Cuet Ug Ib

CONTENT PAGE NO.
List of Abbreviations 4
Important Information and Dates at a Glance 5
Chapter-1 INTRODUCTION 12
1.1 About National Testing Agency (NTA)
1.2 About Central Universities
1.3 About CUET (UG) - 2024
1.4 Role of NTA
Chapter-2 EXAMINATION SCHEME 14
2.1 Mode of Examination
2.2 Medium of Examination
2.3 Scheme of Examination
2.4 Pattern of Question Paper
2.5 Tests / Subjects covered under CUET (UG) – 2024
2.6 Duration of Test
2.7 Syllabus of Test
Chapter-3 Eligibility 17
3.1 Eligibility
3.2 List of Qualifying Exam
3.3 Year of Appearance in Qualifying Examination
Chapter-4 Reservation 19
4.1 Reservations
4.2 Provisions relating to persons with disability
4.3 Facilities for PwBD Candidates to appear in the Exam
4.4 Services of a Scribe
Chapter-5 Choice of Cities 22
Chapter-6 Admit Card 23
Chapter-7 Schedule of Examination 24
Chapter-8 Fields of Online Application Form 25
Chapter-9 Important Instructions for the Candidates 30
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Chapter-10 Unfair Means Practices and breach of Examination Rules 32
10.1 Definition
10.2 Punishment for Using Unfair Means practices
10.3 Cancellation of Result
Chapter-11 Barred Items and Dress Code 34
11.1 Barred Items
11.2 Dress Code
Chapter-12 Display of Answer Key for Challenge 35
12.1 Display of Answer Key Challenge
12.2 Display of Recorded Responses
12.3 Marking Scheme of Examination
12.4 Use of Scores of CUET (UG) – 2024 by other Organizations
Chapter-13 CUET (UG) – 2024 Score and Admissions 37
13.1 CUET (UG) – 2024 NTA Score
13.2 Re-evaluation/ Re-checking of Result
13.3 Admissions
Chapter-14 Miscellaneous 38
14.1 Correspondence with NTA
14.2 Weeding Out Rules
14.3 Legal Jurisdiction
14.4 RTI
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S. No. Annexure Particulars Page No.
No.
1. I Disability Certificate Form-PwBD (IV) 39
2. II Letter of undertaking using own Scribe 40
S. No. Appendix Particulars Page No.

No.
1. I List of Central Universities 41
2. II List of Languages/ Subjects/ General Test offered under 43
CUET (UG) – 2024
3. III List of Examination Cities for CUET (UG) - 2024 45
4. IV Procedure for Online Payment of Fees and Helpline for 55
Payment-Related Queries
5. V Computer Based Test (CBT) Guidelines 58
6. VI Procedure to be adopted for compilation of NTA Score 64
for Multi Shifts Papers
7. VII How to fill in the OMR Answer Sheet 73 - 75
8. VIII Replica of the online Application Form of CUET (UG) - 76 - 87
2024
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CBT Computer Based Test
CU Central University
CUET Common University Entrance Test
EWS Economically Weaker Section
GOI Government of India
MCQ Multiple Choice Question
MoE Ministry of Education
NDA Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA)
NEGP National e-Governance Plan (NeGP)
NTA National Testing Agency
OMR Optical Mark Reader
OBC-NCL Other Backward Classes-Non Creamy Layer
PwBD Persons with Disabilities
RPwBD The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016
SC Scheduled Castes
ST Scheduled Tribes
TPC Test Practice Centre
UPI Unified Payment Interface (UPI)
UR Unreserved
UT Union Territory
UI Under Graduate/Integrated
VLE Village level Entrepreneur
OCI Overseas Citizen of India
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IMPORTANT INFORMATION AND DATES AT A GLANCE
(Please refer to Information Bulletin / University/ Institution /
Organization Websites for details
Important Dates and Fee Details for Common University Entrance Test (UG) - 2024:
Common University Entrance Test (CUET (UG) – 2024) will be conducted in 13 mediums
across India for admission into the Undergraduate Programmes in Computer Based Test
(CBT) mode for all the Central Universities (CUs) and participating Universities in India for
the academic year 2024-25.
Online Submission of Application 27 February to 26 March 2024
Form (up to 11:50 P.M.)
Last date of successful transaction of
26 March 2024
fee through Credit/Debit Card/Net-
(up to 11:50 P.M.)
Banking/UPI
28 March to 29 March 2024
Correction in Particulars
(Up to 11:50 P.M.)
Announcement of the City of
30 April 2024 onwards*
Examination
Downloading Admit Cards from the
The second week of May 2024*
NTA website
Date of Examination Between 15 May 2024 and 31 May 2024*
Display of Recorded Responses and

To be announced later on the website
Answer Keys
www.nta.ac.in,
Website(s)
https://exams.nta.ac.in/CUET-UG/
Declaration of Result on the NTA
30 June 2024*
website
*The date(s) may vary depending on the National Election Schedule.
For CUET (UG) – 2024, fees will be charged based on the number of subjects chosen by the
candidates. The following fee structure is applicable for CUET (UG) - 2024:
CUET (UG) - 2024
Category
Up to 03 Subjects For each Additional Subject
General (UR) ₹ 1000/- ₹ 400/- (each)
OBC)- (NCL) / EWS ₹ 900/- ₹ 375/- (each)
SC/ST/PwBD/ Third gender ₹ 800/- ₹ 350/- (each)
Centres outside India ₹ 4500/- ₹ 1800/- (each)
*Other Backward Classes-Non Creamy Layer as per the central list of Other Backward Classes available on National
Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), Government of India website www.ncbc.nic.in. Only the candidates falling
in this list may mention OBC in the Category Column. State list OBC candidates who are not in OBC-NCL (Central List)
must choose General/Unreserved.
**As per the OM No. 20013/01/2018-BC-II dated 17 January 2019, issued by the Ministry of Social Justice and
Empowerment and the OM No. 12-4/2019-U1 dated 17.01.2019 of MHRD Department of Higher Education regarding
t h e implementation of reservation for Economically Weaker Section (EWS) for admission in Central Educational
Institutions.
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Broad features of CUET (UG) - 2024 are as follows:
Mode of the Test Hybrid Mode (Computer-Based Test/Pen & Paper)

Test Pattern Objective type with Multiple Choice Questions
13 languages (Assamese, Bengali, English, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada,
Medium Malayalam, Marathi, Punjabi, Odia, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu)
Language Subjects: Language to be tested through Reading
Comprehension (based on different types of passages–Factual,
Literary, and Narrative), Literary Aptitude, and Vocabulary
Domain Subjects: As per the Class 12 syllabus only.
General Test: General Knowledge, Current Affairs, General Mental
Syllabus Ability, Numerical Ability, Quantitative Reasoning (Simple application
of basic mathematical concepts arithmetic/algebra
geometry/mensuration/statistics), Logical and Analytical Reasoning
Registration Registration will be online at https://exams.nta.ac.in/CUET-UG/
Note:
i. 40 out of 50 questions are to be attempted in all subjects including

languages. The duration of the test will be of 45 minutes duration.
ii. Except in subjects i.e., Accountancy, Economics, Physics, Computer

Science / Informatics Practices, Chemistry, Mathematics / Applied
Mathematics and General Test, the duration of the test will be 60 minutes.
The idea behind conducting CUET-UG in hybrid mode is to provide more test centres nationwide so
that candidates from less urbanized regions can participate in the examination closer to their homes.
This inclusivity promotes equal opportunities for all, ensuring that geographical constraints do not
hinder students' educational aspirations in rural and remote areas. Additionally, the hybrid mode
acknowledges the importance of adapting to diverse testing environments.
Candidates are requested to fill in the Application Form very carefully.

(a) The fee can be submitted only online through Net Banking/Credit Card/Debit Card/UPI.
Processing charges and GST as applicable are chargeable from the candidate (in addition to the
examination fee) by the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway Integrator. For details/procedure,
please see Appendix-IV.
(b) The Confirmation Page of the online Application Form will be generated only after the
successful payment of the fee by the Candidate. In case the Confirmation Page is not
generated after payment of the fee, then the candidate may have to approach the concerned
Bank/Payment Gateway (in the helpline numbers and email given in Appendix-IV to ensure the
successful payment or to obtain the refund of duplicate /multiple payments.
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(c) In case the confirmation page is not generated fees may have to be paid once again to ensure the
successful generation of the confirmation page.
1. Candidates must carefully read the Instructions (including how to fill up the Application
Form online) given in the Information Bulletin available on the NTA Website. Candidates
not complying with the instructions shall be summarily disqualified.
2. Candidates should apply for CUET (UG) - 2024 through the “Online” mode only. The
Application Form in any other mode will not be accepted.
3. Submission of the Application Form could be made by the candidate online through the
NTA website: https://exams.nta.ac.in/CUET-UG/
4. Instructions for filling Online Application Form:
 Before starting to fill the application form candidates are advised to read the Prospectus
displayed on the website of the University/ies where admission is sought and be clear about
the courses offered by them, seats available, eligibility as regards age, passing/appearing
in qualifying exam, minimum marks in the qualifying exam, relaxation thereof,
reservation, admission procedure, etc. before applying for the CUET (UG) - 2024, as
Universities have their own specific requirements for admission to specified courses. NTA
will not entertain the corrections sent by the candidate through Post/Fax/WhatsApp/E-
mail/by Hand.
 Download the Information Bulletin and Replica of the Application Form. Read these
carefully to ensure your eligibility
 Follow the steps given below to Apply Online:
Step 1: Registration Form:

Register for the Online Application Form and note down the system- generated
Application Number. The candidate should supply the required details while filling the
Online Application Form and is also required to create a PASSWORD choose Security
Question and enter his/her Answer. After successful submission of the personal details, an
Application number will be generated and it will be used to complete the remaining Steps
of the Application Form and will also be required for all future reference/correspondence.
For subsequent logins, the candidate will be able to login directly with the respective system-
generated Application Number and created Password.
Step 2: Application Form:

The Candidates can log in with the system-generated Application Number and pre-created
Password for completing the Application Form including filling up personal details,
providing the details of educational qualification, university/ programme selection, test
paper details, choosing the Examination Cities, and uploading the images and documents (if
any)
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Upload Scanned Images of the Candidate’s Photograph and Signature.
i. The recent photograph should be either in colour or black and white with 80% face
(without mask) visible including ears against a white background.
ii. The scanned photograph and signature should be in JPG/JPEG format (clearly legible).
iii. The size of the scanned photograph should be between 10 kb to 200 kb (clearly
visible).
iv. The size of the scanned signature should be between 04 kb to 30 kb (clearly legible).
v. PwD Certificate
[Note: The Candidate has to upload only his/her own photograph, signature, and PwD
Certificate wherever applicable, as mentioned above (and not of anybody else) in a
correct/proper manner. In case, it is found at any time in the future that the Candidate has
used/uploaded the photograph, signature, and certificate(s) of someone else in his/her
Application Form, or he/she has tampered with his/her Admit Card/Result/Scorecard,
these acts of the candidate shall be treated under Unfair Means (UFM) Practices and
actions taken as detailed under the provisions of the Information Bulletin relating to
Unfair Means Practices.
Please check your photograph and signature before submission of the Application Form.
In case the photograph or signature is blurred or not visible to identify the identity of the
candidate then, the application will be rejected and no option for correction or revision
will be permitted.
Step 3: Fee Payment:

After completing Step 1 and Step 2, the candidates have to pay the requisite examination
fee. The fee can be submitted only online through Net Banking, Credit Card, Debit Card, or
UPI. Processing charges and GST as applicable are chargeable to the candidate (in addition
to the examination fee) by the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway Integrator.
The Confirmation Page of the online Application Form will be generated only after
successful payment by the Candidate. In case the Confirmation Page is not generated after
payment of the fee, then the candidate may have to approach the concerned Bank/Payment
Gateway (in the helpline number and e-mail given in the Information Bulletin) to ensure
the successful payment or to obtainthe refund of duplicate/multiple payments].
 Download, save, and print a copy of the Confirmation Page of the Application Form
(which would be downloadable only after the successful remittance of the fee) for future
reference.
 All 3 Steps can be done together or at separate timings. The submission of the Application
of a candidate could be considered as successful and his/her candidature would be confirmed
only on the successful transaction/receipt of the prescribed application fee from him/her.
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5. Candidates shall ensure that the information entered by them in their respective online
Application Forms is correct.
6. Information provided by the candidates in their respective online Application Forms,
like the Name of the Candidate, Contact Details, Address Details, Category, Gender,
PwBD Status, Educational Qualification Details, Date of Birth, Choice of Exam cities,
etc. will be treated as final. Any request for change in such particulars will not be considered
by NTA under any circumstances.
7. All candidates must ensure that they have provided the correct e-mail address and
mobile number.
8. Candidates must ensure that their email address and mobile number to be registered in
their online Application Form are their own, as relevant/important information/
communication will be sent by NTA through e-mail on the registered mail address
and/or through SMS on the registered mobile number only. NTA shall not be
responsible for any non-communication /miscommunication with a candidate in the
email address or mobile number given by him/her other than his/her own.
9. NTA does not edit/modify/alter any information entered by the candidates after
completion of the application process under any circumstances. Any request for
change in information thereafter will not be entertained. Therefore, candidates are
advised to exercise utmost caution before filling up the correct details in the
Application Form.
10. NTA disclaims any liability that may arise to a candidate(s) due to incorrect
information provided by him/her in his/her online Application Form.
11. Candidates are advised to visit the NTA Website (www.nta.ac.in) and check their e-
mails regularly for the latest updates.
12. Candidates shall appear at their own cost at the Examination Centre on the date, shift,
and time indicated on their Admit Cards issued by the NTA in due course through its
Website.
Note:
i. The final submission of the Online Application Form will remain incomplete if Step 3 is not
complete. Such forms will stand rejected and no correspondence on this account will be
entertained.
ii. The entire application process for CUET (UG) - 2024 is online, including uploading of scanned
images/documents, payment of fees, and printing of Confirmation Page, Admit Card, etc.
Therefore, candidates are not required to send/submit any document(s) including the
Confirmation Page to NTA through Post/ Fax/WhatsApp/Email/by Hand.
iii. Usage of Data and Information:
NTA/Government of India can use the data provided by the End Users (test taker in this
case) for training, research and development, analysis, and other permissible purposes (s).
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iv. Candidates will also be required to indicate in their application form the name/s of the
courses opted for. All candidates will be eligible for these courses provided they fulfill
their eligibility requirements and their data will be shared with University/ies, if required,
at a later date, to facilitate the process of their admission there. Hence, candidate/s are
advised to exercise care while filling the application form.
V. Candidates are advised to fill out only one Application Form and to take utmost care while
filling out the mobile number and e-mail address. Candidates are also advised to use the
mobile number and email address that are accessible to them (may be parent/ guardian).
One mobile number and email address can be used for one Application Form only.
However, in the case of twins one mobile can be used for two candidates.
Important Points to Note:
I. Candidates who will be appearing in CUET (UG) - 2024 may participate in the
Counselling/admission process of any University / Institution / Organization even
though they have not applied for that University / Institution / Organization in the
Online Application Form of CUET (UG) – 2024. However, the candidates must
fulfill the eligibility criteria of the Course of the University / Institution /
Organization to which they are seeking admission.
II. Also, the University / Institution / Organization may admit any candidate who has
appeared for CUET (UG) - 2024 irrespective of the fact that the candidate has
chosen that University / Institution / Organization in the online Application Form
of CUET (UG) – 2024. Moreover, the candidate must fulfill the eligibility criteria
for the Course where the admission is being taken.
For any queries/ clarifications, candidates can also Email/call at the NTA Helpdesk:
Email ID [email protected]
Contact Number 011- 40759000 / 011-69227700
Note:
1. All Candidates shall ensure that the information (like his/her name, mother’s name,
father’s name, gender, date of birth, category, PwBD status, mobile number, e-mail
address, photograph and signature, choice of cities for exam Centre, etc.) provided by
them in their online Application Form is correct and is their own.
2. Candidates are advised to read the Prospectus displayed on the website of the
University/ies where admission is sought and be clear about the courses offered
by them, seats available, eligibility as regards to age, passing/appearing in
qualifying exams, minimum marks in the qualifying exam, relaxation thereof,
reservation, admission procedure, etc applicable and be clear before applying
for the CUET (UG) - 2024, as Universities have their own specific requirements
for admission to specified courses. NTA will not entertain the corrections sent by
the candidate through Post/Fax/WhatsApp/E-mail/by Hand.
3. In case it is found at any time in the future that the Candidate has used/uploaded the
photograph, signature, and certificate(s) of someone else in his/ her Application
Form/Admit Card or he/she has tampered with his/her Admit Card/result, it would be
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treated as Unfair Means (UFM) Practices on his/her part and the actions will be taken
under the provisions of Unfair Means Practices, as detailed in the Information Bulletin.
4. Candidates are NOT allowed to carry Instruments, Geometry or Pencil box,
Handbag, Purse, any kind of Paper/ Stationery/ Textual material (printed or
written material), Eatables and Water (loose or packed), Mobile Phone/
Earphone/ Microphone/ Pager, Calculator, DocuPen, Slide Rules, Log Tables,
Camera, Tape Recorder, Electronic Watches with facilities of calculator, any
metallic item or electronic gadgets/ devices in the Examination Hall/Room.
5. Candidates are advised to keep visiting the NTA website and the University /
Institution / Organization website(s) (to which the candidate is applying) for the
latest updates/public notices/notifications/announcements regarding the CUET
(UG) – 2024.
Candidates are advised to carry only the following with them into the examination
venue:
i. Admit card along with Self Declaration (Undertaking) downloaded from the
NTA Website (a clear printout on A4 size paper) duly filled in
ii. A simple transparent Ball Point Pen
iii. Additional photograph (same as uploaded on the Online Application Form) to
be pasted on the attendance sheet in the Examination Room/ Hall.
iv. Any one of the authorized photo IDs (must be original, valid, and non-expired)
– School Identity Card/ PAN card/ Driving License/ Voter ID/ Passport/
Aadhaar Card (With photograph)/E-Aadhaar with photograph/ Ration Card
with photograph/ Class 12 Board Admit Card with photograph/ Bank Passbook
with Photograph.
v. PwBD certificate issued by the authorized medical officer, if claiming the
relaxation under the PwBD category
vi. Personal transparent water bottle
vii. Sugar tablets/fruits (like banana/apple/orange) in case the candidate is diabetic.
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CHAPTER – 1
INTRODUCTION
1.1. About the National Testing Agency (NTA)
The Ministry of Education (MoE), Government of India (GoI) has established the National
Testing Agency (NTA) as an independent, autonomous, and self-sustained premier testing
organization under the Societies Registration Act (1860) for conducting efficient,
transparent, and international standardized tests in order to assess the competency of
candidates for admission to premier higher education institutions with a mission to
improve equity and quality in education by developing and administering research-based
valid, reliable, efficient, transparent, fair and international level assessments.
NTA has created a system that promotes teaching (by teachers), learning (by students), and
assessment (by parents and institutions). NTA strongly believes in the quality, efficiency,
effectiveness, equity, and security of assessments. To practice these values, NTA is
constantly engaging with its stakeholders, viz. students, parents, teachers, experts, and
partner institutions.
The objectives of NTA, inter alia, include:
1. To conduct efficient, transparent, and international standardized tests in order to
assess the competency of candidates for admission.
2. To undertake research on educational, professional, and testing systems to identify
gaps in the knowledge systems and take steps for bridging them.
3. To produce and disseminate information and research on education and professional
development standards.
The National Testing Agency has been entrusted with the responsibility of conducting
the Common University Entrance Test (UG) for admission into the Undergraduate
programmes/ courses for all the Central Universities (CUs) for the Academic session
2024-2025.
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1.2. About Central Universities (CUs)
Central Universities or Union Universities in India are established by an Act of

Parliament and are under the purview of the Department of Higher Education in the
Ministry of Education. In general, Universities in India are recognized by the
University Grants Commission (UGC), which draws its power from the University
Grants Commission Act, 1956. In addition, 15 Professional Councils are established,
controlling different aspects of accreditation and coordination. Central universities,
in addition, are covered by the Central Universities Act, 2009, which regulates their
purpose, powers, governance, etc.
1.3. About Common University Entrance Test (CUET (UG) - 2024 )
The Common University Entrance Test (CUET) is being introduced for admission
into all UG Programmes in all Central Universities for Academic session 2024-25
under the Ministry of Education, (MoE). The Common University Entrance Test
(CUET) will provide a common platform and equal opportunities to candidates across
the country, especially those from rural and other remote areas, and help establish
better connections with the Universities. A single Examination will enable the
Candidates to cover a wide outreach and be part of the admissions process to various
Central Universities.
1.4. Role of NTA
The Role of NTA is confined to the registration of candidates, the conduct of the test,
hosting of answer keys, inviting challenges, finalizing answer keys, preparing and
declaring results, and hosting Score Card.
A merit list will be prepared by participating Universities/organizations.

Universities may conduct their individual counselling based on the Scorecard of
CUET (UG) – 2024 provided by NTA.
The letters/e-mails/grievances/queries/RTI applications/Court cases pertaining to

admission related matters/procedures will not be entertained by NTA. The same may
be addressed to the concerned University.
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CHAPTER – 2
EXAMINATION SCHEME
2.1. Mode of Examination:
CUET (UG) - 2024 will completely be conducted in Hybrid mode (Pen & Paper/ Computer
Based Test (CBT) mode.
2.2. Medium of Examination:
Medium of the Question Papers: Drawing from the National Education Policy (NEP),
the CUET (UG)- 2024 will be conducted in English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati,
Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu.
S. No. Language Examination Centres

1. English All Examination Centres
2. English and Hindi All Examination Centres in India
3. English and Assamese Examination Centres in Assam
4. English and Bengali Examination Centres in West Bengal, Tripura,
and Andaman & Nicobar Islands
5. English and Gujarati Examination Centres in Gujarat, Daman & Diu,
Dadra & Nagar Haveli
6. English and Kannada Examination Centres in Karnataka
7. English and Malayalam Examination Centres in Kerala and
Lakshadweep
8. English and Marathi Examination Centres in Maharashtra
9. English and Odia Examination Centres in Odisha
10. English and Punjabi Examination Centres in Punjab, Chandigarh, and
Delhi/New Delhi (including Faridabad,
Ghaziabad, Gurugram, Meerut, Noida/Greater
Noida)
11. English and Tamil Examination Centres in Tamil Nadu,
Puducherry, and Andaman & Nicobar Islands
12. English and Telugu Examination Centres in Andhra Pradesh and
Telangana
13. English and Urdu All Examination Centres in India
The option of language for Question Paper should be exercised while filling up the Application
Form online and it cannot be changed at a later stage.
Please note that for the correctness of the questions in all the question papers, the English
version will be taken as the final.
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2.3. Scheme of Examination
S. No. Parameters CUET (UG) - 2024

1. Total subjects 61 (33 languages, 27 domain-specific, and 01 General Test)
2. Choice of Test Maximum 06 Test papers (04 or 05 domain subjects including
Paper General Test and 01 or 02 languages).
Candidates may choose a maximum 06 Subjects including
languages (Indian and Foreign) and General Test
Note: It is advisable for candidates to select at least one
language.
3. Medium of the 13 languages (Assamese, Bengali, English, Gujarati, Hindi,
Test Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Punjabi, Odia, Tamil, Telugu,
and Urdu)
4. Mode of the Hybrid mode (Pen & Paper + CBT)
Examination
Note: It will depend on the candidate count after the registration
is complete.
5. Total Questions 40 out of 50 questions for all test papers and 50 out of 60 for the
General Test (choice of 10 questions). Duration for all test
papers would be 45 minutes except for Mathematics/Applied
Mathematics, Accountancy, Physics, Chemistry,
Economics, Computer Science/Informatics Practices, and
General Tests which would be 60 minutes.
6. Shift and It is proposed that for Pen & paper mode, there may be three
Duration shifts in a day of about two hours duration.
Subject combinations for each paper, type of questions in each paper, and mode of examination
are given in the table below:
Subjects/ Tests (61) Questions to be Attempted

There are 33 languages and 27 subjects. A candidate
40 questions to be attempted out of
may choose any subject/language as desired by the
50 in each language
applicable University/ Organization.
General Test: For any such undergraduate
50 Questions to be attempted out
programme/programmes being offered by Universities
of 60
where a General Test is being used for admission.
Note:
1. From the above subjects/languages, the candidate can choose a maximum of 06 (six)
subjects from all three Sections.
2. 40 out of 50 questions for all test papers and 50 out of 60 for the General Test (An overall
choice of 10 questions will be provided for all 61 subjects).
3. It is advisable for candidates to select at least one language and the General Test.
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4. Duration for all test papers would be 45 minutes except for Mathematics/Applied
Mathematics, Accountancy, Physics, Chemistry, Economics, Computer
Science/Informatics Practices, and General Tests which would be 60 minutes.
5. The examination will be conducted on multiple days in two or three shifts, depending on
the number of Candidates and Subject choices.
2.4. The pattern of Question Paper:

Objective type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs).
2.5. Tests / Subject covered under CUET (UG) - 2024

There are two or three shifts in a day. A candidate can choose up to 6 Subjects for taking
the Exam.
The list of Languages, Domain Specific Subjects, and General Test covered in CUET (UG)
– 2024 is given in Appendix II.
2.6. Duration of Test:

The examination will be conducted on multiple days in two or three shifts per day,
depending on the number of candidates and their combinations.
Note: Compensatory time for PwBD Candidates of 20 minutes for each hour examination will be given.
Note :
The examination will be conducted on multiple days in two or three shifts, depending on the
number of Candidates and Subject choices.
2.7. Syllabus of Test:
Language - Language to be tested through Reading Comprehension (based on

different types of passages–Factual, Literary and Narrative, and Literary Aptitude
and Vocabulary.
Domain Subject - As given on the NTA website
Syllabus https://exams.nta.ac.in/CUET-UG/
General Test - General Knowledge, Current Affairs, General Mental Ability,
Numerical Ability, Quantitative Reasoning (Simple application of basic
mathematical concepts Arithmetic / Algebra / Geometry / Mensuration / Statistics),
Logical and Analytical Reasoning.
The syllabus for subjects is available on the NTA website https://exams.nta.ac.in/CUET-UG/
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CHAPTER – 3
ELIGIBILITY
3.1. Eligibility
For appearing in the CUET (UG) - 2024, there is no age limit for the candidates. The
candidates who have passed the class 12 /equivalent examination or are appearing in 2024
irrespective of their age can appear in the CUET (UG) - 2024 examination. However, the
candidates will be required to fulfill the age criteria (if any) of the University / Institution /
Organization in which they are desirous of taking admission.
3.2. List of Qualifying Examinations (QE)
i. The final examination of the 10+2 system, conducted by any recognized Central/ State
Board, such as the Central Board of Secondary Education, New Delhi; Council for the
Indian School Certificate Examinations, New Delhi; etc.
ii. Intermediate or two-year Pre-University examination conducted by a recognized
Board/ University.
iii. Final examination of the two-year course of the Joint Services Wing of the National
Defence Academy
iv. Senior Secondary School Examination conducted by the National Institute of Open
Schooling with a minimum of five subjects.
v. Any Public School/ Board/ University examination in India or any foreign country is
recognized as equivalent to the 10+2 system by the Association of Indian Universities
(AIU).
vi. Higher Secondary Certificate Vocational Examination.
vii. A Diploma recognized by AICTE or a State board of technical education of at least 3
years duration.
viii. General Certificate Education (GCE) examination (London/Cambridge/Sri Lanka) at
the Advanced (A) level.
ix. High School Certificate Examination of the Cambridge University or International
Baccalaureate Diploma of the International Baccalaureate Office, Geneva.
x. Candidates who have completed the Class 12 (or equivalent) examination outside India
or from a Board not specified above should produce a certificate from the Association of
Indian Universities (AIU) to the effect that the examination they have passed is
equivalent to the Class 12 Examination.
xi. In case the Class 12 Examination is not a public examination, the candidate must have
passed at least one public (Board or Pre-University) examination earlier.
17
3.3. Year of Appearance in Qualifying Examination
For the year of appearance in the Class 12 / equivalent examination, relevant conditions of
Universities / Institutions (as applicable) will be applied. The candidate must ensure his
eligibility from the website of respective Universities / Institutions.
Note:
1. For admission in Universities through CUET (UG) - 2024, the existing policies regarding
quota, category, relaxation, reservations, qualification, subject combinations, preferences,
etc. of the respective University / Institution / Organization shall be applicable.
2. As the eligibility criteria for admission may be unique for every University, the candidates
are advised to visit the University website to which they are applying for their respective
programs.
3. Candidates are advised to satisfy themselves before applying that they possess the eligibility
criteria laid down by the University they are applying to.
4. Mere appearance in the Entrance Test or securing pass marks on the test does not entitle a
candidate to be considered for admission to the Programme unless he/she fulfills the
Programme-wise eligibility conditions of the University they are applying to.
18
CHAPTER – 4
RESERVATIONS
4.1. Indian nationals belonging to certain categories (OBC-NCL, Gen-EWS, SC, ST) are
admitted under the seats reserved for them in accordance with the rules prescribed by the
Government of India.
However, in the case of the Central Universities, the reservation policy of the respective
University shall be applicable.
4.2.1 Provisions relating to Persons with Disability (PwD)
(a) Guidelines for conducting written examination for Persons with Benchmark
Disabilities above 40% vide letter dated 29 August 2018 from the Ministry of
Social Justice and Empowerment
Provisions relating to Persons with Disability (PwD):
As per Section 2(t) of the RPwD Act, “Persons with Disability (PwD)” means a person with
long-term physical, mental, intellectual, or sensory impairment which, in interaction with
barriers, hinders his full and effective participation in society equally with others.
According to Section 2(r) of the RPwD Act, 2016, “persons with benchmark disabilities” means
a person with not less than forty percent (40%) of a specified disability where specified
disability has not been defined in measurable terms and includes a person with disability where
specified disability has been defined in measurable terms, as certified by the certifying authority.
Facilities for PwBD candidates to appear in the exam
As per the guidelines issued by the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities
(Divyangjan) under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment issued from time to time
on the subject: “Written Examination for Persons with Benchmark Disabilities”, for the
candidate with one of the benchmark disabilities [as defined in Section 2(r) of RPwD Act, 2016],
holding a Disability Certificate in the prescribed format in the Rights of Person with Disabilities
Rules, 2017 (link:
https://upload.indiacode.nic.in/showfile?actid=AC_CEN_25_54_00002_201649_15178073
28299&type=rule&filename=Rules_notified_15.06.pdf ).
a. The facility of a Scribe, in case he/she has a physical limitation and a scribe is essential to
write the examination on his/her behalf, being so certified in the aforesaid format by a
CMO/Civil Surgeon/ Medical Superintendent of a Government Health Care Institution.
b. Compensatory time of one hour for examination of three hours duration, whether such
candidate uses the facility of Scribe or not.
Services of a Scribe
As per the office memorandum of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (Reference:
F.No. 34-02/2015-DD-III dated August 29, 2018), the PwD candidates who are visually
19
impaired OR have a disability in the upper limbs OR have lost fingers/hands thereby preventing
them from properly operating the Computer Based Test platform may avail the services of a
scribe (amanuensis).
The scribe will help the Candidate in reading the questions and/or keying in the answers as per
the directions of the Candidate. A scribe will NEITHER explain the questions NOR suggest any
solutions.
PwBD candidates who desire to avail the services of a scribe need to opt for this during the
online registration of CUET (UG) – 2024.
It is to be noted that the Scribe will be provided by the National Testing Agency (NTA) if
requested.
If it is found at any stage that a candidate has availed the services of a scribe and/or availed the
compensatory time but does not possess the extent of disability that warrants the use of a scribe
and/or grant of compensatory time, the candidate will be excluded from the process of
evaluation, ranking, counselling, and admission. In case such a candidate has already been
admitted to any Institution, the admission of the candidate will be cancelled.
The NTA does not guarantee any change in the category or sub-category (PwD status) after the
submission of the Online Application Form, and in any case, no change will be entertained by NTA after
the declaration of NTA Score for CUET (UG) - 2024. The category/sub-category (PwD status) entered
in the CUET (UG) Database by the candidate may be used by the participating University / Institution
/ Organization). Therefore, the candidates are advised to fill in the category/sub-category column very
carefully.
Note:
1. The minimum degree of disability should be 40% (Benchmark Disability) in order to
be eligible for availing reservation for persons with specified disability.
2. The extent of “specified disability” in a person shall be assessed in accordance with the
“Guidelines for the purpose of assessing the extent of specified disability in a person
included under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 (49 of 2016)” notified
in the Gazette of India by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment [Department
of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (Divyangjan)] on 4 January 2018.
3. No change in the category will be entertained after the last date specified by NTA for
CUET (UG) - 2024 Registration.
Candidates must note that the benefit of reservation will be given to them subject to verification of
documents. If it is discovered at any stage that a candidate has used a false/fake/incorrect document or
has furnished false, incorrect, or incomplete information, in order to avail the benefit of reservation, then
such a candidate shall be excluded from all admission processes. In case such a candidate has already
been given admission, the admission shall stand cancelled.
4.2.2 (b) Guidelines for conducting written examination for persons with specified disabilities
covered under the definition of Section 2(s) of the RPwD Act, 2016 but not covered
under the definition of Section 2(r) of the said Act, i.e. persons having less than 40%
disability and having difficulty in writing
20
I. These guidelines may be called Guidelines for conducting written examinations for persons
with specified disabilities covered under the definition of Section 2(s) of the RPwD Act, 2016
but not covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the said Act, i.e. persons having less
than 40% disability and having difficulty in writing.
II. The facility of scribe and/or compensatory time shall be granted solely to those having
difficulty in writing subject to the production of a certificate to the effect that the person
concerned has limitation to write and that scribe is essential to write the examination on his/her
behalf from the competent medical authority of a Government healthcare institution as per
performa.
III. The medical authority for the purpose of certification as mentioned in point (II) above should
be a multi-member authority comprising the following:-
i. Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/Chief District Medical Officer.....Chairperson
ii. Orthopaedic/PMR specialist
iii. Neurologist, if available*
iv. Clinical Psychologist/Rehabilitation Psychologist/ Psychiatrist/Special Educator
v. Occupational therapist, if available*
vi.Any other expert based on the condition of the candidate may be nominated by the Chairperson.
(* the Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/Chief District Medical Officer may make full
efforts for inclusion of neurologists, occupational therapists from the nearest District or the
Medical College/Institute if the same is not available in the District)"
IV. Compensatory time of not less than 20 minutes per hour of the examination should be allowed
for persons who are eligible for getting a scribe. In case the duration of the examination is less
than an hour, then the duration of the compensatory time should be allowed on a pro-rata basis.
Compensatory time should not be less than 5 minutes and should be in the multiple of 5.
4.2 In the case of the Institutes run/aided/recognized by State Governments, the reservation policy of
the respective State Governments shall be applicable.
Note: For admission in Universities through CUET (UG) - 2024, the existing policies regarding
reservations, relaxation, quota, category, qualification, subject combinations, preferences etc. of the
respective University shall be applicable.
The NTA does not entertain any change in the category or sub-category (PwBD status) after the
submission of the Online Application Form, and in any case, no change will be entertained by NTA
after the declaration of NTA Score for CUET (UG) 2024. The category/sub-category (PwBD status)
entered in the CUET (UG) - 2024 Application Form by the candidate will be used for the CUET (UG)
- 2024. Therefore, the candidates are advised to fill in the category/sub-category column very carefully.
21
CHAPTER – 5
CHOICE OF CITIES
The Cities where the CUET (UG) - 2024 will be conducted are given in Appendix III. While
applying, candidates have to select any four cities of their choice. Efforts will be made to allot the
city of examination to the candidates in the order of preference opted by them in their online
Application Forms. However, due to administrative/logistic reasons, a different city can be
allotted.
Choice of Centre Cities will be limited to the State of Permanent Address or State of Present
Address only.
Note:
i. The candidate can provide up to a maximum of 04 cities as options. The decision to run a
CBT / Pen & Paper examination in those cities will lie with the NTA and will be dependent
on multiple factors.
ii. Though every effort will be made to allot a Centre in one of the cities selected by the
candidate, the NTA reserves the right to allot a city to the candidate which may, in extreme
circumstances fall out of the options opted by the candidates due to administrative reasons.
In case, there are very few candidates from a City, the NTA reserves the right to merge one, two, or
more cities.
The decision of the NTA regarding the allotment of the City/Centre shall be final. No further
correspondence or request shall be entertained in this regard.
While filling up the Online Application Form, candidates should select four Convenient Cities from
Appendix III as their Choice of Cities for the exam Centre in order of their priority.
For convenience, the candidates may select their own city or neighbouring cities in their State of
Residence only and not far away cities in other States. NTA will not be responsible for any
inconvenience due to the incorrect selection of cities by the candidates.
In case, the number of candidates opting for a city as the centre with a regional language is less than a
certain minimum, candidates may be allotted a Centre in another city irrespective of the city opted by
the candidates for appearing in the examination.
Note: All efforts will be made by NTA to consider the comfort and convenience of candidates, including PwD
Candidates while allotting Centres.
22
CHAPTER –6
ADMIT CARD
e-Admit Card
The e-Admit Card would be issued provisionally to the candidates through the NTA website:
https://exams.nta.ac.in/CUET-UG/ subject to the fulfillment of the eligibility conditions and
receipt of the prescribed application fee by NTA.
The candidate has to download the Admit Card from the NTA website. The candidate will appear in
the examination at the given Centre on the date and shift/timing as indicated in his/her e-Admit Card.
No candidate will be allowed to appear at the examination Centre, on the date and shift/time
other than that allotted to him/her in his/her Admit Card.
In case a candidate is unable to download his/her Admit Card from the website, he/she should
approach the NTA Help Line Number: 011-40759000 or 011-69227700 between 10.00 A.M. and
5.00 P.M.
The candidates are advised to read the instructions on the Admit Card carefully and strictly
follow them during the examination.
In case of any discrepancy in the particulars of the candidate or his/her photograph and signature
shown in the e-Admit Card and Confirmation Page, the candidate may immediately approach the
NTA Help Line between 10.00 A.M. and 5.00 P.M. In such a case, the candidate would appear
in the examination with the already downloaded Admit Card. However, NTA will take
necessary action to make corrections in the record later.
The date of downloading the Admit Card for the exam will be announced on the NTA website
Note:
a. The Candidates may please note that Admit Cards will not be sent by post.
b. In no case, the duplicate Admit Card for Common University Entrance Test (UG) – 2024 be
issued at the Examination Centres.
c. The candidates must not mutilate the Admit Card or change any entry made therein.
d. Candidates are advised to preserve their Admit Cards in good condition for future reference.
e. No Admit Card shall be issued to the candidates whose applications are found to be
incomplete for any reasons (including indistinct/ doubtful photographs/unsigned
Applications) or who do not fulfill the eligibility criteria for the examination.
f. Issue of Admit Cards, however, shall not necessarily mean acceptance of eligibility which
shall be further scrutinized at subsequent stages of the admission process.
23
CHAPTER – 7
SCHEDULE OF EXAMINATION
Date of Examination Between 15 May and 31 May 2024*
Mode of Examination Pen & Paper (offline) and/or Computer Based Test (CBT) mode
Slot Shift 1 Shift 2 Shift 3
Timing of Examination
To be notified later.
Duration of Examination
Note: Compensatory time for PwBD Candidates, who are eligible for Scribe (whether such candidate
uses the facility of Scribe or not) 20 minutes for each hour examination will be extended as per Govt.
Guidelines. Such extra time will be extended test-wise and not in the aggregate duration of the
morning/afternoon slot.
*The date(s) may vary depending on the National Election Schedule.

1. The examination will be held on multiple days, in two or three shifts in a day, depending
on the number of candidates and their combinations.
2. Though the tests are scheduled in 02 or 03 shifts, as the case may be, each test within each
shift is distinct and independent of the other.
3. A candidate has the option to choose the components of the test only. However, the
allotment of candidates to the Shift will be based on the options exercised and technical
and administrative considerations.
4. Admit Cards will be issued for each shift based on the components opted by him/her. No
request for a change of date/shift will be entertained.
5. All three shifts will start at a specified time. Candidates have to report for the slot/s as per
the time stated in their respective Admit Cards.
24
CHAPTER – 8
PARTICULARS TO BE FILLED IN THE ONLINE
APPLICATION FORM
The Columns to be filled in the Online Application Form of CUET (UG) - 2023 are as follows. All candidates shall fill
up the information as given below:
S. NO. Page Section Fields Remarks
Candidate's Name (As per class 10
1
or Equivalent Certificate)
2 Father's Name
3 Mother's Name
Mandatory if the Father's & Mother's
4 Guardian's Name
Name is blank
5 Personal Details Candidate's Date of Birth Select from dropdown
6 Gender Select from dropdown
7 Nationality Select from dropdown
Only Visible If Nationality is Foreign
8 Citizen of the Country
(Other than OCI)
9 Identity Type Select from dropdown
10 Valid Identification Number
11 Premises/House No./Name
12 Sub Locality Optional
13 Locality Optional
14 Country Select from dropdown
15 State/UT Select from dropdown
Registration Select from the list based on State (State-
16 District
Form Present Address District details attached)
17 Pincode
18 Email Address
19 Confirm Email Address
Mobile Number (without country
20
code or 0)
21 Confirm Mobile Number
22 Alternate Contact Number Optional
23 Premises/House No./Name
Permanent Address
Select from the list based on State (State-
28 District
District details attached)
29 Pincode
30 Password (Minimum 8 characters) E.g. Test@123
31 Confirm Password
Choose Password
32 Security Question
33 Security Answer
34 Security Pin Security Pin To be entered as displayed on the Screen
Candidate's Name (As per class X
35 Application
Personal Details or Equivalent Certificate)
Form
36 Candidate's Date of Birth Select from dropdown
25
37 Gender Select from dropdown
38 Nationality Select from dropdown
Only Visible If Nationality is Foreign
39 Citizen of the Country
(Other than OCI)
40 Category Select from dropdown
41 Are you a PwBD Candidate? Yes/No
42 Type of Disability Only Visible if PwBD is Yes
Only Visible if Type of Disability is
43 Other Types of Disability
Other.
Do you have a benchmark
44 Only Visible if PwBD is Yes
disability of 40% or less
Do you need a Scribe (As per the
45 criteria given in the Information Only Visible if PwBD is Yes
Bulletin)?
46 Father's Name
47 Father's Qualification Select from dropdown
48 Father's Occupation Select from dropdown
49 Mother's Name
50 Mother's Qualification Select from dropdown
51 Mother's Occupation Select from dropdown
52 Guardian's Name Optional
53 Annual Family Income Select from dropdown
54 Are You Twin? Yes/No
Name of the other Brother/Sister
55 only visible if 'Are you a Twin' is yes
as per Class X Certificate
Roll Number of Class 10th or its
56 Only visible if 'Are you a Twin' is yes
equivalent of the Twin
57 Domicile State Select from dropdown
58 Are you Diabetic? Select from dropdown
59 Place of Residence Select from dropdown
60 Mode of Preparation Select from dropdown
61 Other Modes of Preparation
Medium of Study in Qualifying
62 Select from dropdown
Examination
63 Premises No./Name
Present Address
68 District
69 Pincode
70 Premises No./Name
Permanent Address
75 District
76 Pincode
Do you belong to the Below
77 Other Quota & Yes/No
Poverty Line?
Category
78 Are you a Kashmiri Migrant? Yes/No
26
Ward of Defence Personnel / Ex-
79 Yes/No
Servicemen
80 Claim for NCC Quota Yes/No
81 Claim for Sports Quota Yes/No
Select from dropdown Only visible if
82 Level of Sports Achievement
Claims for Sports Quota is selected Yes
Are you a ward of a University
83 Yes/No
Employee?
Is your Father an Employee of the Only Visible if Ward of University
84
University Employee is Yes
Only Visible if Ward of University
85 Name of the University
Employee is Yes
86 Father's Employee ID Employee is Yes and Is your Father
Employee of University is yes
Name of the Department/Affiliated
87 Employee is Yes and Is your Father
College
88 Father's Designation Employee is Yes and Is your Father
89 Father's Employment Status Employee is Yes and Is your Father
Is your Mother an Employee at the Only Visible if Ward of University
90
University Employee is Yes
91 Name of the University Employee is Yes and Is your Mother
92 Mother's Employee ID Employee is Yes and Is your Mother
Name of the Department/Affiliated
93 Employee is Yes and Is your Mother
College
94 Mother's Designation Employee is Yes and Is your Mother
95 Mother's Employment Status Employee is Yes and Is your Mother
96 Result Status Select From dropdown
97 Passing Year Select From dropdown
98 Qualifying Exam 10th or Equivalent (pre-filled)
99 Place of Schooling Rural/Urban
100 Type of School/College Select From dropdown
101 Other Types of School/College
Qualification Details
102 Qualifying Examination Country Select From dropdown
(Class 10th or
103 Equivalent) Qualifying Examination State Select From dropdown
104 Qualifying Examination District
105 Board Name Select From dropdown
Only Visible if Board Name selected
106 Other Board Name
OTHER from the dropdown
107 School/College Name Address
27
108 School/College Pincode
109 Roll Number
110 Result Mode Grade/Percentage
111 Maximum Grade Point
112 CGPA Obtained Visible if Result Mode Selected Grade
113 CGPA Equivalent Percentage
114 Maximum Marks
Visible if Result Mode Selected
115 Marks Obtained
Percentage
116 Percentage
117 Result Status Select From dropdown
118 Passing Year Select From dropdown
119 Qualifying Exam 12th or equivalent (pre-filled)
120 Place of Schooling Rural/Urban
121 Type of School/College Select From dropdown
Only Visible if Type of School/College is
122 Other Types of Schools/Colleges
selected Other.
123 Qualifying Examination Country Select From dropdown
124 Qualifying Examination State Select From dropdown
125 Qualifying Examination District Only Visible if the state is selected.
126 Qualification Details Board Name Select From dropdown
(Class 12th or Only Visible if Board Name selected
127 Equivalent) Other Board Name
OTHER from the dropdown
128 School/College Name Address
129 School/College Pincode
130 Roll Number
131 Result Mode Grade/Percentage
132 Maximum Grade Point
133 CGPA Obtained Visible if Result Mode Selected Grade
134 CGPA Equivalent Percentage
135 Maximum Marks
Visible if Result Mode Selected
136 Marks Obtained
Percentage
137 Percentage
138 Center City Preference 1 Select Exam Centre City from the
Examination Center
dropdown, based on permanent and
139 Details Center City Preference 2 contact address state/country
140 Select University Name Select From dropdown
University/Programme
Selection Only Visible if the University Name is
141 Select Programme Name
selected.
142 Test Paper / Subject 1 Select Subject from the dropdown
Visible if Test Paper / Subject 1 is
143 Medium of Test Paper / Subject 1
Domain specific.
144 Test Paper / Subject 2 Select from dropdown
Domain specific.
Test Paper / Subject(s)
Selection Visible if Test Paper / Subject 3 is
Domain specific.
Domain specific.
Domain specific.
28
Domain specific.
Candidate’s Photograph (with 80% The size of the scanned photograph
154
face without mask) (jpg, jpeg) should be between 10 kb to 200 kb
The size of the scanned signature should
155 Documents Candidate’s Signature (jpg, jpeg)
Upload Images/Pdf be between 4 kb to 30 kb
Upload
Person With Benchmark Disability
156
(PwBD) Certificate
29
CHAPTER – 9
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS FOR THE CANDIDATES
1. Candidates are advised to report at the Examination Center well in time i.e. one and a half hours
before the commencement of the examination.
2. Candidates should take their seats immediately after the opening of the Examination Hall. If the
candidates do not report in time due to any reason i.e. traffic jam, train/bus delay, etc, they are
likely to miss some of the important instructions to be announced in the Examination
Rooms/Halls. The NTA shall not be responsible for any delay.
3. The candidate must show, on-demand, the Admit Card downloaded/printed from the NTA
website for admission in the examination room/hall. The Test Centre Staff on duty is authorized
to verify the identity of candidates and may take steps to verify and confirm the identity
credentials. A candidate who does not possess a valid Admit Card and authorized Photo ID shall
not be permitted to take the examination under any circumstances by the Centre Superintendent.
4. A seat indicating Roll Number will be allotted to each candidate. Candidates should find and
sit in their allocated seats only. In case a candidate ventures to change his/her seat and does not
sit on the seat allotted to him/her could face cancellation of candidature. No plea would be
entertained in this regard.
5. The candidate should ensure that the Question Paper available on the computer is as per his/her
opted subject indicated in the Admit Card. In case, the subject of the Question Paper is other
than his/her opted subject, the same may be brought to the notice of the Invigilator concerned.
6. The candidates may approach the Centre Superintendent/Invigilator in the room for any
technical assistance, first aid emergency, or any other information during the course of the
examination. For any queries or issues regarding the Test, the candidates may contact on
Helpline Numbers available on the NTA website.
7. For those who are unable to appear on the scheduled date of the test for any reason, a re-test
shall not be held by the NTA under any circumstances.
Note: Candidates shall appear at their own cost at the Centre on the Date, Tests/ Subjects, and
Timing of Examination as indicated in their Admit Card issued by the NTA. Under no
circumstances the choice of cities for the Centre and Timing of Examination provided in the Admit
Card be changed.
30
Candidates MUST bring the following documents on the day of examination at the test centre.
Candidates who will not bring these will not be allowed to sit in the examination.
a. Print copy of Admit Card along with Self Declaration (Undertaking) downloaded from
the NTA Website (a clear printout on A4 size paper) duly filled in.
b. One passport size photograph (same as uploaded on the Online Application Form) for
pasting on the specific space in the Attendance Sheet at Centre during the examination.
c. Any one of the authorized photo IDs (must be original, valid, and non-expired) – School
Identity Card/ PAN card/ Driving License/ Voter ID/ Passport/ Aadhaar Card (With
photograph)/E-Aadhaar with photograph/ Ration Card with photograph/ Class 12 Board
Admit Card with photograph/ Bank Passbook with Photograph.
d. PwBD certificate issued by the authorized medical officer, if claiming the relaxation under
PwBD category
OR
PwBD Certificate regarding physical limitation in an examination to write as per

Annexures given in Information Bulletin, if claiming the relaxation under PwBD
category.
Rough Work
All calculations/writing work is to be done only in the Rough Sheets provided at the Test Centre in
the Examination Room/Hall and on completion of the test, candidates must hand over the Rough
Sheets to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
31
CHAPTER – 10
UNFAIR MEANS PRACTICES AND BREACH OF
EXAMINATION RULES
10.1. DEFINITION
Unfair Means practice is an activity that allows a candidate to gain an unfair advantage over
other candidates. It includes, but is not limited to:
a) Being in possession of any item or article which has been prohibited or can be used for unfair
practices including any stationery item, communication device, accessories, eatable items,
ornaments, or any other material or information relevant or not relevant to the examination in
the paper concerned;
b) Using someone to write an examination (impersonation) or preparing material for copying;
c) Breaching examination rules or any direction issued by NTA in connection with the JEE
(Main) - 2024 examination from time to time;
d) Assisting other candidates to engage in malpractices, giving or receiving assistance of any

kind directly or indirectly or attempting to do so;
e) Contacting or communicating or trying to do so with any person, other than the Examination
Staff, during the examination time in the Examination Centre;
f) Threatening any of the officials connected with the conduct of the examination or threatening
any of the candidates;
g) Using or attempting to use any other undesirable method or means in connection with the
examination;
h) Manipulation and fabrication of online documents viz. Admit Card, Rank Letter, Self-
Declaration, etc.;
i) Forceful entry in /exit from Examination Centre/Hall;
j) Use or attempted use of any electronic device after entering the Examination Centre;
k) Affixing/uploading of wrong/morphed photographs/signatures on the Application
Form/Admit Card/Proforma;
l) Creating obstacles in the smooth and fair conduct of the examination.
m) Not attempting the question paper for long time intervals.
n) Fidgeting and looking here and there.
o) In possession of bits of paper etc.
p) Any other malpractices declared as Unfair Means by the NTA.

q) Tearing of the Answer Sheet, any page of the test booklet, etc.
32
r) Take away the answer sheet (Original OMR/Office Copy of OMR) from the examination
hall/room.
Note: Any candidate with more than one Application Number (more than one SCORE CARDS)
will be treated as UFM, even if found at a later stage, and strict action will be taken against that
Candidate.
10.2. PUNISHMENT FOR USING UNFAIR MEANS PRACTICES

If a candidate indulges in any of the above or similar practices during the course of, before, or
after the examination, he/she shall be deemed to have used unfair practices and thus shall be
booked under the UNFAIR MEANS (UFM) case. The candidate would be debarred for 3
years in the future and shall also be liable for criminal action and /or any other action as
deemed fit.
10.3. CANCELLATION OF RESULT
The result of CUET (UG) - 2024 of the candidate(s) who indulges in Unfair means Practices
will be cancelled and will not be declared. Similarly, the result of those candidates who appear
from the Centre other than the one allotted to them or allow another candidate/person to write
the exam on his behalf will be cancelled. No plea will be entertained in this regard.
33
CHAPTER 11
BARRED ITEMS AND DRESS CODE
11.1 Barred Items
11.1.1 The candidates will be subjected to extensive and compulsory frisking before entering the
Examination Centre with the help of highly sensitive metal detectors. The candidates are not
allowed to carry the following items inside the Examination Centre under any circumstances.
a) Any item like textual material (printed or written), bits of paper, Geometry/Pencil Box, Plastic
Pouch, Calculator, Pen, Scale, Writing Pad, Pen Drives, Eraser, Calculator, Log Table,
Electronic Pen/Scanner, etc.
b) Any communication device like Mobile Phone, Bluetooth, Earphones, Microphone, Pager,
Health Band, etc.
c) Other items like Wallet, Goggles, Handbags, Belt, Cap, etc.
d) Any Watch/Wristwatch, Bracelet, Camera, etc.
e) Any ornaments/metallic items.
f) Any food items opened or packed, water bottles, etc.
g) Any other item that could be used for unfair means, by hiding communication devices like a
microchip, camera, Bluetooth device, etc.
11.1.2 No arrangement will be made at the Centres for keeping any articles/items belonging to the
candidates.
11.1.3 The candidates wearing articles or objects of faith (customary/ cultural/ religious ) should
report at the examination centre atleast two hours before the last reporting time so that there
is enough time for proper frisking without any inconvenience to the candidate while
maintaining the sanctity of the examination. If upon screening, it is discovered that any
candidate is actually carrying a suspected device within such an item of faith, he/ she may be
asked not to take it into the examination hall.
11.2 Dress Code
11.2.1 The candidates are instructed to follow the following dress code while appearing for CUET
(UG) - 2024:
a. Light clothes with long sleeves are not permitted. However in case, candidates come in cultural/
customary dress at the Examination Centre, they should report at least an hour before the last
reporting time so that there is enough time for proper frisking without any inconvenience to the
candidate while maintaining the sanctity of the examination.
b. Slippers, and sandals with low heels are permitted. Shoes are not permitted.
c. In case of any deviation required due to unavoidable (medical, etc.) circumstances, specific
approval of NTA must be taken before the Admit Cards are issued.
11.2.2 It is desired that the candidates follow instructions issued by the NTA strictly. This will help
NTA in the fair conduct of the examination.
Note: The NTA believes in the sanctity and fairness of conducting the examination, however, it also believes in the
sensitivity involved in frisking (girl) candidates and will issue comprehensive instructions accordingly to the staff
and other officials at the Examination Centres. The frisking of the female candidates will be done inside a closed
enclosure by female staff only.
34
CHAPTER – 12
DISPLAY OF ANSWER KEY FOR CHALLENGE
12.1. DISPLAY OF ANSWER KEY FOR CHALLENGES
1. The NTA will display the Provisional Answer Key of the questions on the NTA website:
https://exams.nta.ac.in/CUET-UG/ with a Public Notice, issued to this effect on
the said website, to provide an opportunity to the candidates to challenge the Provisional
Answer Keys with a non-refundable online payment of ₹ 200/- per question challenged
as processing charges. The provisional Answer Keys are likely to be displayed for two
to three days.
2. Only paid challenges made during the stipulated time through the key challenge link will
be considered. Challenges without justification/evidence and those filed on any other
medium other than the prescribed link will not be considered.
3. The NTA decision on the challenges shall be final and no further communication will be
entertained. NTA will not inform the Candidates individually about the outcome of the
challenges made.
4. The subject experts will examine all the challenges received and then a final answer key
will be displayed and declared.
5. The result will be compiled based on the final answer key declared. No grievance
with regard to answer key(s) after the declaration of result/NTA Score of CUET
(UG) - 2024 will be entertained.
12.2. DISPLAY OF RECORDED RESPONSES
The NTA will display the recorded responses and Question Papers attempted by the
candidates on the NTA website https://exams.nta.ac.in/CUET-UG/ prior to the
declaration of the result/NTA Score. The recorded responses are likely to be displayed for
two to three days.
12.3. MARKING SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

For Multiple Choice Questions: To answer a question, the candidates need to choose one
option corresponding to the correct answer or the most appropriate answer. However, if any
anomaly or discrepancy is found after the process of challenges of the key verification, it
shall be addressed in the following manner:
i. Correct answer or the most appropriate answer: Five marks (+5)

ii. Any incorrect option marked will be given minus one mark (-1).
iii. Unanswered/Marked for Review will be given no mark (0).
35
iv. If more than one option is found to be correct then Five marks (+5) will be awarded to
only those who have marked any of the correct options.
v. If all options are found to be correct then Five marks (+5) will be awarded to all those
who have attempted the question.
vi. If none of the options is found correct, or a question is found to be wrong, or a question
is dropped, then all candidates who have attempted the dropped question will be given
five marks (+5) marks.
12.4. USE OF SCORES OF CUET (UG) - 2024 BY OTHER ORGANIZATIONS
The scores/results of CUET (UG) - 2024 may be utilized by other organizations as per their
eligibility criteria/norms/applicable regulations/guidelines/rules.
The University / Institution / Organization may admit any candidate who has appeared for CUET
(UG) - 2024 irrespective of the fact that the candidate has chosen that University / Institution
/ Organization in the online Application Form of CUET (UG) – 2024. Moreover, the
candidate must fulfill the eligibility criteria for the Course where the admission is being
taken.
Note : The details of candidates will be shared with all participating universities/
institutions.
36
CHAPTER – 13
CUET (UG) - 2024 NTA Score for Admissions in Central and Other
Participating Universities / Institutions / Organizations
13.1. CUET (UG) - 2024 NTA SCORE
a) For multi-shift papers (if conducted), raw (actual) marks obtained by the candidates in
different shifts/sessions will be converted to NTA Score.
b) The detailed procedure for the compilation of the NTA Score is available on the NTA
Website and also in Appendix VI of the Information Bulletin.
c) The NTA Score of CUET (UG) – 2024 is valid for admission to the academic year
2024- 25 only.
Note: The NTA is planning to do the CUET (UG) 2024 examination in a single shift for each
language/subject/General Test, so that the need for Normalization will not exist. However, under unavoidable
circumstances, if any subject is conducted in multi-shifts, then normalization will be done. The performance of every
candidate will be evaluated using the equi-percentile method wherein normalized marks of each candidate will be
calculated using the percentiles of each group of students in a given shift across multiple days for the same subject.
13.2. RE-EVALUATION / RE-CHECKING OF RESULT

a) The result for CUET (UG) - 2024 will be processed based on the Final Answer Keys. No
grievance with regard to Answer Key(s) after the Declaration of Result of CUET (UG) -
2024 will be entertained.
b) The marks obtained by a candidate will be considered further for computation of the result
of CUET (UG) - 2024.
c) There shall be no re-evaluation/re-checking of the result. No correspondence in this regard
shall be entertained.
d) No Score Card will be dispatched to the candidates and the candidates are advised to
download their Score Cards for CUET (UG) - 2024 from the website:
13.3. ADMISSIONS
a) Merely appearing in CUET (UG) - 2024 does not confer any right to the candidate for
admission to the desirous University.
b) The selection and admission are subject to fulfilling the admission criteria, eligibility, rank
in the merit list, medical fitness, verification of original documents, and such other criteria
as may be prescribed by the University.
c) Admissions are handled at the level of each of the Central Universities (CUs) for their
respective programs. After the declaration of the CUET (UG) - 2024 result by NTA, the
respective CUs will declare the counselling/ admission schedule and merit list based on the
CUET (UG) - 2024 score and the other criteria of the respective University.
For all admission-related procedures/queries, the candidates are advised to refer to the
website of the applied University.
d) NTA does not have any role in the preparation of the Merit List.
37
CHAPTER – 14
MISCELLANEOUS
14.1. CORRESPONDENCE WITH NTA
All the correspondence should preferably be addressed by e-mail. The email query shall be
addressed only if it is not anonymous and contains the name, postal address, and contact number of
the sender. An email containing vague or general queries and other queries as contained in the
Information Bulletin shall not be entertained. Queries shall not be entertained from a person
claiming to be representatives, associates, or officiates of the applicant candidate. The following
information shall not be revealed by NTA:
a. Internal documentation/status.
b. The internal decision-making process of NTA. Any claim/counterclaim thereof.
c. Dates and venue of internal meetings or name of the staff/officers dealing with it.
d. Any information which cannot be revealed in the opinion of NTA.
14.2. WEEDING OUT RULES
The record of Common University Entrance Test CUET (UG) -2024. would be preserved up to 90
days from the date of declaration of the result.
14.3. LEGAL JURISDICTION
All disputes pertaining to the conduct of the CUET (UG) -2024 Examination including Results
shall fall within the jurisdiction of Delhi/New Delhi only. Further, any grievance/representation
arising out of the Result shall be entertained only when raised within 30 days from the declaration
of the result. Further, the copy of the Legal Notice or Writ Petition/Petition/Appeal/Reply may be
served to NTA only through: [email protected]
14.4. RTI
Information uploaded on the website shall not be provided to the candidate or any other person
under R.T.I. Act, 2005. The information uploaded on the website shall remain for a specific period
only. Therefore, the candidates are advised to download the uploaded information and keep it with
them for the future. In due course of examination or the midway of process, neither any application
under the Right to Information Act, 2005 shall be entertained nor information will be provided.
38
Annexure-I
Form-PwD (IV)
Disability Certificate
Certificate for persons with a disability under the RPwD Act, 2016 having less than 40%
disability
Recent PP size
attested photograph
(showing face only)
of the person with
disability
This is to certify that, we have examined Mr./Ms./Mrs. …………. (name of the candidate), S/o /D/o
……………………, a resident of ………………(Vill/PO/PS/District/State), aged …………….. yrs, a
person with ……………………. (nature of disability/condition), and to state that he/she has a
limitation which hampers his/her writing capability owing to his/her above condition. He/she requires
the support of a scribe for writing the examination.
2. The above candidate uses aids and assistive devices such as prosthetics & orthotics, and hearing aids
(name to be specified) which is /are essential for the candidate to appear at the examination with the
assistance of a scribe.
3. This certificate is issued only for the purpose of appearing in written examinations conducted by
recruitment agencies as well as academic institutions and is valid up to __________ (it is valid for a
maximum period of six months or less as may be certified by the medical authority)
Signature of medical authority

(Signature & Name) (Signature & Name) Signature & (Signature & (Signature &
Name) Name) Name)
Orthopedic / PMR Clinical Psychologist/ Neurologist Occupational Other
specialist Rehabilitation (if available) therapist (if Expert, as
Psychologist/Psychiatrist available) nominated
/ Special Educator by the
Chairperson
(if any)
(Signature & Name)
Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/Chief District Medical Officer………Chairperson

Name of Government Hospital/Health Care Centre with Seal
Place:
Date:
39
Annexure-II
Letter of Undertaking for Using Own Scribe
I __________________________, a candidate with_______________________(name of the disability)
appearing for the ___________________________(name of the examination) bearing Application No.
__________________at_____________________ (name of the centre) in the District __________,
______________________________ (name of the State). My qualification is
___________________________.
I do hereby state that_________________________________(name of the scribe) will provide the service of
scribe/reader/lab assistant for the undersigned for taking the aforesaid examination.
I do hereby undertake that his qualification is _________________________________. In case, subsequently,
it is found that his qualification is not as declared by the undersigned and is beyond my qualification, I
shall forfeit my right to the admission and claims relating thereto.
(Signature of the candidate with disability)
Place:
Date:
Photograph of Scribe
(Self-Attested Photograph)
Name of Scribe ID of the Scribe ID Number
40
Appendix - I
List of Central Universities
S. No. Name of Central Universities
1 Aligarh Muslim University
2 Assam University
3 Babasaheb Bhimrao Ambedkar University
4 Banaras Hindu University
5 Central University of Andhra Pradesh
6 Central University of South Bihar
7 Central University of Gujarat
8 Central University of Haryana
9 Central University of Himachal Pradesh
10 Central University of Jammu
11 Central University of Jharkhand
12 Central University of Karnataka
13 Central University of Kashmir
14 Central University of Kerala
15 Central University of Odisha
16 Central University of Punjab
17 Central University of Rajasthan
18 Central University of Tamil Nadu
19 Dr. Harisingh Gaur Vishwa Vidyalaya
20 Guru Ghasidas Vishwavidyalaya
21 Hemvati Nandan Bahuguna Garhwal University
22 Indira Gandhi National Tribal University
23 Jamia Millia Islamia
24 Jawaharlal Nehru University
25 Mahatma Gandhi Antarrashtriya Hindi Vishwavidyalaya
26 Manipur University
27 Maulana Azad National Urdu University
28 Mizoram University
29 Nagaland University
30 North Eastern Hill University
31 Pondicherry University
32 Rajiv Gandhi University
33 Sikkim University
34 Tezpur University
35 The English and Foreign Languages University
36 Tripura University
41
S. No. Name of Central Universities
37 University of Allahabad
38 University of Delhi
39 University of Hyderabad
40 Visva Bharati University
41 Mahatma Gandhi Central University
42 Central Sanskrit University, Delhi
43 Shri Lal Bahadur Shastri National Sanskrit University
44 National Sanskrit University
Note:
 Apart from the Central Universities, there are other participating Universities also
which include State Government Universities, Autonomous Institutions, Private
Universities, Deemed Universities etc. Their details are available at the CUET (UG)
portal.
 The list of participating universities is dynamic. Candidates are advised to regularly visit
NTA website(s) www.nta.ac.in, https://exams.nta.ac.in/CUET-UG/ for the latest updates
regarding the examination and participating universities.
 Details of Programmes / Courses offered by Universities along with their Eligibility

Criteria are available on the respective University website.
 Candidates are advised to keep visiting the NTA and University website to which they
are applying, for the latest updates/public notices/notifications/ announcements to be
issued from time to time regarding the CUET (UG) – 2024.
 CUET (UG) - 2024 is meant for admission to UG courses offered by Central Universities
and other specified participating Institutions for the academic year 2024-25.
42
Appendix – II
List of Languages/ Subjects /General Test offered under CUET(UG) - 2024
Subject Code Name

101 English
102 Hindi
103 Assamese
104 Bengali
105 Gujarati
106 Kannada
107 Malayalam
108 Marathi
109 Odia
110 Punjabi
111 Tamil
112 Telugu
113 Urdu
201 Arabic
202 Bodo
203 Chinese
There are 33
languages and 204 Dogri
27 subjects. A 205 French
candidate may 206 German
choose any 207 Italian
subject/language 208 Japanese
as desired by the 209 Kashmiri
applicable 210 Konkani
University/
211 Maithili
Organization.
212 Manipuri
213 Nepali
214 Persian
215 Russian
216 Santhali
217 Sindhi
218 Spanish
219 Tibetan
220 Sanskrit
301 Accountancy/Book Keeping
302 Agriculture
303 Anthropology
304 Biology/Biological Studies/Biotechnology/Biochemistry
305 Business Studies
306 Chemistry
307 Environmental Studies
43
Subject Code Name
308 Computer Science/Informatics Practices
309 Economics/Business Economics
310 Engineering Graphics
311 Entrepreneurship
312 Fine Arts/Visual Arts(Sculpture/Painting)/ Commercial Art
313 Geography/ Geology
314 History
315 Home Science
316 Knowledge Tradition-Practices India
317 Legal Studies
318 Mass Media/Mass Communication
319 Mathematics / Applied Mathematics
320 Performing Arts
321 Physical Education/National Cadet Corps(NCC)/ Yoga
322 Physics
323 Political Science
324 Psychology
325 Sanskrit
326 Sociology
327 Teaching Aptitude
General Test 501 For Vocational/Open Eligibility/Cross Stream/Any other as applicable
Note :
For the three Central Universities of Sanskrit, the candidate studying any of the subjects in the field of Shastric
traditional subjects i.e. Sahitya, Vyakarana, Phalitha Jyotisha, Siddhanta Jyotisha, Nyaya, Advaita Vedanta,
Visistadvaita Vedanta, Dvaita Vedanta, Sankhya Yoga, Agama, Mimamsa, Puranetihasa, Dharanasastra,
Rigvedabhashyam, Krishna Yajurveda Bhashyam, Shukla Yajurveda Bhashyam, Samaveda Bhashyam,
Atharva Veda Bhashyam, Vastu, may select Sanskrit (220) and/or Sanskrit (325) in the online Application Form
of CUET (UG) – 2024. Also, candidates are advised to select the subjects as per the mapping of Universities.
Important Points to Note:
I. Candidates who will be appearing in CUET (UG) - 2024 may participate in the
Counselling/admission process of any University / Institution / Organization even though
they have not applied for that University / Institution / Organization in the Online
Application Form of CUET (UG) – 2024. However, the candidates must fulfill the eligibility
criteria of the Course of the University / Institution / Organization to which they are seeking
admission.
II. Also, the University / Institution / Organization may admit any candidate who has appeared
for CUET (UG) - 2024 irrespective of the fact that the candidate has chosen that University /
Institution / Organization in the online Application Form of CUET (UG) – 2024. Moreover,
the candidate must fulfill the eligibility criteria for the Course where the admission is being
taken.
44
Appendix - III
List of Examination Cities for CUET (UG) - 2024

CUET (UG) - 2024 will be conducted in the following Cities, provided there are sufficient
numbers of candidates in the City:
S. No. State/Country City
1 Andaman and Nicobar Island Port Blair
2 Andhra Pradesh Amalapuram
3 Andhra Pradesh Anantapur
4 Andhra Pradesh Bobbili
5 Andhra Pradesh Chirala
6 Andhra Pradesh Chittoor
7 Andhra Pradesh Eluru
8 Andhra Pradesh Gooty
9 Andhra Pradesh Gudlavalleru
10 Andhra Pradesh Guntur
11 Andhra Pradesh Kadapa
12 Andhra Pradesh Kakinada
13 Andhra Pradesh Kurnool
14 Andhra Pradesh Madanapalle
15 Andhra Pradesh Markapur
16 Andhra Pradesh Nandyal
17 Andhra Pradesh Nellore
18 Andhra Pradesh Ongole
19 Andhra Pradesh Papum Pare
20 Andhra Pradesh Proddatur
21 Andhra Pradesh Puttaparthi
22 Andhra Pradesh Puttur AP
23 Andhra Pradesh Rajahmundry
24 Andhra Pradesh Srikakulam
25 Andhra Pradesh Tadpatri
26 Andhra Pradesh Tirupathi
27 Andhra Pradesh Tiruvuru
28 Andhra Pradesh Vijayawada
29 Andhra Pradesh Visakhapatnam
30 Andhra Pradesh Vizianagaram
31 Arunachal Pradesh Itanagar/Naharlagun
32 Arunachal Pradesh Namsai
33 Assam Dibrugarh
34 Assam Guwahati
35 Assam Jorhat
36 Assam Lakhimpur AS
37 Assam Silchar (Assam)
45
38 Assam Tezpur
39 Assam Barpeta
40 Assam Darrang (Mangaldoi)
41 Bihar Arrah
42 Bihar Aurangabad(Bihar)
43 Bihar Bhagalpur
44 Bihar Darbhanga
45 Bihar Gaya
46 Bihar Muzaffarpur
47 Bihar Patna
48 Bihar Purnea
49 Bihar Rohtas
50 Bihar Samastipur
51 Bihar Begusarai
52 Bihar Gopalganj
53 Bihar Siwan
54 Chhattisgarh Bhilai Nagar/Durg
55 Chhattisgarh Bilaspur(Chhattisgarh)
56 Chhattisgarh Raipur
57 Chhattisgarh Jagdalpur
58 Chhattisgarh Ambikapur
59 Chhattisgarh Dantewada
60 Chhattisgarh Korba
61 Chhattisgarh Raigarh
62 Dadra and Nagar Haveli Silvassa
63 Daman & Diu (UT) Diu
64 Daman & Diu (UT) Daman
65 Delhi/New Delhi Delhi/New Delhi
66 Goa Panaji
67 Gujarat Ahmedabad
68 Gujarat Gandhinagar
69 Gujarat Anand
70 Gujarat Himatnagar
71 Gujarat Jamnagar
72 Gujarat Mehsana
73 Gujarat Rajkot
74 Gujarat Surat
75 Gujarat Vadodara
76 Gujarat Valsad/Vapi
77 Gujarat Bharuch
78 Gujarat Bhavnagar
79 Gujarat Godhra
46
80 Gujarat Patan
81 Gujarat Gandhidham
82 Gujarat Bhuj
83 Haryana Faridabad
84 Haryana Ambala
85 Haryana Hisar
86 Haryana Kurukshetra
87 Haryana Gurugram
88 Haryana Karnal
89 Himachal Pradesh Bilaspur (Himachal Pradesh)
90 Himachal Pradesh Hamirpur (Himachal Pradesh)
91 Himachal Pradesh Kangra
92 Himachal Pradesh Kullu
93 Himachal Pradesh Mandi
94 Himachal Pradesh Shimla
95 Himachal Pradesh Solan
96 Himachal Pradesh Una
97 Jammu & Kashmir Kathua
98 Jammu & Kashmir Kupwara
99 Jammu and Kashmir Anantnag
100 Jammu and Kashmir Baramulla
101 Jammu and Kashmir Budgam
102 Jammu and Kashmir Jammu
103 Jammu and Kashmir Pulwama
104 Jammu and Kashmir Samba
105 Jammu and Kashmir Srinagar (J & K)
106 Jharkhand Bokaro
107 Jharkhand Dhanbad
108 Jharkhand Hazaribagh
109 Jharkhand Jamshedpur
110 Jharkhand Ranchi
111 Jharkhand Chaibasa
112 Jharkhand Deoghar (JH)
113 Jharkhand Dumka
114 Jharkhand Giridih
115 Karnataka Bagalkot
116 Karnataka Ballari
117 Karnataka Belagavi(Belgaum)
118 Karnataka Bengaluru
119 Karnataka Bengaluru- Urban
120 Karnataka Chikaballapur
121 Karnataka Chikmagalur
47
122 Karnataka Davangere
123 Karnataka Dharwad
124 Karnataka Gulbarga/Kalaburgi
125 Karnataka Hassan
126 Karnataka Hubli
127 Karnataka Kolar
128 Karnataka Mandya
129 Karnataka Mangaluru(Mangalore)
130 Karnataka Mysuru(Mysore)
131 Karnataka Shivamoga(Shimoga)
132 Karnataka Tumakuru
133 Karnataka Udupi/Manipal
134 Karnataka Bidar
135 Karnataka Vijayapura
136 Kerala Alappuzha/Chengannur
137 Kerala Ernakulam/Moovattupuzha
138 Kerala Angamaly
139 Kerala Idukki
140 Kerala Kannur
141 Kerala Kasaragod
142 Kerala Kollam
143 Kerala Kottayam
144 Kerala Kozhikode/Calicut
145 Kerala Malappuram
146 Kerala Palakkad
147 Kerala Pathanamthitta
148 Kerala Thiruvananthapuram
149 Kerala Thrissur
150 Kerala Wayanad
151 Ladakh Kargil
152 Ladakh Leh
153 Lakshadweep Kavaratti
154 Madhya Pradesh Balaghat
155 Madhya Pradesh Bhopal
156 Madhya Pradesh Gwalior
157 Madhya Pradesh Indore
158 Madhya Pradesh Jabalpur
159 Madhya Pradesh Khandwa
160 Madhya Pradesh Sagar
161 Madhya Pradesh Satna
162 Madhya Pradesh Ujjain
163 Madhya Pradesh Betul
48
164 Madhya Pradesh Chhindwara
165 Madhya Pradesh Datia
166 Madhya Pradesh Dewas
167 Madhya Pradesh Khargone (West Nimar)
168 Madhya Pradesh Mandsaur
169 Madhya Pradesh Neemuch
170 Madhya Pradesh Vidisha
171 Maharashtra Ahmednagar
172 Maharashtra Akola
173 Maharashtra Amravati
174 Maharashtra Aurangabad (Maharashtra)
175 Maharashtra Beed
176 Maharashtra Bhandara
177 Maharashtra Buldhana
178 Maharashtra Chandrapur
179 Maharashtra Dhule
180 Maharashtra Gondia
181 Maharashtra Jalgaon
182 Maharashtra Kolhapur
183 Maharashtra Latur
184 Maharashtra Mumbai/Navi Mumbai
185 Maharashtra Nagpur
186 Maharashtra Nanded
187 Maharashtra Nandurbar
188 Maharashtra Nashik
189 Maharashtra Parbhani
190 Maharashtra Pune
191 Maharashtra Raigad
192 Maharashtra Ratnagiri
193 Maharashtra Sangli
194 Maharashtra Satara
195 Maharashtra Sindhudurg
196 Maharashtra Solapur
197 Maharashtra Thane
198 Maharashtra Wardha
199 Maharashtra Yavatmal
200 Maharashtra Gadchiroli
201 Maharashtra Navi Mumbai
202 Manipur Imphal
203 Meghalaya Shillong
204 Meghalaya Tura
205 Meghalaya Jowai
49
206 Mizoram Aizawl
207 Nagaland Dimapur
208 Nagaland Kohima
209 Odisha Angul
210 Odisha Balangir
211 Odisha Balasore (Baleswar)
212 Odisha Baragarh
213 Odisha Baripada/Mayurbanj
214 Odisha Berhampur / Ganjam
215 Odisha Bhadrak
216 Odisha Bhawanipatna
217 Odisha Bhubaneswar
218 Odisha Cuttack
219 Odisha Dhenkanal
220 Odisha Jagatsinghpur
221 Odisha Jajpur
222 Odisha Jeypore (Odisha)
223 Odisha Jharsuguda
224 Odisha Kendrapara
225 Odisha Nuapada
226 Odisha Paralakhemundi (Gajapati)
227 Odisha Phulbani (Kandhamal)
228 Odisha Puri
229 Odisha Rayagada
230 Odisha Rourkela
231 Odisha Sambalpur
232 Puducherry Puducherry
233 Punjab Amritsar
234 Punjab Bhatinda
235 Punjab Chandigarh
236 Punjab Jalandhar
237 Punjab Ludhiana
238 Punjab Moga
239 Punjab Pathankot
240 Punjab Patiala/Fatehgarh Sahib
241 Punjab Sahibzada Ajit Singh Nagar
242 Rajasthan Ajmer
243 Rajasthan Alwar
244 Rajasthan Bhilwara
245 Rajasthan Bikaner
246 Rajasthan Dausa
247 Rajasthan Hanumangarh
50
248 Rajasthan Jaipur
249 Rajasthan Jodhpur
250 Rajasthan Kota
251 Rajasthan Sikar
252 Rajasthan Sriganganagar
253 Rajasthan Udaipur
254 Rajasthan Chittorgarh
255 Rajasthan Churu
256 Rajasthan Jaisalmer
257 Sikkim Gangtok
258 Tamil Nadu Chennai
259 Tamil Nadu Coimbatore
260 Tamil Nadu Cuddalore
261 Tamil Nadu Coonoor
262 Tamil Nadu Dharmapuri
263 Tamil Nadu Dindigul
264 Tamil Nadu Erode
265 Tamil Nadu Kanchipuram
266 Tamil Nadu Kanyakumari/Nagercoil
267 Tamil Nadu Karur
268 Tamil Nadu Krishnagiri
269 Tamil Nadu Kallakurichi
270 Tamil Nadu Madurai
271 Tamil Nadu Nagapattinam
272 Tamil Nadu Namakkal
273 Tamil Nadu Pudukkottai
274 Tamil Nadu Ramanathapuram
275 Tamil Nadu Salem
276 Tamil Nadu Sivaganga
277 Tamil Nadu Thanjavur
278 Tamil Nadu Thoothukudi
279 Tamil Nadu Tiruchirappalli
280 Tamil Nadu Tirunelveli
281 Tamil Nadu Tiruppur
282 Tamil Nadu Tiruvannamalai
283 Tamil Nadu Vellore
284 Tamil Nadu Viluppuram
285 Tamil Nadu Virudhunagar
286 Telangana Hyderabad/Secunderabad
287 Telangana Karimnagar
288 Telangana Khammam
289 Telangana Kothagudem
51
290 Telangana Mahbubnagar
291 Telangana Nalgonda
292 Telangana Nizamabad
293 Telangana Siddipet
294 Telangana Suryapet
295 Telangana Warangal
296 Telangana Gadwal
297 Telangana Hayathnagar
298 Tripura Agartala
299 Uttar Pradesh Ghaziabad
300 Uttar Pradesh Meerut
301 Uttar Pradesh Noida/Greater Noida
302 Uttar Pradesh Agra
303 Uttar Pradesh Aligarh
304 Uttar Pradesh Allahabad/Prayagraj
305 Uttar Pradesh Ambedkar Nagar
306 Uttar Pradesh Azamgarh
307 Uttar Pradesh Ballia
308 Uttar Pradesh Bareilly
309 Uttar Pradesh Bijnor
310 Uttar Pradesh Bulandshahr
311 Uttar Pradesh Basti
312 Uttar Pradesh Chandauli
313 Uttar Pradesh Faizabad
314 Uttar Pradesh Firozabad
315 Uttar Pradesh Ghazipur
316 Uttar Pradesh Gorakhpur
317 Uttar Pradesh Jhansi
318 Uttar Pradesh Kanpur
319 Uttar Pradesh Lucknow
320 Uttar Pradesh Mathura
321 Uttar Pradesh Mau
322 Uttar Pradesh Moradabad
323 Uttar Pradesh Muzaffarnagar
324 Uttar Pradesh Rampur
325 Uttar Pradesh Saharanpur
326 Uttar Pradesh Sitapur
327 Uttar Pradesh Sultanpur
328 Uttar Pradesh Varanasi
329 Uttar Pradesh Pratapgarh
330 Uttarakhand Almora
331 Uttarakhand Dehradun
52
332 Uttarakhand Haldwani
333 Uttarakhand Pauri Garhwal
334 Uttarakhand Roorkee
335 Uttarakhand Srinagar (UK)
336 Uttarakhand Chamoli
337 Uttarakhand Haridwar
338 Uttarakhand Nainital
339 Uttarakhand New Tehri
340 Uttarakhand Udham Singh Nagar
341 Uttarakhand Uttarkashi
342 West Bengal Asansol
343 West Bengal Bankura
344 West Bengal Burdwan(Bardhaman)
345 West Bengal Durgapur
346 West Bengal Hooghly
347 West Bengal Howrah
348 West Bengal Kalyani
349 West Bengal Kolkata
350 West Bengal Siliguri
351 West Bengal Suri
352 West Bengal Jalpaiguri
353 West Bengal South 24 Parganas
354 West Bengal North 24 Parganas
355 Bahrain Manama
356 Sri Lanka Colombo
357 Qatar Doha
358 UAE Dubai
359 Nepal Kathmandu
360 Oman Muscat
361 Saudi Arabia Riyadh
362 UAE Sharjah
363 Singapore Singapore
364 Kuwait Kuwait City
365 Malaysia Kuala Lumpur
366 Nigeria Lagos/Abuja
367 Indonesia Jakarta
368 Australia Canberra
369 Austria Vienna
370 Brazil Brasilia
371 Canada Ottawa
372 Hong Kong Hong Kong
373 Mauritius Port Luis
374 Russia Moscow
375 South Africa Cape Town
376 Thailand Bangkok
377 USA Washington D.C.
378 Vietnam Hanoi
379 Norway Oslo
380 UAE Abu Dhabi
53
Note:
i. The candidate can provide up to a maximum of 04 cities as options. The
decision to run a CBT / Pen & Paper examination in those cities will lie with
the NTA and will be dependent on multiple factors.
ii. Though every effort will be made to allot a Centre in one of the cities selected
by the candidate, the NTA reserves the right to allot a city to the candidate
which may, in extreme circumstances fall out of the options opted by the
candidates due to administrative reasons.
54
Appendix –IV
Procedure for Online Payment of Fees and Helpline for Payment-Related Queries
After completing Step 2 of the Online Application Form, the candidate may remit the examination fee
(Step 3) in the following manner:
 Check the validity of the Debit/ Credit Card and keep it ready with you while logging on to
the website for submitting the Application Form. The candidates should enter the information
asked for and make payment through a Debit/ Credit Card.
 Through Net Banking, check the balance in your account and keep all credentials ready with
you while logging on to the website to make payments. The candidates should log in with
his/her credentials of net banking and make payments accordingly.
 For payment through a UPI Service, check whether there is a requisite balance in the Bank
Account / Wallet to which the concerned UPI is linked.
The prescribed Examination Fee (please see the Information at a Glance) can be paid through
any Bank/Payment Gateway in any Payment Mode [service/processing charges per transaction
and GST (if applicable) are to be borne by the candidate:
HDFC Bank Ltd

S. No Mode of Payment HDFC BANK
HDFC NIL Charge
1 Net Banking
Other Banks NIL Charge
Transaction up to ₹ 2000/-
HDFC or
2 Debit Cards 0%
Other Banks
Transaction above ₹ 2000/- 0%
Domestic Nil Charge
3 Credit Cards
International Nil Charge
Unified Payment Interface
4 Nil Charge
(UPI)
If Paying through HDFC Bank:
Level Name Email ID Contact Number
1 Ecom Support [email protected]
2. Pradeep Yadav [email protected] 9625622301
3 Vikram Singh [email protected] 9799810080
SBI
S. No Mode of Payment STATE BANK OF INDIA
SBI
1 Net Banking
Other Banks ₹ 5.00 + GST
2 Debit Cards Nil
Domestic
0.80% + GST
3 Credit Cards
3.50% of Fee+ GST
International
(Minimum Rs 11/-)
55
4 NIL Charge
(UPI)
If Paying through State Bank of India (SBI):

1 Helpdesk3 [email protected] 08026599990
2 Customer Care [email protected] 1800112211
4 Through SMS UNHAPPY (add text) 8008202020
CANARA BANK
Sr. No Mode of Payment CANARA BANK
Other Banks (Including
₹ 13 + GST
1 Net Banking Canara Bank)
HDFC, ICICI, SBI, AXIS ₹ 17 + GST
Transaction up to
₹ 2000/-
0.40% + GST
Visa/Master
2 Debit Cards Transaction above
₹ 2000/-
0.85% + GST
Rupay NIL Charge
3 Credit Cards Domestic 1.10% + GST

4 NIL Charge
(UPI)
If paying through Canara Bank:

Level Name Email ID
1 HelpDesk [email protected]; [email protected];

[email protected]; [email protected];
2 Complaint Management [email protected] [email protected];
Services [email protected]; [email protected]
3 Customer Care [email protected] [email protected];
[email protected]; [email protected]
4 ThroughSMS ---
ICICI BANK
S.No Mode of Payment ICICI BANK
ICICI NIL Charge

1 Net Banking
Other Banks 4.00 + GST
Transaction upto
ICICI or Rs 2000/- 0 %
2 Debit Cards
Other Banks Transaction above 0.5 % + GST
Rs 2000/-
Domestic 0.40%of Transaction value

3 Credit Cards
International 2.35%of Transaction value
4 Unified Payment Interface ICICI or other banks Transaction upto
56
(UPI) Rs 2000/- 0 %
Transaction above 0 %
Rs 2000/- + GST
If Paying through ICICI Bank:

1 Customer support Helpline [email protected]
number 1800222884
(9AM to 6PM)
(Pls select option 3)
Note: In case, the fee payment status is not ‘OK’, or the Confirmation Page of the Online
Application is not generated after fee payment (completion of Step 3) the candidate is advised to
contact the helpline number/email of the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway Integrator, as
mentioned below:-
(a) NTA Helpdesk Contact details (in case the payment-related issues are not resolved
through the above-mentioned Helplines of the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway
Integrator):
Email: [email protected]
Phone No.: 011-40759000
Procedure to raise payment-related Grievance:
After (successful completion of Step 3, the Confirmation Page of the Application Form, should
be downloaded and a printout of the same may be retained for future reference. The Confirmation
Page of the online Application Form could be generated only after successful payment by the
Candidate.
In case the Confirmation Page is not generated after payment of the prescribed fee, then the
candidate should approach the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway integrator (in the helpline
number and email given above in the Information Bulletin), to ensure the successful payment.
In spite of the above, if a successful transaction is not reflected on the Portal, the candidate may
contact the NTA Helpline. If the payment issue is still not resolved, the candidate may pay a
second time.
However, any duplicate payment received from the candidate by NTA in the course of said
transactions will be refunded through the same payment mode through which the duplicate
payment is received, after fee reconciliation by NTA
Information to be provided by the Candidate while raising any payment-related query/grievance

through QRS/email/Helplines: -
a. Name of the Bank and /or Payment Gateway.
b. Date and time of the transaction
c. Transaction Number
d. Bank Reference Number
e. Proof of transaction
f. Screenshot from the payment portal (in case of payment failure).
57
Appendix-V
Computer Based Test (CBT) Guidelines
The major examinations being conducted by NTA are Computer-Based Tests (CBT). A CBT requires
candidates to sit in front of a computer terminal (node) allocated to them against their Roll number
and Admit card. After logging the candidate will get detailed instructions for the examinations. At
the designated time of the start of the examination, the candidates will be able to proceed and see the
questions on the computer screen using the computer mouse. Candidates will have the option to
change/modify/edit/answers already entered at any time during the examination.
Procedure for appearing in Computer Based Test (CBT):
(Sample/mock test will be available on the NTA website: www.nta.ac.in for hands-on practice)
(a) A computer terminal (node) indicating the Roll Number will be allocated to each candidate.
Candidates should find and sit on their allocated computers only. Any candidate found to
have changed room/hall or the computer on their own other than the one allotted would lead
to cancellation of candidature and no plea in this regard would be entertained.
(b) For login, the candidate will have to enter a login ID and password. The computer terminal
allotted to the candidate will display the WELCOME login screen, the Candidate’s
photograph, and the subject opted by the candidate.
Candidate Login Page
Candidate Welcome Screen
(c) After login, the candidate shall be able to see the detailed instructions for the examination.
Candidates are advised to go through the instructions carefully regarding the type of
questions and marking scheme. At the designated time of the start of the examination, the
candidates will be able to proceed and see the questions on the computer screen.
Please read the instructions carefully
58
General Instructions:
1. The clock will be set on the server. The countdown timer in the top right corner of the screen
will display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination. When the timer
reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You will not be required to end or submit your
examination.
2. The Question Palette displayed on the right side of the screen will show the status of each
question using one of the following symbols:
4. The ‘Marked for Review’ status for a question simply indicates that you would like to look at
that question again.
5. You can click on the ">" arrow which appears to the left of the question palette to collapse the
question palette thereby maximizing the question window. To view the question palette again,
you can click on "< " which appears on the right side of the question window.
6. You can click on your "Profile" image on the top right corner of your screen to change the
language during the exam for the entire question paper. On clicking on the Profile image, you
will get a drop-down to change the question content to the desired language.
7. You can click on to navigate to the bottom and to navigate to the top of the question
area, without scrolling.
Navigating to a Question:
8. To answer a question, do the following:

a. Click on the question number in the Question Palette at the right of your screen to go
to that question directly. Note that using this option does NOT save your answer to the
current question.
b. Click on Save & Next to save your answer for the current question and then go to the
next question.
c. Click on Mark for Review & Next to save your answer for the current question,
mark it for review, and then go to the next question.
59
Answering a Question :
9. Procedure for answering a Multiple Choice Type question:
a. To select your answer, click on the button of one of the options.

b. To deselect your chosen answer, click on the button of the chosen option again or click
on the Clear Response button.
c. To change your chosen answer, click on the button of another option.
d. To save your answer, you must click on the Save & Next button
e. To mark the question for review, click on the ‘Mark for Review & Next' button.
10. To change your answer to a question that has already been answered, first select that question
for answering and then follow the procedure for answering that type of question.
Navigating through sections:
11. Sections in this question paper are displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions in a
section can be viewed by clicking on the Section name. The section you are currently
viewing is highlighted.
12. After clicking the Save and Next button on the last question for a Section, you will
automatically be taken to the first question of the next section.
13. You can shuffle between sections and questions anytime during the examination as per your
convenience only during the time stipulated.
14. The candidate can view the corresponding section summary as part of the legend that
appears in every section above the question palette.
Instruction for Question:
15. For the correctness of the translation for a particular language, only the English version
will be considered as the final version for evaluation purposes.
The keyboard attached to the computer, if any, will be disabled during the entire duration of the
examination. Depending on the type of question, the answers to questions can either be entered by
clicking on the virtual on-screen keyboard (numeric or otherwise) using the computer mouse or by
clicking the chosen option(s) using the computer mouse. Candidates will have the option to
change/modify answers already entered at any time during the entire duration of the examination.
In case the computer/mouse allotted to any candidate malfunctions during the test, he/she will be
immediately allotted another computer system and the time lost due to this will be adjusted in the
server so as to give the candidate the full allotted time.
The on-screen computer clock counter of every candidate will be set on the server. The countdown
timer on the top right side of the computer screen will display the time remaining (in minutes)
available for the candidate to complete the examination. When the timer reaches zero, the
examination will end by itself. The candidates will not be required to end or submit the examination.
60
The Question Palette displayed on the screen will show the status of each question using one of the
following symbols:
The question(s) “Answered and Marked for Review” status for a question indicates that the
candidates would like to have a relook at that question again. A candidate has the option of answering
a question and simultaneously “Marked for Review”, these answers will be considered for
evaluation. However, if a candidate has simply put “Marked for Review” for a question without
answering it, the corresponding question marked for review without an answer will not be considered
for evaluation. It may be noted that a candidate can return to any “Marked for Review” question at
any time during the examination by clicking on the corresponding question number icon displayed
on the Question Palette of the corresponding section.
(d) The candidates can click on the “>” arrow which appears to the left of the question palette to
collapse the question palette thereby maximizing the question viewing window. To view the
question palette again, the candidate can click on “<” which appears on the right side of the
question window.
(e) Candidates can click to navigate to the bottom and to navigate to the top of the question area,
without scrolling. Using the computer mouse the candidate can scroll up and down the
question viewing area for viewing the entire question.
(f) The full paper can be viewed by clicking the “Question Paper” icon on the top right corner of
the screen.
(g) Blank Sheets for doing Rough Work/calculations shall be provided to the candidates. The
blank sheets would have a Header page for the candidates to write down his/her Name and
Roll Number. All calculations/writing work is to be done only in the Blank Sheets provided
at the Centre in the Examination Room/Hall and on completion of the test candidates must
hand over the rough sheets to the invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
(h) Navigating to a Question To navigate between questions within a Paper, the candidate
needs to do the following:
(a) Click on the question number in the Question Palette at the right of the screen to go
to that numbered question directly. Note that using this option does NOT save the
answer to the currently displayed question.
(b) Click on “Save and Next” to save the answer to any question. Clicking on “Save and
Next” will save the answer for the current question and the next question will be
displayed on the candidate’s computer screen.
61
(c) Click on “Mark for Review and Next” to mark a question for review (without
answering it) and proceed to the next question.
(i) Answering a Question

To navigate between questions within a Paper, the candidate needs to do the following:
Procedure for answering a Multiple-Choice type question:
(a) To select the option(s), click on the corresponding button(s) of the option(s).
(b) To deselect the chosen answer, click on the button of the chosen option again or
click on the “Clear Response” button.
(c) To save the answer, the candidate MUST click on the “Save and Next” button.
(d) To mark the question for review (without answering it), click on the “Mark for
Review and Next” button.
(j) Navigating through sections:

(i) Sections in the question paper are displayed on the top bar of the screen.
Questions in a section can be viewed by clicking on the section name. The section
in which the candidate is currently viewing will be highlighted.
(ii) After clicking the “Save and Next” button on the last question for a section, the
candidate will automatically be taken to the first question of the next section.
(iii) Candidates can shuffle between sections and questions within sections anytime
during the examination as per convenience only during the time stipulated.
(iv) The candidate can view the corresponding section summary as part of the legend
that appears in every section above the question palette.
(k) Procedure for answering questions that require inputs from the on-screen virtual
keyboard (numeric or otherwise):
(a) The candidate will have to use the on-screen virtual keyboard (that would be
displayed just below the question statement of these types of questions) and the
attached computer mouse to enter his/her answer in the space provided for the
answer.
62
On-Screen Virtual Keyboard
(b) The answer can be changed, if required, anytime during the test. To save the
answer, the candidate MUST click on the “Save and Next” button.
(c) To mark the question for review (without answering it), click on the “Mark for
Review and Next” button.
The candidates will have the option to change previously saved answers to
any question, anytime during the entire duration of the test. To change the
answer to a question that has already been answered, first select the
corresponding question from the Question Palette, then click on “Clear
Response” to clear the previously entered answer and subsequently follow
the procedure for answering that type of question.
(l) ROUGH WORK:
All calculations/writing work is to be done only in the rough sheet provided at the Centre in
the Examination Room/Hall and on completion of the test candidates must hand over the
rough sheets to the invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
63
Appendix - VI
Procedure to be adopted for compilation of NTA scores for multi-session Papers

(Normalization procedure based on Percentile and Equi percentile method)
Need for Normalisation
For several subjects, the CUET (UG)-2022 and CUET (UG) - 2023 were conducted in different shifts.
Since the question papers for any subject in different shifts are different and it is quite possible that despite
all the best possible efforts of maintaining equivalence among various question papers, the difficulty level
of these question papers administered in different sessions may not be the same or similar. Some of the
candidates might have ended up attempting a relatively tougher set of questions when compared to other
sets. The candidates who attempted the comparatively tougher examination are likely to get lower marks
as compared to those who attempted the easier one; the scores of the students across shifts are not directly
comparable. There is a need for normalizing the marks across shifts to make them amenable to such
comparisons.
A Committee headed by a Senior Professor from the Indian Statistical Institution Delhi and comprising
of Senior Professors from the Indian Institute of Technology Delhi and the University of Delhi had
detailed deliberations to arrive at the methodology.
As already intimated in the Information Bulletin of CUET (UG) – 2022 and CUET (UG) - 2023 the raw
score of each candidate in each subject will be normalized using the Equi-percentile method. This is done
separately for each subject for which the examination is held in multiple shifts.
For each subject for which the examination is held in multiple shifts, the raw score for each candidate
appearing for the subject will be converted into NTA Score (Percentile Score & Normalized Score) in the
following three steps.
Step 1: Convert Raw Scores into Percentile Scores.

The percentiles are calculated separately for each shift.
1. Record the number of candidates who have appeared in a shift. Denote this number by N.
2. Sort all the candidates in one shift in decreasing order of their marks.
3. Note the raw marks for each candidate. Suppose this is denoted by T. Count the number
of candidates in that shift whose raw scores are less than or equal to T. Denote this number
by m.
4. The percentile score for this candidate is then calculated as:
P= ∗ 100
Illustration:
Suppose that the examination in a certain subject is held in two different shifts, S1 and S2,
say. Consider six candidates A, B, C, D, E, and F out of which A, B, and C are from
shift S1 and the other three are from shift S2.
64
Let the raw marks of the six candidates be , , (shift S1 marks) and
, , (shift S2 marks).
For candidates A, B, and C, the percentiles are calculated using the total marks obtained by
candidates appearing in shift S1 (in the same subject) as explained above.
Similarly, for candidates D, E, and F, the percentiles are calculated using the total marks
obtained by candidates appearing in shift S2 (in the same subject) as explained above.
Let the respective percentiles be denoted by PA, PB, PC, P D, PE, and PF.
The above data is summarised in the following table. The terms in red colour indicate that
these are the output of this step.
Shift S1 Shift S2
Candidate Raw score Percentile Candidate Raw score Percentile
A PA D PD
B PB E PE
C PC F PF
Since the calculation for percentiles in any shift depends only on the data from that
shift alone, there is a separate table for each shift.
Step 2: Pull the percentiles to the marks scale for each session to get aNormalised Score.
 The data across all sessions tabulated at the end of step 1 is collated
into a single table.
 The columns for the shift-wise raw score should be kept separate.
 All the records are then sorted in decreasing order of the percentiles.
Illustration (Continued):
In the illustrative example given above, suppose that the percentiles

of the six candidates satisfy
P E>PA >P C =PF >PB>P D
Then the collated table would look as given below:
Candidate Percentile RawscoreS1 RawScoreS2

E PE –
A PA –
C&F P C=P
F
B PB –
D PD –
Candidate C from shift S1 and candidate F from shift S2 have the same
percentile. The relevant entries under “Raw Score S1” and “Raw Score S2” are
the actual raw scores and F respectively. This has the obvious interpretation
that marks of shift S1 are equivalent to marks of shift S2.
65
Candidates A and B, appearing in shift S1, have a blank entry in column “Raw
Score S2”, as there is no corresponding candidate having exactly the same
percentile from shift S2. Similarly, Candidates D and E, appearing in shift
S2, have a blank entry in column “Raw Score S1”, as there is no corresponding
candidate having exactly the same percentile from shift S1.
 In the remaining part of this Step 2, the blank entries in the two “Raw Score”
columns are filled up using linear interpolation.
 Consider a record (row) whose entry in the column “Raw Score S1” is blank.
The blank will be replaced by the interpolated score X which is calculated
as:
2 − 1
= 1 + ( − 1)
2− 1
Where:
- P is the corresponding entry in t h e “Percentile” column
- x1 is the first non-blank entry BELOW X. i.e., x1<X and there is no

other non-blank entry in the column between x1 and X.
- x2 is the first non-blank entry ABOVE X. i.e., x2> X and there is no

other non-blank entry in the column between x2 and X.
- p 1 is the entry in the “Percentile” column corresponding to x1 from the column “Raw
Score S1”.
- p 2 is the entry in the “Percentile” column corresponding to x2 from the column “Raw
Score S1”.
Note that there may be several blank entries between x1 and x2.
 All the blank entries in column “Raw Score S1” can now be replaced by the
interpolated values.
 The blank entries in column “Raw Score S2” are also replaced using a
similar procedure.
The table in the illustrative example would look like the following, where the entries
in red indicate the additional output at the end of this step.
Candidate Percentile Raw Score S1 Raw Score S2
E PE XE
A PA YA
C&F P C=P F
B PB YB
D PD XD
66
Step3: Calculation of the Normalised Score
Now for each subject, there is a score assigned to each percentile value for each
session. The Normalised score, Z, corresponding to a percentile value P, is
calculated as:
Z= Average of ( , , , … … … . . )= + + +,…..+
t
Where , , … … … . . denote the raw scores corresponding to the percentile P in each of

t h e different sessions
The final table in the illustrative example would be as follows:
Raw Raw Normalized

Candidate Percentile ScoreS1 ScoreS2 Score
E PE XE (XE + )/2
A PA YA ( +Y A)/2
C&F P C=P F ( + )/2
B PB YB ( +Y B)/2
D PD XD (X D + )/2
Step-by-Step Procedure for Converting from Raw Score to

Normalized Score: -
Example: Suppose a test was held in 4 phases of examinees as per details given
below: -
(Allocation of Days and shifts were done randomly)
No of Candidates Raw Score

Session Day Shift
Absent Appeared Total Highest Lowest
Session-1 Day-1 Shift-1 3974 28012 31986 200 -40
Total (Session-1 to Session-4) 25273 142482 167755 200 -40
67
i. Highest Raw Score and Percentile Score: -
Session Total Highest Candidates who Percentile Score Remarks

Candidates Raw scored EQUAL
Appeared Score OR LESS
THAN
Highest Raw
Score
100.0000000 i.e., All the
Session-1 28012 200 28012 [(28012/28012) *100] highest raw
100.0000000 scores would
Session-2 32541 194 32541 [(32541/32541) *100] be normalized
100.0000000 to 100
Session-3 41326 188 41326 [(41326/41326) *100] Percentile
Score for their
100.0000000 respective
Session-4 40603 200 40603 [(40603/40603) *100] session.
ii. Lowest Score and Percentile Score: -
Session Total Lowest Candidates who Percentile Remarks

Candidates Raw scored EQUAL Score
Appeared Score OR LESS
THAN
Highest Raw
Score
0.0035699
[(1/28012)
Session-1 28012 -40 1 *100] i.e., the Percentile Score
0.0030730 of all the lowest raw
scores are different i.e.,
[(1/32541)
Percentile Score depends
Session-2 32541 -36 1 *100]
on the total number of
0.0024198 candidates who have
[(1/41326) taken the examination
Session-3 41326 -36 1 *100] for their respective
0.0024629 session.
[(1/40603)
Session-4 40603 -40 1 *100]
Step1: Convert Raw Score into Percentile Score

The percentile score for this candidate is then calculated as:
. ℎ
ℎ ℎ
= 100 x
Total No. of Candidates w h o appeared in the session
68
Raw Percentile Raw Percentile
Candidate Score S1 Score Candidate Score Score
S2
A20020720 200 100 B20123935 194 100
A20411664 192 99.969144 B20012622 192 99.9990405
A20018569 190 99.831255 B20656224 100 96.9671093
A20339879 184 99.732901 B20410215 42 69.2904047
A20074407 180 99.432054 B20236444 26 67.7672549
A20751862 88 88.654575 B20128586 14 46.3751151
A20922992 48 74.137715 B20001667 4 27.0887703
A21004667 40 69.290405 B20042147 2 23.9100399
A21141123 22 52.135343 B20051256 0 12.225608
A25465232 8 30.675846 B20481968 -2 11.6211621
A26545946 6 27.584445 B20091701 -12 10.4982563
A25656543 2 24.886459 B20549576 -14 10.3947421
A26625216 1 22.351432 B20098269 -30 10.2430506
A26174451 0 19.997686 B20071356 -36 0.053034
A25463225 -1 15.23523
A26598636 -6 11.104361
A26596462 -40 0.053034
Raw Percentile Raw Score S4 Percentile

Candidate Score Score Candidate Score
S3
C20150694 188 100 D20479616 200 100
C20087997 186 99.969144 D20040337 194 99.9990405
C20121991 184 99.831255 D20467385 98 88.6545749
C20058572 180 99.732901 D20398094 44 68.9660903
C20060310 172 99.432054 D20428934 40 49.5097099
C20008597 56 78.338974 D20032939 32 46.3751151
C20430859 36 69.00182 D20690279 30 27.0887703
C20518247 20 52.135343 D20840699 28 23.9100399
C20045510 14 38.091932 D20084751 26 20.8800276
C20860609 9 30.675846 D21237483 24 12.1887008
C20861476 5 27.584445 D21077463 1 11.5349248
C20512680 3 24.886459 D20348188 -2 11.0243302
C20069270 2 22.351432 D25463225 -40 0.053034
C20355550 0 12.188701
C20549576 -3 11.23523
C26598636 -22 0.0539983
C26596462 -36 0.053034
69
Step 2: Pull Back the percentiles to the scale of the marks for each session to get Normalized marks.
Percentile Raw Raw Raw Raw
Candidate Score Score S1 Score S2 Score S3 Score S4
A20020720=B20123935=C20150694=D204 100 200 194 188 200
79616
B20012622=D20040337 99.99904053 - 192 - 194
A20411664=C20087997 99.9691438 192 - 186 -
A20018569=C20121991 99.8312554 190 - 184 -
A20339879=C20058572 99.7329013 184 - 180 -
A20074407=C20060310 99.4320538 180 - 172 -
B20656224 96.9671093 - 100 - -
A20751862=D20467385 88.6545749 88 - - 98
C20008597 78.3389742 - - 56 -
A20922992 74.1377149 48 - - -
A21004667=B20410215 69.2904047 40 42 -
C20430859 69.0018201 - - 36 -
D20398094 68.9660903 - - - 44
B20236444 67.7672549 - 26 - -
A21141123=C20518247 52.1353428 22 - 20 -
D20428934 49.50970986 - - - 40
B20128586=D20032939 46.37511514 - 14 - 32
C20045510 38.0919321 - - 14 -
A25465232=C20860609 30.6758464 8 - 9 -
A26545946=C20861476 27.5844446 6 - 5 -
B20001667=D20690279 27.08877034 - 4 - 30
A25656543=C20512680 24.886459 2 - 3 -
B20042147=D20840699 23.91003991 - 2 - 28
A26625216=C20069270 22.3514324 1 - 2 -
D20084751 20.88002763 - - - 26
A26174451 19.9976858 0 - - -
A25463225 15.23523 -1 - - -
B20051256 12.225608 - 0 - -
C20355550=D21237483 12.1887008 - - 0 24
B20481968 11.62116211 - -2 - -
D21077463 11.53492478 - - - 1
C20549576 11.23523 - - -3 -
A26598636 11.1043613 -6 - - -
D20348188 11.0243302 - - - -2
B20091701 10.49825625 - -12 - -
B20549576 10.39474209 - -14 - -
B20098269 10.2430506 - -30 - -
C26598636 0.0539983 - - -22 -
A26596462=B20071356=C26596462=D254 0.053034 40 -36 -36 -40
63225
70
In the remaining part of Step 2, the blank entries in the Raw Score Columns are filled up.
Percentile Raw Score Raw Score Raw Score
Candidate Score Raw Score S1 S2 S3 S4
A20020720=B20123935=C20150694=D20479616 100 200 194 188 200
B20012622=D20040337 99.9990405 199.7512409 192 187.93781 194
A20411664=C20087997 99.9691438 192 171.96504 186 171.96504
A20018569=C20121991 99.8312554 190 167.63275 184 167.63275
A20339879=C20058572 99.7329013 184 164.54257 180 164.54257
A20074407=C20060310 99.4320538 180 155.09028 172 155.09028
B20656224 96.9671093 158.958447 100 158.4442 101.91063
A20751862=D20467385 88.6545749 88 82.580043 112.72997 98
C20008597 78.3389742 56.7810489 60.96241 56 69.707196
A20922992 74.1377149 48 52.158146 47.207694 58.184318
A21004667=B20410215 69.2904047 40 42 36.629757 44.889504
C20430859 69.0018201 39.6972017 38.968549 36 44.097997
D20398094 68.9660903 39.6597121 38.593224 35.966106 44
B20236444 67.7672549 38.4018305 26 34.828858 43.753534
A21141123=C20518247 52.1353428 22 17.231221 20 40.539799
D20428934 49.5097099 20.1081761 15.758363 18.878207 40
B20128586=D20032939 46.3751151 17.8496346 14 17.538962 32
C20045510 38.0919321 11.8814266 9.7051566 14 31.141031
A25465232=C20860609 30.6758464 8 5.8599046 9 30.371981
A26545946=C20861476 27.5844446 6 4.2570079 5 30.051402
B20001667=D20690279 27.0887703 5.2651195 4 4.6325597 30
A25656543=C20512680 24.886459 2 2.6143453 3 28.614345
B20042147=D20840699 23.9100399 1.6148289 2 2.6148289 28
A26625216=C20069270 22.3514324 1 1.7332164 2 26.97122
D20084751 20.8800276 0.374867 1.4813591 1.7104312 26
A26174451 19.9976858 0 1.3303305 1.5367886 25.79696
A25463225 15.23523 -1 0.5151508 0.5995493 24.70105
B20051256 12.225608 -4.6428439 0 0.0072632 24.008493
C20355550=D21237483 12.1887008 -4.6875164 -0.122119 0 24
B20481968 11.6211621 -5.3744647 -2 -1.785703 4.0338503
D21077463 11.5349248 -5.4788463 -2.767984 -2.057041 1
C20549576 11.23523 -5.8415966 -5.436905 -3 -0.760858
A26598636 11.1043613 -6 -6.602352 -3.222382 -1.529777
D20348188 11.0243302 -6.24622 -7.315066 -3.358377 -2
B20091701 10.4982563 -7.8647146 -12 -4.252322 -3.822101
B20549576 10.3947421 -8.1831815 -14 -4.428221 -4.180631
B20098269 10.2430506 -8.6498685 -30 -4.685987 -4.706027
C26598636 0.0539983 -39.9970333 -35.99943 -22 -39.99666
A26596462=B20071356=C26596462=D25463225 0.053034 -40 -36 -36 -40
71
Step 3: Calculation of Normalized Score: Now for each subject there is a score assigned to each
percentile value for each session. The Normalised score, Z, corresponding to a percentile value P, is
calculated as Z= Average of ( , ,……….. )= + + +,…..+ / t
Where , ,……….. denote the raw scores corresponding to the percentile P in each of the different
sessions
Percentile Raw Score Raw Score Raw Score Normalised
Raw Score S1
Candidate Score S2 S3 S4 Marks
A20020720=B20123935=C20150694=D20479616 100 200 194 188 200 195.5
B20012622=D20040337 99.999041 199.7512409 192 187.9378 194 193.4223
A20411664=C20087997 99.969144 192 171.965 186 171.965 180.4825
A20018569=C20121991 99.831255 190 167.6327 184 167.6327 177.3164
A20339879=C20058572 99.732901 184 164.5426 180 164.5426 173.2713
A20074407=C20060310 99.432054 180 155.0903 172 155.0903 165.5451
B20656224 96.967109 158.958447 100 158.4442 101.9106 129.8283
A20751862=D20467385 88.654575 88 82.58004 112.73 98 95.3275
C20008597 78.338974 56.7810489 60.96241 56 69.7072 60.86266
A20922992 74.137715 48 52.15815 47.20769 58.18432 51.38754
A21004667=B20410215 69.290405 40 42 36.62976 44.8895 40.87982
C20430859 69.00182 39.6972017 38.96855 36 44.098 39.69094
D20398094 68.96609 39.6597121 38.59322 35.96611 44 39.55476
B20236444 67.767255 38.4018305 26 34.82886 43.75353 35.74606
A21141123=C20518247 52.135343 22 17.23122 20 40.5398 24.94276
D20428934 49.50971 20.1081761 15.75836 18.87821 40 23.68619
B20128586=D20032939 46.375115 17.8496346 14 17.53896 32 20.34715
C20045510 38.091932 11.8814266 9.705157 14 31.14103 16.6819
A25465232=C20860609 30.675846 8 5.859905 9 30.37198 13.30797
A26545946=C20861476 27.584445 6 4.257008 5 30.0514 11.3271
B20001667=D20690279 27.08877 5.2651195 4 4.63256 30 10.97442
A25656543=C20512680 24.886459 2 2.614345 3 28.61435 9.057173
B20042147=D20840699 23.91004 1.6148289 2 2.614829 28 8.557414
A26625216=C20069270 22.351432 1 1.733216 2 26.97122 7.926109
D20084751 20.880028 0.374867 1.481359 1.710431 26 7.391664
A26174451 19.997686 0 1.330331 1.536789 25.79696 7.16602
A25463225 15.23523 -1 0.515151 0.599549 24.70105 6.203938
B20051256 12.225608 -4.6428439 0 0.007263 24.00849 4.843228
C20355550=D21237483 12.188701 -4.6875164 -0.12212 0 24 4.797591
B20481968 11.621162 -5.3744647 -2 -1.7857 4.03385 -1.28158
D21077463 11.534925 -5.4788463 -2.76798 -2.05704 1 -2.32597
C20549576 11.23523 -5.8415966 -5.43691 -3 -0.76086 -3.75984
A26598636 11.104361 -6 -6.60235 -3.22238 -1.52978 -4.33863
D20348188 11.02433 -6.24622 -7.31507 -3.35838 -2 -4.72992
B20091701 10.498256 -7.8647146 -12 -4.25232 -3.8221 -6.98478
B20549576 10.394742 -8.1831815 -14 -4.42822 -4.18063 -7.69801
B20098269 10.243051 -8.6498685 -30 -4.68599 -4.70603 -12.0105
C26598636 0.0539983 -39.9970333 -35.9994 -22 -39.9967 -34.4983
A26596462=B20071356=C26596462=D25463225 0.053034 -40 -36 -36 -40 -38
The above method is based on the work: “Normalization of marks in multi-session

examinations”, Abhay G. Bhatt et al, CURRENT SCIENCE, Vol. 118, No. 1, 10
January 2020.
Note: The NTA is planning to do the CUET (UG) 2024 examination in a single shift for each
language/subject/General Test, so that the need for Normalization will not exist. However, under
unavoidable circumstances, if any subject is conducted in multi-shifts, then normalization will be done. The
performance of every candidate will be evaluated using the equi-percentile method wherein normalized
marks of each candidate will be calculated using the percentiles of each group of students in a given shift
across multiple days for the same subject.
72
Appendix VII
How to fill in the OMR Answer Sheet

1. Do not fill in more than one option for any of the questions because there is only one
answer, which is the most appropriate for all the questions.
2. Use only a Blue/Black point pen to darken the appropriate circle.

3. Before filling the OMR Sheet, the Candidate should remember one thing OMR sheets are
evaluated by computer software. This software is very sensitive and can only read properly
filled black-coloured bubbles. Do not tamper or scratch the OMR sheet. Only provide the
required information in the OMR sheet.
4. Specific spaces or boxes are provided in the OMR sheets to fill in the required information
like Roll Number, Test Booklet No. and Test Booklet Code and do not write anything else
on the OMR sheets or do not make any specific symbol or sign. This can lead to the rejection
of the OMR Sheet.
a. For example, if a candidate has a 10-digit Roll Number. The correct way to fill in the Roll
Number is mentioned in the following example. The Roll Number will be mentioned in
the Admit Card.
73
b. The Candidate should ensure that 7-digit Test Booklet No. (for example) has been filled and
marked correctly.
5. In the OMR Sheet, write the Candidate’s Name, Father’s Name, and Mother’s Name (in running
handwriting) in the Name column as given in the following box
6. Do not fill in more than one option for any of the questions because there is only one answer,
which is the most appropriate for all the questions.
74
6. The candidates are required to sign with time (in running handwriting) in the declaration column.
7. Make sure that the CODE printed on the OMR Answer Sheet is the same as that on the Test
Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the
Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
8. In case of any discrepancy for a particular language, only the English version will be considered
as the final version.
9. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet.
10. The answer once marked can not be changed.
75
Appendix VIII
Replica of the online Application Form of CUET (UG) - 2024
Common University Entrance Test

CUET (UG) - 2024
Application Guide
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CONTENT PAGE NO.

14.1 Correspondence with NTA

14.2 Weeding Out Rules

14.3 Legal Jurisdiction

S. No. Appendix Particulars Page No.

CUET Common University Entrance Test

EWS Economically Weaker Section

GOI Government of India

MCQ Multiple Choice Question

MoE Ministry of Education

NDA Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA)

NEGP National e-Governance Plan (NeGP)

NTA National Testing Agency

OMR Optical Mark Reader

OBC-NCL Other Backward Classes-Non Creamy Layer

PwBD Persons with Disabilities

RPwBD The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016

TPC Test Practice Centre

UPI Unified Payment Interface (UPI)

VLE Village level Entrepreneur

OCI Overseas Citizen of India

Display of Recorded Responses and

Mode of the Test Hybrid Mode (Computer-Based Test/Pen & Paper)

Registration Registration will be online at https://exams.nta.ac.in/CUET-UG/

i. 40 out of 50 questions are to be attempted in all subjects including

ii. Except in subjects i.e., Accountancy, Economics, Physics, Computer

Candidates are requested to fill in the Application Form very carefully.

 Follow the steps given below to Apply Online:

Step 1: Registration Form:

Step 2: Application Form:

Step 3: Fee Payment:

iii. Usage of Data and Information:

Central Universities or Union Universities in India are established by an Act of

1.3. About Common University Entrance Test (CUET (UG) - 2024 )

1.4. Role of NTA

A merit list will be prepared by participating Universities/organizations.

The letters/e-mails/grievances/queries/RTI applications/Court cases pertaining to

2.1. Mode of Examination:

2.2. Medium of Examination:

S. No. Language Examination Centres

S. No. Parameters CUET (UG) - 2024

Subjects/ Tests (61) Questions to be Attempted

2.4. The pattern of Question Paper:

2.5. Tests / Subject covered under CUET (UG) - 2024

2.6. Duration of Test:

2.7. Syllabus of Test:

Language - Language to be tested through Reading Comprehension (based on

The syllabus for subjects is available on the NTA website https://exams.nta.ac.in/CUET-UG/

3.2. List of Qualifying Examinations (QE)

4.2.1 Provisions relating to Persons with Disability (PwD)

Provisions relating to Persons with Disability (PwD):

Date of Examination Between 15 May and 31 May 2024*

Slot Shift 1 Shift 2 Shift 3

*The date(s) may vary depending on the National Election Schedule.

PwBD Certificate regarding physical limitation in an examination to write as per

d) Assisting other candidates to engage in malpractices, giving or receiving assistance of any

p) Any other malpractices declared as Unfair Means by the NTA.

10.2. PUNISHMENT FOR USING UNFAIR MEANS PRACTICES

10.3. CANCELLATION OF RESULT

I ____, a candidate with_(name of the disability)

________at_ (name of the centre) in the District ,