1

Compiled by: Girish.N, Bengaluru, Ph: 9844217032

 CHAPTER 01 – CHEMICAL REACTIONS & EQUATIONS
01. The substance that is oxidised in the following chemical reaction is
MnO2 + 4 HCl → MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2 MQP1
(A) HCl (B) MnO2(C) MnCl2 (D) H2O
02. What is a chemical combination reaction? MQP1 – 1
03. Draw the diagram of the arrangement of apparatus to know the reaction of Zinc MQP1 – 2
granules with dilute sulphuric acid and testing hydrogen gas and label the part that MQP2020–
contain zinc granules and sulphuric acid. 2
04. Write the balanced chemical equations for the following chemical reactions.
(i) Potassium bromide reacts with Barium iodide
(ii) Zinc carbonate is heated
MQP1 – 2
OR
Which coloured fumes are obtained when lead nitrate is heated? Write the balanced
chemical equation for this reaction. Name the type of this chemical reaction.
05. In the following reactions, the chemical reaction that takes place in sunlight is
MQP2 –
MCQ

06. The chemical equation that represents neutralization reaction among the following is
(A) BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2HCl
A2019
(B) MnO2 + 4 HCl → MnCl 2 + 2H2O + Cl2
MCQ
(C) 2 NaOH + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + 2H2O
(D) AgNO3 + HCl → AgCl + HNO3
07. Name the brown fumes liberated when lead nitrate is heated. Write the balanced
A2019–2
chemical equation for this reaction.
08. Draw the diagram of the apparatus used in the electrolysis of water. Label the A2019–2
following parts. (i) Graphite rod (ii) Cathode. J2019 – 3
09. The possible chemical reaction among the following is
J2019 –
(A) FeSO4 + Pb → PbSO4 + Fe (B) ZnSO4 + Fe → FeSO4 + Zn
MCQ
(C) 2 AgNO3 + Cu → Cu (NO3)2 + 2 Ag (D) PbCl2 + Cu → CuCl2 + Pb.
10. Fe2O3 + 2 Al → Al 2O3 + 2 Fe. The type of above chemical reaction is
J2019 –
(A) combination reaction (B) double displacement reaction
MCQ
(C) decomposition reaction (D) displacement reaction.
11. Reactive metals are good reducing agents. The most suitable example related to this
MQP2020–
is A) PbO + C →Pb + CO B) 3MnO2 + 4Al →2Al203 + 3Mn
MCQ
C) ZnO + C →Zn + CO D) CuO + H2 →Cu + H2O
12. What is an exothermic reaction? Which of the following is an exothermic reaction? MQP2020–
i) Heating calcium carbonate ii) Adding water to calcium oxide 1
13. Explain the three types of decomposition reaction with the help of balanced chemical MQP2020–
equation for each. 3
14. The inner surface of solar cooker is coated with black paint to
M2020 –
(A) absorb more heat (B) reflect light
MCQ
(C) prevent rusting (D) converge the light rays.
15. The reaction between lead nitrate and potassium iodide solutions is an example for
MQP2020–
what types of chemical reaction? Explain. Write the balanced chemical equation for
3
this reaction.
16. An iron ring is to be coated with copper. How can we do this without using
M2020 - 1
electricity?
17. The reaction of Barium chloride with Aluminium sulphate solution is an example for
which type of chemical reaction? Why? Write the balanced chemical equation for this M2020 – 3
reaction.
18. Manufacturers of chips, flush the packets of chips with nitrogen gas. Why? S2020 – 1
2
19. Write the balanced chemical equations for the following chemical reactions. How can
we confirm by observation that these chemical reactions are taking place?
S2020 – 3
a) Lead nitrate is heated.
b) Sodium sulphate reacts with Barium chloride.
20. NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O. This chemical reaction is an example of
MQP2021–
A. neutralization reaction B. substitution reaction
MCQ
C. addition reaction D. combustion reaction
21. The gas liberated when sodium bicarbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid
is
S2021‒1
(A) hydrogen (B) nitrogen (C) carbon dioxide (D) nitrogen dioxide

22. Draw the diagram of the arrangement of apparatus to show the electrolysis of MQP2022–
water and label the ‘graphite rod’. 2
23. The reaction of lead with Copper Chloride solution is an example for which type
of chemical reaction? Why? Write the balanced chemical equation for this
reaction.
MQP2022–
OR
3
Write the balanced chemical equations for the following reactions and
identify the exothermic and endothermic reaction. i) heating of ferrous sulphate
crystals. ii) calcium oxide reacts with water.
24. The gas liberated at the cathode in the electrolysis of water is
A2022‒1
(A) Oxygen (B) Hydrogen (C) Chlorine (D) Nitrogen.
25. ZnO + C → Zn + CO In this reaction name the reactant
i) that is oxidised and A2022‒1
ii) that is reduced.
26. Draw the diagram of arrangement of the apparatus to show the reaction of zinc
granules with dilute sulphuric acid and testing hydrogen gas by burning. Label
the following parts : A2022‒3
i) Zinc granules
ii) Delivery tube.
27. Write the balanced chemical equation for the following chemical reactions:
i) Calcium carbonate → Heat Calcium oxide + Carbon dioxide
ii) Hydrogen + Chlorine → Hydrogen chloride
iii) Magnesium + Hydrochloric acid → Magnesium chloride + Hydrogen.
A2022‒3
OR
Which type of chemical reaction takes place when an iron nail is dipped in copper
sulphate solution? Why? Write a balanced chemical equation for this chemical
reaction.
28. Draw the diagram of the arrangement of apparatus used to show the electrolysis
J2022–2
of water and label the ‘graphite rod’.
29. The chemical reaction that takes place between sodium sulphate and barium
chloride is called double displacement reaction. Why ? Write the balanced
chemical equation for this reaction.
J2022–2
OR
What is the type of chemical reaction in which quicklime is obtained by lime
stone (calcium carbonate) ? Write a chemical equation for this reaction.

3
 CHAPTER 02 – ACIDS, BASES & SALTS
01. The pH values of four solutions P, Q, R 𝑎𝑛𝑑 S are 7.8, 1.0, 13.0 and 1.4 respectively.
The solution having highest hydrogen ion concentration among them is MQP1
(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S
02. In a bakery, baking powder was not added while preparing cake. The cake obtained
MQP1 – 1
was hard and small in size. What is the reason for this?
03. Explain the preparation of plaster of Paris with the help of balanced chemical
MQP1 – 2
equation.
04. In a fertile garden certain types of flower plants were not growing. After testing the
soil of the garden it was found that its pH value is 5.The chemical that may be used to MQP2 –
treat the soil is MCQ
A) Sodium chloride B) Calcium hydroxide C) Urea D) Copper sulphate
05. Name the acid present in the stinging hair of nettle leaves. A2019– 1
06. Draw the diagram of arrangement of apparatus used to show the reaction of zinc
granules with dilute sulphuric acid and testing hydrogen gas by burning. Label the A2019–2
following parts. (i) Soap solution (ii) Delivery tube.
07. There is no change in the colour of red litmus and blue litmus paper when introduced
into an aqueous solution of sodium chloride. After passing direct current through the
A2019–2
same solution, red litmus changes to blue colour. Which product is responsible for
this change? Mention any two uses of this product.
08. Name the gas liberated when an acid reacts with metallic carbonate. Write the
chemical equation of the reaction when this gas is passed through lime water. What
is the colour of the precipitate obtained in this reaction?
OR J2019 – 2
Give scientific reason:
(i) While diluting an acid, the acid should be added to water.
(ii) Plaster of Paris should be stored in a moisture–proof container.
09. (i) What is neutralisation reaction?
J2019 – 4
(ii) Name the products of chlor–alkali process. Write one use of each.
10. Aqueous solutions of sodium chloride, sodium sulphate and calcium chloride are
MQP2020–
taken in three separate test tubes. Using aqueous barium chloride how do you
1
identify sodium sulphate?
11. When sulphuric acid is added to 1g sodium chloride taken in a test tube, which gas is
released? What changes do you observe when you test the gas with dry and wet
litmus paper? What conclusion do you draw by this experiment?
OR MQP2020–
The pH values of four solutions A, B, C and D are 5, 12, 8, 9 respectively. Arrange 3
them in the increasing order of their hydroxyl ion concentration. Which solution
among them has strong acidic property? Explain what happens if our mouth contains
the pH of solution ‘A’
12. As the pH value of a neutral solution increases
(A) basic property decreases and number of OH− ions increases
M2020 –
(B) acidic property increases and number of H+ ions decreases
MCQ
(C) basic property increases and number of OH− ions increases
(D) acidic property decreases and number of H+ ions increases.
13.
This chemical reaction is
A) Neutralization reaction because water is released MQP2020–
B) Oxidation reaction because oxygen is removed from the reactant MCQ
C) Addition reaction because hydrogen is added to the reactant
D) Dehydration reaction because water is removed from the reactant
14. Write the products obtained when sodium oxide reacts with hydrochloric acid. MQP2020–
1
15. Write any two chemical properties of acids. MQP2020–
2

4
16. a) Name the gas released at anode during chlor-alkali process and mention the uses
of this gas.
b) Which gas is released when sodium carbonate reacts with hydrochloric acid? How
do you test this gas? Write the word equation for this reaction.
MQP2020–
OR
4
a) What happens if too much of acid is produced in the stomach? What is the remedy
for this situation?
b) What is water of crystallization? How is plaster of paris prepared? Write any two
uses of plaster of paris.
17. Agricultural scientists have suggested to add a certain amount of lime powder to an
M2020 – 2
agricultural field. What may be the reasons for this? Explain.
18. Draw the diagram of the apparatus to show that acid solution in water conducts
electricity. Label the following parts:
i) Dil. HCl solution ii) Rubber cork.
OR
Draw the diagram of arrangement of the apparatus to show the reaction of zinc M2020 – 2
granules with dilute sulphuric acid and testing hydrogen gas by
burning. Label the following parts:
i) Test tube
ii) Soap solution.
19. Draw the diagram of the arrangement of apparatus to show that acid solution in
water conducts electricity and label the battery.
OR
S2020 – 2
Draw the diagram of the arrangement of apparatus showing the reaction of zinc
granules with dilute sulphuric acid and testing hydrogen gas by burning and label
the zinc granules.
20. Strips of zinc, iron, magnesium and copper are taken in the test tubes A, B, C and
D respectively. Same quantity of ferrous sulphate solution is added to these test
tubes. In which test tubes chemical reaction will occur? Why? Write the chemical S2020 – 3
equations for the reactions taking place here.

21. Write the molecular formulae and two uses of each of the following compounds:
a) Bleaching powder b) Plaster of Paris.
OR S2020 – 3
What is a strong acid? Explain how tooth decay is caused. How can it be
prevented?
22. As the pH value of a solution decreases
MQP2021–
A. number of OH‒ ions increases B. number of H+ ions increases
MCQ
C. number of H+ ions decreases D. equal number of OH‒ and H+ ions
23. The gas liberated when sodium carbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid is MQP2021–
A. hydrogen B. chlorine C. nitrogen dioxide D. carbon dioxide MCQ
24. The substance that changes the colour of red litmus paper into blue colour
MQP2021–
A. sodium chloride solution B. lemon juice
MCQ
C. pure water D. sodium hydroxide solution
25. A compound that reacts with both acids as well as bases to produce salts and
water is J2021–1
(A) aluminium oxide (B) copper oxide (C) iron oxide (D) sodium oxide
26. The gas liberated when sodium carbonate reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid is
J2021–1
(A) carbon dioxide (B) nitrogen dioxide (C) hydrogen (D) chlorine
27. The substance that converts blue litmus paper into red colour is
J2021–1
(A) lime water (B) pure water (C) sodium hydroxide solution (D) gastric juice
28. An acid present in the stinging hair of nettle plant leaves is
J2021–1
(A) methanoic acid (B) oxalic acid (C) citric acid (D) lactic acid
29. The metal oxide that exhibits both acidic and basic properties is
(A) aluminium oxide (B) sodium oxide (C) potassium oxide (D) magnesium S2021‒1
oxide
30. Observe the following table : S2021‒1

5
 The material that has very less hydrogen ions ( H+) among these is
(A) R (B) S (C) Q (D) P
31. The substance that changes red litmus paper into blue colour is
(A) sodium hydroxide solution (B) citric acid solution S2021‒1
(C) sodium chloride solution (D) pure water
32. As the pH value of a solution increases.
MQP2022–
A) number of H+ ions increases B) number of OH– ions increases
MCQ
C) number of OH– ions decreases D) equal number of H+ and OH– ions
33. Write the molecular formula and two uses of each of the following compounds
a) Washing soda b) Bleaching powder MQP2022–
OR 2
Name the two gases liberated in Chlor-alkali process. Write one use of each.
34. Write any two uses of Plaster of Paris. A2022‒1
35. The pH values of A, B and C solutions are 5, 6 and 7 respectively. Which of these
A2022‒2
solutions is more acidic in nature ? Why ?
36. Draw the diagram of arrangement of the apparatus to show the reaction of
zinc granules with dilute sulphuric acid and testing hydrogen gas by burning.
Label the following parts : J2022–3
i) Zinc granules
ii) Soap solution.
37. a) What is neutralisation reaction ? Give an example.
b) What is the common name of the compound that has molecular formula J2022–3
CaSO4. ½ H2O

6
 CHAPTER 03 – METALS & NON–METALS
01. Observe the following chemical equations and identify the correct statement.
(i) CuSO4 + Fe → FeSO4 + Cu
(ii) 2AgNO3 + Cu → Cu(NO3)2 + 2Ag
(A) Copper is more reactive than Iron and Silver MQP1
(B) Iron is less reactive than Copper and Silver
(C) Copper is more reactive than Silver but less reactive than Iron
(D) Silver is more reactive than Copper and Iron
02. Write the four properties of ionic compounds.
OR MQP1 – 2
Write any four physical properties of metals.
03. Draw the diagram of the apparatus used to test the conductivity of sodium chloride
solution and label the graphite rod and the part where sodium chloride solution is MQP1 – 3
present.
04. What is roasting in metallurgy? A2019–1
05. Give reasons:
(i) Ionic compounds in solid state do not conduct electricity, whereas in molten state
are good conductors of electricity.
(ii) Silver articles when exposed to air gradually turn blackish.
(iii) Chemical reaction does not take place when copper is added to iron sulphate
solution. A2019–3
OR
Give reasons:
(i) “Alloys of iron are more useful when compared to pure iron.”
(ii) Copper loses its brown layer gradually when exposed to air.
(iii) Aluminium oxide is called amphoteric oxide.
06. (i) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place when
aluminium reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid.
(ii) Hydrogen gas is not liberated when a metal reacts with concentrated nitric acid.
Give reason. J2019 – 2
OR
Show the formation of NaCl and MgCl2 with the help of electron dot structure.
07. Draw the diagram of the arrangement of apparatus to show the action of steam on a
metal. Label the following parts: J2019 – 3
(i) Metal sample (ii) Delivery tube.
08. Copper when exposed to air for a long time acquires a green coat. Why? MQP2020–
1
09. What are ionic compounds? Mention any two properties of ionic compounds.
OR MQP2020–
Name any two metals that react with cold water vary quickly. Write the products 2
formed when these metals react with cold water.
10. Hydrogen gas is not liberated when a metal reacts with concentrated nitric acid
because nitric acid
A) does not contain hydrogen atoms MQP2020–
B) oxidises itself MCQ
C) oxidises hydrogen to form water
D) is a strong reducing agent and gains hydrogen
11. Ferrous sulphate crystals are taken in a test tube and heated ; the correct statement
related to this chemical reaction is
A) This is a photolytic decomposition reaction, and white coloured solid ferric oxide is MQP2020–
formed MCQ
B) This is a thermal decomposition and green coloured fumes of ferric oxide is
formed

7
 C) This is a photolytic decomposition reaction and brown coloured fumes of ferric
oxide is formed
D) This is a thermal decomposition reaction and brown coloured solid ferric oxide is
formed
12. Does the chemical reaction take place when zinc is added to ferrous sulphate MQP2020–
solution? Justify your answer. 1
13. Draw the diagram of the arrangement of apparatus to show the action of steam on a MQP2020–
metal and label the part where hydrogen is collected. 2
14. "Iron alloys are better compared to pure iron" Justify. MQP2020–
2
15. Observe the following chemical reactions.
i) Fe2O3 + 2AI → 2Fe + Al2O3 ii) ZnO + C → Zn + CO
iii) Zn + CO → 2Fe + CO iv) Al2O3 + 3C → 2Al + 3CO MQP2020–
Which of the above reaction is wrong? How is the metal present in the wrong 3
equation extracted? Which of the above reaction can be used to join the broken
parts of the machines? Why?
16. Which physical properties are used in the following situations?
i) Gold is used to make ornaments M2020 – 2
ii) Nickel is used in strings of guitar.
17. Mention the difference between calcination and roasting. How these processes
are used in the extraction of zinc? Explain with the help of chemical equations. M2020 – 4
After these processes is reduction necessary to obtain zinc? Why?
18. What are amphoteric oxides? S2020 – 1
19. Draw the diagram of the apparatus used in refining of copper from copper
sulphate solution. Label the following parts: S2020 – 2
i) Cathode ii) Anode mud.
20. Observe the following chemical reactions
Fe + CuSO4 → FeSO4 + Cu; Zn + FeSO4 → ZnSO4 + Fe
MQP2021–
The decreasing order of reactivity of metals in the above reactions is
MCQ
A. Zn > Fe > Cu B. Fe > Cu > Zn
C. Zn > Cu > Fe D. Cu > Fe > Zn
21. The gas liberated when dilute sulphuric acid reacts with zinc granules
MQP2021–
A. Sulphur dioxide B. Carbon dioxide
MCQ
C. Nitrogen D. Hydrogen
22. When a copper is exposed to air for a long time it acquires a green coat. Because
MQP2021–
it reacts with
MCQ
A. sulphur B. nitrogen C. moist oxygen D. moist carbon dioxide
23. The amphoteric oxide among the following is MQP2021–
A. sodium oxide B. zinc oxide C. calcium oxide D. potassium oxide MCQ
24. An alloy that made up of copper and tin is MQP2021–
A. brass B. solder metal C. bronze D. stainless steel MCQ
25. When a carbon dioxide reacts with calcium hydroxide salts and water are
MQP2021–
produced. Then the nature of carbon dioxide is
MCQ
A. acidic B. metallic C. both acidic and basic D. basic
26. Observe the following chemical reactions:
Fe + CuSO4 → FeSO4+ Cu
Zn + FeSO4 → ZnSO4+ Fe J2021–1
The decreasing order of reactivity of the metals in the above reactions is
(A) Zn > Fe > Cu (B) Fe > Cu > Zn (C) Zn > Cu > Fe (D) Cu > Fe > Zn
27. The process used to convert sulphide ores of metals into their oxides is
(A) calcination (B) roasting (C) reduction (D) electrolysis J2021–1

28. The stages followed during the extraction of zinc from zinc sulphide ore are
respectively
S2021‒1
(A) Calcination, Reduction, Refining (B) Roasting, Calcination, Refining
(C) Roasting, Reduction, Refining (D) Calcination, Oxidation, Refining
8
29. Observe the following equations of chemical reactions :
Zn + FeSO4 → ZnSO4 + Fe
2Al + 3ZnSO4 → Al2(SO4)3 + 3 Zn S2021‒1
The increasing order of reactivity of the metals in the above reactions is
(A) Fe < Zn < Al (B) Al < Zn < Fe (C) Zn < Fe < Al (D) Al < Fe < Zn
30. The amphoteric oxide among the following is
MQP2022–
A) Potassium oxide B) Sodium oxide
MCQ
C) Calcium oxide D) Zinc oxide
31. Draw the diagram of arrangement of the apparatus to show the reaction of zinc
MQP2022–
granules with dilute sulphuric acid and testing hydrogen gas by burning. Label
3
the following parts. i) zinc granules ii) soap solution
32. a) Ionic compounds in solid state do not conduct electricity, but in molten state
are good conductors of electricity. Why ? MQP2022–
b) Write the formation of magnesium chloride (MgCl2) with the help of electron 4
dot structure.
33. Draw the diagram to show the arrangement of the apparatus used for testing the
A2022‒2
conductivity of salt solution and label ‘graphite rod’.
34. Give reason:
a) Metals are used in making cooking vessels.
b) Sodium metal is stored in kerosene.
OR
A2022‒2
Give reason:
a) When a calcium metal reacts with water, the liberated hydrogen gas
does not catch fire.
b) Ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points.
35. The metal that displaces copper from copper sulphate solution is J2022–
(A) mercury (B) gold (C) iron (D) silver MCQ

9
 CHAPTER 04 – CARBON & ITS COMPOUNDS
01. What are saturated hydrocarbons and unsaturated hydrocarbons? Write the
structure of the simplest hydrocarbon.
OR MQP1 – 2
Name the functional group in the following compounds and write their molecular
formula. (i) Ethanol (ii) Ethanoic acid
02. (a) Explain substitution reaction with an example and chemical equation.
MQP1 – 4
(b) Explain the cleansing action of soap.
03. The functional groups present in propanol and propanal respectively are
A2019
(A) — OH and — CHO (B) — OH and — COOH
MCQ
(C) — CHO and — COOH (D) — CHO and — CO
04. The electronic configuration of element X is 2, 8, 8, 1 and the electronic configuration
of element Y is 2, 8, 7. Then the type of bond formed between these two elements is A2019–
(A) covalent bond (B) hydrogen bond MCQ
(C) metallic bond (D) ionic bond
05. What are structural isomers? Name the first member of alkanes that shows structural
A2019–2
isomerism.
06. (i) Write the differences between saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons.
(ii) Write the molecular formula and structural formula of an alkene having five
carbon atoms.
A2019–3
OR
(i) Carbon atom does not form C 4 − anion and C 4 + cation. Why?
(ii) How can ethanol be converted into ethanoic acid?
07. What is a covalent bond? J2019 – 1
08. Name the first member of alkynes and write its molecular formula. J2019 – 1
09. Explain substitution reaction in hydrocarbons with an example.
OR J2019 – 2
Explain the mechanism of cleaning action of soaps.
10. The general formula of two specific groups of saturated and unsaturated
hydrocarbons is CnH2n. Write the structures of the member of each group when n = J2019 – 2
3.
11. The group of compounds which are in homologous series is:
MQP2020–
A) CH4, C2H4, C2H2 B) CH4, CH3OH, HCHO
MCQ
C) CH4, C2H6, C3H8 D) C2H2, C3H6, C4H10
12. The molecular formula of three fatty acids A, B and C present in oil or fat is
C12H29COOH, C15H29COOH AND C16H29COOH. Which of these is derived from i) alkane MQP2020–
ii) alkene iii) alkyne? Which of them becomes rancid earlier? How can we increase its 3
shelf life?
13. If one hydrogen atom of propane is replaced by a ketone group, then the molecular
MQP2020–
formula of the compound obtained is
MCQ
A) C4H8O B) C3H8O C) C3H602 D) C4H10O
14. What is esterification reaction? MQP2020–
1
15. An example for saturated hydrocarbon is: M2020 –
(A) C2H6 (B) C3H4 (C) C2H2 (D) C2H4 MCQ
16. The molecular formula of three carbon compounds which are in homologous series
M2020 –
are C2H6 , C3H8 , C4H10. The suitable general formula for these compounds is
MCQ s
(A) CnH2n (B) CnH2n−1 (C) CnH2n−2 (D) CnH2n+2.
17. Explain the cleansing action of soaps.
OR MQP2020–
Explain the method of converting ethanol into ethanoic acid with the help of 2
chemical equation.
18. Explain the formation of covalent bond taking the example of methane and write the MQP2020–
electron dot structure of methane. 2
10
19. Write the structural formula of butane and ethanoic acid. MQP2020–
2
20. Explain the addition and substitution reaction with the help of examples. C2H6
undergoes substitution reaction but not addition reaction. Why?
OR M2020 – 3
Explain how soap cleans clothes. More amount of soap is required to clean the
clothes in hard water. Why?
21. Identify the correct electron dot structure of nitrogen molecule in the following:
S2020 –
MCQ

22. The name and the molecular formula of the unsaturated hydrocarbon having general
S2020 –
formula Cn H2n and containing 3 carbon atoms is:
MCQ
(A) propane, C3H8 (B) Cyclopropane, C3H6 (C) Propyne, C3H4 (D) Propene, C3H6
23. Can detergent be used to test hardness of water? Give reason. S2020 – 1
24. a) What are structural isomers? Write two structures of butane molecule.
b) How would you distinguish experimentally between an alcohol and a
S2020 – 4
carboxylic acid?

25. The correct group of saturated hydrocarbons is:

MQP2021–
A. CH4, C2H4, C3H4 B. C2H6, C3H8, C4H10
MCQ
C. C2H2, C2H6, CH4 D. C2H2, C3H6, C4H6
26. The atomic number of an element ‘X’ is 11 and the atomic number of ‘Y’ is 17.
Then the type of bond formed between these two elements MQP2021–
A. hydrogen bond B. covalent bond MCQ
C. ionic bond D. metallic bond
27. The functional group present in the carbon compound is:

MQP2021–
MCQ

A. aldehyde B. alcohol C. ketone D. carboxylic acid

28. The number of single bonds present in the structure of a cyclohexane molecule MQP2021–
A. 12 B. 18 C. 24 D. 6 MCQ
29. The molecular formula of benzene is MQP2021–
A. C5H12 B. C6H12 C. C6H6 D. C6H10 MCQ
30. The number of single bonds and double bonds present in a structure of benzene
MQP2021–
molecule respectively
MCQ
A. 6 and 6 B. 9 and 3 C. 7 and 5 D. 3 and 9
31. The common molecular formula for both cyclopropane and propene MQP2021–
A. C3H6 B. C3H8 C. C3H4 D. C2H6 MCQ
32. Carbon has the ability to form bonds with other atoms of carbon giving rise to
MQP2021–
large molecules. This unique property of carbon is
MCQ
A. saponification B. catenation C. hydrogenation D. esterification
33. The group of compounds which are in homologous series
MQP2021–
A. CH4, C2H6, C3H8 B. CH4, C2H4, C2H2
MCQ
C. CH4, CH3-OH, H-CHO D. C2H2, C3H6, C4H10
34. The structural formula of propanal is:

J2021–1

11
35. The number of single bonds and double bonds present in a structure of benzene
molecule respectively J2021–1
(A) 3 and 9 (B) 9 and 3 (C) 6 and 6 (D) 7 and 5
36. The common molecular formula of both hexene and cyclohexane is
J2021–1
(A) C6H6 (B) C6H14 (C) C6H12 (D) C6H10
37. The major component of bio-gas is
S2021‒1
(A) propane (B) butane (C) methane (D) ethane
38. The pair of carbon compounds having same molecular formula is
(A) Hexane, Hexene (B) Hexene, Hexyne S2021‒1
(C) Hexene, Benzene (D) Hexene, Cyclohexane
39. The functional group present in this carbon compound is

S2021‒1

(A) Aldehyde (B) Ketone (C) Carboxylic acid (D) Alcohol

40. A group of carbon compounds that are in homologous series

S2021‒1

41. The saturated hydrocarbon among the following is

S2021‒1
(A) C5H8 (B) C2H2 (C) C6H6 (D) C5H12
42. a) Write any two differences between saturated and unsaturated carbon
compounds.
MQP2022–
b) Write the molecular formula and structural formula for the following carbon
5
compounds.
i) propanoic acid ii) cyclohexane ii) pentane
43. Write the structural formula of ethene molecule. A2022‒1
44. a) What are structural isomers ? Write the molecular and structural formula of
butane. A2022‒4
b) What is catenation ? Write general formula for alkenes.
45. Number of single bonds found in the molecular structure of propanal is J2022–
(A) 8 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 5 MCQ
46. a) Write any two differences between saturated and unsaturated carbon
compounds.
b) Write the structural formula of the following carbon compounds : J2022–4
i) Benzene
ii) Butane
47. a) Explain the formation of ionic bond between sodium atom and chlorine atom.
[ Atomic number of sodium is 11, Atomic number of chlorine is 17 ] J2022–5
b) List any four general properties of ionic compounds.

12
 CHAPTER 05 – PERIODIC CLASSIFICATION OF ELEMENTS
01. The atomic numbers of two elements 𝐴 and 𝐵 are 11 and 12 respectively. Which
element exhibits highest metallic property? Why? Write the molecular formula of the
MQP1 – 3
compounds formed when these elements combine with the element ‘Z’ having
atomic number 8.
02. Observe the given table and answer the following question.

A2019–3

Identify the two elements that belong to the same period and the two elements that
belong to the same group. Give reason for your conclusion.
03. The number of groups and periods in the modern periodic table respectively, are J2019 –
(A) 7 and 9 (B) 18 and 7 (C) 7 and 18 (D) 9 and 7. MCQ
04. The position of elements A, B, C, D in the modern periodic table is given in the
following table. Answer the following questions by observing the table:

J2019 – 2

(i) Which element has the highest atomic size? Why?

(ii) Which element has the least metallic property? Why?
05. How did Mendeleev arrange the elements? He left empty place in his periodic table. MQP2020–
Why? Explain the limitations of Mendeleev classification. 4
06. In the modem periodic table, 'A' and B' are two elements belonging to first and
seventeenth group respectively and both of. them belong to the third period. Write
their electronic configuration. Which of them is a metal? Why? Write the chemical
formula of the compound obtained when these two elements react with each other. MQP2020–
OR 3
12 14
' C6 and C6 are two elements. Do both these elements get different positions in
modem periodic table? Explain your answer. Identify the period and group to which
they belong in the modern periodic table and explain your answer.
07. Sodium and potassium are placed in the same group of modern periodic table. If the
molecular formula of sodium sulphate is Na2SO4, then decide the molecular formula M2020 – 1
of potassium sulphate. Give reason for your answer.
08. CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O
M2020 – 1
In this reaction name the reactant i) that is oxidised ii) that is reduced.
09. The atomic numbers of two elements are 8 and 16 respectively. Write the electronic
configuration of these two elements. Do you keep these two elements in the same
M2020 – 3
group of the modern periodic table? Justify your answer. Find out which of these two
elements is more electronegative. Give reason for your answer.
10. The atomic numbers of elements A, B, C and D are 3, 9, 4 and 8 respectively.
S2020 –
Elements having metallic nature among these are:
MCQ
(A) B and D (B) A and B (C) A and C (D) B and C.
11. How are the limitations of Mendeleev’s periodic table rectified in the modern
periodic table?
OR S2020 – 2
How does the atomic size vary in groups and periods of the modern periodic
table? Why?
12. The atomic number of an element is 20. In the modern periodic table this element MQP2021–
belongs to the period MCQ
13
 A. 4 B. 8 C. 2 D. 3
13. In modern periodic table as we move down a group. The atomic size of the
elements MQP2021–
A. decreases B. does not change MCQ
C. increases D. first increases and then decreases
14. “The three elements were written in the order of increasing atomic mass the
atomic mass of middle element was roughly the average of the atomic masses MQP2021–
of other two elements.” This law was stated by MCQ
A. Dobereiner B. Mendeleev C. Henry Moseley D. Newlands
15. The number of periods and groups in the modern periodic table respectively are MQP2021–
A. 7 and 18 B. 7 and 9 C. 18 and 7 D. 9 and 7 MCQ
16. “Properties of elements are a periodic function of their atomic number.” This law
was proposed by J2021–1
(A) Newlands (B) Mendeleev (C) Dobereiner (D) Henry Moseley
17. The atomic number of an element is 20. In the modern periodic table, this
element belongs to the period J2021–1
(A) 2 (B) 8 (C) 4 (D) 3
18. “The properties of elements are the periodic functions of their atomic mass.” This
is
S2021‒1
(A) Dobereiner’s law (B) Newlands’ law
(C) Mendeleev’s law (D) Modern periodic law
19. In modern periodic table, in moving from left to right along the period, the
metallic property of the elements
S2021‒1
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) does not change (D) first decreases and then increases
20. State Newlands’ law of octaves. MQP2022–
1
21. The atomic numbers of two elements are 12 and 16 respectively. Do you keep
MQP2022–
these two elements in the same period of the modern periodic table? Justify your
3
answer. Which one of these two elements is more electropositive? Why?
22. Atomic number of chlorine is 17. The period number of this element in modern
periodic table is A2022‒1
(A) 2 (B) 7 (C) 4 (D) 3.
23. State modern periodic law. A2022‒1
24. What is atomic size ? In the modern periodic table the atomic size decreases
A2022‒3
along a ‘period’ and increases down the ‘group’. Why ? Explain.
25. State the modern periodic law. J2022–1
26. Write the two reasons for placing oxygen and sulphur in a same group of modern
periodic table. Which one of these elements has larger atomic size and why ?
[ Atomic number of oxygen = 8, Atomic number of sulphur = 16 ]
J2022–3
OR
Write the limitations of Mendeleev’s periodic table. Why is silicon called
metalloid ?

14
 CHAPTER 06 – LIFE PROCESSES
01. In mammals and birds oxygenated blood and deoxygenated blood gets separated.
MQP1 – 1
Why?
02. Explain the breakdown of glucose in aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration.
OR MQP1 – 2
Explain the process of transportation of substances in phloem.
03. Draw the diagram showing the structure of a nephron and label the following parts (i)
MQP1 – 2
Glomerulus (ii) Bowman’s capsule
04. An event that may happen in heterotrophic nutrition is
A) Conversion of carbon dioxide into carbohydrate
MQP2 –
B) Unused carbohydrates are stored in the form of starch
MCQ
C) Excess of glucose converts into glycogen.
D) Water molecules decompose into hydrogen and oxygen molecules
05. Identify the correct statement among the following with respect to plant hormones.
MQP2020–
A) Cytokinin promotes wilting of leaves B) Auxin inhibits stem elongation
MCQ
C) Abscisic acid inhibits growth of plants D) Gibberellin promotes falling of leaves
06. Significant role of stomata in transportation is to
MQP2020–
A) create upward pressure B) absorb carbon dioxide
MCQ
C) release oxygen D) perform transpiration continuously
07. Under what condition lactic acid is produced in the muscle cells? A2019–1
08. Explain the process of translocation of food materials in plants.
OR A2019–2
Explain the process of digestion in the small intestine of man.
09. Draw the diagram showing the sectional view of the human heart. Label the following
A2019–3
parts. (i) Aorta (ii) Chamber of the heart that receives deoxygenated blood.
10. The correct statement related to digestion in small intestine is
(A) acidic food is made alkaline by bile juice
J2019 –
(B) food is made acidic by hydrochloric acid
MCQ
(C) starch is digested due to the action of amylase
(D) protein is digested due to the action of pepsin.
11. Name the products of anaerobic respiration. J2019 – 1
12. Draw the diagram showing opened stomata. Label the following parts:
J2019 – 2
(i) Guard cells (ii) Stomatal pore.
13. Diagrams given below represent hearts of three different animals. Observe it and
answer the question.

J2019 – 2

Among these, which heart is helpful to the animals that require more energy? Why?
OR
The approximate lengths of small intestine of animals x and y are given in the table.
Observe it and answer the question.

15
 Identify the herbivorous and carnivorous animals in the table and support your
decision with scientific reasons.
14. “The rate of breathing in aquatic organisms is much faster than that seen in M2020 –
terrestrial organisms.” Why? MCQ
15. What are the methods used by plants to get rid of excretory products?
MQP2020–
OR
2
Mention the importance of transpiration in plants.
16. Draw the diagram showing the structure of human alimentary canal and label the
following parts. MQP2020–
a) the part which stores bile juice. 4
b) the longest part of the alimentary canal.
17. What similarity is observed in the structures of 'A' and 'B' with respect to their
function?

MQP2020–
1

18. Write the events occurring during photosynthesis. MQP2020–

2
19. How is the end product of nutrition glucose breaks down among all the organisms
under the conditions given below?
i) In the presence of atmospheric oxygen
ii) In the absence of atmospheric oxygen
iii) In muscle cells due to lack of oxygen MQP2020–
OR 3
Explain the methods of
i) Oxygen supply to the cells
ii) Release of carbon dioxide to the atmosphere from the cells during the process of
transportation in humans.
20. Draw the diagram showing longitudinal section of human brain and label the
following parts. MQP2020–
i) Part of hind brain that controls involuntary functions 3
ii) The part that interprets sensory information
21. Draw the diagram showing the germination of pollen on stigma and label the
M2020 - 2
pollen tube.
22. Draw the diagram showing the schematic sectional view of the human heart. Label
M2020 – 3
the following parts i) Aorta ii) Pulmonary veins.
23. The site of complete digestion of carbohydrates, proteins and fats is S2020 –
(A) stomach (B) large intestine (C) small intestine (D) liver. MCQ
24. Eating chapati by chewing it very slowly tastes sweeter. Why? S2020 – 2
25. How are the functions of arteries, veins and capillaries are interrelated in the
circulation of blood?
S2020 – 3
OR
How does transportation of water take place over the heights in a plant?

16
26. The process that helps in the absorption of upward movement of water and minerals
dissolved in it from roots to the leaves in plants MQP2021–
A. Respiration B. Transpiration MCQ
C. Photosynthesis D. Translocation
27. The correct pathway of oxygenated blood coming from lungs to the heart in the
human body
A. Pulmonary arteries → Right ventricle → Right atrium MQP2021–
B. Pulmonary arteries → Right atrium → Right ventricle MCQ
C. Pulmonary veins → Left ventricle → Left atrium
D. Pulmonary veins → Left atrium → Left ventricle
28. The blood vessels that carry blood from all parts of the human body to the heart are MQP2021–
A. Arteries B. Capillaries C. Veins D. Pulmonary arteries MCQ
29. The plants can get rid of excess of water by this process MQP2021–
A. Photosynthesis B. Transpiration C. Respiration D. Translocation MCQ
30. The correct path of urine flow in the human excretory system
A. kidney -->ureter--> urethra -->urinary bladder
MQP2021–
B. kidney -->urinary bladder -->urethra ureter
MCQ
C. kidney -->ureter -->urinary bladder -->urethra
D. urinary bladder -->kidney -->ureter -->urethra
31. The blood vessels that carry blood from all parts of the human body to the heart
are J2021–1
(A) arteries (B) capillaries (C) pulmonary arteries (D) veins
32. Plants can get rid of excess of water by this process
J2021–1
(A) Transpiration (B) Photosynthesis (C) Respiration (D) Translocation
33. The blood vessels that carry deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs in
the
S2021‒1
human body are
(A) Pulmonary veins (B) Aorta (C) Veins (D) Pulmonary arteries
34. The transport of soluble products of photosynthesis in plants is
S2021‒1
(A) Transpiration (B) Osmosis (C) Diffusion (D) Translocation
35. The site of complete digestion of carbohydrates, proteins and fats is MQP2022–
A) large intestine B) stomach C) liver D) small intestine MCQ
36. Draw the diagram showing the structure of nephron and label bowman’s MQP2022–
capsule. 2
37. Write the flowchart to show the breakdown of glucose by various pathways
in the cytoplasm of living organisms. MQP2022–
OR 3
Explain the function of stomach in the human digestive system.
38. Draw the diagram showing structure of human brain. Label the following MQP2022–
parts -i) cerebrum ii) cerebellum 4
39. Give reason :
a) ‘Ventricles of the human heart have thick wall.’
A2022‒2
b) ‘It is necessary to separate oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in mammals
and birds.’
40. Draw the diagram showing the structure of human excretory system and label
A2022‒2
‘urinary bladder’.
41. Which molecule is formed during the first step of cellular respiration by the
breakdown of glucose molecule in cytoplasm ? Mention the types of respiration
and write any two differences between them.
OR A2022‒4
Which are the factors essential for photosynthesis ? Mention the events that
occur during this process and represent this process by balanced chemical
equation.
42. Draw the diagram showing the structure of the human brain and label the
A2022‒4
following parts i) Cerebrum ii) Cerebellum.

17
43. In plants the major function of xylem is the transportation of J2022–
(A) water (B) food (C) amino acids (D) oxygen. MCQ
44. Draw the diagram showing the structure of human excretory system and label
J2022–2
‘ureter’.
45. Explain the stages of ‘double circulation’ of the blood in humans.
OR
J2022–3
Mention the events that occur during photosynthesis in plants. What are
the methods used by plants to get rid of excretory products ?
46. Draw the diagram showing the structure of the human brain and label the
following parts :
J2022–4
i) Cerebellum
ii) Mid-brain.

18
 CHAPTER 07 – CONTROL & CO–ORDINATION
01. What is geotropism? MQP1 – 1
02. The correct path of the movement of nerve impulses in the following diagram is

A2019–1

(A) Q → S → R → P (B) P → Q → R → S
(C) S → R → Q → P (D) P → R → S → Q
03. Draw the diagram showing the structure of neuron. Label the following parts:
J2019 – 2
(i) The part which has prominent nucleus (ii) Dendrite
04. Imagine the following situations:
(i) Clapping at the end of a programme (ii) Fluctuating blood pressure in the body.
How these situations are functionally different? Give reason.
OR J2019 – 3
“We withdraw our leg when stepped on thorn unknowingly.”
(a) Trace the sequences of events which occur in this action. (b) Which part of human
nervous system controls this action?
05. How does the nervous system differ from the endocrine system in forming control MQP2020–
and co–ordination in animals? 2
06. Write the functions of forebrain, medulla and cerebellum in human brain. MQP2020–
2
07. Draw the diagram showing the structure of human excretory system and label the MQP2020–
part that collects urine. 2
08. In the given figure of Cotyledon the parts labelled as A and B respectively are:

M2020 –
MCQ

(A) fruit, shoot (B) primary shoot, primary root

(C) secondary root, primary shoot (D) bud, leaf.
09. The incorrect statement related to thyroxine hormone among the following is:
(A) it regulates fat metabolism (B) its deficiency leads to goitre M2020 –
(C) it is secreted by parathyroid gland (D) iodine in the food is essential for its MCQ
production.
10. A response that does not happen in plants due to their growth is
MQP2020–
A) Bending of shoot towards light B) Penetration of roots in deep soil
MCQ
C) Folding of leaves when touched D) Climbing tendrils of a creeper
11. What is the role of auxin hormone to bring control and coordination in the growth of MQP2020–
plants? 2
12. Name the given structure. What is its general function? Mention the function of the
parts labelled as A and B. These structures in animals are said to be efficient ways to
give quick responses. Why?
M2020 – 4

19
13. A person’s face has become pale and his breathing rate has increased due to fear.
S2020 – 2
Analyse the process which enables the person to deal with this situation.
14. Draw the diagram showing longitudinal section of human brain. Label the following
S2020 – 4
parts a) Mid brain b) Gland which stimulates growth in all organs.
15. The hormone that regulates carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism in the
MQP2021–
human body is
MCQ
A. Testosterone B. Adrenaline C. Thyroxin D. Insulin
16. The mismatched pair among the following
MQP2021–
A. Adrenaline → Pituitary gland B. Testosterone → Testes
MCQ
C. Insulin → Pancreas D. Thyroxin → Thyroid gland
17. The part of human brain responsible for precision of voluntary actions and
MQP2021–
maintaining the posture and balance of the body
MCQ
A. pons B. cerebrum C. hypothalamus D. cerebellum
18. The main function of abscisic acid (hormone) in plants is to
MQP2021–
A. increase the length of cells B. inhibits the growth of plants
MCQ
C. promote cell division D. promote the growth of stem
19. The growth of pollen tubes towards ovules in the flower of plants MQP2021–
A. Chemotropism B. Phototropism C. Geotropism D. Hydrotropism MCQ
20. The part of human brain that controls the involuntary actions like salivation and
MQP2021–
blood pressure is
MCQ
A. pons B. medulla C. cerebrum D. cerebellum
21. The hormone that regulates carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism in the
human body is J2021–1
(A) Testosterone (B) Adrenaline (C) Insulin (D) Thyroxin
22. A pot that has growing seedling is kept in a dark room. A burning candle is placed
near it for a few days. The top part of the seedling bends towards the light of
J2021–1
burning candle. This is
(A) Chemotropism (B) Phototropism (C) Geotropism (D) Hydrotropism
23. The gap between two neurons is
J2021–1
(A) dendrite (B) axon (C) synapse (D) cell body
24. A plant hormone that inhibits the growth of plants is
S2021‒1
(A) Auxin (B) Gibberellin (C) Cytokinin (D) Abscisic acid
25. The centre of reflex action is
S2021‒1
(A) Cerebrum (B) Spinal cord (C) Cerebellum (D) Hypothalamus
26. The correct path of movement of electrical impulse in a neuron is
(A) Dendrite → Cell body → Axon → Axon end
(B) Axon → Axon end → Dendrite → Cell body S2021‒1
(C) Dendrite → Axon →Cell body → Axon end
(D) Cell body → Dendrite → Axon end → Axon
27. The plant hormone that causes wilting of leaves is MQP2022–
A) cytokinin B) auxin C) abscisic acid D) gibberellin MCQ
28. The folding up of leaves of a sensitive plant (touch me not plant) on MQP2022–
touching with a finger is not a tropism. Why ? 1
29. Mention the function of the following plant hormones ‒ i) Auxin ii) Cytokinin. A2022‒2
30. Define the following related to movement due to growth in plants :
i) Phototropism A2022‒2
ii) Geotropism.
31. An example for positive geotropism in plants is
J2022–
(A) growth of shoot (B) growth of roots into deep soil
MCQ
(C) growth of tendrils of creepers (D) upward growth of roots.
32. Which hormone inhibits the growth of plants ? J2022–1

20
 CHAPTER 08 – HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE?
01. The correct order of binary fission in Leishmania is

MQP1

(A) II, III, IV, I (B) I, III, IV, II (C) IV, I, III, II (D) III, I, II, IV
02. Draw the diagram showing the germination of pollen on stigma and label the
MQP1 – 2
following parts. (i) Stigma (ii) Pollen Tube
03. What is placenta? Write two functions of placenta. MQP1 – 2
04. A multicellular organism that shows the development of tiny individuals on one side
MQP2 –
of mother’s body is
MCQ
A) Hydra B) Yeast C) Planaria D) Spirogyra
05. Part of the flower that develops into fruit and part of the seed that develops into root
respectively are A2019
(A) ovary and plumule (B) plumule and radicle MCQ
(C) ovary and radicle (D) ovary and ovule
06. Draw the diagram showing the longitudinal section of a flower. Label the following
A2019–2
parts (i) Style (ii) Anther.
07. The group of organisms that reproduce through fission only is
J2019 –
(A) Amoeba, Hydra, Spirogyra (B) Leishmania, Amoeba, Yeast
MCQ
(C) Amoeba, Plasmodium, Planaria (D) Plasmodium, Amoeba, Leishmania.
08. In sustaining reproductive fertility of a person,
(a) position of the testis in the body
(b) secretion of the testosterone J2019 – 2
(c) secretion of the prostrate gland
are supplementary to each other. Explain scientifically.
09. Draw the diagram showing the germination of pollen on stigma and label the part on
J2019 – 2
which pollination takes place.
10. Among the flowers A and B, which flower undergoes self pollination? Why?

MQP2020–
1

11. A tall plant with red flowers (TtRr) is self pollinated. Represent the plants obtained in
MQP2020–
F2 generation with the help of a checker board (Punnet square). The traits which are
3
not found in the parental plants are expressed in the off springs. Why?
12. a) Explain why variations are observed in the off–springs formed by sexual
reproduction.
b) What are the advantages of vegetative propagation? MQP2020–
OR 4
a) Write the structure and function of placenta.
b) What are the changes that occur in a flower after fertilization.
13. Draw the diagram showing longitudinal section of a flower and label the part where MQP2020–
pollination takes place. 2

21
14. How are general growth and sexual maturation different from each other? Which are
MQP2020–
the symptoms observed in sexually matured females? When a matured female
5
receives male sex cells due to sexual contact what changes will happen in her uterus?
15. Explain the significant function of each structure in human male reproductive system.
OR
M2020 – 3
Explain the structure and important role of placenta during gestation period of
woman.
16. The type of reproduction found in Spirogyra is S2020 –
(A) Budding (B) Fragmentation (C) Vegetative reproduction (D) Spore formation. MCQ
17. a) How does menstruation occur?
b) How the process of budding in hydra is different from Bryophyllum?
OR
S2020 – 4
a) Explain the development of fertilized egg into a foetus in a woman.
b) In humans, how the surgical contraceptive methods can be used to prevent
pregnancy?
18. A pathogen that causes gonorrhoea and syphilis transmitted through sexual contact: MQP2021–
A. Protozoa B. Bacteria C. Virus D. Fungus MCQ
19. The correct sequence found in the process of sexual reproduction in flower is
A. pollination, fertilization, embryo, seed
MQP2021–
B. seed, embryo, fertilization, pollination
MCQ
C. embryo, seed, pollination, fertilization
D. pollination, fertilization, seed, embryo
20. The part of the plant seed that grows and develops into root on germination MQP2021–
A. Cotyledon B. Endosperm C. Radicle D. Seed Coat MCQ
21. A common part among the following that is found in reproductive system of
MQP2021–
both in flowering plants and humans is
MCQ
A. Vas deferens B. Anther C. Ovary D. Style
22. Which of the following is not a part of human female reproductive system? MQP2021–
A. Ovary B. Uterus C. Vas deferens D. Fallopian tube MCQ
23. The correct sequence found in the process of sexual reproduction in a flower is
(A) pollination, fertilization, seed, embryo
(B) seed, embryo, fertilization, pollination J2021–1
(C) embryo, seed, pollination, fertilization
(D) pollination, fertilization, embryo, seed
24. The embryo gets nutrition from the mother’s blood with the help of a special part
called J2021–1
(A) Fallopian tube (B) Ovary (C) Uterus (D) Placenta
25. The common passage for both sperms and urine in human male reproductive
system is J2021–1
(A) Urethra (B) Ureter (C) Vas deferens (D) Urinary bladder
26. The parts that develop into fruit and seed in a flower respectively are
(A) stamen and ovary (B) ovule and ovary S2021‒1
(C) ovary and ovule (D) stamen and ovule
27. In the human female reproductive system, the egg is carried from ovary to the
uterus through this part S2021‒1
(A) cervix (B) fallopian tube (C) placenta (D) vagina
28. A common bacterial infection that spreads through sexual contact in human
beings
S2021‒1
is
(A) Gonorrhoea (B) AIDS (C) Hepatitis-B (D) Warts
29. The correct sequence of reproductive stages occur in flowering plants is
MQP2022–
A) gametes, zygote, embryo, seed. B) zygote, gametes, embryo, seed.
MCQ
C) seed, embryo, zygote, gametes. D) gametes, embryo, zygote, seed.
30. The unfertilized egg of human female contains
MQP2022–
A) One ‘Y’ Chromosome B) One ‘X’ Chromosome
MCQ
C) ‘XX’ Chromosomes D) ‘X’ and ‘Y’ Chromosomes
22
31. What are analogous organs ? MQP2022–
1
32. Explain the human male reproductive system. MQP2022–
3
33. In humans, sexually transmitted viral infection is
A2022‒1
(A) AIDS (B) Syphilis (C) Tuberculosis (D) Gonorrhoea.
34. In males, testes are located outside the abdominal cavity in scrotum. Why ? A2022‒1
35. Draw the diagram showing the longitudinal section of a flower and label ‘ovary’. A2022‒2
36. What is the function of ovary and fallopian tube in human female reproductive
A2022‒2
system ?
37. Part of a flower in the plant that develops into fruit is J2022–
(A) petal (B) stigma (C) ovary (D) style. MCQ
38. What is the sex of a child born by receiving X chromosome from father ? J2022–1
39. How does uterus prepare to receive the fertilized egg in woman ? What happens
J2022–3
if egg does not fertilise ? Explain.

23
 CHAPTER 09 – HEREDITY & EVOLUTION
01. Identify the correct pair of analogous organs among the following
(A) The forelimb of man and the forelimb of a frog
(B) The wing of a butterfly and the wing of a bat MQP1
(C) The wing of a bird and the wing of a bat
(D) The forelimb of lizard and the forelimb of a frog
02. What are fossils? MQP1 – 1
03. (a) Explain the process of sex determination in human beings (b) Why are the small
number of surviving tigers a cause of worry from the point of view of genetics?
OR MQP1 – 4
(a) Traits acquired during the life time of an individual are not inherited. Why?
(b) How do Mendel’s experiments show that the traits are inherited independently?
Explain.
04. A pure dominant pea plant producing round — yellow seeds is crossed with pure
recessive pea plant producing wrinkled — green seeds. The number of plants bearing A2019–
round — green seeds in the F1 generation of Mendel’s experiment is MCQ
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 9
05. What are fossils? A2019–1
06. Growth of thread like structures along with the gradual spoilage of tomato can be
observed when a cut tomato is kept aside for four days. Interpret the causes for this A2019–3
change
07. (i) Write the differences between homologous organs and analogous organs. (ii)
Write the differences between the sex chromosomes of man and sex chromosomes A2019–4
of woman. (iii) Sex of a child is determined by the father. How?
08. Observe the table which shows contrast forms of pea plants?
Colour of the seed Position of the flower

J2019 –
MCQ

The genetic makeup with green seed and terminal flowers is indicated as
(A) gGAa (B) GgAa (C) GgAA (D) Ggaa.
09. (i) How does relative method help to determine the age of fossils?
(ii) “Experiences of an individual during its life time cannot direct evolution.” Why? J2019 – 4
(iii) “Chromosomes inherited from the father determines the sex of a child.” Explain.
10. "Method of artificial selection is also a reason for the evolution of new species of MQP2020–
organisms". Substantiate this statement with the help of an example. 3
11. Two black female mice are crossed with a brown male. Later female I produced 9
black and 7 brown off springs, female II produced 57 black off springs. Then ij What MQP2020–
inference can you make concerning inheritance of black and brown coloured mice? 4
ii) With the help of phenotype given, find out what are the genotypes of parents?
12. The gene for brown coloured hair is recessive that of gene for black coloured hair.
What is the hair colour of a person who has inherited a gene for brown coloured hair M2020 – 1
from mother and black coloured hair from father?
13. The plant bearing round yellow coloured ( RrYy ) seed are self pollinated with the
same plant. Represent the result obtained in the F2 generation of dihybrid cross with
the help of a checker board. Mention the varieties of plants obtained in F2
generation. M2020 – 4
OR
What is evolution? Explain the three evidences for evolution.

14. Explain the two methods to estimate the age of fossils. S2020 – 2

24
15. Mendel crossed plants bearing red flowers ( RR ) with the plants bearing white
flowers ( rr ) and produced progeny from them. The plants with red flowers obtained
S2020 – 3
in F1 generation were different from the plants with red flowers of parental
generation. Why? Explain with reasons.
16. If a round green seeded pea plant (RRyy) is crossed with wrinkled yellow seeded pea
plant (rrYY). The seeds produced in F1 generation are MQP2021–
A. Round and green B. Wrinkled and yellow MCQ
C. Wrinkled and green D. Round and yellow
17. The experiences of an individual during its life time cannot be passed on to its
progony, because they are MQP2021–
A. inherited traits B. acquired traits MCQ
C. dominant traits D. recessive traits
18. Analogous organs have
A. Same structure and same function
MQP2021–
B. Same structure and different functions
MCQ
C. Different structures and same function
D. Different structures and different functions
19. Which of the following is an inherited trait?
A. Reduction in the weight of an organism due to starvation
MQP2021–
B. Removal of tail in mice by surgery
MCQ
C. Development of muscles in athletes
D. Type of earlobe
20. A pure tall pea plant (TT) is crossed with a short pea plant (tt). The ratio of pure tall
MQP2021–
pea plant to the short pea plants produced in F2 generation is:
MCQ
A. 3 : 1 B. 1 : 1 C. 1 : 3 D. 2 : 1
21. The wings of bat and pigeon are the examples of
MQP2021–
A. Analogous organs B. Vestigial organs
MCQ
C. Homologous organs D. Adaptive organs
22. The wings of bat and pigeon are the examples of
MQP2021–
A. Analogous organs B. Vestigial organs
MCQ
C. Homologous organs D. Adaptive organs
23. If a round green seeded pea plant [ RRyy ] is crossed with wrinkled yellow seeded
pea plant [ rrYY ], the seeds produced in F1 generation are
J2021–1
(A) round and green seeds (B) wrinkled and yellow seeds
(C) round and yellow seeds (D) wrinkled and green seeds
24. Homologous organs
(A) have same structure and perform same function
(B) have same structure and perform different functions J2021–1
(C) have different structures and perform same function
(D) have different structures and perform different functions
25. The experiences of an individual during its lifetime cannot be passed on to its
progeny because, they are J2021–1
(A) inherited traits (B) acquired traits (C) dominant traits (D) recessive traits
26. Tall pea plants having round seeds ( TTRR ) are crossed with dwarf pea plants
having wrinkled seeds ( ttrr ). The progeny obtained in F1 generation is
S2021‒1
(A) Tall plants having wrinkled seeds (B) Tall plants having round seeds
(C) Dwarf plants having round seeds (D) Dwarf plants having wrinkled seeds
27. Analogous organs have
(A) same structure and perform same function
(B) different structures and perform different functions S2021‒1
(C) different structures and perform same function
(D) same structure and perform different functions
28. The genotypic ratio of F2 generation of Mendel’s monohybrid cross experiment is
S2021‒1
(A) 3 : 1 (B) 2 : 1 (C) 1 : 2 : 1 (D) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

25
29. Why are traits acquired during its lifetime of an individual not inherited? MQP2022–
1
30. The tall pea plant bearing red colour flowers (TTRR) is crossed with dwarf pea
plant bearing white flowers (ttrr). Represents the result obtained in F2
generation of dihybrid cross with the help of checker board. Mention the ratio of MQP2022–
different plants obtained in F2 generation. 3
OR
What is Speciation? Mention the factors could lead to the rise of a new species.
31. What is dihybrid cross ? Write the ratio of the plants obtained in the F2
A2022‒2
generation in Mendel’s dihybridisation experiment.
32. When a tall ( TT ) pea plant is crossed with a dwarf ( tt ) pea plant, represent the
result obtained in F2 generation of monohybrid cross with the help of checker A2022‒3
board and mention the ratio of varieties of plants.
33. a) Mention any four main factors that lead to the rise of new species.
b) The experiences of an individual acquired during its lifetime cannot be
passed on to its progeny. Give reason.
A2022‒3
OR
What are fossils ? Mention the methods of estimation of dating fossils and explain
briefly
34. Can the wing of butterfly and the wing of bat be considered as Analogous
J2022–2
organs ? If yes, why ? If no, why ?
35. “An individual organism cannot pass the experiences acquired during its life time
to the progenies of the next generation.” Explain this concept with the help of an
illustration.
OR J2022–3
Pure ‘short’ pea plant is crossed with pure ‘tall’ pea plant. Represent the results
obtained in F2 generation with the help of checker board and mention the ratio of
the types of plants obtained.

26
 CHAPTER 10 – LIGHT – REFLECTION & REFRACTION
01. Observe the figure. The correct figure indicating the direction of the light ray FG after
refraction is:

MQP1

02. The object distance of a lens is −30𝑐𝑚 and image distance is −10cm. Find the
magnification of the lens. With the help of this, decide whether the size of the image MQP1 – 1
is smaller or bigger than the size of the object.
03. Draw the ray diagram showing the formation of image when the object is kept
MQP1 – 2
beyond centre of curvature (C) of a concave mirror.
04. State the laws of refraction. What is the meaning of “the refractive index of crown
glass is 1.52”?
OR
MQP1 – 3
Define the power of a lens. What is the meaning of “The power of a lens is 1 diaptor”.
If the power of a lens is -2.0 D, then what type of lens is that? When an object is kept
at infinity from this type of lens, what is the size of the image formed?
05. One of the effects of refraction among the following is
A) Formation of image in a mirror
MQP2 –
B) Appearance of flowers in different colours
MCQ
C) The sky appears blue in colour
D) The pencil immersed in water appears to be bent
06. To obtain a diminished image of an object from a concave mirror, position of the
A2019
object should be ( P = principal focus, C = centre of curvature, P = pole )
MCQ
(A) between C and F (B) beyond C (C) between P and F (D) at F
07. Convex mirror is commonly used as rear–view mirror in vehicles. Why? A2019–1
08. The focal length of a concave lens is 30 cm. At what distance should the object be
A2019–2
placed from the lens so that it forms an image at 20 cm from the lens?
09. Draw the ray diagrams for the image formation in a convex lens when an object is
A2019–3
placed (i) at focus F1 (ii) beyond 2F1.
10. Identify the emergent ray in the given figure. J2019 –
MCQ

27
 (A) CD (B) BC (C) AB (D) IJ.

11. What is the centre of curvature of a spherical mirror? J2019 – 1

12. Draw the ray diagram to show the formation of image by a convex lens when the
J2019 – 2
object is at 2F1. [F1:Principal focus]
13. A concave lens has focal length 30 cm. At what distance should the object be placed
from the lens so that it forms an image at 20 cm from the lens? Also, find the J2019 – 3
magnification produced by the lens.
14. Observe the following figure. Ab is light ray travelling from liquid to air. BC and BD are
refracted rays.
i) which is the refracted ray if the liquid taken is benzene?
ii) which is the refracted ray if the liquid taken in water?
Justify your answer. (The absolute refractive index of water and benzene are 1.33 and MQP2020–
1.5 respectively) 3
OR
An object 2cm tall is kept on the principal axis of a converging lens of focal length
8cm. Find the position, nature and size of the image formed if the object is at 12cm
from the lens. Also find the magnification produced by the lens.
15. Observe the figure. The image formed in the figure is:

MQP2020–
MCQ

A) Real, inverted, diminished B) Virtual, erect, diminished

C) Virtual, erect, enlarged D) Real, inverted, enlarged
16. Write the formula to calculate the magnification produced by a spherical mirror. MQP2020–
1
17. Draw the ray diagram showing the position of the object and image to get the real MQP2020–
inverted image whose size is same as the object using a convex lens. 2
18. An object is kept at the centre of curvature of a concave mirror. The position and
nature of the image formed is
(A) between F and C and inverted M2020 -
(B) behind the mirror and erect MCQ
(C) between F and P and erect
(D) at the centre of curvature and inverted.
19. A 2cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of focal
MQP2020–
length 10cm. If the object distance is 15cm, then calculate the image distance and
2
height of the image.

28
20. Draw the ray diagram showing the image formation by a convex lens, when the
MQP2020–
object is kept between principal focus and optic centre. With the help of the diagram
3
mention the nature of the image formed.
21. a) An object is kept between centre of curvature and principal focus of a concave
mirror. Write the nature of the image formed.
b) Define focal length of a convex mirror. Write the relationship between focal length
and radius of curvature of a convex mirror. MQP2020–
OR 3
a) Give any two examples for refraction of light in daily life. State the laws of
refraction of light.
b) The power of a lens is -2.5D. Which type of lens is this?
22. An object is kept on the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 12 cm. If the
object is at a distance of 18 cm from the mirror, calculate the image distance.
Determine the nature of the image formed by calculating the magnification produced
by the mirror.
M2020 – 3
OR
A doctor prescribes a corrective lens of power – 0·5 D to a person. Find the focal
length of the lens. Is this lens diverging or converging? Give reason. How does the
property of this lens can be used to correct eye defects?
23. Draw the ray diagram when the object is kept between F1 and 2F1 of the convex lens.
With the help of the diagram mention the position and nature of the image formed. [ M2020 – 3
F1: Principal focus of the lens ]
24.

The image of the English letter in convex mirror looks like:

S2020 –
MCQ

25. Observe the given incomplete diagram.

S2020 – 1

26. Object distance and image distance of a lens are –30 cm and –10 cm respectively.
S2020 – 2
Find the magnification and decide the type of lens used and nature of the image.
27. a) State the laws of refraction of light.
b) In the given figure, AB is the incident ray, BC is the refracted ray and MN is the
normal at the point of incidence. Which medium is more denser? Why?

S2020 – 3

OR
a) Differentiate between convex mirror and concave mirror.
b) Define the principal focus of a convex lens.

29
28. Draw the diagram to show the recombination of the spectrum of white light and
label the following parts.
S2020 – 3
a) The ray of light that bends the most
b) The ray of light that bends the least.
29. The focal length of a lens is + 0.50 m. The power of the lens and type are
(A) + 2.0 D and convex lens (B) + 2.0 D and concave lens J2021–1
(C) – 2.0 D and concave lens (D) – 2.0 D and convex lens
30. A doctor prescribes a corrective lens of power ‒0.5D to a person. The focal
length of lens and the type is MQP2021–
A. ‒2m and concave lens B. +2m and convex lens MCQ
C. +2m and concave lens D. ‒2m and convex lens
31. The nature and the size of the image formed when the object is kept between
the principal focus ‘F1’ and optical centre ‘O’ of a convex lens is MQP2021–
A. virtual, erect and enlarged B. real, inverted and small size MCQ
C. virtual, inverted and small size D. real, inverted and enlarged
32. The potential difference between the terminals of electric heater is 60V, when it
MQP2021–
draws a current of 4A from the source. The resistance of electric heater coil is
MCQ
A. 15Ω B. 240Ω C. 24Ω D. 64Ω
33. The diameter of the circular outline of a spherical lens is
MQP2021–
A. optical centre B. centre of curvature
MCQ
C. aperture D. principal axis
34. Object distance and image distance of a lens are ‒60 cm and ‒20 cm respectively,
MQP2021–
then the magnification of lens will be
MCQ
A. ‒ 0.33 B. + 3.0 C. + 0.33 D. + 4.0
35. The position of the image obtained by a convex lens when an object is kept
between F1 and 2F1 (F: principal focus of the convex lens) MQP2021–
A. between F2 and 2F2 B. at 2F2 MCQ
C. beyond 2F2 D. at infinity
36. Observe the following table. In which material medium speed of light is very
high?

MQP2021–
MCQ

A. Q B. S C. R D. P
37. One of the properties of concave lens is, it
A. diverges the light rays
MQP2021–
B. forms real and inverted image
MCQ
C. is thinner at the edges and thicker at the middle
D. converges the light rays
38. The phenomenon of bending of light as it passes from one transparent medium
to another is MQP2021–
A. refraction of light B. reflection of light MCQ
C. internal reflection of light D. lateral inversion of light
39. The nature and the size of the image formed when an object is kept between the
principal focus F1 and optical centre O of a convex lens are
J2021–1
(A) virtual, erect and enlarged (B) real, inverted and small size
(C) virtual, inverted and small size (D) real, inverted and enlarged
40. One property of a convex lens among the following is that, it
(A) diverges the light rays
(B) is thicker at the edges and thinner at the middle J2021–1
(C) forms real and erect image
(D) is thinner at the edges and thicker at the middle

30
41. If the power of a lens is – 2.5 D, the focal length of the lens and type is
(A) + 0.40 m and convex lens (B) – 0.40 m and convex lens S2021‒1
(C) + 0.40 m and concave lens (D) – 0.40 m and concave lens
42. One property of concave lens among the following is, that
(A) it converges the light rays
(B) is thicker at the edges and thinner at the middle S2021‒1
(C) is thinner at the edges and thicker at the middle
(D) it forms real and inverted image
43. If an image is to be formed between F2 and 2F2 in a convex lens, then the object
should be placed [ F : principal focus of a lens ] S2021‒1
(A) beyond 2F1 (B) at 2F1 (C) between F1 and 2F1 (D) at focus F1
44. The distance between the principal focus and the optical centre of a lens is
S2021‒1
(A) principal axis (B) object distance (C) image distance (D) focal length
45. The diameter of the reflecting surface of spherical mirror is MQP2022–
A) Optical Centre B) Centre of Curvature C) Aperture D) Principal axis MCQ
46. If the focal length of a spherical mirror is 15cm. Find the radius of curvature? MQP2022–
1
47. Draw the ray diagram of image formed when the object is kept beyond 2F1 of the
convex lens. With the help of the diagram, mention the position and nature of the
image formed. (F1 : principal focus of the lens)
MQP2022–
OR
3
Draw the ray diagram when of image formed the object is kept beyond C of the
concave mirror. With the help of the diagram mention the position and nature of
the image formed. (C : Centre of curvature of mirror).
48. An object is kept at a distance of 30cm from a diverging lens of focal length 15cm.
MQP2022–
At what distance the image is formed from the lens? Find the magnification of the
3
image.
49. a) List the uses of Convex mirror and Concave mirror. MQP2022–
b) Define principal focus and radius of curvature of a convex mirror. 4
50. To get diminished and real image of an object from a convex lens, the object
should be placed
(A) at principal focus F1
A2022‒1
(B) between principal focus F1 and 2F1
(C) beyond 2F1
(D) between principal focus F1 and optical centre O.
51. Mention the SI unit of power of lens. A2022‒1
52. An object is placed at 25 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 15cm. At
what distance from the mirror should a screen be placed in order to obtain a
sharp image ?
A2022‒2
OR
A concave lens has focal length of 15 cm. At what distance should the object from
the lens be placed so that it forms an image at 10 cm from the lens ?
53. Draw the ray diagram to show the image formation by a convex lens, when the
object is kept at 2F1 of the lens. With the help of the ray diagram mention the A2022‒3
position and nature of the image formed. [F1:Principal focus of the lens]
54. a) What is refraction of light ? State two laws of refraction of light.
b) What is refractive index of light ? “The refractive index of diamond is 2·42.” A2022‒5
What is the meaning of this statement ?
55. The correct statement among the following related to the concave lens is
J2022–
(A) converges the light rays (B) diverges the light rays
MCQ
(C) forms inverted image (D) forms real image.
56. Calculate the power of convex lens with a focal length of + 0·5 m. J2022–1
57. a) State the two laws of refraction of light.
b) “The refractive index of diamond is 2·42.” Write the meaning of this J2022–3
statement.

31
58. Draw the ray diagram of image formation when the object is kept at 2F1 of the
convex lens. With the help of the ray diagram, mention the position and nature of
the image formed. [F1: Principal focus of the lens ]
OR
J2022–3
Draw the ray diagram of image formation when the object is kept between C and
F of the concave mirror. With the help of the ray diagram mention the position
and the nature of the image formed.
[ F : Principal focus of the mirror, C : Centre of curvature of mirror ]
59. a) Write any four uses of concave mirror.
b) An object is placed at a distance of 15 cm on the principal axis in front of a J2022–4
concave lens with a focal length of 10 cm. Find the image distance.

32
 CHAPTER 11 – THE HUMAN EYE AND THE COLOURFUL WORLD
01. Red coloured light is used in traffic signals to indicate the vehicles to stop, because
compared to other colours red light
MQP1
(A) has high frequency (B) scatters more
(C) has less wavelength (D) scatters less
02. The characteristics of the image of an object formed on the retina by the lens of the
eye is: MQP1
(A) Real and inverted (B) Virtual and erect (C) Real and erect (D) Virtual and inverted
03. Water mixed with the milk is taken in beaker ′𝐴′ and sugar solution is taken in beaker
′𝐵′. Light is passed through both the beakers. In which beaker the path of light is MQP1 – 1
visible? Why?
04. What is Myopia? Name the lens used to correct Myopia. MQP1 – 2
05. The part of the human eye that controls the amount of light entering into the eye is MCQ2 –
A) iris B) pupil C) rod and cone D) retina MCQ
06. The change that occurs in the eye to see the distant objects clearly is
A2019
(A) focal length of the eye lens decreases (B) curvature of the eye lens increases
MCQ
(C) focal length of the eye lens increases (D) ciliary muscles of the eye contract
07. Observe the given figure. Name the eye defect indicated in the figure and also
mention the lens used to correct this defect.

A2019–2

08. What is Tyndall effect? A2019–2

09. What is dispersion of light? Mention the colour that bends the least and the colour
that bends the most when light undergoes dispersion through a prism.
OR A2019–2
Mention any four phenomena that can be observed due to atmospheric refraction of
light on the earth.
10. What is the function of pupil of the human eye? J2019 – 1
11. (i) What is Tyndall effect?
(ii) Name the colour that bends the least and the colour that bends the most when
white light is dispersed by a prism.
J2019 – 2
OR
(i) What is meant by the power of accommodation of the eye?
(ii) What are the far point and near point of the human eye with normal vision?
12. What is hypermetropia or far–sightedness? Name the type of lens used to correct it. J2019 – 2
13. Stars appear to be twinkling but planets do not twinkle. Why? Explain why colour of MQP2020–
the clear sky during day appears blue and during sunset appear red. 5
14. Draw the ray diagram showing myopic eye and correction for myopia.
MQP2020–
OR
2
Draw the ray diagram showing the recombination of the spectrum of white light.
15. a) What is Tyndall effect? Give two examples for Tyndall effect.
MQP2020–
b) What is the meaning of power of accommodation of eye? How does this help us to
4
see objects at different distances?
16. Explain the experiment conducted by Newton to show that white light contains seven
colours. Sun appears red in colour during sunrise but appears white at noon. Explain M2020 – 5
with the reasons.
17. The sky as seen from the surface of the moon appears dark because, S2020 –
(A) only a little of the blue and violet colours are scattered MCQ
33
 (B) all the colours are absorbed by the atmosphere present in the moon
(C) all the colours are scattered
(D) atmospheric particles needed to scatter the light are not present.
18. A student sitting in the last bench has difficulty in reading the blackboard writing.
S2020 – 1
Which is the defect of vision the student has? How can it be corrected?

34
 CHAPTER 12 – ELECTRICITY
01. The SI unit of electric current is MQP1 -
(A) Ohm (B) Volt (C) Ampere (D) Watt MCQ
02. What is the resistance of a conductor? Mention the factors on which the resistance
of a conductor depend.
OR MQP1 – 2
Mention the disadvantages of connecting electrical appliances in series in domestic
wiring.
03. A potential difference of 220V is applied across a resistance of 440𝛺 in an electrical
MQP1 – 2
appliance. Calculate the current drawn and the heat energy produced in 20 seconds.
04. Draw the diagram of the electric circuit in which the resistors R1, R2, & R3 are
connected in parallel including ammeter and voltmeter and mark the direction of MQP1 – 2
current.
05. In the figure the device labelled as P is A) Ammeter B)Bulb C) Rheostat D) Voltmeter

MQP2 –
MCQ

06. The resistance of a conductor is 27Ω. If it is cut into three equal parts and connected
A2019–
in parallel, then its total resistance is
MCQ
(A) 6 Ω (B) 3 Ω (C) 9 Ω (D) 27 Ω
07. Draw the diagram of an electric circuit in which the resistors R1 , R2 and R3 are
connected in parallel including an ammeter and a voltmeter and mark the direction A2019–2
of the current.
08. It is advantageous to connect electric devices in parallel instead of connecting them
in series. Why?
OR
A2019–2
According to Joule’s law of heating, mention the factors on which heat produced in a
resistor depends. According to this law write the formula used to calculate the heat
produced.
09. An electric refrigerator rated 400 W is used for 8 hours a day. An electric iron box
rated 750 W is used for 2 hours a day. Calculate the cost of using these appliances for A2019–2
30 days, if the cost of 1 kWh is Rs. 3/–.
10. (i) How does overload and short–circuit occur in an electric circuit? Explain. What is
the function of fuse during this situation? (ii) Mention two properties of magnetic A2019–4
field lines.
11. A piece of metallic wire of resistance R is cut into 3 equal parts. These parts are then
l J2019 –
connected in parallel. If the total resistance of this combination is R , then the value
MCQ
of R: Rl is
12. A bulb is marked 220 V and 40 W. Calculate the current flowing through the bulb and
J2019 – 2
it’s resistance.
13. Draw the diagram of a simple electric motor. Label the following parts: (i) Brushes (ii)
J2019 – 2
Battery.
14. (i) Define electric potential difference. How is ammeter connected in an electric
circuit?
(ii) Explain the application of heating effect of electric current in an electric bulb and
the fuse used in an electric circuit. J2019 – 4
OR
(i) State Ohm’s law
(ii) Explain the factors on which the resistance of a conductor depend.
15. A heat producing device should be used in an electric circuit. This device should have MQP2020–
A) high resistance and low melting point B) low resistance and high melting point MCQ
35
 C) high resistance and high melting point. D) low resistance and low melting point
16. Observe the following table
a) Reverses the direction of electric current i) Galvanometer
b) Safety device ii) Commutator
c) Detects the presence of electric current iii) fuse MQP2020–
MCQ
The correct arrangement is
A) a -iii b -I c-ii B) a -ii b -i c-iii
C) a - ii, b - iii, c -i D) a – iii b -ii c - i
17. Define one volt (1V) potential difference. MQP2020–
1
18. Draw the circuit diagram showing the combination of resistors R1, R2 and R3 in MQP2020–
parallel including ammeter and voltmeter and mark the direction of current. 2
19. There are two metallic wires of the same thickness made from iron and silver. IF the
length of iron wire is 12cm, what should be the length of the silver wire which is MQP2020–
equal to the resistance of iron wire? Resistivity of iron = 10x10–8 m & resistivity of 4
silver = 16x10–8m.
20. Complete this diagram by connecting two resistors R1 & R2 in series between A and
B, also connecting two resistors R3 & R4 in parallel between C & D.

MQP2020–
1

21.

MQP2020–
2

In the above circuit, which device can be connected in place of AB to increase or

decrease the brightness of the bulb? Give reason for your answer.
22. Define ohm's law. Write any two factors on which the resistance of the conductor
MQP202–2
depend.
23. a) Explain any two practical applications of heating effect of electric current.
MQP2020–
b) An electric bulb is connected to a 220V generator. If the current drawn by the bulb
4
is 0.5A, then calculate the power of the bulb.
24. What is the SI unit of potential difference? Name the device used to measure the
M2020 – 1
potential difference.
25. The resistivity of manganese wire of length 1 m is 1·84 × 10−6 Ωm at 20°C. If the
diameter of the wire is 3 × 10 −4 m, what will be the resistance of the wire at that M2020 – 2
temperature?
26. Observe the given circuit. Calculate the total resistance in the circuit and the total
M2020 – 2
current flowing in the circuit.

36
27. State Joule’s law of heating. Explain the working of electric filament bulb.
OR
M2020 – 3
State Ohm’s law. How ammeter and voltmeter should be connected in electric
circuit? What is the use of these instruments, in the circuit?
28. Observe the given circuit diagram. Calculate the total resistance and the total current
flowing through the circuit.

S2020 – 2

29. What is the meaning of the statement “The potential difference between two points
is 1 V”? Name the device used to measure potential difference. What is resistance of S2020 – 4
a conductor? What is electric power? Write three formulae used to find it.
30. A device used to change the resistance in an electric circuit is MQP2021–
A. ammeter B. rheostat C. galvanometer D. voltmeter MCQ
31. The resistance of a conductor does NOT depend on
MQP2021–
A. length of conductor B. area of cross section of conductor
MCQ
C. magnetic nature D. nature of the material
32. ‘WATT’ is an SI unit of
MQP2021–
A. electric current B. electric charge
MCQ
C. electric potential difference D. electric power
33. Observe the given table. Good conductor of electricity among these material is

MQP2021–
MCQ

A. K B. L C. N D. M
34. An electric lamp whose resistance is 20Ω and a conductor of 4Ω resistance are
MQP2021–
connected in series to a 6V battery as shown in figure. Then the total current flowing
MCQ
through the circuit is:

37
 A. 36AΩ B. 0.6A C. 4A D. 0.25A
35. An electric bulb is connected to a 220V generator. If the current flowing in the bulb is
MQP2021–
0.50A. The power of the bulb is
MCQ
A. 44W B. 1100W C. 110W D. 220W
36. The function of ammeter in an electric circuit is, it
MQP2021–
A. reverses the direction of the current B. measures rate of electric current
MCQ
C. protects electrical appliances D. measures the potential difference
37. As the electrical resistivity of a substance increases
MQP2021–
A. resistance decreases B. conductivity increases
MCQ
C. melting point decreases D. resistance increases
38. An electric lamp whose resistance is 30  and a conductor of 6  resistance are
connected in series to 9V battery as shown in the figure. The total current flowing
in the circuit is

J2021–1

(A) 4 A (B) 36 A (C) 0.25 A (D) 0.6 A

39. The metal used in the filament of an electric bulb is
J2021–1
(A) manganese (B) tungsten (C) nickel (D) chromium
40. A device used to change the resistance in the electric circuit is
J2021–1
(A) voltmeter (B) ammeter (C) galvanometer (D) rheostat
41. ‘Ohm’ is the SI unit of
(A) electric potential difference (B) resistance J2021–1
(C) electric current (D) electric charge
42. In which material medium the speed of light is very high ?

J2021–1

(A) Q (B) P (C) S (D) R

43. The SI unit of electric potential difference is
S2021‒1
(A) volt (B) ampere (C) ohm (D) coulomb
44. The resistance of an electric heater coil is 110 Ω. Then electric current, that an
electric heater draws from a 220 V source is: S2021‒1
(A) 0.5 A (B) 0.11 A (C) 2 A (D) 3 A
38
45. A device that is connected in series in an electric circuit is
S2021‒1
(A) voltmeter (B) bar magnet (C) turbine (D) ammeter
46. Observe the following table :

S2021‒1

The best conductor of electricity among these materials is

(A) N (B) M (C) K (D) L
47. An electric motor takes 5A from a 220V electric source. The power of the motor is MQP2022–
A) 1100W B) 44W C) 225W D) 440W MCQ
48. What is an electric circuit? MQP2022–
1
49. An electric lamp whose resistance is 40Ω and conductor of 8Ω resistance
MQP2022–
are connected in series to 12V battery in an electric circuit. Calculate the total
2
resistance of the circuit and the current flowing through the circuit.
50. What is electric potential difference? What is the SI unit of potential difference? MQP2022–
Name the device used to measure the potential difference. 3
51. The device used to produce electricity is
A2022‒1
(A) Galvanometer (B) Electric generator (C) Ammeter (D) Electric motor.
52. The correct formula that shows the relationship between potential difference,
electric current and resistance in an electric circuit is
A2022‒1

53. Draw the schematic diagram of an electric circuit comprising of electric cell,
A2022‒2
electric bulb, ammeter and plug key.
54. a) What are the advantages of connecting electrical devices in parallel in an
electric circuit instead of connecting them in series ?
A2022‒4
b) How are ammeter and voltmeter connected in an electric circuit ? What are
their function ?
55. The SI unit of resistivity is J2022–
(A) ohm (B) volt (C) watt (D) ohm-metre. MCQ
56. What are the reasons for occurring overload in an electric circuit ? J2022–1
57. An electric bulb with a resistance of 50 Ω is connected to 10 V battery in an
electric circuit. Calculate the electric current flowing through the electric bulb J2022–2
and electric power of the bulb.
58. a) State Joule’s law of heating. Name any two devices that work on the application
of this law.
b) Why are the alloys like nichrome used in electrical heating devices ?
OR J2022–4
a) State Ohm’s law. In domestic electric circuit electrical appliances are not
connected in series. Why ?
b) Write the factors on which resistance of a conductor depends.

39
 CHAPTER 13 – MAGNETIC EFFECT OF ELECTRIC CURRENT
01. Draw the diagram of an electric motor and label the following parts (i) Split rings (ii)
MQP1 – 2
Armature
02. In the figure as the current changes in coil-1 the galvanometer connected to coil-2
shows deflection. Explain the phenomenon that causes this effect. Name and state
the law used to know the direction of current in the device that works due to this
phenomenon.

MQP1 – 4

03. The magnetic field around a current carrying circular loop can be increased by
A) increasing the radius of the coil.
MQP2 –
B) converting the coil into straight wire.
MCQ
C) decreasing the radius of the coil.
D) reducing the amount of electric current through the coil.
04. Draw the diagram of a simple electric motor. Label the following parts (i) Split rings
A2019–3
(ii) Brushes.
05. You are given a copper coil, 6V battery and iron filings. What effects of electric
MQP2020–1
current can you demonstrate using these materials?
06. Define the rule used to identify the direction of induced current in an electric
generator. How can we increase the amount of electric current produced in the
electric generator? Mention the property of the current produced by AC generator.
Mention an important advantage of this type of current.
MQP2020–3
OR
On what principle an electric motor works? Define the rule used to identify the
direction of force on the conductor in an electric motor. Explain the parts used in a
commercial motor.
07. Observe the following figure. We can understand that

MQP2020–
MCQ

A) there is a uniform magnetic field around the solenoid

B) the magnetic field is same at all points inside the solenoid
C) solenoid is kept in a strong magnetic field
D) solenoid is experiencing mechanical force
08. Give scientific reason: "The magnetic field produced by a current carrying conductor
MQP2020–1
increases as the number of turns in the coil increases".
09. A student connects a water heater to a 5A electric circuit. Is this correct? Give
MQP2020–1
suitable reason to your answer.
10. Draw the diagram of an electric motor and label split rings. MQP2020–2
11. An electric motor is taken out from a toy car. How do you convert this motor into a
small electric generator? Compare the function of electric generator with the MQP2020–3
phenomenon electromagnetic induction.
12. Observe the given figure. What type of current is induced in the coil by doing the
M2020 – 1
experiment related to this figure? Give reason for your answer.

40
13. Draw the diagram of a simple electric generator. Label the following parts:
M2020 – 2
i) Brushes ii) Rings.
14. How do you trace the magnetic field lines around a bar magnet using compass
M2020 – 4
needle? Explain. Write the properties of magnetic field lines.
15. Observe the diagram. The magnetic poles represented by P and Q respectively
are:

S2020 –
MCQ

(A) south ( S ) and south ( S )

(B) north ( N ) and south ( S )
(C) north ( N ) and north ( N )
(D) south ( S ) and north ( N ).
16. Suggest any two measures to avoid overloading in domestic circuits. S2020 – 1
17. Observe the given diagram. Explain the experiment related to this diagram.
What conclusions can be drawn from this experiment?

S2020 – 4

18. In Fleming’s left hand rule middle finger indicates the direction of the
MQP2021–
A. magnetic field B. electric current induced in conductor
MCQ
C. electric current D. movement of the conductor
19. The function of electric generator is, it
A. reverses the direction of the current
MQP2021–
B. converts electrical energy into mechanical energy
MCQ
C. detects the presence of electric current in circuit
D. converts mechanical energy into electrical energy
20. D.C. generator works on the principle of
MQP2021–
A. electromagnetic induction B. magnetic effect of electric current
MCQ
C. heating effect of electric current D. chemical effect of electric current
21. A safety device used to protect the electric circuit and electric appliances is MQP2021–
A. ammeter B. fuse C. commutator D. galvanometer MCQ
22. In Fleming’s right hand rule middle finger indicates direction of the
A. electric current induced in a conductor
MQP2021–
B. movement of the conductor
MCQ
C. magnetic field
D. electric current

41
23. A rectangular coil of copper wire is rotated in a magnetic field. The direction of
induced current changes ones in each MQP2021–
A. two revolutions B. one revolution MCQ
C. half revolution D. one-fourth revolution
24. Which of the following is NOT a property of magnetic lines?
A. magnetic field lines are dense near poles
MQP20221–
B. magnetic field lines are closed loops
MCQ
C. magnetic field lines intersect each other
D. magnetic field lines emerge from north pole and merge at the south pole
25. The device that works on the principle of electromagnetic induction is
(A) electric generator (B) electric heater J2021–1
(C) electric motor (D) electric fan
26. A rectangular coil of copper wire is rotated in a magnetic field. The direction of
the
induced current changes once in each J2021–1
(A) two revolutions (B) one revolution
(C) half revolution (D) one-fourth revolution
27. The magnetic field lines inside a solenoid are in the form of parallel straight
lines. The reason for this is, the magnetic field inside the solenoid is
J2021–1
(A) very high (B) uniform
(C) zero (D) produced by electric current
28. The device that converts electrical energy into mechanical energy is
(A) electric generator (B) solar cell J2021–1
(C) dry cell (D) electric motor
29. Which of the following is ‘NOT’ a property of magnetic field lines?
(A) Magnetic field lines are dense near the poles
(B) Magnetic field lines are closed loops S2021‒1
(C) Magnetic field lines intersect each other
(D) Magnetic field lines emerge from north pole and merge at the south pole
30. In Fleming’s right-hand rule, the middle finger indicates the direction of
(A) electric current induced in conductor (B) magnetic field S2021‒1
(C) movement of conductor (D) force
31. A device that reverses the direction of flow of current in an electric circuit is
S2021‒1
(A) Ammeter (B) Commutator (C) Voltmeter (D) Galvanometer
32. The function of fuse in an electric circuit is that, it
(A) reverses the direction of an electric current
(B) shows the direction of motion of the electric current S2021‒1
(C) measures the potential difference
(D) protects the electrical appliances
33. How does overloading and short-circuit occur in an electric circuit? Explain.
MQP2022–2
What is the function of a fuse during this situation ?
34. Explain Faraday’s experiment of magnet and coil. State “electromagnetic
induction” with the help of this experiment
OR
MQP2022–4
State the Fleming’s right hand rule. How can we increase the amount of electric
current produced in the electric generator ? Write any two differences between
electric generator and electric motor?
35. In Fleming’s right hand rule, the middle finger indicates the direction of
(A) induced electric current (B) magnetic field A2022‒1
(C) motion of the conductor (D) mechanical force.
36. Magnetic field lines do not intersect each other. Why ? A2022‒1
37. What are the functions of an earth wire ? It is necessary to connect the electric
appliances having metallic body to earth wire in domestic electric circuit. Why ?
Explain.
A2022‒3
OR
Explain Faraday’s experiment related to electromagnetic induction. Mention the
difference between direct and alternate current.
42
38. Draw the diagram of a simple electric motor and label ‘Split rings’ ? J2022–2
39. List the properties of the magnetic field due to the flow of electric current in a
J2022–3
solenoid. What are the two methods of increasing magnetic field in a solenoid ?

43
 CHAPTER 14 – SOURCES OF ENERGY
01. Explain the structure of a bio gas plant and the process of production of fuel in bio
gas plant.
OR MQP1 – 3
“We cannot establish nuclear power reactors everywhere though large amount of
electricity is produced by nuclear energy” Why? Explain.
02. (i) Name the major constituent of biogas. Write the properties of biogas which make
it a good fuel. (ii) Name the two devices that work using heat energy of the sun.
OR A2019–3
(i) Write the advantages of solar cells. (ii) Write any two hazards of nuclear power
generation.
03. Which of the following is eco–friendly?
J2019 –
(A) Thermal power plant (B) Hydropower plant
MCQ
(C) Biogas plant (D) Nuclear power station.
04. List the characteristics of a good source of energy. J2019 – 2
05. What is nuclear energy? What are the hazards of nuclear power generation?
OR MQp2020–
List four characteristics of a good source of energy. Name any two sources of energy 3
which are dependent on solar energy.
06. The power plant in which natural source of energy is directly used to rotate turbines
is M2020 –
(A) thermal power plant (B) hydro-electric power plant MCQ
(C) nuclear power plant (D) solar power plant.
07. In a power station coal is burnt to heat water to produce steam which further runs
the turbine to generate electricity. This power station is a
A) Thermal power plant because coal is burnt MQP2020–
B) Hydro power plant because water is heated MCQ
C) Nuclear power plant because turbine runs
D) Bio gas power plant because coal is used
08. "We need to look for alternative sources of energy". Justify this statement MQP2020–
scientifically. 2
09. “Biogas plant is a boon to farmers.” Why? M2020 – 1
10. a) Explain how is nuclear energy generated in power reactors. How is electricity
produced from nuclear energy?
b) Mention two hazards of nuclear power reactor.
S2020 – 3
OR
a) Explain why we are looking at the alternative sources of energy.
b) Mention the advantages and disadvantages associated with solar cells.
11. The inner wall of the solar cooker is painted black because this
MQP2021–
A. reflects light B. absorbs more heat
MCQ
C. prevents from rusting D. converges solar radiations
12. One of the properties of biogas
MQP2021–
A. Its heating capacity is high B. Leaves residue like ash
MCQ
C. It burns with smoke D. Its heating capacity is low
13. The power plant that does not use turbine to generate electricity is
MQP2021–
A. Solar power plant B. Nuclear power plant
MCQ
C. Hydroelectric power plant D. Thermal power plant
14. A major component of biogas is MQP2021–
A. ethane B. methane C. butane D. propane MCQ
15. The inner wall of the solar cooker is painted black because this
(A) reflects light
(B) converges solar radiations J2021–1
(C) prevents from rusting
(D) absorbs more heat

44
16. The source of energy in nuclear power reactor is
(A) nuclear fission reaction (B) controlled nuclear fission chain reaction J2021–1
(C) exothermic reaction (D) nuclear fusion reaction
17. The major component of compressed natural gas is
J2021–1
(A) butane (B) ethane (C) methane (D) propane
18. The power plant that uses the natural source of energy directly to rotate the
turbines is
S2021‒1
(A) Thermal power plant (B) Hydro-electric power plant
(C) Nuclear power plant (D) Solar power plant
19. Mention any two disadvantages of fossil fuels. MQP2021–
1
20. Draw the schematic diagram of a biogas plant. MQP2022–
2
21. Which is the major component of biogas ? Write four characteristics of a good
source of energy.
OR A2022‒3
Which element is used in making solar cell ? Write any four advantages of solar
cells.
22. What is a solar cell ? J2022–1
23. Write any two limitations of producing electricity from wind energy. J2022–2

45
 CHAPTER 15 – OUR ENVIRONMENT
01. Observe the figure and answer the given questions.
(i) Which trophic level has maximum number of organisms? Why?
(ii) In which trophic level chemicals like DDT are accumulated in highest
concentration? Why?
MQP1 – 2

02. Flow of energy is unidirectional in an ecosystem because in each trophic level

A) Number of consumers is constant
MQP2 –
B) Number of consumers reduces
MCQ
C) Loss of energy is more than the amount of available energy
D) Available energy is completely consumed by consumers
03. A food chain in a polluted aquatic ecosystem is given. Observe it and answer the
following questions.
Fresh water → Algae → Fishes → Birds.
(i) Which organisms are disturbed more due to biomagnification? Why?
(ii) This ecosystem will be destroyed gradually due to biomagnification. Why? A2019–2
OR
A student places a piece of cucumber, a glass piece, a banana peel and a plastic pen
in a pit and closes it. What changes can be observed in these materials after a
month? Give scientific reason for these changes.
04. Observe the food chain given below:
Grass → Grass hopper → Frog → Snake → Eagle. J2019 –
If the energy available at first trophic level is 5000 J, then the amount of energy MCQ
available for snake is (A) 500 J (B) 5 J (C) 0·5 J (D) 50 J.
05. Micro–organisms like bacteria are called decomposers. Why? J2019 – 1
06. Name the factors responsible for speciation. J2019 – 1
07. Imagine that in an area containing green bushes, almost equal number of brown
grasshoppers and green grasshoppers are living. Which grasshopper would be eaten MQP2020–
by birds easily? Why? Population of which grasshoppers increase gradually? Name 2
the phenomenon which directs evolution here.
08. Explain the flow of energy and harmful chemicals in an ecosystem. MQP2020–
3
09. In the environment, materials causing biomagnification
MQP2020–
A) get recycled quickly B) decompose only in soil
MCQ
C) remain as permanent residues D) are stored in less amount in trophic levels
10. Use of CFC free refrigerators is considered as eco friendly. Why? MQP2020–
1
11. Why are branched food chains will be formed in ecosystem? How does energy MQP2020–
travel in these food chains? 3
12. “The body temperature of frogs and lizards depend on temperature in the
M2020 – 2
environment.” Justify.
13. “As energy moves progressively through various trophic levels of food chain it is
M2020 – 2
no longer available to the previous level.” Give reasons.
14. In the alpine meadows of the great Himalayan National Park, the practice of regular
grazing by sheep was put to an end. What are the effects on the meadows due to this S2020 – 1
measure?
15. Give reason:
a) Food chains generally consist of only three or four steps.
S2020 – 3
b) Decomposers play an important role in an ecosystem.
c) Protecting of ozone layer is necessary.
46
16. Ozone layer is formed from oxygen at the higher levels of the atmosphere by
the action of MQP2021–
A. X-rays B. Ultra violet - radiations MCQ
C. Infrared radiations D. Radio waves
17. A product that can no more be used for the original purpose but use it for some
MQP2021–
other useful purpose is
MCQ
A. recycle B. reduce C. reuse D. repurpose
18. Which of the following is the bio-diversity hot spots? MQP2021–
A. Deserts B. Rivers C. Oceans D. Forests MCQ
19. A group that contains only bio-degradable substances among the following is
MQP2021–
A. polythene, wood, leather B. leather, detergent, plastic
MCQ
C. wood, grass, leather D. paper, bakelite, grass
20. The correct statement with respect to biodegradable substances among the
following. These substances
(A) undergo recycling naturally in the environment
J2021–1
(B) harm various organisms in the ecosystem
(C) increase the density of harmful chemicals in different tropic levels
(D) remain inert in the environment for a long time
21. A student does not use plastic straws given by the shopkeepers while drinking
tender coconut, juice. The measure taken by him related to conservation of
S2021‒1
environment is
(A) Recycle (B) Reuse (C) Reduce (D) Refuse
22. The materials that change slowly their form and structure in the environment are
(A) Plant fibres (B) Peels of vegetables (C) Waste papers (D) Used tea leaves S2021‒1

23. What is the role of decomposer in an ecosystem? MQP2022–

1
24. Write any two differences between biodegradable and non–biodegradable
Substances. MQP2022–
OR 2
Write a grassland food chain and name the different tropic levels in it.
25. “The flow of energy in an ecosystem is unidirectional” How ? Justify. MQP2022–
2
26. Atmospheric layer that absorbs ultraviolet radiations coming from the
sunlight is made up of this molecule, A2022‒1
(A) N2 (B) H2 (C) O3 (D) O2
27. What is the role of decomposers in an ecosystem? A2022‒2
28. What is trophic level? Flow of energy in an ecosystem is always unidirectional.
A2022‒3
Why ? Explain.
29. Primary consumers in any food chain are always J2022–
(A) carnivores (B) herbivores (C) higher carnivores (D) producers. MCQ
30. Nowadays Chlorofluorocarbon ( CFC ) free refrigerators are being manufactured.
J2022–1
Why ?
31. What is ‘biological magnification’ ? J2022–1
32. Mention any two effects of non-biodegradable substances on the
environment.
OR J2022–2
Mention any two methods that reduce the problems caused while disposing
the wastes.

47
 CHAPTER 16 –SUSTAINABLE MANAGEMENT OF NATURAL RESOURCES
01. The watershed management
(A) increases droughts and floods
(B) increases production and income of the watershed community MQP1
(C) decreases the biodiversity of the down-stream reservoirs
(D) increases deforestation
02. “Practice of reuse and recycle of materials will contribute to maintain sustainity of
MQP1 – 2
the environment”. Support this statement with reasons.
03. Method of managing used envelopes: Reuse:: Method of managing fuels: MQP2 –
A) Recycling B) Use for repurpose C) Reduce the use D) Refuse the use MCQ
04. By constructing Khadin check–dams in level terrains:
(A) underground water level decreases
A2019–
(B) underground water level increases
MCQ
(C) vegetation in the nearby areas are destroyed due to excess moisture
(D) underground water gets polluted
05. List the disadvantages of using fossil fuels.
OR A2019–2
List the advantages of ‘reduce’ and ‘reuse’ to save environment.
06. (i) How does combustion of fossil fuels cause greenhouse effect?
(ii) List the reasons for failure in sustaining ground water.
OR J2019 – 3
(i) Reuse of plastic products is better than recycle method. Why?
(ii) “Local people are stakeholders of forest resources.” Explain.
07. The traditional method of sustainable natural resource management is
MQP2020–
A) Following water harvesting method B) Minimising the establishment of factories
MCQ
C) Using fossil fuels abundantly D) Preventing overgrazing of cattle in forest areas
08. What is the meaning of "Repurpose" with respect to conservation of environment? MQP2020–
1
09. Which ancient systems of water harvesting can be rejuvenated? What is the major
advantage of these methods?
MQP2020–
OR
3
Conscious usage of natural resources nowadays is inevitable why? Mention the
reasons.
10. “Building crescent shaped earthen embankment in level terrain is better than the
construction of large dams across the river to store water.” Analyse this statement M2020 – 3
with their effects.
11. Name the poisonous gas produced due to incomplete combustion of fossil fuels. S2020 – 1
12. The watershed management
A. Increases production and income of watershed community
MQP2021–
B. Increases droughts and floods
MCQ
C. Decreases the biodiversity of downstream reservoirs
D. Increases deforestation
13. The main purpose of constructing water harvesting structures is to
A. hold rainwater on the surface of the earth B. use water for irrigation MQP2021–
C. use water for fish farming MCQ
D. recharge the ground water
14. Saving electricity by switching off unnecessary work of lights and fans is an
example of J2021–1
(A) refuse (B) reduce (C) reuse (D) repurpose
15. Which of the following is NOT the advantage of water harvesting structures ?
(A) Recharge the ground water
(B) Water does not evaporate J2021–1
(C) Provide breeding grounds for mosquitoes
(D) Provide moisture for vegetation

48
16. The people who are ‘NOT’ direct stakeholders in the conservation of forest are
(A) the people who have paper mill near the forest
(B) the people who live in urban areas S2021‒1
(C) the people who run the forest department
(D) the people who live in and around the forest

49
 MATCH FOLLOWING
01. Functions of certain structures of nervous system in animals are given in column ‘A’ and
the names of these structures are given in column ‘B’. Match them

MQP1

01. The functions of hormones are given in Column–A and the names of the hormones are
given in Column–B. Match them and write the answer along with its letters:

A2019–4

02. The names of devices are given in Column–A and corresponding functions are given in J2019 –
Column–B. Match them and write the answer along with its letters: 4

50
51
 DIAGRAMS
01. Draw the diagram of an electric motor and label the following parts (i) Split rings (ii)
MQP1 – 2
Armature
02. Draw the diagram of the electric circuit in which the resistors R1, R2 & R3 are
connected in parallel including ammeter and voltmeter and mark the direction of MQP1 – 2
current.
03. Draw the diagram of the arrangement of apparatus to know the reaction of Zinc MQP1 – 2
granules with dilute sulphuric acid and testing hydrogen gas and label the part that MQP2020–
contain zinc granules and sulphuric acid. 2
04. Draw the diagram showing the germination of pollen on stigma and label the
MQP1 – 2
following parts. (i) Stigma (ii) Pollen Tube
05. Draw the ray diagram showing the formation of image when the object is kept
MQP1 – 2
beyond centre of curvature (C) of a concave mirror.
06. Draw the diagram showing the structure of a nephron and label the following parts (i)
MQP1 – 3
Glomerulus (ii) Bowman’s capsule
07. Draw the diagram of the apparatus used to test the conductivity of sodium chloride
solution and label the graphite rod and the part where sodium chloride solution is MQP1 – 3
present.
08. Draw the diagram showing the longitudinal section of a flower. Label the following
A2019–2
parts (i) Style (ii) Anther.
09. Draw the diagram of an electric circuit in which the resistors R1, R2 and R3 are
connected in parallel including an ammeter and a voltmeter and mark the direction A2019–2
of the current.
10. Draw the diagram of the apparatus used in the electrolysis of water. Label the A2019–2
following parts. (i) Graphite rod (ii) Cathode. J2019 – 3
11. Draw the diagram of a simple electric motor. Label the following parts (i) Split rings
A2019–2
(ii) Brushes.
12. Draw the diagram of arrangement of apparatus used to show the reaction of zinc
granules with dilute sulphuric acid and testing hydrogen gas by burning. Label the A2019–2
following parts. (i) Soap solution (ii) Delivery tube.
13. Draw the ray diagrams for the image formation in a convex lens when an object is
A2019–3
placed (i) at focus F1 (ii) beyond 2F1.
14. Draw the diagram showing the sectional view of the human heart. Label the
A2019–3
following parts. (i) Aorta (ii) Chamber of the heart that receives deoxygenated blood.
15. Draw the diagram of the arrangement of apparatus to show the action of steam on a
metal. Label the following parts: J2019 – 3
(i) Metal sample (ii) Delivery tube.
16. Draw the diagram showing opened stomata. Label the following parts:
J2019 – 2
(i) Guard cells (ii) Stomatal pore.
17. Draw the diagram showing the structure of neuron. Label the following parts:
J2019 – 2
(i) The part which has prominent nucleus (ii) Dendrite
18. Draw the diagram showing the germination of pollen on stigma and label the part on
J2019 – 2
which pollination takes place.
19. Draw the circuit diagram showing the combination of resistors R1, R2 and R3 in MQP2020–
parallel including ammeter and voltmeter and mark the direction of current. 2
20. Draw the ray diagram showing the position of the object and image to get the real MQP2020–
inverted image whose size is same as the object using a convex lens. 2
21. Draw the diagram showing the structure of human alimentary canal and label the
following parts. MQP2020–
a) the part which stores bile juice. 4
b) the longest part of the alimentary canal.
22. Draw the diagram showing longitudinal section of a flower and label the part where MQP2020–
pollination takes place. 2

52
23. Draw the diagram of the arrangement of apparatus to show the action of steam on a MQP2020–
metal and label the part where hydrogen is collected. 2
24. Draw the ray diagram showing myopic eye and correction for myopia.
MQP2020–
OR
2
Draw the ray diagram showing the recombination of the spectrum of white light.
25. Draw the diagram of an electric motor and label split rings. MQP2020–
2
26. Draw the diagram showing the structure of human excretory system and label the MQP2020–
part that collects urine. 2
27. Draw the diagram showing longitudinal section of human brain and label the
following parts. MQP2020–
i) Part of hind brain that controls involuntary functions 3
ii) The part that interprets sensory information
28. Draw the diagram of the apparatus to show that acid solution in water conducts
M2020 -2
electricity. Label the following parts i) Dil. HCl solution ii) Rubber cork.
29. Draw the diagram of arrangement of the apparatus to show the reaction of zinc
granules with dilute sulphuric acid and testing hydrogen gas by burning. Label the M2020 – 2
following parts i) Test tube ii) Soap solution.
30. Draw the diagram showing the germination of pollen on stigma and label the pollen
M2020 - 2
tube.
31. Draw the diagram showing the schematic sectional view of the human heart. Label
M2020 – 3
the following parts i) Aorta ii) Pulmonary veins.
32. Draw the ray diagram when the object is kept between F1 and 2F1 of the convex
lens. With the help of the diagram mention the position and nature of the image
M2020 – 3
formed.
[ F1: Principal focus of the lens ]
33. Draw the diagram of a simple electric generator. Label the following parts:
M2020 – 2
i) Brushes ii) Rings.
34. Draw the diagram of the arrangement of apparatus to show that acid solution in
S2020 – 2
water conducts electricity and label the battery.
35. Draw the diagram of the arrangement of apparatus showing the reaction of zinc
granules with dilute sulphuric acid and testing hydrogen gas by burning and label the S2020 – 2
zinc granules.
36. Draw the diagram of the apparatus used in refining of copper from copper sulphate
S2020 – 2
solution. Label the following parts i) Cathode ii) Anode mud.
37. Draw the diagram showing longitudinal section of human brain. Label the following
S2020 – 4
parts a) Mid brain b) Gland which stimulates growth in all organs.
38. Draw the diagram to show the recombination of the spectrum of white light and
label the following parts a) The ray of light that bends the most b) The ray of light S2020 – 3
that bends the least.
39. Draw the schematic diagram of a biogas plant. MQP2022–
2
40. Draw the ray diagram of image formed when the object is kept beyond 2F1 of the
convex lens. With the help of the diagram, mention the position and nature of the
image formed. (F1 : principal focus of the lens)
MQP2022–
OR
3
Draw the ray diagram when of image formed the object is kept beyond C of the
concave mirror. With the help of the diagram mention the position and nature of
the image formed. (C : Centre of curvature of mirror).
41. Draw the diagram of the arrangement of apparatus to show the electrolysis MQP2022–
of water and label the ‘graphite rod’. 2
42. Draw the diagram of arrangement of the apparatus to show the reaction of zinc
MQP2022–
granules with dilute sulphuric acid and testing hydrogen gas by burning. Label
3
the following parts. i) zinc granules ii) soap solution

53
43. Draw the diagram showing the structure of nephron and label bowman’s MQP2022–
capsule. 2
44. Draw the schematic diagram of an electric circuit comprising of electric cell,
A2022‒2
electric bulb, ammeter and plug key.
45. Draw the ray diagram to show the image formation by a convex lens, when the
object is kept at 2F1 of the lens. With the help of the ray diagram mention the A2022‒3
position and nature of the image formed. [F1:Principal focus of the lens]
46. Draw the diagram to show the arrangement of the apparatus used for testing the
A2022‒2
conductivity of salt solution and label ‘graphite rod’.
47. Draw the diagram of arrangement of the apparatus to show the reaction of zinc
granules with dilute sulphuric acid and testing hydrogen gas by burning. Label A2022‒3
the following parts i) Zinc granules ii) Delivery tube.
48. Draw the diagram showing the structure of human excretory system and label
A2022‒2
‘urinary bladder’.
49. Draw the diagram showing the longitudinal section of a flower and label ‘ovary’. A2022‒2
50. Draw the diagram showing the structure of the human brain and label the
following parts :
A2022‒4
i) Cerebrum
ii) Cerebellum.
51. Draw the diagram of a simple electric motor and label ‘Split rings’ ? J2022–2
52. Draw the ray diagram of image formation when the object is kept at 2F1 of the
convex lens. With the help of the ray diagram, mention the position and nature of
the image formed. [F1: Principal focus of the lens ]
OR
J2022–3
Draw the ray diagram of image formation when the object is kept between C and
F of the concave mirror. With the help of the ray diagram mention the position
and the nature of the image formed.
[ F : Principal focus of the mirror, C : Centre of curvature of mirror ]
53. Draw the diagram of the arrangement of apparatus used to show the electrolysis
J2022–2
of water and label the ‘graphite rod’.
54. Draw the diagram of arrangement of the apparatus to show the reaction of
zinc granules with dilute sulphuric acid and testing hydrogen gas by burning.
Label the following parts : J2022–3
i) Zinc granules
ii) Soap solution.
55. Draw the diagram showing the structure of human excretory system and label
J2022–2
‘ureter’.
56 Draw the diagram showing the structure of the human brain and label the
following parts :
J2022–4
i) Cerebellum
ii) Mid-brain.

54