Naan Mudhalvan & AICSCC UPSC Prelims Test Series 2023-24

General Studies (P)- TEST BOOKLET

Indian Polity - Test 01

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

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1
1. Consider the following statements How many of the above is/are the
with respect to Indian Independence federal features of Indian Constitution?
Act, 1947: (a) Only one
1. It abolished the office of Viceroy
(b) Only two
and provided, for each dominion,
a governor general. (c) All three
(d) None
2. Constituent assembly can repeal
this act only with an approval
4. Which among the following terms

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from British parliament.
were added in the Preamble of
Which of the above statements is/are Indian Constitution through
correct?

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42nd Constitutional Amendment Act
(a) 1 only (1976)?
(b) 2 only 1. Secular

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(c) Both 1 and 2 2. Socialist
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Fraternity
2. Consider the following statements with
reference to the amendment of Indian
& 4. Integrity
Select the correct answer using the
an
constitution under Article 368. codes given below
1. Some provisions can be amended (a) 1 and 2 only
through two-thirds majority of (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
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members present and voting, and

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
a majority of the total membership
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(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
of the house.
2. Some provision can be amended 5. Which among the following features
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through special majority as per of Indian constitution ensures that

Article 368, with not less than half the government is accountable to the
of the state ratification.
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people?
3. Some provisions can be amended 1. System of representative
through simple majority. democracy
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How many of the above statements 2. Gram Sabha

is/are correct?
3. Independent judiciary
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(a) Only one

4. Citizen charter
(b) Only two
How many of the above features is/are
(c) All three
correct?
(d) None
(a) Only one
3. Consider the following:
(b) Only two
1. Independent Judiciary
(c) Only three
2. Written constitution
3. All India civil services (d) All four
2
6. Consider the following statements: 1. Ready alternative government
Statement I: 2. Wide Representation
The basic feature of the constitution 3. Stable government
cannot be amended by exercising
4. Harmony between Legislature and
power of amendment under
Executive
Article 368.
How many of the above features is/are
Statement II:
correct?
The term ‘Basic feature’ was defined

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in Keshavananda Bharathi case in (a) Only one
1973. (b) Only two

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Which one of the following is correct in (c) Only three
respect to the above statements?
(d) All four
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II

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are correct and Statement II is the 9. Consider the following statements:
correct explanation for Statement I.
1. In both India and UK, the
(b) Both Statement I and Statement
II are correct and Statement II is
& parliamentary system is based on
the separation of power between
not the correct explanation for
an
Legislature and executive.
Statement-I.
2. In comparison to the British
(c) Statement-I is correct but parliament, the Indian parliament
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Statement II is incorrect. is a sovereign body.

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(d) Statement I is incorrect but 3. In both India and UK, head of the
Statement II is correct. states are indirectly elected.
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7. The ‘Basic Structure’ theory of the Which of the above statements is/are

Indian Constitution implies that correct?

(a) 1 only
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(a) Fundamental rights cannot be

abridged or taken away. (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) Constitution cannot be amended (c) 1 and 3 only
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except in accordance with (d) None of the above

the procedure prescribed in
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Article 368. 10. Which of the following features is

(c) Certain features of the constitution common to both Indian and American
are so essential to it that they Federation?
cannot be abrogated. (a) Single citizenship
(d) None of the above (b) Dual Judiciary

8. Which of the following are the (c) Three lists in the constitution
advantages of parliamentary (d) Independent Judiciary
Democracy?
3
11. Consider the following statements with How many of the above immunities
respect to Fundamental rights in the is/are ensured under Article 14 of the
Indian Constitution: constitution for the President of India?
1. The provisions listed in Part III (a) Only one
of the constitution prohibits (b) Only two
government from taking any
(c) All three
action against individual.
(d) None
2. Unlike ordinary law, it can be
amended only by Constitutional 14. Consider the following pairs:

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amendment under Article 368.
Article Provisions
3. Some provisions in the
1. Article 15 Prohibition of
Fundamental rights cannot be
discrimination on

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amended by parliament.
grounds of religion,
How many of the statement(s) given race, sex, etc.
above is/are correct? 2. Article 22 Protection in respect for

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(a) Only one conviction for offences
(b) Only two 3. Article 20 Protection against
(c) All three arrest and detention in
(d) None & 4. Article 29
certain cases
Rights of minorities to
establish educational
12. Consider the following Rights in the
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Constitution of India: institutions
1. Right to vote How many of the above pairs is/are
correctly matched?
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2. Equal pay for equal work

3. Right to early child hood care (a) Only one pair
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How many of the above rights is/are (b) Only two pairs
mentioned in Part III of the Constitution (c) Only three pairs
of India?
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(d) All four pairs

(a) Only one
15. Which of the following Institutions
(b) Only two
come under the ‘Definition of State’ as
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(c) All three per Article 12 of the Indian constitution?

(d) None 1. Parliament of India
13. Consider the following statements: 2. Legislature of each state
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1. No criminal proceedings can be 3. All local authorities of India

instituted or continued against 4. Any agency of state having
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the President in any court during operation outside India

his term of office. 5. Any private body which is an
2. No process for the arrest or agency of state
imprisonment of the President, 6. Supreme court
shall issue from any court during How many of the above institutions
his term of office. is/are correct?
(a) Only two
3. Except impeachment process, The
President cannot be removed from (b) Only four
his office before the expiry of the (c) Only five
term. (d) All six
4
16. Which of the following rights in India is/ 3. Right to consult and informed
are ensured in both the International which normally applicable for
Covenant on Economic, Social and punitive detention need not
Cultural Rights and the International necessarily being applicable for
Covenant on Civil and Political Rights? Preventive detention.
1. Equality before law
How many of the statement(s) given
2. Freedom of speech and expression above is/are correct?
3. Right to work (a) Only one

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4. Right to food (b) Only two
How many of the above rights is/are (c) All three
correct?

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(d) None
(a) Only one
(b) Only two 19. Which of the following statements

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(c) Ony three ensures checks and balance among
(d) All four various institution with respect to
Indian Polity?
17. Consider the following statements with
respect to Reservation for Economically
& 1. Executive is collectively
responsible to the Lok Sabha
an
Weaker Section (EWS):
1. It was formulated based on 2. Parliament has the power to
the recommendation of Rohini impeach President.
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commission. 3. A law inconsistent with Basic

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2. It is applicable for any person who Structure of the constitution

fall below the poverty line. can be declared null and void by
3. The income standard to identify judiciary.
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EWS is based on the Socio- How many of the statement(s) given

economic census 2021. above is/are correct?
How many of the statements given
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(a) Only one

above statements is/are correct?
(b) Only two
(a) Only one
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(c) All three

(b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None
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(d) None
20. In which among the following Articles,
18. Consider the following statements with where Parliament shall have the power
respect to preventive detention: to make laws but legislature of a State
1. State can suspend “Right to does not have it?
protection against arrest and (a) Article 19
detention” for any person.
(b) Article 22
2. Both Parliament and state
(c) Article 25
Legislature can make law to
enforce Preventive detention. (d) Article 17
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21. Consider the following statements with Which one of the following is correct in
respect to the Animal Birth Control respect of the above statements?
Rules, 2023: (a) Both Statements-I and Statement-II
1. The Rules have been notified by are correct and Statement-II
Ministry of Environment, Forests, is the correct explanation for
and Climate Change. Statement-I
2. The Rules provide guidelines to (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
deal with the human and stray are correct and Statement-II is

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dog conflicts without relocating not the correct explanation for
Statement-I
the dogs in an area.
(c) Statement-I is correct but
Select the correct answer using the
Statement-II is incorrect

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codes given below:
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but
(a) 1 only
Statement-I is correct
(b) 2 only

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(c) Both 1 and 2 24. The National Commission for
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR)
has recently issued guidelines for the
22. The term ‘Pitta megarhyncha’ which
was recently seen in the news, refers to
& assessment of child suspects in heinous
offenses under Juvenile Justice (Care
an
(a) A species of bird that can be found and Protection of Children) Act, 2015.
in a few pockets of eastern India Consider the following statements:
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(b) A new species of bioluminescent 1. The Police headed by rank of not

fungus from the bamboo forests less than DSP, will be responsible
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of Meghalaya for conducting a preliminary

assessment of the child suspect,
(c) A subterranean fish species found
which should be completed within
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in Western Ghats
three months.
(d) A tick-borne disease babesiosis in
2. The Act has categorised the
cattle
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offences committed by children

into three categories - petty
23. Consider the following statements:
offences, serious offences and
Statement-I:
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heinous offences.
Oil production cut by OPEC
3. The juvenile justice board should
(Organization of the Petroleum
have at least one member, who is a
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Exporting Countries) may lead to

practitioner with a degree in child
higher oil import bill which results
psychology or child psychiatry.
in widening of Current account
deficit in India How many of the statements given
above is/are correct?
Statement-II:
India, the third largest oil importing (a) Only one
country, relies on OPEC and its (b) Only two
allied countries for more than 90% (c) All three
of its crude oil needs.
(d) None
6
25. The Government of India has decided 27. Which of the following is/are central
to map and document all villages tenet(s) of the “Freedom of Religion”
under ‘Mera Gaon, Meri Dharohar’ under Fundamental Rights?
(MGMD) Programme. Consider
1. Right to freely profess, practice
the following statements with respect
and propagate any Religion.
this program:
1. Bishnoi village in Rajasthan is 2. Gives official status to certain
mapped under ecological category religions.

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as it acts as a case study for living
3. Religious denomination can own
in harmony with nature.
and acquire property.
2. Modhera in Gujarat is mapped

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under developmental category as Select the correct answer using the
it is the first solar-powered village codes given below?
in India. (a) Only one

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3. Suketi in Himachal Pradesh is (b) Only two
mapped under the historical
(c) All three
category as it has the Asia’s oldest
fossil park.
How many of the statement(s) given
& (d) None
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28. Since independence, many laws have
above is/are correct?
been enacted by the state to give effect
(a) Only one
to the various Directive Principles
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(b) Only two

under Part IV of the Constitution. In
(c) All three
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this context consider the following

(d) None statements:
1. Khadi and Village Industries
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26. Consider the following provisions

under the Directive Principles of State Board gives effect to Article 43.
Policy as enshrined in the Constitution 2. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
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of India.
and the Forest (Conservation)
1. Promotion of International peace Act, 1980, enactments give effect
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2. Organizing Village Panchayats. to Article 49.

3. Promoting Cottage Industries in
3. Article 40 was given effect by 73rd
Rural Areas.
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Constitutional amendment Act

4. Equal justice and free legal aid
How many of the statement(s) given
Which of the above are the Gandhian
Principles that are reflected in the above is/are correct?
Directive Principles? (a) Only one
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only two
(b) 2 and 3
(c) All three
(c) 3 and 4
(d) None
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
7
29. With reference to the amendments of Which of the statements given above is
the Directive principles, consider the are correct?
following provisions: (a) 1 only
1. To promote formation and (b) 2 Only
development of cooperative (c) Both 1 and 2
societies (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Encourage settlement of
32. Which of the following statements in
International disputes by

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the context of the Fundamental Duties
arbitration
is not correct?
3. To minimize inequalities in (a) It is a duty to protect the
income, status, facilities, and sovereignty, unity, and integrity of

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opportunities. India.
How many of the above directive (b) It helps the courts in examining
principles were added through

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the constitutional validity of law.
constitutional amendment acts? (c) Like fundamental rights,
(a) Only one fundamental duties can be

(b)
(c)
Only two
All three
& extended to foreigners, if they are
living in India.
(d) It is a duty for all parents to send
an
(d) None their children in the age group of
6-14 years to school
30. In which of the following landmark
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cases, the Supreme Court described 33. Which one of the following is not a part
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that the Indian Constitution is founded of Fundamental Duties under Indian

on the bedrock of the balance between Constitution?
Fundamental Rights and Directive (a) To cherish and follow the noble
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Principles of State Policy? ideals which inspired our national

struggle for freedom
(a) State of Madras vs. Champakam
(b) To value and preserve the rich
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Dorairajan
heritage of our composite culture
(b) Minerva Mills vs. Union of India (c) To protect the rights of cultural,
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(c) Kesavananda Bharati vs State of linguistic, and religious minorities,

Kerala by enabling them to conserve their
heritage
(d) Vineet Narain vs. Union of India
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(d) To protect and improve the natural

31. Consider the following statements with environment including forests,
respect to Swaran Singh Committee: lakes, rivers and wild life.
1. All the fundamental duties in the
34. Right to information is
Article 51A of Indian Constitution
(a) Fundamental Right
were recommended by it. (b) Legal right
2. It suggested to impose penalty (c) Neither fundamental right nor
for the non-performance of legal right
Fundamental Duties. (d) Both Fundamental and Legal right
8
35. Which of the following statements with (b) Both Statement I and Statement II
regard to the Preamble of the Indian are correct and Statement II is
Constitution is/are correct? not the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
1. ‘Equality before law’ and ‘equality
of opportunity’ find mention in the (c) Statement-I is correct but
Preamble. Statement II is incorrect.

2. The Preamble states the objectives (d) Statement I is incorrect but

which the Constitution seeks to Statement II is correct.

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establish and promote. 38. Consider the following statements with
3. The purpose of adding ‘Socialist’ respect to National minorities:
and ‘Secular’ in preamble is to 1. The constitution of India

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make it Justiciable. recognizes only Religious and
How many of the statement(s) given linguistic minorities.
above is/are correct? 2. Provisions enshrined under Article

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(a) Only one 29 of the Indian Constitution
applicable only for minorities in
(b) Only two
India.
(c)
(d)
All three
None
& 3. The 42nd amendment Act 1976,
ensures immunity for minority
an
institution from compulsory
36. Which judgment led to the inference
acquisition of property.
that the right to education is a
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fundamental right? How many of the statements given

above statements is/are correct?
(a) Kesavananda Bharati case
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(a) Only one

(b) Mohini Jain case
(b) Only two
(c) Minerva Mills case
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(c) All three

(d) Golaknath case
(d) None
37. Consider the following statements:
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39. With reference to Directive Principles

Statement I:
of State Policy (DPSP), consider the
Dr. Ambedkar had described following features:
an

Article 32 of the Constitution as the

1. Welfare state
very soul of it.
2. Economic democracy
Statement II:
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3. Social democracy
Article 32 provides an effective
4. Political democracy
remedy against the violation of
fundamental rights. How many of the above features is/are
the aim of DPSP?
Which one of the following is correct in
(a) Only one
respect to the above statements?
(b) Only two
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II
are correct and Statement II is the (c) Only three
correct explanation for Statement I. (d) All four
9
40. With respect to significance of Directive 43. The pharse “The Big Catch-up” was
Principles of State Policy, consider the seen recently in news. Which among
following statements: the following is associated with it?
1. These are justiciable in nature
(a) UNICEF’s program to impart
but not enforceable in the court of
law. quality education to tribal children
for catching up with city/town
2. These are fundamental to the
governance of the country children.

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Which of the above statements are (b) UN Plan to harvest plastic from
correct? the Great Pacific Garbage Patch
(a) 1 only (GPGP).

CS
(b) 2 only (c) Global effort to boost vaccination
(c) Both 1 and 2 among children following declines
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 during COVID-19 pandemic

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41. Recently, hundreds of ‘Hakki Pikki’ (d) New investigations across fields
tribes were stuck in violence-hit of astronomy and cosmology
Sudan. The ‘Hakki Pikki’ tribes belong
to which of the following states/UTs of
India?
& after launch of high-resolution
and high-sensitivity James Webb
an
Space Telescope (JWST).
(a) Andaman and Nicobar islands
(b) Lakshadweep 44. Arrange the following water bodies
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(c) Manipur from south to north direction?

(d) Karnataka 1. Barents Sea
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2. White Sea
42. Which of the following countries are
members of Comprehensive and 3. Baltic Sea
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Progressive Agreement for Trans- 4. Gulf of Bothnia

Pacific Partnership (CPTPP)?
Select the correct answer using the
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1. United States of America

codes given below.
2. Canada
3. Australia (a) 1-2-3-4
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4. Brazil (b) 4-2-1-3

5. Mexico (c) 3-4-2-1
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6 New Zealand (d) 4-3-2-1

7 Brunei
45. The Stockholm Agreement is an accord
Select the correct answer using the
codes given below: between the parties to the conflict in

(a) 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, and 7 only (a) Yemen

(b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only (b) Palestine

(c) 2, 3, 5, 6, and 7 only (c) Sudan

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 only (d) Ethiopia

10
46. With reference to the Government 3. The matter related to national
of India Act of 1853, consider the importance such as Foreign
following statements: Affairs, Defence, Water supply,
1. This act ended the activities of Famine relief came under Central
the East Indian company as a list.
commercial body. How many of the statement(s) given
2. Constitutional position of the above is/are correct?
British territories was explicitly (a) Only one

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defined for the first time. (b) Only two
Which of the statements given above
(c) All three
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (d) None

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(b) 2 only
50. Which among the following Federal
(c) Both 1 and 2
features were enshrined in Government

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(d) Neither 1 nor 2 of India Act 1935?

47. Which of the following acts for the 1. The Crown as head of the state.
first-time separated the executive and 2. Division of subjects between federal
legislative function of the Governor
General council?
& 3.
and provincial governments.
Federal Court to interpret the
an
(a) The Charter Act 1853 provisions of the Act.
(b) Government of India Act 1858 Select the correct answer by using the
(c) Indian Council Act 1861 codes given below:
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(d) Indian Council Act 1892 (a) 3 only

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48. In the context of historical (b) 2 and 3 only

underpinnings of the Indian (c) 1 and 3 only
constitution, which of the following
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(d) 1, 2 and 3
Acts introduced ordinances for the
first time? 51. Which among the following Acts
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(a) Indian Councils Act of 1813 were repealed by Article 395 of the
(b) Indian Councils Act of 1861 Constitution of India?
(c) Government of India Act of 1919 1. The Government of India Act, 1935
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(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947

2. The Indian Independence Act, 1947
49. With reference to Government of 3. The Abolition of Privy Council
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India act-1919, consider the following Jurisdiction Act, 1949

statements:
4. The Government of India Act, 1919
1. The act ensures Gradual
Select the correct answer using the
development of Self-Governing
codes given below.
institutions in British India with a
view to the progressive realisation (a) 1 and 2 only
of responsible Government. (b) 1 and 3 only
2. An Indian member was elected (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
for the first time in the executive
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
council of Governor General.
11
52. Consider the following statements: 55. Consider the following pairs:
1. All members of Constitution
Committees Chairman
Assembly of India were chosen
by the members of the Provincial 1. Committee on the Maulana Azad
Legislative Assemblies from an rights of minorities
undivided India. 2. Union constitution Rajendra
2. As per Cabinet mission plan 1946, committee Prasad
those members who were elected 3. Provincial Vallabhbhai
from territories of Pakistan ceased

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constitution Patel
to be members of the Constituent committee
Assembly.
4. Steering Pandit
Which of the statements given above

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committee Jawaharlal
is/are correct? Nehru
(a) 1 only
Which of the above pairs is/are correct?

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(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) Only one pair

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Only two pairs

53. The Indian Independence act, 1947

mainly implemented based on the
& (c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs
an
provisions of
(a) Mountbatten Plan 56. Consider the following statements with
respect to Princely states in Undivided
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(b) Cabinet mission

India:
(c) Cripps mission
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(d) August declaration 1. It can free to join either India or

Pakistan or remain independent if
54. Consider the following pairs:
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they so wished.
Constitutional Borrowed 2. Hyderabad was the first Princely
Provisions Sources state announced that the state had
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1. Emergency Germany decided to remain independent.

Provisions
2. The idea of Canada 3. Manipur was the first princely
an

Residual power state as a part of India to hold an

3. Procedure USSR election based on universal adult
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established by law franchise.

4. Law making Government of How many of the statement(s) given
procedure India act 1935
above is/are correct?
How many of the above pairs are
(a) Only one
correctly matched?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(b) Only two (c) All three
(c) Only three (d) None
(d) All four
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57. Consider the following statements: (a) Government has supreme right
1. Bicameralism to make decision with cabinet
as well as elected head of the
2. Collective responsibility
Government.
3. Constitutional amendment
(b) People have supreme right to make
Which of the following provisions in decision with elected government
Indian parliament resembles British as well as elected head of the state.
Parliament?
(c) People have supreme right to
(a) Only one make decision by ensuring stable

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(b) Only two government as well as elected
(c) All three head of the state.
(d) None (d) None of the above

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58. In the following quotation: 60. In the context of the basic philosophy
of Indian constitution, which of the
“WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having

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following is/are the functions of it?
solemnly resolved to constitute India
1. It enables the government to
into a “A Socialist Secular Democratic
create conditions for a just society.
Republic” and to secure to all its B:
JUSTICE,
political;
social, economic and & 2. It specifies who has powers to
make decisions in a society.
3. It sets some Limits on the powers
an
LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, of the government.
faith and worship; How many of the above statements is/
are correct?
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EQUALITY of status and of opportunity;

and to promote among them all; (a) Only one
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(b) Only two

FRATERNITY assuring the dignity
of the individual and the unity and (c) All three
integrity of the C; (d) None
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In our Constituent Assembly this ‘D’ 61. With reference to Mahila Samman
do hereby adopt, enact and give to Savings Certificate Scheme
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ourselves this Constitution.” (MSSC), which among the following

‘A, B, C, D’ stands for statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) Independent, Citizen, India, 1. It is launched by Ministry of
an

26 December 1949 Finance to commemorate the

Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav, aimed
(b) Sovereign, People, nation,
at encouraging women investors.
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26 November 1949
2. Women above 18 years of age only
(c) Independent, Citizen, nation,
can open an account under this
26 January 1950 scheme.
(d) Sovereign, Citizen, nation, Select the correct answer using the
26 November 1949 codes given below:

59. Which of the following statements best (a) 1 only

reflect the objectives of “Sovereign (b) 2 only
Democratic Republic” in the Preamble (c) Both 1 and 2
of India? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
13
62. With reference to the Laser 3. It will observe large ocean-bearing
Interferometer Gravitational Wave- Jupiter’s moons – Ganymede,
Observatory (LIGO), which of the Calisto and Europa.
following statements is incorrect? Select the correct answer using the
(a) LIGO - India is being funded by codes given below:
the Department of Atomic Energy (a) 1 and 2 only
and Department of Science and (b) 2 and 3 only
Technology.
(c) 1 and 3 only
(b) One of the aims of LIGO mission

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(d) 1, 2 and 3
is to study the cosmic sources
simultaneously over a wide range 65. With reference to the World
of the electromagnetic spectrum. Meteorological Organisation’s (WMO)

CS
(c) It will help in observing the Report “Global Sea-level Rise and
phenomenon of the explosion of Implications”, consider the following
giant stars, the collision of ultra- statements:

AI
dense dead stars and the coming 1. Indian Ocean is the fastest
together of black holes.
warming ocean in terms of surface
(d) It validated the existence of warming.
gravitational waves which Einstein
has predicted in his general theory
& 2. During the period of 1971-2018,
50% of sea level rise was due to
of relativity.
an
thermal expansion.
63. The term ‘Plastiglomerates’, which is 3. The sea level will seize to rise
sometimes seen in the news refers to: if global heating is limited to
lv

(a) It is an eco-friendly plastics 1.5 degrees (Celsius over pre-

designed to degrade rapidly in industrial levels).
ha

natural environments. How many of the statement(s) given

(b) It is a new type of biodegradable above is/are correct?
ud

material created from recycled (a) Only one

plastics. (b) Only two
(c) It is a type of volcanic rock formed (c) All three
M

from molten plastic and lava. (d) None

(d) It is a rock made of a mixture
of sedimentary grains, natural 66. In the context of Indian polity, the term
an

debris that is held together by ‘equality’ means

plastic. (a) Absence of special privileges to
any section of the society
Na

64. With reference to European Space

Agency (ESA)’s Jupiter Icy Moons (b) All human beings should entrust
Explorer (JUICE) Mission, consider the same respect and identical
following statements: treatment.
1. This is the first time that the ESA (c) Absence of special privileges
has sent a spacecraft beyond the and adequate opportunity for all
asteroid belt. without discrimination
2. The Spacecraft will complete (d) Ensuring a sense of respect and
fly-bys of Venus, Earth, and the reverence towards fellow men
Earth-Moon system. equally.
14
67. Consider the following statements: 69. With reference to integration of princely
Statement-I: states with Union of India, consider
following states:
Parliament has power to alter
the territory of any state or union 1. Hyderabad
territory without concurrence of it. 2. Kashmir
Statement-II: 3. Junagadh
To alter the boundary of any state, 4. Travancore
the majority of more than 50% of

CC
Which of the above state(s) was/were
the then members of the house are integrated through Police action?
required for parliament approval.
(a) Only one
Which one of the following is correct in

CS
(b) Only two
respect to the above statements?
(c) All three
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II
(d) None

AI
are correct and Statement II is the
correct explanation for Statement I. 70. Under Article 3 of the Indian
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II Constitution, Parliament may by law:
are correct and Statement II is
not the correct explanation for
& 1. Form a new State by separation of
territory from any State
Statement-I.
an
2. Diminish the area of any State
(c) Statement-I is correct but
3. Alter the boundaries of any State
Statement II is incorrect.
lv

4. Admission or establishment of
(d) Statement I is incorrect but
Statement II is correct. new States
ha

How many of the above statement(s)

68. Which among the following statements is/are correct?
is incorrect regarding evolution of
ud

Indian state and territories? (a) Only one

(a) State reorganization commission (b) Only two

M

1956 rejected the theory of One (c) Only three

language – one state (d) All four
(b) Maharashtra-Nagaland-Himachal
an

Pradesh – Manipur is the correct 71. Consider the following statements:

chronological order of the Statement-I
formation of the following States
Na

The citizenship act 1955 provide for

as full states of the Indian Union
the ways to acquisition as well as
(c) Andhra was established as termination of Citizenship.
the first state based on the
Statement-II
recommendation of State
reorganization Act 1956. Constitution of India empower
parliament to make any provision
(d) Both Dhar commission and JVP
with respect to the acquisition and
committee rejected reorganization
termination of citizenship and all
of state on the basis of linguistic
factor. other matter relating to it.
15
 Which one of the following is correct in 74. With reference to the termination
respect to the above statements? of Indian Citizenship, consider the
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II following statements:
are correct and Statement II is the 1. It can occur when an Indian
correct explanation for Statement I. citizen voluntarily acquires the
citizenship of foreign country.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II
2. It requires approval of the
are correct and Statement II is
President.
not the correct explanation for
Statement-I. 3. It cannot be challenged in court.

CC
How many of the above statements are
(c) Statement-I is correct but
correct?
Statement II is incorrect.
(a) Only one
(d) Statement I is incorrect but
(b) Only two

CS
Statement II is correct.
(c) All three
72. With reference to The Citizenship (d) None
(Amendment) Act, 2019, consider the

AI
75. Consider the following statements with
following statements:
respect to National Population Register
1. The provisions on citizenship for (NPR)
illegal migrants under the act,
will not apply to the tribal areas
of Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram or
& 1. It is a list of usual residents of the
country, who has been residing
in a local area for at least the last
an
Tripura. six months, or intends to stay in a
2. The act excludes the Inner Line particular location for the next six
Permit areas from its ambit. months.
lv

Select the correct answer using the 2. NPR is being prepared under
provisions of the Citizenship
ha

codes given below:

(a) 1 only Act 1955
Which of the statement(s) given above
(b) 2 only
ud

is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 only
M

(c) Both 1 and 2

73. Regarding the Significance of
citizenship, consider the following (d) Neither 1 nor 2
statements: 76. Consider the following Articles in the
an

1. Grants individuals access to social Indian Constitution:

and political rights. 1. Article 19
Na

2. Ensures equal protection under 2. Article 25

the law. 3. Article 29
3. Promotes national unity and 4. Article 44
identity.
How many of the above Articles is/
How many of the above statements is/ are related to the ideal “Fraternity” in
are correct? preamble?
(a) Only one (a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) All three (c) Only three
(d) None (d) All four
16
77. The ideal ‘Secularism’ in India ensures 80. Which of the following actions taken by
which among the following: the Government best reflects the ideal
1. Strategy of Distancing ‘Secularism’ in the Indian Preamble?
2. Strategy of Non-interference 1. Ensuring religious freedom of
3. Strategy of Intervention individual in Fundamental Rights
Select the correct answer using the of the constitution
codes given below: 2. Assuring status of religious

CC
(a) 1 and 2 only minorities to the certain section of
(b) 1 only the community.

CS
(c) 2 and 3 only 3. Encouraging state supported
(d) 1,2 and 3 religious reform by abolishing
certain inhumane practice in the

AI
78. Which among the following best reflects society.
the nature of Preamble in the Indian How many of the statement(s) given
Constitution? above is/are correct?
(a) It is justiciable
enforceable.
and legally & (a) Only one
an
(b) Only two
(b) It is justiciable but not legally
enforceable. (c) All three
lv

(c) It is non justiciable but legally (d) None

enforceable.
ha

81. Consider the following statements with

(d) It is non justiciable and not legally
respect to Tuberculosis (TB).
enforceable.
ud

1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis (TB

79. In which among the following parts causing bacteria) can attack
of Indian Constitution, the ideals and any part of the body.
M

objectives of the Preamble have been

2. About one fourth of all the people
further elaborated?
in the world are infected with TB.
an

1. Part III of the Indian Constitution

3. Bedaquiline is an oral medication
2. Part IV of the Indian Constitution used to treat active multi-drug-
Na

3. Part IV-A of the Indian Constitution resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB).

How many of the above statement(s) How many of the statement(s) given
is/are correct? above is/are correct?

(a) Only One (a) Only one

(b) Only two (b) Only two

(c) All three (c) All three

(d) None (d) None

17
82. Consider the following statements: Statement II:
Statement-I: Using the powers in the above-
United Nations’ water conference mentioned Article, the Supreme
Court can transfer trial of cases from
had recently been held in New York,
one state to another in exceptional
USA
circumstances.
Statement-II:
Which one of the following is correct in
United Nations’ water conference
respect of the above statements?

CC
is based on SDG 4, which aims to
(a) Both Statements-I and Statement-II
provide clean water and sanitation
are correct and Statement-II
for everyone by 2030.
is the correct explanation for

CS
Which one of the following is correct in Statement-I
respect to the above statements?
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II

AI
are correct and Statement-II is
are correct and Statement II is the
not the correct explanation for
correct explanation for Statement I.
Statement-I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II
are correct and Statement II is
not the correct explanation for
& (c) Statement-I is correct
Statement-II is incorrect
but
an
Statement-I. (d) Statement-I is incorrect but
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-I is correct
Statement II is incorrect.
lv

(d) Statement I is incorrect but 85. With reference to the ‘Wagner group’,
ha

Statement II is correct. consider the following statements:

1. Wagner is an active group in the
83. Which of the following seas is/are not
Central African Republic (CAR),
ud

a part of Pacific Ocean?

Libya, Mali, and Sudan.
1. Sulu Sea
2. Arafura Sea 2. It has provided security services
M

3. Kara Sea and paramilitary assistance

and launched disinformation
4. Laptev Sea
campaigns for troubled regimes.
Select the correct option from the codes
an

given below: 3. This group has been designated

(a) 1 and 3 only as a terrorist group recently by
Na

(b) 2 and 4 only Russia as a fallout of Russia-

(c) 1 and 2 only Ukraine war.
(d) 3 and 4 only How many of the statements given
above statements is/are correct?
84. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: (a) Only one

Article 131 of Constitution of India (b) Only two

confers special powers on the (c) All three
Supreme Court of India with respect
(d) None
to its Original Jurisdiction.
18
86. Which two Articles of Directive Which one of the following is correct in
Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) have respect to the above statements?
been given precedence over Article 14 (a) Both Statement I and Statement II
and Article 19 of Fundamental Rights? are correct and Statement II is the
(a) Article 36 and Article 40 correct explanation for Statement I.
(b) Article 49 and Article 51 (b) Both Statement I and Statement
(c) Article 44 and Article 48 A II are correct and Statement II is

CC
(d) Article 39 (b) and Article 39 (c) not the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
87. How do Fundamental Rights and (c) Statement-I is correct but

CS
Fundamental Duties complement each Statement II is incorrect.
other?
(d) Statement I is incorrect but
1. Fundamental Rights ensure
Statement II is correct.

AI
the individual’s freedom, while
Fundamental Duties encourage 89. With respect to writs, consider the
responsible citizenship. following statements:
2. Fundamental Rights protect the
& 1. The Supreme Court can issue
individual from the state, while writs only for the enforcement of
an
Fundamental Duties promote fundamental rights
social harmony.
2. High court can issue writs not
lv

3. Both promote a balance between only for the enforcement of

ha

individual rights and social Fundamental Rights but also for

responsibility. any other legal right.
How many of the above statements is/
ud

Which of the above statements is/are

are correct?
correct?
(a) Only one
(a) 1 only
M

(b) Only two

(b) 2 only
(c) All three
(c) Both 1 and 2
an

(d) None
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
88. With reference to Right to Property,
Na

consider following statements 90. In the K.S. Puttaswamy (Privacy) case,

Statement I: the Supreme Court held that the right
to privacy is:
It is not a fundamental right, but a
legal right. (a) Absolute and unconditional
Statement II: (b) Sacrosanct in nature
It was omitted from fundamental (c) Applicable only to citizens
rights through 42nd Constitutional
(d) Limited to specific contexts
amendment 1976.
19
91. Consider the following statements 94. Arrange the following Judgements/
with respect to impact of Fundamental Amendments in the chronological
Rights on governance: order?
1. Complete restriction on (a) 24th Amendment Act – Minerva
the executive powers of the mills case – 42nd amendment act
government. – Keshavanadha Bharathi case.
(b) 24th amendment – Minerva mills
2. Provides a framework for just and
case - 42nd amendment Act -
equitable laws. Keshavanadha Bharathi case.

CC
3. Promotes transparency and (c) 24th amendment act-
accountability in government Keshavandha Bharathi case-
institutions. 42nd amendment act- Minerva
mills case.
Which of the following statements is/

CS
are correct? (d) Minerva mills case - 24th
amendment act - Keshavanadha
(a) 1 only Bharathi case - 42nd amendment

AI
(b) 1 and 2 only Act.
(c) 2, and 3 only 95. Which one of the following is/are the
(d) 1, 2, and 3 objective of “protection in Respect of

92. With reference to article 14 of the

Indian Constitution, consider following
& conviction for offences”?
1. To ensure equality before law and
equal protection of law
an
statements: 2. To ensure fair trial in court for
1. The concept of ‘equality before both criminal and civil cases
law’ is of American origin while
lv

3. To get complete immunity from

the concept of ‘equal protection of arrest and detention
ha

laws’ is of British origin. 4. Courts can exercise Writ against

2. The concept of ‘equality before state.
law’ is an element of the concept Select the correct answer using the
ud

of ‘Rule of Law’. codes given below?

Which of the statements given above (a) Only one
is/are correct? (b) Only two
M

(a) 1 only (c) Only three

(b) 2 only (d) All four

an

(c) Both 1 and 2 96. Which among the following provisions

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 falls under the purview of Article 21 of
the Constitution:
Na

93. In the context of fundamental rights, 1. Right to health and medical aid
Prohibition of discrimination on the 2. Right to Pollution free environment
ground of religion etc. of the Indian
3. Right to Privacy
Constitution is classified under
4. Right to go abroad
(a) The Right to Freedom of Religion
How many above rights is/are correct?
(b) The Right to life and Liberty (a) Only one
(c) The Cultural and Educational (b) Only two
Rights (c) Only three
(d) The Right to Equality (d) All four
20
97. The 86th Constitutional Amendment 99. With reference to writs, consider the
Act of 2002 has brought amendment following statements:
in which among the following parts of 1. The writ of habeas corpus can
the Indian Constitution: be issued only against public
1. Fundamental Rights authorities.

2. Fundamental duties 2. Mandamus cannot be issued

against a private individual.
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Certiorari can be issued even
4. Centre state relations

CC
against administrative authorities.
In how many provisions, new articles How many of the statements given
were added? above is/are correct?

CS
(a) Only one (a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) Only two
(c) Only three (c) All three

AI
(d) All four (d) None

98. Which one of the following statements 100. Consider the following provisions
is incorrect with respect to Martial
law in India?
& inserted under 42nd Amendment
Act 1976:
an
1. State to provide legal aid to the
(a) The term Martial law is not defined
poor
anywhere in the constitution of
2. Participation of workers in the
India
lv

management of Industry
(b) The basis for declaring martial law
3. Equal pay for equal work
ha

is similar for both the Proclamation

Which of the above provisions reflects
of a national emergency and the
the Socialist principle of Directive
provisions outlined in Article 34.
ud

principles of state policy?

(c) The act of indemnity made by the (a) Only one
Parliament cannot be challenged (b) Only two
M

in any court on the ground of

(c) All three
contravention of fundamental
(d) None
rights
an

(d) None of the above

Na

21