blade.
B) angle between the blade angle and the direction of the flight of the aeroplane.
C) varying of the helix angle from the root to the tip of a propeller blade.
D) angle between the relative airflow and the propeller blade’s angle of attack.
1268. “&For this question use annex 081&014 issue date April 2006&.The
correct sequence of cross&sections representing propeller blade twist is:”
A) sequence 3.
B) sequence 4.
C) sequence 2.
D) sequence 1.
A) sequence 1.
B) sequence 4.
C) sequence 2.
D) sequence 3.
A) sequence 3.
B) sequence 4.
C) sequence 1.
D) sequence 2.
A) sequence 3.
B) sequence 4.
C) sequence 1.
D) sequence 2.
1272. For a fixed&pitch propeller, the blade angle of attack:

A) is always positive during idling descent.
B) can become negative during high&speed idle descent.
C) is lower in ground run than in flight &with constant engine RPM&.
D) decreases when the aeroplane speed decreases &with constant engine RPM&.
1273. During a glide with idle power and constant IAS, if the RPM lever of a
constant speed propeller is pulled back from its normal cruise position, the
propeller pitch will:
A) increase and the rate of descent will increase.
B) decrease and the rate of descent will decrease.
C) increase and the rate of descent will decrease.
D) decrease and the rate of descent will increase.
1274. If the RPM lever of a constant speed propeller is moved forward during a
glide with idle power and whilst maintaining constant airspeed, the propeller
pitch will:
A) decrease and the rate of descent will decrease.
B) increase and the rate of descent will decrease.
C) decrease and the rate of descent will increase.
D) increase and the rate of descent will increase.
1275. Which of the following statements about a constant speed propeller is

correct?
A) The propeller system keeps the aeroplane speed constant.
B) The blade angle increases with increasing aeroplane speed.
C) The RPM decreases with increasing aeroplane speed.
D) The selected RPM is kept constant by the manifold pressure.
1276. During which of the following phases of flight is a fixed pitch propeller’s
angle of attack lowest?
A) Take&off run.
B) Low&speed glide.
C) Climb.
D) High&speed glide.
1277. The angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller blade increases when:
A) forward velocity decreases and RPM increases.
B) forward velocity and RPM decrease.
C) forward velocity and RPM increase.
D) forward velocity increases and RPM decreases.
1278. If the propeller pitch of a windmilling propeller is decreased during a

glide at constant IAS the propeller drag in the direction of flight will:
A) decrease and the rate of descent will increase.
C) decrease and the rate of descent will decrease.
1279. If the propeller pitch of a windmilling propeller is increased during a

glide at constant IAS the propeller drag in the direction of flight will:
B) increase and the rate of descent will increase.
C) increase and the rate of descent will decrease.
D) decrease and the rate of descent will decrease.
1280. “Which of these statements about propellers is correct or incorrect? I. A

cruise propeller has a greater geometric pitch when compared with a climb
propeller.II. A coarse pitch propeller is less efficient during take&off and in the
climb, but more efficient in the cruise, when compared with a fine pitch
propeller.”
1281. For an aeroplane equipped with a two&position variable pitch propeller it
is advisable to select a:
A) fine pitch for cruise and coarse pitch for landing.
B) coarse pitch for take&off and climb.
C) fine pitch for cruise.
D) fine pitch for take&off and climb.
1282. For a given RPM of a fixed pitch propeller, the blade angle of attack will:
A) decrease when the TAS increases.
B) increase when the TAS increases.
C) remain constant when the TAS increases.
D) remain constant when the TAS decreases.
1283. For a fixed&pitch propeller in flight at a given TAS, the blade angle of
attack will:
A) remain constant if RPM increases.
B) remain constant if RPM decreases.
C) increase if RPM increases.
D) decrease if RPM increases.
1284. “Which of these statements about propellers is correct or incorrect?I. A

cruise propeller has a smaller geometric pitch compared with a climb
propeller.II. A coarse pitch propeller is more efficient during take&off and in
the climb, but is less efficient in the cruise, when compared with a fine pitch
propeller.”

cruise propeller has a smaller geometric pitch compared with a climb
propeller.II. A coarse pitch propeller is less efficient during take&off and in the
climb, but more efficient in the cruise, when compared with a fine pitch
propeller.”

cruise propeller has a greater geometric pitch compared with a climb
propeller.II. A coarse pitch propeller is more efficient during take&off and in
the climb, but is less efficientin the cruise, when compared with a fine pitch
propeller.”
1287. During which of the following phases of flight is a fixed pitch propeller’s
angle of attack highest?
A) Low&speed glide.
B) High&speed glide.
C) Climb.
D) Take&off run.
1288. Assuming that the RPM remains constant throughout, the angle of attack
of a fixed pitch propeller will:
A) increase with increasing airspeed.
B) decrease with increasing airspeed.
C) remain constant at a fixed value only if the airspeed decreases.
D) remain constant at a fixed value irrespective of any airspeed changes.
1289. For a given RPM of a fixed pitch propeller, the blade angle of attack will:
A) decrease when the TAS decreases.
B) remain constant when the TAS decreases.
C) remain constant when the TAS increases.
D) increase when the TAS decreases.
1290. During a glide with idle power and constant IAS, if the RPM lever of a
constant speed propeller is pushed full forward from its normal cruise
position, the propeller pitch will:
C) decrease and the rate of descent will decrease.
1291. Assuming that the RPM remains constant throughout, the angle of attack
of a fixed pitch propeller will:
A) increase with decreasing airspeed.
B) remain constant at a fixed value irrespective of any airspeed changes.
C) decrease with decreasing airspeed.
D) remain constant at a fixed value only if the airspeed decreases.
1292. The angle of attack of a fixed pitch propeller blade decreases when:
A) forward velocity and RPM increase.
B) forward velocity decreases and RPM increases.
C) forward velocity and RPM decrease.
D) forward velocity increases and RPM decreases.
1293. An aeroplane in straight and level flight at 100 kt is subjected to a

sudden disturbance in speed. Assuming the angle of attack remains constant
initially and the load factor reaches a value of 2.25:
1294. For a fixed&pitch propeller in flight at a given TAS, the blade angle of
attack will:
A) decrease if RPM decreases.
B) remain constant if RPM decreases.
C) remain constant if RPM increases.
D) increase if RPM decreases.
1295. For a fixed&pitch propeller, the blade angle of attack:

A) decreases when the aeroplane speed decreases &with constant engine RPM&.
B) can never become negative.
C) decreases during the take&off.
D) is always positive during idling descent.
1296. “&For this question use annex 081&015 issue date November 2005&. A
rotating propeller blade element produces an aerodynamic force F that may be
resolved into two components:& a force T perpendicular to the plane of
rotation &thrust&.& a force R generating a torque absorbed by engine
power.The diagram representing a rotating propeller blade element during the
cruise is:”
A) diagram 3.
B) diagram 2.
C) diagram 4.
D) diagram 1.
power.Which diagram is correct during the cruise?”
A) diagram 2.
B) diagram 1.
C) diagram 3.
D) diagram 4.
power.The diagram representing a rotating propeller blade element during
reverse operation is:”
A) diagram 1.
B) diagram 3.
C) diagram 4.
D) diagram 2.
diagram representing a feathered propeller is:”
A) diagram 2.
B) diagram 1.
C) diagram 3.
D) diagram 4.
1300. “An aeroplane is fitted with a constant speed propeller. If the aeroplane
speed increases while manifold pressure remains constant, the propeller pitch
will ___&1& and the propeller torque will ___&2&.What is needed to correctly
complete this statement?”
A) “&1& increase
B) &2& remain constant.”
C) “&1& increase
D) &2& increase.”
1301. Propeller efficiency is defined as the ratio between:

A) usable &power available& power of the propeller and shaft power.
B) the thermal power of fuel&flow and shaft power.
C) the thrust and the maximum thrust.
D) the usable &power available& power and the maximum power.
1302. Propeller efficiency is:

A) the ratio of power available &Thrust & TAS& to shaft power. &Torque & RPM&
B) a number greater than one.
C) greater with a larger number of blades.
D) maximum when TAS is zero.
1303. “Which statement is correct?I. At a given RPM the propeller efficiency of

a fixed pitch propeller is maximum at only one value of TAS.II. A constant
speed propeller maintains near maximum efficiency over a wider range of
aeroplane speeds than a fixed pitch propeller.”
1304. “Which statement is correct?I. At a given RPM the propeller efficiency of

a fixed pitch propeller is maximum at only one value of TAS.II. A fixed pitch
propeller maintains near maximum efficiency over a wider range of aeroplane
speeds than a constant speed propeller.”
1305. “Which statement is correct when comparing a fixed pitch propeller with
a constant speed propeller?I. A constant speed propeller reduces fuel
consumption over a range of cruise speeds.II. A constant speed propeller
improves take&off performance as compared with a coarse fixed pitch
propeller.”
a constant speed propeller?I. A constant speed propeller reduces fuel
consumption over a range of cruise speeds.II. A coarse fixed pitch propeller is
more efficient during take&off.”
A) I is correct, II is incorrect
a constant speed propeller?I. A fixed pitch propeller improves propeller
efficiency over a range of cruise speeds.II. A coarse fixed pitch propeller is
more efficient during take&off.”
a constant speed propeller?I. A fixed pitch propeller improves propeller
efficiency over a range of cruise speeds.II. A constant speed propeller
improves take&off performance as compared with a coarse fixed pitch
propeller.”
variation of propeller efficiency of a fixed pitch propeller with TAS at a given
RPM is shown in:”
A) figure 1.
B) figure 2.
C) figure 4.
D) figure 3.
typical curve representing propeller efficiency of a fixed pitch propeller versus
TAS at constant RPM is:”
A) diagram 3.
B) diagram 4.
C) diagram 1.
D) diagram 2.
RPM is shown in:”
A) figure 1.
B) figure 4.
C) figure 2.
D) figure 3.
RPM is shown in:”
A) figure 1.
B) figure 2.
C) figure 4.
D) figure 3.
RPM is shown in:”
A) figure 1.
B) figure 3.
C) figure 4.
D) figure 2.
A) diagram 2.
B) diagram 3.
C) diagram 1.
D) diagram 4.
1315. “&For this question use annex 081&036 issue date November 2005&.A
A) diagram 3.
B) diagram 1.
C) diagram 4.
D) diagram 2.
A) diagram 4.
B) diagram 2.
C) diagram 3.
D) diagram 1.
1317. Blade angle decreases from the root to the tip. How does the thrust of a
basic propeller vary from root to tip?
A) Thrust increases away from the root, where it is low, but reduces back to zero at the tip.
B) Thrust is low at the blade root and high at the blade tip.
C) Thrust decreases away from the root, where it is high, to the tip, where it is lowest.
D) Thrust is highest at the blade root and tip.
1318. “Which statement about propeller icing is correct?I. Propeller icing

increases blade element drag and reduces blade element lift.II. Propeller icing
does not affect propeller efficiency.”
1319. “Which statement about propeller icing is correct? I. Propeller icing

reduces blade element drag and increases blade element lift.II. Propeller icing
reduces propeller efficiency.”

increases blade element drag and reduces blade element lift.II. Propeller icing
reduces propeller efficiency.”

reduces blade element drag and increases blade element lift.II. Propeller icing
does not affect propeller efficiency.”
1322. Which of the following answers is correct regarding the formation of ice
on a propeller?
A) On a propeller blade, ice tends to form first towards the tip, due to the sharp leading edge.
B) The presence of ice on propeller blades causes propeller efficiency to be reduced by up
to 20 &.
C) To counter icing conditions in a light aeroplane without de&icing, the pilot should reduce
propeller RPM as far as possible.
D) Considering the whole aeroplane, the most critical effect of icing conditions is through ice
formation on the propeller blades.
1323. Ice build&up on propeller blades…

A) increases the propeller’s RPM.
B) reduces the generated thrust.
C) reduces the propeller’s drag.
D) has a neutral effect on propeller efficiency.
1324. A windmilling propeller:

A) has a greater blade angle than a feathered propeller.
B) produces drag instead of thrust.
C) produces neither thrust nor drag.
D) improves the glide performance of an aeroplane.
1325. “An engine failure can result in a windmilling &1& propeller and a
feathered &2& propeller. Which statement about propeller drag is correct?”
A) impossible to say which one is largest.
B) &1& is equal to &2&.
C) &2& is larger than &1&.
D) &1& is larger than &2&.
1326. When the blades of a propeller are in the feathered position:

A) the RPM is then just sufficient to lubricate the engine.
B) the propeller produces an optimal windmilling RPM.
C) the windmilling RPM is the maximum.
D) the drag of the propeller is then minimal.
1327. Which statement is correct regarding a windmilling propeller on a

multi&engine aeroplane?
A) The windmilling drag is only significant at negative blade angles.
B) A windmilling propeller hardly affects low speed controllability.
C) The windmilling drag is much higher than for a feathered propeller.
D) The drag of a windmilling and a feathered propeller is almost the same.
1328. A windmilling propeller:

A) produces neither thrust nor drag.
B) degrades the glide performance of an aeroplane.
C) has a greater blade angle than a feathered propeller.
D) produces more thrust than drag.
1329. “Which of the following statements are correct with regard to a
windmilling propeller on a twin&engine aeroplane? 1. Feathering the propeller
may be delayed since windmilling produces more thrust than drag. 2. The
aeroplane decelerates due to the propeller drag from the failed engine. 3. The
yawing moment is intensified due to the propeller drag from the failed engine.
4. Low speed controllability of the aeroplane is increased due to increased
stability. 5. Wing lift distribution varies due to airflow disturbance behind the
propeller on the failed engine. 6. The glide performance of the aeroplane is
improved due to the increased L/D ratio.”
A) 2, 3, and 5
B) 1, 2, and 6
C) 3, 4, and 5
D) 1, 2, and 3
1330. Which of these statements concerning propellers is correct?

A) A windmilling propeller causes less drag than a feathered propeller.
B) A feathered propeller causes less drag than a windmilling propeller.
C) The blade angle of a feathered propeller is approximately 0 degrees.
D) The blade angle of a feathered propeller is approximately 180 degrees.

A) The blade angle of a feathered propeller is approximately 0 degrees.
B) When compared with a non&feathered propeller, a feathered propeller improves the
handling of a multi&engine aeroplane with one engine inoperative.
D) A windmilling propeller causes less drag than a feathered propeller.

A) An unfeathered propeller causes less drag than a feathered propeller.
B) The blade angle of a feathered propeller is approximately 90 degrees.
D) A windmilling propeller causes less drag than a feathered propeller.
1333. “Which of the following statements are true regarding feathering a

propeller after an engine failure? 1. Drag and yaw are increased &for
multi&engine aircraft&. 2. The gliding distance is increased &for single&engine
aircraft&. 3. Yaw is reduced &for single&engine aircraft&. 4. The engine&out
flight performance is improved &for multi&engine aircraft&.”
A) 1 and 4
B) 3
C) 2 and 4
D) 3
1334. “Which statement is correct for a propeller of given diameter and at

constant RPM?I. Assuming blade shape does not change power absorption
increases if the number of blades increases.II. Power absorption increases if
the mean chord of the blades increases.”

constant RPM?I. Assuming blade shape does not change power absorption is
independent of the number of blades.II. Power absorption decreases if the
mean chord of the blades increases.”

constant RPM?I. Assuming blade shape does not change power absorption
increases if the number of blades increases.II. Power absorption decreases if
the mean chord of the blades increases.”

constant RPM?I. Assuming blade shape does not change power absorption is
independent of the number of blades.II. Power absorption increases if the
mean chord of the blades increases.”
1338. Regarding propeller efficiency and power absorption, increasing the

chord of each propeller blade…
A) reduces propeller efficiency and increases power absorption.
B) does not affect propeller efficiency but increases power absorption.
C) increases propeller efficiency and reduces power absorption.
D) increases both propeller efficiency and power absorption.
1339. For a twin&engine aeroplane, a reason for limiting a propeller’s diameter

is to…
A) avoid excessive propeller&tip velocities at high RPMs.
B) increase ground clearance.
C) reduce the aeroplane’s minimum control speed.
D) avoid a reduction in power absorption.
1340. If S is the frontal area of the propeller disc, propeller solidity is the ratio
of:
A) S to the frontal area of one blade.
B) the frontal area of one blade to S.
C) the total frontal area of all the blades to S.
D) the mean chord of one blade to S.
1341. What is the effect of increasing the number of blades on a propeller?

A) It decreases the drag of the propeller in power&off descent.
B) It increases the overall solidity of the propeller.
C) It decreases the propeller torque for a given RPM.
D) It decreases the power absorption of the propeller.
1342. “Which statement about propeller noise is correct?I. Propeller noise

increases when the blade tip speed increases.II. For a given engine and
propeller blade shape, an increase in the number of propeller blades allows for
a reduction in propeller noise.”

increases when the blade tip speed increases.II. For a given engine and
propeller blade shape, a decrease in the number of propeller blades allows for
1344. “Which statement about propeller noise is correct? I. Propeller noise

decreases when the blade tip speed increases.II. For a given engine and
propeller blade shape, an increase in the number of propeller blades allows for

remains the same when the blade tip speed increases.II. For a given engine
and propeller blade shape, a decrease in the number of propeller blades allows
for a reduction in propeller noise.”
1346. “Which statement is correct regarding a propeller?I. Increasing tip speed
to supersonic speed increases propeller noise.II. Increasing tip speed to
supersonic speed increases propeller efficiency.”

to supersonic speed does not affect propeller noise.II. Increasing tip speed to
supersonic speed decreases propeller efficiency.”

to supersonic speed does not affect propeller noise.II. Increasing tip speed to
supersonic speed increases propeller efficiency.”

to supersonic speed increases propeller noise.II. Increasing tip speed to
supersonic speed decreases propeller efficiency.”
1350. Given an aeroplane with a propeller turning clockwise as seen from

behind, the torque effect during the take off run will tend to:
A) pitch the aeroplane nose down.
B) roll the aeroplane to the right.
C) pitch the aeroplane nose up.
D) roll the aeroplane to the left.
1351. The torque reaction of a rotating fixed pitch propeller will be greatest at:
A) high aeroplane speed and low engine power.
B) low aeroplane speed and low engine power.
C) low aeroplane speed and maximum engine power.
D) high aeroplane speed and maximum engine power.
1352. What is the name of two propellers rotating in opposite directions on the
same engine shaft?
A) Contra&rotating propellers
B) Variable pitch propellers
C) Double&bank propeller
D) Counter&rotating propellers
1353. During the take&off roll, when the pilot raises the tail in a tail wheeled
propeller driven aeroplane, the additional aeroplane yawing tendency is due to
the effect of:
A) gyroscopic precession.
B) slipstream.
C) asymmetric blade effect.
D) torque reaction.
1354. “Which statement is correct regarding the gyroscopic effect of a

clockwise rotating propeller on a single engine aeroplane?I. Pitch down
produces left yaw.II. Left yaw produces pitch up.”

produces right yaw.II. Left yaw produces pitch down.”

produces left yaw.II. Left yaw produces pitch down.”

produces right yaw.II. Left yaw produces pitch up.”

clockwise rotating propeller on a single engine aeroplane?I. Pitch up produces
right yaw.II. Right yaw produces pitch down.”

left yaw.II. Right yaw produces pitch up.”

right yaw.II. Right yaw produces pitch up.”

left yaw.II. Right yaw produces pitch down.”
1362. “Which statement is correct?I. Propeller gyroscopic effect occurs during

aeroplane pitch changes.II. Propeller gyroscopic effect is most noticeable
during low speed flight at high propeller RPM.”

flight at constant aeroplane attitude.II. Propeller gyroscopic effect is most
noticeable during low speed flight at low propeller RPM.”
aeroplane pitch changes.II. Propeller gyroscopic effect is most noticeable
during low speed flight at low propeller RPM.”

flight at constant aeroplane attitude.II. Propeller gyroscopic effect is most
noticeable during low speed flight at high propeller RPM.”

aeroplane yaw changes.II. Propeller gyroscopic effect is most noticeable
during low speed flight at high propeller RPM.”

aeroplane yaw changes.II. Propeller gyroscopic effect is most noticeable
during low speed flight at low propeller RPM.”
1368. “A twin&engine turboprop aeroplane has an engine failure in flight.

Select the correct statements with regard to the asymmetric effects of the
propeller slipstream. 1. Slipstream&induced lift will be lost on the side with the
failed engine. 2. A rolling moment towards the live engine will be induced. 3.
Total lift will be reduced, giving a tendency to descend. 4. Use of leading edge
devices can counter the effects of lost slipstream.”
A) 3 and 4
B) 1 and 2
C) 1 and 3
D) 2 and 4
1369. Asymmetric propeller blade effect is mainly induced by:

A) high speed.
B) large angles of climb.
C) the inclination of the propeller axis to the relative airflow.
D) large angles of yaw.
1370. “A propeller is turning to the right when viewed from behind. The
asymmetric blade effect in the climb at low speed will:”
A) roll the aeroplane to the right.
B) yaw the aeroplane to the right.
C) roll the aeroplane to the left.
D) yaw the aeroplane to the left.
1371. In twin engine aeroplanes with propellers turning clockwise as seen from
behind:
A) the left engine is the critical engine.
B) the ‘minimum control speed’ is determined by the failure of the right engine.
C) the left engine produces a higher yaw moment if the right engine fails than vice versa.
D) the right engine is the critical engine.
1372. The asymmetric blade effect on an single engine aeroplane with a

clockwise rotating propeller:
A) produces left yaw.
B) does not produce any yaw.
C) is also called the gyroscopic effect.
D) produces right yaw.
1373. “Which statement about a propeller is correct?I. Asymmetric blade effect

increases when engine power is increased.II. Asymmetric blade effect
increases when the angle between the propeller axis and airflow through the
propeller disc increases.”

is unaffected when engine power is increased.II. Asymmetric blade effect
increases when the angle between the propeller axis and the airflow through
the propeller disc increases.”

reduces when engine power is increased.II. Asymmetric blade effect increases
when the angle between the propeller axis and the airflow through the

increases when engine power is increased.II. Asymmetric blade effect is
independent of the angle between the propeller axis and the airflow through
the propeller disc.”

is unaffected when engine power is increased.II. Asymmetric blade effect is

reduces when engine power is increased.II. Asymmetric blade effect is

increases when engine power is increased.II. Asymmetric blade effect reduces

is unaffected when engine power is increased.II. Asymmetric blade effect
reduces when the angle between the propeller axis and the airflow through the
reduces when engine power is increased.II. Asymmetric blade effect reduces
1382. Consider a conventional aeroplane with under&slung engines. In steady,

straight and level flight the lift force from the wing is greatest when the
aeroplane’s CG is …
A) forward within the acceptable range and the engines are at a low thrust setting.
B) aft within the acceptable range and the engines are at a high thrust setting.
C) aft within the acceptable range and the engines are at a low thrust setting.
D) forward within the acceptable range and the engines are at a high thrust setting.
1383. An aeroplane is in straight and level flight, with constant IAS. If the flaps
are retracted and action is taken to maintain the aeroplane in straight and level
flight at constant IAS, the lift coefficient will…
A) eventually decrease.
B) first increase and then decrease.
C) eventually remain the same.
D) eventually increase.
1384. In straight, horizontal steady flight, the function of the tailplane is to

maintain equilibrium by supplying…
A) an up force when the Centre of Pressure is behind the CG.
B) an up force when the CG approaches its permissible values.
C) a down force when the Centre of Pressure coincides with the CG.
D) a down force when the Centre of Pressure is behind the CG.
1385. Ignoring thrust effects in a steady straight climb at a climb angle

‘gamma’, the lift of an aeroplane with weight W is:
A) W & &1 & tan gamma&.
B) W & &1 & sin gamma&.
C) W / cos gamma.
D) W & cos gamma.
1386. “Given: theta = pitch angle. gamma = flight path angle.alpha = angle of
attack.no wind, bank or sideslip.The relationship between these three
parameters is:”
A) theta = gamma & alpha.
B) theta = gamma + alpha.
C) gamma = alpha & theta.
D) alpha = gamma & theta.
1387. For shallow flight path angles in straight and steady flight, the following
formula can be used:
A) sin gamma = T/W & CL/CD.
B) sin gamma = W/T & CD/CL.
C) sin gamma = W/T & CL/CD.
D) sin gamma = T/W & CD/CL.
1388. In a straight, steady climb the thrust must be:

A) greater than the drag because it must also balance a component of weight.
B) greater than drag because more lift has to be produced.
C) equal to the drag.
D) lower than the drag because it is assisted by a component of weight.
1389. “Given:Aeroplane mass: 50000 kg.Lift/Drag ratio: 12. Thrust per engine:
60000 N.Assumed g: 10 m/s?. For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a twin
engine aeroplane, the one&engine inoperative climb gradient is:”
A) 3.7 &.
B) 15.7 &.
C) 14 &.
D) 11.7 &.
1390. “Given:Aeroplane mass: 50000 kg.Lift/Drag ratio: 10.Thrust per engine:

60000 N.Assumed g: 10 m/s?.For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a twin
engine aeroplane, the all&engines climb gradient is:”
A) 11.7 &.
B) 14 &.
C) 15.7 &.
D) 3.7 &.
1391. “Given: Aeroplane mass: 50000 kg.Lift/Drag ratio: 12. Thrust per engine:
A) 11.7 &.
B) 3.7 &.
C) 14 &.
D) 15.7 &.
1392. During a straight, steady climb and with the thrust force parallel to the
flight path:
A) drag is equal to thrust.
B) lift is the same as during a descent at the same angle and mass.
C) lift is equal to weight.
D) lift is greater than weight.
1393. “During a straight steady climb: 1 & lift is less than weight. 2 & lift is
greater than weight. 3 & load factor is less than 1. 4 & load factor is greater
than 1. 5 & lift is equal to weight.6 & load factor is equal to 1. Which of the
following lists all the correct statements?”
A) 1 and 6.
B) 5 and 6.
C) 2 and 4.
D) 1 and 3.
1394. “Given: Aeroplane mass: 50000 kg. Lift/Drag ratio: 12. Thrust per engine:
A) 11.7 &.
B) 14 &.
C) 3.7 &.
D) 15.7 &.
1395. When an aeroplane performs a straight steady climb with a 20& climb
gradient, the load factor is equal to:
A) 0.83.
B) 1.
C) 1.02.
D) 0.98.
1396. “An aeroplane climbs to cruising level with a constant pitch attitude and
maximum climb thrust &assume no supercharger&. How do the following
variables change during the climb? &gamma = flight path angle&”
A) Gamma decreases, angle of attack increases, IAS remains constant.
B) Gamma remains constant, angle of attack remains constant, IAS decreases.
C) Gamma decreases, angle of attack remains constant, IAS decreases.
D) Gamma decreases, angle of attack increases, IAS decreases.
1397. “Given: Aeroplane mass: 50000 kg.Lift/Drag ratio: 12.Thrust per engine:
21000 N.Assumed g: 10 m/s?. For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a
four&engine aeroplane, the one&engine inoperative climb gradient is:”
A) 8.5 &.
B) 6.0 &.
C) 7.7 &.
D) 4.3 &.

20000 N.Assumed g: 10 m/s?.For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a
four&engine aeroplane, the all&engines climb gradient is:”
A) 6.0 &.
B) 4.3 &.
C) 7.7 &.
D) 8.5 &.
1399. “Given:Aeroplane mass: 50000 kg. Lift/Drag ratio: 10. Thrust per engine:
20000 N. Assumed g: 10 m/s?.For a straight, steady, wings level climb of a
A) 6.0 &.
B) 4.3 &.
C) 7.7 &.
D) 8.5 &.

A) 7.7 &.
B) 6.0 &.
C) 8.5 &.
D) 4.3 &.

three&engine aeroplane, the one&engine inoperative climb gradient is:”
A) 2.9 &.
B) 9.7 &.
C) 8.0 &.
D) 8.5 &.

three&engine aeroplane, the all&engines climb gradient is:”
A) 8.0 &.
B) 9.7 &.
C) 8.5 &.
D) 2.9 &.
1403. “Given:Aeroplane mass: 50000 kg. Lift/Drag ratio: 10.Thrust per engine:
A) 8.0 &.
B) 9.7 &.
C) 2.9 &.
D) 8.5 &.

A) 8.5 &.
B) 9.7 &.
C) 2.9 &.
D) 8.0 &.
1405. An aeroplane’s flight path angle is defined as the angle between its:
A) lateral axis and the horizontal plane.
B) speed vector and its longitudinal axis.
C) longitudinal axis and the horizontal plane.
D) speed vector and the horizontal plane.
1406. “An jet aeroplane climbs to cruising level with a constant pitch attitude
and maximum climb thrust &assume normal thrust decay with altitude&.How
do the following variables change during the climb? &gamma = flight path
angle&”
A) Gamma remains constant, angle of attack remains constant, IAS decreases.
B) Gamma decreases, angle of attack remains constant, IAS decreases.
C) Gamma decreases, angle of attack increases, IAS remains constant.
D) Gamma decreases, angle of attack increases, IAS decreases.
1407. During a straight, steady, vertical climb &flight path angle 90 degrees&…
A) lift is greater than drag.
B) thrust is equal to weight.
C) lift is equal to the sum of weight and drag.
D) thrust is equal to the sum of weight and drag.
1408. If an aeroplane carries out a descent at 160 kt IAS and 1000 ft/min
vertical speed:
A) weight is greater than lift.
B) lift is equal to weight.
C) drag is less than the sum of the forces in the direction of flight.
D) lift is less than drag.
1409. During a straight steady descent, lift is:

A) equal to weight to maintain a constant speed.
B) greater than weight because it must additionally balance a component of drag.
C) less than weight, because there is less drag compared with horizontal flight.
D) less than weight, because lift only needs to balance the weight component perpendicular
to the flight path.
1410. In a straight steady descent, which of the following statements is

correct?
A) Lift is equal to weight, load factor is less than 1.
B) Lift is equal to weight, load factor is equal to 1.
C) Lift is less than weight, load factor is equal to 1.
D) Lift is less than weight, load factor is less than 1.
1411. During a straight steady vertical descent &dive&:

A) weight is less than thrust.
B) lift is greater than drag.
C) lift is equal to the sum of weight and drag.
D) drag is equal to the sum of weight and thrust.
1412. “Given the following information, calculate the Lift for an aircraft in a
straight and steady power&on descent with an angle of 30°. Weight: 11350 kg
Thrust: 8450 kg Drag: 11010 kg”
A) 9829 kg
B) 11350 kg
C) 5675 kg
D) 7318 kg
1413. “Choose the correct statements with regard to the forces acting parallel
and perpendicular to the flight path, for an aeroplane in a straight and steady
power&on descent. &L = Lift, D = Drag, T = Thrust, W = Weight, y = descent
angle, x = multiplied by& 1. L and &W x cos y& act perpendicular to the flight
path. 2. L and W act perpendicular to the flight path.3. T, D and &L x cos y& act
parallel to the flight path.4. T, D and &W x sin y& act parallel to the flight path.”
A) 1 and 3
B) 2 and 3
C) 2 and 4
D) 1 and 4
1414. In a straight and steady power&on descent Thrust is…

A) less than Drag only when the throttle is closed, because then the force of Thrust is
removed.
B) greater than Drag, because Lift is giving a rearward component in the same direction as
Drag.
C) less than Drag, because Weight is giving a forward component in the same direction as
Thrust.
D) equal to Drag when the descent is steady, unaccelerated, and without any power
changes.
1415. In a straight and steady descent, the…

A) steeper the descent angle, the smaller the difference between total weight and lift.
B) shallower the descent angle, the greater the difference between total weight and lift.
C) total weight must be equal to lift for the aeroplane to be in equilibrium.
D) steeper the descent angle, the greater the difference between total weight and lift.
1416. “Given the following information, calculate the Thrust vector in a straight
and steady power&on descent with an angle of 30°. Weight: 11350 kg Lift:
10320 kg Drag: 11010 kg”
A) 5335 kg
B) 1181 kg
C) 11010 kg
D) 4645 kg
1417. What factors determine the distance travelled over ground of an

aeroplane in a glide from a given altitude?
A) The wind and CLMAX.
B) The wind and weight together with power loading, which is the ratio of power output to the
weight.
C) The wind and the lift/drag ratio.
D) The wind and the aeroplane’s mass.
1418. What is the correct relationship between the true airspeed for &i&
minimum sink rate and &ii& minimum glide angle, at a given altitude?
A) &i& can be greater than or less than &ii& depending on the type of aeroplane.
B) &i& is less than &ii&.
C) &i& is equal to &ii&.
D) &i& is greater than &ii&.
1419. Which of the following increases the maximum duration of a glide?

A) A headwind.
B) A tailwind.
C) A decrease in mass.
D) An increase in mass.
1420. “The descent angle of a given aeroplane in a steady wings level glide
has a fixed value for a certain combination of:&ignore compressibility effects
and assume zero thrust&”
A) mass and altitude.
B) configuration and mass.
C) altitude and configuration.
D) configuration and angle of attack.
1421. The maximum ground distance during a glide with zero thrust increases:
A) in a tailwind at a constant aeroplane mass compared with zero wind.
B) with a decrease in aeroplane mass in zero wind.
C) with an increase in aeroplane mass in zero wind.
D) in a headwind at a constant aeroplane mass compared with zero wind.
1422. Which statement is correct at the speed for minimum drag &subsonic&?
A) Induced drag is greater than the parasite drag.
B) The CL/CD ratio is minimum &assume zero thrust&.
C) The gliding angle is minimum &assume zero thrust&.
D) Propeller aeroplanes fly at that speed at max. endurance.
1423. The maximum ground distance during a glide with zero thrust
decreases:
A) with an increase in aeroplane mass in zero wind.
B) in a headwind at a constant aeroplane mass compared with zero wind.
C) in a tailwind with constant aeroplane mass compared with zero wind.
D) with a decrease in aeroplane mass in zero wind.
1424. The lift to drag ratio is highest when the flight speed is:
A) At its minimum.
B) Equal to best glide speed.
C) At its maximum.
D) Equal to cruising speed.
1425. “Given the following information, calculate the Lift, in a straight and
steady glide with a glide angle of 30 degrees. Weight: 12380 kgDrag: 9550 kg”
A) 2830 kg
B) 6190 kg
C) 10721 kg
D) 12380 kg
1426. “Choose the correct statements with regard to the forces acting parallel
and perpendicular to the flight path, for an aeroplane in a straight and steady
glide. &L = Lift, D = Drag, W = Weight, y = descent angle, x = multiplied by&.1.
L and W act perpendicular to the flight path. 2. L and &W x cos y& act
perpendicular to the flight path. 3. D and &L x cos y& act parallel to the flight
path. 4. D and &W x sin y& act parallel to the flight path.”
A) 1 and 4
B) 1 and 3
C) 2 and 4
D) 2 and 3
1427. “Given the following information, calculate the Drag in a straight and
steady glide descent, with a glide angle of 30 degrees. Weight: 11350 kg Lift:
10320 kg Thrust: 8450 kg”
A) 5675 kg
B) 9829 kg
C) 14125 kg
D) 18279 kg
1428. “An aeroplane is in a level turn, at a constant TAS of 300 kt, and a bank
angle of 45°. Its turning radius is approximately:&given: g= 10 m/s?&”
A) 3000 m.
B) 1190 m.
C) 2380 m.
D) 23800 m.
1429. Compared with straight and level flight in order to maintain constant
speed during a level, co&ordinated turn, the pilot must:
A) increase thrust and keep angle of attack unchanged.
B) increase thrust and decrease angle of attack.
C) increase angle of attack and keep thrust unchanged.
D) increase thrust and angle of attack.
1430. By what percentage does the lift increase in a level turn at 45° angle of
bank, compared with straight and level flight?
A) 52 &.
B) 31 &.
C) 41 &.
D) 19 &.
1431. Two identical aeroplanes A and B, with the same mass, are flying steady
level co&ordinated 20 degree bank turns. If the TAS of A is 130 kt and the TAS
of B is 200 kt:
A) the load factor of A is greater than that of B.
B) the lift coefficient of A is less than that of B.
C) the rate of turn of A is greater than that of B.
D) the turn radius of A is greater than that of B.
1432. The bank angle in a rate&one turn depends on:

A) weight.
B) wind.
C) TAS.
D) load factor.
1433. What is the approximate value of the lift of an aeroplane at a gross

weight of 50000 N, in a horizontal co&ordinated 45 degrees banked turn?
A) 70000 N.
B) 80000 N.
C) 60000 N.
D) 50000 N.
1434. When is a turn co&ordinated?

A) When only minor elevator pull force is required.
B) If no rudder deflection is required during the turn.
C) When the longitudinal axis of the aeroplane at the CG is tangential to the flight path.
D) If no aileron deflection is required during the turn.
1435. What is the approximate radius of a steady horizontal co&ordinated turn

at a bank angle of 45° and a TAS of 200 kt?
A) 1 km.
B) 2 km.
C) 1.5 km.
D) 10 km.
1436. Approximately how long does it take to fly a complete circle during a
horizontal steady co&ordinated turn with a bank angle of 45° and a TAS of 200
kt?
A) 95 s.
B) 650 s.
C) 65 s.
D) 125 s.
1437. What is the approximate radius of a steady, level, co&ordinated turn with
a bank angle of 30 degrees and a TAS of 500 kt?
A) 7 km.
B) 10 km.
C) 24 km.
D) 12 km.
1438. In order to fly a steady co&ordinated horizontal rate one turn at a higher
airspeed, the bank angle must be:
A) decreased and the turn radius will increase.
B) increased and the turn radius will increase.
C) decreased and the turn radius will decrease.
D) increased and the turn radius will decrease.
1439. In a steady co&ordinated horizontal turn, lift is:

A) equal to the aeroplane weight.
B) greater than in straight and level flight because it must balance the centripetal force.
C) greater than in straight and level flight, because it must generate the centrifugal force.
D) greater than in straight and level flight, because it must balance the weight and generate
the centripetal force.
1440. What is the heading change of an aeroplane after 10 seconds in a steady

co&ordinated horizontal rate one turn?
A) 30 degrees.
B) 90 degrees.
C) 10 degrees.
D) 180 degrees.
1441. An aeroplane with a mass of 4000 kg is performing a co&ordinated level

turn at a constant TAS of 160 kt and a bank angle of 45°. The lift is
approximately:
A) 56000 N.
B) 14000 N.
C) 28000 N.
D) 98000 N.
1442. “In a skidding turn &the nose pointing inwards&, compared with a
co&ordinated turn, the bank angle &i& and the “”ball”” or slip indicator &ii&
are respectively:”
A) &i& too large, &ii& displaced towards the high wing.
B) &i& too small, &ii& displaced towards the high wing.
C) &i& too small, &ii& displaced towards the low wing.
D) &i& too large, &ii& displaced towards the low wing.
1443. An aeroplane with a mass of 2000 kg, is performing a co&ordinated level

turn at a constant TAS of 160 kt and the bank angle is 60°. The lift is
approximately:
A) 20000 N.
B) 60000 N.
C) 80000 N.
D) 40000 N.
1444. If an aeroplane performs a steady co&ordinated horizontal turn at a TAS

of 200 kt and a turn radius of 2000 m, the load factor &n& will be
approximately:
A) 2.0.
B) 1.1.
C) 1.4.
D) 1.8.
1445. “In a slipping turn &nose pointing outwards&, compared with a

co&ordinated turn, the bank angle &i& and the “”ball”” or slip indicator &ii&
are respectively:”
A) &i& too large, &ii& displaced towards the high wing.
B) &i& too small, &ii& displaced towards the low wing.
C) &i& too large, &ii& displaced towards the low wing.
D) &i& too small, &ii& displaced towards the high wing.
1446. An aeroplane enters a horizontal turn with a load factor n=2 from straight
and level flight whilst maintaining constant indicated airspeed. The:
A) lift becomes four times its original value.
B) induced drag doubles.
C) total drag becomes four times its original value.
D) lift doubles.
1447. “An aeroplane is in a steady horizontal turn at a TAS of 195 kt. The turn
radius is 1000 m. The bank angle is approximately: &assume g = 10 m/s?&”
A) 50°.
B) 30°.
C) 60°.
D) 45°.
1448. In a co&ordinated horizontal turn, the magnitude of the centripetal force

at 45 degrees of bank:
A) is greater than the lift of the aeroplane.
B) has a vertical component.
C) is equal to the weight of the aeroplane.
D) is equal to the lift of the aeroplane.
1449. Turning motion in a steady, level co&ordinated turn is created by:

A) the thrust.
B) the drag.
C) the centrifugal force.
D) the centripetal force.
1450. In a steady, horizontal, co&ordinated turn:
A) thrust equals drag, because there is equilibrium of forces along the direction of flight.
B) thrust is greater than drag, because the centrifugal force reduces the aeroplane speed.
C) thrust is greater than drag, because the excess thrust also supplies the centripetal force.
D) thrust equals drag, because drag is the same as in straight and level flight.
1451. “An aeroplane performs a steady horizontal, co&ordinated turn with 45

degrees of bank at 230 kt TAS.The same aeroplane with the same bank angle
and speed, but at a higher mass:”
A) will turn with the same radius, but might stall.
B) will turn with a smaller turn radius.
C) will turn with a larger turn radius.
D) will have a higher rate of turn.

degrees of bank at 230 kt TAS. The same aeroplane with the same bank angle
and speed, but at a lower mass will turn with:”
A) a smaller turn radius.
B) a larger turn radius.
C) a higher rate of turn.
D) the same turn radius.
1453. If a pilot initiates a level, co&ordinated turn from straight and level flight
at the same altitude and does not change thrust, the speed will:
A) remain constant.
B) decrease.
C) increase.
D) increase and the aeroplane will eventually stall.
1454. “An aeroplane performs a right turn, the slip indicator is left of neutral.
One way to co&ordinate the turn is to apply:”
A) less right bank.
B) more left rudder.
C) less left rudder.
D) more right rudder.
1455. An aeroplane performs a steady horizontal, co&ordinated turn with 45

and speed, but at a lower mass will turn with:
A) a smaller turn radius.
B) a larger turn radius.
C) a higher rate of turn.
D) the same turn radius.
1456. Compared with a level, co&ordinated turn, in order to maintain constant

speed during straight and level flight, the pilot must:
A) decrease angle of attack and keep thrust unchanged.
B) decrease thrust and angle of attack.
C) decrease thrust and increase angle of attack.
D) decrease thrust and keep angle of attack unchanged.
1457. If a pilot rolls to wings level from a level, co&ordinated turn and then
maintains straight and level flight at the same altitude and does not change
thrust, the speed will:
A) decrease.
B) remain constant.
C) decrease and the aeroplane will eventually stall.
D) increase.
1458. What is the heading change of an aeroplane after approximately 3

seconds in a steady co&ordinated horizontal rate one turn?
A) 90 degrees.
B) 180 degrees.
C) 10 degrees.
D) 30 degrees.
1459. What is the heading change of an aeroplane after one minute in a steady
A) 30 degrees.
B) 180 degrees.
C) 90 degrees.
D) 10 degrees.

A) 30 degrees.
B) 180 degrees.
C) 90 degrees.
D) 10 degrees.
1461. What is the heading change of an aeroplane after 1 second in a steady

A) 45 degrees.
B) 360 degrees.
C) 3 degrees.
D) 60 degrees.

A) 60 degrees.
B) 360 degrees.
C) 3 degrees.
D) 45 degrees.
A) 360 degrees.
B) 45 degrees.
C) 60 degrees.
D) 3 degrees.
1464. What is the heading change of an aeroplane after 2 minutes in a steady

A) 360 degrees.
B) 3 degrees.
C) 45 degrees.
D) 60 degrees.
1465. What is the time for a heading change of 10 degrees in a steady

A) 10 seconds.
B) approximately 3 seconds.
C) 30 seconds.
D) 1 minute.

A) 30 seconds.
B) 10 seconds.
C) approximately 3 seconds.
D) 1 minute.

A) 1 minute.
B) 30 seconds.
D) 10 seconds.
A) 10 seconds.
B) 1 minute.
D) 30 seconds.

A) 20 seconds.
B) 1 second.
C) 2 minutes.
D) 15 seconds.
1470. The turn rate in a steady co&ordinated horizontal rate one turn is:
A) 5 degree/s.
B) 10 degree/s.
C) 3 degree/s.
D) 1 degree/s.
1471. In order to fly a steady co&ordinated horizontal rate one turn at a lower
airspeed, the bank angle must be:
A) decreased and the turn radius will increase.
B) increased and the turn radius will increase.
C) decreased and the turn radius will decrease.
D) increased and the turn radius will decrease.
1472. “An aeroplane performs a right turn, the slip indicator is left of neutral.
A) more right rudder.
B) less right bank.
D) more right bank.
1473. “An aeroplane performs a right turn, the slip indicator is right of neutral.
A) more right bank.
C) more right rudder.
D) less right rudder.
1474. “An aeroplane performs a left turn, the slip indicator is right of neutral.
A) less right rudder.
B) less left bank.
C) more left rudder.
D) more left bank.
1475. “An aeroplane performs a left turn, the slip indicator is left of neutral.
A) less left rudder.
B) more left bank.
kt?
A) 125 s.
B) 95 s.
C) 650 s.
D) 65 s.
kt?
A) 125 s.
B) 65 s.
C) 95 s.
D) 650 s.
kt?
A) 95 s.
B) 650 s.
C) 125 s.
D) 65 s.
1479. “Two identical aeroplanes A and B, with the same mass, are flying
steady level co&ordinated 20 degree bank turns. If the TAS of A is 130 kt and
the TAS of B is 200 kt:”
A) the turn radius of A is less than that of B.
B) the lift coefficient of A is less than that of B.
C) the rate of turn of A is less than that of B.
D) the load factor of A is greater than that of B.
1480. “An aeroplane performs a right turn, the slip indicator is right of neutral.
A) less right rudder.
B) less right bank.
D) more right bank.
1481. “An aeroplane performs a left turn, the slip indicator is right of neutral.
A) more left rudder.
B) less left bank.
D) less right rudder.
1482. “An aeroplane performs a left turn, the slip indicator is left of neutral.
A) more right rudder.
B) less left rudder.
C) less left bank.
D) more left bank.

and speed, but at a lower mass will turn with:”
A) a lower rate of turn.
B) the same rate of turn.
C) a larger turn radius.
D) a smaller turn radius.
steady level co&ordinated 20 degree bank turns. If the TAS of A is 130 kt and
A) the rate of turn of A is less than that of B.
B) the load factor of A and B are the same.
C) the turn radius of A is greater than that of B.
D) the lift coefficient of A is less than that of B.
steady level co&ordinated 20 degree bank turns.If the TAS of A is 130 kt and
A) the load factor of A is greater than that of B.
B) the rate of turn of A is less than that of B.
C) the turn radius of A is greater than that of B.
D) the lift coefficient of A is greater than that of B.
1486. Compared with level flight, the angle of attack must be increased in a
steady, coordinated, horizontal turn…
A) to increase the horizontal component of lift to a value equal to the vertical component.
B) to compensate for the increase in drag.
C) to compensate for the reduction in the vertical component of lift.
D) because stall speed increases in a turn.
1487. “&For this question use annex 081&038 issue date September 2008&. To
perform a co&ordinated turn the aeroplane in the annex in diagram 1 should
use:”
A) less bank angle.
B) more right rudder.
C) more bank angle.
D) less left rudder.
use:”
A) more right bank.
C) less right rudder.
use:”
A) less left bank.
C) less right rudder.
D) less left rudder.
1490. Which statement is correct about an aeroplane, that has experienced a

left engine failure and continues afterwards in straight and level cruise flight
with wings level?
A) “turn indicator neutral, slip “”ball”” neutral.”
B) “turn indicator neutral, slip “”ball”” left of neutral.”
C) “turn indicator left of neutral, slip “”ball”” left of neutral.”
D) “turn indicator left of neutral, slip “”ball”” neutral.”
1491. “During a take&off roll with a strong crosswind from the left, a
four&engine jet aeroplane with wing&mounted engines experiences an engine
failure. The failure of which engine will cause the greatest control problem?”
A) The right inboard engine.
B) The right outboard engine.
C) The left inboard engine.
D) The left outboard engine.
1492. “During a take&off roll with a strong crosswind from the right, a
four&engine jet aeroplane with wing&mounted engines experiences an engine
failure. The failure of which engine will cause the greatest control problem?”
A) The right outboard engine.
B) The left outboard engine.
C) The right inboard engine.
D) The left inboard engine.
1493. “A twin engine jet transport aeroplane is taking off from runway 27 with a
wind of 210°/15 kt and an outside Air Temperature &OAT& of 20 °C. The failure
of which engine would require the largest control inputs to maintain runway
centreline?”
A) It makes no difference.
B) Failure of the left engine.
C) It depends on the direction of rotation of the engines.
D) Failure of the right engine.
1494. “Which of these statements about the equilibrium of forces and

moments at VMCA are correct or incorrect? I. Equilibrium of moments about
the normal axis. is provided by rudder deflection. II. Equilibrium of forces
along the lateral axis requires either bank angle or side slip or a combination
of both.”

moments at VMCA are correct or incorrect? I. Because VMCA must be
determined for the case where the critical engine suddenly fails, there is no
need to obtain equilibrium of moments about the normal axis. II. Equilibrium of
forces along the lateral axis does not require any side slip during a wings level
condition.”

moments at VMCA are correct or incorrect? I. Because VMCA must be
determined for the case where the critical engine suddenly fails, there is no
need to obtain equilibrium of moments about the normal axis. II. Equilibrium of
forces along the lateral axis requires either bank angle or side slip or a
combination of both.”

moments at VMCA are correct or incorrect? I. Equilibrium of moments about
the normal axis. is provided by rudder deflection. II. Equilibrium of forces
along the lateral axis does not require any side slip during a wings level
condition.”
1498. A four&engine aeroplane has an engine failure just after take&off at the
maximum take&off thrust setting. The resulting moment around the normal
axis will be greatest when an…
A) inboard engine fails and the airport is at high altitude.
B) outboard engine fails and the airport is at low altitude.
C) outboard engine fails and the airport is at high altitude.
D) inboard engine fails and the airport is at low altitude.
1499. Consider a multi&engine aeroplane. In order to achieve the best possible
climb performance, which of the following methods is used to maintain control
after an engine failure?
A) Rudder to stop yaw and aileron to maintain wings level.
B) Aileron to bank towards the live engine to stop yaw.
C) Rudder to stop yaw and aileron to bank towards the failed engine.
D) Aileron to stop yaw and rudder to keep the slip indicator centred.
1500. The strength of the yawing moment caused by an engine failure in a

twin&engine aeroplane will be greater when the distance between the
operating engine and the CG &thrust arm& is…
A) greater than the distance between the rudder and the CG.
B) greater.
C) less than the distance between the rudder and the CG.
D) less.
1501. The strength of the yawing moment caused by an engine failure on a

twin&engine aeroplane…
A) will be greater when the CG is located at the aft CG limit.
B) will be greater when the CG is located at the forward CG limit.
C) will be greater when the CG is located halfway between the forward and aft CG limits.
D) is independent of the location &fore or aft& of the CG.
1502. A twin&engine aeroplane has its engines mounted on the wings. If after
an engine failure thrust on the live engine is increased, the yawing moment
will…
A) decrease.
B) remain the same provided proportional rudder to the thrust increase is applied.
C) remain the same.
D) increase.
1503. The least ability to oppose the yawing moment from a failed engine
occurs when the CG…
A) coincides with the centre of pressure.
B) is located at the aft limit of the CG range.
C) is located at the mid&point, halfway between the forward and aft CG limits.
D) is located at the forward limit of the CG range.
1504. “Consider the following statements about VMCG: 1. VMCG is determined

with the gear down. 2. VMCG is determined with the flaps in the landing
position. 3. VMCG is determined by using rudder and nosewheel steering. 4.
During VMCG determination the aeroplane may not deviate from the
straight&line path by more than 30 ft. The combination that regroups all of the
correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3, 4.
B) 3.
C) 1, 4.
D) 2, 3.
1505. “Which of these statements about VMCG determination are correct or
incorrect?I. VMCG must be determined using rudder control alone.II. During
VMCG determination, the lateral deviation from the runway centreline may be
not more than 30 ft.”
1506. For a given aeroplane which two main variables determine the value of
VMCG?
A) Engine thrust and rudder deflection.
B) Air density and runway length.
C) Airport elevation and temperature.
D) Engine thrust and gear position.
1507. How does VMCG change with increasing field elevation and
temperature?
A) decreases, because VMCG is expressed in IAS, which decreases with constant TAS and
decreasing density.
B) increases, because at a lower density a larger IAS is necessary to generate the required
rudder force.
C) increases, because VMCG is related to V1 and VR and those speeds increase if the
density decreases.
D) decreases, because the engine thrust decreases.

incorrect? I. VMCG may be determined using both lateral and directional
control. II. During VMCG determination, the lateral deviation from the runway
centreline may be not more than half the distance between the runway
centreline and runway edge.”

incorrect? I. VMCG may be determined using both lateral and directional
control. II. During VMCG determination, the lateral deviation from the runway
centreline may be not more than 30 ft.”

incorrect? I. In order to simulate a wet runway, nose wheel steering may not be
used during VMCG determination. II. During VMCG determination, the CG
should be on the aft limit.”

incorrect? I. During VMCG determination, nose wheel steering may be used. II.
During VMCG determination, the CG should be on the forward limit.”

incorrect? I. In order to simulate a wet runway, nose wheel steering may not be
used during VMCG determination. II. During VMCG determination, the CG
should be on the forward limit.”

incorrect? I. During VMCG determination, nose wheel steering may be used. II.
During VMCG determination, the CG should be on the aft limit.”
1514. How does the location of the CG influence VMCG?

A) The CG location does NOT influence VMCG if within the permissible CG limits.
B) A forward CG increases VMCG.
C) A forward CG reduces VMCG.
D) The CG location does NOT influence VMCG.
1515. The calibrated airspeed during the take&off run at which, when the
critical engine is suddenly made inoperative, it is possible to maintain control
of the aeroplane using the rudder control alone, and the lateral control to the
extent of keeping the wings level to enable the take&off to be safely continued
using normal piloting skill, is called…
A) VMC.
B) V2.
C) V1.
D) VMCG.
1516. “In general, directional controllability with one engine inoperative on a
multi&engine aeroplane is adversely affected by:1. high temperature.2. low
temperature.3. aft CG location. 4. forward CG location.5. high altitude.6. low
altitude.The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 4, 5.
B) 1, 4, 6.
C) 2, 3, 6.
D) 2, 3, 5.
1517. “In general, directional controllability with one engine inoperative on a

multi&engine aeroplane is favourably affected by: 1. high temperature. 2. low
temperature. 3. aft CG location. 4. forward CG location. 5. high altitude. 6. low
altitude.The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 2, 4, 6.
B) 2, 3, 5.
C) 1, 4, 6.
D) 1, 4, 5.
1518. If the density altitude increases, what happens to the Minimum Control
Speed &VMC&?
A) As thrust increases, VMC increases.
B) As density increases, VMC decreases.
C) As thrust decreases, VMC decreases.
D) As density decreases, VMC increases.
1519. How does VMCG change with an increase in field elevation and
temperature? VMCG…
A) decreases, because the amount of thrust developed by the operating engine is reduced.
B) increases, because at a lower density a larger IAS is necessary to generate the required
rudder force.
C) decreases, because VMCG is expressed as an IAS and that decreases with decreasing
density.
D) increases, because VMCG is related to V? and that increases when the density
decreases.
1520. With regard to asymmetric thrust conditions and an increase in density

altitude, the minimum control speeds…
A) decrease, due to the loss of effectiveness of flight controls for a given angle of deflection,
and the need for a lower CAS to maintain control.
B) increase, due to the loss of effectiveness of flight controls for a given angle of deflection,
and the need for a higher CAS to maintain control.
C) increase, due to less thrust being developed by the engines, and the need for a higher
CAS to maintain control.
D) decrease, due to less thrust being developed by the engines, and therefore control being
able to be maintained at a lower CAS.
1521. VMCA is certified with a bank angle of not more than 5° towards the
operating engine &live engine low& because:
A) at 5° bank &live engine low&, sideslip is zero.
B) more than 5° bank &live engine low& would not reduce VMCA.
C) the slip indicator at 5° bank &live engine low& is centred.
D) although more bank reduces VMCA, too much bank may lead to fin stall.
1522. “Which of these statements about the limiting value of 5 degrees bank
angle during VMCA determination are correct or incorrect? I. As the bank
angle is decreased from 5 degrees to 0 degrees, the value of VMCA increases.
II. When the bank angle is increased beyond 5 degrees, there is an increasing
risk of fin stall.”
angle during VMCA determination are correct or incorrect? I. When the bank
angle is decreased from 5 degrees to 0 degrees, the value of VMCA will remain
approximately constant. II. At any bank angle above 5 degrees, VMCA will
decrease correspondingly.”
angle during VMCA determination are correct or incorrect? I. When the bank
angle is decreased from 5 degrees to 0 degrees, the value of VMCA will remain
approximately constant. II. When the bank angle is increased beyond 5
degrees, there is a increasing risk of fin stall.”
angle during VMCA determination are correct or incorrect? I. As the bank
angle is decreased from 5 degrees to 0 degrees, the value of VMCA increases.
II. At any bank angle beyond 5 degrees, VMCA will decrease correspondingly.”
1526. What is the most efficient way to fly with a failed engine on a twin piston
engine aeroplane?
A) Slight bank angle towards the good engine and rudder towards the dead engine.
B) Slight bank angle and rudder towards the good engine.
C) Wings level and rudder to good engine.
D) Slight bank angle towards the dead engine and rudder towards the good engine.
1527. “Which of the following statements are correct with regards to fin angle
of attack, sideslip, and rudder effectiveness, following an engine failure? 1.
The greater the sideslip, the greater the fin angle of attack. 2. Excessive
sideslip may cause fin stall. 3. The greater the sideslip, the greater the rudder
effectiveness. 4. Excessive sideslip may cause fin stall, but only at a low
aeroplane mass.”
A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 4
C) 2 and 3
D) 3 and 4
1528. “Which of the items listed below are needed to correctly complete the
following statement? With regards to asymmetric thrust, the rudder force
depends on: 1. rudder displacement. 2. TAS. 3. IAS. 4. thrust on the live
engine. 5.CG position. 6. aeroplane mass.”
A) 4, 5, and 6
B) 1, 2,
C) 1, 3, and 4
D) 1, 3, and 5
1529. In asymmetric flight, rudder is used to stop yaw and ailerons to bank
towards the live engine. The bank angle must be limited to prevent…
A) increasing the side force on the fin from sideslip.
B) the possibility of a fin stall or structural failure of the vertical tailplane.
C) the rudder from losing authority to stop the yaw.
D) excessive loss of the vertical component of lift.
1530. In asymmetric flight, yawing towards the live engine gives a sideslip
force on the fuselage side…
A) behind the CG and similar to the rudder force.
B) behind the CG and opposite to the rudder force.
C) forward of the CG and similar to the rudder force.
D) forward of the CG and opposite to the rudder force.
1531. Consider the relationship between bank angle and sideslip when in
steady, un&accelerated, asymmetric flight. By banking slightly towards the live
engine, the lateral rudder force…
A) must be increased to eliminate sideslip.
B) must be increased to reduce sideslip.
C) is balanced, increasing sideslip.
D) is balanced, eliminating sideslip.
1532. A turboprop aeroplane has suffered an engine failure. The use of bank
angle towards the live engine to tilt the lift vector…
A) counteracts the roll caused by uneven lift distribution due to the loss of slipstream on the
side of the failed engine.
B) increases the sideslip&induced side force on the fin, in order to minimise VMC.
C) increases the rudder side force, giving more rudder authority to stop the yaw.
D) balances the rudder side force, creating a sideways component opposite to the rudder
force.
1533. Maintaining directional control with one engine inoperative using the
banking method, compared to the wings&level method, can result in
directional control problems at…
A) heavy aeroplane masses, due to the increased lift and drag.
B) light aeroplane masses, due to the reduced lateral component of drag.
C) heavy aeroplane masses, due to the increased stall speed.
D) light aeroplane masses, due to the reduced lateral component of weight.
1534. “A Flight Instructor is about to start a training flight with a student pilot
on a multi&engine aeroplane, the lesson is on aeroplane control during engine
failures. The training syllabus for this lesson includes practising engine
failures during the cruise phase of flight.Which of the following possible
conditions would be beneficial for this training flight and assist the student
pilot with aircraft controllability? &Aircraft MTOW 6000 kg&. An aeroplane
mass of…”
A) 2800 kg, for less yawing moment due to asymmetric thrust.
B) 5600 kg, for better rudder effectiveness.
C) 2800 kg, for better rudder effectiveness.
D) 5600 kg, for less yawing moment due to asymmetric thrust.
1535. Following an engine failure, rudder is used to counteract yaw and aileron
to bank towards the live engine. For a given airspeed, aeroplane controllability
will be better at a…
A) low aeroplane mass, due to greater rudder effectiveness because of less sideslip.
B) low aeroplane mass, due to greater rudder effectiveness because of greater sideslip.
C) high aeroplane mass, due to greater rudder effectiveness because of greater sideslip.
D) high aeroplane mass, due to greater rudder effectiveness because of less sideslip.
1536. Given two identical aeroplanes with wing mounted engines, one fitted
with jet engines and the other with counter rotating propellers, which of these
statements is correct about roll behaviour after an engine failure?
A) The propeller aeroplane has less roll tendency.
B) Both aeroplanes have the same roll tendency.
C) The propeller aeroplane has more roll tendency.
D) The roll tendency on the propeller powered aeroplane is more pronounced when the left
engine fails than when the right engine fails.
1537. Consider a twin propeller aeroplane with wing&mounted engines that

has suffered an engine failure. Which of the following situations and engine
configurations would result in the least asymmetric yaw and roll being
developed?
A) The failure of the right engine on a twin with counter&rotating propellers that rotate
inwards.
B) The failure of the right engine on a twin with counter&rotating propellers that rotate
outwards.
C) The failure of the left engine on a twin with two right&hand propellers.
D) The failure of the left engine on a twin with counter&rotating propellers that rotate
outwards.
1538. “VMCA is the minimum speed at which directional control can be

maintained when, amongst others: 1. maximum take&off thrust was set and is
maintained on the remaining engines. 2. a sudden engine failure occurs on the
most critical engine. 3. flaps are in any position. 4. the gear is either up or
down. 5. the aeroplane is either in or out of ground effect. The combination
that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 2, 3 and 5 are correct.
B) 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
C) 1 and 2 are correct.
D) 3, 4 and 5 are correct.
1539. Which statement about minimum control speed is correct?

A) Crosswind is taken into account to determine VMCG.
B) VMCL is determined by maximum rudder only.
C) The nose wheel steering control may be used to determine VMCG.
D) VMCA depends on the airport density altitude, and the location of the engine on the
aeroplane &aft fuselage or wing&.
1540. Considering bank angle and engine thrust, what limits are to be taken
into account when defining VMC &minimum control speed with critical engine
inoperative&?
A) Not more than 5° of bank, idle thrust.
B) Not more than 15° of bank, maximum available take&off thrust.
C) Not more than 5° of bank, maximum available take&off thrust.
D) Not more than 15° of bank, idle thrust.
1541. How does the location of the CG influence VMC?

A) The CG location does NOT influence VMC if within the permissible CG limits.
B) A forward CG reduces VMC.
C) A forward CG increases VMC.
D) The CG location does NOT influence VMC.
1542. The calibrated airspeed in a twin&engine aircraft at which it is possible

to maintain control of the aeroplane when the critical engine is suddenly made
inoperative, and maintain straight flight with an angle of bank of not more than
5°, is called…
A) VMCG.
B) VMCL&2.
C) VMU.
D) VMC.
1543. Which situation will be taken into account when defining VMCL? The
aeroplane trimmed for…
A) take&off with all engines operating.
B) take&off with one engine out.
C) approach with one engine out.
D) approach with all engines operating.
1544. “Which of the following statements is correct? I. VMCL is the minimum

control speed in the landing configuration.II. The speed VMCL is always
limited by maximum rudder deflection.”
1545. “Which of the following statements is correct?I. When the critical engine
fails during take&off the speed VMCL can be limiting. II. The speed VMCL can
be limited by the available maximum roll rate.”
1546. VMCL is the:

A) minimum control speed approach and landing.
B) minimum speed during landing with all engines operating.
C) minimum control speed & with landing gear down, flaps up and all engines operating.
D) maximum speed in the landing configuration.
1547. How does the location of the CG influence VMCL?

A) A forward CG reduces VMCL.
B) A forward CG increases VMCL.
C) The CG location does NOT influence VMCL if within the permissible CG limits.
D) The CG location does NOT influence VMCL.
1548. The calibrated airspeed during approach and landing, with all engines
operating, at which, when the critical engine is suddenly made inoperative, it is
possible to maintain control of the aeroplane with that engine still inoperative,
and maintain straight flight with an angle of bank of not more than 5°, is
called…
A) VMG.
B) VMCL&2.
C) VMC.
D) VMCL.
1549. “Given the following characteristic points on a jet engine aeroplane’s
polar curve:1 & CLMAX.2 & long range cruise &zero wind&.3 & maximum lift to
drag ratio.4 & minimum rate of descent &assume zero thrust&.5 & maximum
range cruise &zero wind&.Arrange these points in order of increasing angle of
attack:”
A) 3, 2, 5, 1, 4.
B) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5.
C) 2, 5, 3, 4, 1.
D) 4, 5, 2, 3, 1.
1550. The lift to drag ratio determines the:

A) horizontal distance in the climb up to a given altitude.
B) endurance speed.
C) maximum rate of climb.
D) horizontal glide distance from a given altitude at zero wind and zero thrust.
1551. The parameters that can be read from the aeroplane parabolic polar
curve are the:
A) minimum glide angle and the parasite drag coefficient.
B) aspect ratio of the wing and the induced drag coefficient.
C) induced drag and the parasite drag.
D) minimum rate of descent and the induced drag.
1552. From a polar curve of the entire aeroplane one can read:
A) the minimum drag coefficient and the maximum lift.
B) the minimum drag and the maximum lift.
C) the minimum CL/CD ratio and the minimum drag.
D) the maximum CL/CD ratio and maximum lift coefficient.
1553. “The speed for minimum glide angle occurs at an angle of attack that
corresponds to: &assume zero thrust&”
A) CLMAX.
B) &CL/CD?&max.
C) &CL?/CD?&max.
D) &CL/CD&max.
1554. “&For this question use annex 081&007 issue date October 2005&.The
point on the diagram corresponding to the minimum value of the drag
coefficient is:”
A) point 4.
B) point 3.
C) point 1.
D) point 2.
1555. “&For this question use annex 081&007 issue date October 2005&.The
point on the diagram corresponding to the minimum value of drag is:”
A) point 1.
B) point 2.
C) point 3.
D) point 4.
1556. “&For this question use annex 081&007 issue date October
2005&Assuming zero thrust, the point on the diagram corresponding to the
value for minimum sink rate is:”
A) point 1.
B) point 3.
C) point 2.
D) point 4.
1557. “&For this question use annex 081&007 issue date October
2005&.Assuming zero thrust, the point on the diagram corresponding to the
minimum glide angle is:”
A) point 4.
B) point 1.
C) point 3.
D) point 2.
1558. “&For this question use annex 081&007 issue date October 2005&. The
point in the diagram giving the lowest speed in unaccelerated flight is:”
A) point 1.
B) point 4.
C) point 2.
D) point 3.
1559. “For this question use annex ECQB&FCL&081&00011.The point on the

polar curve corresponding to flight with minimum drag is:”
A) 2.
B) 4.
C) 3.
D) 1.

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2. Which formula or equation describes the relationship between force &F&,

3. Static pressure acts:

4. If in a two&dimensional incompressible and subsonic flow, the streamlines

5. “Bernoulli’s equation can be written as:&pt = total pressure, ps = static

6. The SI unit of measurement for density is:

7. “Total pressure is:&rho = density&”

8. The &subsonic& static pressure:

10. “Bernoulli’s equation can be written as:&pt = total pressure, ps = static

12. Which of these statements about weight or mass is correct?

13. Which of these statements about Bernoulli’s equation is correct?

14. Which of these statements about Bernoulli’s equation is correct?

15. Which of these statements about weight or mass is correct?

16. Which of these statements about Bernoulli’s equation is correct?

17. Which of these statements about weight or mass is correct?

18. Which of these statements about weight or mass is correct?

19. Which of these statements about weight or mass is correct?

20. “Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, which

21. “Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, which

22. “Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, which

23. “Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, which

24. “Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, which

25. “Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, which

26. “Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, which

27. “Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, which

28. “Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, which

29. “Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, which

30. “Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, which

39. “Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, which

40. “Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, which

41. “Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, which

42. “Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, which

43. “Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, which

44. “Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, which

45. “Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, which

46. “Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, which

47. “Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, which

48. “Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, which

49. “Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, which

50. “Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, which

55. “Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, which

56. “Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, which

57. “Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, which

58. “Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, which

59. “Bernoulli’s equation is…&Note:rho is air density

61. What is the SI unit of measurement for power?

62. The following unit of measurement: kgm/s? is expressed in the SI&system

63. The pascal is the SI derived unit of pressure. It is equivalent to…

64. Which of these statements about weight or mass is correct?

65. Which of these statements is correct with regard to Bernoulli’s equation?

66. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, in the

68. The difference between IAS and TAS will…

69. “Given that:pstat= static pressure

70. “Given: pstat= static pressure

72. Considering subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, in the

73. Which of these statements about weight or mass is correct?

76. In relation to subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, which of

77. In relation to subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, which of

78. In relation to subsonic incompressible airflow through a Venturi, which of