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TOPICS
I 1.
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CHAPTER-1
CLASS - XI-th
Living world ..............................5

I
2. CHAPTER-2 Biological Classification ..............................15
3. CHAPTER-3 Plant kingdom ..............................28
4. CHAPTER-4 Morphology of Flowering Plants ..............................39
5. CHAPTER-5 Anatomy of Flowering Plants ..............................52
6. CHAPTER-6 Cell : The Unit of Life ..............................64
7. CHAPTER-7 Cell Cycle and Cell Division ..............................80
8. CHAPTER-8 Transport in Plants ..............................92
9. CHAPTER-9 Mineral Nutrition ............................ 106
10. CHAPTER-10 Photosynthesis in Higher Plants ............................ 113
11. CHAPTER-11 Respiration in Plants ............................ 127
12. CHAPTER-12 Plant Growth & Development ............................ 136
I 13. CHAPTER-13
-
CLASS - XII-th
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants ............................ 149

I
14. CHAPTER-14 Principles of Inheritance and Variation ............................ 164
15. CHAPTER-15 Molecular Basis of Inheritance ............................ 180
16. CHAPTER-16 Microbes in Human Welfare ............................ 197
17. CHAPTER-17 Organisms and Populations ............................207
18. CHAPTER-18 Ecosystem ............................216
19. CHAPTER-19 Biodiversity and Conservation ............................225
20. CHAPTER-20 Environmental Issues ............................234
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What is living? A) digestion B) growth

C) locomotion D) none of these
1. The characteristics of growth include 8. Living organisms that do not reproduce
Pg-3, Easy are Pg-4, Easy
A) increase in mass A) mule
B) increase in number B) worker bees
C) increase in length C) infertile human couples
D) both A. and B. D) all of these
2. Unicellular organisms grow by 9. Match Column-I with Column-II and
Pg-4, Easy choose the correct option from the codes
A) cell elongation given below.
B) cell division Pg-4, Medium
C) accumulation of material on the Column-I Column-II (Method
surface (Organism) of reproduction)
D) none of these a Planaria (1) Fragmentation
3. Mountains, boulders and sand mounds
also grow, but they are not considered as b Hydra (2) Regeneration
living organisms because they grow by C Fungi (3) Binary fission
Pg-4, Easy d Amoeba (4) Budding
A) Accumulation of material on their
Codes
inner surface.
B) the division of their particles. a b C D
C) accumulation of material on their outer A) 2 4 1 3
surface. B) 4 2 3 1
D) both A. and B.
C) 3 1 4 2
4. Choose the correct statement about
growth in plants.
D) 1 3 2 4
10. The sum total of all the chemical reactions
Pg-4, Easy
A) Growth occurs continuously occurring in our body is
throughout their lifespan by cell Pg-5, Easy
division. A) anabolism B) catabolism
B) The growth is seen only upto a certain C) metabolism D) none of these
age. 11. An isolated metabolic reaction outside the
C) Growth occurs by the accumulation of body of an organism, performed in a test
material on the upper surface of their tube is
cells. Pg-5, Easy
D) Growth occurs only in certain cells. A) living
5. In yeast and Hydra, reproduction occurs B) non-living
by C) neither living nor non-living
D) sometimes living and sometimes non
Pg-4, Easy
A) conjugation B) sporulation living depending upon environmental
C) budding D) none of these factors
6. The organism(s) that can multiply by 12. Choose the incorrect statement from the
fragmentation is/ are following:
Pg-4, Easy Pg-5, Easy
A) fungi A) All living organisms exhibit
B) filamentous algae metabolism.
C) protonema of moss B) Metabolism is the sum total of all
D) all of these chemical reactions occurring in our
7. In Amoeba, reproduction is synonymous body.
with C) Metabolism is a defining feature of all
living organisms.
Pg-4, Easy
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D) Metabolic reactions cannot be

demonstrated outside the body in cell 18. All living organisms are linked to each
free systems. other because
13. Isolated metabolic reactions occurring in Pg-5, Easy
vitro are not living things, but surely living A) they show a common cellular
reactions. It proves that 'A' of the body is organization.
the defining feature of life forms. Here 'A' B) they possess common genetic material
is of the same type.
Pg-5, Easy C) they share common genetic material
A) reproduction but to varying degrees.
B) cellular organization D) all of these.
C) metabolic reactions 19. Assertion: Non-living objects also grow.
D) growth Reason: They grow by accumulation of
14. Identify the defining characteristics of material on the surface.
living organisms from the following. Pg-3, Medium
Pg-5, Easy A) Both assertion and reason are true and
A) Growth reason is the correct explanation of
B) Ability to make sound assertion.
C) Reproduction B) Both assertion and reason are true but
D) Response to external stimuli reason is not the correct explanation of
15. Photoperiod affects assertion.
Pg-5, Easy C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
A) reproduction D) Both assertion and reason are false.
B) metabolism 20. Assertion: Reproduction is not a defining
C) growth property of living organisms.
D) cellular organization Reason: Mules do not reproduce.
16. Living organisms respond to Pg-4, Medium
environmental stimuli which could be A) Both assertion and reason are true and
Pg-5, Easy reason is the correct explanation of
A) physical B) chemical assertion.
C) biological D) all of these B) Both assertion and reason are true but
17. Match Column-I with Column-II and reason is not the correct explanation of
choose the correct option from the codes assertion.
given below: C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
Pg- 3-5, Easy D) Both assertion and reason are false.
Column-I Column-II 21. Assertion: Non-living objects also exhibit
a Growth ( 1) Production of metabolism.
progeny Reason: Isolated metabolic reactions
b Reproduction (2) Sum of all chemical occurring, invitro are living things.
reactions occurring Pg-5, Medium
in body A) Both assertion and reason are true and
C Metabolism (3) Sense and respond reason is the correct explanation of
to environmental assertion.
stimuli B) Both assertion and reason are true but
d Consciousness (4) Increase in mass reason is not the correct explanation of
and number assertion.
Codes C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
D) Both assertion and reason are false.
a b C d Diversity in the living World
A) 3 2 4 1
B) 4 1 2 3 22. The process of naming of living organisms
C) 1 3 2 4 is called
D) 2 4 3 1 Pg-4, Easy
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A) systematics B) taxonomy C Identification (3) A system of

C) nomenclature D) none of these providing a name
23. Identification of an organism means with two
Pg-4, Easy components
A) its correct description d Binomial (4) Naming of living
B) its correct classification nomenclature organisms
C) its correct nomenclature Codes -
D) all of these
24. ICBN stands for a b C d
Pg-4, Easy A) 2 4 1 3
A) International Code for Biological B) 4 3 2 1
Naming C) 1 2 4 3
B) International Centre for Botanical D) 3 1 4 2
Nomenclature
C) Indian Code for Biological 29. Select correctly written scientific name of
Nomenclature mango which was first described by
D) International Code for Botanical Carolus Linnaeus.
Nomenclature Pg-7, Easy
25. Choose the correct statement about A) Mangifera indica Car Linn.
scientific names. B) Mangifera indica Linn.
Pg-4, Easy C) Mangifera indica
A) They ensure that each organism has D) Mangifera Indica
only one name. 30. In Mangifera indica Linn., the specific
B) Description of any organism should epithet is
enable the people to arrive at the same Pg-7, Easy
name. A) Mangifera B) indica
C) They ensure that such a name has not C) Linn. D) Both A. and B.
been used for any other organism. 31. Choose the incorrect statement about
D) All of these. rules of nomenclature.
26. The system of providing a name with two Pg-7, Easy
components is called A) Biological names are generally given in
Pg-4, Easy Latin.
A) trinomial nomenclature B) The first word in biological name
B) binomial nomenclature represents the genus while the second
C) uninominal nomenclature component denotes the specific
D) none of these epithet.
27. The naming system, which is practised by C) When hand written, both words of
biologists all over the world, was given by biological names are separately
underlined.
Pg-4, Easy D) Both the words of biological name start
A) Carolus Linnaeus with capital letter.
B) Whittaker 32. Which of the following is against the rules
C) Haeckel of ICBN?
D) Woese Pg-7, Easy
28. Match the Column-I with Column-II and A) Handwritten scientific names should
choose the correct option from the codes be underlined.
given below. B) Every species should have a generic
P•g-6 ' o·rfi
1 ICU It name and a specific epithet.
Column-I Column-II C) Scientific names are in latin and
a Biodiversity (1) Correct description should be italized.
of an organism D) Generic and specific names should be
b Nomenclature (2) The variety of written starting with small letters.
living organisms 33. Biological names are generally written in
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Pg-7, Easy a b c d
A) Greek language B) Latin language A) 3 4 1 2
C) English language D) Hindi language B) 2 1 3 4
34. The process by which organisms are C) 1 2 4 3
grouped into convenient categories based D) 4 3 2 1
on some easily observable characters, is 41. Assertion: Binomial nomenclature given
called by Linnaeus is being practiced by
Pg-7, Easy biologists all over the world.
A) taxonomy B) identification Reason: Each name of this system has two
C) classification D) nomenclature components, the generic name and the
35. The scientific term used for the categories specific epithet. Pg-8, Medium
of organisms to study them is A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
Pg-7, Easy and Reason is correct explanation of
A) taxa B) biological name Assertion.
C) systematics D) none of these B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
36. The process of classification is called but Reason is not the correct
Pg-7, Easy explanation of Assertion.
A) systematics B) taxonomy C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
C) nomenclature D) identification D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
3 7. The modern taxonomic studies are based 42. Assertion: The process of classification of
on organisms is taxonomy.
Pg-8, Easy Reason: It is merely based on the external
A) cell structures features of organisms.
B) external and internal structure Pg-7, Medium
C) development process A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
D) all of these and Reason is correct explanation of
38. Among the following process which one is Assertion.
not the basic to taxonomy? B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
Pg-8, Easy but Reason is not the correct
A) Identification explanation of Assertion.
B) Classification C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
C) Collection of specimen D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
D) Nomenclature 43. Assertion: Systematics is the study of
39. Systematics refers to organisms, their diversities but not the
Pg-8, Easy relationships among them.
A) diversities of different kinds of Pg-7, Medium
organisms and their relationship. Reason: Systematics is derived from a
B) identification and study of organ English word 'systema'.
systems of organisms. A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
C) identification and preservation of and Reason is correct explanation of
organisms. Assertion.
D) study of habitat of organisms and their B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
classification. but Reason is not the correct
40. Match Column-I with Column-II and explanation of Assertion.
choose the correct option from the codes C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
given below. D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
Pg-8, Difficult Taxonomic Categories
Column-I Column-II
a Mammalia (1) Specific epithet
44. All the taxonomic categories together
b Manqifera (2) Branch of study constitute the Pg-8, Easy
C indica (3) Taxa A) taxon B) family
D Systematics (4) Generic name C) kingdom D) hierarchy
Codes - 45. The lowest taxonomic category is
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Pg-8, Easy 52. Choose the incorrect statement from the

A) agenus B) species following.
C) class D) family Pg-9, Easy
46. The basic requirement for placing an A) Each genus may have one or more than
organism in various categories is the one specific epithets representing
knowledge of different organisms.
Pg-9, Easy B) Potato and brinjal are two different
A) characters of an individual species but both belong to the genus
B) characters of group of organisms Solanum.
C) binomial nomenclature C) 'Families' are characterized on the
D) both A and B basis of merely reproductive features of
47. Solanum includes species plant species.
Pg-9, Easy D) 'Order' is a higher taxonomic category
A) nigrum B) melongena and is identified on the basis of
C) tuberosum D) all of these aggregates of characteristics.
48. The taxonomic category, genus 53. Fishes, amphibians, reptiles and birds
represents represent which taxonomic category?
Pg-9, Easy Pg-9, Easy
A) an individual organism A) Class B) Phylum
B) a collection of organisms C) Order D) Kingdom
C) a group of closely related species of 54. The 'phylum' taxon of animal classification
organisms is equivalent to which taxon of plant
D) none of these classification? Pg-10, Easy
49. Match Column-I and Column-II and A) Class B) Division
choose the correct option from the codes C) Order D) Family
given below. 55. Refer to the given figure showing
Pg-9, Medium hierarchical arrangement of taxonomic
categories in the ascending order. In the
Column-I Column-II figure some taxa are labeled as A, B, C and
( Organism name) ( Scientific name) D. Which taxon will show maximum
a Lion (1) Panthera tiqris similar characters among its members?
b Leopard (2) Panthera leo Identify it.
c Tiger (3) Solanum niqrum
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Pg-10, Easy
d Potato (4) Panthera pardus Genus B Order I
I A
Codes -
Phylum/
D
Division C I
a b C d
A) 2 4 1 3 (a) B (b) A
B) 4 2 1 3 (c) C (d) D
C) 1 2 4 3 A) B B) A
D) 3 4 2 1 C) C D) D
50. 'Suffix' used for a unit of classification in 56. The kingdom that comprises all plants
plants to indicate 'family' taxonomic from various divisions is
category is Pg-10, Easy
Pg-9, Easy A) Plantae B) Animalia
A) -ales B) -onae C) Chordata D) Mammal
C) -aceae D) ae 57. Match the Column-I with Column-II and
51. The taxonomic category 'order' lies choose the correct option from the codes
between Pg-10, Easy given below:
A) Genus and species Pg-9-10, Difficult
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B) Genus and family Column-I Column-II
C) Family and class a Order (1) Solanum
D) Class and phylum TG: @Chalnaayaaar
b Kingdom (2) Solanaceae
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C Family (3) Plantae

d Genus (4) tuberosum 61. Assertion: Genus may have one or more
e Species (5) Polymoniales than one species epithets.
Codes Reason: Genus comprises a group of
related species. Pg-9, Medium
a b C d e A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
A) 5 3 2 1 4 and Reason is correct explanation of
B) 4 2 5 3 1 Assertion.
C) 1 5 3 4 2 B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
D) 3 4 1 5 2 but Reason is not the correct
58. In a taxonomic hierarchy, on moving from explanation of Assertion.
species to kingdom, the number of C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
common characteristics Pg-9-10, Medium D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
A) will increase 62. Assertion: Order is the assemblage of
B) remain same families which exhibit a few similar
C) will decrease characters.
D) may increase or decrease Reason: Plant family polymoniales is
59. Choose the correct statements from the included in the order solanaceae based on
following: the floral characters. Pg-9, Medium
Pg-9-10, Easy A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
I. In case of plants, classes with a few and Reason is correct explanation of
similar characters are aligned to a Assertion.
higher category called phylum. B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
II. Sub-categories have also been but Reason is not the correct
developed in the taxonomic hierarchy explanation of Assertion.
to facilitate more sound and scientific C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
placement of various taxa. D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
III. Class includes related orders. 63. Assertion: Wheat belongs to the family
IV. Convolvulaceae family is included in poaceae.
polymoniales order on the basis of its Reason: Wheat is a member of order
floral characters. poales. Pg-9, Medium
Select the correct option. A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
and Reason is correct explanation of
A) I and IV B) II and III Assertion.
C) II, III and IV D) All of these B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
60. Match Column-I with Column-II for but Reason is not the correct
housefly classification and select the explanation of Assertion.
correct option using the codes given C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
below. D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
Pg-9-10, Medium 64. Which of the following options represents
the correct classification for the given
Column-I Column-II P -11, Difficult
a Family (1) Diptera
b Order (2) Arthropoda
C Class (3) Muscidae
d Phylum (4) Insecta
Codes
a b C d
A) 4 3 2 1
B) 4 2 1 3 Phylu Class Order Famil Genu Spec
C) 3 1 4 2 m y s ies
D) 3 2 4 1 A) Chord Verteb Chirop Felida Canis Tigri
ata rata tera e s
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B) Chord Mamm Carniv Felida Panth Tigri I D) I 2 I 1 I 3 I 4 I

ata alia ora e era s
71. National Botanical Research Institute is
C) Verte Mamm Carniv Felida Panth Tigri
brata alia ora e era s situated at Pg-12, Easy
D) Mam Felidae Carniv Feliac Panth Leo A) Howrah B) Lucknow
malia ora eae era C) Dehradun D) Delhi
Taxonomical Aids 72. Choose the incorrect statement from the
following: Pg-12, Easy
65. Taxonomic studies of various organisms A) Herbarium is a storehouse of collected
are useful in Pg-11, Easy plant specimens that are dried, pressed
A) agriculture B) forestry and preserved on sheets.
C) industry D) all of these B) Herbaria serve as quick referral
66. Taxonomic studies require systems in taxonomical studies.
Pg-11, Easy C) Botanical gardens have collection of
A) correct classification preserved plant materials also.
B) correct identification of organisms D) Indian Botanical Garden is situated at
C) intensive laboratory and field studies Howrah, India.
D) all of these 73. Biological museums have collection of
67. A store house of collected plant specimens Pg-12, Easy
that are dried, pressed and preserved on A) preserved plant specimens
sheets is a Pg-11, Easy B) preserved animal specimens
A) herbarium B) botanical garden C) live plants and animals
C) zoological park D) catalogue D) both A and B
68. Among the following, which information is 74. Insects are preserved in insect boxes
not provided by the herbarium sheet about Pg-12, Easy
a plant? A) in preservative solutions
Pg-12, Easy B) after stuffing
A) Collector's name C) after collecting, killing and pinning
B) Place of collection D) as skeletons
C) Economic importance of plant species 75. Match Column-I with Column-II and
D) Botanical name of the plant choose the correct option from the codes
69. The specialized gardens having collections given below:
of living plants for reference are Pg- 11-12, Difficult
Pg-12, Easy
Column-I Column-II (Method
A) Herbarium
(Organism) of preservation)
B) Botanical gardens
a Birds (1) Skeleton
C) Zoological parks
b Human (2) Preservative solution
D) Museum
c Insects (3) Stuffing
70. Match the Column-I and Column-II and
choose the correct option from the codes d Small animals (4) In boxes after killing
given below: P�-12, Easy and pinning
Column-I Column-II Codes -
a Kew Botanical Garden (1) Dehradun a b C d
B Indian Botanical Garden (2) Lucknow A) 3 1 4 2
C National Botanical (3) England B) 4 3 2 1
Research Institute C) 1 2 3 4
d Forest Research (4 ) Howrah D) 2 4 1 3
Institute
76. The place where wild animals are kept in
Codes - protected environment is
a b d
C
Pg-13, Easy
A) 3 4 2
1 A) botanical garden B) zoological park
4
C) museum D) herbarium
B) 2 3 1
C) 1 3 4 2
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77. Zoological parks are commonly known as a b C d

Pg-13, Easy A) 1 4 3 2
A) museum B) garden B) 3 2 1 4
C) zoo D) none of these C) 2 4 3 1
78. Zoological parks and botanical gardens D) 3 4 1 2
have a collection of Pg- 12-13, Easy
A) exotic living species only 85. Choose the correct statements about
B) endemic living species only taxonomic keys. Pg- 13-14, Easy
C) both A and B I. It is used for the identification of only
D) only local plants and animals plants.
79. Plants and animals are identified by key on II. Each statement in the key is called a
the basis of their Pg-13, Easy lead.
A) morphology III. No separate taxonomic keys are
B) anatomy required for different taxonomic
C) similarities and dissimilarities categories.
D) all of these A) II and III B) I and II
80. The keys are based on contrasting C) III and I D) II only
characters generally in a pair called 86. Among the following which one is not a
Pg-13, Easy taxonomic aid? Pg-14, Easy
A) couplet B) doublet A) Flora B) Manual
C) triplet D) all of these C) Taxon D) Key
81. The contrasting characteristics generally 87. Among the following which one contains
in a pair used for identification of animals information on any one taxon?
in Taxonomic key are referred to as Pg-14, Easy
Pg-13, Easy A) Flora B) Monograph
A) Lead B) Couplet C) Manual D) Catalogue
C) Doublet D) Alternate 88. Assertion: Herbarium is a storehouse of
82. Taxonomic key is used in the preparation collected plant specimens that are dried,
of the Pg-14, Easy pressed and preserved on sheets.
A) monographs B) flora Reason: Herbaria serve as quick referral
C) both A and B D) none of these systems in taxonomical studies.
83. Each statement of the key is called a Pg-14, Medium
Pg-13, Easy A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
A) couplet B) lead and Reason is correct explanation of
C) monograph D) none of these Assertion.
84. Match items given in Column-I with those B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
in Column-II and select the correct option but Reason is not the correct
given below. explanation of Assertion.
Pg- 12-14, Difficult C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
Column Column-II
89. Assertion: Museums have collection of live
I
Herbarium It is a place having a collection
plants and animals.
a (1)
of preserved plants and animals. Reason: In museums, as far as possible,
b Key (2) A list that enumerates conditions similar to their natural habitat
methodically all the species are provided. Pg-14, Medium
found in an area with brief A) Both Assertion and Reason are true
description aiding identification.
Museum It is a place where dried and
c (3)
pressed plant specimens Assertion.
mounted on sheets are kept. B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
d Catalogue (4) A booklet containing a list of but Reason is not the correct
characters and their alternates explanation of Assertion.
which are helpful in
identification of various taxa. C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
Codes - D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
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90. Assertion: The taxonomical keys are based B) Both Assertion and Reason are true,
on the contrasting characters. but Reason is not the correct
Reason: Each statement in the key is explanation of Assertion.
called a couplet. Pg-14, Medium C) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
A) Both Assertion and Reason are true D) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.
Assertion.
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ANSWER KEY
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LIVING WORLD
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans D B C A C D B D A C
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans B D C D A D B C A A
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans D C D D D B A A B B
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans D D B C A B D B A A
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans A C D D B D D C A C
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans C C B B B A A C B A
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans A C B B D D A C B A
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans A C D C C B C C C A
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans B C B B D C B D C C
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Biological Classification
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1. Choose the correct with respect to earliest C) It has seven kingdom which are
for scientific basis of classification categorised in 3 - domain
(Pg. 16, E) D) It has six kingdom of which one
A) It was proposed by Aristotle kingdom is in first and third domain
B) Plants were divided as trees, shrubs & while 5 - kingdom is second domain.
herbs on the basis of their 9. Earlier classification system included
morphological characters bacteria, BGA (blue green algae) fungi,
C) Animals were classified into two groups mosses, ferns under 'Plants' on basis of-
that are those which have red blood (Pg. 17, E)
and those that did not A) Mode of nutrition
D) All of these B) Body organisation & nuclear structure
2. Linnaeus system of classification did not C) Presence of cell wall
deal with - (Pg. 16, E) D) Nature of cell wall.
A) Eukaryotes and prokaryotes 10. How many of following are prokaryotes:
B) Unicellular & multicellular (Pg. 17, E)
C) Photosynthetic & non - photosynthetic Bacteria, Mosses, ferns, fungi,
D) All of these pteridophyta, blue green algae,
3. How many kingdom according to five gymnosperms angiosperm
kingdom classification and Linnaeus A) 1 B) 2
system of classification is/ are dedicated C) 3 D) More than 4
for prokaryotes exclusively (Pg. 16, E) 11. Fungi has cell wall composed of-
A) 1, 0 B) 1, 1 (Pg. 17, E)
C) 2, 0 D) 3, 1 A) Cellulose
4. Moneran cell wall is composed by- B) Non - cellulosic + amino acid
(pg. 17, E) C) Chitin
A) Polysaccharide (Non cellulose) only D) Absence of cell wall
B) Polysaccharide (cellulose) 12. How many kingdom from R.H. Whittaker
C) Polysaccharide (chitin) system does have exclusive autotrophic
D) Amino acid and Non cellulosic mode of nutrition (Pg. 17, E)
polysaccharide A) Zero B) One
5. Chemosynthetic mode of nutrition is found C) Two D) Three
is - (Pg. 17, E) 13. Unicellular eukaryotic are categorised in
A) Monera B) Protist (Pg. 17, E)
C) Plantae D) Fungi A) Monera B) Protista
6. R.H Whittaker classification is/ are based C) Plantae D) Animalia
upon - (Pg. 17, E) 14. How many of the following does belong to
A) Cell structure & body organisation Protista (Pg. 18, E)
B) Mode of nutrition & reproduction Amoeba, Spirogyra, Chlamydomonas,
C) Phylogentic relationship Chlorella, Paramecium
D) All of these A) 5 B) 4
7. Five kingdom classification was proposed C) 3 D) 2
in - (Pg. 17, E) 15. In five kingdom classification
A) 1969 B) 1996 multicellularity began from -(Pg. 18, E)
C) 1699 D) None of these A) Animalia B) Plantae
8. Choose the correct about 3 - domain C) Protista D) Fungi
system (Pg. 17, E) Paragraph - 2.1
A) Two domain are dedicated for
prokaryotic while one domain is
Kingdom Monera
dedicated for eukaryotic
B) One domain is dedicated for 16. Identify shape of bacteria (Pg. 18, E)
prokaryotic while two domains are for
eukaryotic
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Column - I Column - II
(i) Halophiles (a) Marshy area
0 t0
�c O o (ii) Thermoacidophiles (b) Salty area
ofo Co
(a) (d) iii) Methanogens (c) Hot springs
A) a = cocci, b = rod - shaped, c = bacilli, A) i) - c, ii) - b, iii - a

d = comma - shaped B) i) - c, ii) - a, iii - b
B) a = spherical coccus, B = Bacilli, c = C) i) - b, ii) - c, iii - a
spirilla, d = vibrio D) i) - b, ii) - a, iii - c
C) a = cocci, b = spirilla, c = vibrio, d = 22. Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria
Bacilli in having -(Pg. 19, E)
D) a = vibrio, b = spirilla, c = bacilli, d = A) Definite nuclear structure
coccus B) Cell wall structure
1 7. choose the correct statement: (Pg. 18, E) C) Adaptability cytoplasmic
A) Bacteria are sole members of kingdom concentration
monera. D) Some membranous cell organelles
B) Bacteria are abundant macro 23. Survival of archaebacteria in extreme
organism condition is achieved by -(Pg. 19, E)
C) Bacteria occurrence is limited to some A) Cell wall structure
area. B) Some membranous cell organelles
D) Bacteria can't live in extreme habitat C) Adaptability&cytoplasm
like desert D) All of these
18. On the basis of shape; bacteria are 24. Which of following statement is/ are false
grouped under__ categories (Pg. 18, E) (Pg. 19, M)
A) Four B) Five A) Methanogens are present in alimentary
C) Three D) None of these canal of several ruminant animals like
19. Choose the correctly stated statement cow&buffaloes
(Pg. 19, E) B) Methanogens are responsible for
A) Bacterial structure and behaviour are production of biogas from dung of
complex. ruminant animals
B) Bacterial structure and behaviour are C) Methanogens are present in gut of
simple several non - ruminant like cow &
C) Bacterial structure is complex while buffaloes
behaviour is simple D) A&B
D) Bacterial structure is simple while Paragraph - 2.1.2
behaviour is complex Eubacteria TG: @Chalnaayaaar
20. Synthesis of own food from inorganic

substrate is occur in - (Pg. 19, E)
A) Autotrophic nutrition 25. Label A , B and identify organism (c)
B) Chemosynthetic autotroph (Pg. 19, E)
C) Photosynthetic autotroph
D) All of these
Paragraph - 2.1.1
Archaebacteria
21. Match the column - I&column - II

(Pg. 19, M)
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D) N 2 fixing in Anabaena
A) A = Heterocyst B = Mucilagenous 31. Choose the incorrect option about
sheath C = Nostoc, an archaebacteria bacterial reproduction- (Pg. 19, E)
B) A = Heterocyst B = Mucilagenous A) Bacteria reproduce mainly by fission
sheath C= Nostoc B) Under unfavourable condition they
C) A= Mucilagenous, B= Heterocyst, C= produce spores
Nostoc C) They also reproduce by sexual
D) A = heterocyst, B = Mucilagenous reproduction
sheath, C= Nostoc, a filamentous algae D) They show a sort of sexual
26. Choose the correct about blue green algae reproduction
(Pg. 19, M) 32. Here are few statement given below,
i. Also known as cyanobacteria Identify organism on basis of statement
ii. Presence of chlorophyll a, b similar to (Pg. 20, M)
green plants i. Lack cell wall
iii. Photosynthetic autotroph ii. Smallest living cell known
iv) May be unicellular, colonial or iii. Can survive without oxygen
filamentous iv. Pathogenic in animal & plants.
v. Occur in aquatic as well as terrestrial A) Nostoc
A) i), iii), iv), v) B) i), ii), iii), iv), v) B) Anabaena
C) i), ii), iv), v) D) None of these C) Mycoplasma
27. Nitrogen fixation is done by- (Pg. 19, E) D) Chlorella
A) Specialised vegetative cell i.e. Paragraph - 2.2
Heterocyst of Nostoc & Anabaena
B) Specialised reproductive cell i.e.
Kingdom Protista-Introduction
Heterocyst of Nostac & Anabaena
C) Specialised vegetative as well as 33. Protista includes - (Pg. 20, E)
reproductive cell i.e. Heterocyst of A) Unicellular prokaryotes
Nostoc & Anabaena B) Bacteriophages
D) None C) Unicellular eukaryotes
28. Choose the wrong statement for D) B.G.A
chemosynthetic autotroph bacteria 34. Which of the following kingdoms has no
(Pg. 19, E) well defined boundaries? (Pg. 20, E)
A) They oxidise various inorganic A) Monera
substrate such as nitrates, nitrites & B) Protista
ammonia and use the released energy C) Fungi
for their ATP production D) Metaphyta and Metazoa
B) They play great role in recycling 35. Members of Protista are primarily
nutrient like nitrogen phosphorous, (Pg. 20, E)
iron & sulphur A) Parasites B) Terrestrial
C) For their energy production they utilize C) Aquatic D) Photosynthetic
solar energy 36. Nearly all protists are- (Pg. 20, E)
D) They can prepare their food from A) Aerobic
inorganic substrate. B) Anaerobic
29. Citrus canker is- (Pg. 20, E) C) Aerobic or anaerobic
A) Plant disease cause by bacteria D) Photosynthetic
B) Human disease cause by bacteria 37. Nutritionally, protists are- (Pg. 20, E)
C) Pet disease cause by bacteria A) Photoautotrophs
D) None of these B) Heterotrophs
30. Which of following is not economic C) Saprotrophs
importance of heterotrophic bacteria D) Photoautotrophs, heterotrophs or
(Pg. 19, E) autotrophs
A) Making curd from milk 38. Based upon the modes of nutrition,
B) Antibiotic production protists are grouped into- (Pg. 20, E)
C) N 2 fixing in legumes root
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A) Plant-like protists (algae) and ingestive, B) They have water proof cells
animal-like protists (protozoa); and C) Their cell wall are mucilaginous
absorptive, fungus like protists D) Cell wall is virus-resistant
B) Chrysophytes, Dinoflagellates and 4 7. Diatomaceous earth is used for all except
Euglenoids only (Pg. 20, E)
C) Slime moulds and fungi only A) Polishing
D) Flagellated protozoans and sporozoans B) Filtration of oils and syrups
only C) Sound and fire proof room
39. Which of the following are placed under D) Biagas
Protista-? (Pg. 20, E) 48. Chrysophytes are - (Pg. 20, E)
A) Chryosophytes and Dinoflagellates A) Planktons B) Nektons
B) Euglenoids C) Benthonic D) Active swimmers
C) Slime moulds and protozoans 49. Chief producers in ocean are - (Pg. 20, E)
D) All A) Dinoflagellates B) Diatoms
40. Locomotory structures in protists are- C) Euglenoids D) Green algae
(Pg. 20, E) 50. Photosynthetic protists are - (Pg. 20, E)
A) Flagella B) Cilia A) Euglenoids, Diatoms
C) Pseudopodia D) All and Dinoflagellates
41. Protista form a link with - (Pg. 20, E) B) Euglenoids and slime moulds
A) Plants only C) Diatoms and Zooflagellates
B) Animals only D) Desmids +Ciliates
C) Fungi only Paragraph - 2.2.2
D) Plants, animals and fungi
Dino flagellates
Paragraph - 2.2.1
Chrysophytes 51. Dinoflagellates are mostly- (Pg. 21, E)
42. Chrysophytes include- (Pg. 20, E) A) Marine B) Fresh water
A) Diatoms and desmids (golden algae) C) terrestrial D) Saprophytes
B) Euglenoids 52. Red tides in warm coastal water develop
C) Dinoflagellates due to super abundance of- (Pg. 21, E)
D) Slime moulds A) Dinoflagellates
43. Which of the following modes of B) Euglenoid forms
reproduction can be found in at least some C) Diatoms and desmids
protists? (Pg. 20, E) D) Chlamydomonas nivalis
A) Binary fission 53. Red tide is caused by- (Pg. 21, E)
B) Sexual reproduction A) Ceretium B) Noctiluca
C) Spore formation C) Gonyaulax D) All of these
D) All 54. Dinoflagellates have- (Pg. 21, E)
44. Select the following statement that does A) A single flagellum in the transverse
not apply to diatoms- (Pg. 20, E) groove between the cell plates
A) Diatom cell wall may be impregnated B) A single flagellum in the longitudinal
with silicon groove between the cell plates
B) Cell wall is made up of 2 half-shells fit C) Two flagella one lies longitudinally and
tightly together the other transversely in a furrow
C) Diatom is a chrysophyte between the wall plates
D) Diatom is multiflagellate D) No flagella
45. Silica gel 55. In which of the following the cell wall has
(Keieselghur) / Diatomite/ Diatomaceous stiff cellulose plate on the outer surface -
earth is obtained by- (Pg. 20, E)
A) Diatoms B) Dinoflagellates (Pg. 21, E)
C) Euglenoids D) Brown algae A) Dinoflagellates B) Desmids
46. The diatoms do not easily decay like most C) Diatoms D) Euglenoids
of the other algae because - (Pg. 20, E)
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56. Which of the following releases toxins that B) Do not produce fruiting bodies
may even kill other marine animals like C) Do not produce spores
fishes - (Pg. 21, E) D) Saprophytic protists
A) Gonyaulax B) Paramecium 62. The slimy mass of protoplasm with nuclei
C) Euglenoids D) Sporozoans forms the body of slime moulds is called -
Paragraph - 2.2.3 (Pg. 21, E)
A) Plasmodium
Euglena
B) Myxamoeba
C) Sporocytes
57. Euglenoids e.g. Euglena are found - D) Periplasmodium
(Pg. 21, E) 63. Which of the following is correct about the
A) In fresh running water slime mould? (Pg. 21, E)
B) In fresh stagnant water I. Its thalloid body, plasmodium, has
C) In marine environment pseudopodia for locomotion and
D) In both fresh and marine water engulfing organic matter
58. Which of the following statements about II During unfavourable conditions
Euglena is true? (Pg. 21, E) plasmodium differentiates and
A) Euglenoids are flagellates produces fruiting bodies, sporangium
B) Euglena placed in continuous III. Spores possess no true cell wall.
darkness loses their photosynthetic IV. They are dispersed by air current.
activity and die V. Being extremely resistant, spores
C) The pigments of Euglena are quite survive for many years
different from those of green plants VI. Plasmodium can grow upto several
D) Euglena is a marine protist feet.
59. Which of the following statement is true A) I, II, IV, V, VI B) I, II , III
about Euglena? (Pg. 21, E) C) I, II , III, VI D) II, III , VI
A) They show flagellar locomotion Paragraph - 2.2.5
B) They have a rigid cell wall
C) They have no chloroplast Protozoans
D) They are obligate autotroph 64. Protozoans are not included in kingdom
60. (Pg. 21, E) Animalia because - (Pg. 22, E)
i. Instead of a cell wall they have a A) Mostly asymmetrical
protein rich pellicle making their body B) Unicellular eukaryotes
flexible. C) Heterotrophic nature
ii. They have 2 flagella, a short and a long D) Multicellular prokaryotes
one. 65. All protozoans are - (Pg. 22, E)
iii. They have mixotrophic nutrition A) Saprophytes only
iv. In light they are photosynthetic, but act B) Parasites only
as heterotroph (predating other smaller C) Predators only
organism) when they are in dark. D) Heterotrophs (parasites or predator)
v. They are connecting link between only
plants and animals. 66. Which of the following is considered to be
The above statements are assigned to - primitive relatives of animals -? (Pg. 22, E)
A) Dinoflagellates A) Dinoflagellates B) Slime moulds
B) Slime mould C) Protozoa D) Protochordata
C) Desmids and Diatoms 67. How many major groups protozoan have?
D) Euglena (Pg. 22, E)
A) 3 B) 4
Paragraph - 2.2.4 TG: @Chalnaayaaar
C) 2 D) 8
68. Which of the following are protozoans?
Slime Moulds
(Pg. 22, E)
A) Diatoms, flagellates, ciliates
61. Slime moulds - (Pg. 21, E) B) Desmids, flagellates, ciliates
A) Are parasite
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C) Amoeboid, flagellates, ciliates, 76. All of the following are fungi except -
sporozoans (Pg. 22, E)
D) Amoeba, ·Paramecium, dinoflagellates, A) Yeast B) Penicillium
Plasmodium C) Plasmodium D) Puccinia
69. Which of the following statements is wrong 77. Which of the following is odd?
about the amoeboid protozoans? (Pg. 22, E)
(Pg. 22, M) A) Toad stool B) Puccinia
A) They live in freshwater, sea water or C) Alternaria D) Mushroom
moist soil 7 8. Cell walls of all fungi consist of the
B) Amoeba has pseudopodia for polysaccharide - (Pg. 22, E)
locomotion and capture prey A) Chitin B) Cellulose
C) Entamoeba show holozoic nutrition C) Silica D) Pectin
D) Marine forms are shelled with silica 79. The body of multicellular fungus is called
70. Flagellated protozoans are - (Pg. 22, E) a- (Pg. 22, E)
A) Free living A) Monokaryon B) Hyphae
B) Parasites C) Rhizoids D) Dikaryon
C) Either free living or parasites 80. The cells of the body of a multicellular
D) Pseudopodia fungus are organised into rapidly growing
71. Which one is correct about Trypanosoma? individual filaments called - (Pg. 22, E)
A) They are flagellated protozoan A) Mycelium B) Rhizoids
B) They are parasite C) Hyphae D) Dikaryon
C) They cause sleeping sickness 81. Which one is unicellular fungus?
D) All (Pg. 22, E)
72. Paramecium- (Pg. 22, E) A) Puccinia B) Toad stool
A) Is a ciliated protozoan C) Penicillium D) Yeast
B) Shows water current movement by cilia 82. Coenocytic hypha is - (Pg. 22, E)
which helps the food to be steered into A) Uninucleate hypha
gullet B) Multicellular hypha
C) Has a cavity (gullet) that opens to the C) Multinucleate hypha without septae
outside of the cell surface D) Hypha in coelom
D) All 83. Many fungi are in __ association with
73. Plasmodium (malarial parasite) photosynthetic organisms to form
(Pg. 22, E) mycorrhizae or lichens -
A) Is a ciliated protozoan (Pg. 22, E)
B) Shows water current movement by cilia A) Parasitic B) Symbiotic
which helps the food to be steered into C) Photosynthetic D) Saprobic
gullet 84. Fungi can be parasites on - (Pg. 22, E)
C) Causes malaria A) Animals B) Human being
D) All C) Plants D) All
74. Which of the following always produce an 85. Fungi prefer to grow in - (Pg. 22, E)
infectious spore like stage in their life A) Cold and dry places
cycles? B) Hot and dry places
A) Ciliated protozoans C) Sea water
B) Flagellated protozoans D) Warm and humid places
C) Sporozoans 86. Fungi occur- (Pg. 22, E)
D) None A) In air and soil
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Paragraph - 2.3 B) In water
C) On plants and animals
Kingdom Fungi - Introduction
D) All
87. Fungi show a great diversity in -
75. Mode of nutrition in fungi is not - (Pg. 22, E)
(Pg. 22, E) A) Morphology
A) Parasitic B) Saprophytic B) Habitat
C) Autotrophic D) Heterotrophic C) Both a and b
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D) Nutrition A) Morphology of mycelium

88. Reproduction in fungi can take place by all B) Development of fruiting bodies
of the following vegetative methods except C) Mode of spore formation
(Pg. 22, E) D) All
A) Gemmae B) Fragmentation 96. Dikaryophase I Dikaryon formation is a
C) Fission D) Budding specific characteristic of- (Pg. 23, E)
89. Fungi show asexual reproduction by all of A) All fungi
the following spores except- (Pg. 23, E) B) Phycomycetes and ascomycetes
A) Conidia B) Oospore C) Only basidiomycetes
C) Sporangiospore D) Zoospores D) Ascomycetes and basidiomycetes
90. Sexual reproduction in fungi is by all of the 97. Coenocytic, multinucleate and branched
following except- (Pg. 23, E) mycelial habit is found in-
A) Oospores B) Ascopores (Pg. 23, E)
C) Zoospores D) Basidiospores A) Basidiomycetes
91. Select the correct statements below that B) Phycomycetes
correctly apply to the Kingdom Fungi- C) Ascomycetes
(Pg. 23, E) D) Deuteromycetes
A) Some fungi form beneficial 98.
interrelationships with plants Column I Column II
B) Certain fungi are natural sources of A. Phycomycetes I. Sac fungi
antibiotics B. Ascomycetes II. Algal fungi
C) The fungal life cycle typically includes C. Basidiomycetes III. Fungi imperfecti
a spore stage D. Deuteromycetes IV. Club fungi
D) All
92. The correct matching is - (Pg. 23, H)
A) A-II ' B-I ' C- IV ' D-III
B C B) A- II, B - IV, C - I, D - III
Zygote C) A- IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
D) A- IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
I A
I I D
I Paragraph - 2.3.1
Phycomycetes
Hyphae
Conjugation by E 99. Members of phycomycetes are found
opposite mating types (Pg. 23, E)
I. In aquatic habitat
93. The above diagram shows a generalized life
II. On decaying wood
cycle of a fungus. The appropriate terms
III. On moist and damp places
for A to E are- (Pg. 23, H) IV. As obligate parasite on plants
A) Spores are absent in air
A) None of the above
B) Spores are present in the bread
B) I and IV
C) Spores are in the air
C) II and III
D) The bread gets decomposed·
D) All of the above
94. Which of the following is the correct
100. In phycomycetes asexual reproduction
sequence of 3 steps in the sexual cycle of (Pg. 23, E)
· (Pg. 23 ' E) occurs by-
fungi-
A) Zoospores (motile)
A) Mitosis ----. Meiosis ----. Fertilization
B) Aplanospores (non-motile)
B) Plasmogamy----. Karyogamy----. C) Both
Meiosis
D) Aplanogamete
C) Meiosis ---- Plasmogamy ----
101. Which of the following spores are produced
Karyogamy endogenously?
D) Karyogamy----. Plasmogamy----. (Pg. 23, E)
A) Zoospores and Conidia
Meiosis
B) Conidia and aplanospores
95. Fungi are classified on the basis of -
(Pg. 23, E) C) Aplanospores and zoospores
_ _________ D) Ap_a_
1 no
_ spore,
� zoospores and con1·ct·1a
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102. In Phycomycetes sexual reproduction A) Agaricus B) Alternaria

occurs by (Pg. 23, E) C) Neurospora D) Mucor
A) Isogamy and anisogamy 109. Which of the following ascomycetes is the
B) lsogamy, oogamy source of antibiotic? (Pg. 24, E)
C) Isogamy, anisogamy and oogamy A) Neurospora B) Penicillium
D) Oogamy and anisogamy C) Claviceps D) None
103. All the following belong to phycomycetes Paragraph - 2.3.3
except - (Pg. 23, E) Basidiomycetes
A) Penicillium
B) Rhizopus (bread mould)
C) Mucor 110. Basidiomycetes include - (Pg. 24, E)
D) Albugo A) Mushroom, Toadstool, Puffball and
104. Which of the following is parasite on bracket fungi
mustard? (Pg. 23, E) B) Smut fungi and rust fungi
A) Albugo B) Puccinia C) Both a and b
C) Yeast D) Ustilago D) Bread mould, sac fungi and algal fungi
Paragraph - 2.3.2 111. Which of the following are common
parasite basidiomycetes (Pg. 24, E)
Ascomycetes A) Puccinia (rust) and Ustilago (smut)
B) Sac fungi
105. Which of the following is false about C) Puffballs
ascomycetes? (Pg. 23, E) D) Agaricus (mushroom)
A) Mode of nutrition saprophytic, 112. Where does meiosis occur in mushroom?
decomposer, coprophilous (growing on A) Basidiospore
dung) and parasitic B) Basidium
B) Includes unicellular (e.g. yeast) and C) Basidiocarp
multicellular forms D) Ascus mother cell
C) Mycelium is coenocytic 113.
D) Aspergillus, Claviceps, Neurospora are I. Mycelium is branched and septate
important members of Ascomycetes II. No asexual spores are generally formed
106. III. Vegetative reproduction by
fragmentation is common
I. It includes unicellular as well as IV. Sex organs are absent but sexual
multicellular fungi reproduction takes place by
II. In multicellular forms hyphae are somatogamy
branched and septate V. Karyogamy and meiosis occur in
III. Conidiophore produces conidia basidium to form haploid exogenous 4
(spores) exogenously in chain basidiospores
IV. Sexual spores are ascopores produced VI. Basidia are arranged in basidiocarp.
endogenously in Ascus
V. Fruiting body is called ascocarp The above characters are assigned to -
Which of the above characters are show by A) Sac fungi (Pg. 24, E)
-? (Pg. 23, E) B) Club fungi
A) Phycomycetes B) Sac fungi C) Algal fungi
C) Club fungi D) Fungi imperfecti D) Fungi imperfect
107. Which of the following are edible 114. Plasmogamy in fungi is the fusion of
ascomycete's delicacies? (Pg. 24, E) (Pg. 24, E)
A) Morels+ Mushroom A) Two haploid gamete cells and their
B) Truffles+ Toadstool nuclei at once
C) Morels+ Truffles B) Two haploid nuclei
D) Puffball+ Mushroom C) Two haploid gamete cells
108. Which of the following is used extensively D) Two diploid vegetative cells with nuclei
in biochemical and genetical work? 115. Karyogamy is - (Pg. 24, E)
(Pg. 24, E) A) Fusion of two protoplasts
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B) Fusion of two nuclei (ii)

C) Fusion of two plasma membranes
D) All of these
Paragraph - 2.3.4
Deuteromycetes
116. Which of the following is false about
deuteromycetes? (Pg. 24, E) (iv))
A) They reproduce only by asexual spores (i)
(conidia)
B) Mycelium is branched and septate
C) They have only parasitic forms A) (i) Dinoflagellates (ii) Euglena
D) They have no sexual stage (perfect
stage)
11 7. Which of the following is correct about
class Deuteromycetes? (Pg. 24, E)
A) Some members are saprophytes or B) (i) Dinoflagellates (ii) Paramoceium
parasites
B) A large number of members are
decomposers of litter and help in
mineral cycling
C) Alternaria, Colletotrichum and C) (i) Euglena (ii) Dinoflagellates
Trichoderma are deuteromycetes
D) All
118. Sexual reproduction is found in all except
(Pg. 24, E)
A) Deuteromycetes D) (i) Slime mould (ii) Paramecium
B) Ascomycetes
C) Phycomycetes
D) Basidiomycetes
119. If sexual stage is discovered in a member
of deuteromycetes, it is moved to- 122. Kingdom plantae includes- (Pg. 25, E)
(Pg. 24, E) i. All eukaryotic chlorophyllous
A) Phycomycetes organisms
B) Basidiomycetes ii. Some prokaryotic chlorophyllous
C) Ascomycetes organisms
D) Both band c iii. Few eukaryotic partial heterotrophic
Diagram Based Questions plant
120. Identify the diagram. (Pg. 23, E) iv. Few prokaryotic partial heterotrophic
plant
A) i, iii B) ii, iv
C) i, ii, iii D) i, iii, iv
123. Plantae does not includes how many of
(i) (ii) (ill) following- (Pg. 25, E)
(A) (i) Mucor (ii) Aspergillus (iii) Agaricus Algae, Fungi, Bryophyte, Bladderwort,
(B) (i) Aspergillus (ii) Mucor (iii) Agaricus Pteridophyta, Gymnosperm, Angiosperm
(C) (i) Agaricus (ii)Aspergillus (iii) Mucor A) Zero B) One
(D) (i) Agaricus (ii) Mucor (iii) Aspergillus C) Two D) Three
124. Life cycle of angiosperms plant have
121. Identify the diagram. (Pg. 21, E) (Pg. 25, E)
A) Diploid sporophyte & diploid
gametophyte
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B) Diploid gametophyte & haploid 130. Viruses are not- (Pg. 25, E)
sporophyte A) Non-cellular organism
C) Diploid sporophyte & haploid B) Inert crystalline structure outside the
gametophyte living cell
D) Haploid sporophyte & haploid C) Active crystalline structure outside the
gametophyte living cell
125. How many of following enlisted are correct D) Once they infect a cell they take over
about plantae- (Pg. 25, E) the machinery of host cell to replicate
I. Cells have eukaryotic structure themselves, killing the host
II. Prominent chloroplast 131. The name viruses-
III. Cellulosic cell wall A) which means venom was given by
IV. Life cycle has three distinct phase Dmitri Ivanowsky
V. Show alteration of generation B) which means venom was given by M.W.
A) One B) Two Beijerinek
C) Three D) Four C) which means venom was given by
Paragraph - 2.5 Stanley
D) which means venom was given by
Kingdom Animalia Pasteur
132.
126. Kingdom Animalia are characterized by
(Pg. 25, E)
A) Heterotrophic eukaryotic unicellular &
multicellular organism that lack cell
wall
B) Holozoic ,digest food in an internal
cavity and store food as complex
carbohydrates or fat
C) Higher as well as lower forms show
elaborate sensory mechanisms Identify a, b & organism(c)
D) All of the above A) a = DNA, b = capsid, c=TMV
127. How many of following term is correct B) a = RNA, b = capsid, c=TMV
about Animalia- Heterotroph, eukaryotic, C) a = capsid, b = DNA, c= bacteriophage
prokaryotic, unicellular, multicellular, D) a = capsid, b = RNA, c = bacteriophage
store food as glycogen, presence of 133. choose the correct statement-
elaborated neuromotor mechanism A) genetic material of mosaic disease of
without any exception, embryological tobacco causing organism is DNA
development (Pg. 25, E) B) Viruses were found to be smaller than
A) 6 B) More than 6 bacteria but they can passed through
C) 5 D) Less than 3 bacteria proof filters
Paragraph - 2.6 C) M.W Beijerinek (1898) demonstrated
that the extract of infected plant of
Viruses, viroids, prions, & lichens tobacco could cause infection in
healthy plants
128. In R.H Whittaker system, viroids, prions & D) Viruses were found to be smaller than
lichens are grouped into- (Pg. 25, E) bacteria and they can passed through
A) Monera B) Protista bacteria proof filters.
C) Protista and fungi D) None of these 134. Contagium vivum fluidum was stated by-
129. Viruses did not place in classification due (Pg. 26, E)
to- A) Dmitri lavanowsky (1898)
A) Lack in study of viruses B) M.W. Beijerinek (1892)
B) They are not considered truly 'living' C) W.M. Stanley (1935)
C) Lack of genetic material D) None of these
D) All of these
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135. Who showed that viruses could be B) A= capsid, B= capsomere, C= genetic

crystallized& crystals outside host- material
A) W.M. Stanley( 1935) C) A= capsid, B= capsomere, C= enzyme
B) M.W.Beijerinek (1898) and mineral
C) Dmitri lvanowsky (1892) D) A= capsomere, B= capsid, C= enzyme
D) M.W. Stanley (1898) and mineral
136. Which of following is major constituent in 145. Head of bacteriophage is - (Pg. 26, E)
crystallined virus structure - (Pg. 26, E) A) Helical B) Polyhedral
A) Carbohydrate B) Protein C) Icosahedral D) A&B
C) Fat D) Nucleic acid 146.
137. Viruses are (Pg. 26, E)
A) Autotroph
B) Obligate parasite
C) Saprotroph
D) Holozoic
138. Genetic material of viruses are/is -

(Pg. 26, E) (Pg. 26, E)
A) DNA A) A= head B= sheath, C = tail fibers, D
B) RNA = Collar
C) DNA and RNA both in an individual B) A = head B = collar C = sheath, D =
virus tail fibers
D) DNA orRNA in an individual virus C) A= collar B = head C = tail fibers D =
139. The infection material of viruses is/are sheath
(Pg. 26, E) D) A= tail fibers B= sheath C= head D=
A) Protein coat collar
B) Genetic material 147. Viroid was discovered by -
C) Nucleoprotein A) T.O. Diener (1971) (Pg. 27, E)
D) All of these B) W.M. Stanley (1935)
140. In general viruses that infect plants have- C) T.O diener (1935)
D) W.M. Stanley (1971)
(Pg. 26, E) 148. Choose the correct on basis of size
� dsRNA B) ssRNA (Pg. 27, E)
C) ds DNA D) ss DNA A) Bacteria<virus<viroid
141. Animal infection viruses are not generally B) Viroid<virus<bacteria
(Pg. 26, E) C) Viroid>bacteria<virus
A) ssRNA B) dsRNA D) Bacteria>viroid>virus
C) ds DNA D) ss DNA 149. Given below are statement (i-vi) choose
14 2. genetic material of bacteriophage is - correct set (Pg. 27, E)
(Pg. 26, E) i. Viroid=virus-capsid
A) ds DNA B) ssRNA ii. Potato spindle disease cause by prions
C) dsRNA D) ss DNA iii. Viroid have free DNA
143. bacteriophage is - (Pg. 26, E) iv. Viroid have freeRNA
A) bacteria that infect virus v. DNA of viroid was of low molecular
B) virus that infect bacteria weight
C) bacteria that infect cellular organism iv. RNA of viroid was of light molecular
D) virus that infect other than bacteria weight
144. The protein coat called _(A)_ made of A) i,iv only B) i, vi, iii
small subunit called _ _(B)_ _ that C) i, iv, vi D) i, iii, v
protect __ (C) __ of virus 150. Prion cause- (Pg. 27, E)
(Pg. 26, E) A) BSE in cattle and CJD in human
A) A = capsomere, B = capsid, C= genetic B) BSE in human and CJD in cattle
material C) BSE and CJD cause in cattle
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D) BSE and CJD cause in human B) Gymnosperm root&fungi

151. Prions are- (Pg. 27, E) C) Algae&gymnosperm root
A) Smaller than virus D) All of these
B) Larger than virus 155. Mycobiont and phycobiout are _&_
C) Smaller than viroid respectively (Pg. 27, E)
D) Similar in size to viruses A) Autotrophic&heterotrophic
152. Choose the incorrect about BSE B) Autotrophic&autotrophic
(Pg. 27, E) C) Heterotrophic&autotrophic
A) It expanded as Bovine spongiform D) Heterotrophic&heterotrophic
encephalophathy 15 6. The function of fungal part is lichen is/ are
B) Caused by prion (Pg. 27, E)
C) Its analogous variant is CJD A) Water absorption
D) Its homologous variant is CJD B) Mineral absorption
153. Lichen are - (Pg. 27, E) C) Provide shelter
A) Saprotroph only D) All of these
B) Symbiotic 157. Lichen cannot grow in - (Pg. 27, E)
C) Parasitic only A) Polluted area
D) A&C B) Area where there is no pollution
154. Lichen are mutual association of- C) Association between fungi and algae is
(Pg. 27, E) unpolluted region
A) Mycobiont (fungal) and D) All of these
phycobiont (algae)
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Answer Key
BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATION
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans D D A D A D A A D A
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans C D B A D B A A D D
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans C C A D D A A C B D
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans C C C B C A D A D D
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans D A D D A A D A B A
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans A A C C A A B A A D
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans D A A B D C B C D A
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans D D C C C C C A D C
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans D C B D D D C A B C
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans D B C D D B A A D C
Q 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans C C A A C B C C B C
Q 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans A B B C D D A D C B
Q 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Ans A C C C C D C A C C
Q 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans A B D B A B B D B B
Q 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Ans D A B B D B A B C A
Q 151 152 153 154 155 156 157
Ans C D D A C D A
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� )_ ...l ...l ...l '-';I/

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1. Artificial classification system is based on C) Kelp D) Spirogyra

- (Pg29, E) 8. Zoospore is - (Pg30, E)
A) Mainly on vegetative character and on A) Sexual spore in algae
the androecium structure B) Asexual spore in algae
B) Ultrastructure, anatomical, C) Develop in zoosporangium in number
embryological characters of four
C) External and internal features D) Non flagellated spore
D) Chromosome number. 9. Fusion between one large static female
2. George Bentham and Joseph Dalton gametes and smaller motile male gamete is
Hooker gave (Pg30, E) termed as _ as seen is _ (Pg30, E)
A) Artificial classification system A) Isogamous, Spirogyra
B) Phylogenetic classification B) Oogamous, Volvox
C) Natural classification system C) Anisogamous, Fucus
D) A and B respectively D) Oogamous, Ulothrix
3. Choose incorrectly match option (Pg30, E) 10. Eudorina show - (Pg30, E)
A) Numerical taxonomy - Number and A) Fusion of flagellate similar size gamete
code are assigned to all the character B) Fusion of non - flagellate similar size
and the data are then processed gamete
B) Cytotaxonomy - Based on cytological C) Oogamous
information D) Anisogamous
C) Chemotaxonomy Based on 11. How many of following is an example of
phytochemistry isogamous Ulothrix, Spirogyra, Volvox,
D) Natural classification - Linnaeus fucus, Polysiphonia (Pg31, M)
4. Phylogenetic classification - (Pg30, E) A) 1 B) 2
A) Based on evolutionary relationship C) 3 D) 4
B) This assume that organism belonging 12. Identify organism and label A, B, C, D
to some taxa haven't a common (Pg31, M)
ancestor
C) Gave equal weightage to vegetative &
sexual character but not on
evolutionary relationship
D) A and B both
Paragraph - 3.1
Algae
A) Laminaria A = leaf B = air bladder C =
5. Blue - green algae placed in which
stripe D = holdfast
kingdom according to R.H. Whittaker B) Fucus A = frond B = air bladder C =
(Pg30, E) stripe D = Hold fast
A) Monera B) Protista
C) Fucus A = air bladder B = frond, C =
C) Fungi D) Plantae midrib D = holdfast
6. Choose the correct statement algae: D) Laminaria A = leaf C = midrib D =
(Pg30, E) petiole
A) Algae are chlorophyllous, autotrophic 13. Algae are useful to man in - (Pg32, M)
member of Plantae A) Fixation of almost half of total CO2 on
B) Some algae occur in association with earth
fungi and on sloth bear B) Primary producer
C) The plant body of algae lack root, stem, C) Increase level of oxygen
leaf D) All of these
D) All of these 14. Hydrocolloids are produced by - (Pg32, M)
7. Colonial form alga is - (Pg30, E) A) Brown algae ( algin), carrageen(red
A) Ulothrix B) Volvox
algae), Agar(brown algae)
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B) Brown algae algin), Red algae Paragraph - 3.1.2

(carrageen)
C) Brown algae ( algin, agar), Red algae Phaeophyceae
(carrageen)
D) None of these 22. Phaeophyceae is commonly named as -
15. Choose correct statement - (Pg32, E) (Pg32, E)
A) Chlorella, a multicellular alga rich in A) Green alga B) Brown alga
protein C) Red algae D) None
B) Chlorella & Spirulina are astronaut food 23. Choose the correct statement from
because of their high carbohydrate, following - (Pg32, M)
vitamin mineral but less protein A) Ectocarpus is filamentous forms while
C) The product obtained by Gracilaria are kelps is profusely branched from
used to grow microbes B) Kelps may reach a height of average
D) Laminaria, Sargassum a member of 100cm
Rhodophyceae are among 70 species of C) The plant body of brown algae is
marine algae used as food attached to substratum by stripe
Paragraph - 3.1.1 D) Leaf - like photosynthetic organ of
brown algae is stripe
Chlorophycease TG: @Chalnaayaaar 24. Major pigment found in Fucus is/ are
(Pg32, E)
16. Chlorophyceae are commonly called as- A) Chlorophyll a, c
(Pg32, E) B) Chlorophyll a, d
A) Green algae C) Chlorophyll a, b
B) Blue - green algae D) Fucoxanthin and phycoerythrin
C) Brown algae 25. The color of brown algae depend upon
D) Red algae (Pg32, E)
17. Major pigment of Chlamydomonas - A) Amount of xanthophyll
(Pg32, E) B) Fucoxanthin present in them
A) Chlorophyll a, b C) Phycoerythrin and fucoxanthin ratio
B) Chlorophyll a, c D) A & B both
C) Chlorophyll a, d 26. Choose the correct about cell of brown
D) Fucoxanthin, phycoerythrin algae - (Pg32, E)
18. Choose incorrect statement about green A) Cellulosic cell wall cover outside by
alga- (Pg32, E) align
A) The chlorophyll localised in definite B) Cellulosic cell wall with pectin and
chloroplast polysulphate esters
B) Spirogyra have spiral chloroplast C) They have two flagella, equal sized and
C) Most member have one or more storage laterally inserted
bodies i.e. pyrenoid localised in D) A and C both
chloroplast 27. Dictyota is member of - (Pg33, E)
D) The cell wall is made of outer layer that A) Same member of Ectocarpus,
is of cellulose and inner layer of pectose Gelidium, fucus
19. Reproduction in green algae is/ are - B) Same member those having Caminaria
(Pg32, E) or mannitol as stored food
A) Isogamous B) Anisogamous C) Same member of Laminaria, Porphyra,
C) Oogamous D) All of these fucus
20. Chara is (Pg32, E) D) Same member those having
A) Common stonewort phycoerythrin as accessory pigment
B) Marine green algae 28. Gametes of Sargassum are- (Pg 33, E)
C) Unisexual algae A) Pyriform B) Cup - shaped
D) None of these C) Ribbon - shaped D) Discoid
21. Flagellation in green algae is - (Pg32, E) Paragraph - 3.1.3
A) 2 - 8, equal, apical
B) 2, unequal, lateral Rhodophyceae
C) 2 - 8, unequal, lateral
D) Absent
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29. Rhodopyceae is called red algae because of 35. Bryophytes are - (Pg35, E)
(Pg33, E) A) Amphibians of plant kingdom
A) Predominance of red pigment B) Reptilians of plant kingdom
B) Abundance if d - phycoerythrin C) First vascular bundles containing plant
C) A & B both D) A & C both
D) None of these 36. The body organization of bryophytes have
30. The stored food in Polysiphonia is __A_ (Pg35, E)
which is very similar to __B__ and A) Unicellular or multicellular rhizoid
__C__ in structure (Pg33, E) B) Less differentiation than algae
A) A= floridean starch B= amylopectin C C) They have true root stem and leaves
= glycogen D) A & C both
B) A = floridean starch B = chitin C = 37. The main plant body of bryophyte is
glycogen _A_ that produce __B__ (Pg35, E)
C) A = mannitol B = floridean starch C = A) A= diploid B= gametes
amylopectin B) A= haploid B= gametes
D) None of these C) A= haploid B= spores
31. Member of Rhodophyceae reproduce by D) A= diploid B= spores
(Pg33, E) 38. Choose the correct statement
A) Non - motile asexual spore and motile A) Sex organs in bryophytes are
sexual gametes unicellular and jacketed
B) motile asexual spore and motile sexual B) Male sex organ is antheridium that
gametes produce flagellate (four flagella)
C) Non - motile asexual spore and non - antherozoids
motile sexual gametes C) Female sex organ is archegonium i.e.
D) motile asexual spore and non - motile flask - shaped and produce single egg
sexual gametes D) Water is required for travelling of egg
32. Porphyra show - (Pg34, E) from archegonium to antheridium
A) Isogamous B) Anisogamous 39. In bryophyta, meiosis occur - (Pg35, E)
C) Oogamous D) All of these A) During development of gametes
Paragraph - 3.2 B) Immediately after zygote formation
C) After sometime of zygote formation
Bryophyta D) In gameophytic stage
40. Identify the given diagram and label (Pg34,
33. Bryophyta include - (Pg34, E) E)
A) Hornwort B) Liverwort
C) Mosses D) All of these
34. Identify given plant diagram and label its
parts: (Pg34, E)
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(A)--
A) Sphagnum, a liverwort A = archegonia

branch B= antheridial branch
B) Sphagnum, a moss A = archegonia
branch B = antheridial branch
A) Funaria, A gametophyte B C) Funaria, a moss A= antheridial branch
sporophyte B= archegonia branch
B) Sphagnum, A = gametophyte B D) Sphagnum, a liverwort A= antheridial
sporophyte branch B= archegonia branch
C) Funaria, A sporophyte B 41. Choose the correct statement with regard
gametophyte to bryophyta (Pg35, E)
D) Sphagnum, A sporophyte B
gametophyte
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A) Sporophyte is free - living but attached C) Non - green unicellular, asexual bud,
to photosynthetic gametophyte derives develop in small receptacles i.e. gemma
nourishment from it cup
B) Sporophyte is not free - living but D) Green, multicellular, sexual bud
attached to photosynthetic develop in small receptacles i.e. gemma
gametophyte and derives nourishment cup n
from it 48. In Marchantia (Pg35, E)
C) Gametophyte is not free - living but A) Male and Female sex organs are
attached to photosynthetic sporophyte produced on same thalli
and derives nourishment from it B) Male and female sex organs are
D) Gametophyte is free living but attached produced on different thalli
to photosynthetic sporophyte and C) Gametophytes is differentiated into foot
derives nourishment from it seta and capsule
42. First organism to colonize rock are - D) Spores geminates to form free - living
(Pg35, E) sporophyte
A) Mosses B) Lichen Paragraph - 3.2.2
C) Liverwort D) A & B both
43. For trans - shipment of living material Mosses:
which of following is more suitable to use
(Pg35, E) 49. The predominant stage of life cycle of a
A) Marchantia B) Funaria moss is- (Pg36, E)
C) Sphagnum D) Riccia A) Gametophytes
44. Which of the following is obtained from B) Sporophytes
Sphagnum as coal: (Pg35, E) C) Protonema stage
A) Bituminous B) Peat D) Frothallus stage
C) Lignite D) Anthracite 50. The gametophyte of moss is divided into
Paragraph - 3.2.1 (Pg36, E)
A) Two stage, first protonema stage which
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Liverwort develops directly from gamete.
B) Two stage, second leafy stage which
45. Choose the correct statement: (Pg35, E) develop from secondary protonema as
A) The thalloid plant body of liverwort is a lateral bud.
dorsiventrally appressed closely to C) Two stage, first leafy stage and second
substrate protonema stage
B) The leafy members have tiny true leaf D) Two stage, first protenema stage which
in two rows on the stem like structure develops directly from spore and
C) The leafy membrane have tiny leaf like second leafy stage which develop from
appendage in four rows on the stem spore germination as terminal bud.
like structure 51. Protonema stage is - (Pg36, E)
D) The thalloid plant body of liverwort is A) Creeping, green unbranched and
isobilaterally appressed closely to frequently filamentous stage
substrate B) Prostate, green, branched and
46. Asexual reproduction in bryophytes is not frequently filamentous stage
take place by - (Pg35, E) C) Creeping, green, branched and
A) Fragmentation frequently filamentous stage
B) Gemmae D) Prostate, non - green, unbranched and
C) Budding in secondary protonema frequently stage
D) Oogamous 52. Choose the correct statement about leafy
4 7. Gemmae are - (Pg35, E) stage of mosses (Pg36, E)
A) Green, unicellular, asexual bud, A) They consist, upright, slender axes
develop in small receptacles i.e. gemma bearing spirally arranged leaves.
cup B) They are attached to soil through
B) Green, multicellular, asexual bud multicellular and branched rhizoid
develop in small receptacles i.e. gemma C) This stage bear sex organ
cup D) All of these
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53. In sexual reproduction which of following 60. Choose the correct with regard to
is not seen in mosses (Pg36, E) reproduction in pteridophyte (Pg36, E)
A) Sex organ are produced at apex of leafy A) Sporophyte bear sporangia that are
stage subtended by sporophyll
B) After fertilization zygote develop into B) Gametophyte bear sporangia that are
sporophyte subtended by sporophyll
C) Development of embryo C) Sporophyll compact to form strobili as
D) All of these in fern
54. The sporophyte of mosses - (Pg36, E) D) The sporangia produce spores by
I) Is more elaborate than that is liverwort mitosis in spore mother cell
II) Consisting of foot, seta and capsule 61. Gametophyte of pteridophyte is - (Pg36, E)
III) Spores present in capsule A) Small but multicellular, free living,
IV) Spore produce after meiosis mostly photosynthetic, differentiated
V) Elaborate mechanism of spore into root, stemand leaf
dispersal B) Small inconspicuous but multicellular
VI) Presence of peristomic teeth. dependent mostly photosynthetic
A) All are correct thalloid body
B) I), II), III) only C) Small but multicellular, free living
C) IV), V), VI) only mostly photosynthetic thalloid
D) I), III), V) only structure
55. Choose incorrect matched (Pg36, M) D) Small inconspicuous but multicellular
Column - A Column - B free - living mostly non -
A) Hornwort i) Marchantia photosynthetic thalloid body
B) Bryopsida ii) Pol.LJtrichum 62. Water needed for fertilization in -
C) Liverwort iii) Marchantia (Pg36, E)
D) Mosses iv) Sphagnum A) Eucalyptus B) Bryophytes
C) Pteridophyptes D) B&C both
Paragraph - 3.3 63. Sex organ bear on - (Pg36, E)
Pteridophytes A) Sporophytes
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B) Gametophyte
56. Pteridophytes includes - (Pg36, E) C) On both gametophytes&sporophyte
A) Horsetail B) Ferns D) None
64. Heterosporous pteridophytes is/ are
C) Polytrichum D) A&B both
57. First terrestrial vascular plant is - (Pg36, E)
A) Selaginella B) Salvinia
(Pg36, E)
A) Algae C) Psilotum D) A&B both
B) Bryophyta (liverwort&hornwort) 65. Pteridophytes with all similar kind of
C) Pteridophyta spores is in (Pg36, E)
D) Bryophyta (Mosses) A) Terror of Kashmir
58. Choose the correct statement from B) Psilotum
following C) Selaginella
(Pg36, E)
A) The plant body is differentiated into D) A&B both
true root, only true prostrate stem as in 66. Seed habit reported for first time is
Selaginella and true leaf (Pg36, E)
B) The leaves of pteridophytes are small A) Blue - green algae
as in Selaginella or macrophyll in ferns. B) Pteridophyte
C) Pteridophytes possess xylem, phloem C) Angiosperm
D) All of these D) Bryophyta
59. In pteridophyta - 67. Pteridophyte classification into - (Pg36, E)
(Pg36, E)
A) The main plant body is a sporophyte A) 4 classes B) 4 orders
B) The main plant body is a gametophyte C) 4 families D) All of these
68. Adiantum is member with - (Pg36, E)
C) The main plant body is a gametophyte
on which sporophytic phase is partially A) Pteris B) Equisetum
dependent C) Lycopodium D) Selaginella
69. Match the following: (Pg36, M)
D) A&C
Column - I Column - II
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i) Sphenopsida A) Dryopteris (Pg38, E)

ii) Lycopsida B) Selaginella A) Ovules are enclosed by any ovary wall
iii) Psilopsida C) Psilotum both before and after fertilization
iv) Pteropsida D) Equisetum B) Ovules are not enclosed by any ovary
A) A - iv, B - ii, C - iii, D - i wall both before and after fertilization
B) A - iii, B - ii, C - iv, D - i C) Ovules are enclosed by any ovary wall
C) A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv before fertilization but not after
D) A - i, B - iv, C - ii, D - iii fertilization
70. Identify following pteridophytes -(Pg37, E) D) Ovules are not enclosed by any ovary
wall before fertilization but after
fertilization
73. Tallest tree species belongs to - (Pg38, E)
A) Angiosperm B) Gymnosperm
C) Pteridophyte D) Algae
74. Fungi show symbiotic association with
gymnosperm in form of - (Pg38, E)
A) Mycorrhiza in Pinus
B) Mycorrhiza in cycas
C) Coralloid rest in Pinus
D) Coralloid rest in cycas
75. The stem of - (Pg38, E)
A) Cycas is unbranched
. '�
B) Pinus is branched
(C)
C) Cedrus is branched
(D) D) All of these
A) A= Salvinia, B= horsetail, C= fern, D 76. Needle-like leaves, thick cuticle, sucken
= Selaginella stomata are character of - (Pg38, E)
B) A= Selaginella, B = Salvinia, C= fern, A) Cycas B) Pinus
D= horsetail C) Gnetum D) Ginkgo
C) A = Equisteum, B = fern, C 77. Gymnosperms are - (Pg38, E)
Selaginella, D= horsetail A) Heterosporous, haploid microspores
D) A = Selaginella, B = Salvia, C and haploid megaspore
Dryopteris, D= Equisteum B) Homosporous, both spores are haploid
71. Label A, B, C, D, E in following diagram: C) Heterosporous, both
(Pg37, E) spores(microspores & megaspores) are
diploid
D) None of these
78. Choose the correct statement - (Pg38, E)
A) The male and female cones borne on
same plant as in Cycas
B) The male and female cones borne on
different plant as in Cycas
C) The male and female cones borne on
same plant as in Pinus
D) Both A & C
79. Choose the correct about female cone of
A) A= strobilus, B= rhizome, gymnosperm: (Pg38, E)
B) A = cone, C = Node, D = internode A) The nucleus is protected by bitegmic
C) A= strobilus, B= rhizome, C= node, D structure
= internode, E= branch B) The megaspore mother call divides
D) None of these mitotically to form four megaspores
Paragraph - 3.4 C) One of four megaspores, enclosed
within the megasporangium which
Gymnosperm: TG: @Chalnaav aaar develop into a multicellular female
gametophyte that bear one archegonia
72. Gymnosperms are plants in which - D) Ovule is unitegmic
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80. Statement-I The cones bearing vi) Bear male cone and female cone on
megasporophyll with ovules are female same plant
cone vii) Bear male cone & female cone on
Statement-II The strobili bearing different plant
microsporangia are called male cone viii) It is living fossil along with Ginkgo
(Pg38, E) A) i, iii, vi, viii B) i, v, vii, viii
A) Both stated statement are correct C) ii, v, vi D) 1, 1v, vii, vm
B) Both stated statement are incorrect 84. Anthoceros thallus and coralloid root of
C) Statement-I is correct while statement- Cycas are (Pg39, E)
II is incorrect A) Similar in morphological structure
D) Statement-I is incorrect while B) Performing N 2 -fixing
statement-II is correct C) Presence of vascular bundle
81. Identify given plant diagram and choose D) B &C
correct response (Pg39, E) 85. Gametophytes is parasitic over
sporophytes is (Pg39, E)
A) Cycadales B) Coniferales
C) Monocot D) All of these
86. The endosperm of gymnosperm represent
(Pg39, E)
A) Female gametophyte
B) Triploid structure
C) Diploid structure
D) A&C
A) Ginkgo, a living fossil 87. Read the following statements and choose
B) Cycas, a living fossil the incorrect response with respect to
C) Taxus gymnospermous reproduction (Pg39, E)
D) Gnetum A) Pollen grains are carried by air
82. What is difference between bryophytic and currents
gymnospermous & gametophytes B) Pollen tube carries the male gametes to
(Pg39, M) archegonia
A) Bryophytic gametophytes is C) Following fertilization, zygote develop
independent free-living structure while but embryo stage is lacking
gametophytes of gymnosperm is D) Ovule develops into seed
dependent 88. All the given structure of Pinus and Cycas
B) Gametophyte of gymnosperm remain are haploid, except (Pg39, E)
within the sporangia retained on A) Pollen grain B) Egg
sporophytes C) Nucellus D) Endosperm
C) Both A & B 89. Gymnosperm is example of - (Pg39, E)
D) None of these
__
A) Vascular, embryophyte with ovule
83. Choose the correct set about given figure: enclosed is ovary
{Pg39,_,__
E) .... B) Vascular, non-embryophyte
C) Non-vascular, non-embryophyte
D) Vascular, embryophyte
90. Vascular archegoniates with diplontic
lifecycle are - (Pg39, E)
A) Bryophytes B) Gymnosperm
C) Pteridophytes D) B & C
Paragraph - 3.5
i) Pinnate leaves
Angiosperm:
ii) Palmate leaf
91. Tallest and smallest plant species
iii) Branched stem
belonging to angiosperm is - (Pg40, E)
iv) Branching is same as in Cedrus
A) Sequoia and Wolffia
v) Unbranched
B) Eucalyptus and Wolffia
TG: @Chalnaayaaar C) Sequoia and duck-weed
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D) None of these C) Three male gamete is embryo sac

92. Dicotyledons and monocotyledons are two D) More than one option is correct
__ of angiosperm (Pg40, E) 100. Syngamy is- (Pg41, E)
A) Family B) Class A) Fusion of egg and 1st male gamete
C) Order D) Division B) Fusion of egg and 2nd male gamete
93. How many of following is correct about C) Fusion of polar nuclei & 1st male
dicotyledons and monocotyledons gamete
respectively (Pg40, E) D) Both B & C
Seed with two cotyledons, trimerous, 101. Zygote is result of- Pg 41, E)
pentamerous, parallel veination A) Syngamy
Seed with one cotyledons, tetramerous, B) Double fertilization
reticulate veination C) Triple fusion
A) 4, 3 B) 3, 4 D) Both A & C
C) 2, 5 D) 5, 2 102. Fusion of 2nd male gamete with diploid
94. A group of plant flower with having three secondary nucleus result in formation of
members in each whorl is placed is (Pg41, E)
(Pg40, E) A) PEN B) Embryo
A) Monocot B) Dicot C) Both A & B D) Sporophyte
C) Tetramerous D) Both B & C 103. Double fertilization is- (Pg 41, E)
95. Choose the correct statement (Pg40, M) A) Fusion of two nuclei of polar nuclei
A) Embryo sac develop from one B) Fusion of male gamete with egg
functional megaspore(diploid) which C) Fusion of male gamete with secondary
result from mitosis and degeneration of nuclei
megaspore mother cell D) Both B & C
B) Embryo sac of consist of one egg 104. PEN provide- (Pg 41, E)
apparatus, three antipodal cell and two A) Protection of embryo
polar nuclei B) Nourishment to embryo
C) Polar nuclei, antipodal cells, egg are C) Anchorage to embryo
diploid structure of embryo sac of D) None of these
angiosperm 105. Which of following structure degenerate
D) Secondary nuclei is haploid after fertilization- (Pg 41, E)
96. Secondary nuclei result from fusion is A) Synergid B) Antipodal cell
(Pg40, E) C) A & B D) Embryo
A) Polar nuclei and 1st male gamete 106. Angiosperm differ with gymnosperm-
B) Polar nuclei and 2nd male gamete (Pg 41, E)
C) Both nuclei of polar nuclei A) In presence of true root, stem & leaf
D) Egg apparatus and polar nuclei B) Seed enclosed in fruit
97. Choose the correct sequence (Pg40, M) C) Ovary enclosed in ovule
A) Gamete formation ➔ pollination ➔ D) Both B & C
fertilization ➔ embryo ➔ new plant 107. Ovule develop into and ovaries
B) Gamete formation ➔ transfer of gamete develop into ___ of angiosperm
➔ fertilization ➔ pollination ➔ embryo (Pg 41, E)
➔ new plant A) Seed, fruit B) Fruit, seed
C) Pollination ➔ gametogenesis ➔ C) Fruit, fruit D) Seed, seed
fertilization ➔ embryo ➔ new plant 108. Pistil is- Pg 41, E)
D) None of these A) Female sex organ of flower
98. Microspore of angiosperm represent- B) Male sex organ of flower
(Pg40, E) C) Non-reproductive organ of flower
A) Sporophytic phase D) Divided into two part that are anther
B) Gametophytic phase and filament.
C) Both A & B Paragraph - 3.5
D) Female gamete
99. Pollen tube in angiosperm discharge Angiosperm:
(Pg40, E)
A) One male gamete is embryo sac 109. Kelp, Polysiphonia, Ectocarpus, Fucus,
B) Two male gamete is embryo sac Wolffian, Volvox
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How many of following are show haplontic, D) A & C both

haplodiplontic and diplontic life cycle 11 7. Choose the correct response with respect
respectively (Pg42, E) to pteridophyte lifecycle (Pg42, E)
A) 1, 3, 2 B) 3, 1, 2 A) Diploid gametophyte alternate with
C) 1, 2, 3 D) 2, 3, 1 sporophyte
110. Mitosis is observed in- (Pg42, E) B) Sporophyte and gametophyte are
A) Haploid plant cell independent
B) Diploid plant cell C) Sporophyte show saprophytic
C) Both A & B D) Meiosis occur in gametophyte
D) Only vegetative cell 118. The sporophyll of gymnosperms arranged
111. Choose correct statement about haplontic on axis to from cones (Pg42, E)
life cycle- (Pg42, E) A) Spirally B) Alternately
i) Sporophytic generation is represented C) Decussate D) Superposed
by single cell zygote 119. Identify life cycle pattern (Pg42, E)
ii) Free-living sporophyte
iii) Sporophyte is parasite on gametophyte
iv) Gametophyte arise from gametes after
mitotical division
v) Example are Spirogyra and some
species of Chlamydomonas
vi) Gametophyte arise from meiosis occur
in spore-
A) i, ii, v, vi B) i, iii, v, vi
C) 111, lV, V D) i, iii, iv
112. Eucalyptus show- (Pg42, E)
A) Diploid dominant sporophyte that is
photosynthetic and independent phase
B) Gametophyte is represent by few
diploid cell
C) Dominant phase is gametophyte
D) All of these
113. Gymnosperms are- (Pg42, E)
A) Haplontic B) Diplontic
C) Haplo-diplontic D) Diplo-haplontic
114. Bryophytes and Pteridophyte exhibit-
(Pg42, E) A) A= haplontic, B=haplo - diplontic, C=
A) Multicellualr sporophyte
B) Multicellular gametophyte diplontic
C) Unicellular sporophyte B) A = haplontic, B = diplontic, C = haplo
D) A & B both - diplontic
115. Bryophytes and pteridophytes differ in C) A= haplo - diplontic, B=haplontic, C=
their - diplontic
(Pg42, E) D) A = as in Volvox and angiosperm, B =
A) Stage of meiosis
as in Ectocarpus, C as in
B) Dominant phases
C) Stage of syngamy gymnosperm
D) Stage of gametogenesis 120. Bryophyte attached to substratum by -
116. In bryophytes - (Pg42, E) (Pg42, E)
A) Holdfast B) Rhizoid
A) Sporophyte totally or partially
dependent on the gametophyte for its C) Root D) A & C
anchorage and nutrition 121. Brown algae focus attached to substratum
B) Gametophyte totally or partially by - (Pg42, E)
dependent on the sporophyte for its A) Holdfast B) Stipe
anchorage and nutrition C) Frond D) Rhizoid
independent, 122. The plant body of liverwort is _A_
C) A dominant,
photosynthetic, thalloid haploid whereas mosses have __B_ bearing
Sporophyte alternate with gametophyte __C_ arranged leaves (Pg42, E)
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
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A) A = dorsiventral, B = upright, slender 125. Identify following life cycle pattern and
axes, C = alternally that pattern shown in (Pg42, E)
B) A = isobilateral, B = upright, slender �
� �ill -....
axes, C = spirally
C) A = dorsiventral, B = isobilateral axes, v:
C = alternately
D) A = dorsiventral, B = upright, slender ,,. ,. \
axes, C = spirally
123. Embryophytes doesn't includes
A) Algae, Bryophytes (Pg42, E)
B) Bryophyte, Pteridophytes . . . - " . �
C) Gymnosperm, angiosperm lnl
D) Algae only A) Haplontic life cycle eg: Volvox

124. Double fertilization does not occur in - B) Haplodiplontic lifecycle eg: Ectocarpus,
(Pg42, E) Psilotum
A) Pteridophyte, some gymnosperm, C) Haplodiplontic lifecycle eg: Fucus,
B) Monocot, dicot Marchantia
C) Dicot, some gymnosperm D) Diplontic lifecycle eg: Bryophytes,
D) Bryophytes, pteridophyte, some Pteridophytes
gymnosperm & monocot
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
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TG: @Chalnaayaaar
Answer key
PLANT KINGDOM
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans A C D D A D B B B D
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans B B D B D A A D D A
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans A B A A D D B A A A
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39
Ans C C D C A A B C C
Q 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49
Ans B B D C B A D B B A
Q 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59
Ans B C D C A A D C D A
Q 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69
Ans A C D B D D B A A A
Q 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79
Ans B D B B A D B A B D
Q 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89
Ans A A C B B D D C C D
Q 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99
Ans B B B A A B C A B B
Q 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109
Ans A A A D B C B A A A
Q 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119
Ans C B A B D B A B A C
Q 120 121 122 123 124 125
Ans B A D A A B
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Morphology of flowering plants
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
Unit-2 9. Choose the given statement which is

suitable for following figure (Pg. 66, E)
1. Curly top virus spreads a plant via
(Pg. 64, E)
A) Xylem B) Phloem
C) Vascular bundle D) None of these
2. The book 'Plant Anatomy' was published
by Esau in - (Pg. 64, E)
A) Same year as she did her doctorate I ,.,
B) 1960
C) 1954
D) 1957
3. Which of referred as Webster's of plant
biology' - an encyclopedia (Pg. 64, E)
A)Plant anatomy Flgure: Tap root system
B)Anatomy of angiospermic plant A) It comprises of primary & secondary
C) Anatomy of seed plants root
D)A & B both B) Such roots are observed in mustard
4. Esau was ___ woman to receive C) These roots are replace by large
'National Academy of science ' (Pg. 64, E) number root
A)7th B)6th D) A & B both
C) 5th D)1th 10. From given set of example choose, how
5. Statement - I: Esau got National Academy many of following are example of fibrous
of Science in 1957 root and adventitious root respectively.
Statement - II: In 1989, Esau received Sweet potato,carrot,turnip,wheat,grass,
National Medal of Science in 1989. Monstera, banyan tree (Pg. 66, E)
(Pg. 64, E) A)1,4 B)1,3
A) Statement - I & statement - II are both C)2,3 D)3,2
correct 11. Adventitious roots arise from- (Pg. 66, E)
B) Statement - I & statement - II are both A)Radicle
incorrect B) Base of stem in tuft as in wheat
C) Statement - I is correct and statement C) Part of plant other than radicle as in
- II is incorrect mustard
D) Statement - I is incorrect and D)Secondary root
statement - I is correct 12. Root is characterized by (Pg. 66, E)
6. Morphology is study of (Pg. 65, E) A)Presence of node & internode
A)External structure of an organism B)Mainly (-ve)phototropism
B)Internal structure of an organism C) Mainly (-ve)geotropism
C) Systematics D)Mainly (-ve)hydrotropism
D)A & B booth 13. Which of the following is not the main
Paragraph - 5.1 function of root system is/ are (Pg. 66, E)
A)Absorption of sap from soil
The Root B) Providing proper anchorage to plant
parts.
7. Radical form- (Pg. 65, E) C) Synthesis of plant growth regulators
A)Root system of plant D)None of these
B)Floral part of plant 14. Identify given diagram (Pg. 66, M)
C) Shoot system of plant
D)A & B both
8. The lateral roots arise from primary root
is- (Pg. 65, E)
A)Primary root B) Secondary root
C) Tertiary root D) A & B both (C)
(A) (Bl
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A) B) C) A) Region of - Small thin wall

A) Tap root Fibrous Adventitio meristematic dense
root us root B) Region of - Responsible for
B) Tap root Adventitio Fibrous elongation growth of root in
us root root length
C) Adventiti Fibrous Tap root
ous root root C) Region of - Proximal to region
maturation of elongation
D) Fibrous Tap root Adventitio
root us root D) Root hair - Differentiated and
mature cell
proximal to region
Paragraph-5.1.1 TG: @Chalnaayaaar of maturation
Regions of the Root
Paragraph-5.1.2
15. In aquatic plant the apex of root is covered
by Modification of Root:
(Pg. 67, E)
A) Thimble parenchymatous root cap
19. Pneumatophores are helpful in- (Pg. 67, E)
l
B) Root pocket
A) Transpiration
C) Coleorhiza
B) Getting oxygen for respiration
D) Coleoptile
C) Absorption of water
v- -=--4 �
16. Identify region of root tip (Pg. 67, M) D) Assimilation of food
�fr��-
20. Silt roots and pneumatophores are
observed in- (Pg. 67, E)
)
(A A) Maize, Rhizophora
�c
,:; B) Maize, Rhizopus
0\
C) Sugarcane Rhizopus
D) A & B both
ii' BJ 21. Mechanical root observed in - (Pg. 67, E)
(
A) Sugarcane B) Maize
}(C)
} C) Banyan tree D) All of these
(D)-.
I\..;,�;-
22. For food storage root get modified in -
A) A = Region of maturation, B = Region of (Pg. 67, E)
elongation, C= Region of meristematic A) Potato B) Sweet potato
activity, D = Root cap C) Ginger D) A & B both
B) A = Region of elongation, B = Region of 23. Match the following - (Pg. 67, H)
meristematic activity, C = Root cap, D Column - I Column - II
= Protective covering A) Conical root (I) Raddish
C) A = Region of meristem, B = Region of B) Napiform (II) Turnip
maturation, C = Region of elongation, root
D = Root cap C) Tuberous (III) Sweet potato
D) A= Region of growing cell, B= Region root
of mature cell, C = Region of dividing
D) Fusiform root (IV) carrot
cell, (D = Protective covering
17. Root hair arise from - (Pg. 67, E)
A) Cortical cell of region of maturation a b C d
B) Epidermal cell of region of maturation A) IV II III I
C) Cortical cell of region of elongation B) IV III II I
D) Epidermal cell of region of elongation C) III IV I II
18. Choose mismatch pair (Pg. 67, H) D) III IV I II
Column - I - Column - II 24. Modification of root Asparagus is meant
for - (Pg. 67, E)
A) Storage of food
B) Mechanical support
TG: @Chalnaayaaar ,--------------
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C) Respiration B) Unfavourable condition growth

D) Climbing support C) Flowering condition
25. Slit root arise from- (Pg. 67, E) D) A & C both
A) Lower nodes of Zea mays 33. Choose odd on with respect to stem
B) Lower internode of sugarcane modification- (Pg. 68, E)
C) Lower internode of Zea mays A) Zaminkand B) Colocasia
D) Upper node of sugarcane C) Bougainvillea D) Turmeric
26. Pneumatophores are (Pg. 67, E) 34. How many of following stem modification
i) Positive geotropism does develop from axillary buds
ii) Negative geotropism (Pg. 68, M)
iii) Grown in marshy area Colocasia, grapevines, cucumber,
iv) Found in mangroves pumpkin, Opuntia, Citrus, Watermelon,
v) Positive phototropism Bougainvillea
vi) Negative phototropism A)7 B)6
A) i, iii, iv, vi B) ii, iii, iv, v C) 5 D) 4
C) i, iii, v D) ii, iv, vi 35. Ginger and turmeric are example of-
Paragraph-5.2 (Pg. 68, E)
A) Rhizome B) Rhizoid
Stem: TG: @Chalnaayaaar C) Corm D) Roots
36. Photosynthetic green flattened modified
27. Stem distinguish from root in- (Pg. 68, E) stem xerophyte is in- (Pg. 68, E)
A) Presence of node & internode A) Acacia B) Euphorbia
B) Absence of node & internode C) Opuntia D) Hydrilla
C) Presence of hairs for water absorption 37. Stem is modified for protection in-
D) Absence of bud (Pg. 68, E)
28. Stem are develop from- (Pg. 68, E) A) Citrus thorn
A) Radicle of germinating seed B) Bougainvillea spine
B) Plumule of germinating seed C) Opuntia thorn
C) Cotyledons of germinating seed D) A and C
D) Coleoptile 38. Statement - I: Some plants of arid region
29. The region of stem where leaves are born modify their stems into fleshy cylindrical
are (Pg. 68, E) structure as in Euphorbia
A) Nodes Statement- II: In grapevines, stem tendril
B) Internode are for help plant to climb (Pg. 68, M)
C) Both node & internode A) Statement - I and Statement - II are
D) Floral bud correct.
30. Stems are generally- (Pg. 68, E) B) Statement- I is correct while statement
A) (+ve) geotropism, (-ve) hydrotropism, - II is not correct
(+ve) phototropism C) Statement - I is incorrect while
B) (-ve) geotropism, (-ve) hydrotropism, statement- II is correct
(+ve) phototropism D) Statement - I and statement - II are
C) (+ve) geotropism, (+ve) hydrotropism, incorrect
(+ve) phototropism 39. Stem tendril of pumpkin develop from
D) (+ve) geotropism, (-ve) hydrotropism, ( (Pg. 68, E)
ve) phototropism A) Accessory bud
Paragraph-5.2.1 B) Axillary bud
C) Extra- axillary bud
Modification of stem: D) Floral bud
40. Choose the correct statement about stem
31. Underground modified stem of potato is modification of mint (Pg. 69, E)
known as- (Pg. 68, E) A) A slender lateral branch arises from
A) Tuber B) Rhizome base of main axis and after growing
C) Corm D) Bulb underground for some time arch
32. Stem store food for- (Pg. 68, E) upward to touch the ground.
A) Favourable condition growth
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B) A slender lateral branch arises from A) Leaf develop at the node and bears a
base of main axis and after growing bud in its axile
aerially for some time arch downwards B) Leaves originate from SAM are
to touch the ground. arranged in acropetal orders.
C) Stem modification is same as in C) Leaf is lateral gernerally flattened
strawberries vegetative structure for photosynthesis
D) Stem modification mint is known as D) All of these
sucker 4 7. Stipules are - (Pg. 70, E)
41. Match the following: (Pg. 69, H) A) Two lateral small leaf like structure
Column - I Column - II B) Four lateral small leaf like structure
I) Strawberry A. Sucker C) One lateral small leaf like structure
II) Jasmine B. Offset D) Many lateral small leaf like
III) Pistia C. Runner 48. The leaf base expanded into a sheath
IV) Pineapple D. Stolon crossing the stem partially or wholly in
(Pg. 70, E)
A) I - C, II - D, III -B, IV - A A) Monocot
B) I -B, II - C, III - A, IV - D B) Dicot
C) I - C, II - A, III - B, IV - D C) All angiosperms plant
D) I - A, II -B, III - C, IV - D D) Gymnosperms
42. Choose odd one with respect to stem 49. Pulvinus is - (Pg. 70, E)
modification- (Pg. 69, E) A) Swollen leaf base of legume
A) Chrysanthemum B) Swollen petiole of legume and china
B)Banana Rose
C) Pineapple C) Swollen lamina
D) Strawberry D) Swollen stipule
43. In pineapple - (Pg. 69, E) 50. Label - A, B, C, D, E (Pg. 70, M)
A) The lateral branches originate from
basal and underground portion of main
stem, grow horizontally beneath the
soil and then come out obliquely
upward giving rise to leafy shoot.
B) The lateral branch arises time arch
downward to touch the ground growing
aerially for some time arch downward
(E)
to touch the ground A B C D E
C) A lateral branch with short internode
A) Lamina Stipule Petiole Axillary Leaf
bud base
and each node bearing a rosette of
leaves and a tuft of roots. B) Lamina Stipule Petiole Axillary Leaf
D) None of these bud base
44. In Oxalis stem is modified for - (Pg. 69, E) C) Lamina Pulvinus Pedicel Axillary Leaf
A) Storage bond base
B) Support
C) Protection D) Lamina Stipule Pedieel Extra- Leaf
D) Vegetative propagation axillary base
45. Lateral branch with short internode & bond
each node bearing a rosette of leaves and
a tuft of root found in -
Paragraph-5.3.1
(Pg. 69, E)
A) Pistia B) Eichhomia Venation
C) Grasses D) A & B both
Paragraph-5.3 51. Arrangement of vein & veinlet in lamina of
leaf (Pg. 70, E)
The leaf TG: @Chalnaayaaar
A) Venation B) Phyllotaxy
C) Aestivation D) None of these
46. Choose the correct response: (Pg. 69, E)
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52. Leaves of dicotyledonous plants generally D) A= palmately compound leaf; Neem B

characterized by - (Pg.70,E) = pinnately compound leaf; Silk cotton
A) Presence of parallel venation 57. Midrib of pinnately compound leaf is -
B) Veins which are parallel to each other (Pg.70, E)
within a lamina. A) Mid-vein B) Rachis
C) Presence of reticulate venation C) Petiole D) None of these
D) A & B both 58. Leaflet of pinnately compound leaf arise
53. Identify the leaf venation and type of leaf. on- (Pg.70, E)
(Pg.70, E) A) Common point i.e. at tip of petiole
B) Common axis
C) Common point i.e. at tip of rachis
D) A & C both
59. Leaflet of ___ arise on common point
i.e. at tip of petiole (Pg. 71, E)
A) Pinnately compound leaf
B) Palmately compound leaf
C) Simple leaf
D) All of these
A) Parallel venation; monocot mainly Paragraph-5.3.3 Phyllotaxy
B) Parallel venation; dicot mainly
C) Reticulate venation; dicot mainly 60. Phyllotaxy is pattern of arrangement of
D) Reticulate venation; monocot mainly on the (Pg. 71, E)
Paragraph-5.3.2 Types of leaves: A) Leaf, stem B) Phloem, stem
C) Vein, leaf D) None of these
54. A leaf is simple (Pg.70, E) 61. Identify types of phyllotaxy shown by given
A) When its lamina is entire diagram (Pg. 71, M)
B) When its lamina is incised, the incision
do not touch the midrib
C) A & B both
D) None of these
55. When the incisions of lamina reach to
midrib breaking leaf into a number of
leaflet is not- (Pg.70, E) (c)
A) Compound leaf A) B) C)
B) Simple leaf A) Opposite Alternate Whorled
C) Pinnate leaf B) Alternate Opposite Whorled
D) Palmate leaf C) Alternate Whorled Opposite
56. Identify A and B (Pg. 70, M) D) None of these
�-
62. Choose correct statement - (Pg. 71, E)
A) In alternate type; a single leaf arises at
� each node.
� B) In opposite type; a pair leaves arises at
each node.
C) In whorled type; more than two leaves
arises at each node.
(A� (B) D) All of these
A) A= pinnately compound leaf; Neem B= 63. Sunflower show- (Pg.71,E)
palmately compound leaf; Silk cotton A) Alternate phyllotaxy
B) A = palmately compound leaf; Silk B) Opposite phyllotaxy
cotton B = pinnately compound leaf; C) Whorled phyllotaxy
Neem D) None of these
C) A = pinnately compound leaf; Silk Paragraph-5.3.4
cotton B = palmately compound leaf;
Neem
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Modification of leaves:
64. In Australian acacia (Pg. 71, E)

A) Lamina modification
B) Petiole modified
C) Stipule modified
D) All of these
65. Select the correct option: (Pg. 71, E) A) It is of racemose type inflorescence
(B) B) Flowers are in basipetal order
C) Flowers are in acropetal order
D) Example of Cassia
73. Given diagram is of - (Pg. 72, M)
A) Both A & B are modified by leaves

B) A is tendrils for climbing
C) B is spines for defence
D) All of these
66. Pitcher of pitcher plant is modified -
(Pg. 71, E)
A) Leaf B) Stem
C) Root D) Fruit
Paragraph-5.4
The inflorescence:
A) Racemose inflorescence
67. Flower is modified - (Pg. 71, E) B) Cymose inflorescence
A) Node B) Internode C) Cymose inflorescence of Cassia
C) Leaf D) Shoot D) B & C both
68. Choose the correct statement (Pg. 71, E) Paragraph-5.5
A) In flower, SAM changes to floral
meristem The flower:
B) In flower, internode do not elongate
C) The axis get condensed in flower. 74. A complete flower consist of - (Pg. 73, E)
D) All of these A) One whorl B) Two whorls
69. The arrangement of flowers on the floral C) Three whorls D) Four whorls
axis is - 75. Flower stalk is known as -
(Pg. 71, E) (Pg. 72, E)
A) Phyllotaxy B) Inflorescence A) Pedicel B) Thalamus
C) Aestivation D) Placentation C) Petiole D) Stipules
70. On the basis whether floral apex gets 76. Thalamus is not - (Pg. 72, E)
develop into flower or continues to grow, A) Swollen end of pedicel
inflorescence are mainly of- (Pg. 72, E) B) Different whorl arranged on it
A) 3 types B) 4 types C) Accessory whorl
C) 2 types D) None of these D) Receptacle for different whorl
71. In racemose- 77. Choose the correct statement- (Pg. 72, E)
(Pg. 72, E)
A) Main axis continues to grow A) Calyx, corolla, are accessory organ
B) Flower are in basipetal order B) Androecium, gynoecium are
C) Main axis terminate into flower reproductive organ
D) B & C both C) Perianth present in lily
72. Choose the correct statement about given D) All of these
figure 78. Perianth is
(Pg. 72, E) (Pg. 72, E)
A) Indistinct calyx & corolla
B) Fused corolla & androecium
C e rod� ctive organ
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D)None of these B) 2. Brinjal

79. Bisexual flowers is - (Pg. 72, E)
A) When a flower has both androecium &
gynoecium
B)Present in Solanaceae, Liliaceae
C)Present in mustard and Pea C) 3. Peach
D)All of these
80. How many of following show
Actinomorphic,Zygomorphic respectively.
(Pg. 72, E)
Mustard,datura,chilli,Pea, Canna,bean, D) 4. Cucumber
gulmohur,Cassia
A)3,4 B)4,3
C)4,4 D)None of these
81. Statement - I: when a flower can be
divided into two equal radial halves in any
radial plane passing through the centre it
is actinomorphic flower 87. Superior ovary found in - (Pg. 73, E)
Statement - II: when a flower can be A)Hypogynous flower
divided into two similar halves only in one B)Perigynous flower
particular vertical plane,it is zygomorphic C)Epigynous flower
(Pg. 72, E) D)Cucumber
A) Statement - I & II are correct 88. Choose the correct about perigynous
B) Statement - I is correct flower - (Pg. 73, E)
C) Statement - II is correct only A) Gynoecium is situated in centre
D) Statement - I & II are incorrect B) Apart from gynoecium, rest parts are
82. Cassia show - (Pg. 72, E) located on rim of thalamus almost at
A) Racemose inflorescence,zygomorphic same level
B) Racemose inflorescence, C) Ovary is half inferior
actinomorphic D) All of these
C) Cymose inflorescence,actinomorphic 89. How many of following are example of
D) Cymose inflorescence,zygomorphic perigynous, hypogynous and epigynous
83. Flower with leaf that found the base of respectively. (Pg. 73, E)
pedicel are - (Pg. 72, E) Mustard, china Rose. Brinjal, plum,
A)Bracteate B)Ebracteate peach, rose,guava,
C)Petiolate D)Sessile cucumber, ray floret sunflower, Pea,
84. Flower with floral appendages 3 or Asparagus
multiple of 3 are said - (Pg. 72, E) A)3,3,5 B)3,3,3
A)Tetramerous B)Trimerous C)3,5, 3 D)5,3,3
C)Triploid D)Pentamerous 90. (Pg. 73, E)
85. In hypogynous flower which of following
floral part takes highest position
(Pg. 73, E)
A)Calyx B)Corolla
C)Androceium D)Pistil
86. Which of following is mismatched
P . 73, E
Column-I Column-II
A)Hypogynous flowerB)Epigynous
A) 1. Mustard C)Perigynous D)China rose
Paragraph-5.5.1
Parts of flower
91. Flower consist of - (Pg. 73, E)
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A) Four reproductive whorl other members of same whorl is termed as

B) Four whorl (Pg. 74, E)
C) Four accessory whorl A) Placentation B) Aestivation
D) All of these C) Phyllotaxy D) Inflorescence
Paragraph-5.5.1.1 Calyx 99. Given diagram represent - (Pg. 74, E)
.,,,,..--
92. The outermost whorl of flower is -
A) Calyx
(Pg. 73, E)
B) Corolla
l __.1
C) Bract D) Thalamus
93. Choose the correct statement- (Pg. 73, E)
A) Sepals are members of calyx
B) Petals are members of calyx A) Twisted aestivation
C) Sepal are plural of corolla B) Imbricate aestivation
D) None of these C) Vexillary aestivation
94. Sepals united in ___ and sepals are D) Valvate aestivation
free in condition (Pg. 73, E) 100. In Calotropis- (Pg. 74, E)
A) Gamosepalous, Polysepalous A) Sepals or petals in a whorl just touch
B) Polysepalous, Gamosepalous one another at the margin, without
C) Polysepalous, Polysepalous overlapping
D) Gamosepalous, Gamosepalous B) One margin of the appendage overlaps
Paragraph-5.5.1.2 Corolla that of the next one
C) Margin of sepals or petals overlap one
95. Corolla are - another but not in particular direction
(Pg. 73, E)
A) Composed of petal D) None of these
B) United by sepals 101. "Keel" present in - (Pg. 74, E)
C) Composed of tepals A) Valvate B) Imbricate
D) Usually for bud protection C) Papilionaceous D) Twisted
96. Polypetalous is condition with while 102. In Pea find odd one out - (Pg. 74, E)
gamopetalous is for__ A) 'Standard' is largest petals
(Pg. 74, E)
A) Free petal; fused petal B) 'Standard' overlaps the two lateral Keel.
B) Fused petal; free petal C) 'Keel' are smallest anterior petals.
C) Free petal; free petal D) Keel are fused
D) Fused petal; fuced petal 103. The aestivation in gulmohur is -
97. Label (i), (ii), ( iii), (iv), (v) (Pg. 74, M) (Pg. 74, E)
A) Valvate B) Twisted
C) Imbricate D) Vexillary
(')-p�-#,-,J,� (i) 104. Find odd one with respect to aestivation
(Pg. 74, E)
(ii) A) China rose B) Cassia
------ (iii) C) Lady's finger D) Cotton
=::::��;:;:�� (iv)
Paragraph-5.5.1.3
Androecium
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v)
105. Androecium composed of - (Pg. 75, E)
A) Gynoecium ndroecium Pedicel Corolla Calyx
A) Sepals B) Petal
B) Gynoecium ndroecium Corolla Calyx Pedicel C) Stamen D) Carpel
106. Each anther is usually__ and each lobe
C) ndroecium Gynoecium Calyx Corolla Pedicel
has__ chambers, pollen sacs
D) ndroecium Gynoecium Corolla Calyx Pedicel (Pg. 75, E)
A) Bilobed; two B) Bilobed; four
C) Tetralobed; four D) None
98. The mode of arrangement of sepals or 107. Staminode is - (Pg. 75, E)
petals in floral bud with respect to the A) Fertile stamen B) Sterile stamen
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C) Both A & B D) None of these

108. How many of following statements are
true. (Pg. 75, M)
(i) Stamens united into one bundle i.e.
monoadelphous
(ii) Monoadelphous is in china Rose,
diadelphous is in Pea and
polydephous is in Citrus A) Such placentation seen in Argemone
(iii) Variation in the length of filaments B) The placenta is axial and the ovules are
within a flower as in Salvia & mustard attached to it in an unilocular ovary
(iv) Two bundle of stamens are C) Such placentation seen in china rose
diadelphous and when stamen are D) The placenta is axial and the ovules are
united into two or more bundle i.e. attached to it in multilocular ovary as
polyadel phous in Dianthus
A) 1 B)2 116. Match the column I and column II
C)3 D)4 (Pe:. 75, E)
Paragraph-5.5.1.4 Gynoecium Column I Column II
1 Parietal a Pea
109. Female reproductive part of flower is - 2 Axile b Lemon
(Pg. 75, E) 3 Marginal C Araemone
A) Androecium B) Gynoecium 4 Basal d Primrose
C) Petal D) Sepal 5 Free - central E Sunflower
110. Pollen grains receptive surface is -
(Pg. 75, E)
A) Stigma B) Style A) 1 - c, 2 - b, 3 - a, 4 - e, 5 - d
C) Ovary D) Ovule B) 1 - d, 2 - c, 3 - a, 4 - b, 5 - e
111. Placenta attach- (Pg. 75, E) C) 1 - e ' 2 - d ' 3 - a ' 4 - c ' 5 - b
A) Ovule to ovary D) 1 - b, 2 - e, 3 - a, 4 - d, 5 - c
B) Ovary to thalamus 11 7. Choose the correct statement - (Pg. 75, M)
C) Ovary and other floral part A) Unilocular ovary becomes two
D) None of these chambered due to the formation of
112. Apocarpous is- (Pg. 75, E) false septum as in mustard
i) Free carpel B) In Argemone ovary is two chambered
ii) Fused carpel due to the formation of true septum
iii) Present in rose C) Axile placentation found in
iv) Present in lotus multilocular ovary as in tomato
v) Present in tomato D) A & C both
A) i, iii, iv B) i, iii, v 118. Dianthus have - (Pe:. 75, E
C) ii, iii, iv D) ii, iv, v
@
A) B) ✓/'.-·-·-
113. After fertilization, the ovary develop into I
i.
,
1 1Q1
-�
___ and ovule matures into a ___ J
(Pg. 75, E) ....,-�.,/ \ ..........
A) Fruit; fruit B) Seed; fruit D)
C) �--.
{�)
C) Fruit; seed D) Seed; seed
114. Placentation is arrangement of
within the ___ (Pg. 75, E) ....... --v-1/
�
A) Ovary; ovule
B) Placenta; embryosac 119. In Marigold - (Pg. 75, E)
C) Ovule; ovary A) Same placentation found in sunflower
D) None of these B) Placenta develop at base of ovary
115. (Pg. 75, E) C) Single ovule is attached to ovary
D) All of those
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Paragraph-5.6
47
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The fruit ii) Orchid is example of dicot seed

iii) In maize, seed coat fused with fruit
120. Parthenocarpic fruit is - (Pg. 76, E) wall
A) Develop after fertilization from ovary iv) Orchid is endospermic seed
B) Develop without fertilization A) 1 B)2
C) Develop after fertilization from C)3 D)4
thalamus 126.Label a,b,c,d,e (Pg. 77, M)
D)A & C both
121. Pericarp differentiated into - (Pg. 76, E)
A) Outer thin epicarp,middle fleshy edible
mesocarp and an inner stony hard
endocarp in Mango
B) Outer fleshy epicarp, middle stony
hard endocarp in mango
C) Outer thin epicarp, middle stony hard
mesocarp and an inner seed in mango
D) None of these
Paragraph-5. 7
The seed a b C d e
A) Scutell Coleorh Plum Radicl Coleopti
122. Seed of wheat is made up of - (Pg. 76, E) um iza ule e le
A) A radicle, an embryonal axis & one
cotyledon B) Scutell Coleorh Radicl Plum Coleopti
B) A radicle, an embryonal axis & two um iza e ule le
cotyledon
C) Embryo only C) Scutell Coleopti Radicl Plum Coleorh
D) Only one cotyledon um le e ule iza
Paragraph-5. 7.1
D) Scutell Coleopti Plum Radicl Coleorh
Structure of a dicotyledonous seed um le ule e iza
123. Find odd one with respect to endosperm

(Pg. 76, E). 127. Aleurone layer is - (Pg. 77, E)
A)Pea B) Gram A) Carbohydrate enrich layer
C) Castor D)Bean B) Proteinous layer
124. How many are correct statement about C) Lipid enrich layer
dicot seed? (Pg. 77, E) D)A and B
i) Testa, an inner layer is one of two 128. Scutellum present in (Pg. 77, E)
layers of seed coat A) Orchid B) Castor
ii) Seed were attached to fruit by hilum C) Pea D)Gram
iii) Micropyle is small pore below hilum Paragraph-5.8
iv) Castor is endospermic seed
A) 1 B)2 Semi-technical description of a
C)3 D)4 typical flowering plant-
Paragraph-5. 7.2
129. Number of androecium in mustard is -
Structure of monocotyledonous (Pg. 78, E)
seeds A)2 B)4
C)6 D)S
125. How many of following is wrong stated 130. How many of following is incorrect about
statement? (Pg. 77, E) Brassicaceae (mustard) actinomorphic,
i) Generally monocot seeds are non- zygomorphic,bisexual,K4,superior ovary,
endospermic seed C2+2, C(4) (Pg. 78, E)
I
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A) 1 B)2 138. Find out one with respect to Solanaceae

C)3 D)4 (Pg. 80, E)
Paragraph-5.9 Description of some A)Alternate phyllotaxy
B) Exstipulate
important family
C) Reticulate venation
Paragraph 5.9.1 Fabaceae D)Pulvinate
139. In Solanum, inflorescene is- (Pg. 80, E)
131. Fabaceae was earlier called as - A)Racemose B) Cymose
(Pg. 78, E) C) Solitary D)B and C
A)Leguminosae B)Papilionoideae 140. How many of following term is not correctly
C) Both A & B D)Fabaceae stated about tobacco's family.
132. Given diagram is- (Pg. 79, E) Bicarpellary, obligately placed,
apocarpous, superior ovary, bilocular,
placenta swollen with many ovules, free -
central placentation, drupe fruit
(Pg. 80, E)
A)0 B) 1
A)L. S of carpel of pea C)2 D )3
B)Fruit of pea 141. Persistant calyx found in- (Pg. 80, E)
C) T.S. of carpel of pea A)Brinjal B)Pea
D) Androecium of Pea C) Onion D) Colchicine
9
133. Calyx of fabaceae show- (Pg. 79, E) 142.
A)Polypetalous B)Polysepalous
C) Valvate aestivationD) Both B & C
G) Kts) Ci"As Q(2l
134. Androecium of Fabaceae is - (Pg. 79, E) is floral formula of how many of following
A)Ten in number B)9 are united Aloe, belladonna, ashwagandha, muliathi,
C) 1 is free D)All of these sunhemp, Indigofera, Gloriosa (Pg. 80, E)
135. How many of following is endospermic A) 1 B)2
seed- (Pg. 79, E) C)3 D)4
Arhar, groundnut, Indigofera, muliathi, 143. Makoi plant - (Pg. 80, E)
Sesbania, Trifolium A) Solanum nigrum
A) 0 B) 1 B) Solanum tuberosum
C)2 D)3 C) Allium
136. The correct floral formula of sunhemp is D) Petunia
(Pg. 79, E) Paragraph-5.9.3
A) (±) ()
-I-
k(sJ C1+2+2 A(9J+1 G 1 Liliaceae
B)
¾ 9 k(S). + 21At )+I G, 144. Given diagram is - (Pg. 81, E)
C)
D)
A) Flower of Allium
B) Inflorescence of Allium
C) Inflorescence of dicot family
Paragraph-5.9.2 D)Racemose
145. How many of following are endospermous
Solanaceae seed.
Aloe, Asparagus, Tulip, Potato, Tomato,
13 7. Which of the following is potato family? Pea, Petunia, Chilli, Sesbania, Trifolium,
(Pg. 79, E) Lupin, Muliathi, Ashwagandha, Colchicine,
A)Fabaceae B)Solanaceae Gloriosa (Pg. 81, E)
C) Liliaceae D)Brassicaceae A)10 B)8
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C) 15 D) 5 B) Gl
Mustard
146. Onion show- (Pg. 81, E)
A) Axile placentation
B) Parietal placentation
C) Free central placentation
D) Basal placentation
147. Gynoceium of Aloe is not- (Pg. 81, E)
A) Tricarpellary B) Apocarpous
C) (]) Pisum
C) Syncarpous D) Superior ovary sativum
t
148. Floral formula of Colchicum autumnale
does not show- (Pg. 81, E) ::f,c-5
A) t
Br ©O + ��,;,�
B)
/'\
P(3+3J A(3+3J
D) • Brassicaceae
G_r3i
()
C)
D) All of these
149. Choose mismatched - P . 81, H
u� ��flf)·(?� di
Column-I Column-II
�
A) Asparagus
(vegetables)
150. The floral feature of angiosperm
represented in summarized form as-
(Pg. 81, E)
A) Floral diagram B) Floral formula
C) A and B D) None of these
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ANSWER KEY
MORPHOLOGY OF FLOWERING PLANT
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans B C C B A A A B D B
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans C B D B B A B D B A
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans D B A A A B A B A B
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans A B C B A C A A B B
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans A D A D D D A A A A
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans A C A C B A B B B A
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans B D A B D A D D B C
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans A B A D B C D A D A
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans A A A B D B A D B B
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans B A A A A A D B D A
Q 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans C B C B C A B D B A
Q 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans A A C C C A D C D B
Q 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Ans A A C B C A B A C D
Q 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans B A C D D B B D B D
Q 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Ans A B A B A A B B B C
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Anatomy of Flowering Plants
Paragraph 6.1 The Tissues A) Apical meristem

B) Intercalary meristem
Paragraph 6.1.1 Meristematic C) Lateral meristem
tissues: D) None of these
1. Apical meristems 9. Identify the correct labels-
(Pg. 84, E) (Pg. 85, E)
A) Occur at root tip
B) Produce primary tissues
C) Regenerate parts of plant
D) Both A & B
2. During leaf formation and stem
elongation, some cells of apical meristem
left behind form-
(Pg. 84, E)
A) Primary cell.
B) Intercalary meristem A) (i) - cortex, (ii) - Protoderm, (iii) -
C) Axillary bud initial of central cylinder & cortex
D) Interfascicular cambium B) (i) - Protoderm, (ii) - cortex, (iii) -
3. Intercalary meristem central cylinder
(Pg. 85, E) C) (i) - central cylinder, (ii) - cortex, (iii) -
A) Occur in grasses Protoderm
B) Occur between mature tissue D) (i) - central cylinder, (ii) - Protodrem,
C) Both A & B (iii) - cortex
D) None 10. Identify the axillary bud in given figure -
4. Primary meristem (Pg. 85, E)
(Pg. 85, E)
A) Appear later in life of plant
B) Appear early in life of plant
C) Regenerates parts of plant :ii9!--1+--II-----I- (ii)
D) Both B & C
5. Primary body of plant is formed by- �--.J-(iii)
(Pg. 85, E)
A) Meristem
B) Vascular cambium
C) Both A & B A) (i) B) (ii)
D) None C) (iii) D) Both (ii) and (iii)
6. Lateral meristem are- Paragraph - 6.1.2 Permanent
(Pg. 85, E) Tissue
A) Type of primary meristem
B) Appearing early in life of plant 11. Cell of permanent tissue
C) Responsible for producing secondary (Pg. 86, E)
tissues A) Divide regularly to repair damage
D) Both A & B B) Divide occasionally
7. Secondary meristem include- C) Do not divide generally
(Pg. 85, E) D) Both (B) and (C)
A) Fascicular vascular cambium 12. Simple tissue are -
B) Cork cambium (Pg. 86, E)
C) Secondary phloem A) Meristematic tissues having all cells
D) Both A and B similar in structure and function
8. Meristem that occur in mature region of B) Meristematic tissues having different
root and shoot of plant- types of cells
(Pg. 85, E)
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BOTANY
C) Permanent tissues having all cells C) Pectin D) All of these

similar in structure and function 2 1. Collenchyma cells-
D) Permanent tissues having many (Pg. 86, E)
different type of cells A) May be polygonal and never contain
13. Complex tissues are- chloroplasts.
(Pg. 86, E) B) May be polygonal and often contain
A) Meristematic tissues having all cells chloroplasts
similar in structure and function C) May be oval and contain chloroplasts
B) Permanent tissues having all cells D) Both B and C
similar in structure and function 22. Collenchyma cells
C) Meristematic tissues having different (Pg. 86, E)
types of cells A) Have no intercellular spaces
D) Permanent tissues having different B) Have large intercellular spaces
types of cells. C) May or may not have intercellular
Paragraph - 6.1.2.1 Simple tissue spaces
D) None of these
14. Simple tissues are made of 23. Mechanical support in plants is provides
(Pg. 86, E) by
A) Some types of cells of similar origin
(Pg. 86, E)
B) Only one type cells A) Parenchyma B) Collenchyma
C) Different types of cells of same origin C) Sclerenchyma D) Both B and C
D) Different types of cells of different 24. Choose the best option
origin
(Pg. 86, M)
15. Major component within organs is formed A) All collenchymatous cells
by- Assimilate food
(Pg. 86, E) B) No collenchymatous cells assimilate
A) Collenchyma B) Sclerenchyma food
C) Parenchyma D) All of these C) Some collenchymatous cells do not
16. Walls of parenchyma are made of- assimilate food
(Pg. 86, E) D) All collenchymatous cells do not
A) Protease B) Cellulose assimilate food
C) Keratin D) Pectin 25. Collenchyma provide mechanical support
1 7. Parenchyma performs functions- to-
(Pg. 86, E)
(Pg. 86, E)
A) Photosynthesis B) Storage A) Young stem
C) Secretion D) All of the above B) Petiole of leaf organs only
18. Parenchyma cells are generally- C) Organs only
(Pg. 86, E) D) All of these
A) Of varying diameters, with no 26. Identify the given figure �(Pg. 86, E)
intercellular space
B) Of similar diameters, with no
intercellular space
C) Of similar diameters, with small
intercellular space
D) Both B and C (i) (ii)
19. Where does collenchyma occur?

(Pg. 86, E)
A) Below endodermis in most monocots
B) Below epidermis in most monocots (ill)
(iv)
C) Below epidermis in most dicots A) (i) - parenchyma, (ii) - fibre, (iii) -
D) Below endodermis in most dicots sclereid, (iv) - collenchyma
20. Cell of collenchyma are thickened at B) (i) - sclereids, (ii) - fibre, (iii) -
corners due to deposition of
parenchyma, (iv) collenchyma
(Pg. 86, E) C) (i) - collenchyma, (ii) - sclerids, (iii) -
A) Cellulose B) Hemicellulose
fobres, (iv) - parenchyma
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D) (i) - collenchyma, (ii) fibre, (iii) - A) Xylem vessels

sclereids, (iv) - parenchyma B) Companion cells
27. Sclenenchyma cells are - (Pg. 86, E) C) Sieve tubes and companion cells
A) Usually dead with protoplast D) All of the above
B) Usually dead without protoplast 34. Phloem of gymnosperms possess-
C) Usually living with protoplast (Pg. 87, E)
D) Usually living without protoplast A) Albuminous cells B) Companion cells
28. Read the given statements - C) Sieve tube D) Both (B) and (C)
(Pg. 86, M) 35. Xylem has all dead cells except-
(i) Sclereids are found in leaves of tea. (Pg. 87, E)
(ii) Fibres generally occur single in various A) Xylem parenchyma
plant parts. B) Xylem fibres
(iii) Sclerenchyma provides mechanical C) Xylem vessels
support to young stems. D) Xylem tracheids
(iv) Parenchyma cells have thick walls. 36. Ray parenchymatous cells help in -
(v) Collenchyma cells are thickened at (Pg. 87, E)
corners. A) Radial conduction of food
How many are correct B) Axial conduction of water
A) 2 B) 3 C) Axial conduction of food
C) 4 D) 1 D) Radial conduction of water
29. Pulp of pear has which type of 37. Food materials can be stored in xylem
sclerenchyma cells- parenchyma in all of these forms except -
(Pg. 87, E) (Pg. 87, E)
A) Sclereids B) Fibres A) Starch B) Fat
C) Tracheids D) Trichomes C) Tannin D) None
Paragraph - 6.1.2.2 38. In stems,
Complex Tissues (Pg. 87, E)
A) Protoxylem lies towards centre and
30. Complex tissues are - metaxylem towards periphery, called
(Pg. 87, E) endarch
A) Made of one of cells, working as unit B) Protoxylem lies towards centre and
B) Made of many types of cells, working as meta xylem towards periphery, called
a unit exarch
C) Made of one type of cells, working C) Metaxylem lies towards centre and
separately protoxylem towards periphery called
D) Made of many types of cells, working endarch
separately D) Metaxylem lies towards centre and
31. Xylem has following functions except protoxylem towards periphery called
(Pg. 87, E) exarch
A) Conducting water from roots to upper 39. In roots -
plant part (Pg. 87, E)
B) Conducting minerals from leaves to A) Protoxylem lies towards centre and
roots metaxylem towards periphery, called
C) Providing mechanical strength to plant endarch
parts B) Protoxylem lies towards centre and
D) Conducting sap from roots to leaves metaxylem towards periphery, called
32. Xylem tissue consists of- exarch
(Pg. 87, E) C) Metaxylem lies towards centre and
A) Sieve tube, companion cells, fibres, protoxylem towards periphery called
parenchyma endarch
B) Sieve cells, vessels, fibres, parenchyma D) Metaxylem lies towards centre and
C) Vessels, tracheids, sieve tube, fibres protoxylem towards periphery called
D) Vessels, tracheid, fibres, parenchyma exarch
33. Gymnosperms lack- 40. A maturae sieve elements - (Pg. 88, E)
(Pg. 87, E) A) Have peripheral nucleus
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B) Have peripheral cytoplasm and no C) 3 D) 4

nucleus 4 7. Stomatal apparatus consists of -
C) Have no vacuole and no nucleus (Pg. 89, E)
D) Have large vacuole and peripheral A) Stomatal aperture only
nucleus B) Stomatal aperture and guard cells
41. Phloem fibres - C) Subsidiary cells
(Pg. 88, E) D) Both (B) and (C)
A) Are made of parenchyma 48. Epidermal cells modify to form
B) Are made of collenchyma (Pg. 89, E)
C) Present in primary phloem A) Trichomes only
D) Present in secondary phloem B) Trichomes, Root hairs, Stomata
42. Which of the statements about Phloem is C) Trichomes, Root hair, Subsidiary cells
correct? D) Root hairs only
(Pg. 88, M) 49. Trichomes -
A) Protoploem consists of narrow sieve (Pg. 89, E)
tube A) Present on stem and are multicellular
B) Metaphloem consists of narrow sieve B) Present on root and are multicellular
tubes C) Present on stem and are unicellular
C) Protopholem consists of bigger sieve D) Present on root and are unicellular
tubes Paragraph - 6.2.2
D) Both protophloem and metaphloem
have bigger sieve tubes.
The ground Tissue System
Paragraph - 6.2 50. All tissues are included in ground tissue
except -
The tissue system (Pg. 89, E)
43. The three types of tissue systems - A) Cortex B) Pith
epidermal ground and vascular systems C) Pericycle D) Epidermis
are classified based on their- 51. In leaves, mesophyll is present in -
(Pg. 88, E) (Pg. 89, E)
A) Function B) Location A) Epidermal tissue system
C) Structure D) Both (B) and (C) B) Ground tissue system
Paragraph - 6.2.1 C) Vascular tissue system
D) Both (A) & (B)
Epidermal tissue system
Paragraph - 6.2.3
44. Outer layer of primary plant body is -
(Pg. 88, E)
The Vascular Tissue System
A) Epiblema B) Epidermis 52. In dicots stem, which condition is present
C) Epicarp D) Ectodermis (Pg. 90, E)
45. Waxy layer on epidermis- A) Cambium present between xylem &
(Pg. 89, E) phloem, known as closed type vascular
A) is called trichome bundle
B) is called epiblema B) Cambium absent between xylem &
C) is absent in roots phloem, known as closed type vascular
D) help in exchange of gases bundle.
46. Consider the following statements - C) Cambium present outside xylem &
i) Epidermal cells are parenchymatous. phloem, known as open type vascular
ii) Epidermis is usually two - layered. bundle
iii) Stomata are usually present in D) Cambium present between xylem &
epidermis of stem. phloem, known as open type vascular
iv) Outer walls of guard cells are thick and bundle.
inner walls are thin. 53. A : Monocot have closed type of vascular
v) Subsidiary cells are epidermal cells. bundles
How many of these statements are R : monocots do not show secondary
incorrect? growth
A) 2 B) 1 (Pg. 90, H)
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A) Both A and R are correct and R is D) Transverse section of mature zones of

correct explanation of A organs
B) Both A & R are correct and R is not the Paragraph - 6.3.1
explanation of A
Dicotyledonous Root
C) A is correct and R is incorrect
D) Both A & R are incorrect 57. Choose correct order of cells from outside
54. Read given statements in context of given to inside in a sunflower root-
figure (Pg. 90, E)
(Pg. 90, E) A) Epidermis - endodermis - cortex -
pericycle
A) B) Epiblema - cortex - endodermis -
pericycle
C) Epiblema - cortex - pericycle -
endodermis
D) Epidermis - endodermis - pericycle -
cortex
58. Suberin is deposited on -
(Pg. 90, E)
i) A is xylem and B is phloem A) Tangential walls of epidermal cells
ii) A is phloem and B is xylem B) Radial walls of cortical cells
iii) Primary xylem in figure is endarch C) Tangential walls of endodermal cells
type. D) radial walls of epidermal cells
iv) Primary in figure is exarch type. 59. The substance that casparian strips is
Choose the correct statements made up of is -
A) (i) and (iii) B) (i) and (iv) (Pg. 91, E)
C) (ii) and (iii) D) (ii) and (iv) A) waxy
55. The given figu re can be vascular bundle of B) water - impermeable
(Pg. 90, E) C) suberin
D) all of these
60. Initiation of lateral roots in dicot during
(A) secondary growth occurs in -
B) (Pg. 91, E)
A) Endodermal cells
(C) B) Pericycle
C) Medullary ray
D) Conjunctive tissue
61. Initiation of vascular cambium in dicot
A) Shoot of sunflower root during secondary growth occurs from
B) Shoot of grass
C) Root of sunflower (Pg. 91, E)
D) Root of grass A) Thin walled parenchymatous cells
Paragraph - 6.3 B) Thick walled collenchyma cells
Anatomy of Dicot & Monocot C) Thinn walled endodermal cells
D) Thick walled parenchyma cells
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62. Which of the following is true about
56. For understand the tissue organization of A) Parenchymatous and lie outside
roots, stems and leaves better, it is phloem
convenient to study- B) Parenchymatous and lie outside
(Pg. 90, E) endodermis
A) Longitudinal section of young and C) Collenchymatous and lie between
growing zones of organs xylem and phloem
B) Transverse section of young & growing D) Parenchymatous and lie between xylem
zones of organs & phloem
C) Longitudinal section of mature zones of 63. Endodermis is present in dicot root in
organs (Pg. 91, E)
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A) Two layer with little intercellular A) (i)- cortex, (ii)- endodermis, (iii)
spaces pericycle
B) Two layer without any intercellular B) (ii)- cortex, (i)- endodermis, (iii)
spaces pericycle
C) Single layer with little intercellular C) (iii)- cortex, (ii)- endodermis, (i)
spaces pericycle
D) Single layer without any intercellular D) (i)- cortex, (iii)- endodermis, (ii)
spaces pericycle
64. Cortex of dicot root consists of - Paragraph - 6.3.2
(Pg. 91, E) Monocotyledonous Root
A) Multi layers of thick walled
parenchyma 70. Xylem bundles in monocot root-
B) Multi layers of thin walled parenchyma (Pg. 91, E)
C) Single layer of thick walled A) Are fewer than dicot root
parenchyma B) Are less than six
D) Single layer of thin walled parenchyma C) Are polyarchy
65. Innermost layer of cortex in dicot root is - D) All of the above
(Pg. 91, E) 71. Secondary growth in monocot roots occur-
A) Pericycle B) Hypodermis (Pg. 91, E)
C) Endodermis D) Pith A) By vascular cambium
66. Parenchyma cells are generally thin B) By interfascicular cambium
walled. An example of thick-walled C) Both A & B
parenchyma in dicot root is D) None of these
(Pg. 91, E) Paragraph - 6.3.3
A) Pith B) Pericycle Dicotyledonous Stem
C) Endodermis D) Hypodermis
67. Stele includes 72. Epidermis of dicot stem-
(Pg. 91, E) (Pg. 91, E)
A) Endodermis, pericycle, pith A) Is called epiblema
B) Endodermis, pericycle, vascular B) Lacks stomata
bundles C) Has a thin layer of cuticle
C) Pericycle, vascular bundle, pith D) Lacks trichomes
D) Endodermis, vascular bundle, pith 73. Cortex in dicot stem is found between-
68. Identify the figure (i) & (ii) (Pg. 92, E)
(Pg. 91, E) A) Epidermis and endodermis
B) Endodermis and pericycle
C) Pericycle and pith
D) Endodermis and pith
74. Hypodermis of dicot stem is made of
(Pg. 92, E)
A) Parenchyma B) Collenchyma
C) Sclerenchyma D) All of these
(i) (ii) 75. Starch sheath is found in dicot stem in- -
A) (i)-T.S of dicot root (Pg. 92, E)
(ii) -T.S of monocot root A) Endodermis B) Cortex
B) (i) -T.S of dicot stem C) Pericycle D) Pith
(ii) -T.S of monocot stem 76. Cortical cells dicot stem has-
C) (i) - T.S of monocot root (Pg. 92, E)
(ii) -T.S of dicot root A) No intercellular spaces
D) (i) - L.S of monocot stem B) Inconspicuous intercellular spaces
(ii) - L.S of dicot root C) Conspicuous intercellular spaces
69. Identify the correct labels of monocot root D) Very large intercellular spaces
T.S 77. Pericycle of dicot stem is present in the
(Pg. 91, E) form of-
(Pg. 92, E)
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A) Semi - square patches of collenchyma

B) Semi - lunar patches of sclerenchyma
C) Semi - lunar patches of collenchyma
D) Semi - lunar patches of parenchyma
78. Medullary rays are - (ii)
(Pg. 92, E)
A) Axially placed, parenchymatous
B) Axially placed, collenchymatous (i)
C) Radially placed, parenchymatous A) (i) B) (ii)
D) Radially placed, collenchymatous C) (iv) D) (iii)
79. Location of medullary rays - Paragraph - 6.3.4
(Pg. 92, E) Monocot Stem
A) Above endodermis
B) Between endodermis and pericycle 84. Select the correct match of columns A & B
C) Between pericycle and cortex (Pg. 93, M)
D) Between vascular bundles Column A Column B
80. In sunflower stem, vascular bundle is-
i Hypodermis of 1 parenchyma
(Pg. 93 E)
A) Conjoint, closed, exarch protoxylem grasses stem
B) radial, open, endarch protoxylem ii Hypodermis of 2 Collenchyma
C) conjoint, open, exarch protoxylem sunflower
D) conjoint, open, endarch protoxylem stem
81. which of these is incorrect about pith of
dicot stem? iii Bundle 3 Sclerenchyma
(Pg. 93, E) sheath of
A) Parenchymatous cells grasses stem
B) No intercellular space
C) Central portion of stem iv Ground tissue
D) Large intercellular space of grasses
82. Identify the correct labels stem
(Pg. 92, E)
A) (i)- 2, (ii)- 3 B) (iv)- 1, (iii)- 1
C) (iii)- 3, (i)- 3 D) (ii)- 1, (iv)- 3
85. In monocot stem,
(i)
(iv) (Pg. 93, E)
�-(iii) A) Peripheral vascular bundles are
generally smaller than central ones
B) Central vascular bundles are generally
smaller than peripheral ones
C) Both peripheral and central are almost
A) (i)- protoxylem, (ii)- cambium, (iii) same sized
phloem, (iv)- metaxylem D) None of these
B) (ii)- protoxylem, (iv)- cambium, (i) 86. Phloem parenchyma is absent in-
phloem, (iii)- metaxylem (Pg. 93, E)
C) (iv)- protoxylem, (i)- cambium, (ii) A) Gymnosperms B) Monocots
phloem, (iii)- metaxylem C) Both D) None
D) (iii)- protoxylem, (iv)- cambium, (i) 87. The given figure is
phloem, (ii)- metaxylem (Pg. 92, E)
83. Identify endodermis in the given figure
(Pg. 92, E)
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A) Monocot root B) Dicot root B) (i)- dicot leaf, (ii)- monocot leaf
C) Monocot stem D) Dicot stem C) (i)- monocot stem, (ii)- dicot stem
Paragraph - 6.3.5 D) (i)- monocot leaf, (ii)- dicot leaf
Dorsiventral leaf (Dicot) Paragraph - 6.3.6
88. Read the given statements and choose the Isobilateral Leaf (Monocot)
number of correct statements 93. Which of the following is correct for
(Pg. 93, M) isobilateral leaves?
(i) Leaf of dicot lack cuticle (Pg. 94, E)
(ii) Stomata on adaxial side of epidermis is A) Present in all angiosperms
more in number than abaxial side B) Two different types of mesophyll are
(iii) Mesophyll is the ground tissue in dicot found
leaf C) Stomata on both surfaces of mesophyll
(iv) The adaxial epidermis may lack D) Has similar sizes of vascular bundles
stomata 94. In grasses, large, empty, colourless cells
A) 1 B) 2 are called-
C) 3 D) 4 (Pg. 94, E)
89. In the leaf of sunflower, mesophyll lies A) Subsidiary cells
(Pg. 93, E) B) Complementary cells
A) Between epidermis and cortex C) Cortical cells
B) Between adaxial epidermis and abaxial D) None of these
epidermis 95. Identify the incorrect statement in regards
C) Between endodermis and pericycle to bulliform cells-
D) Between pericycle and vascular (Pg. 94, E)
bundles A) Present on abaxial side
90. Which of the given statements about dicot B) Empty cells
leaf is incorrect? C) Makes leaf curl inward when flaccid
(Pg. 93, M) D) Helps to minimize water loss
A) The abaxial palisade parenchyma is 96. Identify correct labels for given figure.
made of elongated cells (Pg. 94, E)
B) Spongy parenchyma is oval or round _,;RfiT�=::----(i)
��"'1"J;;
C) The spongy parenchyma has large
(iv)
spaces between cells
D) The parenchyma on adaxial side of leaf
are arranged vertically & parallel to
each other
91. Consider the statements given below
(Pg. 93, M)
a) Size of vascular bundle in leaf depend A) (i)- adaxial epidermis (ii)- abaxial
upon size veins epidermis, (iii)- xylem (iv)- phloem
b) Vascular bundles in leaf are B) (ii)- adaxial epidermis (i)- abaxial
surrounded by bundle sheath cells epidermis, (iii)- xylem (iv)- phloem
A) (a) is correct & (b) is incorrect C) (i)- adaxial epidermis (ii)- abaxial
B) (a) is incorrect & (b) is correct epidermis, (iv)- xylem (iii)- phloem
C) Both are correct D) (ii)- adaxial epidermis (i)- abaxial
D) Both ate incorrect epidermis, (iv)- xylem (iii)- phloem
92. Identify the correct option in context of Paragraph - 6.4
given figures
(Pg. 93, E) Secondary growth
97. Increase in girth of plant-

(Pg. 94, E)
A) Involves lateral meristem
(ii)
B) Involves intercalary meristem
(i)
C) Involves apical meristem
A) (i)- dicot stem, (ii)- monocot st� e_ m
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D) All of these 104. Assertion: secondary xylem form a

Paragraph - 6.4.1 compact mass.
Reason: cambium is lesser active on outer
Vascular Cambium
side comparatively.
98. Vascular cambium- Choose the best option-
(Pg. 94, E) (Pg. 95, H)
i) Is meristematic A) Assertion & Reason both are correct
ii) Present in patches between xylem and and Reason is correct explanation for
phloem in young stem Assertion.
iii) Present as a single layer between xylem B) Assertion & Reason both are correct
and phloem in young stem and Reason is not the correct
iv) Forms complete ring later explanation for Assertion
How many of the above statements are C) Assertion is correct but Reason is
correct- incorrect
A) 1 B) 2 D) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is
C) 3 D) 4 correct
Paragraph - 6.4.1.1 105. Secondary medullary rays are-
Formation of cambial ring (Pg. 95, E)
A) Narrow bands of parenchyma
99. In dicot stem, cambium cells present B) Narrow bands of meristem
between xylem & phloem is- C) Wide bands of parenchyma
(Pg. 94, E) D) Wide bands of meristem
A) Intrafasicular cambium 106. Which of these is correct about activity of
B) Interfascicular cambium cambial ring?
C) Cork cambium (Pg. 95, E)
D) Cortical cambium A) Secondary xylem crushes primary
100. Interfasicular cambium is formed by- xylem
(Pg. 94, E) B) Secondary xylem crushes primary
A) Pericycle cells phloem
B) Endodermal cells C) Secondary xylem crushes secondary
C) Medullary cells phloem
D) Complementary cells D) Both B & C
Paragraph - 6.4.1.2 107. Identify the secondary xylem in the figure
Activity of Cambial Ring (Pg. 95, E)
101. Cambial ring cuts off new cells-
(Pg. 95, E)
A) Towards inner side only
B) Towards outer side only (ii)
C) Towards inner and outer side both
D) Along its own axis (iii)
102. Cambial ring cuts off new cells - (iv)
(Pg. 95, E) A) (i) B) (ii)
A) Towards pith, called secondary phloem C) (iii) D) (iv)
B) Towards pith, called secondary Paragraph - 6.4.1.3
cambium
C) Towards pith, called secondary Spring wood and autumn wood
medullary rays 108. Activity of cambium is under control of-
D) Towards pith, called secondary xylem (Pg. 96, E)
103. Cambial ring cut off - A) Physiological factors
(Pg. 95, E) B) Environmental factors
A) More cells on outer side C) Both A & B
B) More cells on inner side D) Depend on season only
C) Equal cells on both sides 109. In spring, cambium produce-
D) Cells randomly
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(Pg. 96, E) Select the appropriate answer-

A) Less xylary elements, having vessels (Pg. 96, E)
with wider cavities A) Both Assertion & Reason are correct
B) More xylary elements, having vessels B) Assertion is correct and Reason is
with wider cavities wrong
C) Less xylary elements, having vessels C) Assertion is wrong and Reason is
with narrow cavities correct
D) More xylary elements, having vessels D) Both Assertion and Reason are wrong
with narrow cavities 115. Phellogen is made of-
110. Select the characters of autumn wood from (Pg. 96, E)
the list- A) Narrow, thick-walled, meristematic
(Pg. 96, E) cells
i) Light in colour ii) Dark in colour B) Narrow, thin-walled, parenchyma
iii) Low density iv) High density C) Narrow, thick-walled, parenchyma
v) Wider vessels vi) Narrow vessels D) Narrow, thin-walled, meristem
A) i, iii, v B) i, iv, vi 116. Phellogens cuts-
C) ii, iv, vi D) 11, 111, v (Pg. 96, E)
111. Annual rings are constituted by- A) Cork on inner side and phelloderm on
(Pg. 96, E) outside
A) Alternate concentric rings of 3 types of B) Phellem on inner and secondary cortex
woods on outside
B) continuous concentric rings of 3 types C) Bark on outside and secondary cortex
of woods on inside
C) Alternate concentric rings of 2 types of D) Phellem on outside and phelloderm on
woods inside
D) continuous concentric rings of 2 types 117. Cork is impervious to water due to
of woods. (Pg. 96, E)
Paragraph - 6.4.1.4 A) Lignin B) Suberin
C) Keratin D) Cellulose
Heartwood & Sapwood
118. Bark includes -
112. Heartwood is- (Pg. 97, E)
(Pg. 96, E) A) Secondary xylem and periderm
A) Light in colour B) Secondary phloem and periderm
B) Dark in colour C) Pericycle and vascular cambium
C) Alternately light & dark in colour D) Pith and stele
D) None of these 11 9. Phlloderm is -
113. Consider the following statements about (Pg. 97, E)
heartwood- A) Parenchymatous
(Pg. 96, E) B) Collenchymatous
i) Lighter in colour C) Sclerenchymatous
ii) Comprises dead elements D) Meristematic
iii) Suberized walls 120. Lenticles are
iv) Resistant to attack of micro-organisms (Pg. 97, E)
v) Conducts water and provide A) Circle - shaped B) Rectangular
mechanical support to plant C) Lens - shaped D) Polygonal shaped
How many of the statements are correct? 121. Select the correct labels -
A) 2 B) 3 (Pg. 97, E)
C) 4 D) 5
Paragraph - 6.4.2
Cork Cambium
114. Assertion: Cork cambium is needed due
to activity of vascular cambium
Reason: Phellogen is present below
(iv)
endodermis A) (i) - complimentary cells
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B) (ii) - cork cambium (Pg. 98, E)

C) (iii) - secondary cortex A) Gymnosperm stem
D) (iv) - epidermis B) Gymnosperm root
Paragraph - 6.4.3 C) Monocot
D) All of these
Secondary Growth in Roots
124. Identify the cambial ring -
122. In sunflower root. Vascular cambium is (Pg. 98, E)
originated from tissues -
(Pg. 97, E)
A) Below phloem bundle (ii)
(iii.)
B) Of pericycle (iv) _(il;:::;:::;:::��_;;-��
C) Of interfascicular cambium
D) Both (A) & (B) A) (i) B) (iii)
123. Secondary growth does not occur in - C) (iv) D) (ii)
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Answer Key
ANATOMY OF FLOWERING PLANTS
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans D C C D A C D C A C
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans D C D B C B D D C D
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans D A D C A D B A A B
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans B D A A A D D A D B
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans D A D B C C D C A D
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans B D B C A D B C D B
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans D D D B C B C C B C
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans D C A B A C B C D D
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans B B D C A B C B B A
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans C D D D A C A D A C
Q 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans C D B A A D C C B C
Q 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans C B A B D D B B A C
Q 121 122 123 124
Ans B D C B
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Cell Structure and Function Cell Theory

1. In living organisms detailed description 6. Cell theory was proposed by:-
that brings out their knowledge of diversity A) Matthias Schleiden and Theodore
is about Schwann
Pg-125, easy B) Schleiden; Schwann and Virchow.
A) Their form C) Rudolf Virchow
B) Their appearance D) Sutton and Boveri
C) Both Pg-126, easy
D) None 7. All the plants are composed of different
2. What brought out the unit of diversity the kinds of cells which forms the tissue of the
cellular organisation of all life form: plant, this statement was given by:-
Pg-125, easy Pg-125, easy
A) Theory of evolution A) A German botanist ; Rudolf Virchow .
B) Species theory B) A British zoologist ; Matthias Schleiden
C) Cell theory C) A British zoologist ; Theodore Schwann
D) Darwinian theory D) A German botanist; Matthias Schleiden
3. What is not true about physico-chemical 8. Who studied the different types of animal
approach:- cells to propose cell theory:-
Pg-125, easy A) A British zoologist; Matthias Schleiden
A) Established by analysis of living tissue B) A German botanist; Theodore
for element and compounds. Schwann.
B) Explains what type of organic C) A physicist; Rudolf Virchow.
compounds is present in living D) A British zoologist; Theodore Schwann.
organism. Pg-126, easy
C) Explains the abnormal process that 9. A thin outer layer studied by Theodore
occur during any diseased condition. Schwann nowadays known as:-
D) This approach is known as forward A) Plasma membrane
biology. B) Cell wall
Cell :- The Unit Of Life C) Glycocalyx
D) Middle lamella
4. Unicellular organism are capable of Pg-126, easy
A) Independent existence 10. Based on studies of Matthias Schleiden;
B) Performing the essential functions of what is the unique character of plant cell?
life. A) Cell wall B) Middle lamella
C) Both C) Glycocalyx D) None of these
D) Does not ensure independent living Pg-126, easy
Pg-125, easy 11. The hypothesis that the bodies of animals
5. Living cell was firstly seen and described and plant are composed of cells and their
by:- products was proposed by:-
A) Robert Hooke Pg-126, easy
B) Anton von Leeuwenhoek A) Schleiden and Schwann
C) Robert Koch B) Rudolf Virchow
D) Robert Brown C) Schwann only
Pg-125, easy D) Virchow and Schleiden
Paragraph - 8.2
TG: @Chalnaayaaar NCERT LINE BY LINE I 64

BATANY
12. Scientist who gave the final shape to cell 17. Besides the nucleus; the __cell have
theory? other membrane bound distinct
Pg-126, easy structures.
A) Schleiden A) Eukaryotic B) Prokaryotic
B) Schwann C) Both (a) and (b) D) None of these
C) Virchow Pg-126, easy
D) Schleiden & Schwann 18. What is the non - membranous organelle
13. Which of the following is related to cell present in both Eukaryotic as well as
theory :- Prokaryotic cell
Pg-126, medium Pg-126, easy
i) All living organisms are composed of A) Endoplasmic reticulum
cells and product of cells. B) Protein
ii) Proposed by Schleiden and Schwann. C) Mitochondria
iii) Modified by Rudolf Virchow D) Ribosomes of 80s' type
iv) All cells arise from pre - existing cell. 19. Animal cells have another non
v) "Omnis cellula - e - cellula" membrane bound cellular organelle
A) Only one of the above known as:-
B) Only two of the above Pg-126, easy
C) Only four of the above A) Microbodies B) Nucleus
D) All five C) Lysosome D) Centrosome
Paragraph - 8.3 20. Which of the following is not incorrect?
TG: @Chalnaayaaar Pg-127, medium
An Overview of Cell A) Mycoplasma is the smallest cell-> 0.3
µm in width.
14. What is the delimiting boundary around a
B) Bacteria could be 3 µm to 5 µm in
human cheek cell?
length
Pg-126, easy
C) Human RBCs are about 7.0mm in
A) Cell membrane B) Protoplasm
diameter.
C) Protoplast D) Cell wall
D) Cell's shape is independent of their
15. What is the Semi - fluid matrix inside the
work they perform.
cell?
Pg-126, easy Paragraph - 8.4
A) Cell membrane B) Protoplast Prokaryotic Cell
C) Cytoplasm D) Nucleus
16. How many of the following statements are 21. The prokaryotic cells are represented by:-
not true:- Pg-127, easy
Pg-126, medium A) Bacteria
i) All cells have membrane bound nuclei B) BGA
and nucleolus. C) Mycoplasma & PPLO
ii) Nucleus contains the chromosome D) All of these
iii) DNA is the Genetic material. 22. All prokaryotic cell have this cellular
iv) Cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular boundary surrounding the cell
activities in plant and animal cells. membrane except in mycoplasma
A) Only (ii), (iii), & (iv) Pg-127, easy
B) Only (ii) & (iv) A) Glycocalyx B) Protoplast
C) Only (i) & (iii) C) Cell wall D) Cytoplasm
D) Only (i) 23. Which of the following is related to
prokaryotic cell:-
Pg-127, easy
65
BATANY
A) Have no well defined nucleus Pg-128, easy

B) Have basically naked genomic A) Glycocalyx + cellulosic cell wall + cell
material. membrane
C) An addition to genomic DNA; the extra B) Peptidoglycan cell wall + cell
- genomic DNA is also present known membrane+ Glycocalyx
as plasmid. C) Chitinous cell wall + cell membrane +
D) All of the above Glycocalyx
24. Which of the following confirms certain D) Silicous cell wall + Glycocalyx + cell
unique phenotypic characters to some membrane
bacteria 30. How many of the following statements are
Pg-127, easy correct:-
A) Chromosomal material Pg-128, easy
B) Extra chromosomal material i) Glycocalyx is outermost layer.
C) Mitochondrial DNA ii) All three layer have same function.
D) Genetic material present in chloroplast iii) Bacteria can be classified on the basis
25. A special form of cell membrane; which is of differences in the cell envelope.
the characteristic of prokaryotes is: iv) Bacteria can be classified on the basis
Pg-128, easy of response to the staining procedure
A) Plasmid B) Cell wall A) Only one B) Only two
C) Cell membrane D) Mesosomes. C) Only three D) All four
26. Which of the following is membrane less 31. The bacteria that take up gram stain are
bodies other than Ribosomes. Pg-128, easy
Pg-128, easy A) Gram positive type.
A) Cell wall B) Inclusion B) Gram negative type.
C) Mesosomes D) Chromatophores C) Both type
27. Which of the following is the essential D) Neither gram positive nor gram
infolding's of cell membrane negative.
Pg-128, easy 32. The bacteria that do not take up gram
A) Inclusion B) Mesosome stain are
C) Chromatophores D) Plasmid Pg-128, easy
Paragraph - 8.4.1 A) Gram positive type.
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
B) Gram negative type.
Cell Envelope and it's modification C) Either gram positive or gram negative
D) Neither gram positive nor gram
28. What is the sequence of cell envelope in
negative
most of the prokaryotic cell (Outer to
33. Which of the following in a bacterial
Inner)
envelope is a loose sheath of slimy layer
Pg-128, easy
Pg-128, easy
A) Glycocalyx ->cell membrane -> cell
A) Glycocalyx B) Cell wall
wall.
C) Cell membrane D) None of the above
B) Cell membrane -> cell wall ->
34. Glycocalyx could be a thick and tough
Glycocalyx
layer and known as:-
C) Cell wall -> Glycocalyx -> cell
Pg-128, easy
membrane
A) Slimy layer B) Cyst
D) Glycocalyx ->cell wall -> cell
C) Capsule
membrane.
D) None of the above
29. The prokaryotic cell have a single
35. Which of the following determines the
protective unit made up of
shape of a bacteria cell:-
Pg-128, easy
NCERT LINE BY LINE
BATANY
A) Glycocalyx B) Capsule D) Filament only.

C) Cell membrane D) Cell Wall 41. Longest portion of flagellum is:-
36. How many of the following in not incorrect Pg-129, easy
regarding a cell membrane in prokaryotes A) Basal body
Pg-128, medium B) Hook
i) Selectively permeable in nature C) Filament
ii) Structurally similar to eukaryotic cell D) None of the above
membrane 42. Which of the following structure helps in
iii) Interacts with outer world. motility in bacterial cell:-
iv) Innermost layer of cell envelope Pg-129, easy
v) Living layer. A) Cell membrane B) Pili
A) Only (ii), (iii) & (iv) C) Fimbriae D) Flagella
B) Only (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) & (v) 43. Which of the following is not a surface
C) Only (i), (iii), (iv) & ( v) structure :-
D) Only (i), (iv) & (v) Pg-129, easy
37. How many of the following is the A) Fimbriae B) Pili
membranous extensions into the cell of C) Flagella D) Inclusion
bacteria:- 44. Which of the following is small bristle like
Pg-128, easy fibres sprouting out of the cell:-
Mesosomes, Tubules, Vesicles, Pg-129, easy
Lamellae, Chromatophores, A) Pili B) Cilia
Inclusions C) Flagella D) Fimbriae
A) 6 B) 3 45. Which of the following is elongated tubular
C) 5 D) 4 proteinaecious structure:-
38. How many functions from the following, Pg-129, easy
the mesosomes can perform A) Pili B) Inclusion
Pg-129, easy C) Mesosome D) Fimbriae
i) DNA replication 46. Which of the following help the bacteria
ii) Respiration attach to rocks in streams:-
iii) DNA distribution to daughter cells Pg-129, easy
iv) Secretion A) Inclusion B) Mesosome
v) Increases surface area C) Fimbriae D) Pili
vi) Contains enzymatic content. Paragraph - 8.4.2
A) Only four
B) Only Three Ribosomes and Inclusion Bodies
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
C) All six
47. Ribosomes are associated with the
D) Only five
structures in a bacterial cell:-
39. In cyanobacteria, there are some another
Pg-129, easy
membranous extensions except
A) t - RNA strand B) Golgi body
mesosomes are:
C) Cell membrane D) E.R
Pg-129, easy
48. Ribosomes in the bacterial cell are
A) Inclusion B) Fat globules
Pg-129,
C) Chromatophores D) All of the above
A) 20nm to 30 nm in size.
40. What are structures related to Bacterial
B) Made up of two subunits(Larger 60s' &
flagellum:-
smaller 40s')
Pg-129, easy
C) Made up of two subunits(Larger 50s' &
A) Basal body & filament
smaller 30s')
B) Basal body, Hook & filament.
D) Associated with E.R and cell membrane
C) Hook & filament
67
NCERT LINE BY LINE
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
BATANY
49. A polysome is:- C) Monera D) Animals

Pg-129, easy 55. How many of the following statements are
A) Several mRNA bound to a single true regarding Eukaryotic cell.
Ribosome. Pg-129, easy
B) Several subunits of ribosomes attached i) Cytoplasm has extensive
to each other. compartmentalization
C) Several ribosomes attached to a single ii) Presence of membrane bound organelle
strand of mRNA iii) Organised nucleus
D) Several mRNA attached to each other. iv) A variety of complex locomotory and
50. Which of the following structure translate cytoskeletal structures.
the mRNA into proteins: in a bacterial v) Genetic material is organised into
cell:- chromosomes
Pg-129, easy A) 2 B) 3
A) Inclusions of cytoplasm C) 4 D) 5
B) Ribosomes of E.R 56. Statement - !: Plant cells differs from
C) Ribosomes of Polysome. animals cells.
D) Polysomes of Ribosome. Statement - ii:- The former one posses
51. Inclusion bodies in a prokaryotic cell are:- cell walls, plastids & a large vacuole which
Pg-129, easy is absent in latter one.
A) Reserve material containing structure Pg-129, easy
B) Cell membrane infoldings A) Both statements are correct.
C) Membrane bound structure B) Both statement are incorrect.
D) All of the above C) Statement - I is correct but statement
52. What are example of inclusion bodies:- - II is incorrect.
Pg-129, easy D) Statement I is incorrect but
i) Mesosome statement - II is correct.
ii) Chromatophores 57. Centrioles are present in
iii) Gas vacuole Pg-129, easy
iv) Phosphate granules A) Animal cells
v) Cyanophycean granules B) Plant cells
vi) Glycogen granules C) Both animal and plant cells.
A) Only (ii), (iii) & (iv) D) All other than plant cells.
B) Only (iii), (iv) & (v) 58. Which of the following correctly explain the
C) Only (iii), (iv), (v) & (vi) diagram.
D) Only (iv), (v) & (vi) Pg-130, medium
53. Inclusion bodies can be found in
Pg-129, easy
A) All type of cells
B) All eukaryotic cell
C) BGA & green photosynthetic bacteria
D) Prokaryotic cell.
Paragraph - 8.5 A) 1 -> Nuclear membrane 2 -> vacuole 3
TG: @Chalnaayaaar -> peroxisome 4 -> cell wall
Eukaryotic cell B) 1 -> Microvilli 2 -> cell wall 3 ->
54. All of the above except are eukaryotic cytoplasm 4 -> Plasma membrane
except:- C) 1 -> Vacuole 2 -> cytoplasm 3 ->
Pg-129, easy
Microvilli 4 - > cell wall
A) Protista B) Plants D) None of the above
68
NCERT LINE BY LINE
BATANY
Paragraph - 8.5.1 i) Phospholipid ii) Carbohydrate

iii) Proteins iv) Cholesterol
Cell Membrane v) Phosphoproteins
A) Only (i), (ii) & (iv)
59. The detailed structure of the membrane
B) Only (ii), (iv) & (v)
was studied:-
C) Only (ii), (iii), (iv) & (v)
Pg-131, easy
D) Only (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)
A) Only after the advent of the electron
65. Which of the following study revealed that
microscope in 1950s.
cell membrane also contains proteins &
B) Enabled to deduce the possible
carbohydrate:-
structure of plasma membrane
Pg-131, easy
C) Both
A) Electron microscopic study.
D) None
B) Phase - Contrast microscopic study.
60. Which of the following cell's study enabled
C) Biochemical investigation study
the scientists to deduce the possible
D) Cobalt - chloride paper test study.
structure of Plasma membrane?
66. Which of the following statement is
Pg-131, easy
incorrect:-
A) RBC B) Cork cell
Pg-131, easy
C) WBCs D) Bacterial Cell
A) The tail is hydrophobic of saturated
61. Cell membrane is mainly composed of
hydrocarbons.
Pg-131, easy
B) The tail is hydrophilic of saturated
A) Lipids and Proteins
hydrocarbons.
B) Proteins & Cholesterols
C) The tail is hydrophobic of unsaturated
C) Lipids & Carbohydrates
hydrocarbons.
D) Carbohydrates & Proteins
D) The tail is hydrophilic of unsaturated
62. What is the correct arrangement of Lipid
hydrocarbons
molecules in the cell membrane
Pg-131, easy
incorrect:-
A) Polar head-> Outside, non - polar tails
Pg-131, easy
-> Inner side.
A) The ratio of proteins and lipids varies
B) Non - polar head-> Outside Polar tail-
considerably in different cells.
> Inner side
B) In erythrocytes; it has approximately
C) Polar tail-> Outside non - polar head-
52% proteins and 40% lipids.
> Inner side
C) On the basis of ease of extraction
D) Polar tail-> inner side non - polar head
membrane proteins are of extrinsic and
-> outer side
intrinsic type.
63. What ensures that the non - polar tail is
protected from aqueous environment?
68. The improved model of the structure of cell
Pg-131, easy
membrane was proposed by:-
A) Polar head-> Outside non - polar tails
Pg-132, easy
-> Inner side.
A) Messelson & Stahl
B) Non - polar head-> Outside Polar tail-
B) Schleiden & Schwann
> Inner side
C) Anton von Leeuwenhoek
C) Polar tail-> Outside non - polar head-
D) Singer and Nichloson
> Inner side
69. The quasi-fluid nature of lipid enables:
D) Polar tail-> inner side non - polar head
Pg-132, easy
-> outer side
A) Flip-flop movement of proteins within
64. The constituents of cell membrane are:
the lipid bilayer.
Pg-131
69
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
BATANY
B) Lateral movement of proteins within 76. What is the function of cell wall:-
the lipid bilayer. Pg-132, easy
C) Flip-flop movement of lipid crossing A) Gives shape to the cell
the protein bilayer. B) Protects the cell
D) lateral movement of lipid crossing the C) Cell - to - cell interaction
protein bilayer. D) All of the above
70. One of the most important function of the 77. What are chemical composition of algal cell
plasma membrane is:- wall
Pg-132, easy Cellulose, Galactans, Mannans, Calcium
A) Transport of molecules across it. carbonate, Chitin
B) Flip - flop movement. Pg-132, easy
C) Secretion A) Only two of them
D) Cell enlargement. B) Only three of them
71. What ability explains the fluidity of cell C) Only four of them
membrane:- D) All five of them
Pg-132, easy 78. Cell wall of plants consists of:-
A) Quasi - fluid nature of cell membrane. Pg-132, easy
B) Lateral movement of proteins. A) Cellulose & Pectin's only
C) Cell growth, formation of intercellular B) Cellulose, hemicellulose & Pectin's only
junctions; secretion; endocytosis; cell C) Cellulose, hemicellulose, Pectin &
division Proteins.
D) All of the above. D) Hemicellulose & Proteins only.
72. The plasma membrane is:- 79. Which of the following is capable of growth
A) Semi - permeable in nature A) Primary cell wall
B) Impervious in nature B) Secondary cell wall
C) Impermeable in nature C) Tertiary cell wall
D) Selectively permeable in nature. D) All of them
73. How many of the following functions the 80. Secondary cell wall is formed
cell membrane can perform:- Pg-132, easy
Active transport; Osmosis; Passive A) Outside the primary cell wall.
transport. B) Inside the cell membrane
Pg-132, easy C) Inside the plasmodesmata.
A) Only one B) Only two D) Inside the primary cell wall.
C) All D) None 81. Which of the following in plant acts as glue
74. Na - K pump transports molecules
+ + between neighbouring plant cells:-
A) By passive transport A) Ca - Pectate
B) By active transport B) Mg - Pectate
C) By utilisation of ATP C) Ca & Mg - Pectate
D) Both B & C D) None of the above
Paragraph - 8.5.2 82. Which of the following is traversed by
plasmodesmata:-
Cell Wall TG: @Chalnaayaaar
Pg-132, easy
A) Cell wall & cell membrane
75. The outer covering of fungi and plants is:
B) Cell membrane & Glycocalyx
Pg-132, easy
C) Cell membrane, cell wall, Glycocalyx &
A) Glycocalyx B) Cell wall
Middle lamella.
C) Cell membrane D) All
D) Cell wall & middle lamella.
70
NCERT LINE BY LINE
BATANY
Paragraph - 8.5.3 Pg-133, easy

A) Protein Synthesis
Endomembrane System B) Lipid synthesis
C) DNA synthesis
83. What are the constituent of
D) Glucose synthesis
Endomembrane system:-
90. Which of the following is continuous with
Pg-133, easy
the outer membrane of nucleus:-
A) Endoplasmic reticulum
Pg-133, easy
B) Golgi body & E.R.
A) R.E.R B) S.E.R
C) E.R; Golgi body; Lysosome & Vacuole.
C) Golgi body D) Lysosome
D) E.R, Golgi body & Lysosome.
91. Steroidal hormones are synthesised by:
84. Why Mitochondria, Chloroplast &
Pg-133, easy
Peroxisome are not the part of Endo -
A) R.E.R B) Lysosome
system:-
C) S.E.R D) Ribosome
Pg-133, easy
92. Golgi body was firstly observed by
A) They are autonomous organelles.
Pg-133, easy
B) They are semi autonomous
A) Camillo Golgi in 1898
organelles.
B) Camillo Golgi in 1897
C) They are not coordinated with
C) Camillo Golgi in 1895
Endomembrane system.
D) Camillo Golgi in 1993.
D) They have their own genetic material.
93. Golgi body is
85. Which of the following is the network of
Pg-133, easy
tiny-tubular structure scattered in
i) Reticular structure.
cytoplasm:-
ii) Densely stained structure
Pg-133, easy
iii) Made up of cisternae, Tubule & Vesicle
A) E.R B) Golgi body
iv) Concentric cisternae
C) Lysosome D) Vacuole
A) Only (i) & (iii)
86. Which of the following structure divides
B) Only (ii), (iii) & (iv)
the intercellular space into two
C) All of the above
compartments:-
D) Only (iii) & (iv)
Pg-133, easy
94. What is the diameter of cisternae of Golgi
A) E.R
body:-
B) Golgi body
Pg-133, easy
C) Lysosome
A) 0.5µm to l.0µm
B) 0.1 µm to 2.0 µm
87. The extra luminal & luminal compartment
C) 0.2 µm to 2.5 µm
represents:-
D) 0.3 µm to 2.0 µm
Pg-133, easy
95. The convex - face of cisternae of Golgi body
A) Cytoplasm & inside ER
is also known as:-
B) Inside ER & cytoplasm
Pg-134
C) Outside ER & cytoplasm
i) Cis - face ii) Forming face
D) Cytoplasm & outside ER
iii) Trans - face iv) Maturing face
88. The ER having Ribosomes attached to its
A) (i) & (ii) B) (ii) & (iii)
outer surface is known as
C) (iv) & (iii) D) (i) & (iv)
Pg-133, easy
� RER B) SER
correct:-
C) Both D) None
Pg-134, easy
89. RER is frequently observed in cells,
A) Cis & Trans faces are same but inter
actively involved in:-
connected.
71
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
BATANY
B) Cis & Trans faces different & not inter 104. Vacuole contains hydrolases; lipases;
connected proteases; water; sap; excretory products
C) Cisternae is 0.1 to 2.0 µm in diameter. & material not useful for the cell
D) None of the above Pg-135, easy
97. Golgi body principally performs the A) Only four of the above
functions of:- B) Only three of the above
Pg-134, easy C) Only five of the above
A) Secretion D) All of them.
B) Packaging of materials. 105. The membrane of vacuole is
C) Both Pg-134, easy
D) None A) Single membrane B) Tonoplast
98. Materials to be packed in the ___Fuses C) Both D) none
with the ___face:- 106. In a plant cell vacuole can occupy up to
Pg-134, easy ___% space of cell
A) Cis - face and Trans - face Pg-134, easy
B) Trans - face and cis - face A) 70 B) 80
C) E.R and cis - face C) 90 D) 50
D) E.R and trans - face 107. In plant tonoplast facilitates the transport
99. A number of proteins synthesized by of a number of _(i)_; __(ii)__ the
ribosomes on the __(i)__ are modified concentration gradient.
in the __(ii)__of the __(iii)__ Pg-134, easy
Pg-134, easy A) (i) Solutes (ii) Along
A) (i) ER (ii) Golgi body (iii) cisternae B) (i) ions (ii) Along
B) (i)Golgi body (ii) cisternae (iii)ER C) (i) ions (ii) against
C) (i) cisternae (ii) RE (iii) Golgi body D) (i) solutes (ii) against
D) (i) ER (ii) cisternae (iii) Golgi body 108. How many of the following statements are
100. The vesicular structure formed by the not wrong:-
process of packing in Golgi apparatus is: i) Concentration of same ions inside the
Pg-134, easy vacuole is significantly higher.
A) Vacuole B) ER ii) In amoeba contractile vacuole helps in
C) Lysosome D) All osmoregulation & excretion.
101. The isolated lysosomal vesicle have been iii) In Protistans, food vacuoles are formed
found to be very rich in by engulfing the food particle.
Pg-134, easy Pg-134, medium
i) Lipases A) Only two B) Only one
ii) Proteases C) All three D) None
iii) Carbohydrases Paragraph - 8.5.4
A) Only i) & ii) B) Only ii) & iii)
C) Only i) & iii) D) All Mitochondria
102. Enzymes present in lysosomes are
109. Which of the following statement is correct
accumulatively known as:-
about mitochondria:-
Pg-134, easy
Pg-134, medium
A) Acid proteases B) Lipases
A) Easily visible under the microscope;
C) Acid hydrolases D) Carbohydrases
without stain.
103. The membrane bound space in cytoplasm
B) Number of mitochondria per cell is
is known as:-
invariable
Pg-135, easy
C) Number of mitochondria depends on
A) ER B) Golgi body
the physiological activity of cell.
C) Lysosome D) Vacuole
72
BATANY
D) All of the above. iv) Mitochondria matrix has enzyme of

110. How many of the following statement is kerb's cycle.
correct regarding mitochondria :- v) Mitochondria is the site of aerobic
Pg-134, medium respiration
i) A sausage - shaped str. vi) Matrix also possess SS - DNA molecule
ii)Diameter is 0.2 - 1.0 µm & few RNA molecules.
iii)
Avg. Diameter is 0.5 µm A) Only two B) Only four
iv)Length is 1.0 - 4.1 µm C) Only five D) Only three
A) One B) Two 116. The matrix of mitochondria possess:-
C) Three D) Four Pg-135, easy
111. Each mitochondria is _X__ Single circular DNA molecules;
membrane bound structure; dividing its A few RNA molecules; 70s' ribosomes;
lumen into __y_ distinct compartment Components required for the synthesis of
Pg-135, easy proteins.
A) x➔ single Y➔one A) Only two of them
B) X ➔double Y➔one B) Only three of them
C) X➔single Y➔two C) All of them
D) X ➔ double Y➔two D) None of them
112. Matrix of mitochondria is:- 11 7. Mitochondria divides by:-
A) Filled with a dense homogenous A) Endomitosis B) Meiosis
substance. C) Budding D) Fission
B) Outer aqueous compartment Paragraph - 8.5.5
C) Space present between Inner and
Outer membrane of Mitochondria Plastids
D) Present within the outer membrane of
118. Plastids are found in:-
mitochondria
Pg-135, easy
113. The outer membrane of mitochondria
A) Only plants cells
forms the __ limiting boundary of the
B) Only Euglenoids
organelle, while the inner membrane forms
C) Both Plants and Euglenoids
a number of__
D) Plants; Euglenoids & Cyanobacteria.
Pg-135, easy
119. Classification of plastids are based on
A) Discontinuous ; infoldings
Pg-135, easy
B) Infoldings; Cristae
A) Chromatophores B) Mesosomes
C) Continuous ; Cristae
C) Inclusions D) Pigments
D) Cistae ; Infoldings
120. Which of the following is responsible for
114. Which of the following increase the surface
trapping of light energy
area:-
Pg-135, easy
Pg-135, easy
A) Chlorophyll like a, b, c etc.
A) Matrix B) Inner membrane
B) Carotenoids
C) Outer membrane D) Cristae
C) Chlorophylls & carotenoids
115. How many of the following statements are
D) Chromosomes
correct:-
121. Carotenoids is group of
Pg-135, easy
Pg-135, easy
i) Only outer membrane has enzyme for
A) Chlorophyll pigments
ETS
B) Chlorophylls & carotene
ii) Only inner membrane has enzymes.
C) Carotenes and xanthophyll's
iii) Outer membrane is devoid of enzymes.
73
BATANY
D) Carotenes ; xanthophyll's & other 129. Number of chloroplast per cell may vary
pigments. from___ per cell of chlamydomonas to
122. Leucoplast is :- ___ per cell in mesophylls.
A) Unmodified plastids A) 20-40; 1-5
B) Contains stored nutrients B) 1 ;20-40
C) Imparts colour to the plant cell C) 10-20;20-40
D) Imparts colour to the cyanobacteria D) 5; 10-20
123. What are types of chloroplast:- 130. Common features of mitochondria &
Pg-135, easy chloroplasts are :-
i) Chromoplast ii) Leucoplast Pg-136, easy
iii) Amyloplast iv) Aleuroplast A) Number of membrane & type of DNA
v) Elaioplast molecules only
A) Three of the above B) Number of membrane;Ribosomes type
B) Four of the above and DNA molecule type
C) Five of the above C) Types of thylakoid & genetic material.
D) None of the above D) Types of thylakoid, genetic material
124. Elaioplast contains and permeability of membrane.
Pg-135, easy 131. What are types of thylakoid inside the
A) Proteins and fats chloroplast:-
B) Fats and starch Pg-136, easy
C) Fats and oils A) Intergranal thylakoid and stroma
D) Fats ;Protein and oils. lamellae
125. Aleuroplast contains B) Granum thylakoid only
Pg-136, easy C) Stroma thylakoid only
A) Proteins and fats D) None of the above
B) Fats and oils 132. Flat membranous tubules connecting the
C) Proteins & starch thylakoids in chloroplast is known as:-
D) Protein only Pg-136, easy
126. Majority of chloroplast of the green plants A) Granal thylakoid
are found in :- B) Orama
Pg-136, easy C) Stroma thylakoid / lamellae
A) Mesophyll cells of roots D) All of the above
B) Mesophyll cells of stems 133. The membrane of chloroplast encloses a
C) Mesophyll cells of leaves space known as:-
D) Mesophyll cells of flowers. Pg-136, easy
127. Mesophyll cells are:- A) Matrix B) Cytoplasm
Pg-136, easy C) Lumen D) All of them
A) Lens-shaped; Oval; Spherical only 134. The stroma of chloroplast contains:
B) Oval &spherical only Pg-136, easy
C) Discoidal & ribbon-shaped (i) Enzyme for carbohydrate & proteins
D) None of them synthesis.
128. What is dimension of chloroplast :- (ii) Small single stranded DNA molecule.
Pg-136, easy (iii) Ribosomes of 70's type.
A) Length 2-4 µm & width 5 -10 µm A) Only one the above
B) Length 1-2 µm & width 2-4 µm B) Only two of the above
C) Length 5- 10 µm & width 2-4 µm C) Only three of the above
D) Length 2-4 µm & width 1-2 µm D) None of the above
135. Chlorophyll pigments are present in the:-
74
BATANY
Pg-136, easy 142. What type of ribosome are found in

A) Matrix B) Stroma Eukaryotic cell
C) Membrane D) Thylakoid Pg-136, easy
136. The ribosomes of chloroplast are:- A) 70s' type only
Pg-136, easy B) 80s' type only
A) Same as Eukaryotic cell C) Both 70s' and 80s' type
B) 70's type with single subunit D) 70s' ; 80s' & 60s' type
C) 70's type with two subunits Paragraph - 8.5.7
D) All of the above
Paragraph - 8.5.6 Cytoskeleton
Ribosomes 143. Cytoskeleton refers to the :-

Pg-136, easy
137. Which of the following statements are true A) Cilia and flagella only
regarding ribosomes :- B) Network of filamentous proteinaecious
Pg-136, easy structure
i) Granular structure C) Microtubules only
ii) First observed as dense particles by D) Both (A) & (C)
George Palade in 1953 144. Microtubules; microfilaments &
iii) Composed of m - RNA & proteins. intermediate filaments are constituents
iv) Surrounded by a single unit membrane of:-
A) Two of them B) Three of them Pg-136, easy
C) All of them D) Only one of them A) Ribosomes B) Central sheath
138. What are the types of Ribosomes in a C) Cytoskeleton D) Cytolamellae
Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic cell. 145. Cytoskeleton in a cell is involved in
Pg-136, easy functions like
A) 70s' and 80s' B) 80s' and 70s' Pg-136, easy
C) 70s' and 70s' D) 80s' and 80s' A) Mechanical supports
139. How many subunits are presents in a B) Motility
ribosome C) Maintenance of the shape of cell
Pg-136, easy D) All of the above
A) Two; one large and one smaller Paragraph - 8.5.8
subunits
B) Three; two large and one smaller Cilia and Flagella
subunits
146. Which of the following statements in
C) Only one subunits
untrue:-
D) Three; one large and two smaller
Pg-137, easy
subunits.
A) Cilia and flagella are hair like
140. Subunits 50s' and 30s' are found in
outgrowth
Pg-136, easy
B) Cilia are small and works like oars.
A) 60s' type B) 70s' type
C) Flagella are longer and responsible for
C) 80s' type D) 90s' type
cell movement.
141. What is sedimentation co-efficient
D) None of them
Pg-136, easy
147. Statement - (I): both eukaryotic and
A) Svedberg unit
prokaryotic cells contains flagella.
B) Measurement of density
Statement - (II): eukaryotic flagella are
C) Measurement of size
structurally different from prokaryotic
D) All of these
flagella.
Pg-137, easy
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BATANY
A) Both statements are correct A) Animal cells only

B) Both statements are not correct B) Plant cells only
C) Statement - (I) is correct but statement C) Both animal & plant cells
- (II) is wrong D) In plant & Bacterial cells
D) Statement - (I) is wrong but statement 154. Centrioles in the centrosome are:-
- (11) is correct Pg-137, easy
148. The core of cilia and flagella is known as A) Parallely arranged to each other
Pg-137, easy B) Perpendicularly arranged to each other
A) Central sheath C) Arranged like a cart wheel
B) Central microtubule D) Made up of triplets of centrally
C) Axoneme arranged microtubules
D) Bridge 155. The basal body of centriole has micro
149. The microtubules in the cilia and flagella: tubular arrangement of:-
A) Runs parallel to each other. A) 9 + 0 B) 9 + 2
B) Forms the axoneme and outer C) 9 + 3 D) 3 + 9
membrane 156. The central part of the proximal region of
C) Both (A) & (B) the centriole is:-
D) Arranged centrally only Pg-137, easy
150. What is arrangement of microtubules in A) Known as radial spoke
the cilium and flagellum B) Known as a central hub
Pg-137, easy C) Connected to the peripheral doublets
A) 9 - peripheral & 3 - central D) All of the above
B) Two - peripheral & 9 - central 157. The structure that give rise to the spindle
C) 9 - peripheral & two central fibers during cell division in animal cell
D) All peripheral is:-
151. The central sheath is:- Pg-137, easy
Pg-137, easy A) Cilia B) Flagella
A) Connected to inter doublet bridges C) Both D) Centriole
B) Encloses peripheral doublets Paragraph 8.5.10
C) Connected to peripheral microtubules
D) All of the above Nucleus
152. Which of the following statement regarding
158. i) Nucleus as an organelle was first
cilia and flagella are not correct:-
described by Robert brown
Pg-137, easy
ii) Stained by the basic dyes, the material
A) Peripheral doublets are inter connected
is known as chromatin by Robert brown
by linker
iii) Double membrane bound structure
B) Linker are also known as inter doublet
How many of the above statement are not
bridge
true about the nucleus & its material:-
C) Both emerges out from a centriole like
Pg 138, easy
structure
A) Only one B) Only two
D) Linker are also known as basal body
C) Only three D) Only four
Paragraph 8.5.9 159. The nucleus has highly extended and
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
Centrosome and centrioles elaborate nucleoprotein fibers known as:

Pg 138, easy
153. Centrosome and centrioles can be found A) Nucleoli B) Chromosome
in:- C) Chromatin D) Nuclear matrix
Pg-137, easy
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160. The contents of an inter phase nucleus Statement- (II): Normally there is only one
are:- nucleus per cell.
Pg 137, easy Pg 138, medium
Nucleoli ; chromatin ; nuclear matrix; two A) Both (I) & (II) are true & (II) is correct
membranes explanation of (I)
A) Only two of the above B) Both (I) & (II) are true but (II) is not the
B) Only three of the above correct explanation of (I)
C) Only four of the above C) (II) is wrong but (I) is true.
D) Only of the above D) (I) is wrong but (II) is true.
161. What forms the barrier between the 166. The nucleus matrix contains:-
cytoplasmic content and nuclear matrix:- Pg 138, easy
Pg 137, easy A) Nucleoplasm and chromatin
A) The outer membrane only B) Nucleoplasm, Chromatin and
B) The inner membrane only Mitochondria
C) The perinuclear space C) Nucleoplasm, chromatin &E.R
D) All of the above D) None of the above
162. i) The outer membrane of nucleus is 167. What is not true about the nucleolus:-
continuous with rest of the cellular Pg 138, easy
organelles A) Spherical structure present in the
Pg 138, easy nucleoplasm'
ii) The inner membrane is continuous with B) Membrane less structure.
E.R C) Also known as Ribosomal factory of the
iii) Their are interruption known as pores cell.
present in outer membrane of nucleus D) None of the above
iv) Pores are formed by the fusion of both 168. At which phase of cell cycle the nucleolus
of the membranes. has a loose and indistinct network of
How many of the above statements are nucleoprotein fibers known as chromatin:
incorrect:- Pg 138, easy
A) 2 B) 1 A) Prophase B) Anaphase
C) 3 D) 4 C) Interphase D) Metaphase
163. The nuclear pores facilitates :- 169. Cell show structured chromosome
Pg 138, easy during:-
A) Movement of RNA & protein molecules Pg 139, easy
in only one direction A) All phases except anaphase
B) Only proteins in both direction B) All phases except metaphase
C) Proteins in one direction & RNA in both C) All phases except Inter phase
directions D) All phases except m- phase
D) None of the these 170. Chromatin contains
164. Few of the mature cells have no any Pg 139, easy
nucleus:- A) Histones; Non - histones & RNA
Pg 138, easy B) Histones & non - histone proteins only
A) Their function are not specific C) DNA & some basic proteins
B) Are dead cells with cytoplasm D) Both (A) & (C)
C) Their function are controlled by some 171. A human cell has approximately
another cells. meters long thread of DNA, distributed
D) All of the above among its ___ chromosomes:-
165. Statement- (I): The nucleus per cell varies Pg 139, easy
per cell. A) 4; 46 B) 2; 46
C) 4; 23 D) 2; 23
77
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172. Each chromosome Pg 139, easy

Pg 139, easy A) Metacentric B) Sub- metacentric
A) Has primary constriction C) Telocentric D) Acrocentric
B) Is visible only in dividing cells. 177. Chromosome having one long and one
C) Has disc shaped structure known as short arm are:-
kinetochore Pg 139, easy
D) All of the above A) Metacentric & sub - metacentric
173. Function of centriole is: B) Sub - metacentric & acrocentric
Pg 139, easy C) Acrocentric & telocentric
A) Provides site of attachment to the D) Telocentric & metacentric
spindle fibers on chromosome 178. A non - staining is present on a few
B) Holds two chromatids of a chromosome chromosome
C) Both (A) & (B) A) Secondary constriction or centromere
D) None B) Satellite or centromere
174. What is type of chromosome having a C) Secondary constriction or satellite
middle centromere:- D) None of the above
Pg 139, easy Paragraph - 8.5.11
A) Metacentric B) Sub- metacentric
C) Acrocentric D) Telocentric Micro bodies
175. What is the type of chromosome having its
179. Membrane bound minute vesicles
centromere near the telomere
containing enzymes are known as:-
Pg 139, easy
Pg 140, easy
A) Metacentric B) Sub- metacentric
A) Chloroplast B) Mitochondria
C) Telocentric D) Acrocentric
C) Ribosomes D) Micro bodies
176. Chromosomes having centromere slightly
away from the middle is:-
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ANSWER KEY
CELL THE UNIT OF LIFE
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans C C D C B A D D A A
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans A C D A C A A C D B
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans D C D B C D B D B C
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans A B A C D D D C C B
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans C D D D D C C C C C
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans A C D C D A C A C A
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans A A A D C A A D B A
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans D D C B B D C C A D
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans A D C C A A A A A A
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans C A C A A B B C D C
Q 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans D C D A C C C C C D
Q 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans D B C D A C D C D C
Q 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Ans D B D C D C D C B B
Q 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans A C C A D C B A A B
Q 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Ans D B B C D D A C A C
Q 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans C D C B A B D A C C
Q 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Ans D B D C B A D C C D
Q 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179
Ans B D C A C B C C D
79
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�
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t�{�';-��. \r---c e_ l_lC_y_c_le _A_ n_d_C_ e_ l_l D_ _i v_s-i
0."'l,,,"'l"1..
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'<:1,"'l,,,"'l �
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1. All cells reproduce by dividing into ____ Page No-163, Paragraph No-1 and 2
_ , with each parental cells giving rise to__ Statement A: The M-phase represents
___ cells each time they divide. the phase when actual cell division
A) occurs
Easy Page No-162, Paragraph No-1 Statement B: Interphase represents the
A) One; four daughter phase between two successive M-phases
B) Two; two daughter A) Only statement A is correct
C) One; two daughter B) Only statement B is correct
D) Two; four daughter C) Both the statements are incorrect
10.1 Cell Cycle D) Both the statements are correct
6. Match the columns and choose the correct
2. A cell cycle comprises all the listed events, option
except: Medium
Easy Page No-162, Paragraph No-2 Page No-163, Paragraph No-1,2,3,4 and
A) Cell growth page No-164, paragraph No- 1 and 2
B) DNA replication Column I Column II
C) Transcription (a) G1 phase (i) Quiescent
D) Cell division stage of the
cell cycle.
3. Consider the following statements (b) G2 phase (ii) DNA
Statement-1: cell growth (in terms of denoted as
cytoplasmic increases) is a contingent 2C,
process which occur during cell cycle. increases to
4C
Statement-II: DNA synthesis occur only (c) Synthesis (iii) Proteins are
during one specific stage in the cell cycle. phase synthesized
Statement-III: The event of cell cycle are in
under genetic control. preparation
for mitosis
Difficult Page No-162, Paragraph No-2 (d) Go phase (iv) Cell contain
A) Statement-I is false & statement-II and initial
III are true amount of
B) Statement-I and II are false & DNA i.e., 2C
statement-III are true
A) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
C) All statement are true
B) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
D) None of the above stated statement are
C) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
true.
D) a-ii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
10.1.1 Phases of Cell Cycle 7. An average duration of yeast cell cycle is
Easy
Page No-163, Paragraph No-1
4. Cell of human divide once in
approximately- A) 60 minutes B) 90 minutes
Easy Page No-163, Paragraph No-1 C) 20 minutes D) One day
B) 90 minutes 8. Cell cycle is divided into how many basic
A) 60 minutes
phases
C) 24 hours D) None of these
5. Read the following statements and Easy
choose the correct option. Page No-163, Paragraph No-1
Medium A) One B) Two
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C) Four D) Six Easy

9. Which of following is/ are enlisted as basic Page No-163, Paragraph No-3
phases of cell cycle? A) M-phase B) Interkinesis
Easy C) G1 & G2 phase D) Interphase
Page No-163, Paragraph No-3 16. Interphase is divided into_ _ _ phases
A) Go phase B) S phase further.
C) Interphase D) Metaphase Easy
10. The phase of cell cycle during which Page No-163, Paragraph No-3
mitosis occur is- A) 4 B) 3
Easy C) 2 D) 5
Page No-163, Paragraph No-2 1 7. Which of following stage corresponds to
A) Interphase B) M-phase the interval between mitosis & initiation of
C) G-phase D) S-phase DNA replication?
11. The phase between two successive M- Medium
phase is Page No-163, Paragraph No-4
Easy A) S-phase B) G2-phase
Page No-163, Paragraph No-2 C) M-phase D) G1-phase
A) Interphase B) G-phase 18. Select the correct statement about G1
C) S-phase D) M-phase phase-
12. The time span of interphase and M-phase Easy
is an average human cell cycle is- Page No-163, Paragraph No-4
Easy A) Cell is metabotically inactive
Page No-163, Paragraph No-2 B) DNA does not replicate
A) 12 hours each C) DNA replicate
B) 95% M-phase & one hour interphase D) Chromosome number is doubled
C) 8 hour M-phase & 16 hour interphase 19. Correct sequence of phase of M-phase is
D) One hour M-phase & 23 hour Easy
interphase Page No-163, Figure No-10.1
13. The correct sequence of cell is A) Cytokinesis -> Prophase -> Metaphase
Easy -> Anaphase -> Telophase
Page No-163, Figure No-10.1 B) Prophase -> Anaphase -> Metaphase -

A) M -> G2 -> S -> G1 > Telophase -> Cytokinesis
B) S -> G2 -> G1 -> M C) Go -> G1 -> S -> G2

C) M -> G1 -> G2 -> S D) None of these
D) G1 -> S -> G2 -> M 20. What would be amount of DNA (C) and
14. The process which mark as start & usually number of chromosome (N) in animal cell
end of M-phase are- just after completion of S phase if the
Medium initial amount is 2C and 2N?
Page No-163, Paragraph No-3 Difficult
A) Division of cytoplasm & Karyokinesis Page No-163, Paragraph No-4
respectively A) 2C and 2N respectively
B) Cytokinesis and division of cytoplasm B) 4C and 4N respectively
respectively C) 4C and 2N respectively
C) Separation of daughter chromosome & D) 2C and 4N respectively
cytokinesis respectively 21. Duplication of centriole occur in
D) Karyokinesis & karyokinesis Easy
respectively Page No-163, Paragraph No-5
15. Resting phase of cell-cycle is- A) M-phase B) G2-phase
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C) S-phase D) Go-phase 27. How many chromosome does onion

22. The S-phase of animal cell marked by somatic cell have-
Easy Easy
Page No-163, Paragraph No-5 Page No-164, Top box
A) DNA replication A) 12 B) 14
B) Centriole duplication C) 16 D) 20
C) Cell growth and protein synthesis 28. What number of chromosome does onion
D) A&B somatic cell have in G, S, G2 & M-phase
23. The G2 of cell cycle is pronounced by respectively
Easy Medium
Page No-163, Paragraph No-5 Page No-164, Top box
A) Cell growth and division A) 32, 16, 16, 32 B) 16, 32, 16, 16
B) Cell duplication C) 16, 16, 16, 16 D) None of these
C) Protein synthesis & centriole 29. Mitotic division occur in-
duplication Easy
D) Cell growth&protein synthesis Page No-164, Paragraph No-2
24. Find mismatch column. A) Diploid somatic cell
Difficult B) Haploid male honey bee
Page No-163, Paragraph No-1,2,3,4 C) A&B
Column-I Column-II D) Gametes
A) Karyokinesis Separation of 30. Match the following column:
daughter
chromosome Difficult
B) cytokinesis Division of Page No-163 & 164, Paragraph No-1,2
cytoplasm Column-I Column - II
C) Interphase Smallest phase of a) G1 Phase i) Metabolically
cell cycle active cell, do
D) M-phase Mitosis phase not proliferate
b) S Phase ii) Content of DNA
25. The inactive stage of cell cycle is- doubled
c) Go phase iii) Protein
Easy synthesised
Page No-164, Paragraph No-1 d) G2 Phase iv) Metabolically
A) Quiescent stage B) G1 active cell grows
C) S-Phase D) A&B continuously
26. Choose the correct statement with respect
A) a-iv),b-ii),c-i),d-iii)
to Go phase:
B) a-i),b-ii),c-iv),d-iii)
Medium
C) a-iv),b-iii),c-i),d - ii
D) None of these
A) Also known as quiescent stage and
start after G2 phase 10.2 M-Phase
B) Cell of this stage remain unactive and
31. M-phase refer to-
no longer proliferation
Easy
C) Cell of this stage remain in active but
no longer proliferation unless called to
A) Metaphase B) Meiosis
do so depending on the requirement of
C) Karyokinesis D) A&B both
organism
32. Most dramatic period of cell cycle is
D) Cell of this stage remain active and
Easy
proliferation till death without any
condition TG: @Chalnaayaaar A) Gap 1 only B) M-phase
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C) S-phase only D) Interphase Difficult

33. Equational division refer to - Page No-164, Paragraph No-4; Page No-
Easy 165, Paragraph No-2
Page No-164, Paragraph No-3 A) Beginning of movement of
A) Meiosis chromosome to opposite poles -
B) Mitosis Prophase
C) Number of cell chromosome in parent B) Two asters with spindle - Mitotic
&progeny cell is same apparatus
D) B&C C) Attachment of spindle - Metaphase
34. Karyokinesis of mitosis is divided into D) Chromosome move to opposite
____ stages poles - Metaphase
Easy 39. Mitotic apparatus consist of -
Page No-164, Paragraph No-3 Easy
� 2 B) 3 Page No-164, Paragraph No-6
C) 4 D) 8 A) Four asters with spindle fibres
35. Correct order of mitotic division is - B) One asters with spindle fibres
Easy C)Two asters with spindle fibres
Page No-164, Paragraph No-3 D)Centrosome with their microtubules
A) Metaphase ➔ Anaphase ➔ Prophase ➔ without spindle fibres.
Telophase 40. How many of following structures are
B) Prophase ➔ Metaphase ➔ Anaphase ➔ observed when cells are viewed under the
Telophase microscope at end of prophase Golgi body,
C) Anaphase ➔ Telophase ➔ Metaphase ➔ ER, Nucleolus, Nuclear envelop,
Prophase centrosome
D) Telophase ➔ Prophase ➔ Anaphase ➔ Medium
Metaphase Page No-165, Paragraph No-1
10.2.1 Prophase A) Zero B) One
C) Three D) All of these
36. Select the correct option: 41. How do the chromosome appear during
I) Prophase is first stage of Karyokinesis. prophase of animal cell during mitosis
II) It occur after completion of protein Easy
synthesis during cell cycle Page No-164, Paragraph No-6
Easy A) Consisting of four chromatid which
Page No-164, Paragraph No-4 remain attached to centromere
A) Both (I) & (11) are true B) Consisting of two chromatid which
B) Both (I) & (11) are false remain attached to centromere
C) (I) is true but (11) is false C) Consisting of four chromatid without
D) (I) is false but (11) is true centromere
37. During prophase, which of the following D) As chromatin material without any
occurs? defined structure
Medium 42. Asters formed during prophase are -
A)
Condensation of chromosomal material Page No-169, Paragraph No-6
B)
Chromosomal material become tangled A) Composed of microtubules originate
C)
Centrosome duplication from centromere
D)
Movement of both centriole at one pole B) Composed of protein which secreted by
of cell golgi body
38. Choose the incorrect match C) Highly condensed area of chromosome
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D) None of these
43. What difference would indicate early
prophase & late prophase of animal cell.
Difficult
Page No-167 and 165, Paragraph No- (ii) (i)
Early Prophase Late Prophase A) Early prophase, metaphase
A) Nucleolus & Nucleolus & B) Late prophase, transition to metaphase
nuclear nuclear membrane C) Early prophase, transition to
membrane are absent
present metaphase
B) Chromosomes There is no D) Late prophase, metaphase
are highly condensation of 4 7. Which stage of cell cycle is best to study
condensed chromosome chromosome morphology
C) Nucleolus & Nucleolus &
centrosome are cen tromere are
Easy
present absent Page No-165, Paragraph No-2
D) Other Other organelles A) Late prophase B) Early prophase
organelles like like ER, golgi C) Anaphase D) Metaphase
ER, golgi body complex are
complexes are observed. 48. Condensation of chromosome is completed
not observed in-
Easy
44. Identify correct stage of given diagram. Page No-165, Paragraph No-2
Difficult A) Stage where centrosome is duplicated
Page No-165, Figure No-10.2 (a) B) Stage where DNA content doubled
C) Stage where complete integration of
@)
nuclear envelope occurs
D) Stage where complete disintegration of
nucleus envelope occurs
(i) (ii) 49. Metaphase chromosome is made up of-
Easy
A) Late prophase Early prophase Page No-165, Paragraph No-2
B) Early Late prophase
prophase A) Two non - sister chromatid which are
C) Metaphase Prophase held together by centromere
D) Prophase Metaphase B) Four sister chromatid which are held
10.2.2 Metaphase together by centromere
C) Two sister chromatid which are held
45. The complete disintegration of nuclear together by centromere
envelop marks start of: D) Four non - sister chromatid which are
Easy held together by centromere
Page No-165, Paragraph No-2 50. Kinetochores are
A) Late prophase Easy
B) Metaphase Page No-165, Paragraph No-2
C) Anaphase A) Precursors of microtubules
D) None of these B) Sites of attachment of spindle fibres
46. Identify stage of given diagram C) Site for origination of spindle fibres
Difficult D) Small disc - shaped structure at
Page No-165, Figure No-10.2 telomere of chromosome
51. Metaphase is characterised by-
Easy
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A) Some chromosomes coming to lie at the C) iii, v D) ii, iv

pole 55. Identify stage -
B) One chromatid of each chromosome Difficult
connected by its centromere to spindle Page No-166, Figure No-10.2 (c)
fibres from one pole
C) Sister chromatid connected by its --:::::
kinetochore to spindle fibres from �
opposite poles
D) All of these
52. Identify stage
Difficult
Page No-165, Figure No-2 Part b.
A) Anaphase B) Telophase
C) Interphase D) Metaphase
10.2.4 Telophase
56. During telophase:
(i) Chromosome cluster at opposite
spindle poles
A) Transition to metaphase
(ii) Two daughter nuclei formed
B) Anaphase
(iii) Chromosomes lose their individuality
C) Metaphase
(iv) It is reversal of prophase
D) Telophase
(v) Nucleolus is not reformed
10.2.3 Anaphase Choose the incorrect statement:
Medium
53. At the onset of anaphase, each
chromosome split into -
A) i), (ii) B) (iii), (iv)
Easy
C) (v) only D) none of these
A) One chromatid 10.2.5 Cytokinesis:
B) Four daughter chromatids
57. Match the following column -
C) Two daughter chromosomes
Difficult
D) Eight chromatids
54. Ana phase is characterised by -
Easy
Column I Column II
a Syncytium i Divide the
i) Migration of daughter chromatid
cytoplasm of
toward equator.
animal cell
ii) centromere of each chromosome
remain directed toward pole b Cell-plate ii Occur in liquid
iii) centromere of each chromosome endosperm of
remain directed toward equator coconut
iv) Chromatid split and centromere C Cell iii Method of
separate furrow cytokinesis in
v) Chromatid separate after centromere plant cell
split
A) i, ii, V B) ii, V A) a-iii, b-ii, c-i
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B) a-ii, b-iii, c-i Choose the correct option from following :

C) a-i, b-ii, c-iii Medium
D) a-ii, b-i, c-iii Page No-167, Paragraph No-2
58. Cell plate represent - A) Statement (a) is true but (b) is false
Easy B) Statement (b) is true but (a) is false
Page No-166, Paragraph No-3 C) Statement (a) & (b) are true
A) Primary lamella D) Statement (a) & (b) are false
B) Middle lamella 10.4 Meiosis:
C) Both
D) formation of plate by lysosome 63. Meiosis result in
10.3 Cytokinesis: Easy
59. Mitosis usually results in A) production of gametes
Easy B) reduction in number of chromosomes
Page No-167, Paragraph No-1 C) introduction of variation
A) haploid daughter cells with identical D) all of these
genetical complement 64. Meiosis ensure the production of
B) growth of multicellular organism ............... phase in life cycle of sexually
C) diploid daughter cells without identical reproduction organisms whereas
genetical complement fertilization restore ........... phase.
D) haploid daughter cells without Easy
identical genetical complement Page No-167, Paragraph No-3
60. Which one is odd w.r.t. significance of A) haploid & haploid respectively
meiosis? B) haploid & diploid respectively
Medium C) diploid & diploid respectively
Page No-167, Paragraph No-1-4, 170 D) diploid & haploid respectively
paragraph 2 65. Which of the following statement is
A) Increase genetic variability in correct?
organisms Medium
B) Helps in restoring of original Page No-167, Paragraph No-3
chromosome number in a sexually A) Meiosis involves single cycle of nuclear
reproducing species. and cell division
C) Ensure production of haploid B) Doubling of chromosomes occur once
phase during s-phase
D) Cell repair C) Recombination between sister
61. The growth in plant is/are contributed by chromatid of non-homologous
Easy chromosome
Page No-167, Paragraph No-1 D) Pairing of homologous chromosome
A) Mitotic division in apical meristem 66. At the end of meiosis-II, how many haploid
B) Meiotic division in lateral meristem cells are formed?
C) Meiotic division in apical meristem Easy
D) A & B both Page No-167, Paragraph No-3
62. a) The nucleo-cytoplasmic ratio in A) One B) Two
organism is restore by mitosis C) Zero D) Four
b) The cells of the upper layer of the 67. Recombination occurs between -
epidermis, cells of lining of gut, and Easy
blood cells are being constantly Page No-167, Paragraph No-3
replaced by Mitotic division.
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A) sister chromatid of non-homologous Stage

chromosome 73. Synaptonemal complex dissolves during
B) non-sister chromatid of non Easy
homologous chromosome Page No-168, Paragraph No-2
C) sister chromatid of homologous A) Leptotene B) Diakinesis
chromosome C) Zygotene D) Diplotene
D) non-sister chromatid of homologous 74. During which phase of meiosis centromere
chromosome splits?
10.4.1 Meiosis-I Easy
68. Longest phase of meiosis is : A) Anaphase I B) Anaphase II
Easy C) Telophase II D) Telophase I
Page No-168, Paragraph No-1 75. Choose the correct option with respect to
A) Prophase-I B) Prophase-II leptotene:
C) Metaphase-I D) Telophase-II Medium
69. During which of the given phases, Page No-168, Paragraph No-2
homologous chromosomes separate, while (i) It is the foremost and the short-lived
sister chromatids remain associated at stage of prophase
their centromere? (ii) It begins when the process of
Difficult compaction of chromosome is
Page No-169, Paragraph No-1 accomplished
A) Anaphase of mitosis (iii) chromosome become visible under
B) Anaphase II light microscope
C) Anaphase I (iv) It followed by zygotene
D) Metaphase I A) One statement that is (ii) is incorrect
70. Prophase-I of meiosis is divided into B) i, ii and iii are correct while (iv) is
. . . . . . . . . . . . . phase based on chromosomal incorrect
behaviour. C) iii & iv are correct while i, ii are
Easy incorrect
Page No-168, Paragraph No-1 D) All statement are correct
� 2 B) 3 76. Zygotene is characterized by
C) 4 D) 5 Easy
71. Identify correct sequence of prophase-I. Page No-168, Paragraph No-2
Easy (i) chromosome start pairing
Page No-168, Paragraph No-1 (ii) non-homologous chromosome paired
A) leptotene, Diplotene, Zygotene (iii) synapsis occurs between non-
B) Zygotene, pachytene, leptotene homologous chromosomes
C) Diplotene, Zygotene, Pachytene (iv) formation of synaptomeal complex in
D) None of these homologous chromosomes
72. A bivalent is (v) formation of synaptonemal complex
Easy in non homologous chromosomes
Page No-168, Paragraph No-2 A) i, ii, v B) i, iii, iv
A) Pair of non-homologous C) i, iv D) i, ii, iii, v
chromosomes 77. Bivalent stage is -
B) The complex formed by a pair of Easy
synapsed homologous chromosomes. Page No-168, Paragraph No-2
C) Formed during pachytene statge A) complex formed by a pair of synapsed
D) More clearly visible at zygotene homologous chromosomes
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B) complex formed by a pair of synapsed 82. Diplotene is not characterized by

non-homologous chromosomes Medium
C) complex formed by four pair of Page No-168, Paragraph No-3
synapsed homologous chromosomes A) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex.
D) complex formed by four pair of B) Tendency of recombined homologous
synapsed non-homologous chromosomes of tetrad to separate
chromosomes from each other, except at sites of
78. Crossing over occurs in - crossover crossovers.
Easy C) Formation of chiasmata
Page No-168, Paragraph No-2 D) Tendency of recombined non
A) leptotene B) zygotene homologous chromosome of bivalent to
C) Pachytene D) diplotene separate from each other, except at
79. Pachytene is stage that is/ are :- sites of crossover.
Easy 83. Chiasmata is -
A) long lived than zygotene Page No-168, Paragraph No-3
B) two chromatid of each bivalent A) X - shaped structures
chromosomes becomes distinct B) Formed by recombined chromosome
C) short lived than leptotene yet to be separated
D) long lived than leptotene & short lived C) Site of cross over
than zygotene D) All of these
80. Choose the correct statement from 84. Which stage of Meiosis - I last for months
following: or year in some vertebrate oocytes?
Medium Easy
Page No-168, Paragraph No-2 Page No-168, Paragraph No-3
A) Pachytene is characterised by A) Diakinesis B) Diplotene
appearance of recombination nodule C) Pachytene D) Zygotene
B) Recombination nodule is site of 85. Diakinesis marked by
crossing over Easy
C) Both A & B Page No-168, Paragraph No-4
D) Recombination nodule formed in A) Terminalisation of chiasmata
diplotene B) Chromosomes are fully condensed
81. Given below are statements (I - VI). Choose C) Meiotic spindle assembled
correct set with respect to crossing over. D) All of these
Medium 86. Meiotic spindle assembled to prepare -
I) It occurred between sister chromatid Page No-168, Paragraph No-4
of homologous chromosomes. A) Non homologous chromosome
11) It is enzyme mediated process. separation.
III) Recombinase enzyme involved in it. B) Formation of aster ray.
IV) It occurs at recombination nodules. C) Homologous chromosome separation.
V) It occurs between non sister D) Both B & C
chromatid of non-homologous 8 7. Match the following
chromosomes. Column I Column II
VI) It occurs between sister chromatid of I Leptotene a Compaction of
non-homologous chromosomes. chromosome
A) I, II, III & IV B) V, II, III & IV II Zygotene b Separation of
chromosome
C) II, III, IV & VI D) II, III & IV
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except at
crossover
III Pachytene C Terminalisation
of chiasmata
IV Diakinesis d Appearance of
recombination
of nodules
V Diplotene e Synapsis
Difficult
Page No-168, Paragraph No-1,2,3,4
A) I-a ' II-e ' III-d ' IV-c ' V-b A) a = Anaphase I, b = Anaphase II
B) I-a, II-b, III-d, IV-c, V-e B) a = Anaphase II, b = Metaphase II
C) I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-e, V-b C) a = Anaphase II, b = Anaphase I
D) None of these D) a = Anaphase I, b = Anaphase II
88. Identify stage 91 . Dyads of cells are formed in -
Medium
Easy
Page No-169, Figure No-10.3
A) Telophase - I B) Telophase - II
C) Diakinesis D) Both A & B
10.4.2 Meiosis-II
92. Meiosis - II initiated immediately after
Easy
A) Telophase - I
A) Homologous chromosome separate, B) Prophase
while sister chromatid remain C) Cytokinesis - I
associated at centromere. D) Chromosome have fully elongated
B) Homologous chromosome along with 93. Which of the following resembles with
sister chromatid separate. normal mitosis-
C) Spindle attached to Kinetochore in this Medium
stage. Page No-169, Paragraph No-3
D) This stage followed by diakinesis. A) Meiosis - I B) Meiosis - II
89. Spindle fibre attach to kinetochores of C) Both D) None of these
homologous chromosome in - 94. In the beginning of Meiosis - II, a cell
Easy contain four chromatid. What number of
Page No-168, Paragraph No-5 chromatid is expected to be in each
A) Metaphase - I of meiosis daughter cell at end of telophase - II
B) Metaphase - II of meiosis Medium
C) Both A & B Page No-169, Paragraph No-3
D) Anaphase of mitosis A) 4 B) 2
90. Identify stage C) 8 D) 16
Easy 95. Find mismatched column
Page No-169, Figure No-10.3 & Page No Difficult
l 70, Figure No-10.4 Page No-169,314 & 170 Paragraph No-1
I a I b I Column I I Column II I
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A Metaphase - II Chromosomes align D) Elongating of microtubules attached to

at equator and centromere
microtubule from
opposite poles of 10.5 Significance of Meiosis
spindle get attached
to kinetochores of 97. Conservation of specific chromosome
non-sister chromatid number of each species is achieved across
B Prophase - II Nuclear membrane
generations in sexually reproducing
disappear
C Telophase - II Formation of tetrad organism is done by -
of cells Easy
D Anaphase - II Splitting centromere Page No-170, Paragraph No-2
which hold sister B) Meiosis only
A) Mitosis
chromatid together,
allow them to move C) Meiosis & Mitosis D) None of these
toward opposite pole 98. Choose the correct statement about
of cells meiosis
Medium
96. Movement of chromatid toward opposite Page No-170, Paragraph No-2
pole is achieved by- A) Increase genetic variability of an
Easy individual of an organism
Page No-169, Paragraph No-4 B) decrease genetic variability of an
A) Shortening of microtubules attached to organism from one generation to other
centromere C) Reduction of chromosome by one
B) Shortening of microtubules attached to fourth
kinetochores D) Play an important role in evolution
C) Elongating of microtubules attached to
kinetochores
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ANSWER KEY
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CELL CYCLE AND CELL DIVISION
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans B C A C D D B B C A
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans A D D C D B D B A C
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans C D D C A C C C A A
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans C B D C B A A A C A
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans D A B B B D D D C B
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans A C C B A B B B A D
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans A C D D D D C A C D
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans C B D B C A A C A C
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans D D B D D C A A A A
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97
Ans A C B B B B D
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Transport in plants
1. Melvin Calvin earned Nobel prize in 1961 (B) move in random fashion, from high to
for low concentration
(A) mapping pathway of carbon (C) move in fixed fashion, from low to high
assimilation in respiration concentration
(B) mapping pathway of carbon absorption (D) move in random fashion, from low to
in photosynthesis high concentration.
(C) mapping pathway of carbon Page - 176, Easy
assimilation in photosynthesis 8. Diffusion
(D) mapping pathway of carbon absorption (A) in solid is more likely rather than of
in respiration. solid
Page - 174, Easy (B) of solid is more likely than in solid
2. Cytoplasmic streaming helps to move (C) Both (a) and (b)
substances over (D) Does not occur in solids at all.
(A) long distances (B) small distances Page - 176, Easy
(C) Both (a) and (b) (D) None
9. Diffusion rates are affected by
Page - 175, Easy
(A) Concentration gradient
3. Translocation is transport over (B) pressure
(A) long distance (C) temperature
(B) short distance (D) All of these
(C) Both long and short distance Page - 176, Easy
(D) None of these
10. Statement (A) ➔ Diffusion can't occur in
Page - 175, Easy
dead cell.
4. Transport of minerals in plants is Statement (B) ➔ Diffusion is the only
(A) unidirectional only means for gaseous movement in plant
(B) multidirectional body.
(C) Both unidirectional & multidirectional Choose the best option
(D) Dependent on the hormones released (A) Statement A is correct and Statement
Page - 175, Easy B is wrong
5. Nutrients are re-exported from (B) Statement A is wrong and Statement B
(A) nascent leaves to senescent leaves is correct
(B) senescent leaves to nascent leaves (C) Both are correct
(C) all parts to senescent leaves (D) Both are wrong
(D) not re-exported Page - 176, Easy
Page - 176, Easy
11.1.2 Facilitated Diffusion
11.1.1 Diffusion
11. Diffusion rate
6. Movement by diffusion is (A) depend on size and larger substance
(A) active with energy expenditure diffuse faster
(B) passive with energy expenditure (B) depend on size and smaller substance
(C) both active and passive diffuse faster
(D) without energy expenditure (C) doesn't depend on size
Page - 176, Easy (D) depend on size and do not substance
7. In diffusion, molecules diffuse larger.
(A) move in a fixed fashion, from high to Page - 176, Easy
low concentration
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Page - 1 76-1 77 Medium

12. Hydrophilic moiety substances 17. Porins are found in
(A) diffuse through a membrane easily (A) outer membrane of plastids &
(B) do not diffuse through a membrane mitochondria
easily (B) Inner membrane of plastids &
(C) need no membrane facilitation to mitochondria
diffuse through (C) both outer & inner membrane of
(D) Both (a) and (c) mitochondria
Page - 1 76, Easy (D) membrane of lysosoems
13. Read the following statements Page - 1 77, Easy
(i) Membrane proteins aid in transport of 18. Water channels are made up of __
hydrophobic substance. different types of aquaporins
(ii) Membrane proteins do not set up a (A) 6 (B) 8
concentration gradient. (C) 10 (D) 12
--
--- .·...-
(iii) Diffusion through membrane proteins Page - 1 77, Easy
is called facilitated diffusion.
19.
-- ;:
(iv) Membrane proteins always need ATP to �-
--
transport substances across �-
- -
ii
membrane. �
How many of the above statements are �
(A) 1
wrong?
(B) 2
•
�-19.
(C) 3 (D) 4 I._____J
Page - 1 76, Easy

14. In facilitated diffusion Identify the correct label for the figure
(A) special proteins & ATP are involved given
(B) only special proteins are involved (A) It shows facilitated diffusion
(C) only ATP are involved (B) shows simple diffusion
(D) neither special proteins nor ATP are (C) shows sample of water channels
involved. (D) Both (a) and (c)
Page - 1 76, Easy Page - 1 77, Easy
15. Facilitated diffusion cannot 11.1.2.1 Passive symports &
A) transport molecules from high antiports
concentration to low concentration
B) transport molecules from low 20.
concentration to high concentration (i) Symport will not work if single type of
C) Both (a) and (b) molecule is there.
D) Concentration does not matter (ii) Uniport allows two molecules to move
Page - 1 76, Easy in a unidirection together.
16. Facilitated diffusion transport is (iii) Anti port allows two types of molecules
(i) Saturable (ii) unsaturable to move in opposite direction.
(iv) non-inhibitable How many of the above statements is
(iii) inhibitable
(v) selective (vi) non-selective correct
(vii) uphill (viii) downhill (A) 0 (B) 1
Which is the correct combination (C) 2 (D) 3
Page - 1 77, Medium
(A) i, iii, v, vii (B) ii, iv, vi, viii
(C) i, iii, v, viii (D) i, iv, vi, viii 21.
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(A) (i)-III, (ii)-IV, (iii)-i

(B) (i)-IV, (ii)-II, (iii)-III
(C) (i)-V, (ii)-IV, (iii)-II
(D) (i)-IV, (ii)-I, (iii)-II
Page - 178, Medium
11.2 Plant-water relations

Identify correct statements about the
figure given 26. Most herbaceous plants have about
(A) (i) - It shows simple diffusion via (A) 10-15% of its dry weight as fresh
uniport matter.
(B) (ii) - It shows simple diffusion via (B) 85-90% of its fresh weight as dry
antiport matter.
(C) Both (a) & (b) are correct (C) 10-15% of its fresh weight as dry
(D) None of these matter.
Page - 177, Easy (D) 85-90% of its fresh weight as water.
Page - 178, Easy
11.1.3 Active transport
27. Why is water often limiting factor for plant
22. Active transport is growth & productivity?
(A) Uphill (B) downhill (A) Due to high respiration
(C) unsaturable (D) both (a) and (b) (B) Due to high photosynthesis
Page - 178, Easy (C) Due to low availability of water
23. Pumps are (D) Due to transpiration of water
(A) energy using transport proteins Page - 179, Easy
(B) non-energy using transport protein 11.2.1 Water potential
(C) energy using transport lipids
(D) non-energy using transport lipids 28. Kinetic energy possessed by water
Page - 178, Easy molecules is represented directly by its
24. Active transport rate reaches maximum (A) pressure potential
when (B) water potential
(A) All molecules are loaded on carrier (C) soluble potential
proteins (D) osmotic potential
Page - 179, Easy
(B) 80% of the molecules are loaded on
carrier proteins 29. Pure water has
(C) 50% of the molecules are loaded on (A) Lowest water potential at all pressures
carrier proteins (B) Zero water potential at all pressures.
(D) Can be any of these (C) Water potential at all pressures highest
Page - 178, Easy (D) Both (b) and (c)
Page - 179, Easy
11.1.4 Comparison of different
30. Water moves from system containing
transport processes
water at ill to one with .llil
25. Match the columns A & B (A) (i) - low \If w, (ii) - high \Jf w
A B
(B) (i) - zero \If w' (ii) - zero \Jf w
(i) Simple diffusion (I) Uphill
(ii) Facilitated diffusion (II) Saturable (C) (i) - positive \lfw, (ii) - zero �fw
(iii) Active transport (III) Selective (D) (i) - high \If w, (ii) - low �f w
(IV) Passive Page - 179, Easy
(V) Carrier protein
31. Which of the given equations is correct?
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(D) kinetic energy of molecules of water is

(A) \j/ w =\j/, + \j/ p
positive
(B) \j/, =�,"' +\j/p Page - 180, Easy
(C} \j/p =\j/, +\j/w 11.2.2 Osmosis
(D) \j/P = \j/, - ljl w 3 7. Cell wall is
Page - 180, Easy (A) impermeable to water and substances
in solution
32. \j/, is (B) permeable to water and substances in
(A) always positive solution
(B) always negative (C) permeable to water but not to
(C) sometimes negative substance in solution.
(D) mostly zero (D) impermeable to water but not to
Page - 180, Easy substances in solution.
Page - 180, Easy
33. \If P is
(A) always positive 38. Read the following statements
(B) always negative (i) vacuolar sap contribute to solute
(C) usually positive, sometimes negative potential of cell
(D) usually negative, sometimes positive (ii) cell membrane & tonoplast together are
Page - 180, Easy importance determinants of movement
of molecules in or out of cells.
34. The more the solute
(iii) Osmosis occurs spontaneously in
(A) the lower (less negative) the \j/, response to a driving force
(B) the higher (less negative) the \j/, How many of the above statements are
(C) the lower (more negative) the \j/, Incorrect
(A) 1 (B) 2
(D) the higher (more negative) the \j/,
Page - 180, Easy (C) 3 (D) None of these
35. If pure water (pH = 7) is kept in open vessel Page - 180, Easy
at room temperature, its water potential 39. Osmosis refers to
(A) diffusion of solute across permeable
membrane
(B) diffusion of solute across differentially
permeable membrane
(A) zero (B) positive (C) diffusion of water across differentially
(C) negative (D) can't say permeable membrane
Page - 180, Easy (D) diffusion of water across permeable
36. Water potential represents kinetic energy membrane
of water molecules. Page - 180, Easy
When \j/ w = O, 40. Water moves under osmosis from
(A) kinetic energy of molecules of water is (A) higher chemical potential to lower
zero. chemical potential
(B) kinetic energy of molecules of water is (B) lower chemical potential to higher
not zero. chemical potential.
(C) kinetic energy of molecules of water is (C) lower potential concentration to higher
negative concentrations.
(D) more than one option is correct.
Page - 180, Easy
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41. In potato osmometer, if potato tuber is 47. If one chamber has a \If of -2000 kPa and
placed in water the other -1200 kPa, which is chamber
(A) water exits the cavity of potato tuber
with higher \JI?
via simple diffusion.
(A) B (B) A
(B) water enters the cavity of potato tuber
(C) C (D) Can't say
via simple diffusion.
Page - 180, Medium
(C) water exits the cavity of potato tuber
via osmosis 48. If one of the solutions has \If w=0-2MPa and
(D) water enters the cavity of potato tuber
other has \JI w=O.lMPa, what will be
via osmosis
direction of water movement?
Page - 180, Easy
(A) A to B
Questions 42 to 48 are to be solved in (B) B to A
reference to the given figure. (C) No net movement
A B
(D)Random movement
Page - 180, Medium
49.
Pressure
SelecUvely permeable
Lneinbrane
42. Which chamber has a lower water

potential? SuCJ·ose
solution
(A) A (B) B
(C) Both are equal (D) Can't say water
Page - 180, Medium (a) [bl
43. Solution of which chamber has more To prevent water from diffusing in
negative solute potential? pressure is applied. Which of the following
(A) A (B) B statements is correct?
(C) Both are equal (D) can't say (A) The more the solute, the greater will be
Page - 180, Medium pressure required.
44. In which direction will osmosis occur? (B) The more the solute, the lesser will be
(A) from A to B pressure required
(B) from B to A (C) The pressure is equal to osmotic
(C) No net movement potential exactly.
(D) can't say (insufficient data) (D) Both (a) & (c)
Page - 180, Medium Page - 181, Medium
45. Which solution has a higher solute 50. Osmotic pressure is .llil & osmotic potential
potential? is@
(A) B (B) A (A) (i) - positive, (ii) negative
(C) Both are equal (D) can't say (B) (i) -negative, (ii) - positive
Page - 180, Medium (C) (i), - positive, (ii) - positive
46. At equilibrium which chamber will have (D) (i) - negative, (ii) - negative
lower water potential? Page - 181, Medium
(A) B (B) A 11.2.3 Plasmolysis
(C) Both are equal (D) Insufficient data
Page - 180, Medium 51. Match the columns
A B
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(i) Isotonic I. external solution is more dilute (A) A - plasmolysed, B - isotonic, C -

(ii) Hypotonic II. external solution is more Turgid
concentrated (B) B - flaccid, C - hypertonic, A - Turgid
(C) A - hypotonic, C - hypotonic, B -
(iii) Hypertonic III. external solution Turgid
balances the osmotic (D) A - turgid, B - flaccid, - hyper
pressure of cytoplasm tonic
(A) (i)-I, (ii)-III, (iii)-II Page - 182, Easy
(B) (i)-III, (ii)-I, (iii)-II 56. The process of plasmolysis is
(C) (i)-III, (ii)-II, (iii)-I (A) always irreversible
(D) (i)-II, (ii)-I, (iii)-III (B) always reversible
Page - 181, Medium (C) usually reversible
(D) always temporary
52. Cells
Page - 182, Easy
(A) swell in hypotonic, shrink in isotonic
(B) swell in isotonic, shrink in hypertonic 57. Plant cells do not rupture in hypotonic
(C) swell in hypertonic, shrink in solution due to
hypotonic (A) turgor pressure
(D) swell in hypotonic, shrink in (B) pressure potential
hypertonic (C) cell membrane
Page - 181, Medium (D) cell wall
53. Plasmolysis occurs Page - 182, Easy
(A) in hypotonic solution 1
58. What will be � r of flaccid cell
(B) when water moves into the cell
(A) positive (B) negative
(C) when solution has more solute than
(C) zero (D) any of the above
protoplasm
Page - 182, Medium
(D) when cell membrane becomes turgid
Page - 181, Medium 11.2.4 Imbibition
54. When water moves out of a cell placed in 59. Imbibition
hypertonic solution. (A) Causes reduction in volume
(A) water is first lost from vacuole, then (B) is a type of active transport
cytoplasm (C) is along the concentration gradient
(B) water is first lost from cytoplasm, then (D) occurs in gases
vacuole Page - 182, Medium
(C) water is first lost from tonoplast, then
cytoplasm
11-3 Long distance transport of
(D) water is first lost from cytoplasm, then water
tonoplast 60. Bulk movement of substances through
Page - 182, Easy vascular tissues of plants is called
55. (A) Active transport
A B C (B) Facilitated diffusion
(C) Transportation
(D) Translocation
Page - 183, Easy
61. Substances in mass flow
� (A) are swept at some pace in solution
Identify A, B & C in given figure. (B) are swept at speed depending upon
size.
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(C) are swept at some pace in suspensions (C) cytoplasmic strands extending through
(D) Both (A) and (C) phragmosomes
Page - 183, Easy (D) cytoplasmic strands extending through
62. Bulk flow is achieved by plasmodesmata
(A) positive water pressure gradient Page - 185, Easy
(B) negative water pressure gradient 68. Cytoplasmic streaming
(C) Both (A) and (B) (A) helps in long distance transport
(D) It rarely depends on pressure gradient (B) can be seen in Hydrilla leaf
Page - 183, Easy (C) may be part of symplastic movement
63. Xylem is associated with translocation of (D) Both (B) & (C)
mainly Page - 185, Easy
(i) Water (ii) organic 69. Most of the water flow in roots occurs via
solutes and sucrose (A) symplast through living cells
(iii) mineral salts (iv) organic nitrogen (B) symplast through cortical cells
(v) inorganic solute (vi) hormones (C) apoplast through intercellular spaces
Choose correct combination (D) apoplast through endodermal cells
(A) i, v, iii (B) ii, vi, iv Page - 185, Easy
(C) iii, vi, iv (D) i, ii, iii 70. Water movement through root tissues
Page - 184, Easy (A) can be initially symplastic and finally
11.3.1 How do plants absorb apoplastic
(B) has to be ultimately apoplastic
water?
(C) can be completely apoplastic
64. Absorption of water along with mineral (D) None of the above is correct.
solutes by root hairs is Page - 185, Easy
(A) purely by facilitated diffusion 71. Read the given statements
(B) purely by diffusion (i) Mycorrhiza is symbiotic bacterial
(C) purely by active transport association of root system.
(D) by a combination of diffusion and (ii) Mycorrhiza helps in water absorption.
active transport (iii) Mycorrhiza may penetrate root cells
Page - 184, Easy (iv) Mycorrhiza may from a network
65. Apoplast is continuous throughout the around young root.
plant, except at Which of these statements is correct?
(A) endodermis (B) casparian strips (A) 1 (B) 2
(C) plasmodesmata (D) tracheids (C) 3 (D) 4
Page - 184, Easy
Page - 185-186, Difficult
66. Apoplastic movement involves
72. Which of the following statements about
(A) crossing the cell membrane
mycorrhiza is correct?
(B) crossing the tonoplast
(A) Fungus provides N-containing
(C) crossing the cell wall
compounds to plant roots.
(D) Both (a) and (c)
Page - 184, Easy
(B) Roots provide minerals & water to
mycorrhizae.
67. Symplastic system of cells is connected (C) Pinus seeds cannot germinate without
through mycorrhiza
(A) nucleoplasmic strands extending (D) Both (A) & (C)
through phragmosomes Page - 186, Easy
(B) nucleoplasmic strands extending
through plasmodesmata 11.3.2 Water movement a plant
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73. (iii)
Identify the correct labels in given figures (ii)

(A) (i)-Cortex, (ii)-Plasmodesmata, (iii) Identify the correct labeles for given figure.
Endodermis, (iv)-pericycle (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(B) (i)-Casparian strips, (ii)- (A) Apoplastic symplastic xylem phloem
Plasmodesmata, (iii)-Pericycle, (iv) Pathway pathway
Cortex (B) symplastic apoplastic xylem
(C) (i)-Cytoplasmic extension, (ii)-Cortex, phloem Pathway pathway
(iii)-Endodermis, (iv)-Pericycle (C) Apoplastic symplatic phloem xylem
(D) (i)-Endodermis (ii)-Cytoplasmic Pathway pathway
extension, (iii)-Cortex, (iv)-Pericycle (D) symplastic Apoplastic Phloem xylem
Page - 186, Easy
Pathway pathway
11.3.2.1 Root Pressure Page - 185, Easy
74. Root pressure is caused by 11.3.2.2 Transpiration pull

(A) active transport of ions into roots 79. Which of the statements is correct?
(B) passive transport of water into roots (A) About 30% water reaching leaves is
(C) active transport of water into roots transpired
(D) both (A) & (B) (B) About 80% water reaching leaves is
Page - 186, Easy
transpired
7 5. Root pressure is (C) About 90% water reaching leaves is
(A) always positive (B) always negative transpired
(C) mostly positive (D) mostly negative (D) About 99% water reaching leaves is
Page - 186, Easy transpired
76. Guttation occurs Page - 187, Easy
(A) due to negative root pressure and low 11.4 Transpiration
evaporation
(B) due to positive root pressure and low 80. The immediate cause of opening and
evaporation closing of stomata is
(C) due to negative root pressure and high (A) change in CO2 concentration
evaporation (B) change in turgidity of guard cell
(D) due to positive root pressure and high (C) change in concentration in
evaporation complementary cell
Page - 186, Easy (D) change in water (moisture) content of
77. Root pressure contributes in air.
(A) majority of plant water transport Page - 187, Easy
(B) transpirational pull 81. Stomatal aperture is
(C) re-establishing the continuous chain of (A) cell between guard cells
water in xylem (B) Pore between guard cell
(D) Both (a) & (c) (C) Inner wall of guard cell
Page - 186, Easy (D) Inner wall of subsidiary cell
Page - 187, Easy
78.
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82. Inner wall of each guard cell is Page - 187, Easy

(A) thin and inelastic 87. Which of the following statements is
(B) thin and elastic incorrect?
(C) thick and inelastic (A) Cohesion is the property of xylem sap.
(D) thick and elastic (B) Adhesion is the attraction of water
Page - 187, Easy molecules to surface of tracheary
83. Microfibrils of cell wall of guard cell are elements
(A) proteinaceous and radial (C) Adhesion is a property of xylem wall.
(B) proteinaceous and longitudinal (D) Capillarity is the ability of water to
(C) cellulosic and radial ascend in thin tubes.
(D) cellulosic and longitudinal Page - 185-187, Difficult
Page - 187, Easy 88. Water is moved from xylem to leaf cells by
84. Which of these statements about stomata (A) a push force of continuously upcoming
opening or closing is correct? xylem sap
(A) When guard cells are turgid, stoma (B) a push force of water incoming from
closes phloem
(B) When guard cells are flaccid, stoma (C) a pull force of cohesion between water
opens molecules
(C) When guard cells lose turgor, elastic (D) a pull force of water diffusing into air.
outer walls regain their original shape Page - 187, Easy
and stoma closes 89. Why does water diffuse into the
(D) None of these surrounding?
Page - 187, Easy (A) Due to lower concentration of water
85. How many of the following are plant vapour in atmosphere.
factors affecting transpiration? (B) Due to lower concentration of water
Water status of plant, number of stomata, vapour in the sub-stomatal cavity.
wind speed, light, canopy structure, (C) due to lower concentration of water
humidity, temperature vapour in the intercellular spaces.
(A) 7 (B) 3 (D) Due to lower concentration of water
(C) 4 (D ) 5 vapour in the xylem element.
Page - 187, Easy Page - 187, Easy
86. 90.
(i)
Palisade
(ii) Xylem
(iii) ----k--_____J
Phloem
Choose the correct labels for the given figure
(i) (ii) (iii)
Diffusion Into
(A) Guard cell Microfibril Stomatal surrounding alr pore
aperture
Choose correct option
(B) Microfibril Guard cell Stomatal
aperture (A) The figure shows water movement in a
(C) Stomatal apertureMicrofibril Guard monocot leaf.
cell (B) The water moves due to a negative
(D) Guard cell Stomatal Microfibril pressure created by xylem.
aperture
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(C) The water moves due to a push force (A) Cycling of nutrients from leaf to root
created by the water diffusing into (B) Cycling of water from leaf to root
surrounding (C) Cycling of nutrients from root to leaf
(D) The figure shows water movement in a (D) Cycling of water from root to leaf
dicot leaf. Page - 189, Easy
Page - 188, Easy 96. Read the given statements
11.4.1 Transpiration & (I) C4 plants loses double the water lost
Photosynthesis - a compromise by C3 plant for same amount of CO2
fixed
91. Transpiration (II) C4 plants are more efficient in making
(A) supplies water for photosynthesis sugar than C3 plants.
(B) decreases water available for Choose the best option
photosynthesis (A) I and II are correct
(C) has no relation with photosynthesis (B) I is correct and II is incorrect
(D) Both (a) & (b) (C) I is incorrect and II is correct
Page - 189, Easy (D) Both I & II are incorrect
92. Read the given statements Page - 189, Medium
(i) Transpiration enables mineral 11.5.1 Uptake of Mineral Ions
transport
(ii) Transpiration maintains shape of 97. All minerals cannot be passively absorbed
plants. by roots because
(iii) Transpiration enables light absorption (A) They are present as ions which cannot
by plants. more a cross cell membrane.
(iv) Transpiration causes cooling effect. (B) Concentration of minerals in soil is
Choose the appropriate answer higher than the concentration of
(A) Statement (i) & (ii) are correct, (iii) & (iv) minerals in roots
are wrong (C) Both (a) & (b)
(B) Statement (iii) & (iv) are correct, (i) & (ii) (D) all minerals are passively absorbed
Page - 189, Easy
are wrong
(C) Statement (i), (ii), (iii) are correct (iv) is 98. Which of the given statements is correct
wrong about uptake of mineral ions?
(D) Statement (i), (ii), (iv), are correct (iii) is (A) Active uptake of ions is helps in uptake
wrong of water actively
Page - 189, Easy (B) Passive uptake of ions helps in uptake
93. Transpiration cools leaf surface by upto of water actively
(A) 2-3°C (B) S-6° C (C) Active uptake of ions help in uptake of
°
(C) 10-15 C (D) 18-20°C water passively.
Page - 189, Easy
(D) Passive uptake of ions help in uptake
of water passively.
94. A limiting factor for photosynthesis is Page - 189, Easy
(A) Water due to evaporation by high light
intensity 99. Ions are absorbed from soil by
(B) Water due to transpiration (A) active transport only
(C) Sunlight due to cooling effect of (B) passive transport only
transpiration (C) mostly passive transport
(D) CO2 due to excess transpiration (D) both active & passive transport
Page - 189, Easy
Page - 189, Easy
95. Humidity of rainforests is largely due to
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100. The transport proteins embedded in the ill .ilil

plasma membrane of endodermal cells (A) active transport diffusion
(A) allow all types of solute to pass to (B) diffusion actively
xylem. (C) active transport passive
(B) allow some solutes to cross the (D) diffusion passive
membrane Page - 190, Easy
(C) shows no selectively
106. Mineral ions are
(D) Both (a) & (c)
(A) rarely remobilized, from mature parts
Page - 189, Easy
to young parts.
101. Quantity & types of solute reaching xylem (B) rarely remobilized from young leaves to
are decided at old parts
(A) control points of epidermal cells as the (C) frequently remobilized from older parts
transport starts there to young parts
(B) control point of pericycle cells as they (D) frequently remobilized from young
surround the xylem parts to older parts
(C) control point of cortical cells as they Page - 190, Easy
have large intercellular spaces.
107. Elements most readily mobilized
(D) control point of endodermal cells as
(A) phosphorous (B) potassium
they have specific transport proteins
(C) calcium (D) both (A) & (B)
and suberin.
Page - 190, Easy
Page - 189, Easy
108. Most of the nitrogen travels through xylem
102. Layer of suberin present in root
as
(A) in cortical possess ability to passively
(A) inorganic ions
transport ions in one direction only.
(B) inorganic complex
(B) can actively transport selected ions in
(C) organic compounds
both the directions.
(D) both (a) & (b)
(C) can transport ions actively in one Page - 190, Easy
direction only.
(D) can transport ions in multi directions 109. Which of the following is correct
actively (A) most of the P and S are carried as
Page - 189, Easy
organic compounds
(C) most of P and S are carried as inorganic
11.5.2 Translocation of mineral compounds.
ions (C) Little of P and S are carried as organic
compounds.
103. After the ions reach xylem, their further
(D) Both (B) & (C)
transport to all parts of plant is through
Page - 190, Easy
(A) diffusion (B) active transport
(C) translocation (D) All of the above 110. Read the given statements
Page - 190, Easy (I) Some exchange of materials occur
between xylem and phloem
104. Chief sinks for mineral elements are the
(II) We cannot say that xylem transports
following except
only inorganic nutrients.
(A) root hairs (B) fruits
(C) seeds (D) shoot tip Choose the correct option.
Page - 190, Easy
(A) I and II both are correct and II is correct
explanation for I
105. Unloading of mineral ions occurs at the (B) I and II both are correct but II does not
fine vein ending through ill and uptake by explain I
cells is .ilil (C) I is correct and II is incorrect
102
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(D) I and II both are incorrect Page - 191, Easy

Page - 190, Medium 116. Glucose is converted to sucrose at
11.6 Phloem Transport: Flow (A) the source
from source to sink (B) the sink
(C) midway in xylem during transport
111. Which of the following statements about (D) Sometimes at source and other times
source and sink is incorrect at sink
(A) Source is the part which produces food, Page - 191, Easy
like leaf 11 7. Select the correct pathway for sugar
(B) Sink is the part which needs food transport by phloem as per the mass flow
(C) Leaf can never be a sink hypothesis
(D) Roots may act as a source
(A) Sucrose ➔ Sieve tube ➔ Companion
Page - 190, Easy
cells via diffusion
112. Choose the correct option (B) Sucrose ➔ sieve tube ➔ companion
(A) Movement in phloem is bidirectional cells via active transport
left & right, while movement in xylem
(C) Sucrose ➔ Companion cells ➔ Sieve
is unidirectional upward
tube via diffusion
(B) Movement in phloem is unidirectional
upward while movement in xylem is (D) Sucrose ➔ Companion cells ➔ Sieve
bidirectional left & right tube via active transport
(C) Movement in phloem is bidirectional up Page - 191, Easy
& down while movement in xylem is 118. Loading at source during phloem
unidirectional up translocation
(D) movement in phloem is unidirectional (A) makes phloem hypertonic and attract
upward while movement in xylem is water from xylem
bidirectional up & down. (B) makes phloem hypotonic and attract
Page - 190, Easy water from xylem
113. Phloem sap includes (C) makes phloem hypertonic and attract
(A) water, sucrose, hormones water from shoot cells
(B) sucrose only (D) makes phloem hypotonic and attract
(C) water and sucrose but no hormones water from shoot cells
(D) sucrose and hormones but no water Page - 191, Easy
Page - 190, Easy 11 9. Choose the correct option for phloem
114. Amino acids are transported by transport
(A) xylem only (A) loading is active process and unloading
(B) phloem only is passive
(C) both xylem & phloem (B) loading is passive process and
(D) neither xylem nor phloem unloading is active
Page - 190, Easy (C) Both loading and unloading are active
(D) Both loading and unloading are passive
11.6.1 The pressure flow or mass Page - 191, Easy
flow hypothesis 120. Choose the incorrect option for phloem
115. The sugar mainly transported is transport
(A) Glucose (monosaccharide) (A) transport occurs due to high osmotic
(B) Glucose (disaccharide) pressure in phloem
(C) Sucrose (disaccharide) (B) transport occurs due to low osmotic
(D) Sucrose (monosaccharide) pressure in xylem.
103
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(C) transport occurs due to water potential 122. Girdling experiment was used to identify
gradient (A) tissue for water transport
(D) transport occurs due to pressure (B) tissue for food transport
potential gradient (C) tissue for mineral transport
Page - 191, Easy (D) Both (A) and (C)
121. Page - 192, Easy
123. In girdling experiment, a ring of bark is cut
upto the depth of
(A) the xylem layer
(B) the phloem layer
(C) the cortex layer
(D) the endodermal layer
Page - 192, Easy
Identify the correct match
124. In girdling experiment, the stem swells
(A) Sugar enter sieve tube, water follows by (A) above the ring, and transport is
osmosis unidirectional towards roots
(B) Sugar leaving sieve tube, water (B) above the ring, and transport is
follow by osmosis unidirectional towards shoot
(i) (ii) (iii) (C) below the ring, and transport is
(A) A B B unidirectional towards shoot
(B) B A A (D) Both above and below the ring, and
(C) A B A transport is bidirectional towards root
(D) B A B and shoot.
Page - 191, Easy Page - 192, Easy
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Answer Key
Transport in plants
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans C B A A B B B A D C
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans B B C B B A A B A C
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans D A A A A C D B C D
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans A A C C A B B D C A
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans D B B A B A B A A A
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans B D C B A C D C C D
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans D C C B B C D D C D
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans C C B A A B B B D B
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans C D C D B B C D A D
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans A D C B D C A C D B
Q 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans D C C A B C D C D A
Q 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans C C A C C A D A C B
Q 121 122 123 124
Ans D B B A
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12.1 Methods to study the mineral (A) Generally present is plant tissues in
large amounts in excess of 10m
requirements of plants:
mole/kg of dry matter.
(B) Carbon, Hydrogen & oxygen are mainly
1. Hydroponics has been successfully
obtained from CO2 and H2O.
employed as a technique for commercial
(C) Phosphorous, sulphur, potassium,
production of (PG. 195, E)
(A) Vegetables such as tomato calcium are macronutrient.
(D) Manganese, which is absorbed from
(B) Seedless cucumber
soil as mineral nutrition.
(C) lettuce
8. How many essential elements are
(D) all of these
classified into macronutrient and
2. Hydroponics was first time demonstrated
micronutrient.
by (PG. 194, E)
( A) 9 (B) 17
(A) Julius von Sachs, a prominent German
botanist in 1860.
(C) 8 (D) 10
9. How many essential elements are called
(B) Julius von Sachs, a prominent French
non-mineral elements (PG. 196, E)
botanist in 1860.
( A) 3 (B) 5
(C) Melvin Calvin, a prominent French
(C) 7 (D) 9
botanist in 1960.
10. Match the column-I & II (PG. 196, E)
(D) None of these
Column I Column II
3. Hydroponics helps in (PG. 195, E)
(A) Mo (i) RubisCo
(A) identification of essential elements
(B) Mg2+ (ii) Alcohol dehydrogenase
(B) discovery of deficiency symptoms of
(C) Zn2+ (iii) Nitrogenase
essential elements
(A) A-i, B-ii, C-iii (B) A-iii, B-i, C-ii
(C) growing some commercial crops like
(C) A-ii, B-iii, C-i (D) A-iii, B-ii, C-i
tomatoes
11. Mg2+ act as (PG. 196, E)
(D) all of these
(A) activator for enzymes phosphoenol
12.2 Essential Mineral elements pyruvate carboxylase during
photosynthetic carbon fixation.
4. Plants growing near nuclear test sites take (B) inhibitor for Ribulose bisphosphate
up (PG. 195, E) carboxylase-oxygenase during
(A) Selenium (B) Strontium photosynthetic carbon fixation.
(C) gold (D) none of these (C) inhibitor for enzyme phosphoenol
5. Hydroponics are techniques that are able pyruvate carboxylase during
to detect the minerals even at a very low photosynthetic carbon fixation
concentration upto (PG. 195, E) (D) b and c both
(A) 10-sg/ml (B) 10-9g/ml 12. Which of following does play important
(C) l0sg/ml (D) 10- g/ml
6
roles in opening and closing of stomata
12.2.1 Criteria for essentiality (PG. 196, E)
(A) Potassium (B) Phosphorous
6. The criteria for essentiality of an element (C) Calcium (D) magnesium
are: (PG . 195 , E) .
13. Whl ch of following is part of chlorophyll
(A) The element must be absolutely and ATP respectively. (PG. 196, E)
necessary for supporting normal (A) Manganese, phosphorous
growth and reproduction (B) Magnesium, phosphorous
(B) The requirement of the element must (C) Manganese, Potassium
be specific and not replaceable by (D) Magnesium, Potassium
another element. 14. Which of following is used to categorize
(C) The element must be directly involved essential elements. (PG. 196, E)
in the metabolism of the plant. (i) components of biomolecules
(D) all of these (ii) Activate or inhibit enzymes.
7. Macronutrients are not (PG. 196, E) (iii) Osmotic potential of a cell role.
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(iv) Components of energy-related 25. Which of following is present in ferredoxin.

chemical compounds. (PG. 197, E)
(A) i, ii only (B) iii & iv only (A) Sulphur (B) Iron
(C) i, iii & iv (D) all of these (C) Both a & b (D) None
26. Coenzyme A consist of (PG. 197, E)
12.2.2 Role of Macro-and Micro (A) Magnesium (B) Sulphur
(C) Iron (D) Potassium
nutrients. 27. Which of following does plant obtain as
monovalent ion (PG. 197, E)
15. Anion-cation balance in cell maintained (B) Zinc
(A) Manganese
by (PG. 197, E) (C) Copper (D) Chlorine
(A) Potassium (B) phosphorous .
28. Which of following does not take part 1s
(C) Nitrogen (D) Sulphur (PG. 197, E)
nitrogen metabolism
16. Which of following involved is protein
(A) Nitrogenase
synthesis (PG. 197, E) (B) Nitrate reductase
(A) Phosphorous (B) Potassium (C) Molybdenum
(C) Calcium (D) Iron (D) nitrate oxygenase
17. Choose incorrect about function of 29. Redox reaction is performed by (PG. 197,
calcium in plants (PG. 197, E) E)
(A) It accumulate in newly formed leaf. (A) Copper (B) Iron
(B) Synthesis of cell wall. (D) none of these
(C) Both a & b
(C) formation of spindle fibres 30. Synthesis of auxin need (PG. 197, E)
(D) none of these (A) Zinc (B) Copper
18. How many of enlisted elements are/is
(C) Iron (D) Chlorine
major constituents of nucleic acids. .
31. The best defined function of manganese 1s
Potassium, Phosphorous, Calcium, (PG. 198, E)
Magnesium, Nitrogen (PG. 197, E) (A) Splitting of water that liberate oxygen
(A) 2 (B) 3 during photosynthesis
(C) 4 (D) 1 (B) Combination of OH- and H+ that leads
19. Plant obtain sulphur in the form of (PG.
to formation of water.
197, E) (C) aerobic respiration
(A) Sulphide (B) Sulphate (D) fermentation
(C) Sulphite (D) a & b 32. Choose correct set about Boron
20. Plant obtain iron in the form of (PG. 197, (PG. 198, E)
E) (i) It absorbed as B72-
(A) ferrous (B) ferrate (ii) It absorbed as B4O33-
(C) ferric ions (D) a & b (iii) It required for uptake & utilization of
21. Magnesium help in maintaing structure ZN2+
of (PG. 197, E) (iv) Pollen germination
(A) cell wall (B) cell membrane (v) Carbohydrate translocation.
(C) Ribosome (D) Lysosome (A) I, ii, iii, iv, v (B) iii, iv, v
22. In how many amino acid does sulphur (C) iv, v (D) none of these
present. (PG. 197, E)
33. Boron is required for uptake & ultilization
(A) 0 (B) 1
of (PG. 198, E)
(C) 2 (D) 5 (B) Mn2+
(A) Ca2+
23. Main constituent of biotin is (PG. 197, E) (C) Mg2+ (D) all of these
(A) Sulphur
(B) Same as main constitute of thiamine 12.2.3 Deficiency symptoms of
(C) Retinal essential elements
(D) a & b both
24. Plant obtain calcium is form of (PG. 197, 34. Whenever the supply of an essential
E) elements becomes limited, plant growth is
(A) calcium ions (B) calcium solid (PG. 198, E)
(C) calcium (D) none (A) accelerated (B) retarded
(C) no effect (D) optimum
35. Critical concentration is (PG. 198, E)
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(A) The concentration of the essential (C) 4,4,8 (D) none of these
element below which plant growth is 12.2.4 Toxicity of Micronutrient
retarded.
(B) the concentration of the non-essential 43. The requirement of micronutrients is
element below which plant growth is always in .......concentration their
accelerated. moderate decrease cause the ...... and a
(C) The concentration of the essential moderate increase cause ...... (PG. 199, E)
element above which plant growth is (A) high,deficiency symptoms,toxicity
accelerated. (B) low,deficiency symptoms,toxicity
(D) The concentration of the essential (C) low, toxicity symptoms, deficiency
element below which plant growth is symptoms
accelerated. (D) high toxicity, symptoms, deficiency
36. Deficiency symptoms is (PG. 198, E) symptoms
(A) Morphological changes that indicate 44. Any mineral ion concentration is tissues
certain element deficiencies that reduced the dry weight of tissues by
(B) It is not varying from element to about how much present is considered
element toxic. (PG. 199, E)
(C) Never disappear when the deficient (A) 10% (B) 20%
mineral nutrient is provided to plant. (C) 2% (D) more than 50%
(D) all of these 45. Choose correct statements (PG. 199, E)
37. For elements that are actively mobilized (i) The prominent symptom of manganese
within the plants, and exported to young toxicity is appearance of brown spots
developing tissues, the deficiency surrounded by chlorotic venis.
symptoms tend to appear (PG. 198, E) (ii) Manganese compete with magnesium
(A) first in meristematic tissue for binding with enzymes.
(B) first in older tissue (iii) Manganese inhibit calcium
(C) first in leaf translocation in Root apex
(D) all of these (iv) Excess of manganese may in fact
38. Which of following element deficiencies are induce deficiencies of iron,magnesium
visible in senescent leaves (PG. 198, E) & calcium
(A) Nitrogen (B) Potassium (A) i,ii,iii,iv (B) i,ii,iv only
(C) Magnesium (D) all of these (C) i, iii only (D) iv only
39. Chlorosis is (PG. 199, E)
(A) loss of chlorophyll leading to yellowing
12.3 Mechanism of absorption of
of leaves
(B) caused by deficiency of elements like N, elements
K,Mg, S,Mn,Fe,Zn,MO and Cu.
(C) A & B both 46. Choose the correct about mechanism of
(D) none of these absorption of elements by palnts.
40. Deficiency of Ca,Mg,Cu,K lead to (PG. 200, E)
(PG. 199, E) (A) An initial rapid uptake of ions into the
(A) Chlorosis 'outer space' of cells i.e. apoplast is
(B) Necrosis passive.
(C) inhibition of cell division (B) The passive movement of ions into the
(D) no of these apoplast usually occurs through ion
41. Inhibition of cell division is not related to channels, the trans-membrane
deficiency of (PG. 199, E) protein.
�) S (B) Cu (C) The entry or exist of ions to and from
(C) K (D) Mo the symplast is an active process.
42. Given below are list of element (D) all of these
N,K,Mg,Ca,Cu,B,Fe,Mn,Zn,Mo 12.4 Translocation of Solutes:
How many of them are related to necrosis,
chlorosis and inhibition of cell division 47. Mineral salts are transported through (PG.
respectively. (PG. 199, E) 200, E)
(A) 8, 4, 4 (B) 4, 8, 4 (A) Xylem (B) Phloem
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(C) Pericycle (D) a & b (A) 2NH3+3022N02-+2H++2H20

12.5 Soil as Reservoir or essential (B) 2N02-+022N03-
(C) Photoautotrophic bacteria
elements
(D) A & B both
57. Plant absorb (PG. 201, E)
48. Soil supplies (PG. 200, E)
(A) nitrate (B) nitrite
(A) Mineral salt
(B) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria (C) Ammonia (D) All of these
(C) hold water 58. Formation of amine group of amino acid in
leaf is achieved by (PG. 201, E)
(D) all of these
(A) oxidation of nitrite
49. which of following may be supplied by
fertilizers (PG. 200, E) (B) reduction of nitrite
(A) Macronutrients (B) Micronutrient (C) oxidation of nitrate
(C) both A & B (D) none (D) reduction of nitrate
59. Denitrification is process of (PG. 201, E)
12.6 Metabolism of Nitrogen (A) Reduction of nitrate
(B) Reduction of nitrite only
50. Nitrogen is a constituent of (PG. 200, E) (C) Oxidation of nitrite only
(A) hormones (B) Chlorophyll (D) oxidation of nitrate only
(C) Proteins (D) All of these 60. Denitrifying bacteria are (PG. 201, E)
51. How many from following statement are (A) Thiobacillus & Nitrosomonas
correct. (PG. 201, E) (B) Nitrococcus & Nitrosomonas
(i) Plants compete with microbes for (C) Pseudomonas & Thiobacillus
limited nitrogen that is available in (D) None of these
soil. 61. Pseudomonas is responsible for
(ii) Nitrogen is limiting nutrient for (PG. 201, E)
agricultural ecosystem (A) Ammonification (B) Nitrification
(iii) Nitrogen is not limiting nutrient for (C) Denitrification (D) All of these
natural ecosystem. 62. Identify A, B, C, D, E (PG. 201, E)
(iv) Nitrogen is absorbed mainly as NO2-
(v) Nitrogen is example of macronutrient Attnosphert N,
of plant as manganese because these

present is plant tissue in large
amounts (in excess of 10 mmole kg-1 of
dry matter)
(A) 4 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 5
52. Two nitrogen atoms joined by (PG. 201, E)
(A) Three ionic bond
(B) three covalent bond
(C) three coordination
(D) a & b both A B C D E
53. Nitrogen fixation is conversion of (N2) into
(PG. 201, E) Ammonifi Denitrif
A N02- N03- NH3
(A) NO2 (B) N2O cation ication
(C) NH3 (D) A and C both
54. Oxidation of ammonia into nitrite is Ammonifi Denitrif
B NH3 N02- N03-
carried out by (PG. 201, E) cation ication
(A) Nitrosomonas (B) Nitrobacter
(C) Pseudomonas (D) Thiobacillus
55. Nitrococcus is responsible for (PG. 201, E) Denitrific Ammon
C N03- NH3 N02-
(A) Oxidation of ammonia ation ification
(B)Oxidation of nitrite
(C) Reduction of nitrate
(D) formation of N03-
56. Nitrification is related to (PG. 201, E)
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(B) Root nodule formation initiate in cortex

Denitrific Ammon of root.
D NH3 N03- N02-
ation ification (C) The bacteria are released from the
infection thread in to the cells which
12.6.2 Biological Nitrogen leads to the differentiation of
specialized N2-fixing cells.
Fixation (D) Nodules establishes a direct vascular
connection with host for exchange of
63. Nitrogenase enzymes found exclusively is nutrients.
(PG.202,E) 70. The enzyme nitrogenase (PG.203,E)
(A) prokaryotes (B) eukaryotes (i) Mo-Fe protein
(C) both a & b (D) aquatic (ii) Catalyses the conversion of
64. Choose correct option. (PG.202,E) atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia
(A) Azotobacter is free-living N2-fixing (iii) highly sensitive to molecular oxygen
aerobic microbe. (iv) require anaerobic condition
(B) Beijerinckia is free-living N2-fixing (A) i, ii, iii, iv are correct
anaerobic microbe. (B) i, iii & iv are only correct
(C) Rhodospirillum is aerobic and free (C) ii, iii are incorrect
living N2-fixes (D) I, ii are only correct.
(D) Azotobacter is free-living N2-fixing 71. Leg-haemoglobin is not (PG.203,E)
anerobic microbe. (A) leguminous haemoglobin
65. Frankia is associated with ...... to form root (B) oxygen producer
nodule. (PG.202,E) (C) oxygen scavengers
(A) leguminious plants root (D) Make red-pink color appearance of root
(B) Root of non-legumes (Alnus) nodule
(C) A & B both 72. Production of one molecule of ammonia
(D) none of these require (PG.204,E)
66. Rhizobium is (A) 16 ATP (B) 8 ATP
(A) Rod-shaped (B) Coccos shaped (C) 8e- (D) a & c both
(C) Spirillum shaped (D) comma-shaped 73. How many electron required to convert
67. Rhizobium is (N2) into 2NH3 (PG.204,E)
(A) Rod-shaped (B) symbiotic (A) 4e- (B) 8e-
(C) associated with alfalfa (D) all (C) 16e- (D) 2e-
68. Arrange the sequence of nodule formation 74. The energy require for N2 fixing comes
by Rhizobium and root of host plant. (PG. from (PG.204,E)
203,E) (A) Nitrogenase activity of microbes
(B) Respiration of host cell
(C) Carbon assimilation of host cell
(D) All of these
75. Reductive amination require (PG.204,E)
(I) (II) (i) Ammonium ion
(ii) NADP
(iii) Glutamate dehydrogenase
(iv) Water
(v) a-ketoglutaric acid
(A) i, ii, iii, v only (B) i, iii, v only
(III) (V)
(C) ii & iv only (D) all of these
76. Transamination is (PG.204,E)
(A) I➔III-N➔II (B) I➔III➔II➔V (A) Transfer of amino group from one
(C) II➔III➔V➔I (D) II➔V➔III➔I amino acid to keto group of a keto
69. Which of following is incorrect about root acid.
nodule formation (PG.203,E) (B) Transfer of keto group from one amino
(A) Rhizobia multiply & colonise the acid to amino group of a keto acid
surrounding of roots & get attached to (C) Transfer of kept group from keto acid
cortical cells. to amino group of an amino acid.
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(D) Transfer of amino group from keto acid (A) two amide
to keto group of an amino acid. (B) formed from two amino acid i.e.
77. Which of following is Amino donor. aspartic acid and glutamate
(PG. 204, E) respectively
(A) Rl-H I C I NH3- -COO- (C) contain less nitrogen than amino acid.
(B) RZ-C-C00- (D) transported by phloem
11 o 79. Ureides have (PG. 204, E)
(C) H-C-C00- (A) high carbon to nitrogen ratio
11 o (B) high nitrogen carbon ratio
(D) R2-H I C I N3+ -COOH (C)N/C = l
78. Asparagine & glutamine are (PG. 204, E) (D) none of them
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ANSWER KEY
MINERAL NUTRIENTS
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans D A D A A D D B A B
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans D A B D A B A A B A
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans C C B A A B D D C A
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans A C A B A A B D C B
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans B B B A A D A D C D
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans C B C A A D A D A C
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans C B A A B A D A A A
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79
Ans B B C B B A A A B

,,.
�
,,,"-:.,
r � .....,.....,.....,.....,.....,
"
�11.
Photosynthesis in higher plants
13.1 What do we know? 5. Who discovered oxygen and when?

(Pg. 207, E)
1. Chlorophyll is the- A) Joseph Priestly (1770)
(Pg. 206, E) B) T. Engelmann (1770)
A) Red pigment of leaf of all plants C) Jan Ingenhousz (1787)
B) Blue pigment of leaf of all plants D) Joseph Priestly (1774)
C) Green pigment of root of all plants 6. Who showed that sunlight is essential to
D) None of these the plant?
2. In an experiment where a part of leaf is (Pg. 207, E)
enclosed in test tube containing KOH A) T. Engelmann B) Joseph Priestly
Soaked Cotton & exposed to light will C) Jan Ingenhousz
(Pg. 207, E) D) Cornelius van trial
A) Test positive for starch 7. part of the plants that could release
B) Test negative for starch due to inability oxygen.
to absorb light inside test tube (Pg. 207, E)
C) Test negative for starch due to inability A) Jan Ingenhousz
to absorb CO2 B) T. Engelmann
D) Test negative for starch due to absence C) Joseph priestly
of water D) None of these
13.2 Early Experiments 8. Match the following
(Pg. 207, H)
3. Match the experiment objective with the (A) First action (1) Cornelius
scientist who performed it- spectrum van nel
(Pg. 207, H) (B) Chlorophyll (2) T.W
i Priestly I Production Engelmann
glucose in (C) 02 evolve (3) Algae
photosynthesis from H2O
ii Julius von II Role of (D) Cladophora (4) Julius von
sachs sunlight in sachs
photosynthesis 5
( ) Bacteria
iii Jan III Role of air in
ingenhousez photosynthesis A) A-1 ' B-4 ' C-1 ' D-3 ' 5
B) A-3 ' B-2 ' C-4 ' D-1
(i) (ii) (iii) C) A-1 ' B-3 ' C-2 ' D-5
(A) I III II D) A-2 ' B-4 ' C-1 ' D-3
(B) II I III 9. ___ were used to detect the sites of 02
(C) II III I
(D) III I II evolution.
(Pg. 207, E)
4. Who performed a series of experiments A) Bacteria B) Daze
that revealed the essential role of air on the C) Fungi D) Virus
growth of green plants and when? 10. Cornelius van Neil studied on __ to
(Pg. 207, E) demonstrate that photosynthesis is
A) Cornelius van Niel (1787) essentially a light dependent reaction.
B) Joseph Priestly (1770) (Pg. 208, E)
C) T. Engelmann (1756) A) Cladophora
D) Both A and B B) Purple and green bacteria
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C) Red algae (D) Assertion is correct but Reason is

(D) Both A and B incorrect
11. from a suitable oxidisable 16. Chloroplast is- (Pg. 209, E)
compound reduces CO2 to Carbohydrates. A) Single membrane organelle
(Pg. 208, E) B) Double membrane organelle
A) Oxygen B) Hydrogen C) Triple membrane organelle
C) Carbon D) Both A and B D) Not an organelle
12. Cladophora is- 17. Choose the incorrect statement from the
(Pg. 208, E) following? (Pg. 209, E)
A) Purple and green bacteria (A) There is no clear division of labour
B) Green bacteria within chloroplast
C) Red algae (B) Chloroplast has membranous system
D) Green algae which includes stroma as well
13. (A) - 02 evolved by the green plant comes (C) Membrane system is responsible for
from H2O, not from carbon dioxide. trapping the light energy
(B) - This was proved by using Radio (D) More than one of the above
isotopic techniques. 18. Dark reaction- (Pg. 209, E)
(Pg. 208, E) A) is not light-dependent
A) Statement A is wrong and Statement B B) occurs in darkness
is right C) is photochemical reaction
B) Both Statement A and B are wrong D) is indirectly light-dependent
C) Statement B is wrong and Statement B 19.
is correct
D) Both Statement A and B are correct (iv)
13.3 Where does photosynthesis (iii)
take place?
14. Where does photosynthesis take place? Identify correct labelling. (Pg. 209, E)
(Pg. 209, E) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
A) Green part of leaves A Starch Lipid Strama Grana
B) Green part of stem granule droplet lamella
C) Brown part of stem
D) Both A and B B Starch Lipid Grana Strama
15. Assertion - Chloroplasts usually align granule droplet lamella
themselves along the walls of mesophyll
cells. C Lipid Starch Grana Strama
droplet granule lamellae
Reason - They get optimum quantity of
incident light by aligning along well. D Lipid Starch Strama Grana
Choose the correct option. droplet granule lamella
(Pg. 209, M)
(A) Assertion and Reason are correct and
Reason is correct explanation for 20. Sugar is synthesized- (Pg. 209, E)
Assertion A) Non-enzymatically in grana
(B) Assertion and Reason are correct but is B) Non-enzymatically in stroma
not the explanation of Assertion C) Enzymatically in grana
(C) Assertion and Reason are both D) Enzymatically in stroma
incorrect 21. Which of the following is correct?
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(Pg. 209, E)
A) Light reaction depends on dark
reaction
B) Dark reaction depends on light (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
reaction A) A C B D
C) Both of the above B) A C D B
D) None of the above C) A D B C
22. If a plant is kept in dark for a long time D) A D C B
(Pg. 209, E)
A) Starch will be synthesized in 27. Which is the most abundant plant pigment
chloroplast in the world? (Pg. 210, E)
B) ATP will be synthesized in chloroplast A) Chlorophyll a B) Chlorophyll b
but no starch C) Carotenoids D) xanthophylls
C) NADPH will be synthesized in 28.
ii��:: -�l
chloroplast but no starch ....,� -111
D) None of these �;:;
23. Choose the incorrect option- During �<II � ("")
daytime- (Pg. 209, E)

A) ATP will be synthesized in chloroplast
by light reaction
Identity correct (Pg. 210, E)
B) NADPH will be synthesized in
i ii iii
chloroplast by light reaction A Chl a Chl b Carotenoi
C) Starch will not be synthesized by dark d
reaction B Carotenoi Chl a Chl b
D) None of these ds
13.4 How many types of pigments C Chl b Chl a Carotenoi
ds
are involved in photosynthesis D Chl b Carotenoi Chl a
ds
24. The colour of leaf is due to- (Pg. 210, E) 29. Maximum absorption by chlorophyll a
A) Chlorophyll only occors in- (Pg. 210, E)
B) Chlorophyll, carotenoids only A) blue & green region
C) Chlorophyll, carotenoids, xanthophyll B) ned & green region
D) None of these C) blue & red region
25. Leaf pigments are separated by- D) yellow & red region
(Pg. 210, E) 30. Assertion - Chlorophyll 'a' is the chief
A) Crystallization pigment associated with photosynthesis
B) Gel electrophorese Reason - Chlorophyll maximum
C) Blotting absorption coincides with maximum
D) Paper chromatography photosynthesis.
26. Match the pigment with its colour - Choose correct option - (Pg. 210, M)
(Pg. 210, E) A) Assertion & Reason are correct &
I II Reason is correct explanation of
(i) Chlorophyll a (A) Blue green
Assertion
(ii) Chlorophyll b (B) �ellow
B) Assertion & Reason are correct but
(iii) Carotenoids (C) �ellow-green Reason is not correct explanation of
(iv) Xanthophyll (D) Yellow- Assertion
orange C) Assertion is correct & Reason is
I
incorrect.
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D) Assertion & Reason are incorrect. 38. Which of the following is correct?
31. Accessory pigments include (Pg. 210, E) (Pg. 211, E)
A) Chlorophyll a B) Chlorophyll b A) PS I is called P800
C) both of these D) None of these B) PS II is called P680
32. Accessory pigments (Pg. 210, E) C) Both a & b
A) Pass on the energy to chl 'a' D) None of these
B) pass on the energy to primary acceptor 39. Reaction Centre is formed by- (Pg. 211, E)
C) Use energy for photolysis of water A) Only one chlorophyll 'a' molecule
D) more than one option B) A few chlorophyll 'a' molecule
33. Advantages of accessory pigments include C) One chlorophyll 'a' and a few accessory
(Pg. 210, E) D) A few chlorophyll 'a' and a few
A) they help by photolyzing the water accessory pigments.
B) they protect chl 'a' from photo 40. Choose the incorrect statements-
oxidation (Pg. 211, E)
C) they enable narrower range of A) Antennae is a light harvesting system
wavelength of incoming light to be used B) Contains accessory pigments
for photosynthesis C) Does not include reaction centre
D) both a & b D) None of these
13.5 What is light Reaction? 13.6 The Electron Transport
34. Light Reaction is also Known as- 41. When the light energy is absorbed by PS-
(Pg. 211, E) II, it is- (Pg. 211, E)
A) photochemical phase A) Converted to mechanical energy
B) biosynthetic phase B) Used to excite electrons
C) both of these C) Used to change configuration of
D) None of these RUBisCO
35. Choose correct order of events in light D) Both a & c
reaction- (Pg. 211, E) 42. The movement of excited electrons in
i) ATP & NADPH formation Noncyclic Photophosphorylation:
ii) Water Splitting (Pg. 211, E)
iii) Oxygen release A) uphill in terms of reduction potential
iv) Light absorption scale
A) III IV II B) downhill in terms of reduction potential
B) IV III I III scale
C) uphill and downhill in terms of
C) IV II III I
oxidation-reduction potential scale
D) II III IV I D) both A and C
36. LHC stands for- (Pg. 211, E) 43. The electrons excited form PS II-
A) Late Harvesting Complex (Pg. 211, E)
B) Light Harvesting Complex A) get used up by the first electron
C) Light Hanging Complex acceptor.
D) Late Hanging Complex B) get used up in the middle of its ETS
3 7. The naming of PS I & PS II was based on- pathway to PS I
(Pg. 211, E) C) get passed on to pigments of PS I
A) their discovery order D) get partially used up in ETS and the
B) their functioning sequence rest is passed to PS I.
C) the scientist who named it 44. The electrons passed on by PS I to electron
D) the components of the photosystem. acceptor are- (Pg. 212, E)
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A) the ones that were transferred to PS I (Pg. 212, E)

from PS II A) PS I located on inner side of thylakoid
B) electrons from the water splatted. membrane
C) electrons excited when PS I absorbs B) PS II located on inner side of thylakoid
light. membrane
D) All of these C) PS I located on Outer stroma lamellae
45. Electrons from PS-I move downhill to a D) PS II located on outer stroma lamellae
molecule of energy-rich- (Pg. 212, E) membrane
A) NADP + B) NAD+ 50. The 02 is released in- (Pg. 212, E)
C) FAD+ D) GTP A) Lumen of thylakoid
46. The Z scheme is named so because- B) Outer side of thylakoid
(Pg. 212, E) C) Stroma
A) it was discovered by a scientist with 'Z' D) Cytoplasm
as initial letter of name 51. Protons are released- (Pg. 212, E)
B) the carriers of ETS present in thylakoid A) Lumen of thylakoid
membrane are in 'Z' shape. B) Outer side of thylakoid
C) it forms 'Z' shape when the carriers of C) Stroma
ETS are arranged in sequence on redox D) Cytoplasm
potential scale. 13.6.2 Cyclic & Non-Cycle
D) both A & C Photophosphorylation
47.
Pholosystcm II PhOIO!,}-Slem I
52. The process of ATP synthesis in cells
I I I I is/are- (Pg. 212, E)
�
�-C
-(iii)
D
� t! acceptor A) Photo-phosphorylation
' '" ' dil - .� B) Oxidative phosphorylation
, Eltttron
I'I. LrnnSpOrl
•, system
C) Phosphosynthesis
\
\
D) Both A & B
\ 53. The order of working of the two
LHC
photosystems is- (Pg. 213, E)

UIC
Iii\ A) PS I� PS II
B) PS II� PSI
Identify the correct site for (Pg. 212, E) C) Any of these depending upon location
I- water splitting, II-NADP+ reduction, III D) None of these
ATP synthesis 54. Non-cyclic photo-phosphorylation
I II III involves- (Pg. 213, E)
A) I II III A) PS I
B) II I III
C) III II I
B) PS II
D) III I II C) Both PS I & PS II
D) None of the these, only enzymes in
13.6.1 Splitting of Water stroma
55. End product of Z-scheme is- (Pg. 213, E)
48. Splitting of water is important- A) ATP B) Glucose
(Pg. 212, E) C) NADH + H+ D) Both A & C
A) for the 02 formation 56. Cyclic photophosphorylation involves
B) for the electrons released (Pg. 213, E)
C) for the hydroxide ions released A) PS I only
D) for the H2 released B) PS II only
49. Water splitting is associated with- C) Both PS I & PS II
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D) None of these C) The protons accumulate towards outer

5 7. Cyclic phosphorylation ends in formation side of membrane of respiration
of- (Pg. 213, E) thylakoid
A) ATP only D) None of these
B) Glucose only 62. The proton gradient may be formed in
C) NADPH + H + only photosynthesis due to- (Pg. 213, E)
D) Both A & C A) Splitting of water
58. A possible location of cyclic B) Reduction of NAD+
photophosphorylation under full light is C) Both A and B
condition. (Pg. 213, E) D) None of these
A) Stroma 63. Assertion Protons move through
B) Stroma lamellae photosystems, protons are transported
C) Cristate across membrane.
D) Outer membrane of chloroplast. Reason - Primary acceptor of electrons is
59. Assertion - Cyclic photophosphorylation an H carrier (Pg. 213, M)
occurs in stroma A) Both Assertion & Reason are correct
Reason - Stroma membrane lacks PS II and Reason is explanation of Assertion
and NADP reductase. B) Both Assertion & Reason are correct
Choose correct answer- (Pg. 213, M) and Reason is not the explanation for
A) Both Assertion & Reason are correct Assertion
and Reason is correct explanation for A C) Assertion is correct but Reason is not
B) Both Assertion & Reason are correct correct
but Reason is not correct explanation D) Assertion & Reason both are incorrect
for Assertion 64. Which of these is an H carrier?
C) Assertion is correct but Reason is (Pg. 213, E)
wrong A) PS II B) Ferredoxin
D) Both Assertion & Reason are wrong C) Plastocyanin D) Plastoquinone
13.6.3 Chemiosmotic Hypothesis 65. NADP reductase enzyme is located on
____ of thylakoid membrane.
60. ATP Synthesis is linked to _i_ graduate (Pg. 214, E)
across a membrane in _ii_ (Pg. 213, E) A) Stroma side (outer side)
(i) (ii) B) Lumen side (I,e. outer side)
A) Electron Photosynthesis C) Stroma Side (i.e. inner side)
& respiration D) Lumen side (i.e. inner side)
B) Electron Photosynthesis only 66. The proton gradient is also formed due to-
C) Proton Photosynthesis (Pg. 214, E)
and respiration A) reduction of NAD+
D) Proton Photosynthesis but B) reduction of NADP+
not C) reduction of both NAD+ & NADP +
respiration D) reduction of FAD+
67. Which of the following is true?
61. Which of the following statements is true? (Pg. 214, M)
(Pg. 213, E) A) ATP & NADPH + H + both are formed
A) the protons accumulate towards outer towards stroma.
side of membrane in photosynthesis B) ATP & NADPH + H + both are formed in
B) the protons accumulate to wards inner lumen of thylakoid
side (lumen) of thylakoid in respiration. C) ATP is formed in lumen while NADPH +
H + is formed towards stroma.
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D) NADPH + H+ formed in lumen while 70. Statement A - The accumulation of

ATP is formed in stroma. protons in stroma cause decrease in pH of
stroma.
68. Statement B - The accumulation of proton
�trom.,(lowlll
in lumen cause formation of potential
gradient across thylakoid membrane.
Select the correct option- (Pg. 214, M)
A) A is correct and B is incorrect
B) B is correct and A is incorrect
1r
,r C) A & B are correct
. ll'
D) A & B are incorrect
71. ATP formation occurs upon- (Pg. 214, E)
Thyl.ikokl
IIIClllhl'HllC
S1room1 A) build up of potential gradient

AJ>l'•I', ,,, J\TP
B) break down of potential gradient
C) Both of these
Identify correct labels- (Pg. 214, E) D) None of these
(i) (ii) (iii) 72. The transmembrane channel in ATP
A) PQ PC Cyt B5f
synthase enzyme is formed by-
B) Cyt B5f PQ PC
C) PC Cyt B5f PC (Pg. 214, E)
D) PQ Cyt B5f PC A) CFo B) CF1
C) CF2 D) Both A & B
69. 73. The transmembrane channel allows -
across membrane for ATP synthesis
(Pg. 214, E)
A) Osmosis of protons
B) Simple diffusion of proton
C) Facilitated diffusion of electron
D) Facilitated diffusion of proton
74.
Identify correct - (Pg. 214, E)

I II
A) High Low
electrochemical gradient u·
gra dient The ATP synthese has two parts I & II
B) Low High I II
electrochemical gradient
gradient (A) CFo CF1
C) High High (B) CF1 CFo
electrochemical gradient (C) CF CFo
gradient
(D) None
D) Low Low
electrochemical gradient 75. CFo is - (Pg. 214, E)
gradient A) embedded in chloroplast membrane
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B) protruding on outer surface of Statement B - Biosynthetic process

chloroplast continues for some time after the light
C) protruding on inner surface of becomes unavailable and then stops.
chloroplast membrane (Pg.215,E)
D) None of these A) Both A & B are correct
76. CF1 is- (Pg.215,E) B) A is correct and B is incorrect
A) embedded in chloroplast membrane C) A is incorrect and B is correct
B) protruding on outer surface of D) A & B are in correct
chloroplast membrane 83. Calvin discovered that first CO2 fixation
C) protruding on inner surface of product is- (Pg.215,E)
chloroplast A) 3-carbon organic acid
D) None of these B) 4-carbon organic acid
77. Conformational change in __ makes ATP. C) 5- carbon organic acid
(Pg.215,E) D) 6-carbon organic acid
A) CFo B) CF1 84. To discover the first CO2 fixation product,
C) Both D) None Calvin worked on-using- (Pg.215,E)
78. For creating proton gradient across A) algae, radioactive C12
thylakoid membrane B) fungi, radioactive C12
(Pg.215,E) C) algae, radioactive C14
A) Energy is used D) fungi, radioactive C14
B) No energy is used 85. The first product of CO2 fixation was
C) Energy is released identified to be in the Calvin cycle.
D) None of these (Pg.215,E)
79. The end products of light reaction are A) PGA B) RUBP
(Pg.215,E) C) Citric acid D) OAA
A) Stored till dark reaction takes place at 86. In C4 pathway, first CO2 fixation product is
right same options as (Pg.215,E)
B) immediately used up in next round of A) PGA B) RUBP
light reaction C) Citric acid D) OAA
C) transferred to the stroma from lumen 87. OAA and PGA stands for- (Pg.216,E)
to be used in biosynthetic reaction A) 3-phophoglyceric acid and oxalis
occurring in stroma ascetic acid respectively
D) None of these B) 3-peptido glutaric acid and oxalis
13.7 Where are the ATP and NADPH ascetic acid respectively
used? C) 3-phosphas glutamic acid and oxalis
ascetic acid respectively
80. The products of light reaction are- D) None of these
(Pg. 215, E) 13.7.1 The primary Acceptor of
A) ATP only B) ATP & NADPH CO2
C) ATP, NADPH, 02 D) NADPH Only
81. 02 is- (Pg.215,E) 88. For a 3 carbon compound to be formed
A) used up in dark reaction in stroma after CO2 fixation, the acceptor molecule is
B) used up in dark reaction in lumen o� (Pg.216,E)
thylakoid A) 2-carbon B) 3-carbon
C) diffused out of chloroplast C) 4-carbon D) 5-carbon
D) more than one option is correct 89. RUBP stands for- (Pg.216,E)
82. Statement A - Biosynthetic reaction is A) Ribulose Bisphosphate Carboxylase
independent of direct presence of light oxygenase
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B) Ribose Bisphosphate Carboxylase (Pg. 216, E)

oxygenase A) RUBP B) PEP
C) Ribulose Bisphosphate C) NADPH D) None of these
D) Ribose Bisphosphate Carboxylase 95. RUBisCo has the activity of- (Pg. 217, E)
oxygenase A) Carbonation B) Oxygenation
13.7.2 The Calvin Cycle C) Oxidation D) None of these
96. Reduction involves Use of
90. The Calvin cycle starts with ___ ends molecules of ATP for fixed CO2 reduction
with (Pg. 216, E) (Pg. 217, E)
A) RUBisCo, regeneration of RUBisCo A) 1 B) 2
B) RUBP, regeneration of RUBisCo C) 3 D) 4
C) RUBP, regeneration of RUBP 97. Reduction involves use of - molecules of
D) PGA, regeneration of PGA NADPH to reduce fixed CO2. (Pg. 217, E)
91. Calvin cycle- (Pg. 216, E) A) 1 B) 2
A) occurs in C3 plants only C) 3 D) 4
B) occurs in C4 plants only 98. For formation of 1 glucose molecule, how
C) occurs in both C3 & C4 may turns of Calvin cycle is needed?
D) None of these (Pg. 217, E)
92. A) 3 B) 1
C) 2 D) 6
99. Regeneration of _(i)_ takes place at
expense of _(ii)_ ATP & _(iii)_ NADPH.
(Pg. 217, E)
(i) (ii) (iii)
A) RUBP 0 1
B) RUBP 1 0
C) RUBisCo 0 1
Sucm-. 111:uch
The three steps in Calvin cycle are D) RUBisCo 1 0
(Pg. 216, E)
i ii iii 100. Statement A - In CO2 fixation cycle, the
Carboxylati Oxidatio Regenera molecules of ATP used is more than
A) NADPH used.
on n tion
Statement B - to meet the difference in
Carboxyl Regenera
B) Reduction number of ATP & NADPH used in dark
ation tion
reaction, cyclic phosphorylation take
Carboxylati Reductio Regenera place.
C)
on n tion Choose the correct option- (Pg. 217, M)
Carbonatio Reductio Regenera A) A is correct but B is wrong
D)
n n tion B) B is correct but A is wrong
C) A & B are correct and A explains B
93. The most crucial step of Calvin cycle is D) A & B are incorrect.
(Pg. 216, E) 101. For formation of 1 glucose, how many
A) Carbonation B) Carboxylation molecules of ATP are required by C3 cycle?
C) Reduction D) Regeneration (Pg. 217, E)
94. Carboxylation is catalyzed by the enzyme- A) 12 B) 16
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C) 18 D) 10 A) 3-carbon molecule RUBP

102. For one glucose formation, how many NAD B) 3-carbon molecule PEP
molecules are needed by C3 pathway? C) 4-carbon molecule PEP
(Pg. 217, E) D) 4-carbon molecule OAA
A) 10 B) 12 111. Enzyme responsible for primary CO2
C) 16 D) 18 fixation in C4 plants is- (Pg. 218, E)
13.8 The C4 Pathway A) RUBisCO B) PEPCase
C) Oxaloacetase D) Phenolase
103. C4 plants are adaptation of plants to- 112. Which of the following is true? (Pg. 218, E)
(Pg. 218, E) A) C4 plants lack RUBisCO
A) wet regions (heavy rainfall) B) Mesophyll cells of C4 plants lack
B) polar regions RUBisCO
C) dry tropics C) Bundle sheath cells of C4 plants lack
D) moist rainforest RUBisCO
104. (i) - C4 plants lack Calvin cycle D) C3 plants lack RUBisCO
(ii) - C4 plants lack photorespiration 113. Primary CO2 fixation occurs in C4 plants in
(iii) - C4 plants have more productivity (Pg. 218, E)
than C3 plants A) Bundle sheath cells
(iv) - C4 plants cannot tolerate higher B) Mesophyll cells
temperature C) Any of the above
How many of the above statements are D) None of these
incorrect? (Pg. 218, M) 114. CO2 fixation in C4 plants occurs in-
A) 0 B) 1 (Pg. 218, E)
C) 2 D) 3 A) Bundle sheath cells
105. First CO2 fixation product in C4 cycle is B) Mesophyll cells
(Pg. 218, E) C) Both A and B
A) RBP B) PEP D) None of the above
C) OAA D) Malate 115. OAA forms other four carbon acids which
106. Bundle sheath cells are present in are transported. They are- (Pg. 218, E)
around (Pg. 218, E) A) Malic acid and oxalic acid
A) C4 plants, vascular bundles B) Malic acid and aspartic acid
B) C3 plants, vascular bundles C) Succinic acid and aspartic acid
C) Both of these D) Succinic acid and glutamic acid
D) None of these 116. The figure shows (Pg. 219, E)
107. Leaves with bundle sheath cells are said to AlmotphrricCOl
show- (Pg. 218, E)

A) Krant anatomy B) Kranz anatomy
C) Kent anatomy D) Krez anatomy
108. Bundle sheath cells- (Pg. 218, E)
A) Allow gaseous exchange
B) Have intercellular spaces
C) Have large number of chloroplasts
D) All of these
109. Example of C4 plants is- (Pg. 218, E)
A) Rice B) Maize A) Krebs cycle
C) Soyabean D) Both A and C B) Calvin cycle
110. Primary CO2 acceptor in C4 plants is C) Hatch and Slack pathway
(Pg. 218, E) D) EMP pathway
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117. In C4 pathway, RUBisCO is- (Pg. 219, E)

A) absent 121. Identify the A and B (Pg. 219, E)
B) present in mesophyll cells
C) present in bundle sheath cell
D) none of these
118. PEPcase enzyme is- (Pg. 219, E)
A) absent in mesophyll cells
B) present in bundle sheath cells
C) both A and B
D) None of these
119. Calvin cycle takes place in _(i)_ in all C3
plants in _(ii)_ in all C4 plants
(Pg. 219, E) Tr�tn5port
(i) (ii)
..__ �:��i'.�;.�r l
(A) mesophyll cells mesophyll
cells -----"-� col
. 11 '
(B) bundle sheath mesophyll ........_ ___,
cells cells
(C) mesophyll cells bundle (i) (ii)

sheath cells
A mesophyll cells mesophyll
(D) bundle sheath bundle cells
cells sheath cells B bundle sheath mesophyll
cells cells
120. Identify correct labels- (Pg. 219, E) C mesophyll cells bundle
sheath cells
r�:,•:.<>µh.,11
roll D bundle sheath bundle
cells sheath cells
13.9 Photorespiration
122. Read the following statements-
Statement A - Ribulose Bisphosphate is
the most abundant enzyme in the world.
l
Out11l::.C·
�h-ealh
rell Statement B - Photorespiration doesn't
T,-.m,1,011
occur in C4 plants.
(
.-----. "())
7
�:�.�l: �r Choose the correct option- (Pg. 220, E)
A) A is correct and B is incorrect
B) B is correct and A is incorrect
C) A and B are correct
D) A and B are incorrect
(i) (ii) (iii) 123. RUBisCO has ___ when CO2 & 02 is
A Firation Decarboxyl Regenera equal. (Pg. 220, E)
ation tion
A) greater affinity for CO2 than 02
B Transpor Firation Regenera
t tion B) greater affinity for 02 than CO2
C Regenera Transport Fixation C) equal affinity for CO2 & 02
tion D) no affinity for 02
D Regenera Decarboxyl Fixation 124. In C3 plants- (Pg. 220, E)
tion ation
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A) Some 02 binds to RUBisCO and CO2 C) 3 D) 5

fixation increases 130. Blackman's which law comes into effect
B) no 02 binds to RUBisCO when several factors affect any
C) Some 02 binds to RUBisCO and CO2 biochemical process? (Pg. 222, E)
fixation decrases A) Law of Limited Components (1910)
D) only 02 binds to RUBisCO B) Law of Limiting Factors (1910)
125. When 02 binds to RUBisCO, RUBP is C) Law of Limited Components ( 1905)
converted to ___ and ___ D) Law of Limiting Factors (1905)
(Pg. 220, E) 131. According to Blackmann's Law, the rate of
A) Phosphoglycerate, chemical process is determined by the
phosphoenolpyruvate factor which (Pg. 222, E)
B) Phosphoglycerate, phosphoglycerate A) is nearest to its maximum value
C) Phosphoenolpyruvate, B) is nearest to its minimum value
phosphoglycerate C) both A and B
D) Phosphoglycolate, phosphoglycerate D) none of these
126. In photorespiration- (Pg. 220, E) 13.10.1 Light
A) Sugar and ATP are formed
B) Sugar is formed but not ATP 132. The relationship between incident light
C) ATP is formed but not sugar and CO2 fixation rate at higher light
D) Sugar and ATP are not formed intensity is- (Pg. 222, E)
127. Assertion - Photorespiration doesn't occur A) rate is constant with increasing
in C4 plants. intensity
Reason - CO2 concentration at enzyme site B) rate increases with increasing intensity
is high in C4 plants. C) rate decreases with increasing
Chose correct option- (Pg. 220, E) intensity
A) Both Assertion and Reason are correct D) none of these
and Reason is correct explanation for 133. At lower Light intensity, the rate of CO2
Assertion fixation- (Pg. 222, E)
B) Assertion is correct and Reason is A) is constant with increasing light
wrong intensity
C) Assertion is wrong and Reason is B) increasing with increasing light
correct intensity
D) Both Assertion and Reason are wrong C) decreases with increasing light
13.10 Factors Affecting intensity
Photosynthesis D) none of these
134. Light saturation occurs at ___ of full
128. Photosynthesis is dependent on- sunlight. (Pg. 222, E)
(Pg. 222, E) A) 5% B) 10%
A) internal factors of plant C) 20% D) 40%
B) external factors of environment 135. Very big increase in light intensity causes-
C) both A and B (Pg. 222, E)
D) None of these A) increase in photosynthesis
129. How many of the following are factors B) decrease in photosynthesis
affecting photosynthesis? (Pg. 222, E) C) no change in photosynthesis rate
age of leaves, orientation of leaf, internal D) none of these
CO2 concentration, amount of chlorophyll, 13.10.2 Carbon dioxide
number of leaves concentration
A) 4 B) 2
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136.Which of the following is true? (Pg. 223, E) C) Assertion is correct but Reason is
A) CO2 is a major limiting factor for wrong
photosynthesis in nature D) Assertion and Reason are wrong
B) Light is rarely a limiting factor for 13.10.3 Temperature
photosynthesis in nature
C) Both of these 144.Which of the reaction is more sensitive to
D) None of these tern perature? (Pg. 223, E)
137.The concentration of CO2 beyond which A) Light Reaction
the CO2 becomes damaging over longer B) Dark Reaction
periods is- (Pg. 223, E) C) Both of then are equal
A) 0.03% B) 0.04% D) None of the above
C) 0.05% D) 0.08% 145.Which group of plants has a higher
138.The CO2 fixation rates increases upto the temperature optimum? (Pg. 223, E)
CO2 concentration of- (Pg. 223, E) A) C4 B) C3
� 300ppm B) 400ppm C) Both D) None
C) 500ppm D) 800ppm 146.Which of the following is true? (Pg. 223, E)
139.At low light conditions, which of the A) Tropical plants have higher
groups respond positively to increase in temperature optimum than
CO2- (Pg. 223, E) temperature plants
A) C3 B) C4 B) Temperature plants have higher
C) Both D) None temperature optimum than tropical
140.At high light conditions, which of the plants
groups respond positively to increase in C) Temperature and Tropical have equal
CO2 . (Pg. 223, E) temperature optimum
A) CO2 B) C4 D) Polar regions plants have highest
C) Both D) None temperature optimum
141.C4 plants show saturation at CO2 147.Water stress causes (Pg. 223, E)
concentration of (Pg. 223, E) A) reduced CO2 availability
A) 240µlL-1 B) 360µlL-1 B) leaf wilting
C) 450µlL-1 D) 540µlL-1 C) reduced surface area of leaf
142.C3 plants show saturation for CO2 D) All of these
concentration at (Pg. 223, E) 148.
A) 450µTL-1 B) 360 µlL-1
C) 540µiL- 1 D) 240µlL-1
143.Assertion Greenhouse crops like C
tomatoes and bell pepper are grown in CO2

enriched atmosphere for higher yields .
Reason - C4 plants respond to higher CO2
concentration by showing increased rate of
photosynthesis . D
ught Intensity
Choose the correct option . (Pg. 223, E) In the given graph, in which region will
A) Both Assertion and Reason are correct plant not respond to increase in CO2
and Reason is correct explanation for concentration? (Pg. 223, E)
Assertion A) A B) B
B) Both Assertion and Reason are correct C) C D) None
but Reason is not the explanation for
Assertion
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Answer Key
PHOTOSYNTHESIS IN HIGHER PLANTS.
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans D C D B D C A D A B
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans B D D D A B A D C D
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans B D C C D B A D C A
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans B A B A C B A B A D
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans B C C C A C D B B A
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans C D B C D A A B B C
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans D A C D A B A D B B
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans B A D A D D B A D C
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans C A A C A D D D C C
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans C C B D B B B D B C
Q 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans C B C C C A B C B B
Q 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans B B B C B C C D C C
Q 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Ans C C A C D D A C D D
Q 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans B A B B B C C C D C
Q 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148
Ans B A C B A A D A
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--.....--....--....--.....-....--..).....
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1. Respiration is defined as - (Pg. 227, E) 7. Compounds that are oxidised during the
A) Formation of C - C bonds of complex process of respiration is called?
compound (Pg. 227, E)
B) Breaking of C - C bonds of complex A)Respiratory index
compound B)Reductory substrate
C) Breaking of C - N bonds of complex C) Respiratory quotient
compound D)Respiratory substrate
D)All of the above 8. Statement I - Only green plants and
2. Respiration results finally to a formation cyanabacteria can prepare their own food
and release of which among the following? by photosynthesis.
(Pg. 227, E) Statement II - Only green plants and
A)NADPH B)Glucose cyanobacteria can prepare their own food
C)ATP D)Both A & C by converting chemical energy to light
3. The C - C bond of complex compound in energy
broken by which process in respiration? Which of the statements is/ are true?
(Pg. 227, E) (Pg. 227, M)
A)Oxidation A)Only I B)Only II
B)Reduction C) Both of these D)None of these
C)Hydrogenation 9. "Ultimately all the food that is respired for
D)None of the above life processes comes from photosynthesis."
4. Assertion - ATP act as energy currency of The above statement is - (Pg. 227, M)
cell. A)correct
Reason Energy released through B)incorrect
respiration is trapped as bio-chemical C)partially correct
energy in the form of ATP. (Pg. 227, H) D)can't be said as it is incomplete
A)Only Assertion is correct 10. Which of the following cannot be used as
B)Only Reason is correct respiratory substances in plants under
C)Both Assertion and Reason is correct any conditions? (Pg. 227, E)
D)Both Assertion and Reason is wrong A)fat B)protein
5. Which among the following is wrong? C)carbohydrate D)none of these
(Pg. 227, E) 14.1 Do Plants Breathe?
i) Only carbohydrates are oxidised to
release energy in the process of 11. What are the byproducts of Respiration
respiration. process? (Pg. 227, E)
ii) Energy produced in respiration is not A)Oxygen B)Water
released in a single step. C) Carbon dioxide D)Both B and C
iii)ATP can be broken down, as and when 12. Respiration is a ____ process.
energy needs to be utilised. (Pg. 227, E)
A)Only ii B) Only iii A)Anabolic
C)Only i D)None of the above B)Catabolic
6. ATP stands for? (Pg. 227, E) C) Both Anabolic as well as catabolic
A)Adenosine 3' - triphosphate D)None of the above
B)Adenosine - 3' - trio phosphite 13. Choose the correct equation- (Pg. 228, E)
C)Adenosine 5' - triphosphate A) C6 H 12 0 6 + 120 2 ➔ 6H2 0 + 6H2 0 + Energy
D)Adenosine 5' - triophosphite B) C6 H 12 0 6 + 302 ➔ 2C02 + 3H 2 0 + Energy

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C) C6 H 12 0 6 + 6C02 + 6H2 0 + Energy (i) (ii) (iii)

D) C6 H 12 0 6 + 602 ➔ 6C0 2 + 6H2 0 + Energy A) Glucose Glucose Hexokinase
14. Respiration organs for plants are-
(Pg. 228, E) B) Glucose Fructose Hexokinase
A)Lenticels
B)Stomata C) Glucose Glucose Invertase
C) Woody Bark
D) Glucose Fructose Invertase
D)Both of the above A and B
15. Which among the following is wrong?
(Pg. 228, M) 23. What is the isomerised produce of glucose
A) Roots, Leaves and Stem respire a for - 6 - phosphate in the steps of glycolysis?
lower than animal do (Pg 229, E)
B) For plants to respire, availability of 0 2 A)Fructose 1, 6 - bisphosphate
is a problem as 0 2 is not released B)Fructose -6 - phosphate
within the cell during photosynthesis C) Fructose -1, 3, 6 - triphosphate
C) There is very little transport of gases D)Fructose -3 - phosphate
from one plant part to another 24. Glycolysis is a how many steps of process?
D) None of the above (Pg 229, E)
14.2 'Glycolysis' A)Ten B)Eight
C) Eleven D)Five
16. Glycolysis is originated from- (Pg. 228, E) 25. End product of glycolysis is? (Pg 229, E)
A)Latin word B)French word A)Pyruvate
C) Italian word D)Greek word B)Phenol
17. Meaning of glycolysis is- C) Prusic acid
A)Splitting of water D)Phosphoenolpyruvate
B)Splitting of sugar 26. ATP is utilised in which steps of glycolysis.
C) Splitting of fat (Pg 229, E)
D)Splitting of protein i) Conversion of BPGA to PGA
18. Glycolysis is also known as ii) Conversion of glucose into glucose -
pathway. 6- phosphate
A)ETS B)EMP iii) Conversion fructose 6 - phosphate to
C) ENP D)ELP fructose 1, 6 - bisphosphate
19. The scheme of glycolysis was given by iv) Conversion of PEP to pyruvate
A)Gustav Embden B) Otto Meyerhof A)Only i B)Only iii
C) J. Parnas D) All of the above C) Both ii and iii D)Only ii, iii, iv
20. The scheme of glycolysis was given by 27. One molecule of glucose is converted into
A)Gustav Embden B) Alto Meyerhof how many molecules of pyruvic acid?
C) J. Parnas D)All of the above (Pg 229, E)
21. Glycolysis occurs in which among the A) 1 B)2
following? C) 3 D)4
A) Aerobic organism 28. When PGAL is converted into BPGA in
B)Anaerobic organism process of respiration there is formation
C) Eukaryotes of? (Pg 229, E)
D)All of the above A) 1 molecule of ATP
22. Sucrose is converted to _(i)_ and _(ii)_ B) 1 molecule of H2O
using enzyme _(iii)_ C) 1 molecule of NADH + H +
D) 1 molecule of ADP
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29. PGAL get ___ and get converted to 37. How many ATP are utilized in complete
BPGA? (Pg 229, E) process of glycolysis of one glucose
A)reduced B)hydrolysed molecule? (Pg 229, M)
C) oxidized D)all of these A) 2 B)1
30. Conversion of 2-phosphoglycerate to C) 3 D)4
phosphoenolpyruvate leads of formation 38. How many molecules of NADH are
of? (Pg 229, E) produced in one complete process of
A)ATP B)NADH 2 glycolysis of one glucose molecule?
C)H 2 0 D)ADP (Pg 229, M)
31. What does PGAL stands for? (Pg 229, E) A) 1 B)2
A)3 - Phosphoglyceraldehyde C) 3 D)4
B)5 - Phosphoglyceraldehyde 39. How many molecules of ATP are directly
C) 3 - Phosphoglyceric acid produced in one complete glycolysis of one
D)5 - Phosphoglyceric acid glucose molecule? (Pg 229, E)
32. What is the full form of PEP? (Pg 229, E) A)1 B)2
A)Pyroenol pyruvate C)3 D)4
B)Pyruvic pyruvate 40. Which among the following are correct
C) Phosphoenolpyruvate about Glycolysis? (Pg 229, E)
D)None of the above i) It is the only process that occurs in
33. Pyruvic acid is composed of how many anaerobes for oxidation of glucose.
carbon atom? (Pg 229, E) ii) Glucose undergoes complete
A)Two B)Three oxidation to form pyruvic acid.
C) Four D)Five iii) At the end, there is a net gain of 4 ATP
34. Which among the following step in and 2 NADH.
glycolysis yields energy? (Pg 229, E) A)Only ii B)Both ii and iii
i) Conversion of BPGA to PGA C) Only i D)all of the above
ii) Conversion of fructose - 6 -phosphate 41. For further complete oxidation of glucose,
to fructose 1, 6 -bisphosphate pyruvic acid enters to which among the
iii) Conversion of PEP to pyruvic acid following? (Pg 229, E)
iv) Conversion of glucose - 6 -phosphate A)ETS B)Kreb's cycle
to fructose - 6 - phosphate C) EMP pathway D)None of the above
A)Both ii and iv B)i, ii, iii 14.3 FERMENTATION
C) Both i and iii D)All of the above
35. In glycolysis, fructose 1, 6 - bisphosphate 42. Fermentation occurs when there is
get split into which of the following? (Pg 230, E)
(Pg 229, E) A)Complete supply of oxygen
A)PGAL and BPGA B)No supply of oxygen
B) Glyceraldehyde - 3 - phosphate and 3 C) Complete supply of water
- phosphoglyceric acid D)No supply of water
C) Glyceraldehyde - 3 - phosphate and 43. In alcoholic fermentation, pyruvate is
Dihydroxy acetone phosphate converted to which among the following?
D) None of the above A)Ethanol, CO 2, NADH (Pg 230, E)
36. What is the net gain of ATP from one B) CO 2 and Methanol
molecule of glucose in one complete C) CO 2 and Ethanol only
glycolysis? (Pg 229, M) D)CO 2 and Carboxylic acid
A)4 B)3 44. Which enzyme is responsible for alcoholic
C)S D)2 fermentation? (Pg 230, E)
A)Pyruvic acid decarboxylase
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B)Lactate dehydrogenase (ii)

Pyruvic acid + (i)+ NAD+ � Acetyl COA +
C)Alcohol dehydrogenase Enzyme
D)More than one option is correct (iii)+ NAO+ H + (Pg 231, E)
45. Which enzyme is involved in lactic acid A) (i)0 2 (ii)Mg2+ (iii)CO 2
fermentation? (Pg 230, E) B) (i)0 2 (ii)Na+ (iii)H 2 0
A)Pyruvic acid decarboxylase C) (i)CoA (ii)Na+ (iii) CO 2
B)Lactate dehydrogenase D) (i)CoA (ii)Mg2+ (iii)CO 2
C)Alcohol dehydrogenase 51. Pyruvate enters to the mitochondrial
D)More than one option is correct matrix and undergoes. (Pg 231, E)
46. Choose the correct option (Pg 230, M) A)Reductive decarboxylation
In the fermentation process:- B)Oxidative carboxylation
i) Oxidation of ADP to ATP takes place C) Reductive carboxylation
ii) Reduction of ATP to ADP takes place D)Oxidative decarboxylation
iii) Reducing agent NADH + H+ is 52. Which enzyme catalyse the reaction going
reoxidised to NAD+ on in mitochondrial matrix in respiration?
iv) Formation of NADH + H+ takes place (Pg 231, E)
by oxidation A)Pyruvate carboxylase
A)ii and iv B)ii and iii B) Lactate dehydrogenase
C)Both i and iii D)Only iii C)Alcohol dehydrogenase
47. How many statements are correct about D)Pyruvate dehydrogenase
fermentation? (Pg 230, M) 53. Who elucidated Tricarboxylic Acid cycle?
i) Very low amount of energy is (Pg 231, E)
released, < 7% of energy in glucose is A)Johns Elen B)Hans Krebs
released in fermentation C)Meyerhoff D)Elena Parker
ii) In animal cells, when oxygen is 54. Formation of Acetyl coenzyme A from
inadequate acetic acid is formed Pyruvate in mitochondrial matrix yields
during respiration which among the following? (Pg 231, E)
iii) It is dangerous process as it leads to A)CO2 B)H2O
acid and alcohol formation. C) NADPH + H+ D)Both A and C
A) 0 B) 1 55. How many molecules of NADH + H+ are
C)2 D) 3 produced when pyruvate converts to
48. The range beyond which yeasts poison Acetyl CoA in TCA cycle? (Pg 231, E)
themselves to death in alcohol A)O B) 1
fermentation when the concentration of C)2 D)3
alcohol reaches to? (Pg 230, E) 14.4.1 'Tricarboxylic Acid Cycle'
A) 13% B) 15%
C)12% D) 17% 56. Where does TCA cycle occurs? (Pg 231, E)
49. Which among the following is the A)Cytoplasm
processes steps in, complete cellular B) Mitochondria cell wall
respiration which don't need oxygen C)Mitochondrial matrix
molecule (02)? (Pg 231, E) D)Chloroplast
A)Glycolysis 57. What is the first product of TCA cycle?
B)Tricarboxylic acid cycle (Pg 231, E)
C)ETC A)Acetyl CoA B)Citric acid
D)Both A and B C)Isocitric acid D)OAA
14.4 Aerobic Respiration 58. What is the 1st step of TCA cycle?
(Pg 231, E)
50. Complete the following reaction- A)Formation of citrate from isocitrate
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B) Formation of citrate from the acetyl 67. How many net ATP molecules are directly
coenzyme A yielded from complete oxidation of one
C) Formation of citrate from glucose (including ATP of TCA)?
decarboxylation of succinic acid (Pg 232, E)
D)None of the above A)4 B)2
59. Which enzyme catalyses the first step of C) 3 D)8
TCA cycle? (Pg 231, E) 68. Which among the following is wrong?
A)Citrate Synthase (Pg 232, E)
B)Citrate Reductase (i) Glycolysis occurs in all living
C) Citrate Oxidase organism.
D)None of the above (ii) TCA cycle and ETS only occurs in
60. What is the first member of TCA cycle that aerobes.
accepts Acetyl CoA? (Pg 231, E) (iii) Complete oxidation of pyruvate
A)Citrate occurs by removal of all hydrogen
B)CoA atom in TCA cycle.
C) Oxaloacetic acid A) (i) B) (ii)
D) Both A and C C) (iii) D)None of the above
61. Which among the following is synthesised 14.4.2 Electron Transport System
during the conversion of succinyl - CoA to (ETS) and Oxidative
succinic acid in TCA cycle? (Pg 232, E)
Phosphorylation
A)FADH2 B)GTP
C)NADH2 D)ATP 69. ETS occurs in which place? (Pg 232, E)
62. How many total CO2 molecule are released A)Outer membrane of mitochondria
from Pyruvate to completion of TCA cycle? B)Cytoplasm
(Pg 232, E) C) Inner membrane of mitochondria
A) 0 B) 1 D)Matrix of mitochondria
C) 2 D) 3 70. Energy stored in NADH + H+ FADH2 are
63. How many total NADH2 are produced from released in ETS through ___
pyruvate to completion of TCA cycle? (Pg 232, E)
(Pg 232, E) A) Reduction of these molecules
A) 2 B)3 B) Oxidation of these molecules
C)4 D) 5 C) Hydrolysis of these molecules
64. How many FADH2 are produced in TCA D)Both A & B
cycle? (Pg 232, E) 71. ETS stands for (Pg 232, E)
A) 1 B)2 A) Electrical Transport System
C) 3 D)4 B)Electron Transmission System
65. One molecule of glucose synthesizes how C) Electron Transport System
many molecules of NADH + H + at the end D)None of the above
of TCA cycle? (Pg 232, E) 72. When the electrons are passed onto 02 in
A)6 B)7 ETS it leads to formation of what?
C)8 D) 10 (Pg 232, E)
66. How many molecules of FADH2 are yielded B)ATP
from one glucose molecule at the end of D)NADH + H+
TCA cycle? (Pg 232, E) 73. Ubiquinone is located at ___
A)1 B)2 (Pg 233, E)
C)3 D)4 A)inner membrane of mitochondria
B) outer membrane of mitochondria
C) inner membrane of nucleus
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D)outer membrane of nucleus 82. Oxidation of 2 molecule ofFADH2produces

74. Ubiquinone receives electrons from which how many molecules of ATP? (Pg 233, E)
of the following? (Pg 233, E) A)1 B)2
i) From NADH produced in C)3 D)4
mitochondrial matrix during TCA. 83. Which among the following is the role of 02
ii) From FADH2 produced during in whole respiration process? (Pg 233, M)
oxidation of succinate in TCA. i) Act as hydrogen removal from the
A)Only i B)Only ii system.
C) Both i and ii D)None of the above ii) Act as final hydrogen acceptor.
75. Electrons from NADH produced during iii) It bond with C atom and released CO 2 ,
TCA are oxidised by which enzyme? one of the byproduct of respiration.
(Pg 233, E) A)ii and iii B)iii only
A)NAD hydrogenase
+ C) Both i and ii D)All of the above
B)NADH dehydrogenase 84. ETS of respiration process is called
C) NAD+ hydroxylase (Pg 233, E)
D)NADH dehydroxylase A)Reductive phosphorylation
76. The reduced ubiquinone are also called B)Oxidative phosphorylation
what? (Pg 233, E) C) Oxidative photophosphorylation
A)Ubiquinate B)Ubiquinase D)Both B and C
C) Ubiquinal D)Ubiquinol 85. Which among the following is wrong about
77. Cytochrome c is ___? (Pg 233, E) ATP synthase? (Pg 234, E)
A)Lipid B)Carbohydrate i) It is also called complex V.
C) Protein D)Fat ii) This is used to synthesis ATP by
78. What is the function of cytochrome c? utilising the energy released during
(Pg 233, E) ETS.
A) Act as donor of electron iii) It works on the basis of proton
B) Passage for movement of e- gradient.
C) Act as a receptor of e- between complex iv) It consist of two major components, F1
II and III and Fo.
D) Act as a mobile carrier for e- transfer A)Only ii B)Both i and iii
between complex III and IV C) i and iv D) None of the above
79. What does cytochrome c oxidase complex 86. What is F1 in ATP synthase? (Pg 234, E)
contains? (Pg 233, E) A) It contain a site for protein synthesis.
A)Cytochrome a B) It contain a site for ADP synthesis from
B)Cytochrome a3 ATP.
C) Two copper centres C) It contain a site for ATP production
D)All of the above from ADP.
80. When e- passes from complex I to IV in ETS D) It act as a channel through which
they are coupled to ___ for ATP proton cross the inner membrane.
production from ADP. (Pg 233, E) 87. What is the role of Fo in ATP synthase?
A)Cytochrome c B)Cytochrome be 1 (Pg 234, E)
C) ATP synthase D) Both A and B A) It act as a channel through which e
81. Oxidation of one molecule of NADH2 crosses the inner membrane.
produces how many molecules of ATP? B) It act as a channel through which
(Pg 233, E) proton crosses the inner membrane.
A) 1 B)2 C) It act as a mobile protein carrier of
C) 3 D)4 electron across the inner membrane.
D) Acts as site for ATP synthesis
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88. For each ATP produced, ___ passes B) Faster in fermentation than aerobic
through Fo from intermembrane space to respiration
the matrix down the electrochemical C) Equal in fermentation and aerobic
proton gradient. (Pg 234, E) respiration
A)H + B)2H + D) Cannot be compared
C)3H + D)4H + 14.6 Amphibolic Pathway
14.5 The Respiratory Balance
Sheet 94. Which among the following is wrong?
Pg 235, M)
89. What is the net gain of ATP molecules i) Other than glucose, no other
during aerobic respiration of one glucose substrates can be used in respiratory
molecule? (Pg 234, E) process.
A)40 ATP B)38 ATP ii) Respiratory pathway is an amphibolic
C) 36 ATP D)34 ATP pathway.
90. Match the following (Pg 234, H) iii) Different substrates enters at
1 Glycolysis i Mitochondrial different stage in respiratory
matrix pathway.
2 TCA ii Cytoplasm A)Only i B)Only iii
C) Only ii D)Both i and ii
3 ETC iii Inner
membrane of 95. Which among the following is wrong?
mitochondria Pg 235, M)
i) Other than glucose, no other
A)1-i ' 2-ii ' 3-iii substrates can be used in respiratory
B)1-ii ' 2-i ' 3-iii process.
C) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i ii) Respiratory pathway is an amphibolic
D)1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i pathway.
91. The respiratory balance sheet is calculated iii) Different substrates enters at
on some assumptions. different stage in respiratory
Which of the following assumption is pathway.
correct? (Pg 234, M) A)Only i B)Only iii
A) The pathway is sequential, with series C) Only ii D)Both i and ii
of glycolysis, ETS and TCA cycle in the 96. Fats as a respiratory substrate converts to
same order for a given molecule. which compound first? Pg 235, M)
B) NADH is transferred to chloroplast A)Dihydroxy Aceton Phosphate
where oxidative phosphorylation B)Glycerol
occurs, leading to formation of 3 ATP C) Fatty acid
C) Only glucose is the substrate and none D)Both B and C
other substrate or intermediate enters 97. Match the following- Pg 235, H)
or leaves the pathway
1 Amino i Pyruvic acid
D) None of these acids
92. In the balance sheet of fermentation, net 2 Fatty acid ii Dihyroxy Acetone
gain is - (Pg 234, M) Phosphate
A)12 ATP molecules B) 38 ATP molecules 3 Glycerol iii Acetyl CoA
C) 2 ATP molecules D) 8 ATP molecules
93. Oxidation of NADH to NAD+ is -
A)1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii B)1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii
(Pg 235, M)
C) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii D)1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i
A) Slower in fermentation than aerobic
98. Choose the correct according to the correct
respiration
sequence (from substrate to end product)

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(Pg 235, M) A) 0.9 B) 1

i) Glucose 6 - phosphate C) 0.8 D) 0.7
ii) Pyruvic acid 102. What is RQ if proteins are used as a
iii) Carbohydrate respiratory substrate? (Pg 236, E)
iv) Fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate A) 1 B) 0.8
v) Glucose C) 0.9 D) 0.7
vi) Dihydroxy Acetone Phosphate � 103. What is RQ if carbohydrates are used as a
Glyceraldehyde 3 - phosphate respiratory substrate? (Pg 236, E)
A) i, iii, iv, v, vi, ii B) iii, iv, v, ii, i, vi A) 1 B) 0.8
C) iii, v, i, ii, iv, vi D) iii, v, i, iv, vi, ii C) 0.7 D) 0.9
14.7 Respiratory Quotient 104. Match the following- (Pg 236, E)
1 NADH + H i + 1 ATP
99. Which statement is true about RQ? 2 FADH2 ii 2 ATP
(Pg 236, M) 3 GTP iii 3 ATP
i) It is also called respiratory ratio. A) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii B) 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii
ii) It is the volume of 02 released over C) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i D) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii
the volume of CO2 evolved during 105. In ETS 02 accept the electrons and get
respiration. reduced to which of the following?
iii) RQ of diff. substrate is different. (Pg 236, E)
A) Only i B) Only iii A) Water B) Carbon dioxide
C) Both i and iii D) All of the above C) Palmitic acid D) None of the above
100. Choose the correct. (Pg 236, M) 106. What is the final end product ofTCA cycle?
A) RQ = volume of CO2 evolved/volume of (Pg 236, E)
02 consumed A) 3 NADH + H + B) 1 ATP
B) RQ = volume of 02 consumed/volume of C) 1 FADH2 D) All of the above
CO2 evolved 107. How many ATPs are produced through
C) RQ = volume of 02 evolved/volume of ETS only from 1 molecule of 3-
CO2 consumed phosphoglycerate in aerobic respiration
D) None of the above (Pg 236, E)
101. What will be the RQ for the following A) 12 B) 14
equation (Pg 236, M) C) 16 D) 15
2(C31H2s05) + 145 02 - 102 CO2 + 98 H2O
+ Energy
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ANSWER KEY
RESPIRATION IN PLANTS
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans B C A C C C D A A D
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans D C D D B D B B D D
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans D D B A A C B C C C
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans A C B C C D A D D C
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans B B C D C D C A D D
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans D D B A B C B B A C
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans B D C A C B A D C B
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans C C A C B D C D D C
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans C D C B D C B B C B
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans C C A A B D A D C A
Q 101 102 103 104 105 106 107

Ans D C A C D D B
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Plant Growth & Development
1. Development is (Pg. 239, E) A) Continuous division in all cells forming

A) Growth new set of cells which divide further
B) Differentiation necessarily.
C) Growth+ differentiation B) Division in some cells forming new set
D) Growth - differentiation of cells which do not divide further
Paragraph 15.1 necessarily
C) No division at all
Growth D) Division in some cells at the time of
injury which forms new set of cells to
heal the injury
2. Growth of living being is/ are- (Pg. 240, E)
8. Secondary growth does occur in-
A) Irreversible
(Pg. 240, E)
B) Increase in size
A) All angiosperms and no gymnosperms
C) Increase in weight
B) Some angiosperm and gymnosperms
D) All of these
C) No angiosperm and only gymnosperms
3. Swelling of piece of wood when placed in
D) All angiosperm and all gymnosperms
water is (Pg. 240, E) 9. Secondary growth does not mean-
A) Growth but not development
(Pg. 240, E)
B) Development but not growth
A) Increase in length of plant
C) No growth and development
B) Increase in girth of plant
D) Both growth & development
C) Increase in diameter in plant
Paragraph 15.1.1 D) Both A & C
Plant Growth Generally is 10.
Indeterminate
4. Plant grows (Pg. 240, E)
A) For a limited time in life
B) For a very long time in life
C) For a very short time in a life (iii)
D) For unlimited time throughout life
5. The given figure shows- (Pg. 240, M)
A) Germination & development in bean Choose the correct label-

B) Germination & development in maize (Pg. 241, E)
C) Germination & development in pea (i) (ii) (iii)
D) Germination & development in gram A Shoot Root Vascular
6. Plant grows throughout the life due to
apical apical cambium
(Pg. 240, E)
meristem meristem
A) Meristematic tissue
B) Parenchyma tissue B Root apical Shoot Vascular
C) Epidermal tissue meristem apical cambium
D) More than one option is correct meristem
7. Open form of growth involves (Pg._ 2 _ �'-E�)'----+--------
_ 0
_ 4
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C Shoot Root Vascular A) Proximal to cells undergoing

parenchym parenchy bundle elongation, towards the tip
a ma B) Proximal to cells undergoing
elongation, away from the tip
D Root Shoot Vascular
C) Proximal to cells of meristematic zone '
parenchym parenchy bundle away from the tip
a ma D) Proximal to cells of meristematic zone '
towards the tip
16 • Increased vacuolation is a characteristics
=Pa
---= =ra -== :ip�h==-----=1�5�.�1�-�2!..._______.:G�r�o�w�t�h�_�is
=--= =gro=- a
of - (Pg. 242, E)
Measurable
A) Meristematic phase
11. Growth can be measured by measuring B) Maturation phase
increase in - (Pg. 241, E) C) Elongation phase
A) Amount of protoplasm D) All of these
B) Dry weight 1 7. Thickest cell wall present in - (Pg. 242, E)
C) Cell number A) Meristematic phase
D) Both B & C B) Maturation phase
12. Match the column in respect with the C) Elongation phase
measurement growth- (Pg. 241, E) D) Both B & C
Column I Column II Paragraph 15.1.4
a Maize i Length Growth rates
b Watermelon ii Surface area
C Pollen tube iii Cell number
18. Increased growth per unit time is called
(Pg. 242, E)
d Dorsiventral iv Cell size
A) Growth index
leaf B) Growth rate
C) Growth efficiency index
A) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii D) Both A & C
B) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv 19. Identify the given figure (Pg. 242, M)
C) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
D) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
Paragraph 15.1.3
Phases of Growth
13. The three phases of growth in correct order
is- (Pg. 241, E)
A) Meristematic, maturation, elongation
B) Elongation, meristematic, maturation
C) Meristematic, elongation, maturation
D) Elongation, maturation, meristematic
A) Figure shows geometric growth with
14. Cells in meristematic phase of growth-
formula Lt = Lo + rt
(Pg. 241, E)
B) Figure shows geometric growth with
A) Have small nuclei
formula W 1 = W0 ert
B) Have low plasmodesmatal connections
C) Figure shows arithematic growth with
C) Have thick cell wall
D) Are rich in protoplasm
D) Figure shows arithematic growth with
15. The phase of maturation lies- (Pg. 241, E)
formula W 1 = W0 ert
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20. Identify the given figures (Pg. 242, M) 24. In the formula W1 = W0 ert , r is -
(Pg. 243, E)
A) Relative growth rate
B) Efficiency index
C) Ability of plant to produce new plant
material
D) All of these
25. choose the correct option - (Pg. 244, E)
A) Figure shows geometric growth with
B) Figure shows geometric growth with
formula W1 = W0 ert
C) Figure shows arithematic growth with
D) Figure shows arithematic growth with
formula W1 = W0 ert
21. Choose the correct option with respect to A) Absolute growth rate of A is more than
given figures of stages of embryo that of B
development (Pg. 242, M) B) Absolute growth rate of B is more than
• i) that of A
C) Relative growth rate of A is more than
that of B
• ii) D) Relative growth rate of B is more than
that of A
Paragraph 15.1.5
�-(iii) Conditions growth
A) (i) is arithmetic growth phase 26. The factors affecting growth can be -
B) (i) is geometric growth phase (Pg. 244, E)
C) (ii) is arithmetic growth phase A) Water, temperature, light, gravity
D) (ii) is geometric growth phase B) Water, temperature, light but not
22. Choose the correct set of option for size or gravity
weight of organ against time (Pg. 243, E) C) Water, light but not temperature &
(i) W1 = Wo ert gravity
(ii) Lt = Lo + rt D) Water, light, gravity but not
(iii) Linear growth curve temperature
(iv) Sigmoid growth curve
Paragraph 15.2
(v) Arithmetic growth
(vi) Geometric growth Differentiation, Dedifferentiation
A) (i), (iii), (iv) B) (ii), (iii), (vi) and Redifferentiation
C) (i), (iv), (vi) D) (ii), (iv), (v)
23. The three phases of sigmoid growth occur 27. During differentiation (Pg. 245, E)
in order are - (Pg. 243, E) A) Structural changes occur in nucleus
A) Log, lag, stationary and cytoplasm
B) Log, stationary, lag B) Functional changes occur in nucleus
C) Lag, log, stationary and cytoplasm
D) Lag, stationary, log
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C) Structural changes occur in cell wall 32. Environmental heterophylly can be seen in
and protoplasm (Pg. 246, E)
D) All of these A) Larkspur B) Cotton
28. Dedifferentiation can be seen in formation C) Coriander D) Buttercup
of- (Pg. 245, E) 33. The given figure show - (Pg. 246, E)
A) Intrafascicular parenchyma
B) Intrafascicular cambium only
C) Interfascicular cambium only
D) Entire vascular cambium
29. Read the following statements -
(Pg. 245, E)
(i) Cork cambium is a layer of meristem
formed from parenchyma cells A) Developmental heterophylly in
(ii) Intrafascicular cambium is a layer of buttercups
parenchyma cells formed from B) Environmental heterophylly in
meristem larkspur
(iii) Vascular cambium divide and C) Environmental heterophylly in
produce cells that differentiate again buttercup
(iv) Plant growth can be determinate or D) Developmental heterophylly in
indeterminate Larkspur
(v) Final structure of cells are never 34. The figure shows sequence of the
determined by location of cells development process in (Pg. 246, E)
(vi) The differentiation in plant cells are Cell Division Death
closed and dependent on position I

SENESCENCE
�,
I
How many of the above statements are I

I
I
correct? ¥
I
Plasmatic growth 1 Differentiation I
MERISTEMATIC ------ ·> -------➔

I
A) 3 B) 4 CELL I
C) 5 D) 6 -------➔ ------·> MATURE

E}.1)31lsion Maturation CELL
(Elongation)
Paragraph 15.3
Development A) A plant cell B) Plant tissue
C) Plant organs D) All of these
30. identify the correct labels - (Pg. 246, E)
I
Cell di sion
�
7 35. The given figure show - (Pg. 246, E)
l
(ii)
Meristematic (i) New cell Enlargement
cell
Differentiation
Senescence
Death Mature cell -+--- (iii)
A) (i)-Expansion, (ii)-Plasmatic growth,
(iii)-Maturation
B) (ii)-Elongation, (i)-Plasmatic growth,
(iii)-Maturation A) Developmental heterophylly in
C) (iii)- Elongation, (ii)-Plasmatic growth, buttercups
(i)-Maturation B) Environmental heterophylly in
D) (iii)-Expansion, (i)-Plasmatic growth, larkspur
(ii)-Maturation C) Environmental heterophylly in
31. Plasticity can be seen in - (Pg. 246, E) buttercup
A) Cotton B) Coriander D) Developmental heterophylly in
C) Buttercup D) All of these larkspur
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36. Intrinsic factors responsible for growth & A) Group of plant growth promoters
development include - (Pg. 246, E) B) Group of plant growth inhibitors
A) Intracellular (plant growth regulators) C) Both the groups of promoter &
B) Intercellular (genetic) inhibitors but mostly inhibitor
C) Intercellular (plant growth regulators) D) Both the groups of promoter and
D) More than one option is correct inhibitors but mostly promoter
Paragraph 15.4 Plant Growth Paragraph 15.4.2 The Discovery of

Regulation Paragraph 15.4.1 PGR
Characteristics
45. Discovery of how many out of 5 major
37. PGRs are - (Pg. 247, E) PGRs was accidental? (Pg. 247, E)
A) Small, simple, molecules of diverse A) 2 B) 1
chemical composition C) 3 D) 5
B) Large, simple molecules of diverse 46. Match the scientist with the plant they
chemical composition worked on - (Pg. 248, M)
C) Small, complex molecules of diverse Column I Column II
chemical composition a F.W.Went i Canary grass
D) Large, complex molecules of diverse b E. Kurosawa ii Avena(oat)
chemical composition
C Charles & iii Tobacco
38. An example of adenine derivative PGR Francis Darwin
(Pg. 247, E) d F.S koog iv Rice
A) IAA B) Kinetin
C) ABA D) Gibberellic acid A) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
39. Gibberellic acid is - (Pg. 247, E) B) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
A) Indole compound C) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
B) Adenine compound D) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
C) Carotenoid derivative 47. Cousins confirmed the release of a volatile
D) Terpene derivative substance _(i)_, from ripened _(ii)_ that
40. Abscisic acid is - (Pg. 247, E) hastened the ripening of stored unripe
A) Indole compound _(iii)_. (Pg. 247, E)
B) Adenine compound A) (i)-ABA, (ii)-banana, (iii)-orange
C) Carotenoid derivative B) (i)-ABA, (ii)-orange, (iii)-banana
D) Terpene derivative C) (i)-C2H4, (ii)-banana, (iii)-orange
41. Kinetin is - (Pg. 247, E) D) (i)- C2H4, (ii)- orange, (iii)-banana
A) Indole compound 48. Match the PGR with the plants which
B) Adenine compound played role in their discovery -
C) Carotenoid derivative (Pg. 247, M)
D) Terpene derivative Column I Column II
42. A gaseous PGR is (Pg. 247, E) a Auxin i Tobacco
A) ABA B) Ethylene
b Gib berellin ii Rice
C) GA3 D) IAA
43. The PGRs that play important role in plant C Cytokinin iii Orange
responses to wounds are - (Pg. 247, E) d Ethylene iv Avena
A) Auxin B) Cytokinin
C) Gibberellin D) Abscisic acid A) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
44. PGR Ethylene can fit into - (Pg. 247, E) B) a-iv, b-ii, c-i, d-iii
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C) a-i ' b-iii ' c-iv ' d-ii

D) a-ii ' b-iv ' c-iii ' d-i 54. Auxin was first isolated from -(Pg. 248, E)
49. Abscisic acid was independent discovered A) Xylem sap B) Phloem sap
by three different researchers and named C) Human urine D) Root exudates
as- (Pg. 247, E) 55. Synthetic auxins - (Pg. 248, E)
A) Inhibitor-A, abscission-III, dormin A) IAA B) IBA
B) Inhibitor-C, abscission-II, dormane C) NAA D) Both A & C
C) Inhibitor-B, abscission-II, dormin 56. Auxin isolated from plant- (Pg. 248, E)
D) Inhibitor-B, abscission-II, dormane A) NAA B) IAA
50. The term kinetin was given by- C) 2, 4-D D) Both A & B
(Pg. 248, E) 5 7. Auxins are generally produced by-
A) Muller et al B) Kurosawa et al (Pg. 248, E)
C) Cousins et al D) None of these A) Growing apex of root & shoot
51. The foolish seedling disease of rice is B) Epidermal tissue of shoots only
caused by- (Pg. 248, E) C) Xylem secondary cells
A) Nematode B) Bacteria D) Endodermal cells of roots & shoot
C) Fungus D) Virus 58. Assertion: Auxin is used in plant
52. Auxin was isolated by _(i)_ from _(ii)_ propagation widely.
(Pg. 248, E) Reason: Auxin initiate rooting.
(i) (ii) Choose the correct option - (Pg. 248, M)
A Francis Wleoptile of oat A) Both Assertion and Reason are correct,
Darwin seedling
Assertion
B Francis Cleoptile of canary
B) Both Assertion and Reason are correct,
Darwin grass but Reason doesn't explain Assertion
C F.W. Went Cleoptile of oat C) Assertion is correct but Reason is
seedling wrong
D F.W. Went Cleoptile of canary
D) Both Assertion and Reason are
incorrect
grass
59. Auxin promote- (Pg. 248, E)
A) Rooting in stem cutting
53. The figure shows- (Pg. 248, E) B) Flowering in pineapple
C) Bolting in beet
D) Both A & B
60. Statement-I Auxin prevent fruit and leaf
drop at early stage
a b C d
Statement-II Auxin promote abscission of
A) Experiment to show that tip of older mature leaves & fruits
coleoptile produces gibberelin Choose the appropriate option -
B) Experiment to show that tip of (Pg. 248, M)
coleorhiza produces gibberelin A) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II
C) Experiment to show that tip of is incorrect
coleorhiza produces auxin B) Statement-I is incorrect and
D) Experiment to show that tip of Statement-II is correct
coleoptile produces auxin C) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are
correct
Paragraph 15.4.3.1
D) Both Statement-I & Statement-II are
Auxin incorrect
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61. Auxin - (Pg. 248, E) C) Neither promote not delay senescence

A) Promotes apical dominance D) Both promote & delay senescence
B) Prevent apical dominance based on situation
C) Both promote & prevent apical 69. Assertion: Spraying gibberellins on fruits
dominance based on condition extend its market period
D) Can't say Reason: Gibberellins delays senescence
62. In tea plantation and hedge -making Choose the best option - (Pg. 249, M)
(Pg. 248, E) A) Both assertion & reason are correct
A) Lateral buds are removed and reason is correct explanation of
B) Shoot tips are removed assertion
C) Root tips are removed B) Both assertion & reason are correct but
D) None of these reason is not explanation of assertion
63. Auxin - (Pg. 248, E) C) Assertion is correct but reason is wrong
A) Induces parthenocarpy D) Both assertion & reason are in correct
B) Act as herbicide 70. Which of these are correct - (Pg. 249, E)
C) Help in cell division A) ABA shows the malting process in
D) All of these brewing industry
64. 2, 4-D is used to - (Pg. 248, E) B) ABA speeds the malting process in
A) Kill gymnosperms usually brewing industry
B) Kill dicot usually C) GA3 slows the malting process in
C) Kill monocot usually brewing industry
D) Both A & B D) GA3 speeds the malting process in
Paragraph 15.4.3.2 brewing industry
Gibberellins 71. Gibberellins is used to improve yields of -
(Pg. 249, E)
A) Apple B) Grape
65. Gibberellins are (Pg. 249, E)
C) Sugarcane D) All of these
A) Promotory PGR
72. Assertion: Juvenile conifers are sprayed
B) Inhibitory PGR
with GA
C) Neither promotory nor inhibitory PGR
Reason: GA delays senescence and
D) Both promotory and inhibitory PGR
malting period
66. Which of the following statements are
Which of the given options are correct?
incorrect - (Pg. 249, E)
(Pg. 249, E)
A) There are more than 100 gibberellins
A) Both assertion & reason are correct
reported
and reason is correct explanation of
B) GA3 was one of the gibberellins to be
assertion
discovered
B) Both assertion & reason are correct but
C) All GA are basic
reason is not explanation of assertion
D) GAs are also reported in fungi
C) Assertion is correct but reason is wrong
67. Gibberellins is used in grapes for -
D) Both assertion & reason are in correct
(Pg. 249, E)
73. Bolting is - (Pg. 249, E)
A) Increase in length of stalk
A) Yellowing of leaves
B) Increase in girth of stalk
B) Node elongation prior to flowering
C) Decrease in length of stalk
C) Early maturing and seed production
D) Decrease in girth of stalk
D) None of these
68. Gibberellins - (Pg. 249, E)
74. GA promote bolting in - (Pg. 249, E)
A) Promotes senescence
A) Beet
B) Delay senescence
B) Cabbage
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C) Plants with rosetle habit A) ripening fruit

D) All of these B) Tissues undergoing senescence
Paragraph 15.4.3.3 C) Newly developed leaves
Cytokinins D) More than one option is correct
82. Ethylene causes _(i)_ growth of seedling,
swelling of axis and apical hook formation
75. Cytokinins were discovered as - (Pg. 249,
in _(ii)_ seedling (Pg. 250, E)
E)
(i) (ii)
A) Kinin B) Kinetin
C) Kinesin D) Zentin A) Horizontal Monocot
76. Kinetin is a modified form of - (Pg. 249, E) B) Vertical Dicot
A) Purine - guanine C) Horizontal Dicot
B) Pyrimidine - cytosine
C) Purine - adenine D) Vertical Monocot
D) Pyrimidine - thymine
77. Kinetin was discovered from - (Pg. 249, E) 83. Ethylene promotes - (Pg. 250, E)
A) Autoclaved herring egg DNA A) Senescence and abscission of flowers
B) Human urine B) Senescence but not abscission of
C) Corn kernel flowers
D) None of these C) Abscission of flowers but not
78. Read the following statements regarding senescence
cytokinin - (Pg. 249, E) D) Neither senescence nor abscission of
i) Kinetin occurs naturally in plants flowers
ii) Kinetin was discovered from coconut 84. Ethylene in fruits causes - (Pg. 250, E)
milk A) Rise in rate of respiration called
iii) Zeatin does not occur naturally in respiratory anti-climactic
plants B) Rise in rate of respiration called
iv) Zeatin was isolated from human DNA respiratory climactic
How many of the statements are incorrect C) Fall in rate of respiration called
respiratory anti-climactic
A) 1 B) 2 D) Fall in rate of respiration called
C) 3 D) 4 respiratory climactic
79. Natural cytokinin may be synthesized in - 85. Ethylene - (Pg. 250, E)
(Pg. 249, E) A) Promotes seed and bud dormancy
A) Root apex B) Promotes only seed dormancy
B) Developing shoot buds C) Promotes only bud dormancy
C) Young fruits D) None of these
D) More than one option is correct 86. Statement-I Ethylene promotes
80. Cytokinin helps to produce - (Pg. 249, E) internode/petiole elongation in deep water
A) Chloroplast in leaves rice plants
B) Elongation in sugarcane Statement-II ethylene helps upper part of
C) Synchronized fruit set in pineapple shoot to remain above water.
D) Flowering in pineapple Choose the appropriate option -
Paragraph 15.4.3.4 (Pg. 250, E)
Ethylene A) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II
is incorrect
81. Ethylene is synthesized in large amounts B) Statement-I is incorrect and
by - (Pg. 250, E) Statement-II is correct
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BOTANY
C) Statement-I and Statement-II are 92. ABA- (Pg. 250, E)

correct A) Inhibit seed germination
D) Statement-I and Statement-II are B) Promote seed dormancy
incorrect C) Inhibit seed dormancy
87. Ethylene - (Pg. 250, E) D) Both A & B \
A) Promotes root hair formation and 93. ABA is called stress hormone because
increase in absorption surface (Pg. 250, E)
B) Demotes root hair formation and A) It causes stress to plant
increase in absorption surface B) It is released during stress in plant
C) Promotes root hair formation and C) It helps plant to fight stress conditions
decrease in absorption surface D) More than one option is correct
D) Demotes root hair formation and 94. ABA stimulates- (Pg. 251, E)
decrease in absorption surface A) Stomata opening for more CO2
88. Ethylene initiates - (Pg. 250, E) exchange
A) Flowering in pineapple B) Stomata closure to decrease
B) Flowering in mango transpiration
C) Synchronizing fruit-set in pineapple C) Stomata opening to cause
D) All of these transpiration & calling effect
89. Most widely used source of ethylene- D) Both A & C
(Pg. 250, E) 95. In most situation, ABA acts as an
A) Is ethepene antagonist to- (Pg. 251, E)
B) Hasters fruit ripening in tomato and A) Auxin B) GA
apple C) Cytokinin D) Ethylene
C) In aqueous solution is absorbed on the Paragraph 15.5
plant roots Photoperiodism
D) More than one option is correct
90. Ethylene promotes- (Pg. 250, E)
96. Identify the correct labels - (Pg. 251, E)
A) Female flowers in cucumber,
increasing the yield
B) Female flowers in cucumber,
decreasing the yield ,\w1·c Al,01�
C) male flowers in cucumber, increasing �

the yield l>o Flnwrring
Cntiral
photo-
D) male flowers in cucumber, decreasing 1•1uwrnr,g
Cd1ir>tl f'('riod
photo-
the yield prnori
Paragraph 15.4.3.5 lk!ow lklu\\'

Flowrrit1P.
ruin
Abscisic Acid ,·rgrtotirr
� mlllunt
No f1owfring Flowfring
91. ABA is- (Pg. 250, E)

(i) (ii) (iii)
A) Inhibitor of plant growth and
(i) (ii) (iii)
metabolism
B) Inhibitor of plant growth but not A) Long day Day Short
metabolism plant neutral day
C) Inhibitor of plant metabolism but not plant plant
growth
D) Inhibitor of neither plant growth nor
metabolism
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B) Short day Day Long day D) Leaves

plant neutral plant Paragraph 15.6
plant Vernalization
C) Long day Short day Day
plant plant neutral 101. Vernalization is - (Pg. 252, E)
A) Quantitative dependence of flowering
plant
on low temperature
D) Short day Long day Day B) Qualitative dependence offlowering on
plant plant neutral low temperature
plant C) Quantitative dependence of flowering
on high temperature
97. Read the given statements - (Pg. 251, E) D) A and B are correct
Statement-I Some plants require a periodic 102. Vernalization can be seen in -(Pg. 252, E)
exposure to light to include flowering A) Spring varieties ofrice
Statement-II Some plants are able to B) Spring varieties ofwheat
measure the duration ofexposure to light C) Winter varieties ofrice
Choose the correct statements - D) Winter varieties ofwheat
A) Both statements are correct and are 103. Vernalization is also seen in - (Pg. 252, E)
about photoperiodism A) Biennials like - sugarbeet
B) One ofthe statements is correct about B) Biennials like maize
photoperiodism C) Perennials like sugarbeet
C) Both statements are correct and is D) Perennials like maize
about vernalization Paragraph 15.7
D) One of the statements is correct about Seed Dormancy
vernalization 104. Some seeds which do not germinate even
98. For day neutral plants, there is when external conditions are favorable,
(Pg. 252, E) are understood to be going through -
A) No correlation between light duration (Pg. 252, E)
and flowering A) Dormancy controlled by external
B) Direct correlation between light environment
duration and flowering B) Dormancy controlled endogenously
C) Indirect correlation between light C) Dormancy controlled by conditions
duration and flowering within the seed
D) Direct correlation between light D) More than one option is correct
intensity and flowering 105. Chemical inhibitions ofgermination are -
99. In photoperiodism - (Pg. 252, E) (Pg. 252, E)
A) Duration oflight period matters only A) Abscisic acid
B) Duration ofdark period matters only B) Phenolic acid
C) Duration of light and dark period C) Para-ascorbic acid
matters D) All ofthese
D) Duration oflight or dark period doesn't 106. Germination may not occur due to -
matter (Pg. 252, E)
100. Photoperiods are perceived by - i) Hard seed coat
(Pg. 252, E) ii) Immature embryo
A) Shoot apices iii) Chemical inhibitors
B) Flowering apices iv) Harsh environment
C) Nodal buds How many ofabove are correct?
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BOTANY
A) 1 B) 2 D) More than one option is correct

C) 4 D) 3 108. Effects of inhibitory substances on
107. Seed coat dormancy is broken by - dormancy is removed by application of
(Pg. 252, E) certain chemicals are - (Pg. 253, E)
A) Mechanical abrasions A) Auxin B) Gibberellic acid
B) Microbial actions in gut of animals C) Cytokinin D) ABA
C) Certain chemicals
146
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CLASS � XIIth
BOTANY
LINE BY LINE
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ANSWER KEY:
PLANT GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans C D C D A A A B A B
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans D A C D B C B B C B
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans D C C D C A C C A B
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans D B D A A D A B D C
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans B B D C D C D B C D
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans C D D C D B A B D C
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans A B D B A C A B B D
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans C C D D B C D D D A
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans D C A B D C A D A A
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans A D D B B C A A C D
Q 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108
Ans D D A D D C D B
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Sexual reproduction in flowering plant
1. The end products of sexual reproduction is A) Androecium B) Stamen

/ are C) Gynoecium D) Tepals
A) Fruit B) Seeds Page No.-21, Easy
C) Flower D) A & B both 2.2.1 Stamen, Microsporangium &
Page No.-20, Easy Pollen grains
2.1 Flower
6. A typical angiosperm anther is
2. Floriculture deals with - with each lobe having ___ theca i.e.
A) Flower B) Seed culture they are ___
C) Fruit D) Both B & C A) Bilobed, two, dithecous
Page No.-20, Easy B) Dithecous, two, bilobed
3. C) Bilobed , four, dithecous
D) Dithecous, four, bilobed
Page No.-21, Easy
7. Often theca is separated by
(a)
A) Transverse groove
B) Longitudinal groove
C) Diagonal groove
D) All of these
Page No.-21, Easy
8. The dithecous consist of
a b C d microsporangia located at the corners,
A Style Filament Stigma Ovary ___ in each lobe.
B Filament Style Ovary Stigma A) Two, one B) Two, two
C Filament Style Thalamus Anther C) Four, two D) Both A & C
D Style Filament Stigma Ovule Page No.-21, Easy
9. Arrange microsporangial wall in sequence
Page No.-20, Easy of outside to inside
2.2.2 The pistil, Megasporangium A) Epidermis, middle layer, endothecium,
{Ovule) and Embryosac tapetum
B) Epidermis, endothecium, middle layer,
4. Choose incorrect statement - tapetum
A) Several hormonal & structural changes C) Epidermis, middle layer, tapetum,
are initiated which lead to endothecium
redifferentiation and further D) Endothecium, middle layer, tapetum,
development of the floral primordium. epidermis
B) Inflorescences are formed which bear Page No.-21, Easy
the floral buds and then the flower 10. How many of microsporangial wall perform
C) In the flower male and female function of protection and help in
reproductive structures, the dehiscence of anther to release pollen
androecium and the gynoecium A) 1 B) 2
differentiate and develop C) 3 D) 4
D) None of these Page No.-21, Easy
Page No.-20, Easy 11. ___ is responsible for nourishment of
5. Reproductive organ of flower doesnot pollen grain.
comprises- A) Tapetum B) Endothecium
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NCERT LINE BY LINE
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C) Epidermis D) Middle layer 16. Choose correct about pollen grain wall
Page No.-21, Easy i) It has two layered prominent wall
12. Which of the following undergo meiotic ii) Hard outer layered prominent wall
division to form microspore tetrad iii) Exine is composed of sporopollenin
A) Sporogenous tissue iv) Sporopollenin form continuous exine
B) Generative tissue A) i, ii, iii, iv B) i, ii, iii
C) Microspore C) i, iii D) i&iv
D) A&B Page No.-22, Medium
Page No.-21, Easy 17. Sporopollenin is absent in -
13. A) Intine B) Germpore
C) Exine D) A&B both
Page No.-23, Medium
18. Pollen grains are well preserved as fossil
because of
A) Presence of intine
B) Presence of germpore
C) Presence of sporopollenin
D) All of these
a b C d e Page No.-23, Medium
A Tapet Micros endothe epidermi Middl 19. Sporopollenin is degraded by -
um pore cium s e layer A) Engyme
mother
cell B) High temperature
B Tapet Micros epidermi endothe Middl C) Strong acid&alkali
um pore s cium e layer D) None of these
mother Page No.-23, Medium
cell
20. Inner wall of pollen grain is -
C Tapet Middle Microsp endothe epider
um layer ore cium mis A) Intine, made up of cellulose&lignin
mother B) Thin discontinuous intine
cell C) Both A&B
D epider Middle Microsp endothe Tapet D) None of these
mis layer ore cium um
Page No.-23, Medium
mother
cell 21. When pollen grain mature -
A) It consist of two cell that are two male
Page No.-22, Medium gamete only.
14. Microsporogenesis - B) It consist of two cell that are generative
A) Process of formation of microspore &vegetative cell
B) Development of pollen grain from C) It consist of two cell that are two male
pollen mother cell gamete arise from vegetative cell and
C) It involve meiosis one generative cell
D) All of these D) It consist of three cell that are two male
Page No.-22, Easy gamete develop meiotically from
15. Pollen grain represents - generative cell and one vegetative cell
A) Male gametophyte Page No.-23, Easy
B) Male sporophyte 22. Choose incorrect statement among
C) Female gametophyte following:
D) Female sporophyte A) In over 60% of angiosperm, pollen
Page No.-22, Easy grains are shed at 3 - cell stage
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B) In over 60% of angiosperm, pollen A) Multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium

grains are shed at 2 - cell stage of michelia
C) Both A & B B) Multicarpellary synocarpous
D) None of these gynoecium of michelia
Page No.-23, Easy C) Multicarpellary synocarpous
23. Pollen allergy is not correlated with- gynoecium of papaver
A) Cause of parthenium D) Multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium
B) Cause chronic respiratory disorder of papaver
C) Carrot grass that come into india as a Page No.-25, Easy
contaminant with imported rice 28. Which of following serves as a landing
D) None of these platform for pollen grain?
Page No.-24, Easy A) Stigma B) Style
24. Pollen grain of rice is viable upto- C) Anther D) Filament
A) 30 min Page No.-25, Easy
B) Several month 29. Choose correct statement:
C) Same as in sonaceae A) Inside the ovary is the ovarian cavity,
D) Both B & C also known as lodicule
Page No.-24, Easy B) Megasporangia is commonly called
25. Which temperature is correct to store ovules
semen for artificial insemination- C) The placenta is located outside ovarian
A) 196 ° C B) -196° C cavity
q 34° c D) 4° c D) A & C both
Page No.-24, Easy Page No.-25, Easy
2.2 Pre - fertilization : structure & 30. Choose incorrect statement -
events: A) The number of ovules in an ovary is one
in paddy
26. Papaver show- B) The number of ovules in an ovary is
i) Multicarpellary many in papaya
ii) Apocarpous C) The number of ovules in an ovary is one
iii) Syncarpous in orchid
iv) Monocarpellary D) Wheat mango consist of one ovule
A) i, ii B) i, iii Page No.-25, Easy
C) iv, ii D) iv, iii 31. Ovule is attached to placenta by -
Page No.-24, Easy A) Funicle B) Integument
2 7. Given diagram is of - C) Hilum D) Nucellus
Page No.-25, Easy
32. Hilum represents the junction between
A) Ovule & ovary
B) Ovule & funicle
C) Ovule & integument
D) None of these
Page No.-25, Easy
33. Chalaza end represent -
A) Basal part of ovule
B) Apical part of ovule
C) Basal part of ovary
D) Apical part of ovary
151
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Page No.-25, Easy two nuclei which move to the opposite

34. Female gametophyte of angiosperm poles, forming the 2-nucleate embryo
represented by sac
A) Nucellus B) Embryosac B) Two more sequential mitotic nuclear
C) Integument D) Both A & B division in 2-nucleate embryo sac
Page No.-25, Easy result in formation of 4- nucleate
35. An ovile generally has ___ embryo sac C) Mitotic division in embryo sac
formed from a megaspore through ____ formation upto 8-celled is strictly free
division nuclear
A) Single, equational D) All of these
B) Single, reductional Page No.-26, Medium
C) Four, meiotic 41. How many of eight nuclei of typical
D) Four, mitotic embryosac is surrounded by cell wall
Page No.-25, Easy A) 2 B) 4
36. Megasporogenesis is not related to - C) 6 D) 7
A) Formation of megaspore from Page No.-26, Medium
megaspore mother cell 42. Central cell of typical embryosac is
B) MMC undergoes meiotic division for situated -
megaspore A) Below egg apparatus
C) Formation of microspore B) Above egg apparatus
D) Both A & C C) At chalazal end
Page No.-25, Easy D) None of these
37. Ovules generally differentiate a single Page No.-26, Easy
megaspore mother cell in - 43. Choose the correct about egg apparatus of
A) Chalazal end B) Micropylar region typical embryosac
C) Both A & B D) Integument A) Situated at micropylar end
Page No.-25, Easy B) Consist of three cells
38. In a majority of flowering plants C) Both A & B
A) One of the megaspore is functional D) Consist of all cells having special
while other three degenerate cellular thickening at micropylar tip
B) All four megaspore can developes into 44. Typical embryo-sac of angiosperm at
female gametophyte in almost all maturity is -
angiosperm A) 8 celled, 8 nucleate
C) Three megaspore is functional while B) 7 celled, 8 nucleate
other one degenerated C) 8 celled, 7 nucleate
D) Both A & B D) 7 celled, 7 nucleate
39. Monosporic embryo development involve - 45.
A) One functional megaspore
(a)
B) One haploid cell formed in egg
apparatus
C) Four functional megaspore
D) None of these �--t,J:-(b)
(c)
-.....--(d)
Page No.-26, Easy
40. Choose correct statement - (el
�-Ht-:;;,,-
A) The nucleus of the functional ��(f)
megaspore divides mitotically to form Mlcropylar end
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BOTANY
a b C d e f 51. Oxalis produce-

A Antipo Polas Centr Egg Synergi Filiform A) Cleistogamous flowers
dal nude al cell d apparat
i us
B) Chasmogamous flowers
B Antipo Polas Embr Egg Synergi Filiform C) Both (A) and (B)
dal nude yo d apparat D) Can't say
i sac us Page No.-28, Easy
C Antipo Polas Egg Embr Filiform Synergi 52. How many of the given characters are
dal nude yo apparat d
i sac us
necessarily present in cleistogamous
D Antipo Centr Polar Egg Filiform Synergi flower.
dal al nude apparat d (i) Anthex and stigma lie close to each
cell i us other.
(ii) There is synchrony in pollen release
Page No.-26, Easy and stigma receptivity.
(iii) Lengths of anther and stigma are very
2.2.3 Pollination different.
(iv) Flower is necessarily dioecious.
46. Pollination is- (v) Assured seed-set even without
A) transfer of motile pollen to stigma pollinators.
B) transfer of non-motile anther to stigma A) 1 B) 2
C) transfer of motile anther to stigma C) 3 D) 4
D) transfer of non-motile pollen to stigma Page No.-28, Easy
Page No.-27, Easy 53. Geitonogamy is-
4 7. Transfer of pollen from anther to stigma of A) Functionally self-pollination and
same flower is called- genetically cross-pollination
A) Autogamy B) Geitonogany B) Genetically self-pollination and
C) Xenogeny D) None of these functionally cross-pollination
Page No.-27, Easy C) Cross-pollination both genetically and
48. Read the given statements- functionally
(i) Autogamy cannot occur in open flower. D) Self-pollination both genetically and
(ii) Geitonogany cannot occur in closed functionally
flower. Page No.-28, Easy
Choose the appropriate answer- 54. Xenogamy is-
A) (i) is correct but (ii) is wrong A) Functionally self-pollination and
B) (i) is wrong but (ii) is correct genetically cross-pollination
C) (i) and (ii) are both correct B) Genetically self-pollination and
D) (i) and (ii) are both wrong functionally cross-pollination
Page No.-28, Easy C) Cross-pollination both genetically and
49. Complete autogamy is rare in- functionally
A) Closed flower D) Self-pollination both genetically and
B) Open flower functionally
C) Both open and closed flower Page No.-28, Easy
D) Neither open nor closed flower 55. Autogamy is-
Page No.-28, Easy A) Functionally self-pollination and
50. Flowers that do not open at all are called genetically cross-pollination
A) Chasmogamous B) Polygamous B) Genetically self-pollination and
C) Cleistogamous D) Xenogamous functionally cross-pollination
Page No.-28, Easy

BOTANY
C) Cross-pollination both genetically and 61. The tassels in corn cob are-
functionally A) Filaments of anthers
D) Self-pollination both genetically and B) Stigma and style
functionally C) Reduced leaf
Page No.-27, Easy D) Stalk of ovule
56. Genetically different type of pollen is Page No.-28, Easy
brought to stigma by- 62. Match the columns.
A) Atutogamy only Column-I Column-II
B) Geitonogamy only (i) Wind (a) Maize
C) Xenogamy only pollination
D) More than one options (ii) Water (b) Hydrilla
Page No.-28, Easy pollination
(iii) Biotic (c) Monocots
57. (a) Pollination by abiotic agents is a chance
pollination
factor.
(iv) Freshwater (d) Amorphophallus
(b) Pollen is produced in enormous pollination
amount as compared to number of ovules. A) (i)-d, (ii)-b, (iii)-d, (iv)-c
Choose the best answer. B) (i)-c, (ii)-d, (iii)-a, (iv)-b
A) a and b are correct and b is the reason C) (i)-a, (ii)-c, (iii)-d, (iv)-b
for a D) (i)-b, (ii)-a, (iii)-c, (iv)-d
B) a and b are correct and a is the reason Page No.-28, Easy
for b 63. (a) Distribution of some bryophytes &
C) a is incorrect and b is correct pteridophytes is limited.
D) b is incorrect and a is correct
(r) Transport of male gamete in bryophytes
Page No.-28, Easy
& pteridophyte is dependent on water.
58. Which is more common abiotic agent for Choose the correct options.
pollination- A) a and r are correct but r is correct
A) Wind B) Insect explanation for a
C) Water D) Animal B) a and r are correct but r is not correct
Page No.-28, Easy
explanation for a
59. The pollen grains in wind pollinated plants C) Both a and r are incorrect
should be- D) a is correct but r is incorrect
A) Heavy and sticky Page No.-29, Easy
B) Heavy and non-sticky 64. Aquatic plants pollinated by water are
C) Light and sticky given, except-
D) Light and non-sticky A) Zostera
Page No.-28, Easy
B) Hydrilla
60. Wind pollinated flowers often have __ in C) Water hyacinth
each ovary and flowers are after _ _. D) More than one option
(i) (ii)
Page No.-29, Easy
A) Single Single
65. Pollination in water lily occurs by-
B) Multiple Single
A) Water B) Wind
C) Single packed in
inflorescence C) Insects D) Both B and C
D) multiple packed in Page No.-29, Easy
inflorescence 66. Choose the correct statements for
pollination in sea grasses-
Page No.-28, Easy (i) Female flower reach surface of water.
(ii) Female flower remain submerged.
�-------L--___;_---'--------i
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BOTANY
(iii) Pollen released on water surface.

(iv) Pollen release inside water.
(v) Pollen grains are carried passively by
water.
(vi) Pollen grains are carried actively in
water.
(vii) Most of the pollen reach stigma.
(viii) Some of the pollen reach stigma.
A) (i), (iii), (v), (vii) (i)
B) (ii), (iv), (vi), (vii)
C) (ii), (iv), (v), (vii)
(i) (ii)
D) (ii), (iv), (v), (viii)
A) Chasmogamous, Cleistogamous,
Page No.-29, Easy
autogamy allogamy
67. Choose correct statements for pollination B) Chasmogamous, Cleistogamous,
in vallisneria- allogamy autogamy
(i) Female flower reach surface of water. C) Cleistogamous, Chasmogamous,
(ii) Female flower remain submerged. autogamy allogamy
(iii) Pollen released on water surface. D) Cleistogmous, Chasmogamous,
(iv) Pollen release inside water. allogamy autogamy
(v) Pollen grains are carried passively by
water. Page No.-28, Easy
(vi) Pollen grains are carried actively in 71. The figure shows-
water. Female
Dower
(vii) Most of the pollen reach stigma.

(viii) Some of the pollen reach stigma.
A) (i), (iii), (v), (vii)
B) (ii), (iv), (vi), (vii) Male nower
Female
fio-wer
C) (i), (iii), (v), (viii)
D) (ii), (iv) (v), (viii)
Page No.-29, Easy
A) Wind pollination in freshwater
68. Requirement for pollen of water pollinated
Vallisnaria
plants are-
B) Water pollination in marine Hydrilla
(i) Light pollen
C) Water pollination in marine Lostera
(ii) Pollen with mucilagenous cover
D) Water pollination in freshwater
(iii) Non-sticky pollen
Vallineria
(iv) Long ribbon-like pollen
Page No.-29, Easy
A) (i) and (iii) B) (iii) and (iv)
72. Dominant biotic pollinating agents are-
C) (i) and (ii) D) (ii) and (iv)
A) Bees B) Birds
Page No.-29, Easy
C) Butterflies D) Ants
69. Majority of angiosperms use for
Page No.-29, Easy
pollination-
73. How many of the following may act as
A) Wind B) Water
pollinators-?
C) Animals D) Both A and B
Bees, butterflies, wasps, beetles, leopard,
Page No.-28, Easy
bats, pigeon
70. Identify the given labels-
A) 5 B) 4
C) 3 D) 2
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74. Insect-pollinated flowers are- A) Genetic mechanism

A) Large, colourful, rich in nectar B) Positional separation of anther and
B) Large, colourless, rich in nectar stigma
C) Small, clustered, fragrant, sticky C) Prevention for geitonogamy
D) More than one option is correct D) More than one option
75. Floral rewards are- 82. Production of unisexual flowers on a plant
A) Nectar B) Pollen grains assures prevention of-
C) Both B and A D) None of these A) Autogamy only
Page No.-30, Easy B) Autogamy and geitonogamy
76. Floral reward in Amorphophallus is- C) Geitonogamy only
A) Nectar D) Autogamy and Xenogamy
B) Safe place to lay-eggs Page No.-31, Easy
C) Colourful petals 83. Monoecious plants assures-
D) Fragrance to attract insects A) no autogamy
Page No.-31, Easy B) no autogamy and geitonogamy
77. Which of the statements is true about C) no autogamy and xenogamy
(a) Pronuba moth and (b) Yucca plant? D) no geitonogamy and xenogamy
A) (a) is dependent on (b) for life cycle but Page No.-31, Easy
the opposite is not true 84. Dioecious plants assures-
B) (b) is dependent on a for life cycle but A) no autogamy
the opposite is not true B) no autogamy and geitonogamy
C) Both (a) and (b) are interdependent on C) no autogamy and xenogamy
each other for their life cycle D) no geitonogamy and xenogamy
D) Both (a) and (b) are independent of Page No.-31, Easy
each other for life cycle 85. If a wrong pollen (from other species or
Page No.-30, Easy self-incompatible) lands on stigma-
78. Outbreeding devices are used to prevent- A) Pollen germinates but pollen tube
A) Self-fertilization cannot grow in style
B) Cross-pollination B) Pollen germinates, grows in style but
C) Both self and cross pollination cannot enter ovary
D) Xenogamy C) Does not germinate at all
Page No.-31, Easy D) Both A and C
79. Inbreeding depression is a result of- Page No.-31, Easy
A) Self-fertilization followed by cross 86. When pollen grain germinates and
fertilization produce pollen tubes
B) Cross-fertilization followed by self- A) Content of pollen grain is distributed
fertilization uniformly
C) Continued cross-fertilization B) Content of pollen grain move into
D) Continued self-fertilization pollen tube
Page No.-31, Easy C) Content of pollen grain is distributed
80. Self-pollination can be prevented by non-uniform, more in pollen grain
separation of anther and stigma in- D) Content of pollen grain is distributed
A) time (maturity) B) place (position) non-uniformly, more in pollen tube
C) none of these D) both of these Page No.-31, Easy
Page No.-31, Easy 87. Filiform apparatus is present at
81. Self-incompatibility is not- A) Micropylar part of synergid
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B) Chalazal part of synergid A) One male gamete fuses with nucleus of

C) Micropylar part of antipodal egg cell
D) Chalazal part of antipodal B) Syngamy results into dyad of cells
Page No.-32, Easy C) Second male gamete move toward polar
88. Emasculation is done in- nuclei
A) Male parent D) Triple fusion results into PEN
B) Female parent Page No.-34, Easy
C) Both male and female parent 94. Triple fusion is-
D) Depends on the project A) Fusion of third male gamete with polar
Page No.-33, Easy nuclei
89. The emasculated flowers are bagged to- B) Fusion of three haploid cells
A) Protect flower from strong sunlight C) Fusion of second male gamete with egg
B) Protect flower from rain cell
C) Protect flower from unwanted pollen D) Fusion of three haploid nuclei
D) Protect flower from insects Page No.-34, Easy
Page No.-33, Easy 9 5. Which of these is correct?
90. If female parent produces unisexual A) Syngamy = Triple fusion + Double
flowers, there is- fertilization
A) no need of emasculation & bagging B) Double fertilization = Syngamy + Triple
B) need of emasculation & bagging fusion
C) no need of emasculation but bagging is C) Triple fusion = Double fertilization -
needed Syngamy
D) no need of bagging but emasculation is D) More than one option is correct
needed Page No.-34, Easy
Page No.-33, Easy 96. Central cell after double fertilization
91. Identify the filiform apparatus in given becomes-
figure- A) Zygote B) PEN
II- C) PEC D) Embryo
,-::=:,,.-y"]!'
:IV Page No.-34, Easy
III 97. Identify the correct labels.
ILJIJ�1/-",/--I
A) I B) II
C) III D) IV
Page No.-32, Easy
2.3 Double Fertilization
92. Pollen tube release male gametes into- (iii)

A) Cytoplasm of Egg cell
B) Nucleus of Egg cell (i) (ii) (iii)
C) Cytoplasm of Synergids A) Zygote PEN Degenerating
D) Cytoplasm of Antipodals antipodals
Page No.-34, Easy B) Zygote PEC Degenerating
93. Which of the following is incorrect about antipodals
double fertilization? C) Zygote PEN Degenerating
synergids
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D) Zygote PEC Dengenerating (ii) zygote formation

synergids (iii) embryo development
Page No.-34, Easy (iv) seed formation
98. Identify the correct labels. (v) fruit formation
r· iii) A) 5 B) 4
fj) l C) 3 D) 2
Page No.-34, Easy
2.4.1 Endosperm
(iv) 101. Select correct statement-
(ii)
A) Endosperm development proceeds
(i) embryosac development
B) Endosperm development precedes
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) embryo development
A Globula Heart- Suspe Cotyled C) Embryo development precedes
r shaped nsor on endosperm development
embryo embryo
B Heart- Globula Cotyle Suspen
shaped r don sor
Page No.-35, Easy
embryo embryo 102. Endosperm tissue is-
C Globula Heart- Cotyle Suspen A) Haploid B) Diploid
r shaped don sor C) Triploid D) Tetraploid
embryo embryo Page No.-35, Easy
D Heart- Globula Suspe Cotyled 103. In free-nuclear endosperm-
Shaped r nsor on A) PEN undergoes successive nuclear
embyro embryo divisions
B) PEC undergoes successive cellular
Page No.-34, Easy divisions
99. The figure shows stages in- C) PEN undergoes successive cellular
divisions
Page No.-35, Easy
104. Cells of endosperm tissue are filled with-
A) reserve food materials for plant cells
B) reserve food material for embryo
C) reserve food material for developing
zygote
D) more than one option is correct
A) Embryo development in dicot
Page No.-35, Easy
B) Embryo development in monocot
105. Coconut water from tender coconut is
C) Embryo development in gymnosperm
and white kernel is
D) Both A and B
(i) (ii)
Page No.-34, Easy
A) Cellular Free-nuclear
2.4 Post Fertilization Structure endosperm endosperm
and Events B) Free nuclear Cytoplasmic
endosperm endosperm
100. Post fertilization includes how many of C) Free-nuclear Cellular endosperm
endosperm
the following events-
(i) endosperm development
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D) Cytoplasmic Cellular endosperm Page No.-35, Easy

endosperm 112. Hypocotyl terminates in-
A) Plumule
Page No.-35, Easy B) Radicle
106. Endosperm is completely consumed by C) Root tip
developing embryo before seed maturation D) More than one option is correct
in- Page No.-35, Easy
A) Groundnut B) Castor 113. (i) In dicot embryo, root tip is covered by
C) Coconut D) All of these root cap.
Page No.-35, Easy (ii) In dicot embryo, scutellum is situated
107. Endosperm persists in mature seeds in- towards one side of embryonal axis.
A) Castor (iii) Cylindrical portion below the level of
B) Pea cotyledons is hypocotyl in dicots embryo.
C) Beans (iv) In dicot embryo, epicotyl terminates
D) More than one option is correct with stem tip.
Page No.-35, Easy How many of the above statements is
2.4.2 Embryo incorrect?
A) Zero B) One
108. Embryo develops at C) Two D) Three
A) micropylar end Page No.-35, Easy
B) chalazal end 114. In grass family, the scutellum is-
C) either micropylar or chalazal end A) Cotyledon B) Root tip
D) neither microplar nor chalazal end C) Epiblast D) Shot tip
109. Choose the correct order of embryo 115. Identify the given figures-
development in dicots-
(i) Zygote
(ii) Heart-shaped embryo
(iii) Mature embryo
(iv) Proemb ryo
(v) Globular embryo
A) i-iv-ii-v-ii B) i-iv-ii-v-iii
C) i-iv-iii-ii-v D) ii-iv-v-ii-iii
Page No.-35, Easy
110. How many of the given parts are present in (i)
dicot embryo-
Embryonal axis, Cotyledons, Scutellum,
Hypocotyl, Root cap
A) 5 B) 4
C) 3 D) 2
Page No.-35, Easy
111. How many of the given parts are present in
monocot embryo-
Cotyledon, scutellum, Coleoptile, Radicle,
Root cap
A) 5 B) 4
C) 3 D) 2
(ii)
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A) (i) is embryo of grass A) hollow structure

B) (ii) is embryo of dicots B) foliar structure
C) (ii) is embryo of monocot C) undifferentiated sheath
D) More than one option is correct D) more than one option is correct
116. Identify the correct labels- 2.4.3 Seed
120. Read the following statements-
(i) Seed is final product of sexual
reproduction is plant.
(ii) Seed is fertilized ovule.
(iii) Seed is formed inside fruit.
(iv) Seed consists of seed coat(s),
cotyledon(s) and embryo axis.
How many of the statements is incorrect?
A) Zero B) One
C) Two D) Three
(i) (ii) (iii) Page No.-36, Easy
A) Cotyledon Plumule Hypocotyl 121. Non-albuminous seeds-
B) Radicle Cotyledon Plumule
A) have residual endosperm
C) Hypocotyl Plumule Cotyledon
B) retain a part of endosperm
D) Cotyledon Plumule Epicotyl
C) is found in castor
Page No.-35, Easy
D) None of these
11 7. Identify the correct labels
Page No.-36, Easy
(ii)
122. Groundnut is-
A) Albuminous
(iv) B) Non-albuminous
(i)
C) Has residual endosperm in mature
seed
(iii) Page No.-36, Easy
123. Perisperm is-
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) A) Persistent nucleus
A Epiblast Scutellum Coleoptile Root cap
B) Found in beet
B Scutellum Epiblast Shoot apex Radicle
C) Residual endosperm
C Epiblast Scutellum Root cap Shoot
D) More than one option
apex
D Scutellum Epiblast Radicle Coleoptile Page No.-36, Easy
124. Integument of ovules mature into-
Page No.-35, Easy A) Ovary wall B) Pericarp
118. Coleoptile is- C) Seed coat D) Perisperm
A) hollow structure Pag Micropyle is- No.-36, Easy
B) solid structure 125. Micropyle is-
C) sometimes hollow and sometimes solid A) Absent in seed
structure B) Present inside seed
D) semi-solid C) Present on surface of seed
Page No.-35, Easy D) Present on seed coat
119. Coleorhiza is- Page No.-36, Easy
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126. Micropyle plays role of- C) Induced by application of growth

A) Stalk for seed harmones
B) Scar of stalk D) Such fruits are seed less
C) Facilitating entry of water into seed Page No.-36, Easy
D) Facilitating escape of seed metabolites 133. Identify the endosperm in the given figure
Page No.-36, Easy
127. Mature seed has-
A) More water content and more (i)
metabolism (ii)--\¥
B) Less water content and more (iii)
metabolism
C) Less water content and less
metabolism A) I B) II
D) More water content and more C) III D) IV
metabolism Page No.-37, Easy
Page No.-36, Easy 134. Identify cotyledon in the given fi gure of
128. The embryo in a mature seed- seed
A) Germinates essentially
B) May enter dormancy
C) Always enters dormancy first, followed
by germination
D) Both B and C (iii)
Page No.-36, Easy
129. Choose the correct match regarding the (iv)
maturing of flower into fruit-
A) Wall of ovule - pericarp A) I B) II
B) Nucellus - periderm C) III D) IV
C) Ovary - seed Page No.-37, Medium
D) None of these 135. Identify scutellum in the given figu re -
Page No.-36, Easy
130. Fleshy fruit is
A) Mustard B) Groundnut
C) Guava D) More than one
Page No.-36, Easy (ii)
131. In false fruits, select incorrect statement
A) Floral parts other than ovary are (iv) (iii)
involved
B) Thalamus may contribute to fruit
formation
C) Examples include apple, cashew, A) I B) II
groundnut C) III D) IV
D) Fruit does not develop from ovary Page No.-37, Medium
Page No.-36, Easy 136. The given figure shows -
132. Which of these is incorrect about
parthenocarpy-
A) Plant formed without fertilization
B) Banana is example
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B) Seed without fertilization

C) Plant without fertilization
Page No.-38, Easy
142. Apomixis is-
A) A form of sexual reproduction that
A) Eucarp of apple and lithi
mimics asexual reproduction
B) Pseudocarp of apple litchi
B) A form of asexual reproduction that
C) Eucarp of apple and strawberry
mimics sexual reproduction
D) Pseudocarp of apple and strawberry
C) Both of the above
Page No.-37, Medium
D) None of these
137. In angiosperm, pollination and fertilization
Page No.-38, Easy
are-
143. Apomixis is found in-
A) Both independent of water
A) Solanaceae B) Liliaceae
B) Both dependent of water
C) Asteraceae D) Brassicaceae
C) Only pollination is essentially on water
Page No.-38, Easy
D) Only fertilization is dependent on water
144. Mango contains-
Page No.-37, Medium
A) Multiple ovaries in a flower
138. For storage of seeds-
B) Multiple ovules in an ovary
A) Dehydration is important
C) Multiple embryo in an ovule
B) Dormancy is important
C) Neither dehydration nor dormancy is
Page No.-38, Easy
needed
145. What is the major constraint associated
D) Both dehydration and dormancy are
with hybrides?
crucial
A) Hybrides are not accepted by farmers
Page No.-37, Easy
B) Hybrides are costly
139. The oldest yet viable seed found is-
C) Hybrid seeds have to be produced every
A) Lupinus from arctic tundra
year and the seeds from hybrid cannot
B) Phoenix from arctic tundra
be sown
C) Lupinus from king herod's palace
D) Phoenix from king herod's palace
Page No.-38, Easy
Page No.-37, Easy
146. What is the problem with sowing seeds
140. Phoenix dactylifera is commonly known as
from hybrid plant?
A) Seeds will not germinate (low
A) Fig B) Coconut
germination rate)
C) Cashew D) None of these
B) Progeny will be unhealthy
Page No.-37, Easy
C) Hybrid characters will be lost due to
2.5 Apomixis and Polyenbryony segregation
D) All of these
141. Apomixis is-
A) Fruit without fertilization Page No.-38, Easy
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Answer Key
SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANT
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans D A B A D A B C B C
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans A A B D A B D C D D
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans B A C A B B A A B C
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans A B A B B C B A A D
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans C A C B A D A A B C
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans C C B C D C B A D C
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans B C A C D D D C C C
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans D A A D C B C A D D
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans B A A B D B A B C C
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans A C B D D C B A A B
Q 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans B C A D C A A A D B
Q 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans B D B A C C C A C A
Q 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Ans D B B C D C C B D C
Q 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans A A B A D D A D A D
Q 141 142 143 144 145 146
Ans B B C C D C
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Mendel's Laws of Inheritance
Column-I Column II
1. Genetics is the subject that deals with (Pg. (A) Genetics (1) Process of
69, E) passing
characters from
A) inheritance parent to
B) variation of characteristics offsoring
C) reproduction (B) Inheritance (2) Laws of
D) both (a) and (b) inheritance
(C) Variation (3) A branch of
2. The basis of heredity is (Pg. 69, E) Biologv
A) variation B) inheritance (D) Mendel (4) Degree of
C) mutation D) linkage difference of
3. Humans knew from as early as 8000-1000 progeny from
their parents
BC that one of the causes of variation was
hidden in (Pg. 69, E) Codes-
A) sexual reproduction A B C D
B) asexual reproduction A) 1 4 2 3
C) vegetative propagation B) 4 2 3 1
D) none of these C) 3 1 4 2
4. Choose the incorrect statement from the D) 2 3 1 4
following. (Pg. 69, M)

8. Mendel investigated characters in the
A) Humans knew from very early that
garden pea plant that were manifested as
sexual reproduction is one of the
two (Pg. 70, E)
causes of variation.
A) linked traits B) opposing traits
B) They exploited the variation to obtain
C) similar traits D) none of these
plants and animals of desirable
9. How many pairs of contrasting characters
characters through selective breeding.
in pea plants were studied by Mendel in
C) Sahiwal cows were obtained through
his experiments? (Pg. 70, E)
artificial selection and domestication
A) Six B) Eight
from ancestral wild cows.
C) Seven D) Four
D) Our ancestors were very well aware
10. Which contrasting trait was not studied by
about the scientific basis of inheritance
Mendel during his experiments? (Pg. 70,
of characters and variation.
E)
5. Which one from the following is the period
A) Seed colour B) Leaf colour
for Mendel's hybridization experiments?
C) Flower colour D) Stem height
(Pg. 70, E)
11. Among the following, which one is not a
A) 1840-1850 B) 1857-1869
dominating trait? (Pg. 70, E)
C) 1870-1877 D) 1856-1863
A) Axial position of flower
6. Who proposed the 'Laws of Inheritance' in
B) Green colour of pod
living organisms? (Pg. 70, E)
C) Violet colour of flower
A) Mendel B) Morgan
D) Green colour of seed
C) de Vries D) Correns
12. A true-breeding line is one that (Pg. 70, E)
7. Match Column-I with Column-II and
A) has undergone continuous self
choose the correct answer from the codes
pollination
given below. (Pg. 70, M)
B) shows stable trait inheritance
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BOTANY
C) shows expressions of trait for several (II) Mendel investigated characters in the
generations garden pea plant that were
D) all of these manifested as two opposing traits.
13. Match Column-I with Column-II and (III) Mendel conducted artificial
choose the correct option from the codes pollination experiments using several
given below. (Pg. 70, M) true-breeding pea lines.
Column-I Column-II (IV) Mendel selected eight true-breeding
(A) Axial flower (1) Undergone pea plant varieties as pairs.
continuous
self-
A) I and II B) III and IV
pollination C) I, II and III D) All of these
(B) Terminal (2) Father of 17. The contrasting trait(s) selected by Mendel
flower genetics was/were (Pg. 70, E)
(C) Mendel (3) Dominant A) smooth or wrinkled seed
trait
(D) True-breeding (4) Recessive trait B) yellow or green seed
line C) smooth or inflated pods
D) all of these
Codes- 18. Assertion: Mendel conducted
A B C D hybridization experiments on garden pea
A) 3 4 2 1 plant.
B) 4 3 1 2
1 2 4 3
Reason: He proposed laws of inheritance
C)
D) 2 1 3 4 in living organisms. (Pg. 70, M)
A) Both assertion and reason are true and
14. Refer to the given figures (A-D) showing reason is the correct explanation of
traits of pea plant studied by Mendel. assertion.
B) Both assertion and reason are true but
I
Among these, choose the dominant trait.
(Pg. 70, M) reason is not correct explanation of
assertion.
C) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
17
r;/J-V;olet
@ D) Both assertion and reason are false.
19. Assertion: Mendel used contrasting traits
A B C D for his studies.
A) B B) A Reason: He used Ocimum plant for his
C) D D) C experiments. (Pg. 70, M)
15. Which technique was used by Mendel A) Both assertion and reason are true and
during his experiments on pea plant? (Pg. reason is the correct explanation of
70, E) assertion.
A) Artificial pollination B) Both assertion and reason are true but
B) Cross pollination reason is not correct explanation of
C) Self-pollination assertion.
D) All of these C) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
16. Choose the correct statement(s) from the D) Both assertion and reason are false.
following. (Pg. 70, M) 20. Assertion: Mendel used true-breeding pea
(I) During Mendel's investigation, lines for his experiments.
statistical analysis and mathematical Reason: A true-breeding line is one that
logic were applied to problems in has undergone continuous self
Biology. pollination. (Pg. 70, M)
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A) Both assertion and reason are true and C) Dwarf

reason is the correct explanation of D) None of these
assertion. 28. In homozygous condition, a particular
B) Both assertion and reason are true but gene has (Pg. 72, E)
reason is not correct explanation of A) different alleles on homologous
assertion. chromosomes.
C) Assertion is true, but reason is false. B) no alleles on homologous
D) Both assertion and reason are false. chromosomes.
Inheritance of one Gene C) same alleles on homologous
chromosomes.
21. The first hybrid generation of Mendel's D) none of these
experiment is known as (Pg. 71, E) 29. Tall and dwarf are the two alleles of gene
A) Filiali progeny of height. The dominant trait is (Pg. 72, E)
B) F 1-generation A) dwarf
C) Father generation B) tall
D) Both (A) and (B) C) both are equally dominant
22. When Mendel crossed true-breeding tall D) both are recessive
and dwarf plants, in Fi-generation all tall 30. Match Column-I with Column-II and
plants were obtained. On self-crossing in choose the correct option from the codes
the F2 generation, he obtained (Pg. 71, E) given below. (Pg. 72, M)
A) 1/4th dwarf and 3/4th tall plants Column-I Column-II
B) 3/4th dwarf and 1/4th tall plants (A) Genes (1) Slightly
C) 2/4th dwarf and 2/4th tall plants different forms
of the same
D) All dwarf plants gene
23. During the study of inheritance of one (B) Alleles (2) Genetic
character in F2 generation, Mendel composition of
obtained phenotype in(Pg. 71, E) an organism
A) 2 : 1 ratio B) 3 : 1 ratio
(C) Genotype (3) Physical
appearance of
C) 1 : 2 : 1 ratio D 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 ratio an organism
24. The 'factors' of Mendel are today known as (D) Phenotype (4) Unit of
(Pg. 71, E) inheritance
A) genome B) gene
Codes-
C) DNA D) allele
A B C D
25. The slightly different forms of the same A) 4 1 2 3
genes are called (Pg. 71, E) B) 1 4 3 2
A) genome B) DNA C) 3 2 4 1
C) allele D) cistron D) 2 3 1 4
26. Alleles are (Pg. 72, E)
A) true-breeding homozygotes 31. A cross that is performed for the study of
B) different molecular forms of a gene a single character is (Pg. 72, E)
C) heterozygotes A) dihybrid cross
D) different phenotype B) test cross
27. What would be the phenotype of a plant C) monohybrid cross
that had a genotype 'Tt'? Here 'T' D) back cross
represent tall trait while 't' represents 32. The given figure is the diagrammatic
dwarf trait. (Pg. 72, E) representation of a monohybrid cross. In
A) Tall the figure, some plants are mentioned as A
B) Intermediate height
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and B. What will be the genotype of these B) Punnett square was developed by a
plants? (Pg. 72, E) British scientist.
C) Spliceosomes take part in translation.
D) Transduction was discovered by S
Parental Altman.
X 36. In the test cross, organism whose genotype
Tall Dwarf (Al is to be determined, is crossed with the
(Pg. 74, E)
A) recessive parent
B) dominant parent
C) both parents one by one
F1 generation
D) none of these
37. On crossing two tall plants, in Fl
Tall
generation few dwarf offspring were
!
obtained. What would be the genotype of
the both the parent? (Pg. 74, E)
A) TI and Tt B) Tt and Tt
C) TI and TI D) TI and tt
F,geoecaUoo 38. Based on his observations of monohybrid
Tall Tall Tall Dwarf cross, Mendel proposed which law of
A) A - tt, B - Tt inheritance? (Pg. 74, E)
B) A - Tt, B - tt A) Law of dominance
C) A - TI, B - TI B) Law of segregation
D) A - Tt, B - Tt C) Law of independent assortment
33. Choose the incorrect statement about D) Both (A) and (B)
Mendel's monohybrid cross. (Pg. 73, E) 39. According to Mendel, characters are
A) The recessive parental trait is controlled by discrete units called
expressed without any blending in F2 (Pg. 74, E)
generation. A) genes B) factors
B) The alleles of parental pair segregate C) alleles D) allelomorph
from each other and both alleles are 40. Choose the incorrect statement about law
transmitted to a gamete. of dominance. (Pg. 74, E)
C) The segregation of alleles is a random A) It is used to explain the expression of
process. only one of the parental characters in a
D) There is a 50% chance of a gamete monohybrid cross in Fi-generation.
containing either allele. B) It does not explain the expression of
34. The production of gametes by the parents both parental characters in F2-
the formation of zygotes, the Fl and F2 generation.
plants, can be understood by using (Pg. C) It also explains the proportion of 3: 1
73, E) obtained in F2-generation.
A) Wenn diagram D) It states that characters are controlled
B) Pie diagram by discrete units called factors.
C) A pyramid diagram 41. Match Column-I with Column-II and
D) Punnett square choose the correct option from the codes
35. Select the correct statement. (Pg. 73, E) given below. (Pg. 73, M)
A) Franklin Stahl coined the term Column-I Column-II
(A) I (1) I
First law of Law of
'linkage'. inheritance segregation
167
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(B) Second law of (2) 3: 1 remains in between the two. It can be

inheritance explained by (Pg. 75, E)
(C) Monohybrid (3) Law of
cross dominance A) Law of dominance
(D) Test cross (4) 1: 1 B) Law of segregation
Codes- C) Law of incomplete dominance
A B C D D) None of these
A) 3 1 2 4 46. The genotypic ratio obtained in incomplete
Bl 1 3 4 2 dominance is (Pg. 76, E)
C) 2 3 1 4
D) 4 2 3 1 A) 3 : 1 B) 1 : 1 : 2
C) 2 : 1 : 1 D) 1 : 2 : 1
42. The second law of inheritance, i.e., law of 47. In case of co-dominance, the Fl progeny
segregation is based on the fact that (Pg. (Pg. 77, E)
74, E) A) resembles either of the two parents
A) alleles do not show any blending. B) is in between of parents
B) both characters are recovered as such C) resembles both the parents
in F2 generation. D) none of these
C) one allele dominates the other allele. 48. A person of AB blood group has IA and Is
D) Both (A) and (B) genes. It is an example of (Pg. 77, E)
43. The factor controlling any character is A) pleiotropy B) segregation
discrete and independent. It was C) co-dominance D) None of these
concluded on the basis of (Pg. 75, E) 49. In a marriage between male with blood
A) results of F3-generation of a cross. group A and female with blood group B,
B) observations of a cross made between the progeny had either blood group AB or
the plants having two contrasting traits B. What could be the possible genotype of
where offspring shows only one trait parents? (Pg. 77, E)
without any blending. A) IAi (Male); IBi (Female)
C) self-pollination of Fl-offspring. B) IAi (Male); IBIB (Female)
D) cross pollination of parental C) IAIA (Male); IBIB (Female)
generations. D) IAIA (Male); IBi (Female)
44. In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), a red flower 50. A person has 'O' blood group. His mother
was crossed with a white flower and in Fl has 'A' while father has 'B' blood group.
generation, pink flowers were obtained. What would be the genotype of mother and
When pink flowers were selfed, the F2 father? (Pg. 77, E)
generation showed white, red and pink A) Mother is homozygous for 'A' blood
flowers. Choose the incorrect statement group and father is heterozygous for 'B'
from the following. (Pg. 75, E) blood group.
A) The experiment does not follow the B) Mother is heterozygous for 'A' blood
principle of dominance. group and father is homozygous for 'B'
B) Pink colour in Fl is due to incomplete blood group.
dominance. C) Both mother and father are
C) Ratio of F2 is ¼ (Red): 2 / 4 (Pink): ¼ homozygous for 'A' and 'B' blood groups
(white). respectively.
D) Law of segregation does not apply in D) Both mother and father are
this experiment. heterozygous for 'A' and 'B' blood
45. It was being observed that sometimes, the groups respectively.
F1 shows a phenotype that does not 51. Which of the following characteristics
resemble either of the two parents and represent 'inheritance of blood groups' in
humans? (Pg. 77, E)
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(I) Dominance 1 4 3 2
3 2 4 1
2 3 4
(II) Co-dominance
1
(III) Multiple dominance
(IV) Incomplete dominance
56. ABO blood grouping is a good example of
(V) Polygenic inheritance
(Pg. 77, E)
A) II, III and V B) I, II and III
A) incomplete dominance
C) II, IV and V D) I, III and V
B) mutation
52. A man with blood group 'A' marries a
C) multiple alleles
woman with blood 'B'. What are all
D) pleiotropy
possible blood groups of their offsprings?
57. Sometimes a single gene product may
(Pg. 77, E)
produce more than one effect. This
A) A, B and AB only
phenomenon is known as (Pg. 77, E)
B) A, B, AB and 0
A) mosaicism B) pleiotropy
C) 0 only
C) multiple allelism D) polygeny
D) A and B only
58. Starch synthesis in pea seeds is an
53. The genotypes of a husband and wife are
example of (Pg. 77, E)
IAfo and IAi. Among the blood types of their
A) multiple allelism
children, how many different genotypes
B) incomplete dominance
and phenotypes are possible? (Pg. 77, E)
C) co-dominance
A) 3 genotypes: 4 phenotypes
D) pleiotropy
B) 4 genotypes: 3 phenotypes
59. Pea seeds having Bb genotype produce
C) 4 genotypes: 4 phenotypes
starch grains of (Pg. 78, E)
D) 3 genotypes: 3 phenotypes
A) large size
54. Multi alleles are present (Pg. 77, E)
B) small size
A) at different loci on the same
C) intermediate size
chromosome
D) they do not produce starch.
B) at the same locus of the chromosome
60. Choose the incorrect statement from the
C) on non-sister chromatids
following about pleiotropy. (Pg. 78, E)
D) on different chromosome
A) In pleiotropy, a single gene produces
more than one effect.
choose the correct answer from the codes
B) Starch synthesis in pea seeds is
given below. (Pg. 74-78, M)
controlled by one gene.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Dominance (1) ABO blood C) Pea seeds having BB genotypes,
group produce small starch grains.
(B) Co- (2) Appearance of D) bb homozygotes of pea produce
dominance pink flowers in wrinkled seeds.
snapdragon in
F 1 generation 61. Assertion: The law of dominance is used to
(C) Incomplete (3) Starch explain the expression of only one of the
dominance synthesis in parental characters in a monohybrid
pea seeds cross.
(D) Pleiotropy (4 ) Appearance of
violet flowers Reason: It also explains the proportion of
in Fl 3: 1 obtained at F2 generation. (Pg. 78, H)
generation in A) Both assertion and reason are true and
garden pea reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
Codes-
I I
A)
A
4 I B
1 I C
2 I D
3 I 169
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B) Both assertion and reason are true but 67. The ratio 9: 3: 3: 1 of a dihybrid cross
reason is not correct explanation of denotes that (Pg. 79, E)
assertion. A) it is a multigenic inheritance.
C) Assertion is true, but reason is false. B) the alleles of two genes are interacting
D) Both assertion and reason are false. with each other.
62. Assertion: The pink flower of dog plant C) it is a case of multiple allelism.
show incomplete dominance. D) the alleles of two genes are segregating
Reason: In pink flowers, both alleles are independently.
expressed equally. (Pg. 78, E) 68. The numbers of phenotypes and genotypes
A) Both assertion and reason are true and in F2 generation of a Mendelian dihybrid
reason is the correct explanation of cross are (Pg. 79, E)
assertion. A) phenotypes 4: genotypes 16
B) Both assertion and reason are true but B) phenotypes 4: genotypes 8
reason is not correct explanation of C) phenotypes 9: genotypes 4
assertion. D) phenotypes 4: genotypes 9
C) Assertion is true, but reason is false. 69. Mendel's law of independent assortment is
D) Both assertion and reason are false. true for the genes situated on the (Pg. 79,
63. Assertion: A person having IAls genotype E)
has AB blood group. A) same chromosome
Reason: IA and IB alleles are co-dominant B) non-homologous chromosomes
(Pg. 78, E) C) homologous chromosomes
A) Both assertion and reason are true and D) extra nuclear genetic element
reason is the correct explanation of 70. Genes A and B are linked. The F1
assertion. heterozygote of a dihybrid cross involving
B) Both assertion and reason are true but these genes is crossed with homozygous
reason is not correct explanation of recessive parental type (aabb). What would
assertion. be the ratio of offspring in the next
C) Assertion is true, but reason is false. generation? (Pg. 80, E)
D) Both assertion and reason are false. A) 1: 1 B) 1: 1: 1: 1
Inheritance of two Genes C) 9: 3: 3: 1 D) 3: 1
71. Mendel's work remained unrecognized for
64. Crosses that are performed to study two many years. Find out the true reason for
contrasting characters at a time are called the same. (Pg. 81, H)
(Pg. 78, E) (I) Mendel's concept of genes was not
A) monohybrid cross accepted by his contemporaries as an
B) dihybrid cross explanation for the continuous
C) test cross variation seen in nature.
D) back cross (II) The approach of using mathematics
65. The phenotypic ratio obtained by Mendel was new and unacceptable by other
in his dihybrid cross was (Pg. 79, E) biologists.
A) 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 B) 3 : 2 : 2 : 1 (III) He could not provide any physical
C) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 D) 2 : 3 : 1 : 2 proof for the existence of factors. (IV)
66. The third law of inheritance proposed by Communication was not easy in those
Mendel is (Pg. 79, E) days and his work could not be widely
A) Law of dominance published.
B) Law of independent assortment A) I and II
C) Law of incomplete dominance B) II and III
D) Law of segregation C) III and IV
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D) All of these 2 3 1 4
72. Mendel's results on the inheritance of 4 2 3 1
characters were rediscovered by: (Pg. 81,
E) 77. Morgan performed his experiments on(Pg.
A) de Vries B) Correns 83, E)
C) von Tschermak D) all of these A) Garden pea B) Drosophila
73. Among the following, who noted that the C) Snapdragon D) None of these
behaviour of chromosomes was parallel to 78. When two genes are located on the same
the behavior of genes? chromosome, the proportion of parental
A) Walter Sutton B) Theodore Boveri gene combination is (Pg. 83, E)
C) Von Tschermak D) Both (A) and (B) A) higher than non-parental
74. Refer to the given figure showing meiosis B) lower than non-parental
and germ cell formation in a cell with four C) equal to non-parental
chromosomes. Which law of Mendel can be D) None of these
effectively explained by this figure? (Pg. 79. Genes which are present on the same
81, M) chromosome (Pg. 83, E)
G, G2 Meiosis I Meiosis II Germ cells
A) do not form any linkage group.
��1:::1
anap hase anaphase B) affect the phenotype by forming
interactive groups.
C) form a linkage group.
��L'.!J1�1[
� I ooJ
A) Law of dominance
m]
D) form different groups depending upon
their relative distance.
80. The term used to describe the generation
of nonparental gene combination is (Pg.
B) Law of segregation 83, E)
C) Law of independent assortment A) linkage B) recombination
D) All of these C) mutation D) none of these
75. The chromosomal theory of inheritance 81. Which type of relationship is found
was proposed by (Pg. 83, E) between the distance of genes and
A) Sutton B) Boveri percentage of recombination? (Pg. 83, E)
C) Morgan D) Both (A) and (B) B) Parallel
A) Inverse
76. Match Column-I with Column-II and C) Direct D) None of these
choose the correct option from the codes 82. Among the following which will not cause
given below. (Pg. 83, M) variations among siblings? (Pg. 83, H)
Column-I Column-II
(1)
A) Linkage
(A) Mendel Rediscovery of
Mendel's law B) Independent assortment of genes
(B) Correns, (2) Worked on C) Crossing over
Tschermak Drosophila D) Mutation
and Vries melanogaster
(3)
(C ) Sutton and Law of
Boveri independent choose the correct answer from the codes
assortment given below. (Pg. 83, H)
(D) T. H. Morgan ( 4) Chromosomal Column-I Column-II
theory of (A) Linkage ( 1) Non-parallel
inheritance gene
combination
I �l I
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Codes- (B) Recombination (2) Genetic mao
A B C D (C ) Sturtevant (3) Unit of
3 1 4 2 distance
1 4 3 2 between
genes
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(D) Centimorgan (4) Physical A) Both assertion and reason are true and
association of the reason is the correct explanation of
genes
assertion.
Codes-
A B the reason is not the correct
C D
A) 3 2 4 1 explanation of assertion.
B) 2 3 1 4 C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
C) 4 1 2 3 D) Both assertion and reason are false.
D) 1 4 3 2 88. Assertion: Morgan coined the term linkage
to describe the physical association of
84. What map unit (centimorgan) is adopted in
genes on a chromosome.
the construction of genetic maps? (Pg. 85, Reason: Linkage shows more non-parental
E)
type combination of genes. (Pg. 85, H)
A) A unit distance between two expressed
genes, representing 10% cross over.
the reason is the correct explanation of
B) A unit distance between two expressed
assertion.
genes, representing 100% cross over.
C) A unit distance between genes on the reason is not the correct
chromosomes, representing 1% cross
explanation of assertion.
over.
C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
D) A unit distance between genes on D) Both assertion and reason are false.
chromosomes, representing 50% cross
over.
Sex Determination
85. The concept of genetic map was given by 89. X-body was discovered by (Pg. 85, E)
(Pg. 85, E) A) Mendel B) Morgan
A) de Vries B) Morgan C) Henking D) de Vries
C) Sturtevant D) Mendel 90. In XO type of sex determination, who does
86. Assertion: Mendel proposed the law of possess the X chromosome? (Pg. 86, E)
independent assortment on the basis of A) Female
results of dihybrid cross. B) Male
Reason: When two pairs of traits are C) Sometimes female and sometimes male
combined in a hybrid, segregation of one D) None of these
pair of characters is independent of the 91. X-chromosome is designated as (Pg. 86, E)
other pair of characters. (Pg. 85, H) A) autosome
A) Both assertion and reason are true and B) sex chromosome
the reason is the correct explanation of C) somatic chromosome
assertion. D) none of these
B) Both assertion and reason are true but 92. Which type of sex determination is found
the reason is not the correct in grasshoppers? (Pg. 86, E)
explanation of assertion. A) XX - XY type B) XX - XO type
C) Assertion is true but reason is false. C) ZZ - ZW type D) None of these
D) Both assertion and reason are false. 93. In a specific taxon of insects, some possess
87. Assertion: The chromosomal theory of 17 chromosomes while others have 18
inheritance was proposed by T. H. Morgan. chromosomes. These 17 and 18
Reason: Morgan worked on garden pea chromosomes bearing organisms are
plants to give this theory. (Pg. 85, H) [NCERT Exemplar]
A) All males
B) All females
I I
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C) Females and males, respectively C) three types of gametes

D) Males and females, respectively D) none of these
94. In Drosophila, males possess (Pg. 86, E) 100. ZZ/ZW type of sex determination is the
A) XO chromosomes characteristics feature of [NCERT
B) XX chromosomes Exemplar]
C) XY chromosomes A) platypus B) snails
D) YY chromosomes C) peacock D) cockroach
95. Match Column-I with Column-II and 101. Among the following, which has a different
choose the correct option from the codes mechanism of sex determination? (Pg. 87,
given below. (Pg. 86, M) E)
Column-I Column-II A) Birds B) Humans
(A) X-body (1) Autosomes C) Drosophila D) None of these
(B) X and Y (2) Henking
102. Refer to the given figure which is followed
chromosome
(C) Somatic (3) Grasshopper by few statements. Choose the incorrect
chromosome statement about it.
(D) XO-types of sex (4) Allosomes
determination
zz
Codes- A) It shows male heterogamety.
A B C D B) Both possess same types of autosomes.
(a) 2 4 1 3 C) The sex of progeny is determined by
(b) 4 2 1 3 females.
(c) 3 1 4 2 D) This type of sex determination is
(d) 1 3 2 4
different from humans.
103. In humans, sex is determined by (Pg. 87,
96. XY type of sex determination is found in
E)
(Pg. 86, E)
A) females
A) Drosophila B) humans
B) males
C) grasshopper D) both (A) and (B)
C) environmental factors
97. Choose the incorrect statement about XY
D) none of these
type of sex determination. (Pg. 86, E)
A) Both males and females have same
choose the correct option from the codes
number of chromosomes.
given below. (Pg. 86-87, E)
B) The counter part of X chromosome is
Column-II
distinctly smaller and called Y 1
chromosome. 2
C) Males and females possess different 3
number of autosomes. (4) Humans
progeny from
D) This type of sex determination is found their arents
in Drosophila.
98. Male heterogamety is found in(Pg. 86, E) Codes-
A) grasshopper B) Drosophila A B C
C) humans D) all of these (a) 1,4 2 3
99. In female heterogamety, females (b) 2 1,4 3
A) one type of gametes (c) 3,2 1 4
(d) 4 3 2,1
B) two types of gametes
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105. Match the items of Column I with Column B) Both assertion and reason are true but
II. (Pg. 87, E) the reason is not the correct
Column-I Column-II explanation of assertion.
(A) XX-XO method (1) Turner's C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
of sex syndrome
determination D) Both assertion and reason are false.
(B) XX-XY method (2) Female 109. Assertion: Birds show female
of sex heterogametic heterogamety.
determination Reason: In birds, the sex of progeny is
(Cl Karvotvpe-45 (3) Grasshopper
determined by males. (Pg. 87, H)
(D) ZW-ZZ method (4) Female
of sex homogametic A) Both assertion and reason are true and
determination the reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
Codes- B) Both assertion and reason are true but
A B C D the reason is not the correct
A) 4 2 1 3 explanation of assertion.
B) 2 4 1 3
Cl 1 4 2 3
C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
D) 3 4 1 2 D) Both assertion and reason are false.
Mutation and Genetic Disorders
106. Select the incorrect statement. (Pg. 87, M)
A) Male fruit fly is heterogametic. 110. The phenomenon which results in
B) In male grasshoppers, 50% of sperms alteration of DNA sequences is (Pg. 88, E)
have no sex chromosome. A) mutation B) transpiration
C) In domesticated fowls, sex of progeny C) transcription D) translation
depends on the type of sperm rather 111. Chromosomal aberrations are commonly
than egg. observed in (Pg. 88, E)
D) Human males have one of their sex A) cardiac cells B) cancer cells
chromosome much shorter than the C) skeletal cells D) none of these
other. 112. A classical example of point mutation is
107. Assertion: Grasshoppers show male (Pg. 88, E)
heterogamety. A) gout
Reason: Male grasshoppers produce two B) night blindness
types of gametes. (Pg. 87, H) C) sickle cell anaemia
A) Both assertion and reason are true and D) Turner's syndrome
the reason is the correct explanation of 113. The factors that cause mutations are
assertion. called (Pg. 88, E)
B) Both assertion and reason are true but A) mutagens B) teratogens
the reason is not the correct C) allergens D) none of these
explanation of assertion. 114. An analysis of traits in several of
C) Assertion is true but reason is false. generations of a family is called (Pg. 88, E)
D) Both assertion and reason are false. A) mutation
108. Assertion: In fruitfly, sex of progeny is B) pedigree analysis
decided by females. C) genetic map formation
Reason: Females produce two types of D) none of these
gametes. (Pg. 87, H) 115. In a pedigree analysis, the given symbol
A) Both assertion and reason are true and represents (Pg. 88, E)
assertion.
174
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--0
C) autosomal dominant
D) autosomal recessive
121. Refer to the given pedigree analysis. It is
related to the analysis of (Pg. 89, E)
A) affected individuals
B) mating
C) consanguineous mating
D) unspecified sex
116. Pedigree analysis is used to study the
inheritance pattern of a gene over
generations. The character that is studied
in the pedigree analysis is equivalent to
[NCERT Exemplar] A) autosomal dominant trait
A) Mendelian trait B) autosomal recessive trait
B) Maternal trait C) sex-linked dominant trait
C) Polygamic trait D) sex-linked recessive trait
D) Quantitative trait 122. Haemophilia is a/ an (Pg. 90, E)
117. Mendelian disorders are mainly A) sex-linked recessive disease
determined by alteration or mutation in B) sex-linked dominant disease
the (Pg. 89, E) C) autosomal recessive disease
A) chromosomes D) autosomal dominant disease
B) single gene 123. The possibility of a female becoming a
C) array of genes haemophilic is (Pg. 90, E)
D) none of these A) extremely high B) extremely rare
118. Among the following which one is a C) equal to a male D) none of these
Mendelian disorder? (Pg. 89, E) 124. Haemophilia A and B are due to
A) Haemophilia deficiencies of respectively clotting factor
B) Sickle cell anaemia (Pg. 90, E)
C) Cystic fibrosis A) VIII and IX B) IX and VIII
D) All of these C) VII and IX D) X and VII
119. Choose the incorrect statement about 125. Sickle cell anaemia is a/ an (Pg. 90, E)
Mendelian disorders. (Pg. 89, E) A) sex-linked recessive disease
A) These are usually caused by mutation B) sex-linked dominant disease
in a single gene. C) autosomal recessive disease
B) These disorders are transmitted to the D) autosomal dominant disease
offspring according to the laws of 126. In sickle cell anaemia, valine replaces
inheritance. glutamic acid. This valine is coded by the
C) Mendelian disorders are always sex triplet [NCERT Exemplar]
linked. A) MG B) GGG
D) The trait in question can be dominant C) GUG D) GM
or recessive. 127. Sickle Cell Anaemia (SCA) is transferred
120. A genetic disease transmitted from a from parents to offspring when (Pg. 90, E)
carrier female that is phenotypically A) father is affected and mother is normal.
normal to only some male progeny is B) father is normal and mother is carrier.
[NCERT Exemplar] C) father is normal and mother is affected.
A) sex-linked dominant D) both mother and father are carrier.
B) sex-linked recessive
175
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128. Match Column-I with Column-II and C) sex-linked dominant trait

choose the correct option from the codes D) sex-linked recessive trait
given below. (Pg. 90, E) 133. If a colourblind man marries a women who
Column-I Column-II is homozygous for normal colour vision,
(A) Myotonic (1) Autosomal the probability of their son being colour
dystrophy recessive
blind is (Pg. 89, E)
(B) Sickle cell (2) Sex-linked
anaemia recessive A) 0.75 B) 1
(C) Haemophilia (3) Sex-linked C) 0 D) 0.5 25.
dominant 134. The chromosomal disorders are
(D) Rett syndrome (4) Autosomal A) absence of one or more chromosomes
dominant
B) excess of one or more chromosomes
Codes- C) abnormal arrangement of
A B C D chromosomes
(a) 4 1 2 3 D) all of these
(b) 4 2 3 1 135. Condition of having 2n ± 1 or 2n ± 2
(c) 3 4 1 2 chromosomes is called [NCERT Exemplar]
(d) 2 3 4 1
A) polyploidy B) aneuploidy
C) allopolyploidy D) monosomy
129. Thalassemia and sickle cell anaemia are
136. An increase in a whole set of chromosomes
caused due to a problem in globin
in an organism is called (Pg. 91, E)
molecule synthesis. Select the correct
A) aneuploidy B) linkage
statement. (Pg. 90, E)
C) polyploidy D) none of these
A) Both are due to a quantitative defect in
137. Condition (2n + 1) of chromosomes is
globin chain synthesis.
known as (Pg. 88, E)
B) Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of
A) trisomy B) monosomy
globin molecules.
C) polyploidy D) haploidy
C) Sickle cell anaemia is due to
quantitative problem of globin
choose the correct option from the codes
molecules.
given below. (Pg. 88, E)
D) Both are due to qualitative defect in
Column-I Column-II
globin chain synthesis. (A) Deletion (1) Loss of a gene
130. The person suffering from or a segment
phenylketonuria disease lacks enzyme of chromosome
(Pg. 91, E) (B) Duplication (2) A segment of
chromosome is
A) phenylalanine hydroxylase turned around
B) phosphates 180 ° within a
C) enolase chromosome
D) none of these (C) Inversion (3) Presence of a
gene or
131. Phenylketonuria is an inborn error in segment of
which affected individual lacks an enzyme chromosome
that converts (Pg. 91, E) more than
A) phenylalanine into tyrosine once
(D) Translocation (4) Exchange of
B) tyrosine into phenylalanine segments
C) glutamic acid into valine between two
D) valine into glutamic acid homologous
132. Phenylketonuria is a/an (Pg. 91, E) chromosomes
A) autosomal dominant trait
Codes-
B) autosomal recessive trait
I I A B C D
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A) 1 3 2 4 143. An abnormal human baby with 'XXX' sex

B) 4 2 3 1 chromosomes was born due to (Pg. 92, E)
C) 3 1 4 2
A) formation of abnormal ova in the
D) 2 4 1 3
mother.
139. Match Column-I with Column-II and B) fusion of two ova and one sperm.
choose the correct option from the codes C) fusion of two sperms and one ovum.
given below. (Pg. 91, E) D) formation of abnormal sperms in the
Column-I Column-II father.
(A ) Aneuploidy (1) An increase in 144. What is the genetic disorder in which an
whole set of individual has an overall masculine
chromosomes development, gynaecomastia and is
( B) Polyploidy (2) 2n + 1
sterile? (Pg. 92, E)
(C) Trisomy (3) Gain or loss of
a chromosome A) Turner's syndrome
(D) Monosomy (4) 2n - 1 B) Klinefelter's syndrome
C) Edward's syndrome
D) Down's syndrome
Codes- 145. In which genetic condition, each cell in the
A B C D affected person, has three sex
A) 1 3 4 2
B) 3 1 2 4 chromosomes XXY? (Pg. 92, E)
C) 4 2 3 1 A) Turner's syndrome
D) 2 4 1 3 B) Thalassemia
C) Kleinfelter's syndrome
140. A disease caused by an autosomal primary D) Phenylketonuria
nondisjunction is [ (Pg. 91, E) 146. A disorder caused due to the absence of
A) Klinefelter's syndrome one of the X chromosomes is (Pg. 92, E)
B) Turner's syndrome A) Turner's syndrome
C) Sickle cell anaemia B) Down's syndrome
D) Down's syndrome C) Klinefelter's syndrome
141. Refer to the given figure. It is showing the D) Edward's syndrome
characteristic features of (Pg. 92, E) 14 7. Assertion: The possibility of a female
Flat back of head -- Broad flat face becoming a haemophilic is extremely rare.
Many "loops" on _...,
finger tips/
Reason: For being haemophilic, the
Big and wrinled
Palm crea;<e" tongue mother of such a female has to be at least
Congenital heart carrier and the father should be
disease
haemophilic. (Pg. 92, H)
A) Down's syndrome assertion.
B) Turner's syndrome B) Both assertion and reason are true but
C) Klinefelter's syndrome the reason is not the correct
D) None of these explanation of assertion.
142. The disease caused by the trisomy of C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
chromosome number 21 is (Pg. 92, E) D) Both assertion and reason are false.
A) Turner's syndrome 148. Assertion: Aneuploidy is the gain or loss of
B) Haemophilia chromosomes.
C) Klinefelter's syndrome Reason: It is caused due to the failure of
D) Down's syndrome cytokinesis after telophase stage of cell
division. (Pg. 92, H)
177
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A) Both assertion and reason are true and Reason: Such individuals are sterile. (Pg.
the reason is the correct explanation of 92, H)
assertion. A) Both assertion and reason are true and
B) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is the correct explanation of
the reason is not the correct assertion.
explanation of assertion. B) Both assertion and reason are true but
C) Assertion is true but reason is false. the reason is not the correct
D) Both assertion and reason are false. explanation of assertion.
149. Assertion: Klinefelter's syndrome is caused C) Assertion is true but reason is false.
due to the presence of an additional copy D) Both assertion and reason are false.
of X-chromosome.
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Answer Key
PRINCIPLE OF INHERITANCE AND VARIATION
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans D B A D D A C B C B
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans D D A A D C D B C B
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans D A B B C B A C B A
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans C A B D B A B D B B
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans A D B D C D C C B D
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans B B B B A C B D C C
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans B C A B C B D D C B
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans D D D D D A B A C B
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans C A C C C B D C C A
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans B B D C A D C D B C
Q 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans A A B B D C A D C A
Q 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans B C A B C A B D C D
Q 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Ans A A B A C C D A B A
Q 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans A B C D B C A A B D
Q 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149
Ans A D A B C A A C B
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1. Monomer of nucleic acids are -(Pg. 95, E) 6. Which of these is a purine - (Pg. 96, E)
A) Peptides A) Cytosine
B) Nucleosides B) Adenine
C) Ribonucleosides C) Thiamine
D) None of these D) More than one is correct
2. DNA and RNA are types of - (Pg. 95, E) 7. Which of these is a pyrimidine - (Pg. 96,
A) Nucleotides B) Nucleosides E)
C) Nucleic acids D) Nucleamides A) Adenine B) Thymine
Paragraph 6.1 C) Guanine D) None of these
8. Which of these is a correct combination for
The DNA a DNA nucleotides (Pg. 96, E)
A) Oxyribose+Phosphate+Uracil
3. Length of DNA is usually defined as- (Pg.
B) Oxyribose+Phosphate+Thymine
96, E)
C) Deoxyribose+Phosphate+Uracil
A) Number of nucleotides present in it
D) Deoxyribose+Phosphate+Thymine
B) Number of pair of nucleotides present
9. All the given nucleotides exists, except (Pg.
in it
96, E)
C) Number of base pairs present in it
A) Deoxy uridine B) Thymine
D) All of these
C) Both A & B D) None of these
4. Match the length of DNA with the correct
10. Nitrogenous base is linked to which
organisms - (Pg. 96, M)
carbon of pentose sugar (Pg. 96, E)
A B
A) l'C B) 2'C
I ct> X 174 1 4.6 X 106 bp
(base pairs)
C) 3'C D) S'C
II Bacteriophage y 2 3.3x 109 bp 11. Nitrogenous base is linked to pentose
III E. coli 3 48502 bp sugar by which bond - (Pg. 96, E)
IV Human DNA 4 5386 nucleotides A) N - Glycosidic bond
(haploid) B) Phosphoester bond
C) Phosphodiester bond
I II III IV D) Peptide bond
A) 4 3 1 2 12. Phosphate group is linked to which carbon
B) 3 4 2 1 of pentose sugar (Pg. 96, E)
C) 4 3 2 1 A) l'C B) 2'C
D) 3 4 1 2 C) 3'C D) S'C
Paragraph 6.1.1 13. Identify the free ends of given
� � r�,
polynucleotides chain - (Pg. 96, E)
Structure of polynucleotides chain (I)
5. A nucleotides contains - (Pg. 96, E) cb-� <r-®-+rr--0-6 H (y1
A) Hexose sugar + nitrogenous base +

phosphate group
B) Pentose sugar + nitrogenous base + I II
phosphate group A) 3' phosphate 5' hydroxyl
B) 5' hydroxyl 3' phosphate
C) Hexose sugar + nitrogenous base +
C) 5' phosphate 3' hydroxyl
sulphate group
D) 3' hydroxyl 5' phosphate
D) Pentose sugar + nitrogenous base +
sulphate group
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14. Backbone of polynucleotide chain is 22. Which of the following is true about base
formed due to -(Pg. 97, E) pairing in DNA - (Pg. 97, E)
A) Sugar and N-base A) Adenine forms two hydrogen bond with
B) Sugar and phosphate Guanine
C) Phosphate and N - Base B) Adenine forms three hydrogen bond
D) All of these with Guanine
15. Which is correct about thymine & uracil - C) Adenine forms two hydrogen bond with
(Pg. 97, E) Thymine
A) Uracil is 5-methyl thymine D) Adenine forms three hydrogen bond
B) Thymine is 5-methyl uracil with Thymine
C) Uracil is 5-ethyl thymine 23. Which of the following is true about base
D) Thymine in 5-ethyl uracil pairing in DNA -(Pg. 97, E)
16. DNA is -(Pg. 97, E) A) Guanine forms two H-bond with
A) Acidic and positively charged Cytosine
B) Basic and positively charged B) Guanine forms three H-bond with
C) Acidic and negatively charged Cytosine
D) Basic and negatively charged C) Guanine forms two H-bond with
17. Name of DNA as 'Nuclein' was given by - Adenine
(Pg. 97, E) D) Guanine forms three H-bond with
A) Francis crick Adenine
B) Erwin Chargaff 24. Uniform distance between two stands of
C) Friedrich Meischer Helix is due to -(Pg. 97, E)
D) Rosalind Franklin A) Double and triple bond formed between
18. Double Helix for structure of DNA model base pairs
was proposed by - (Pg. 97, E) B) Sugar - phosphate backbone
A) Wilkins and Franklin based on their X C) Purine - pyrimidine base pairing
ray diffraction date D) None of these
B) Watson and Crick based on their X-ray 25. How many of the following statements
diffraction date about Double - helix structure of DNA is
C) Chargaff based on their X-ray correct -(Pg. 97, E)
diffraction data i) Two chains are coiled in right - handed
D) None of these fashion
19. The proposition of base pairing between ii) Pitch of helix is 3.6 nm
the two stands of polynucleotide chain in iii) There are roughly 10 bp in each turn
double Helix model of DNA was based on iv) Plane of one base pair stacks over the
observation of - (Pg. 97, E) other
A) Maurice Wilkins A) 1 B) 2
B) Rosalind Franklin C) 3 D) 4
C) Erwin Chargaff 26. Pitch of helix in double helix DNA is -(Pg.
D) Both A & B 98, E)
20. The two chains of double Helix DNA have A) 3.6 nm B) 3.4 nm
(Pg. 97, E) C) 3.2 nm D) 3.8 nm
A) Parallel polarity 27. Central dogma in molecular biology was
B) Anti-parallel polarity proposed by -(Pg. 98, E)
C) No polarity A) Crick B) Watson
D) Depends on organism C) F. Meischar D) Chragaff
21. The bases in two stands of DNA are paired 28. Identify correct labels -(Pg. 98, E)
through (Pg. 97, E)
A) Hydrogen bond B) Peptide bond TG: @Chalnaayaaar
C) Glycosidic bond D) Sulfide bond
------------
181
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Assertion is correct and Reason is
C)
i (ii)
DNA ---� mRNA ---�
iii
protein
wrong
( )
D) Both Assertion and Reason are wrong
33. Histones are organized into -(Pg. 99, E)
(i) (ii) (iii) A) Hexamer B) Octamer
A) Replication Translation Transcription C) Tetramer D) Dimer
B) Replication Transcription Translation 34. A typical nucleosome contain __ bp of
C) Transcription Replication Translation DNA has (Pg. 99, E)
D) Translation Replication Transcription A) 200 B) 400
C) 600 D) 800
Paragraph 6.1.2 35. Repeating unit of chromatin -(Pg. 99, E)
A) Are nucleosomes
Packaging of DNA Helix B) Are seen as 'beads-on-string' under
electron microscope
29. If length of E. coli DNA is 1.36 mm,
C) Are packed to form fibres
calculate number of base pair in E. coli?
Given - distance between consecutive base D) All of these
36. The figure show -(Pg. 99, E)
pairs is 0.34 x 10-9 m. - (Pg. 99, E)
A) 4 X 106 B) 4 X 109
C) 4 X 10-6 D) 4 X 1012
30. Assertion : In E. coli, DNA is scattered
throughout the cell
Reason : In E. coli, there is no defined
nucleus (Pg. 99, M)
A) Both Assertion & Reason are correct &
Reason is correct explanation for
Assertion
B) Both Assertion & Reason are correct A) Beads-on-string
but Reason is not correct explanation B) A nucleosome
for Assertion C) Chromatin
C) Assertion is correct and Reason is D) More than one option is correct
incorrect 37. Identify the correct label for given figure
D) Reason is correct and Assertion is (Pg. 99, M)
incorrect
(ii) (i)
31. Histones are - (Pg. 99, E)
A) Positive and acidic in eukaryotes
B) Positive and acidic in prokaryotes
C) Positive and basic in eukaryotes
(iii)
D) Positive and basic in prokaryotes
32. Assertion - Histones are positively charged
Reason - Histones are rich in basic amino
acid residues lysine and arginine (Pg. 99, (i) (ii) (iii)
M) A) H2 histone DNA Histone
octamer
A) Assertion & Reason are correct and B) H1 histone Histone DNA
Reason is correct explanation for octamer
Assertion C) H2 histone Histon octamer DNA
B) Assertion & Reason are correct and
D) H1 histone DNA Histone
Reason is not the correct explanation octamer
for Assertion
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38. Chromosomes are connected chromatin i. R-strain (a) Smooth (1) Mucous
fibres present - (Pg. 99, E) coat
A) At all times in cell ii. S-strain (b) Rough (2) No
B) Only during cell division - formed at colonies mucous
coat
prophase
C) Only during cell division - formed at
A) (i)-(a)-(1) B) (i)-(b)-(1)
metaphase
C) (ii)-(a)-(1) D) (ii)-(a)-(2)
D) Only during cell division - formed at
44. Which strain of the microbe used Griffith
Interphase
is virulent- Pg. 100, E)
39. In a typical nucleus, euchromatin & hetero
A) S-strain B) R-strain
chromatin are present. Choose the correct
C) Both D) None
set of characters for heterochromatin -
45. Griffith observed that the mice died
(Pg. 99, E)
surprisingly the following combination of
i) Loosely packed
strains was used, which was unusual- Pg.
ii) Densely packed
100, E)
iii) Light stain
A) S-strain heat killed
iv) Dark stain
B) Heat killed S-strain
v) Inactive chromatin
C) Heat killed R-strain + Live S-strain
vi) Active chromatin
D) Heat killed S-strain + Live R-strain
A) i, iii, v B) ii, iv, vi
46. In Griffith experiment (Pg. 100, E)
C) i, iii, vi D) ii, iv, v
A) R-strain transformed to S-strain and
40. Choose correct set of characters for
became virulent
euchromatin (Pg. 99, E)
B) R-strain transformed to S-strain and
i) Loosely packed
lost virulence
ii) Densely packed
C) S-strain transformed to R-strain and
iii) Light stain
became virulent
iv) Dark stain
D) S-strain transformed to R-strain and
v) Inactive chromatin
lost virulence
vi) Active chromatin
47. Griffith claimed that- (Pg. 100, E)
A) i, iii, V B) ii, iv, vi
A) Some protein was transferred among
C) i, iii, vi D) ii, iv, v
bacteria
6.2 The Search for Genetic B) Some DNA was transferred among
Material bacteria
C) Some carbohydrates was transferred
Transforming Principle
among bacteria
41. Griffith's experiments were conducted in D) None of these
(Pg. 100, E) Biochemical Characterization of
A) 1928 B) 1958 Transforming Principle
C) 1978 D) 1968
42. The experiment of Griffith was performed 48. Prior to work of Avery, Macleod and
in- Pg. 100, E) McCarty, genetic material was thought to
A) Diplococcus pneumoniae, bacteria be- (Pg. 100, E)
B) Haemophilus influenzas, fungi A) Protein B) DNA
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae, fungi C) RNA D) None
D) None of these 49. Avery, Macleod & McCarty discovered
43. Match the given columns- Pg. 100, M) that- (Pg. 100, E)
A) DNA caused transformation
B) RNA caused transformation
I I II III C) Protein caused transformation
183
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D) Lipid caused transformation 57. Bacteria infected with virus that showed
50. Which enzyme inhibited the radioactivity had- (Pg. 102, E)
transformation-(Pg. 101, E) A) radioactive DNA (S32)
A) Protease B) RNase B) radioactive DNA (S3s)
C) DNase D) All C) radioactive DNA (P32)
6.2.1 The Genetic Material is DNA D) radioactive DNA (P3s)
58. (Pg. 102, E)
51. Unequivocal proof that DNA is genetic Baclcriophagc
Radioacl.ivc ('Pl
material came from experiments of-(Pg.
"'
io;ictive ( 'SJ labelled labellecl DNA
protein capsule �
101, E)
A) Avery, Macleod & McCarty
b::J
B) Hershey and Chase
C) de Vries, Correns and Tschermak
(C :>) l.
�(�Ini))P
D) Sutton and Boveri
� I P
52. The scientists of Q-11 worked with- (Pg.
101, E)
A) a virus B) a bacteria (�ni)) 2.
C) a fungi D) a nematode
53. In the experiment performed for proving
! !
DNA as genetic material, the (�ni5) 35
No Raclioactive ( S)
(�ni5)
Raclioaclive ('Pl
3.
PP
bacteriophages were grown on medium detected in cells detected in cells
containing- (Pg. 101, E) �t") Radioac�ive (''°SJ

detected in supcrnatam
No Rad:>acl.ivity
detected in supernatant
A) radioactive sulfur
B) radioactive nitrogen Identify the correct label.
1 2 3
C) radioactive phosphorous
A) Blending Infection Centrifugati
D) More than one option on
54. The bacteriophages growing in presence of B) Infection Blending Centrifugati
radioactive phosphorous _(i)_ contained on
radioactive _(ii)_.(Pg. 101, E) C) Centrifugati Infection Blending
on
(i) (ii) D) Blending Centrifugati Infection
A) P32 DNA on
B) P3s Protein
C) P32 Protein 6.2.2 Properties of Genetic
D) P3s DNA Material (DNA vs RNA)
55. Bacteriophages grown on radioactive
Sulphur _(i)_ contained radioactive 59. RNA is genetic material in- (Pg. 102, E)
_(ii)_.(Pg. 101, E) A) TMV
B) QB Bacteriophage
(i) (ii) C) Both A and B
A) S32 DNA D) None of these
B) S32 Protein 60. Properties of genetic material include- (Pg.
C) S3s DNA 103, E)
D) P3s Protein A) Stable B) Mutable
56. The bacteria involved in Hershey & chase C) Replicable D) All of these
experiment of 1952 was- (Pg. 102, E) 61. A - Stability as a property of genetic
A) Bacteriophage material was very evident in Griffith's
B) E.coli transforming principle.
C) S. pneumoniae
D) C.butyliwm

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R - Heat can kill the bacteria and
completely destroy the properties of
genetic material (Pg. 103, M)
A) Both A and R are true and R is correct
explanation for A
B) Both A and R are true but R is not
correct explanation for R
C) A is true but R is false
D) Both A and R are false
62. Which is more structurally and chemically
stable? (Pg. 103, E)
A) DNA B) RNA 5'
C) Protein D) All
63. RNA viruses show- (Pg. 103, E)
A) Less mutation
B) Faster evolution
C) Slower evolution
64. DNA is preferred by nature over RNA for
(Pg. 103, E) The figure shows-
A) Storage of genetic information A) Conservative DNA replication model
B) Transmission of genetic information B) Semi-conservative DNA replication
C) Expression of genetic information model
D) More than one C) Non-conservative DNA replication
6.3 RNA World model
D) Can't say
65. Choose incorrect statement RNA- (Pg. 6.4.1 The Experimental Proof
104, E)
A) was first genetic material 69. The DNA replication model experimental
B) acts as catalyst too proof was first shown in- (Pg. 104, E)
C) is more stable than DNA A) Human cells B) E. coli
D) has protein synthesizing mechanism C) Plant cell D) Vicia faba
built around it 70. Meselson and stahl performed experiment
6.4 Replication for proving DNA replication scheme in
(Pg. 105, E)
66. Scheme for replication of DNA was A) 1952 B) 1953
proposed by-(Pg. 104, E) C) 1958 D) 1961
A) Watson & Crick 71. The bacteria were grown in medium
B) Meselson & Stahl containing-(Pg. 105, E)
C) Taylor A) 1SNH4Cl - 15N is heavy isotope of
D) Hershey & Chase nitrogen
67. The replication of DNA is-(Pg. 104, E) B) 14NH4Cl - 14N is heavy isotope of
A) Conservative nitrogen
B) Non-conservative C) 15 NH4Cl - 1sN is normal isotope of
C) Semi-conservative nitrogen
D) All of these depending on organism D) 14NH4Cl - 14N is normal isotope of
68. (Pg. 104, E) nitrogen
72. The heavy DNA molecule containing heavy
isotope of N is distingu ished from normal
DNA by- (Pg. 105, E)
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A) UV rays 78. The main enzyme of replication is-(Pg.
B) Ethidium bromide solution 106, E)
C) Centrifugation is CsCl density gradient A) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
D) PCR technique B) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
73. In Meselson & Stahl experiment, first they C) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(Pg. 105, E) D) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
A) grew bacteria on heavy isotope of N 79. Choose correct statement with regard with
medium followed by normal one efficiency of DNA polymerase. (Pg. 106, E)
B) grew bacteria on normal isotope of N A) 4.6 x 106 bp of E. coli replicate within
medium followed by heavy one 46 minutes
C) grew bacteria on radioactive N followed B) The average rate of polymerization of
by Keavy one DNA polymerase has to be
D) grew bacteria on heavy isotope of N approximately 2000 hp/minute
followed by radioactive one C) The polymerization accuracy is very
74. (Pg. 105, E) high and very fast
Grnc-ralion I Gene,...-ulion 11 D) All of these
"N-UNA 'N-DI\A
''NDNA j._ __[,
�" N-DNA -(i)
� 80. What is function of deoxyribonucleoside
triphosphate-(Pg. 106, E)
I\ DNA ..
� ==¢,
20 min ,r\,nnn,f
==¢,
40 min
J'\YJ\YJ'\Y._ \
..,(11)
.V��U, "N-DNA 1
Gravitallon::i I force
C> �' 1\-llNA -(iii)
A) It act as substrate
- B) Provide energy for polymerization
I I
� � ..-N .. j "l N
C) A and B both
J-tcavy
llybr-id Li�hl llyhricl D) It is product formed after
Identify the correct label polymerization
(i) (i) (iii) 81. Assertion : The two strands of DNA cannot
A) Light Heavy Hybrid be separated in their length.
B) Heavy Hybrid Light Reason Separation required very high
C) Light Hybrid Light
D) Heavy Hybrid Heavy energy. (Pg. 106, E)
A) Both Assertion & Reason are correct
75. In Meselson & Stahl expt a bacteria after and reason is correct explanation of
dividing in 20 minutes had a hybrid DNA. assertion
What will be the ratio of Hybrid to Light B) Both Assertion & Reason are correct
after 80 minutes? (Pg. 105, E) and reason is not correct explanation
A) 2 : 14 B) 14 : 2 of assertion
C) 16 : 2 D) 2 : 16 C) Assertion is correct, Reason is false
76. Similar experiment on Vicia faba was D) Assertion & Reason are false
conducted by __ to detect distribution of 82. Polymerization by DNA polymerase is in
newly synthesized DNA in chromosomes. (Pg. 106, E)
(Pg. 106, E) A) 3' � 5' direction only
A) Taylor B) Stahl B) 5' � 3' direction only
C) Gamow D) Nirenberg C) A and B both
77. Experiment on Vicia faba involved use of D) Random
(Pg. 106, E) 83. The template of replication fork with
A) Radioactive uridine polarity 5' ➔ 3' is __ while 3' ➔ 5' is
B) Radioactive thymidine _.(Pg. 106, E)
C) Radioactive adenosine A) continuous, continuous
D) Radioactive cytidine B) continuous, discontinuous
C) discontinuous, continuous
6.4.2 The Machinery and the
D) discontinuous, discontinuous
Enzymes
84. DNA ligase act on-(Pg. 106, E)
A) 5' � 3' template strand
1 I
------------
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B) 3' ---+ 5' template strand 89. In transcription, adenosine bind with (Pg.
C) Both A and B 107, E)
D) Ligate RNA with vector of 3' ---+ 5' A) Thymine B) Uracil
polarity C) Cytosine D) A and B both
85. The replication is eukaryotes take place in 90. Why both the strand of DNA are not copied
(Pg. 106, E) during transcription-(Pg. 107, E)
A) M-phase B) G1 phase A) If both strands act a template, they
C) S-phase D) G2 phase would code for RNA molecules with
86. Polyploidy resulted by-(Pg. 106, E) same sequence
A) A failure in cell division after DNA B) RNA formed by transcription of both
replication strand, when code for protein, the
B) A failure in DNA replication after cell sequence of amino acid in protein are
division same
C) A failure in cell division before DNA C) The two RNA molecules if produced
replication simultaneously would be
D) A and C both complementary to each other
87. (Pg. 107, E) D) All of these
3' 91. Translation of RNA would be prevented if
(Pg. 107, E)
A) RNA is single strand
B) RNA is double-stranded
C) RNA is produced by both strand of DNA
A.
D) B and C both
6.5.1 Transcription Unit
D
,\ C
92. Transcription unit primarily consist of-(Pg.
\ 107, E)
A) 1 region B) 2 regions
3' B, C) 3 regions D) None of these
\ 5'
5' 3' 93. Transcription primarily required-(Pg. 107,
Correct label of A, B, C, D is- E)
(i) A = Template parental strand A) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
(ii) B = Newly synthesized strand B) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(iii) D = Continuous strand C) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(iv) C = Discontinuous strand D) RNA dependents DNA polymerase
A) i, ii only B) iii, iv only 94. Template strand of transcription unit
C) i, ii, iii, iv D) None of these is/are-(Pg. 108, E)
6.5 Transcription A) 5' ---+ 3' strand of DNA
B) 3' ---+ 5' strand of DNA
88. Transcription is-(Pg. 107, E) C) Site of catalysis of enzyme required for
A) The process of copying genetic transcription
information from both strand of DNA D) B and C both
into RNA 95. What is coding strand of given template
B) The process of copying genetic strand
information from one strand of DNA 3' -AGCATGCA -5' (Pg. 108, E)
into RNA A) 5' -TACGTACGT -3'
C) The process of copying genetic B) 5' -UACGUACGU -3'
information from RNA into DNA C) 3' -UACGUACGU -5'
D) A and B both D) 3' -TACGTACGT -5'
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96. Label A, B, C, D, E of given diagram. (Pg. C) Segment of DNA that are non-coding
108, E) sequence
-
,_ Tran cription D) Segment of RNA have not any coding
A . tart site
1:3 C
-
E sequence
3' -:: 5' 101. Choose the correct statement. (Pg. 109, E)
A) Monocistronic eukaryotic structural
gene have interrupted coding
5'
- D
.....__
- 3' sequence.
B) Polycistronic prokaryotic structural
a b C d e gene have interrupted coding
A) Promot Struc Templ Coding Termi sequence.
er tural ate strand nator C) Monocistronic prokaryotic structural
gene strand
gene have interrupted coding
sequence.
B) Termin Struc Codin Templa Promo D) A and B both
ator tural g te ter 102. Exons are- (Pg. 109, E)
gene strand strand
A) Coding sequence
C) Promot Templ Codin Structu Termi B) Non-coding sequence
er ate g ral nator C) Expressed sequence
stran strand gene D) A and C both
d
D) None of these 103. Intron- (Pg. 109, E)
A) appear is mature or processed RNA
97. Promoter is located-(Pg. 108, E) B) do not appear in mature or processed
(i) 3' end RNA
(ii) 5' end C) appear is prokaryotes
(iii) upstream of structural gene D) B and C both
(iv) downstream of structural gene 6.5.3 Types of RNA & Process of
A) i, iii B) ii, iii Transcription
C) i, iv D) ii, iv
98. Terminator is located at (Pg. 108, E) 104. Which of following play role is protein
(i) 3' end synthesis of prokaryote? (Pg. 109, E)
(ii) 5' end A) r-RNA B) t-RNA
(iii) upstream of structural gene C) m-RNA D) All of these
(iv) downstream of structural gene 105. The function of some RNA are given below
A) i, iii B) ii, iii choose the incorrect one. (Pg. 109, E)
C) i, iv D) ii, iv A) mRNA provide template strand
6.5.2 Transcription unit and the B) mRNA provide non-template strand
C) tRNA bring amino acid
gene
D) rRNA play structural & catalytic role
99. A gene is defined as- (Pg. 108, E) 106. How many polymerase required is bacteria
A) Functional unit of inheritance for transcription of all type of RNA?
B) Non-functional region of DNA that (Pg. 109, E)
haven't any information A) One B) Two
C) A and B both C) Three D) Five
D) None of these 107. Choose incorrect step about transcription.
100. Cistron is- (Pg. 109, E) (Pg. 109, E)
A) Segment of DNA coding for a A) RNA polymerase binds to promoter and
polypeptide initiate transcription.
B) Segment of RNA coding for a
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B) Nucleotide triphosphate act as C) rRNA D) None of these
substrate and polymerization in a 6.6 Genetic Code
template.
C) A short stretch of RNA remains bound 116. George Gamow argued- (Pg. 111, E)
to enzyme. A) There are only 5 bases and if they have
D) Last step is termination. code for 20 amino acid the code should
108. Initiation factor and termination factor constitute a combination of bases
are- (Pg. 110, E) B) There are only 4 bases and if they have
A) Sigma and Rho factor respectively. code for 20 amino acid the code should
B) Rho and Sigma factor respectively. constitute a combination of bases
C) Rho and Rho factor respectively. C) Genetic code is triplet
D) Sigma and Sigma factor respectively. D) B and C
109. Translation & transcription in eukaryote 11 7. Which of following have maximum codon
occur in (Pg. 110, E) in genetic code-(Pg. 112, E)
A) Cytoplasm & nucleus respectively A) Leu B) Met
B) Nucleus & cytoplasm respectively C) Cal D) Phe
C) Cytosol 118. Which of following is/are showing dual
D) Nucleus function-(Pg. 112, E)
110. Which of following can be coupled in � UUU B) AUG
bacteria? (Pg. 110, E) C) UGA D) GUA
A) Replication & transcription 119. Least number of codon is for- (Pg. 112, E)
B) Transcription & translation A) Met B) Phe
C) Replication & translation C) Gls D) Gly
D) None of these 6.6.1 Mutations and Genetic Code
111. Transcription of 18 s rRNA is done by __
in eukaryote. (Pg. 111, E) 120. Sickle cell anaemia is classical example of
A) RNA pol. I B) RNA pol. II (Pg. 113, E)
C) RNA pol. III D) All of these A) point mutation
112. Choose incorrect statement. (Pg. 111, E) B) frameshift mutation
A) 5.8 s r-RNA and 5 s-RNA transcribes by C) deletion mutation
same RNA polymerase in eukaryote. D) addition mutation
B) hnRNA & mRNA transcribe by same 121. In sickle cell anaemia, there are changes
RNA polymerase in eukaryote. in gene for- (Pg. 113, E)
C) tRNA & snRNA transcribes by same A) alpha globin chain
RNA polymerase in eukaryote. B) beta globin chain
D) None of these C) gamma globin chain
113. Splicing is required to- (Pg. 111, E) D) delta globin chain
A) remove intron in eukaryote 122. In sickle cell anaemia, resultant effect of
B) remove exon in eukaryote mutation is change of amino acid residue-
C) remove exon in prokaryote (Pg. 113, E)
D) remove intron in prokaryote A) Valine to alanine
114. Capping is- (Pg. 111, E) B) Valine to glutamic acid
A) Addition of methyl guanosine C) Alanine to valine
triphosphate at 5' end D) Glutamic acid to valine
B) addition of adenylate residue at 3' end 123. The following is an example of-
C) addition of methyl guanosine BIG RED CAP ⇒ BIG REM DCA P
triphosphate at 3' end (Pg. 113, E)
D) addition of adenylate residue at 5' end A) Deletion mutation
115. The fully processed hnRNA is- (Pg. 111, E) B) Point mutation
A) tRNA B) mRNA C) Addition mutation
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124. RAM HAS CAP ⇒ RAM HAS BIG CAP
(Pg. 113, E)
The given example shows-
A) Addition mutation
B) Deletion mutation
C) Substitution mutation AG U
Codon
U AC
mRNA
D) More than one option I I I I I I
6.6.2 tRNA - the Adapter Molecule The given figure shows-

A) Secondary structure of tRNA - Clover
125. tRNA has- (Pg. 114, E) leaf
A) Codon loop B) Anticodon loop B) Primary structure of tRNA - clover-leaf
C) Both D) Neither C) Secondary structure of tRNA
126. The presence of adapter molecule to read inverted-L
the code on DNA and bind to amino acids D) Primary structure of tRNA - inverted-L
was postulated by- (Pg. 114, E) 6. 7 Translation
A) James Watson
B) Francis Crick 132. Translation refers to process of- (Pg. 114,
C) Friedrich Meisher E)
D) Both A and B A) Making RNA from DNA
127. tRNA was also called- (Pg. 114, E) B) Making DNA from RNA
A) s RNA (soluble RNA) C) Polymerization of nucleotide to form a
B) s RNA (single RNA) DNA
C) s RNA (smart RNA) D) Polymerization of amino acid to form a
D) s RNA (simple RNA) polypeptide
128. The amino acid acceptor end of tRNA is 133. The order and sequence of amino acid
(Pg. 114, E) during translation are defined by- (Pg.
A) 5' 114, E)
B) 3' A) The sequences of bases in r-RNA
C) Can be any of these B) The sequences of bases in t-RNA
D) Free end C) The sequences of bases in m-RNA
129. For initiation translation, (Pg. 114, E) D) All of these
A) Only tRNA carries initiator amino acid 134. Which of following bond is formed during
to the site. translation? (Pg. 115, E)
B) Specific rRNA carries initiator amino A) Glycosidic bond
acid to the site. B) Phosphodiester bond
C) Any rRNA carries initiator amino acid C) Peptide bond
to the site. D) All of these
D) Specific tRNA carries initiator amino 135. First phase of translation does not involve
acid to the site. (Pg. 115, E)
130. For stop codon- (Pg. 114, E) A) Charging of RNA
A) There are specific tRNAs with amino B) Amino acids are activated in presence
acids. of ATP
B) There are specific tRNAs which do not C) Activated amino acid are linked to their
bind to any amino acids. cognate tRNA
C) There are no tRNA. D) None of these
D) There are tRNAs which may or may not 136. Initiation or first phase of translation is
bind to amino acids. (Pg. 115, E)
131. (Pg. 114, E) A) Amino acylation of tRNA
B) Amino acylation of mRNA
190
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C) Both A and B start codon and stop codon and codes
D) Deamino acylation of mRNA for polypeptide.
137. The cellular factory responsible for D) A transcriptional unit in rRNA is the
synthesizing protein is- (Pg. 115, E) sequence of RNA that is flanked by
A) Ribosome B) Lysosome start codon (AUG) and stop codon and
C) Peroxisome D) None of these codes for polypeptide.
138. In inactive state, protein factory of cell 143. UTR is/are-(Pg. 115, E)
exist in (Pg. 115, E) (i) Untranslated region of mRNA
A) Two state (ii) It present at both 5' end (start codon)
B) 4 state in prokaryote and 3' end (before stop codon)
C) 6 state in eukaryote (iii) They are required for efficient
D) B and C both translation process
139. Which of following is sign as beginning of (iv) It present at both 3' end (before start
translation? (Pg. 115, E) codon) and 3' end (after stop codon)
A) When the large subunit of protein A) i, ii, iii are correct
factory of cell encounters an mRNA. B) i, ii, iii and iv are correct
B) When the small subunit of protein C) i, iii, iv are correct
factory of cell encounters an mRNA. D) i, iii are correct
C) When the small subunit of protein 144. Initiator tRNA binds with (Pg. 115, E)
factory of cell encounter a tRNA. A) AUG codon of mRNA
D) When the large subunit of protein B) at initiation of protein synthesis
factory of cell encounters a tRNA. C) ATG codon of dsDNA
140. The bond formation (peptide) between D) A and B both
charged tRNA is accomplished due to- (Pg. 145. Choose the correct about elongation of
115, E) translation- (Pg. 115, E)
A) Presence of ATP and catalyst A) Complexes composed of an amino acid
B) Two such charged tRNA are brought linked to tRNA, sequentially bind to
close by two site in large subunit of appropriate codon in mRNA by forming
ribosome complementary base pairs with the
C) Two charged tRNA are brought close by tRNA anticodon
two site in small subunit of ribosome & B) The ribosome moves from codon to
presence of ATP along with catalyst codon along the mRNA in (3' ----+ 5').
D) A and B both C) Complexes composed of an amino acid
141. The ribosome act as catalyst during bond linked to tRNA, sequentially bind to
formation (peptide) as in- (Pg. 115, E) appropriate anticodon in mRNA by
A) 28 s rRNA in bacteria forming complementary base pair with
B) 23 s rRNA in bacteria tRNA codon.
C) 23 s rRNA in eukaryote D) A and B both
D) 28 s tRNA in bacteria 146. Termination of translation complex is done
142. Choose the correct statement- (Pg. 115, E) when- (Pg. 115, E)
A) A translational unit in mRNA is A) Release factor binds with stop codon
sequence of RNA that is flanked by (AUG)
start codon and stop codon and codes B) Release factor binds with UGA like
for polypeptide. codon
B) A translational unit is sequence of DNA C) Complete translation of DNA including
that is flanked by start codon & codes UTR occurs in eukaryotes
for polypeptide. D) B and C both
C) A transcriptional unit in tRNA is the 6.8 Regulation of Gene Expression
sequence of RNA that is flanked by

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147. Gene regulation is eukaryote exerted at A) Same operator and same repressor
(Pg. 115, E) B) Same operator but specific repressor
A) Formation of primary transcript C) Specific operator but same repressor
B) Transport of mRNA from nucleus to D) Specific operator and specific repressor
cytoplasm 6.8.1 The Lac operon
C) A and B both
D) Regulation of splicing of tRNA 154. Lac operon was studied first by-(Pg. 116,
148. ,B-glactosidase is used to catalyze the E)
hydrosis of (Pg. 116, E) A) Francois Jacob
A) Lactose into galactose and glucose B) Jacque Monod
B) Lactose into fructose & glucose C) Geneticist and Biochemist
C) Lactose into fructose & fructose D) None of these
D) None of these 155. Lac operon is/are-(Pg. 116, E)
149. E.coli do not have lactose around them to A) Monocistronic structural gene is
utilized for energy source, they would- (Pg. regulated by a common promoter &
116, E) regulators genes.
A) No longer require the synthesis of B) Polycistronic structural gene is
enzyme a-galactosidase regulated by a common promoter &
B) Synthesized enzyme ,B-galactosidase regulatory genes.
C) Die due to lack of carbon source and C) Consist of one regulatory gene,
energy source monocistronic structural gene having
D) None of these five gene along with promotor &
150. In prokaryote, predominant site for control operator.
of gene expression is-(Pg. 116, E) D) A and C both
A) Control of rate of transcriptional 156. Regulatory gene of lac-operon is- (Pg. 116,
initiation E)
B) Control of rate of translational A) p-gene B) i-gene
C) Control of rate of transcriptional C) o-gene D) z-gene
elongation 157. i in i-gene stand for-(Pg. 116, E)
D) B and C both A) inducer
151. Given below are statement. Choose the B) inhibitor
incorrect statement. (Pg. 116, M) C) A and B both
A) The development and differentiation of D) Inactive repressor
embryo into adult organisms are result 158. Match Column-I & Column-II. (Pg. 116, E)
of coordinated regulation of expression Column-I Column-II
(Gene) (Product)
of several sets of genes.
B) Regulatory proteins act positively in (a) Z-gene (i) Repressor
activator. mRNA
C) In a transcriptional unit the activity of a-gene (ii) /3-gal
(b)
RNA polymerase at a given promoter is
(c) Y-gene (iii) Permease
in turn regulated by interaction with
(d) i-gene (iv) Transacetylase
accessory protein.
D) None of these a b C d
152. Operator- (Pg. 116, E) A) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
A) Region adjacent to sequence by which B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
repressor mRNA formed C) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
B) Bind with repressor protein D) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
C) Bind with inducer 159.The monomeric product of lactose is
D) A and B both chiefly hydrolyzed by-(Pg. 116, E)
153. Each operon has-(Pg. 116, E)
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A) i-gene B) z-gene 167. HGP was called a- (Pg. 118, E)
C) a-gene D) y-gene. A) Minor project
160. Lac in lac-operon is for(Pg. 116, E) B) Hexagonal project
A) Monosaccharide C) Mega project
B) Disaccharide D) None of these
C) Polysaccharide 168. Human genome has approx. bp.
D) Insect (Pg. 118, E)
161. In absence of preferred carbon source, if A) 3 X 109 B) 3 X 106
lactose is provided in growth medium of C) 6 X 109 D) 6 X 106
bacteria, the lactose is transported into 169. If cost of sequencing required is US $ 3 per
cell through by action of product formed bp, then total cost of sequencing human
by- (Pg. 117, E) genome as per 8-3 will be: (Pg. 118, E)
A) i-gene B) z-gene A) US $ 18 billion
C) a-gene D) y-gene B) US $ 9 billion
162. Allolactose is-(Pg. 117, E) C) US $ 18 million
A) Inducer of lac-operon D) US $ 9 million
B) Inductive repressor Goals of HGP
C) Form of lactose that bind with product
of repressor mRNA and inhibit 170. There were approx. __ genes in human
transcription of structural gene DNA, as per the goals of HGP (Pg. 118, E)
D) All of these A) 20,000 - 25,000
163. Lac operon is-(Pg. 117, E) B) 40,000 - 45,000
A) Negative regulation operon C) 10,000 - 15,000
B) Positive regulation operon D) 50,000 - 60,000
C) A and B both 171. HGP was a __ year project (Pg. 118, E)
D) None of these A) 15 B) 12
164. Inducer of lac-operon is-(Pg. 117, E) C) 13 D) 14
A) Glucose B) Galactose 172. HGP was coordination by- (Pg. 118, E)
C) Lactose D) Fructose A) US department of engineering &
165. (Pg. 117, M) national institute of health
IP I IP I O
I z
I I Ia
B) US department of engineering and
l
la mRNA
D
national institute of biotechnology
C) US department of energy and national
I l
institute of biotechnology
H D) US department energy and National
E F G Institute of Health
B�
173. The of U.K was a major partner of
HGP (Pg. 118, E)
A) The given diagram is in presence of A) Wellcome trust
lactose B) Health trust
B) The given diagram is in absence of C) Social trust
lactose D) Welcome trust
C) The given diagram is of gene off 174. Project was completed in- (Pg. 118, E)
D) D and H is same process A) 2005 B) 2004
6.9 6.9 Human Genome Project C) 2003 D) 2002
(HGP) 175. Additional contributes to HGP was- (Pg.
118, E)
166. HGP was launched in- (Pg. 118, E) A) Japan B) China
A) 1980 B) 1970 C) Germany D) All of these
C) 1990 D) 2000 176. Caenorhabditis elegans is a- (Pg. 119, E)
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A) Fungi B) Nematode 185. Fragments were sequenced using
C) Bacteria D) Virus automated DNA sequence that worked on
177. Caenorhabditis elegans is-(Pg. 119, E) principle of a method developed by- (Pg.
A) Free living , non-pathogenic 119, E)
B) Parasitic , pathogenic A) Erwin Chargaff
C) Free living , pathogenic B) Marshal Nirenberg
D) Parasitic , non-pathogenic C) Frederick Sanger
178. Methods / approaches of HGP include D) George Gamow
(Pg. 119, E) 186. Method for determination of amines acid
A) Excess sequence tags sequence in protein was developed by- (Pg.
B) Expressed sequence tags 119, E)
C) Exercise sequence tags A) Erwin Chargaff
D) Exerted sequence tags B) Marshal Nirenberg
179. Sequence annotations refer to- (Pg. 119, C) Frederick Sanger
E) D) George Gamow
A) Identifying all genes expressed as RNA 187. The last of the 24 human chromosomes to
and then sequencing then be sequenced was- (Pg. 120, E)
B) Sequencing the whole set of genome A) Chromosome 1
and then assigning different regions B) Chromosome X
with functions C) Chromosome 22
C) Identifying and sequencing the D) Chromosome Y
genome simultaneously 6.9.1 Salient Features of Human
D) More than one option is correct Genome
180. For sequencing, the DNA is- (Pg. 119, E)
A) Partially extracted from cell 188. According to HGP, human genome
B) Totally isolated from cell contains-
C) Not needed to isolated from cell A) ~ 3000 million bp
D) None of these B) ~ 6000 million bp
181. The DNA for sequencing is converted to C) ~ 9000 million bp
fragments of small size. The fragments are D) ~ 1000 million bp
made- (Pg. 119, E) 189. Dystrophin was found to be-
A) On a pre - decided basis A) Largest known human gene with 2.4
B) On a pre - defined basis million bases
C) Randomly B) Smallest known human gene with 2.4
D) Depending upon organism million bases
182. The step in DNA sequencing after C) Largest known human gene with 4.8
fragmentation of DNA is- (Pg. 119, E) million bases
A) Cloning in host using vectors D) Smallest known human gene with 4.8
B) Cloning in vectors using host million bases
C) Amplification of DNA fragments 190. Which chromosome was found to have
D) More than one option most genes- (Pg. 120, E)
183. Commonly used hosts for DNA cloning A) Chr 22 B) Chr 1
include- (Pg. 119, E) C) Chr 5 D) Chr Y
A) Bacteria B) BAC 191. Which chromosome was found to have
C) YAC D) Both A and C fewest genes-(Pg. 120, E)
184. BAC stands for-(Pg. 119, E) A) Chr X B) Chr Y
A) Bacterial artificial colour C) Chr 1 D) Chr 5
B) Binominal artificial characterization 6.10 DNA Finger printing
C) Bacterial artificial chromosome
D) Bacterial articular chromosome
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192. The DNA sequence in which small stretch C) Alec Jeffreys D) Maheshwari
of DNA is repeated many times is called 197. VNTR stands for-(Pg. 122, E)
(Pg. 121, E) A) Various number of Tendon Repeats
A) SNP B) Variable Number of Tendon Repeats
B) Repetitive DNA C) Various Number of Tandem Repeats
C) Polymorphic DNA D) Variable Number of Tandem Repeats
D) More than one option 198. VNTR belongs to- Pg. 122, E)
193. Satellite DNA classified into different A) Micro-satellite
categories like micro - satellite , mini - B) Macro-satellite
satellite , etc based on- (Pg. 121, E) C) Mini-satellite
A) Length of segment D) All of these
B) Number of repetitive 199. Pg. 123, E)
C) Base composition llt·m I
D) All of these chfc•n -.,11n� C"'hr1111Ml�Ht11t 7 lh.rmn ...,_..7
194. Polymorphism arises due to-(Pg. 121, E)

A) Mutation - inheritable lu ,111u. 111n .l.
/ I 11 I I I
B) Stability of genetic material I I 11 I 1111 I 11
C) Mutation - non-heritable (.'t1 UClV>,IJ(lto. lb
D) All of these
195. DNA polymorphism is observed more in l\u111 'I \1(,,.Jl\tll
(Pg. 122, E) lo111o1lr1n I .,,,

�
,,I I,, 12 II
11 r
A) non-coding DNA sequence as its ,jo f-
mutation affects reproduction "
7 -
h �
B) coding DNA sequence as its mutation
___
S 7
�
---
':
�
affects reproduction
.!
.._.._._._ _. _______ 2 .c.
Chrr' ,.... n� lU I
...
::
C) non-coding DNA sequence as it

mutation may not affect reproduction
ability In the given figure if 'C' is the DNA
D) Coding DNA sequence as its mutation collected from crime site and 'A' & 'B' are
may not affect reproduction ability samples from suspects, than who is the
196. Technique of DNA fingerprinting was criminal?
A) B B) A
initially developed by-(Pg. 122, E)
A) James Watson B) Jansley C) Both A and B D) None of these
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ANSWER KEY
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MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITENCE
Q 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Ans D C D A B B B D D A
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans A D C B B C C A C B
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans A C B C C B A B A D
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans C A B A D D D C D C
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans A D C A D A D A A C
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans B A D A D B C B C D
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans C A B A C A C B B C
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans A C A C A A B C C C
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans A B C A C A C B B C
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans D C B D A A B C A A
Q 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
Ans C D B D B A B A A B
Q 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans A A A A B B A B A A
Q 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
Ans B D D A B B A B D C
Q 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans A D C C D A A A B D
B 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Ans B A D D A B C A D A
Q 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans D B D C B B B D B B
D 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
Ans D A C C A C C A B A
171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans C D A C D B A B B B
Q 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190
Ans C D A C C C A A A B
Q 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199
Ans B B D A C C D C A
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Microbes in human welfair
Microbes in Household Products 4. The organisms responsible for converting

milk into curd is- (Pg. 180, E)
and Beverages
A) Lactobacillus
B) Propionibacterium sharmanii
1. Which of the following statements is
C) LAB
incorrect? (Pg. 179, E)
D) Both (a) and (c)
A) Besides microscopic plants and
5. Which of the following statements is not
animals, microbes are the major
components of biological systems on
A) LAB produces acids that coagulate and
this earth.
completely digest the milk proteins.
B) Microbes are present everywhere even
B) A small amount of cheese is added to
in the harsh environments such as
the fresh milk as inoculum or starter
deep inside the geysers (thermal vents)
contain millions of LAB,
where the temperature may be as high
C) LAB multiply at a suitable
as lOOOC.
temperature, thus converting curd to
C) Microbes are diverse-protozoa,
milk, which also improves its
bacteria, fungi and microscopic plant
nutritional quality by increasing
viruses, viroids and also prions.
vitamin B12 in our stomach.
D) Prions are proteinaceous non
D) LAB plays very beneficial role in
infectious agents.
checking disease causing microbes.
6. The vitamin whose content increases
correct? (Pg. 179, E)
during curd formation by lactic acid
A) Microbes like protozoa can be grown on
bacteria is (Pg. 181, E)
nutritive media to form colonies.
A) Vitamin C B) Vitamin D
B) Microbes can cause diseases in
C) Vitamin B 12 D) Vitamin E
animals not plants.
7. The small amount of curd added to the
C) Microbes are not found in highly acidic
fresh milk to convert it into curd is called
environments.
(Pg. 181, E)
D) All microbes are not harmful; several
A) starter B) inoculum
microbes are useful to human beings in
C) implant D) both (A) and (B)
diverse ways.
3. Following is the image of a bacteriophage.
correct? (Pg. 181, E)
(Pg. 180, E)
I. The dough which is used for making
food such as dosa and idli is also
fermented by yeast.
II. The puffed-up appearance of dough is
due to the production of CO2 gas.
III. The dough which is used for making
bread, is fermented using brewer's
yeast
Which of the following options correctly
IV. 'Toddy', a traditional drink of some
labels its various parts?
parts of Southern India is made by
A) I: Head, II: Neck, III: Collar
fermenting fruits from palms
B) I: Collar, II: Head, III: Tail
V. Microbes are also used to ferment
C) I: Collar, II: Tail, III: Head
fishes, soyabean and bamboo-roots to
D) I: Tail, II: Collar, III: Head
make foods.
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A) 4 B) 3 production of beverages and antibiotics

C) 2 D) 1 on industrial scale are termed as
9. Choose the incorrect statement among the fermenters.
following. (Pg. 181, E) B) Microbes especially yeasts have been
A) Different varieties of cheese are known used from time immemorial for the
by their characteristic texture, flavour production of beverages like wine, beer,
and taste, the specificity coming from whisky, brandy or rum.
the microbes used. C) For this purpose the same yeast
B) Large holes in 'Swiss cheese' are due to Saccharomyces cerevisiae used for
production of a large amount of S02 by bread-making and commonly called
a bacterium named Propionibacterium brewer's yeast, is used for fermenting
sharmanii. malted cereals and fruit juices, to
C) The 'Roquefort cheese' are ripened by produce ethanol.
growing a specific fungi named D) Antibiotics produced by microbes are
Penicillium roqueforti which gives them regarded as one of the most significant
a particular flavour. discoveries of the 19th century and
D) Adenovirus is diamond like in have greatly contributed towards the
structure and causes respiratory welfare of the human society
infections. 14. How many of the following statements are
10. Yeast is used in the production of not incorrect? (Pg. 182, E)
(Pg. 181, E) I. Anti is a Greek word that means
A) citric acid and lactic acid 'against', and bio means 'life', together they
B) lipase and pectinase mean 'against life'.
C) bread and beer II. Antibiotics are chemical substances,
D) cheese and butter which are produced by some microbes and
11. Big holes in Swiss cheese are made by a can kill or retard the growth of other
(Pg. 181, E) ( disease-causing) microbes.
A) a machine III. Penicillin is the first antibiotic to be
B) methanogens discovered.
C) the bacterium Propionibacterium IV.Alexander Fleming discovered Penicillin
sharmanii producing a large amount of while working on a Staphylococci bacteria.
carbon dioxide V. The full potential as an effective
D) Lactobacillus antibiotic was established much later by
12. How many of the following beverages are Ernest Chain and Howard Florey.
produced by distillation of the fermented A) 5 B) 4
broth? C) 3 D) 1
Whisky, wine, rum, brandy, beer 15. Which of the following statements is
(Pg. 181, E) correct? (Pg. 182, E)
A) 5 B ) 4 A) Penicillin was used to treat American
C) 3 D) 1 soldiers wounded in World War I.
Microbes in Industrial Products B) Fleming, Chain and Florey were
awarded the Nobel Prize in 1954, for
(excluding beverages)
this discovery.
C) Before Penicillin, antibiotics were also
purified from other microbes.
D) Antibiotics have greatly improved our
A) Very large vessels in which microbes
capacity to treat deadly diseases such
are grown for the purpose of
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as plague, whooping cough, diphtheria II. Statins are produced by the fungus
and leprosy. Monascus purpureus.
16. Microbes are used for commercial and III. Statins act by competitively inhibiting
industrial production of certain chemicals the enzyme responsible for synthesis of
like organic acids, alcohols and enzymes. cholesterol.
Which of the following is incorrect IV. Streptokinase is used to remove clots
regarding this? (Pg. 183, E) from the blood vessels of patients who
A) Aspergillus - fungus - citric acid have undergone myocardial infarction
B) Acetobacter aceti - bacteria - vinegar leading to heart attack.
C) Clostridium butylicum - protozoan - A) 3 B) 4
butyric acid C) 2 D) 1
D) Lactobacillus - bacteria - lactic acid. 21. A good producer of citric acid is
17. The substance which is used in detergent (Pg. 183, E)
formulations and helpful in removing oily A) Pseudomonas B) Clostridium
stains are - (Pg. 183, E) C) Saccharomyces D) Aspergillus
A) Pectinases B) Proteases 22. Which of the following is correctly matched
C) Lipases D) Statins for the product produced by them?
18. Bottled juices are clarified by the enzyme- (Pg. 183, E)
(Pg. 183, E) A) Acetobacter aceti: Antibiotics
A) Pectinase and lipases B) Methanobacterium: Lactic acid
B) Pectinase and peptidase C) Penicillium notatum: Acetic acid
C) Pectinase and protease D) Saccharomyces cerevisiae: Ethanol
D) Pectinase only 23. Which of the following is wrongly matched
19. Match the following columns: (Pg. 183, M) in the given table? (Pg. 183, M)
Column-I Column-II Microbe Product Application
a) Cyclosporin A 1 Blood Cholesterol A Trichoder I Cyclospor 1 Immunosuppr
lowering agent ma in A essive
b) Streptokinase 2 Immunosuppressive polysporu
agent m
c) Statins 3 Clot buster for B Monascus ii Statins 2 Blood
removing clots purpureus Cholesterol
d) Saccharomyces 4 Production of lowering
ethanol agent
C Streptococ ii Streptoki 3 Removal of
cus i nase clot from
Which of the following is the correct
blood vessels
option?
D Clostridiu i Lipase 4 Removal of oil
a b C d
m V stains
A) 1 3 4 2
acetobutyl
B) 3 2 1 4
icum
C) 2 3 1 4
D) 4 3 2 1
24. Match Column-I with Column-II and select
the correct option using the codes.
(Pg. 183, E)
correct? (Pg. 183, H) Column-I Column-II
I. A bioactive molecule, cyclosporin A, is (a) Citric acid (1) Trichoderma
produced by the fungus Trichoderma (b) Cyclosporin Clostridium
(2)
polysporum. (c) Statins (3) Aspergillus
(d) Butyric acid (4) Monascus
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C) 2 D) 1
Which of the following is the correct 27. Which of the following statements is
option? correct with respect to wastewater
a b C d treatment? (Pg. 184, E)
A) 3 1 4 2 A) Treatment of wastewater is carried out
B) 4 3 1 2 in three stages- Primary, Secondary
C) 2 1 4 3 and Biological Treatment.
D) 2 3 1 4 B) Primary treatment basically involves
physical removal of particles - large
25. Match the following list of microbes and and small - from the sewage through
their importance: (Pg. 183, M) sedimentation then filtration.
Column-I Column-II C) All solids that settle form the primary
(a) Saccharomyces (1) Production of sludge, and the supernatant forms the
immunosuppressive
effluent.
agents
D) The sludge from the primary settling
(b) Monascus (2) Ripening of Swiss
purpureus cheese tank is taken for secondary treatment.
(c) Trichoderma (3) Commercial 28. Which of the following statements is
polysporum production of incorrect with respect to wastewater
ethanol treatment? (Pg. 184, E)
(d) Propionibacterium (4) Production of blood A) The primary effluent is passed into
sharmanii cholesterol-lowering large aeration tanks where it is
agent constantly agitated mechanically and
air is pumped into it. This allows
Which of the following is the correct vigorous growth of useful aerobic
option? microbes into floes.
a b C d B) Floes are masses of bacteria associated
A) 2 4 1 3 with fungal filaments to form mesh like
B) 4 3 1 2 structures.
C) 2 1 4 3
C) While growing, microbes consume the
D) 3 4 1 2
major part of the organic matter in the
effluent. This significantly elevates the
Microbes in Sewage Treatment BOD (biochemical oxygen demand) of
the effluent.
26. How many of the following are not D) BOD refers to the amount of the oxygen
incorrect with respect to wastewater that would be consumed if all the
treatment? (Pg. 183, E) organic matter in one liter of water were
I. A major component of waste water is oxidised by bacteria.
human excreta. 29. Which of the following statements is wrong
II. The municipal waste-water is called with respect to wastewater treatment?
sewage which contains large amounts (Pg. 183, E)
of inorganic matter and microbes. A) The BOD test measures the rate of
Many of which are pathogenic. uptake of oxygen by micro-organisms
III. Sewage is treated in sewage treatment in the sample of water.
plants (STPs) to make it non- polluting. B) BOD is a direct measure of the organic
IV. Treatment of waste water is done by the matter present in the water.
aerobic microbes naturally present in C) The greater the BOD of waste water,
the sewage. more is its polluting potential.
A) 4 B) 3
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D) Once the BOD of sewage or waste water major rivers of our country from
is reduced significantly, the effluent is pollution.
then passed into a settling tank where 33. The primary treatment of wastewater
the bacterial 'floes' are allowed to removes (Pg. 184, E)
sediment. A) dissolved impurities
30. The gases which evolve from the anaerobic B) stable particles
sludge digester constituting biogas are C) methane
(Pg. 184, E) D) pathogens
A) Methane, sulphur dioxide, carbon 34. Which of the following in sewage treatment
sulphide removes suspended solids? (Pg. 184, E)
B) Carbon dioxide, hydrogen chloride, A) Tertiary treatment
methane B) Secondary treatment
C) Methane, hydrogen chloride and C) Primary treatment
carbon dioxide D) Sludge treatment
D) Methane, carbon dioxide, hydrogen 35. Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a
sulphide (Pg. 184, E)
31. Which of the following statement is wrong? A) physical process
(Pg. 184, E) B) mechanical process
A) In settling tank, the sedimented C) chemical process
bacterial floes are called activated D) biological process
sludge. 36. BOD of wastewater is represented as
B) A small part of the activated sludge is (Pg. 184, E)
pumped back into the anaerobic sludge A) total inorganic matter
digester to serve as the inoculum. B) biodegradable matter
C) In anaerobic sludge digesters, other C) carbon dioxide evolution
kinds of bacteria which grow D) oxygen consumption
anaerobically, digest the bacteria and 37. The high value of BOD (Biochemical
the fungi in the sludge. Oxygen Demand) indicates that
D) The biogas can be used as source of (Pg. 184, E)
energy as it is inflammable. A) water is pure.
32. Which of the following statements is B) water is highly polluted.
incorrect? (Pg. 184, E) C) water is less polluted.
A) The effluent from the secondary D) consumption of organic matter in the
treatment plant is generally released water is higher by microbes.
into natural water bodies like rivers 38. If the activated sludge floes do not get
and streams. enough oxygen supply, (Pg. 184, E)
B) Microbes play a major role in treating A) it will increase the rate of the
millions of gallons of waste water treatment.
everyday across the globe. This B) the center of floes will become anoxic,
methodology has been practiced for which would cause the death of
more than a decade now, in almost all bacteria and eventually breakage of
parts of the world. floes.
C) Till date, no manmade technology has C) it will increase the size of floes.
been able to rival the microbial D) protozoa would grow in large numbers.
treatment of sewage. 39. Methanogenic bacteria are not present in
D) The Ministry of Environment and (Pg. 184, E)
Forests has initiated Ganga Action Plan A) gobar gas plant
and Yamuna Action Plan to save these B) stomach of ruminants
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C) bottom of water-logged paddy fields C) Methanogens are commonly found in

D) activated sludge the anaerobic sludge during sewage
40. Activated sludge should settle quickly so treatment, the common example is
that (Pg. 184, E) Methanobacterium.
A) it is rapidly pumped back from D) Methanogens are also present in the
sedimentation tank to aeration tank rumen of cattle where they help in the
B) absorb pathogenic bacteria present in breakdown of cellulose and play an
wastewater important role in the nutrition of cattle.
C) it is anaerobically digested 46. The depth of concrete tank of biogas plant
D) absorbs inorganic matter in which bio-wastes are collected and a
41. The sludge generated by wastewater slurry of dung is fed is (Pg. 185, E)
treatment is treated by (Pg. 184, E) A) 10-12 meters B) 10-12 feet
A) anaerobic digesters C) 10-15 meters D) 10-15 feet
B) floe 4 7. How many of the following statements are
C) chemicals incorrect? (Pg. 185, E)
D) oxidation pond I. The gobar gas is a special type of biogas
42. What gases are produced in anaerobic generated from the dung of cattle.
sludge digesters? (Pg. 184, E) II. A floating cover is placed over the
A) Methane and CO2 only. slurry, which keeps on rising as the gas
B) Methane, Hydrogen sulfide and CO2. is produced in the tank due to the
C) Hydrogen Sulfide and CO2. microbial activity.
D) Methane and CO2. III. A typical biogas plant has two main
43. During sewage treatment, biogases are outlets, one for biogas which is used by
produced which include (Pg. 184, E) nearby houses and the other for spent
A) hydrogen sulfide, nitrogen, methane which may be used as fertiliser
B) methane, hydrogen sulfide, carbon IV. The technology of biogas production
dioxide was developed in India mainly due to
C) methane, oxygen and hydrogen sulfide the efforts of IARI and KVIC.
D) hydrogen sulfide, methane and sulfur V. Biagas plants are more often built in
dioxide rural areas due to availability of large
Microbes in Production of Biogas quantities of cattle dung and thus the
biogas produced is used for cooking
44. The predominant gas in biogas is- and lighting.
(Pg. 185, E) A) 5 B) 4
A) Methane C) 3 D) none
B) Carbon dioxide 48. IARI stands for - (Pg. 186, E)
C) Hydrogen sulphide A) Indian Academy of Research and
D) ethane Intelligence
45. Which of the following is incorrect with B) International Agricultural Research
respect to production of biogas? Institute
(Pg. 185, E) C) Indian Agricultural Research Institute
A) The type of the gas produced depends D) International Academy of Research and
upon the microbes and the organic Intelligence
substrates they utilise. 49. KVIC stands for - (Pg. 186, E)
B) Certain bacteria, which grow A) Khadi and Village Industries Company
anaerobically on cellulosic material, B) Kisan and Village Industries Company
produce large amount of methane C) Khadi and Village Industries
along with CO2 and N2 . Commission

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D) Khadi and Village Interest Commission 54. The use of biological methods for
50. Select the correct option among the controlling plant disease and pest is
following (Pg. 186, E) known as - (Pg. 186, E)
A) Bioinvestment B) Bioremediation
C) Biofortification D) Biocontrol
D A
I. In agriculture, there is a method of
controlling pests that relies on natural
B predation rather than introduced
chemicals.
II. A key belief of the organic farmer is that
A) A- slurry, B- Digester, C- Gas Holder, biodiversity furthers health.
D - Sludge III. The conventional farming practices
B) A- sludge, C- Gas mixture, B- Slurry, rarely used chemical methods to kill
D - Water+ Dung both useful and harmful life forms
C) A - sludge, B - Digester, C - Gas indiscriminately.
Holder, D - Slurry IV. The organic farmer holds the view that
D) A- slurry, C- Gas mixture, B- Sludge, the eradication of the creatures that
D - Water+ Dung are often described as pests is not only
51. Which of the following is mainly produced possible, but also undesirable.
by the activity of anaerobic bacteria on A) 4 B) 3
sewage? (Pg. 186, E) C) 2 D) 1
A) Propane B) Mustard gas 56. In a system of checks and balances- (Pg.
C) Marsh gas D) Laughing gas 187, E)
52. Which of the following statements about A) The insects that are sometimes called
methanogens is not correct? (Pg. 186, E) pests are completely eradicated.
A) They produce methane gas. B) All insects are eradicated.
B) They can be used to produce biogas. C) When pests are beyond manageable
C) They are found in the rumen of cattle levels, they are completely eradicated.
and their excreta. D) Pests are not eradicated but they are
D) They grow aerobically and breakdown kept at manageable levels.
cellulose-rich food. 5 7. The biopesticide used to get rid of aphids
53. Select the correct statement from the is - (Pg. 187, E)
following: (Pg. 186, E) A) Dragonflies
A) Activated sludge-sediment in B) Baculoviruses
settlement tanks of the sewage C) Ladybird
treatment plant is a rich source of D) Bacillus thuringiensis
aerobic bacteria. 58. Microbial biocontrol agent that can be
B) Methanobacterium is an aerobic introduced in order to control butterfly
bacterium found in the rumen of cattle. caterpillar is- (Pg. 187, E)
C) Biogas is produced by the activity of A) Fungus Trichoderma
aerobic bacteria on animal waste. B) Bacillus tracin
D) Biogas, commonly called gobar gas, is C) Baculoviruses
pure methane. D) Bacillus thuringiensis
Microbes as Biocontrol Agent 59. The bacteria bacillus thuringiensis is
available in the market in the form of -
(Pg. 187, E)
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A) Tablets B) Powder V. This is especially desirable when

C) Spores D) Gel form beneficial insects are being conserved
60. Which of the following statements is to aid in an overall integrated pest
incorrect? (Pg. 187, E) management programme, or when an
A) Eradication of the pests is undesirable ecologically sensitive area is being
as without them the beneficial treated.
predatory and parasitic insects which A) 5 B) 4
depend upon them as food or hosts C) 3 D) 2
would not be able to survive. 63. Which one of the following is not an
B) An important part of the biological example of carrying out biological control
farming approach is to become familiar of pests/ diseases using microbes?
with the various life forms that inhabit (Pg. 187, E)
the field, predators as well as pests, A) Ladybird beetle against aphids in
and also their life cycles, patterns of mustard.
feeding and the habitats that they B) Et-cotton to increase cotton yield.
prefer. C) Nucleopolyhedrovirus against white
C) The very familiar beetle with red and rust in Brassica.
black markings is the Ladybird D) Trichoderma sp. against certain plant
D) Bt spores are mixed with water and pathogens.
sprayed onto valuable plants such as 64. Match the items in Column-I and Column
brassicas and fruit trees, where these II and choose the correct answer.
are eaten by the insect adults. (Pg. 187, E)
61. How many of the following are correct with Column-I Column-II
respect to Trichoderma? (Pg. 187, E) (a) Ladybird (1) Methanobacterium
I. Developed for use in the treatment of (b) Mycorrhiza (2) Trichoderma
plant diseases (c) Biological (3) Aphids
II. It's species are free living fungi that are control
very common in root ecosystems. (d) Biogas (4) Glomus
III. It belongs to the division Ascomycetes
IV. They are very effective biocontrol Which of the following is the correct
agents for several plant pathogens. option?
)
A 4 B) 3 a b C d
C) 2 D) 1 A) 1 4 3 2
62. How many of the following are correct with B) 3 4 2 1
respect to baculoviruses? (Pg. 187, E) C) 4 1 2 3
I. They are pathogens that attack insects D) 3 2 1 4
and other arthropods.
II. The majority of baculoviruses used as Microbes as Biofertilizer
biological control agents are in the
family nucleopolyhedrovirus. 65. Which of the following is incorrect?
III. These viruses are excellent candidates (Pg. 188, E)
for species-specific, narrow spectrum A) Biofertilizers are organisms that enrich
insecticidal applications. the nutrient quality of the soil.
IV. They have been shown to have no B) Realising the problems associated with
negative impacts on plants, mammals, the overuse of chemical fertilisers,
birds, fish or even on non-target there is a large pressure to switch to
insects. organic farming - the use of
biofertilisers.

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C) The main sources of biofertilisers are B) Cyanobacteria are autotrophic

bacteria, fungi, protozoans and microbes widely distributed in aquatic
cyanobacteria. and terrestrial environments many of
D) In the root nodules of leguminous which can fix atmospheric nitrogen.
plants, symbiotic association is formed C) Blue green algae add organic matter to
by Rhizobium. the soil and increase its fertility.
66. The fungal symbiont in mycorrhiza D) In paddy fields, cyanobacteria serve as
association absorbs ___from soil and an important biofertiliser.
passes it to the plant. (Pg. 188, E) 69. The bacteria which can fix atmospheric
A) N B) N andK nitrogen in it's free-living form in the soil
C) p D) Ca are - (Pg. 188, E)
67. How many of the following are correct with A) Azospirillum and Azorhizobium
respect to mycorrhiza? (Pg. 188, E) B) Azospirillum and Azotobacter
I. Fungi are also known to form symbiotic C) Azotobacter and Rhizobium
associations with plants (mycorrhiza). D) Frankia and Azospirillum
II. Many members of the genus Glomus 70. Which one of the following microbes form
form mycorrhiza. a symbiotic association with plants and
III. It provide resistance to root-borne helps them in their nutrition? (Pg. 188, E)
pathogens. A) Azotobacter B) Aspergillus
IV. It provide tolerance to salinity and C) Glomus D) Trichoderma
drought. 71. Which one of the following helps in the
V. It helps in overall increase in plant absorption of phosphorus from the soil by
growth and development. plants? (Pg. 188, E)
A) 5 B) 4 A) Anabaena B) Glomus
C) 3 D) 1 C) Rhizobium D) Frankia
68. Which of the following is incorrect? 72. Which of the following is not a biofertilizer?
(Pg. 188, E) (Pg. 188, E)
A) Rhizobium fixes atmospheric nitrogen A) Rhizobium B) Nostoc
into inorganic forms which are used by C) Mycorrhiza D) Agrobacterium
plants as nutrients.
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TG: @Chalnaayaaar
ANSWER KEY
MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans D D A D D C D A B C
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans C C D A B C C D C B
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans D D D A D B A C B D
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans B B B C D D B C D A
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans A B B A B D D C C C
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans C D D D D D C D C D
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans B A B B C C A A B C
Q 71 72
Ans B A
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Organisms and populations
'\',"s--i,-..,.-..,."s -,J
"•""i"'>"'>"'>"'>v
1. Who is the Indian father of Ecology? C) Soil D) All of these

(Pg. 218, E) 13.1.1 Major Abiotic Factors
A) E. hackle B) Ramdeo Mishra
C) P. odum D) Tansley 8. Study the following statement and select
13.1 Organism and its the correct ones. - (Pg. 221, E)
Environment i) Organisms capable to tolerate a wide
range of temperature are called
2. For what is the interaction among stenothermal organisms.
organisms is necessary (Pg. 220, E) ii) Thermal tolerance of different species
A) Recreation B) Reproduction determines their geographical
C) Survival D) Both B and C distribution to a large extent.
3. Basic unit of ecological hierarchy is- iii) Average temperature in tropical desert
(Pg. 220, E) in summer is <50 ° C.
A) Population B) Community iv) Thermal spring cannot sustain life due
C) Ecosystem D) Organism to very high avg. temperature i.e.
4. Identify the following which is not correctly > 100 ° c.
matched - (Pg. 220, E) A) ii B) i, iii, iv
Biome Mean Mean C) i, ii, iv D) iv
annual annual 9. Organism which tolerate narrow range of
temp.(. c) precipitatio temperature-- (Pg. 222, E)
n(em) A) Stenothermal B) Eurithermal
1 Tropical 20-25 130-430 C) Eurihaline D) None of these
forest 10. Mango tree do not grow in (Pg. 222, E)
2 Artie and -12-2 10-125 A) Temperate country
alpine B) Tropical country
3 Coniferous -5-5 100-200
C) Sub-tropical country
forest
D) None of these
4 Temperate 8-22 5-225
forest
11. Mango do not and cannot grow in the
above region. The most important
A) 3 B) 1 environmental factor responsible for it is
C) 2 (Pg. 222, E)
D) 4
5. Different biomes are formed due to annual A) Soil B) Temperature
variations in over the earth's C) Water D) Light
surface. - (Pg. 220, E) 12. Snow leopard are not found in ----
A) Temperature and tuna fish rarely caught beyond
B) Precipitation ____ latitudes in the ocean.
C) Incident of solar radiation (Pg. 222, E)
D) All of these A) Tropical, Kerala
6. Deserts, rainforests, tundra, etc. are B) Kerala, tropical
example of - (Pg. 221, E) C) Kerala, temperate
A) Community B) Niche D) Kerala, sub-tropical
D) Ecosystem 13. Organism which tolerate wide range of
C) Biomes
7. The key element that determines temperature?
difference in environment conditions of A) Eurithermal B) Stenothermal
different habitats include. - (Pg. 221, E) C) Stenohaline D) None of these
A) Temperature B) Light 14. Match the following salinity. (Pg. 222, E)
.----
207
1 -N C- E_RT_ L
.:..._ I_NE_ B_Y_L_IN-E-1
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1 Sea a 5 21. Thermoregulation is energetically

2 Hypersaline b 30-35 expensive process for (Pg.224,E)
Lagoons A) Shrews B) Mammals
3 Inland water C >100 C) Humming bird D) Both A and C
1 2 3 22. Thermoregulation is energetically
A) a c b expensive process for small animals due to
B) b c a their- (Pg.224,E)
C) c a b A) Small surface area relative to their size
D) b a c B) Large size relative to surface area
15. A fresh water organisms cannot survive in C) Both B and A
a water body that has greater D) Large surface area relative to size
than its original habitat- (Pg.222,E) 23. The organism which moves away
A) Nutrients B) Depth temporarily from stressful situation is
C) Salt concentrationD) Water clarity known as- (Pg.225,E)
A) Migrators B) Conformers
13.1.2 Responses to Abiotic factor
C) Regulators D) Endothermals
24. Keolado National Park is situated in
16. The organism try to maintain the
(Pg.225,E)
constancy of its internal environment and
A) Rajasthan B) Raipur
the process is called (Pg.223,E) C) Gujarat D) Madhya Pradesh
A) Hibernation B) Aestivation 25. Match the following (Pg.223-225, M)
C) Homeostasis D) None of these A B
17. (Pg.223,E) 1 Regulators i Humming birds
2 Conformers ii Shrenes
i (B)
I (A) 3 Migrators iii Mammals
4 Suspendors iv Siberian birds
V Bacteria, fungi
and lower plants
A) A-Regulators, B-Conformers, C-Partial
Regulator 1 2 3 4
B) A-Conformers, B-Regulators, C-Partial A) i, ii iii iv v
Regulator B) iii i, ii v iv
C) A-Partial Regulator, B-Regulators, C C) iii i, ii iv V
Conformers D) iv iii 1, ii v
D) A-Conformers, B-Partial Regulators, C- 26. A stage of suspended development is called
Regulator (Pg.225,E)
18. Regulators maintain homeostatic by which A) Diapause B) Aestivation
means- (Pg.224,E) C) Hibernation D) Migration
A) Chemical B) Physiological 27. Winter sleep is known as and
C) Behavioural D) Both B and C summer sleep is known as ____
19. We maintain constant body temperature (Pg.225,E)
o� (Pg.224,E) A) Hibernation, Aestivation
A) 39 ° C B) 37 ° C B) Migration, Aestivation
°
C) 33 C D) 34 ° C C) Aestivation, Hibernation
20. The organism in which body temperature D) Aestivation, Migration
changes according to the ambient 28. Match the following (Pg.225, M)
temperature is known as (Pg.224,E) B
A) Conformers B) Regulator
C) Partial Regulators D) Endothe__ r _m_ al
__---1---------,
l
1 I BearA I Aestivation
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2 Zooplankton ii Migration (Pg. 226, E)

3 Snail iii Hibernation A) Low atmospheric pressure
4 Siberian clane iv Diapause B) Low oxygen
C) High atmospheric pressure
1 2 3 4 D) Both A and B
A) ii iv iii i 13.2 Population Attributes
B) iii iv i ii
C) iii i iv ii
37. What is a group of individual belonging to
D) iv iii ii i
the same species called- (Pg. 227, E)
13.1.3 Adaptation A) Population B) Biomes
C) Community D) Family
29. Any attributes of the organism that enable 38. ___ links ecology to population
them to survive and reproduce its habitat genetics and evolution (Pg. 227, E)
is known as (Pg. 225, E) A) Ecosystem
A) Migration B) Diapause B) Biomes
C) Adaptation D) Dormancy C) Population ecology
30. Kangaroo rat in ___ American deserts D) Population attributes
is capable to meet all its water requirement 39. Population has certain attributes which
through ___ (Pg. 225, E) are- (Pg. 227, E)
A) East, internal fat oxidation A) birth rates B) death rates
B) North, internal fat oxidation C) sex ratio D) All of these
C) North, internal protein oxidation 40. If the age distribution is plotted for the
D) West, internal fat oxidation population, the resulting structure is
31. Desert plants have special photosynthetic called- (Pg. 227, E)
pathway which is known as-(Pg. 225, E) A) Population attributes
A) C3 cycle B) C4 cycle B) Population ecology
C) CAM pathway D) None of these C) Age pyramids
32. Desert plant do not have following one D) None of these
characteristics- 41. What type of human population is
A) Bread leaf B) Flattened stem represented by the following are pyramid?
C) Sunken stomata D) Thick cuticle (Pg. 227, E)
33. Mammals from Colder climates generally
have shorter ears and limbs to minimize
the heat loss. This Rule was give by-
(Pg. 226, E) Reproductive
A) Charles Darwin B) Jansely

C) P. Odum D) Allen
34. Desert lizard manage to keep their body A) Stable population
temperature constant by ___ means. B) Declining population
(Pg. 226, E) C) Expanding population
A) Physiological B) Behavioural D) Vanishing population
C) Chemical D) Both A and B 42. The tiger census in our national parks and
35. Many marine aquatics lives in very high tiger reserves is after based on-
pressure. Which type of adaptation shown (Pg. 227, E)
by them? (Pg. 226, E) A) Pug marks
A) Biochemical B) Behaviourals B) Fecal pellets
C) Physical D) None of these C) Counting no. of tigers
36. Altitude sickness in high altitude is due to- D) Both A and B
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43. ___ is more meaningful measures of B) A Natality + Mortality, B

the population size of parthenium Immigration + Emigration
(Pg. 228, E) C) A = Birth rate + Death rate, B
A) Total no. B) Biomass Migration + Emigration
C) Age D) None of these D) A = Natality + Emigration, B = Mortality
44. The age distribution of a population is + Immigration
determined by: (Pg. 228, E) 50. A biologist studied the population of rates
A) Timing of birth in a born. He found that average Natality
B) Timing of death was 260, average Mortality 250,
C) The rate at which the population is Immigration 30 and emmigration 40. The
growing net increase in population is- (Pg. 229, E)
D) All are correct A) 10 B) 0
13.2.2 Population Growth C) 15 D) 20
51. The formula for exponential population
45. What four factors define population growth is (Pg. 22 9, E)
growth? (Pg. 228, E) A) dt/dN rN= B) dN/rN = dt
A) Birth, deaths, immigration, emigration C) rN/dN = dt D) dN/dt = rN
B) Survivorship, age-specific mortally, 52. Which of the following is not a factor that
fecundity, death rate would limit the growth of population?
C) Mark-capture, cenrus, sampling, (Pg. 229, E)
transects A) Food shortage B) Immigration
D) Age-specific birth rates, C) Disease D) Famine
Metapopulation structure, quad rate, 53. Birth rate B, Death rate = D, Emigration
=
ectone
= E and Immigration = I (Pg. 229, E)
46. ___ contribute to an increase in Column I Column II
a Population is i B+I=D+E
population density (Pg. 228, E)
increasing
A) Natality and emigration
b Population is ii B+l<D+E
B) Mortality and emigration
decreasing
C) Mortality and Immigration C Population is iii B+l>D+E
D) Natality and Immigration stable
47. ___ refers to the no. of deaths in the
population during a period. (Pg. 228, E) a b C
A) Natality B) Immigration A) iii ii i
C) Mortality D) Birth rate B) ii iii i
48. If N is the population density at time t, C) i ii iii
then its density at time t + 1 is D) ii i iii
(Pg. 228, E) 54. Darwinian fitness is represented by
A) Nt+ 1 = Nt + (B + E) - (D + I) (Pg. 230, E)
B) Nt+ 1 = Nt + (B + D) - (E + I) A) Low r value B) High r value
C) Nt+ 1 = Nt - (B + I) - (D + E) C) High k value D) Low k value
D) Nt+ 1 = Nt + (B + I) - (D + E) 55. What are Labelled phase A, B and C in
49. Fill up A and B Boxes in the given diagram given sigmoid growth curve? (Pg. 230, E)
with correct options: (Pg. 229, E)
L;[
Population ------=-----... �
� A �--->" Density (N) -->" �
- I_____:'.:_____,
A) A = Natality + Immigration, B
Mortality + Emigration A) A-Lag, B-Log, C-Stationary
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B) A-Stationary, B-Log, C-Lag 64. A population growing in a habitat with

C) A-Lag, B-Stationary, C-Log limited resources show initially a _(A)_
D) A-Stationary, B-Lag, C-Log followed by phase of _(B)_ and finally
56. Carrying capacity is denoted as _(C)_. (Pg. 230, E)
(Pg. 230, E) A) A-Lag phase, B-Acceleration and
A) r B) N deceleration, C-an asymptote
C) K D) I B) A-Log phase, B-Acceleration and
57. Figure For calculation of the r value, which deceleration, C-an asymptote
of the following is required? (Pg. 230, E) C) A-Log phase, B-Acceleration and
A) Birth rates B) Death rates deceleration, C-a symptote
C) Both a and b D) None D) A-Log phase, B-Acceleration and
58. Which of the following equation is correct deceleration, C-a symptote
for Logistic growth? (Pg. 231, E) 65. To calculate the current r value for human
A) Nt = N 0e rt population we need to know about
B) dN/dt = rN (Pg. 230, E)
C) dt/dN = rN (K-N/K) A) Birth rate B) Death rate
D) dN/dt = rN (K-N/K) C) Carrying capacity D) Both A and B
59. ___ refers to the no. of births during a 66. Human population follows the ___ as
given period in the population that are the carrying capacity increase or we do not
added to the initial density. (Pg. 231, E) meet yet our population carrying capacity.
A) Natality B) Mortality (Pg. 231, E)
C) Immigration D) Survival A) J-shaped growth curve
60. Logistic curve is___ (Pg. 231, E) B) Z-shaped growth curve
A) L-shaped B) J-shaped C) S-shaped growth curve
C) Sigmoid curve D) None of these D) All of the above
61. A plot of N in relation to time (t) results in 13.2.3 Life History Variation
sigmoid curve. This type of population
growth is called- (Pg. 231, E) 67. Which of the following organism breeds
A) J shaped Curve only once on their life time? (Pg. 232, E)
B) U shaped Curve A) Pacific salmon fish
C) Verhulst-Pearl Logistic Growth B) Oyester
D) Constant Growth C) Bamboo
62. Nt = Noert is the integral form of the D) Both A and C
exponential- growth equation 68. Which of the following organism produces
Which of the following statement related to a large no. of small sized offspring?
equation is not correct: (Pg. 231, E) (Pg. 232, E)
A) N t = Population density after time t A) Pacific salmon fish
B) N0 = Population density at time zero B) Oyester and pelogic fishes
C) r = Intrinsic rate of Natural decrease C) Oyester and pacific salmon fish
D) e = The base of Natural logarithmics D) Birds and mammals
(2.71828)
13.2.4 Population Interaction
63. Which growth model is considered as more
realistic one? (Pg. 230, E)
69. Match the following (Pg. 232-238, H)
A) Exponential growth
1 Both the species a Amensalism
B) Constant growth
benefited
C) Logistic growth 2 Both the species b Mutualism
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3 One species get C Pairasitism A) interspecific competition

benefits B) Brood parasitism
4 One is harmed d Predation C) Intra specific competition
other species D) None of these
unaffected 76. Prey species defenses themselves through
e Competition
there behaviour- (Pg. 233, E)
A) Camouflaged B) Highly distasteful
A) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d
C) Poisonous D) All of these
B) 1-b, 2-e, 3-c, d, 4-a
77. Which Butterfly is highly distasteful?
C) 1-a, 2-e, 3-c, d, 4-b
(Pg. 234, E)
D) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, d, 4-c
A) Monarch ButterflyB) Viceroy Butterfly
70. Prickly pear cactus caused havoc in the
C) Queen Butterfly D) All of these
early 1920's in- (Pg. 233, E) 78. Butterfly is highly distasteful which is
A) Canada B) Austria
acquire by them by tending on poisonous
C) India D) Australia weed during (Pg. 234, E)
71. Which predator brought the control over
A) Caterpillar Stage B) Adult Butterfly
the inversive growth of prickly pear cactus
C) Pupa State D) All of these
(Pg. 233, E) 79. "Camouflage" means (Pg. 234, E)
A) Moth B) Bollworm
A) Cryptically coloured
C) Caterpillar D) Grasshopper B) Feeding on young ones of other species
72. (A) Chemical control methods are adopted
C) Poisonous
in agricultural pest control, based on
D) Feeding on own species
ability of predator to regulate prey
80. Darwin has given the statement of
population.
(Pg. 234, E)
(B) Penicilium and stryptomyees show
A) Survival of fittest
Amensalism. (Pg. 233, M) B) Struggle for existence
A) A) Statement A is correct
C) Both A and B
B) Statement B is correct
D) None of these
C) Statement A and B both are correct
81. Who has convinced that interspecific
D) Statement A and B are wrong
competition is a patent force in organic
73. (A) Predators helps in maintaining species evolution? (Pg. 234, E)
diversity in community.
A) Darwin B) P. odum
(B) It reduces the intensity of competition
C) Jansely D) None of these
among competing prey species.
82. (A) It is generally believed that competition
(Pg. 233, M) occurs when closely related species
A) Statement A is correct
complete for same resources that are
B) Statement B is correct
limiting.
C) Both statement is wrong
(B) Totally unrelated species could also
D) Option A and B
complete for the same resource.
74. Starfish Pisaster is (Pg. 233, E)
(Pg. 234, E)
A) Parasite
A) A is true B is false
B) Hemi-parasite
B) Both A and B is false
C) Predator
C) A and B both are true
D)Prey of invertebrate
D) A is false and B is true
75. More than 10 species of vertebrates
83. The feeding efficiency of one species might
disappeared a year after removing the
be reduced due to the interfering and
starfish from habitat is due to- inhibitory presence of the other species
(Pg. 233, E)
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even if resource are abundant in known 88. Connell's field experiment on the rockey
as- (Pg.234,E) sea coast of scotland the larger and
A) Interspecific predation competitively superior bernacle Balances
B) Interfering competition dominates the intertidal area and excludes
C) Both A and B the smaller barnacle chathamalus from
D) commensalism that zone. This happened due to:
84. When certain exotic species are introduced (Pg.235,E)
in to a geographical area they become A) Mutualism B) Predation
invasive mainly because: (Pg.235,E) C) Competition D) Parasitism
A) The invaded land has unlimited 89. The principle of competitive exclusion was
resources for the introduced species. stated by: (Pg.235,E)
B) The population of the introduced A) Gause B) C. Darwin
species in the invaded land is very low. C) Mac Arther D) Connelli
C) Introduced species do not face any 90. Gause's principle of competitive exclusion
competition in the introduced land. states that: (Pg.235,E)
D) The invaded land does not have its A) More abundant species will exclude the
natural predator. less abundant through competition
85. What was the result, when all pisaster B) Larger organism will exclude smaller
starfish were removed from an enclosed one
intertidal area, in a field experiment? C) No two closely related species can
(Pg.234,E) occupy same niche indefinitely for the
A) Extinction of many invertebrate species same limiting resources
B) Increase in diversity of invertebrates D) Both A and B
C) Inability of the pisaster to enter the 91. In resource partitioning mechanism
area again (Pg.235,E)
D) Replacement of pisaster by other A) Species divide a niche to avoid
starfish competition for resources
86. A species whose distribution is restricted B) Two different species eat the same
to a small geographical area because of the thing at the same time of a day
presence of a competitively superior C) Individuals of the same species that
species is found to expand its compete with each other
distributional range dramatically when the D) Two species that share the same niche
competing species is experimentally 92. In accordance with their lifestyles,
removed. This is called- (Pg.235,E) parasites evolved special adaptations such
A) Competitive Exclusion as___ (Pg.235,E)
B) Competitive Supermacy A) the loss of unnecessary sense organs
C) Competitive Inclusion B) presence of adhesive organs or suckers
D) Competitive Release to ding on to the host
8 7. Which of the following is not a function of C) loss of digestive system and high
predators? (Pg.235,E) reproductive capacity
A) They decrease the species competition D) All of the above
in a community 93. The human liver fluke (a nematode
B) They act as conduits for energy transfer parasite) depends on two intermediate
access trophic levels host to complete its life cycle that is-
C) They help in stabilization of the (Pg.235,E)
ecosystem A) insect and cow
D) They decrease the species diversity in a B) insect and human
community C) a snail and fish
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D) None of these C) Epiphyte D) Both A and B

94. Mosquito is- (Pg. 235, E) 102. Lichens represent an intimate mutualistic
A) Not a parasite B) Parasite relationship between ___. (Pg. 237, E)
C) Endoparasite D) Holoparasite A) Fungus and algae
95. Parasites that feed on the external surface B) Cyanobacteria and fungus
of the host organism are called- C) Archaebacteria and fungus
(Pg. 235, E) D) Both A and B
A) endoparasite B) ectoparasite 103. Mycorrhiza are associations between
C) Holoparasite D) Hemiparasite (Pg. 237, E)
96. Which one is/ are the example of A) fungi and higher root plants
ectoparasite? (Pg. 235, E) B) fungi and algae
A) Lice on human C) Algae and lichen
B) tick one dogs D) Both B and C
C) sea anemone and clown fish 104. Who showed that 5 closely related species
D) both A and B of Warblers living on same tree were able
97. Match the following: (Pg. 235, M) to avoid competition and co-exist by
a Marine i Brood beharioural difference? (Pg. 237, E)
fish parasitism A) C. Darwins B) Connell
b Cuscutta ii Copepods C) Mac Arther D) Gause
C Cattle iii Grazing 105. (A) The female wasp uses the fig fruit only
egret cattle for oviposition.
d Koel iv Parasite
(B) Female wasp shows commensalism.
(Pg. 237, E)
a b C d A) A and B both are correct
A) ii iv iii i B) A and B both are wrong
B) iii iv i ii C) A is correct B is wrong
C) iv ii iii i D) A is wrong and B is correct
D) i 111 iv ii 106. The Mediterranean orchid employs
98. are those that live inside the host to get pollination done by a
body at different sites (Liver, kidney, lungs, species of bee. (Pg. 238, E)
red blood cells, etc) (Pg. 235, E) A) Shelter B) Food
A) endoparasite B) ectoparasite C) Sexual deceit D) Egg-laying sites
C) Hemiparasite D) Both B and C 107. Pseudocopulation is an example of-
99. The life cycle of endoparasite are more
(Pg. 238, E)
complex why? (Pg. 235, E) A) Wasp and fig B) Ophrys and bees
A) Because of their complex morphology C) Ophrys and warp D) None of these
B) Because of their food habit 108. If the female bee's colour pattern changes,
C) Because of their extreme specialization the orchid flower co-evolves to maintain
D) All of these the resemblance of its petals for the
100. Which of the following group do not comes successful pollination is known as
under commensalism? (Pg. 236, E) (Pg. 238, E)
A) Orchid growing on Mango branch A) Commensalism B) Protocooperation
B) Lichens and fungi C) Co-evolution D) None of these
C) Cattle egret and grazing cattle
D) Sea Anemone and clown fish
101. Orchid grows as a ____ on a mango
branch. (Pg. 236, E)
A) Acrophyte B) Parasite
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ANSWER KEY
ORGANISMS AND POPULATIONS
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans B D D A D C D A A A
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans B B A B C C A D B A
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans D D A A C A A B C B
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans C A D B A D A C D C
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans B D B D A D C D A B
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans D B A B B C C D A C
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans C C C A D A D B B D
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans A B D C A D A A A C
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans A C B D A D D C A C
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans A D C A B D A A C B
Q 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108
Ans C D A C D C B C TG: @Chalnaayaaar
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�
''")'''
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.... BOTANY
,. � .,,. ... .,
I� 18 l�� Ecosysteni
\.'\\ �"} �
'<
14.1 Ecosystem: Structure and C) Constant input of solar energy

D) Nutrient cycling
Function
Page-242, Easy
1. Vertical distribution of different species 8. is defined as the amount of
occupying different levels is called as biomass or organic matter produced per
A) Standing crop B) Standing state unit area over a time period by plants
C) Stratification D) Decomposition during photosynthesis
Page-242, Easy A) Gross primary productivity
B) Primary production
2. Identification and enumeration of plant
C) Secondary production
and animal species of an ecosystem gives
D) None of these
its
Page-242, Easy
A) Productivity
B) Species composition 9. Primary production is expressed as-
C) Physical structure A) K Calm 2 B) K Cal/m 2
D) Vertical distribution C) g/m 2 D) both B & C
Page-242, Easy Page-243, Easy
3. Which one of the following is odd one out 10. ___ of an ecosystem is the rate of
from others production of organic matter during
A) Decomposition photosynthesis
B) Energy flow A) Net primary productivity
C) Nutrient cycling B) Secondary production
D) None C) Gross primary productivity
Page-242, Easy D) None of these
Page-243, Easy
4. The autotrophic components include
A) Phytoplankton B) Some algae 11. Net primary productivity (NPP) equals to
C) Marginal plants D) All of these A) NPP = R- GPP B) GPP- R = NPP
Page-242, Easy C) NPP = GPP + R D) GPP = R- NPP
Page-243, Easy
5. The decomposers is/ are the
A) Fungi B) Bacteria 12. The rate of formation of new organic
C) Flagellates D) All of these matter by consumers is called as
Page-242, Easy A) primary productivity
B) Gross primary productivity
6. The consumers is/ are
C) Secondary productivity
A) Zooplankton B) Phytoplanktons
D) Respiratory loss
C) Marginal plants D) All of these
Page-243, Easy
Page-242, Easy
TG: @Chalnaayaaar 13. Primary productivity depends on
14.2 Productivity A) Variety of environmental factors
B) Availability of nutrients
7. What is the basic requirement for any C) Photosynthetic capacity of plant
ecosystem to function and sustain. D) All of these
A) Primary production Page-243, Easy
B) Decomposers

BOTANY
14. The annual net primary productivity of the B) Detritivores

whole biosphere is approximately C) Phytoplanktons
A) 190 million tons B) 170 million tons D) Both A & B are correct
C) 170 billion tons D) None of these Page-243, Easy
Page-243, Easy
2 1. Bacteria and fungal enzymes degrade
14.3 Decomposition detritus into simpler inorganic
substances. This process is called as
15. Which one of the following is called as A) Leaching B) Fragmentation
"farmer's friend"? C) Catabolism D) Humification
A) Cow B) Bacteria Page-243, Easy
C) Earthworm D) Crops 22. Humification leads to accumulation of a
Page-243, Easy dark coloured amorphous substance
16. Who breaks down complex organic matter called ___
into inorganic substances like CO 2, water A) Pectin B) Humus
etc. C) Lignin D) None of these
A) Crop roots B) Decomposers Page-244, Easy
C) Grazing Cattle D) None of these 23. Decomposition rate is slower if
Page-243, Easy A) Detritus rich in lignin & chitin
17. The process of breaks down complex B) Rich in nitrogen & sugars
organic matter into inorganic substances C) Low in nitrogen & chitin
is called as D) Low in lignin
A) Fragmentation B) Humification Page-244, Easy
C) Decomposition D) Leaching 24. ____ favours decompositions
Page-243, Easy A) Warm & dry environment
18. Detritus is/ are B) Warm & moist environment
A) Dead plant B) Dead animals C) cold & dry environment
C) Fecal matter D) All of these D) cold & moist environment
19. The correct way of decomposition 14.4 Energy flow

A) Fragmentation➔ leaching➔
humification ➔ catabolism ➔ 25. PAR stands for
mineralization A) Percent active radiation
B) Photosynthetically active radiation
B) Fragmentation➔ leaching➔ catabolism
C) Power angel regulation
➔ humification➔ mineralization
D) None of these
C) Fragmentation➔ catabolism➔ leaching Page-245, Easy
➔ mineralization➔ humification
26. Plant capture only ___ of the PAR and
D) Fragmentation➔ mineralization➔ this amount of energy sustains the entire
catabolism➔ leaching➔ humification living world
A) 50-60 % B) 40-80 %
Page-243-244, Medium C) 2- 10 % D) 20-40 %
20. ____ break down detritus into Page-245, Easy
smaller particles 27. The green plant in the ecosystem are called
A) Earthworm A) Primary consumer

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B) Producer 35. The standing crop is measured as the

C) Secondary consumer A) Mass of living organisms
D) None of these B) Biomass
Page-245, Easy C) The no. in a unit area
D) All of these
28. Producers in an aquatic ecosystem
Page-247, Easy
A) Phytoplankton B) Algae
C) Zooplanktons D) Both A & B 36. Choose the correct sequence -
Page-245, Easy A) Producer ➔ herbivore ➔ primary
29. Generally, primary consumers will be carnivore ➔ secondary carnivore
A) Carnivores B) Producers B) Producer ➔ primary carnivore
➔ herbivore ➔ secondary carnivore
C) Herbivores D) All of these
Page-245, Easy C) Primary carnivore ➔ secondary
carnivore ➔ herbivore ➔ Producer
30. In ecosystem, GFC stands for D) None of these
A) Generic flow control Page-247, Easy
B) Global fund for children
C) Grazing food chain 14.5 Ecological Pyramids
D) None of these
Page-245, Easy 37. Ecological pyramids are
A) Pyramid of number
31. Decomposers are also known as B) Pyramid of energy
A) Autotrophs B) Standing crops C) Pyramid of biomass
C) Saprotrophs D) None of these D) All of these
Page-245, Easy Page-247-249, Easy
32. Based on the source of their nutrition or 38. The pyramid of biomass in sea is
food, organisms occupy a specific place in A) Always upright
the food chain that is known as their B) Generally inverted
A) Food web B) Trophic level C) Both A & B
C) Niche D) Eco level D) None of these
39. Pyramid of energy is
33. Match the following A) Always inverted
Column I Column II B) Sometime upright
Plants a Lion
C) Always upright
ii Carnivores b Phytoplanktons
D) Sometimes inverted
iii Herbivores C Wolf
Page-249, Easy
iv Top Carnivores d Cow
40. Identify the pyramid
A) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a B) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a Tropic Level Dry weight (kg/m2 )
C) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c D) i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c 1.2

TC
Page-245, Easy
34. Each tropical level has a certain mass of SC 18
living material at a particular time called 30
1� - - - - - -
�I
PC
as the p 800
A) Biomass B) Standing crop
C) Standing state D) None of these
Page-247, Easy A) Pyramid of number
TG: @Chalnaayaaar B) Pyramid of biomass

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C) Pyramid of energy 45. The entire sequence of communities that

D) None of these successively change in a given area are
Page-248, Easy called
A) Ecosystem B) Pioneer
41. Identify the pyramid
C) Sere D) All of these
Page-250, Easy
TC 46. Areas where primary succession occurs
A) Bare rock
SC
I I lOOJ B) Newly cold lava
'PP I I I I
lOOOJ
10.000 J
C) Newly created pond
D) All of these
L------------' Page-250, Easy
A) Pyramid of number 4 7. Secondary succession begins in areas
B) Pyramid of biomass where
C) Pyramid of energy A) No living organism are there
D) None of these B) Lost all the living organism
Page-249, Easy C) Natural biotic communities have been
42. Identify the pyramid destroyed
D) Both B & C
I I 2 Page-251, Easy
I II 10 48. Areas where secondary succession occurs
II!!!!!!!------...----!!!!!!!!I
A) Burned and cut forests areas
20 B) Land that have been flooded
LJ 1 C) Abandoned farm lands
D) All are correct
A) Pyramid of number Page-251, Easy
B) Pyramid of biomass 49. Select the correct statement
C) Pyramid of energy A) secondary succession is faster than
D) None of these primary succession
Page-248, Easy B) primary succession is faster
14.6 Ecological succession C) Both are a equal speed
D) None of these
43. A community that is in near equilibrium Page-251, Easy
with the environment is called as 50. The individual transitional communities
A) Pioneer community are termed as
B) Middle community A) Seral stages
C) Climax community B) Pioneer
D) Sere C) Seral communities
Page-250, Easy D) Both A & C are correct
44. The gradual and fairly predictable change Page-250, Easy
in the species composition of a given area 14.6.1 Succession of plants
is called
A) Hydrarch succession 51. Which type of succession takes place in
B) Ecological succession wet areas
C) Pioneer succession A) Hydrarch succession
D) None of these B) Xerarch succession
Page-250, Easy TG: @Chalnaayaaar
C) Mesarch succession
D) None of these
219
BOTANY

52. Xerarch succession occurs in
Page-251, Easy
A) Wet areas B) Cold areas
C) Dry areas D) All of these 58. Choose the correct statement-
Page-251, Easy A) All succession whether taking place in
53. The species that invade a bare area called water or on land, proceeds to a different
A) Sere B) Pioneer species climax community
C) Climax species D) None of these B) All succession whether taking place in
Page-251, Easy water or on land, proceeds to a similar
54. In hydrarch succession the successional climax community the mesic
series progress from C) All succession whether taking place in
A) Mesic to hydric condition water or on land, proceeds to a similar
B) Hydric to mesic condition climax community the xeric
C) Hydric to xeric condition D) All of these
D) Xeric to mesic condition Page-251, Easy
Page-251, Easy 59. Which one of the following is not the part
55. In xerarch succession, the succession of hydrarch succession
series progress from A) Scrub stage
A) Xeric to hydric condition B) Tree
B) Xeric to mesic condition C) Zooplankton
C) Mesic to xeric condition D) Submerged plant stage
D) None of these Page-251, Easy
Page-251, Easy 60. During succession some species colonise
56. Which one of the following occur as a an area and their population become more
pioneer species on rocks numerous whereas population of other
A) Bryophytes species
B) Phytoplankton A) Increases
C) Lichens B) Decline and even disappear
D) Blue algae C) Migrate
5 7. Choose the correct sequence of succession Page-251, Easy
in water
A) Phytoplanktons ➔ rooted-submerged 61. Why does secondary succession is faster?
plants ➔ rooted floating angiosperms A) Because soil is already there
➔ free floating plants ➔ reed swamp
B) They have special power
C) Growth of plants is faster
➔ marsh-meadow ➔ scrub ➔ the
D) All of these
trees ➔ forest
Page-251, Easy
B) Phytoplanktons ➔ free floating plants 62. The climax community remains ___ as
➔ rooted-submerged plants ➔ rooted long as the environment remains ___
floating angiosperms ➔ reed swamp A) Unstable, unchanged
➔ scrub ➔ marsh-meadow ➔ the B) Stable, unchanged
trees ➔ forest C) Stable, changed
D) Stable, changed
C) Phytoplanktons ➔ rooted-submerged
Page-251, Easy
plants ➔ reed swamp ➔ rooted
63. The word (term) use for medium water
floating angiosperms ➔ free floating
conditions
plants ➔ marsh-meadow ➔ scrub ➔
A) Xeric B) Hydric
the trees ➔ forest
220
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
BOTANY
C) Mesic D) None of these Page-253, Easy

Page-251, Easy 70. Another name of nutrient cycling is
64. Choose the correct sequence A) Gaseous cycle
i) lichens B) Biological cycle
ii) Grasses C) Biogeochemical cycle
iii) Bryophytes D) Biophysical
iv) Higher plants Page-253, Easy
v) Forest 71. Reservoir for gaseous type of nutrient cycle
A) i ➔ ii ➔ iii ➔ iv ➔ A) Earth's crust B) Rock
B) i ➔ iii ➔ ii ➔ iv ➔ v C) The atmosphere D) Water bodies
C) i ➔ iv ➔ ii ➔ iii ➔ V Page-253, Easy
D) v ➔ iv ➔ i ➔ ii ➔ iii 72. Reservoir for sedimentary type of Nutrient
Page-251, Easy cycle
A) Ocean B) Earth's crust
65. in hydrarch succession, after climax with
C) Rock D) Atmosphere
time the water body is converted into
Page-253, Easy
A) River B) Ocean
73. Environmental factor to regulate the rate
C) Land D) None of these
of release of nutrients into the atmosphere.
Page-251, Easy
A) Soil
66. In hydrarch succession, the pioneer and
B) Moisture
climax community are respectively
C) Temperature & pH
A) Forest, Phytoplanktons
D) All of the above
B) Phytoplanktons, Forest
Page-253, Easy
C) Mess, Trees
74. Reason behind nutrients never lost from
D) Lichen, Trees
ecosystem.
Page-251, Easy
A) Because nutrients present in large
14.7 Nutrient Cycling amount
B) Because they are recycled
67. The amount of nutrients such as carbon, C) Because they have no use
nitrogen, phosphorus, calcium etc present D) All of the above
in the soil at any given time is referred to Page-253, Easy
as the 14. 7.1 Ecosystem-Carbon Cycle
A) Nutrients cycle B) Standing crop
C) Standing state D) None of these
75. Percent of carbon constitutes in dry weight
Page-253, Easy
of organism
68. Standing state varies in
A) 60% B) 39%
A) Different kinds of ecosystem
C) 49% D) 71%
B) On a season basis
Page-254, Easy
C) Different kinds of nutrients
D) Both A & B 76. Which is the first & second most abundant
Page-253, Easy constituent of an organism?
69. The movement of nutrients elements A) Water, phosphorus
through the various components of an B) Water, carbon
ecosystem can be called C) Carbon, water
A) Gaseous cycle TG: @Chalnaayaaar
D) Carbon, phosphorus
B) Nutrient cycling Page-254, Easy
C) Sedimentary cycle 77. How much of total quantity of global
D) All of these carbon is dissolved in the oceans?
221
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A) 88% B) 75% 85. The waste products and the dead

C) 81% D) 71% organism are decomposed by
Page-254, Easy releasing phosphorus.
78. Carbon cycling occurs through A) Fungi
A) Atmosphere B) Phosphate-solubilising bacteria
B) Living & dead organism C) Phosphate-unsolubising bacteria
C) Ocean D) None of the above
D) All of the above Page-254, Easy
Page-254, Easy 86. Choose the correct statement.
79. How much at carbon in fixed annually in A) Atmospheric inputs of phosphorus
the biosphere through photosynthesis? through rainfall are much smaller than
A) 8 x 1012 kg B) 4 x 1012 kg carbon inputs.
C) 4 x 1013 kg D) 4. 9 x 10 kg B) Atmospheric inputs of phosphorus
Page-254, Easy through rainfall are larger than carbon
80. Additional sources for releasing CO2 in the inputs.
atmosphere is/are C) Atmospheric inputs of phosphorus
A) Burning of wood B) Forest fire through rainfall are equal to the carbon
C) Fossil fuel D) All of the above inputs.
Page-254, Easy D) None of the above
81. Human activities have significantly Page-254, Easy
increased the rate of released of CO2 into 87. Choose the more correct statement.
the atmosphere by A) Gaseous exchange at phosphorus b/w
A) Rapid deforestation organism & environment are very high.
B) Massive burning of fossil B) Gaseous exchange of phosphorus b/w
C) Both A and B organism & environment are low.
D) None of the above C) Gaseous exchange at phosphorus b/w
Page-254, Easy organism & environment are negligible.
14. 7 .2 Ecosystem-Phosphorus D) None at these
Page-254, Easy
Cycle
88. In natural resevoirs, phosphorus present
in the form of
82. Phosphorus is a major constituent of
A) Phosphite B) Pyrophosphate
A) Biological membranes
C) Phosphates D) None of the above
B) Nucleic acids
Page-254, Easy
C) Cellular energy transfer unit
89. Identify the blanks
D) All of the above
I"
Consumers ◄•--- Producers
Page-254, Easy
83. Rock is the natural reservoir of
•
A ,_ C
A) Carbon
B) Nitrogen ♦ Decomposition
C) Phosphorus
D) None at these t
B
� Uptake
Run off
Page-254, Easy D
Rock minerals
84. Herbivores & other animals obtain
Phosphorus from A B C D
A Detritus Weatheri Soil Litter fall
A) Rock B) Plants
) ng solutio
C) Ocean D) Lake n
Page-254, Easy
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
BOTANY
B Litter fall Weatheri Detritu Soil C) Robert hook

) ng s solution D) Robert Clive
C Weatheri Litter fall Soil Detritus Page-255, Easy
) ng solutio 96. Researchers have put an average price tag
n of ____ a year on fundamental
D Detritus Soil Litter Weatheri
ecosystem services.
) solution fall ng
A) US$ 33 billion B) US$ 44 billion
Page-254, Medium
C) US$ 44 trillion D) US$ 33 trillion
90. Which one of the following is not a
Page-255, Easy
Gaseous nutrient cycle?
97. GNP stands for
A) Oxygen cycle B) Nitrogen cycle
A) Grand national product
C) Sulphur cycle D) None of the above
B) Gross national product
Page-254, Easy
C) Gross national produce
91. Animals need large quantities of
D) None of these
phosphorus to make
Page-255, Easy
A) Shells B) Teeth
98. Out of the total cost at various ecosystem
C) Bones D) All of the above
services the soil formation accounts for
Page-254, Easy
about.
14.8 Ecosystem Services A) 40% B) 60%
C) 50% D) 30%
92. The products of ecosystem processes are Page-255, Easy
named as 99. The cost of climate regulation & habitat for
A) Environmental services wildlife are
B) Ecosystem goods A) 8% each B) 6% at overall
C) Ecosystem services C) 6% each D) None at the above
Page-255, Easy 100. The value of the global GNP
93. Healthy ecosystems are the base for a A) US$ 28 trillion B) US$ 18 Billion
A) Wide range of economic C) US$ 33 trillion D) US$ 18 trillion
B) Environmental Page-255, Easy
C) Aesthetic goods & services 101. Choose the correct statement.
D) All of the above A) Value of Ecosystem services at
Page-255, Easy biodiversity is difficult to determine.
94. Examples of Ecosystem services B) Value of Ecosystem services of
A) Healthy forest ecosystem purify air & biodiversity is very easy to determine.
water C) No need to determine the value of
B) Generate fertile soil Ecosystem services.
C) Provide storage site for carbon D) None of these
Page-255, Easy
95. ____ & his colleagues have very
recently tried to put price tags on nature's
life-support services.
A) Robert frost
B) Robert Constanza TG: @Chalnaayaaar

BOTANY
ANSWER KEY
ECOSYSTEM
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans C B D D B A C B D C
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans B C D C C B C D B D
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans B B A B B C B D C C
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans C C A B D A D B C B
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans C A C B C D D D A D
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans A C B B B A A B C B
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans A B B B C B C D D C
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans C B D B C B D D C D
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans C D C B B A C C D C
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans D C D D B D B C C D
Q 101
Ans A
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
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r,,,
�
r ):i,,,,�
"'l, -y,
- TG: @Chalnaayaaar BOTANY
ij:19] Biodiversity and conservation

-
... -....,,-.....,_,
'\, ):i:i"'l,, -,7
15.1 Biodiversity D) 1,000 & 5,000

9. The diversity at the species level is c/ a
1. Term 'Biodiversity' popularized by (Pg. 259, E)
(Pg. 258, E) A) Ecological diversity
A) Robert hook B) Ernst Haeckel B) Genetic diversity
C) Edward Wilson D) G. Tansley C) Species diversity
D) None of these
2. Edward Wilson was a - (Pg. 258, E)
10. The ........Ghats have a greater amphibian
A) Mathematician B) Sociobiologist
species diversity than the ..... Ghats.
C) Psychologist D) None of the above
(Pg. 259, E)
3. 'Biodiversity' was popularized (Pg. 259, E)
A) Eastern, Western
A) To describe the combined diversity
B) Western, Eastern
B) to describe individual diversity
C) Western, Southern,
C) To describe plant diversity
D) Eastern, Southern
11. Ecological diversity is in (Pg. 259, E)
4. Types of Biodiversity is/ are- (Pg. 259, E)
A) Deserts
A) Genetic diversity
B) Rain forests, Mangroves
B) Species diversity
C) Coral reefs, Wetlands
C) Ecological diversity
D) All of the above
D) All of these
12. Biodiversity and its conservation is of
5. The genetic variation shown in
(Pg. 259, E)
(Pg. 259, E)
A) national concern
A) Rouwolfia vomitoria
B) concern in some states of india
B) Rice
C) Mango C) international concern
D) All of the above D) all of these
6. Active chemical in Rauwolfia vomitoria 15.1.1 How many species are
(Pg. 259, E) there on Earth How many
A) Terpine
in India.
B) Reserpine
C) Asprine
D) None of the above 13. IUCN stands for- (Pg. 259, E)
7. Which one is correct about Genetic A) International unity for conservation of
diversity (Pg. 259, E) Nature
A) Genetic variation shown by Rauwolfia B) Indian union for conservation of Nature
vomitoria C) Italian union for conservation at
B) Genetic variation shown in western Nature
ghats. D) International Union for conservation of
C) India has less than 5000 genetically Nature and Natural Resources
different strain of rice 14. Robert may estimates the global species
D) India has 1,000 varieties of rice diversity at about (Pg. 259, E)
8. India has more than........ genetically A) 7 billion B) 70 million
different strains of rice, and ......varieties C) 7 million D) 70 billion
of Mango. (Pg. 259, E) 15. Most species rich taxonomic group are
A) 50,000, 1,000 (Pg. 260, E)
B) 1,000 & 50,000 A) Crustaceans B) Insects
C) 5,000, 1,000 C) Molluscs D) None of the above
TG: @Chalnaayaaar
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16. In all available species more than 70% of 24. Species diversity decreases as (Pg. 261, E)
all the species recorded are __ which A)We move away from the equator
___ camprise no more than 22% of the towards the poles
total (Pg. 260, E) B)We move away from the poles towards
A) Invertebrates, Plants equator
B)Plants, Animal C)We move hill to plane area
C)Animal, Plants D)None of the above
D) Plant, Invertebrates 25. How many species of birds found in India?
17. Highest variation of species in plants is in (Pg. 261, E)
(Pg. 260, E) A) 1500 B)1400
A)Fungi B)Mosses C) 1200 D)1700
C)Algae D)Lichens 26. Greatest biodiversity on earth is found in
18. In vertebrates maximum No. of species (Pg. 261, E)
found in (Pg. 260, E) A)Sundarbans
A)Birds B)Mammals B)Amazon rain forest
C) Fishes D) Reptiles
C)Congo rain forest
19. Problem behind no given figures about
prokaryotes is (Pg. 260, E)
27. Amazon Rainforest situated in (Pg. 261, E)
A) Conventional taxonomic methods are
A)North America B)North India
not suitable for identifying microbial
C)South America D) West America
species
28. Choose the correct option (Pg. 261, E)
B)Many species are simply not culturable
1 Plant 378
under laboratory conditions ii 40,000
2 Fishes
C)Because prokaryotes are non-living 3 Birds iii 427
D) A & B both are correct 4 Mammals iv 3,000
20. India has only ........ percent at the world's 5 Reptiles V 1,300
land area. Its share of the global species
diversity in an impressive....percent. 1 2 3 4 5
(Pg. 261, E) A)ii iv v iii i
A)2.4, 8.1 B)8.1, 2.4 B)iii ii v I iv
C)4.1, 8.2 D) 8.4, 2.1 C)ii iv v I iii
21. India is one of the ....mega diversity D) None of the above
countries of the world. (Pg. 261, E) 29. How many insect species waiting to be
A)13 B)14 discovered & named. (Pg. 261, E)
C)12 D) 11 A)2 million B)20,000
22. How may plant species found in India C)2,000 D)2,00,000
roughly (Pg. 261, E) 30. Which one is wrong about species found in
A) 1,00,000 B)45,000 Amazon rainforest. (Pg. 261, E)
C)3,00,00 D)None of the above A)Reptiles-378 B)Fishes-3,000
23. According to May's global estimate there C)Birds-1300
are probably.....plant species & more than D)All of the above are correct
.....animal species. (Pg. 261, E) 31. More......Energy available in tropics,
A)3,00,000 & 1,00,000 which contributes to higher productivity
B)30,000 & 10,000 (Pg. 262, E)
C)1,00,000 & 3,00,000 A)Solar
D) 10,000 & 30,000 B)Thermal
15.1.2 Patterns of Biodiversity C)Nuclear
D)None of the above
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32. The relation b/w species richness & area C) Increased with decreasing explored
for a wide variety of taxa turns out to be a area ' but there are no limitations
(Pg. 262, E) D) None of the above
A) Linear B) Sigmoid 41. Find out A and B and also select the
C) Rectangular Hyperbola correct answer (Pg. 262, E)
33. Correct equation of species-Area S = CA'
relationship (Pg. 262, E) LogS = log C + ZlogA
A) log A = log S + Zlog C b

B) log S = log C + Zlog A
C) log S = log Z+ C log A
D) log S = log C - Zlog A a
34. In species area relationship equation, Z A) a species richness
=
stands for- (Pg. 262, E) b = Area
A) Slope of the line B) a = area
B) Regression coefficient b = species richness
C) species richness C) a = Area
D) Both a & B are correct b = Regression coefficient
35. Value of Zis (Pg. 262, E) D) none of these
A) 20-30 B) 1 - 2 42. In species-area relationship equation
C) 0.1 - 0.2 D) None of the above (Pg. 262, E)
36. The value of Zin the entire continents A) S = species richness
(Pg. 262, E) B) A = area
A) 0.8 - 1.8 B) 0.6 - 1.2 C) C = Y - intercept
C) 0.1 - 0.2 D) None of the above D) All of these
3 7. The value of Z for frugivorous birds & 43. Which one is correct about a stable
mammals in the tropical forests of community? (Pg. 262, E)
different continents (Pg. 262, E) A) Should not show too much variation in
A) 2.15 B) 0.5 productivity from year to year
C) 1.15 D) 0.8 B) It must be either resistant or resilient
38. Concept of species-Area relationship given on surface disturbance
by (Pg. 262, E) C) It must also be resistant to invasions
A) Robert Frost by alien species
B) Paul Ehrlich D) All of these are correct
C) Alexander hook 44. Find out correct option about David
D) Alexander Von Humboldt Tilman's long term ecosystem experiments
39. Alexander von Humboldt is a (Pg. 262, E) (Pg. 263, E)
A) German naturalist A) Plots with more species showed less
B) Philosopher year-to-year va riation in total biomass
C) Geographer B) Plots with more species show too much
D) Both A & C are correct variation in productivity
40. According to Alexander species richness C) Increased diversity contributed to
(Pg. 262, E) higher productivity
A) Increased with increasing explored D) Both A & C are correct
area, but only up to a limit 45. 'Rivet popper hypothesis' is given by
B) Decreased with increasing explored (Pg. 263, E)
area, but only up to a limit A) Alexander von Humboldt
B) Paul Ehrlich
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C) Tilman D) Thylacine - Australia

D) Robert hook 54. Subspecies of tiger which become recently
46. Paul Ehrlich is a (Pg. 263, E) extinct (Pg. 263, E)
A) Stanford ecologist A) Bali B) Caspian
B) Stanford psychologist C) Javan D) All of these
C) Stanford micrologist 55. The last 20 years alone have witnessed the
D) Stanford geologist disappearance of (Pg. 263, E)
47. In Rivet popper hypothesis, rivets depict as A) 300 species B) 10 species
(Pg. 263, E) C) 27 species D) 1000 species
A) Ecosystem B) Extinct species 56. Match the following- (Pg. 264, E)
C) Species D) Plants Species % of threat of
48. According to Ehrlich's rivet popper extinction
hypothesis loss of rivets on the wings a Birds 1 23%
affects in ecosystem as- (Pg. 263, E) b Mammals 2 32%
A) Loss of key species that drive major C Amphibians 3 12%
ecosystem function d Gymnosperms 4 31%
B) Proper functioning of ecosystem
C) Species to become extinct A) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
D) None of these B) a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4
49. According to rivet popper hypothesis, C) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
which one is not correct (Pg. 263, E) D) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
A) Rivet - species 57. Select the correct statement about 'Sixth
B) Airplane - Ecosystem Extinction' (Pg. 264, E)
C) Rivets to take home - species to become A) The extinction rates are estimated to be
extinct 100 - 1000 times faster than in the pre
D) All of these are correct human times.
B) Human activities are responsible for
15.1.4 Loss of Biodiversity
the faster rates.
C) Half of all the species on Earth might
50. The colonization of tropical pacific islands
be wiped out within the next 1000
by humans is said to have led to the
years.
extinction of more than ___ of native
D) Both A and B option are correct.
birds (Pg. 263, E)
58. Loss of biodiversity in a region may lead to
A) 2000 species B) 1200 species
(Pg. 264, E)
C) 20000 species D) 200 species
A) decline in plant production,
51. According to red list (2004) No. of total
B) lowered resistance to environmental.
extinct species in last 500 years
perturbations such as drought.
(Pg. 263, E)
C) Increased variability m ecosystem
process.
C) 478 species D) 784 species
D) All of these.
52. How many species of invertebrates become
59. 'The Evil Quartet' is the term used to
extinct in last 500 years (Pg. 263, E)
describe (Pg. 264, E)
A) Causes of habitat losses
C) 359 species D) None of these
B) Causes of biodiversity losses.
53. According to recent extinction which one is
C) Causes of water losses
incorrect option - (Pg. 263, E)
D) All of these.
A) Dodo - Mauritius
60. The accelerated rates of species
B) Steller's sea cow - USA
extinctions are largely due to (Pg. 264, E)
C) Quagga - Africa
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A) Natural activities C) 14,6 D) 12, 8

B) Machines activities 67. Species extinct in the last 500 years due to
C) human activities over exploitation by humans. (Pg. 265, E)
D) none of these A) Steller's sea cow
61. Which one is not involved in the evil B) Cichlid fish
quartet? (Pg. 264, E) C) Passenger pigeon
A) Habitat loss and fragmentation D) A & C both are correct
B) Alien species invasions 68. How many species of cichild fish is extinct
C) over - exploitation due to introduction of Nile perch in lake
D) all are involved victoria? (Pg. 265, E)
62. The most important cause of animals and A) 2 B) 20
plants to extinction (Pg. 265, E) C) 200 D) 2000
A) Over exploitation 69. The environmental damage caused and
B) Alien species invasions threat posed to our native species by
C) Co-existence invasive weed species like. (Pg. 265, E)
D) Habitat loss and fragmentation. A) Carrot grass B) water hycinth
63. Lungs of the planet term used for C) lantana D) all of these.
(Pg. 265, E) 70. African catfish ___ is posing as threat
A) Tropical rain forest, to the indigenous catfishes. (Pg. 265, E)
B) Amazon rainforest, A) Parthenium
C) temperate reason, B) Clarias garlepinus
D) none of these. C) Clarias branchysoma
64. The Amazon rainforest harboring probably D) None of these
millions of species to is being cut and 71. Which one is correct statement about co-
cleared for. (Pg. 266, E) extinction? (Pg. 265, E)
A) For cultivating soya beans. A) When a species become extinct, the
B) Conversion to grassland for raising plant and animal species associated
beef cattle. with it in an obligatory way also
C) Cultivating new forest. become extinct.
D) Both A and B are correct. B) When a host becomes extinct, it's
65. When large habitats are broken up into unique assemblage of parasites also
small fragments due to various meets the same fate
mammals and birds requiring large C) In the plant pollinator mutualism,
territories and certain animals with where extinction of one invariably leads
migratory habits are badly affected, to the extinction of the other.
leading to _b__ .(Pg. 266, E) D) All these statements are correct.
A) a - Nature activities, 72. Which one is not an example of Alien
b - Population declines species invasions? (Pg. 265, E)
B) a - Human activities, A) Parthenium
b - Population declines B) Steller's sea cow
C) a - Human activities, C) Catfish
b - Population increasing D) Lantana
D) none of these 73. Purpose of introducing the African cat fish
66. Once covering more than ___ percent of in the Indian River. (Pg. 265, E)
Earth's land surface, these rain forests A) For Aquaculture
now cover no more than ___ percent. B) For ornamental purpose
(Pg. 264, E) C) For agriculture
A) 6, 14 B) 14,8 D) None of these.
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15.2 Biodiversity Conservation 79. Initially _i_ biodiversity hotspots were

identified, but after some time _ii_
74. Reason behind conserving the biodiversity. more have been added and the total
(Pg. 265, E) number of biodiversity hotspot in the
A) Narrowly utilitarian. world to _iii_ (Pg. 266, E)
B) Broadly utilitarian. A) i- 25, ii- 9
C) Ethical B) ii- 8, iii- 30
D) All of these C) i- 23, iii- 34
75. More than 25% of the drugs currently sold D) none of these
in the market worldwide are derived from 80. Match the following (Pg. 266, E)
_i_ and _ii_ species of plants Column I Column II
contribute to the traditional medicines a Biosphere 1 448
used by native peoples around the world. reserve
b National parts 2 14
(Pg. 265, E)
C Wildlife 3 90
A) i- plants, ii- 25,000
centuries
B) i- Animals, ii- 25,000
C) i- Animals, ii- 25,00
A) a-2 ' b-3 ' c-1 B) a-1 ' b-2 ' c-3
D) i- plants, ii- 25,00
C) a-2 ' b-1 ' c-3 D) a-1 ' b-3 ' c-2
76. How much oxygen is produced by Amazon
81. Sacred groves are/ is found in (Pg. 267, E)
Forest through Photosynthesis?
A) Khasi and Jaintia hills in Meghalaya
(Pg. 266, E) B) Aravalli hills of Rajasthan
A) 20% of the total oxygen.
C) Western ghat region of Karnataka
B) 30% of the total oxygen.
D) All of these are correct
C) 25% of the total oxygen.
82. In which sacred growth the last refugees
D) None of these.
for a large number of rare and threatened
77. Select the correct option about ethical
plants are there? (Pg. 267, E)
argument. (Pg. 266, E)
A) In Rajasthan
A) In ethical argument of conserving
B) In western ghat
biodiversity relates to what we are to
C) In Meghalaya
million of plant, animals and micro
D) In Karnataka.
species with whom we share this
83. 'Biodiversity hotspots' is a region where
planet.
(Pg. 267, E)
B) We need to realize that every species
A) Very high level of species richness and
has an intrinsic value.
high degree of endemism
C) We have a moral duty to care for their
B) Very high level of species richness and
well being and pass on our biological
low degree of endemism
legacy in good order to future
C) Very low level of species richness and
generation.
also low degree of endemism
D) All these statements are correct.
D) None of these
15.2.2 How do we conserve 84. Which one is not a characteristic of
biodiversity? biodiversity hotspots? (Pg. 267, E)
A) High level of species richness.
78. Species confined to that region and not B) Endemism
found anywhere else is called as- C) 38 in numbers
(Pg. 266, E) D) Accelerated habitat loss protection
A) In situ B) Exotic 85. Which one is not included under in situ
C) Endemic D) None of these conservation? (Pg. 267, E)
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A) Biosphere reserves 94. The world's summit on sustainable

B) National parks development held in 2002 in. (Pg. 267, E)
C) Zoological parks A) Johannesburg, South Africa.
D) Sacred groves B) Cape town South Africa.
86. Which one is not the hotspot in India? C) Rio de Janeiro.
(Pg. 267, E) D) East America
A) Western ghats B) Indo Burma 95. How many countries pledged in world
C) Eastern Ghats D) Himalaya summit held in 2002 in Johannesburg?
87. Sacred groves are that- (Pg. 267, E) (Pg. 267, E)
A) Place which are protected for animals. A) 200 B) 180
B) Place where all people are worship. C) 170 D) 190
C) Place where religion and cultural 96. In which type of conservation threatened
traditions that emphasized protection animals and plants are taken out from
of nature their natural habitat and placed in special
D) None of these selting place where they can be protected
88. Sacred groves, Khasi and Jaintia hills and given a special care? (Pg. 267, E)
located in- (Pg. 267, E) A) Cryopreservation
A) Meghalaya B) Manipur B) Ex-situ conservation
C) Mizoram D) Madhya Pradesh C) In-situ conservation
89. What is endangered or threatened? D) None of these
(Pg. 267, E) 97. Seeds of different genetic strains of
A) Organisms facing a very high risk of commercially important plants can be kept
death due to environment. for long period in (Pg. 267, E)
B) Organisms facing a very high risk of A) Cryopreservation
extinction, in the near future. B) Tissue culture
C) Organism facing a very high risk of C) Seed bank
danger from other organisms. D) None of these
D) None of these. 98. Which are involved in In-situ
90. Which one of the following is not an conservation? (Pg. 267, E)
example of Ex-situ conservation? (i) Biosphere reserve
(Pg. 267, E)
(ii) Cryopreservation
A) Zoological parks
B) Botanical Gardens (iii) Tissue culture
C) Biosphere reserves
D) none (iv) Seed bank
91. Gametes of threatened species can be (v) National park
preserved in variable and fertile condition
for long period using (Pg. 267, E) (vi) Zoological park
A) Heat B) Cryopreservation (vii)Sacred groves
C) Both D) None of these
92. Threatened plant species can be (viii) Safari parks
propagated by- (Pg. 267, E) A) iii, vii, v B) ii, iii, i
A) Tissue Culture B) Aquaculture C) i, v, vii D) iv, vi, i
C) Cryopreservation D) None of these 99. Pledge of Earth Summit held in Rio de
93. The Earth's summit held in Rio de Janeiro Janeiro. (Pg. 267, E)
in. (Pg. 267, E) A) All nations to take appropriate
A) 2000 B) 1990 measure for conservation of
C) 1992 D) 2002
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biodiversity and sustainable utilization (iii) Also called the earth summit
of its benefit.
(iv) 190 states Pledged in this summit
B) All nations are free to utilize natural
resources and also harm the (v) Commitment to achieve by 2020
ecosystem. A) i, ii, iv B) i, ii, iii
C) Significant reduction in the current C) iii, iv, I D) all
rate of biodiversity loss at global, 101. In recent years, which type of conservation
regional and local levels. has advanced beyond keeping threatened
D) None of these species in enclosures? (Pg. 267, E)
100. What is correct about the historic A) In-situ conservation
convention on biological diversity? B) Ex-situ conservation
(Pg. 267, E) C) None of these
(i) It held in Rio de Janeiro D) Both A & B
(ii) In 1992
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ANSWER KEY
BIODIVERSITY AND CONSERVATION
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans C B A D D B A A C B
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans D C D C B C A C D A
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans C A C A C B C A A D
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans A C B D C B C D D A
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans B D D D B A C A D A
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans D C B D C B D D B C
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans D D B D B C D C D B
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans D B A D A A D C A A
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans D C A C C A D A B C
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans B A C C D B C C A D
Q 101
Ans B
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1. are the agents that bring A) 2.0 micrometers or more in diameter

undesirable changes in physical, chemical B) 2.0 micrometers or less in diameter
or biological characteristics of air, land, C) 2. 5 micrometers or less in diameter
water or soil. (Pg. D) 2. 5 micrometers or more in diameter
270,E) 8. Catalytic converters, having expensive
A) Pollution metals namely ___ and ___ as the
B) Pollutants catalysts are fitted into auto mobiles for
C) Contagion reducing emission of poisonous gases.
D) Particulate matter (Pg.272,E)
2. Environment (protection) Act was passed A) platinum - palladium and rhodium
in ____ (Pg.270,E) B) osmium - platinum and rhodium
A) 1990 B) 1996 C) silver - platinum and indium
C) 1986 D) 1948 D) ruthenium - palladium and rhodium
3. Environment (protection) Act was passed 9. In India, the air (prevention and control of
by___ (Pg.270,E) pollution) Act come into force in ___
A) WHO (Pg.272,E)
B) Forest and environment minister of A) 1980 B) 1982
USA C) 1988 D) 1981
C) Water conservation committee of world 10. Label the figure correctly using given
D) Government of india correct option - (Pg.271,E)
16.1 Air Pollution and Its Control
4. ____ is the most widely used method
of removing particulate matter from air
(Pg.271,E)
A) Wet scrubbers
B) Venturi scrubbers
C) Fume scrubber
D) Electrostatic precipitator (iii)
5. In electrostatic precipitator, ___ attach
to dust particle giving them a net negative (i) (ii) (iii)
charge (Pg.271,E) A Discharge Negatively Collection
A) Proton corona charged wire plate
grounded
B) Negatively charged wire B Electron Nucleus Collection
plate
C) Electron Negatively Discharge Collection
C
D) Another dust particles charged wire corona plate
D Dust Negatively Collection
6. CPCB stands for (Pg.271,E) particles charged wire plate
A) Control pollution central board grounded
B) Central population control board
C) Central pollution control board 11. Which among the following is used in
D) Control population central board scrubber to clean the exhaust air?
7. According to CPCB, particulate size A) Water or lime B) Chlorine
____ are responsible for causing the C) Platinum D) Molybdenum
greatest harm to human health 16.1 Air Pollution and Its Control
(Pg.271,E)
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(Pg. 273, E)
12. What does PIL stands for (Pg. 272, E) A) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
A) People Interest Limitation B) (i) is correct and (ii) is wrong
B) Public Interest Litigation C) (i) is wrong and (ii) is correct
C) Population Interest Litigation D) Both (i) and (ii) are wrong
D) Personal Interest Litigation 16.2 Water Pollution and It's
13. Which among the following is best to use Control
as a fuel for public transport? (Pg. 272, E)
A) Petrol
B) Diesel 19. Water (Prevention and Control of pollution)
C) Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) Act was passed in which year?
D) Gasoline (Pg. 273, E)
14. Statement P : CNG is better than petrol A) 1981 B) 1974
and diesel C) 1989 D) 1986
Statement Q : CNG burns most efficiently 20. Choose the correct option -
and left with very little of unburnt residue Impurities in waste water (Pg. 273, E)
(Pg. 273, E) 1 Suspended i Fecal matter,
A) P is correct and Q is wrong solids bacteria
B) Both statements are correct 2 Colloidal ii Nitrate,
C) P is wrong and Q is correct material Calcium
D) Both statements are wrong 3 Dissolved iii Sand, Silt,
15. Use of ___ and ___ reduces the material Clay
vehicular pollution. (Pg. 273, E)
A) Leaded petrol and low sulphur petrol A) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii B) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii
B) Unleaded petrol and high sulphur C) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii D) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i
petrol 21. Label the given figure (Pg. 274, E)
C) Unleaded petrol and low sulphur
petrol and diesel. ""'"
D) Leaded petrol and high sulphur petrol
16. Which among the following is correct
option -
v
(ii)
ACC. to Euro III norms - (Pg. 273, E) ______. ______.
A) Sulphur be controlled at 350 ppm in Direction of flow
(iii)
diesel
B) Sulphur be controlled at 150 ppm in (i) (ii) (iii)
diesel A BOD Dissolved Clean
02 water
C) Sulphur be controlled at 370 ppm in
B BOD Dissolved Sewage
diesel
02 discharge
D) Sulphur be controlled at 360 ppm in C Dissolved BOD Sewage
diesel 02 water
17. Bharat stage II is equivalent to which D Dissolved BOD Clean
among the following - (Pg. 273, E) 02 water
A) Euro - III norms B) Euro - I norms
C) Euro - II norms D) Euro - IV norms 22. BOD stands for - (Pg. 275, E)
18. (i) Bharat stage III - norms is applicable to A) Biological Oxygen Demand
4 wheelers, 3 wheelers, 2 wheelers B) Biochemical Oxygen Demand
(ii) Bharat stage III norm is implemented C) Biodegradable Oxygen Demand
throughout the country since May 2017 D) Biological Oxygen Dissolved
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23. (i) Dissolved salts like nitrates, 28. Scientific name of water hyacinth -
phosphates, toxic metal ions and organic (Pg. 275, E)
compounds are most easy to remove from A) Eichhornia crassipes
sewage water BJ Elodea canadensis
(ii) A mere 0.1 % impurities make domestic CJ Epomoea quamoclit
sewage unfit for human use DJ Etroplus surotensis
(iii) Most of domestic sweage are not 29. Which among the following is called
readily decomposed Terror of Bengal ' ? - (Pg. 276, E)
How many among the above statements A) Nelumbo nucifera
are correct - (Pg. 275, E) BJ Ceratrophyllum submeresum
A) 0 B) 1 C) Eichhornia crassipes
C) 2 D) 3 DJ Lemma minor
24. Assertion : It is possible to estimate the 30. Which among the following is not true
amount of non - biodegradable organic about water hyacynth? - (Pg. 276, E)
matter in sewage water by measuring A) There are the world's most problematic
BOD. aquatic weed.
Reason Bacteria and other micro B) These are introduced in the India for
organism multiply using the organic their rapid growing ability
substances as substrate and utilizes some C) They have very beautiful flowers
of the components of sewage -(Pg. 275, E) D) They cause imbalance in the ecosystem
A) Assertion is wrong Reason is correct dynamics of the water bodies
B) Both are wrong 31. Match the following - (Pg. 276, E)
C) Assertion is correct but Reason is 1 Water i DDT 0.5 ppm
wrong 2 Zooplankton ii DDT 2 ppm
D) Both are correct 3 Small fish iii DDT 0.003 ppm
25. Free-Floating algae are also called ___ 4 Large fish iv DDT 25 ppm
A) Euglenoids 5 Fish - Eating V DDT 0.04 ppm
B) Planktonic-algae birds
C) Hydro algae
D) Dinoflagellates algae A) 1-iii, 2-v, 3-i, 4-ii, 5-iv
26. What is the cause of algal bloom? B) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-v, 4-iv, 5-iii
A) Excessive growth of planktonic algae C) 1-ii, 2-v, 3-iv, 4-i, 5-iii
due to presence of large amount of D) 1-iii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4-v, 5-ii
nutrient in water 32. Heavy metals like mercury, lead, etc have
B) Excess of fish mortality in water density greater than ___? -(Pg. 276, E)
C) Discharge of harmful elements like A) 5 g/cm3
lead, mercury, etc in water bodies B) 5 mg/cm3
through industries C) 25 g/cm3
D) Nitrogen - fixing bacteria present in D) 25 mg/cm3
water bodies fixes nitrogen and results 33. Which among the following refers to the
in the spread of vegetation increase in concentration of the toxicant at
2 7. Which among the following are not successive trophic level - (Pg. 276, E)
consequences of algal bloom -(Pg. 275, E) A) BOD
A) Imparting distinct colors to the water B) Biomagnification
bodies C) Biofortification
B) Deterioration of water quality D) Eutrophication
C) Fish natality 34. Assertion: Toxic substances get passed on
D) Toxicity to human being and animals to the next higher trophic level
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Reason Toxic substances get 40. Which among the following can accelerate
accumulated by an organism cannot be the process of eutrophication -(Pg. 277, E)
metabolished or excreted - (Pg. 276, E) A) Organic waste from household
A) Both are correct B) Plastic waste
B) Assertion is correct but Reason is C) Sewage and agricultural waste
wrong D) Both A & C
C) Assertion is wrong but Reason is 41. Accelerated aging process of natural lake
correct by pollutants from mans activities are
D) Both are wrong called ___ (Pg. 277, E)
35. High concentration of DDT disturb A) Cultural eutrophication
calcium metabolism in bird which causes B) Man-made eutrophication
(Pg. 276, E) C) Accelerated eutrophication
A) Thinning of eggshell D) More than one option is correct
B) Premature breaking of eggshell 42. Prime contaminants, that causes severe
C) Decline in bird population eutrophication and also act as plant
D) All of these nutrients are___ (Pg. 277, E)
36. Which among the following is a term used A) Calcium B) Nitrate
for natural aging of lake - (Pg. 276, E) C) Phosphate D) Both B & C
A) Biomagnification 43. Which of below option is correct?
B) Eutrophication Pollutants from thermal power plants
C) Euphorbism results in - (Pg. 277, E)
D) Eumagnification i) Elimination of organism sensitive to
37. What causes eutrophication?-(Pg. 277, E) high temperature
A) Introduction of nutrients like nitrogen ii) Elimination of organisms sensitive to
and phosphorus low temperature
B) Introduction of harmful elements like iii) Enhance the growth of organisms in
lead extremely cold areas
C) Introduction of plastic waste iv) Certainly has no effect on the
D) None of these organisms
38. Which among the following statements are A) Only I B) ii and iii
correct? - (Pg. 277, E) C) i and iii D) only iv
i) Eutrophication is long process which 16.2.2 A case study of Integrated
may even take thousands of years waste water Treatment
ii) Eutrophication encourages growth of
aquatic organisms 44. Arcata is situated along the -(Pg. 277, E)
iii) Eutrophication leads to the conversion A) North coast of California
of fresh lake into polluted and B) Eastern part of Europe
deteriorate lake C) Southern part of Germany
A) (ii) and (iii) B) Only (i) D) Middle zone of France
C) (i) and (ii) D) All 45. The series of six connected marshes
39. Eutrophication finally leads to the spread over how much area in the
conversion of lake into which among the integrated waste water treatment? -
following? - (Pg. 277, E) A) 600 hectares B) 60 hectares
A) Deep swampy pond C) 600 Acre D) 60 Acre
B) Land 46. Which among the following is true about
C) Polluted pond the second stage of the Arcata integrated
D) Lake with silt and organic content at waste water treatment? - (Pg. 277, E)
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A) It comprises of marshes which contain A) large amount of garbage results in

algae, fungi and bacteria, which rapidly filling of landfills
neutrises absorb and assimilate the B) seepage of chemicals causing soil
pollutants contamination
B) Marshes go with conventional C) Contamination of groundwater
sedimentation filtering and chlorine D) all of these
treatment 54. Waste that is generated is categorized into
C) Marshes constitute of a sanctuary with the following type-- (Pg. 278, E)
a high level of biodiversity i) bio-degradable
D) Both (i) and (iii) ii) nonbiodegradable
47. Who are responsible for the safeguarding iii) contaminated waste
of integrated waste water treatment in iv) recyclable waste
Arcata? - (Pg. 277, E) A) only i and ii B) i, ii and iii
A) FOAM B) POAM C) i, ii and iv D) All of these
C) COAM D) DOAM 55. What is incinerators? - (Pg. 279, E)
48. What does FOAM stands for?-(Pg. 277, E) A) Chemicals used for degradation of
A) Family of Arcata Marsh waste
B) Friends of Arcata Marsh B) Micro-organisms that degrade waste
C) Family of Arcata Mission C) Area where waste products are dumped
D) Friends of Arcata Mission D) Furnace wear waste are burned
49. Which among the following is a 56. Crucial step for safe disposing hospital
sustainable system for handling human waste is - (Pg. 279, E)
excreta using dry composting toilets? - A) disinfecting the waste products
(Pg. 277, E) B) using of incinerators
A) Recycle sanitation C) disposal in water bodies
B) Biological sanitation D) none of these
C) Ecological sanitation 57. What are irreplarable computers and
D) None of these electronic wastes are called? -(Pg. 279, E)
50. Name of dry composting toilets used in A) E -waste B) C -waste
many areas of Kerala and Sri Lanka- C) A -waste D) B -waste
(Pg. 278, E) 58. How E -waste are treated without damage
A) Bio san B) Com san to environment and human life? -
C) Chem san D) Eco san (Pg. 279, E)
16.3Solid Wastes A) Recycling
51. Municipal solid waste include waste from B) Buried in pit / landfills
C) Incinerated
(Pg. 278, E)
A) Homes and schools D) All of these
B) Hospitals 16.3.1 Case Study of Remedy for
C) Stores and office Plastic Waste
D) All of these
52. ___were adopted as the substitute for 59· Which among the following is produced by
open - burning dumps - Ahmed Khan's company? - (Pg. 279, E)
(Pg. 278, E)
A) sanitary landfills A) Bitumen B) Polyblend
B) decomposing pit C) Karlit D) Qualinite
C) shallow pit 60. Polyblend is obtained by which of the
D) none of these following? - (Pg. 279, E)
53. Problems with landfills to dump wastes A) By making a paste of recycled modified
lastic
I I
are-- _ _8,� E_ )� _____,>---___P_ _ _ _ �
(Pg._27
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B) By making a powder of recycled 66. What is the key point of integrated organic
modified plastic farming? - (Pg. 280, E)
C) By making a paste of non-recycled A) Preference of mixed farming
unmodified plastic B) Waste product from one process are
D) By making a powder of non-recycled cycled in as nutrient for other process
unmodified plastic C) Minimizing the use of chemical
61. Polyblend is mixed with which among the fertilizer
following to lay roads? - (Pg. 279, E) D) All of these
A) Karolinite B) Allinite 67. What are the results of integrated organic
C) Bitumen D) Dalinite family? - (Pg. 280, E)
62. What are the factors by which khan prove A) Maximum utilization of resources
that his innovation is better way to lay B) Increased efficiency of production
road- (Pg. 279, E) C) Higher profitability to farmer
A) Enhanced water repellent properties D) All of these
B) This increases the road life by a factor 68. How many among the following are true for
of 3 Dagar's idea of integrated organic farming
C) Accumulation of plastic waste reduced (Pg. 280, E)
D) All of these i) he included Bee - keeping dairy, water
63. Ahmed khan collaborated with - harvesting, composting and agriculture
A) R. V. College of Engineering in his farm
B) J awaharlal Medical College ii) he uses cattle dung as manure to crops
C) Bangalore City Corporation iii) he uses crop waste only to generate
D) Both A and C natural gas but not for compost
16.4 Agro - Chemicals and their formation
Effects iv) he uses chemical fertilizer for crops
A) 1 B) 2
64. What are the effects of Green Revolution? C) 3 D) 4
(Pg. 279, E) 69. Who was the founder of Haryana kisan
A) Increased crop production welfare club? - (Pg. 280, E)
B) widely used inorganic fertilizer and A) Suresh Dagariya
pesticides B) Raju Chandra Bhushan
C) increased toxicity to soils ecosystem C) Ahmad Khan
D) all of these D) Ramesh Chandra Dagar
65. Which among the following is correct? - 16.1 Radioactive wastes
(Pg. 279, E)
i) Increase the use of chemical fertilizer 70. Three Mile Island and Chernobyl incidents
can be biomagnified in terrestrial are related to which among the following?
ecosystem and can be toxic (Pg. 280, E)
ii) increased used of chemical fertilizer is A) Leakage of chemical gas
useful for aquatic ecosystem as it B) Leakage of radioactive gas
undergoes Eutrophication in faster C) release of contaminated wastewater
rate D) none of these
A) only (i) B) only (ii) 71. How radiation given off by nuclear waste is
C) (i) and (ii) D) None of these damaging to organisms? - (Pg. 280, E)
16.4.1 Case Study of Organic A) They cause mutation at very high rate
B) They cause disorders by altering the
Farming
gene sequence
C) they cause cancer
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D) all the above B) UV rays

72. What is the best method to dispose C) PAR
nuclear waste? - (Pg. 280, E) D) All of these
A) Bury then deep down in Atlantic Ocean 78. Match the following-
B) after pre-treatment bury within the Relative contribution of various
rock in shielded container 500-meter greenhouse gasses to total global warming
deep below the earth
C) taking these wastes to the other planet 1 CO2 I 20%
and disposing there. 2 Methane II 14%
D) all of these 3 CFC III 60%
16.6 Greenhouse effect and Global 4 N2O IV 6%
Warming
A) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I
73. From where does term 'Greenhouse effect' B) 1-III, 2-II, 3-IV, 4-I
has been derived? - (Pg. 280, E) C) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-II, 4-III
A) From Green Terrestrial Surface D) 1-III, 2-I, 3-II, 4-IV
B) Phenomena occurring in green plants 79. Assertion greenhouse gasses are
C) phenomena that occurs in greenhouse responsible for greenhouse effect.
D) scientist named Greenhouse Reason : Earth receives incoming solar
74. Why greenhouse is actually used for radiation in short wave radiation some
plants? - (Pg. 280, E) radiation get reflected back, some get fall
A) It is used to maintain the soil health for in Earth's surface heating it, earth again
growing plant re-emits heat in form of infrared rays and
B) It is used to grow plants especially in get absorbed by greenhouse gases these
winter as it's warm from inside gases again radiate them and cycle get
providing plants good temperature to repeated many times and keep earth
grow surface warm - (Pg. 281, M)
C) It provide plants cool temperature and A) Assertion is correct and Reason is
environment to grow wrong
D) all of these B) Both are correct
7 5. Which among the following phenomena is C) Assertion is wrong and Reason is
responsible for natural heating of Earth's correct
surface and atmosphere? - (Pg. 280, E) D) Both are wrong
A) Absorption of heat (sun) rays 80. What is the result of increased level of
B) Greenhouse effect greenhouse gasses? - (Pg. 281, E)
C) Emission of radioactive raise from A) Global warming
nuclear plant B) melting of ice glaciers in Polar region
D) Doppler's phenomena C) abnormal weather phenomena (El Nino
76. Earth receives incoming solar radiation in effect)
the form of___ (Pg. 281, E) D) all of these
A) Long wave radiation 81. What portion of incoming solar radiation
B) Short wave radiation get reflected by clouds and gases without
C) Electronic wave radiation reaching to the earth's surface? -
D) Magnetic wave radiation (Pg. 281, E)
77. In which form earth's surface re-emits A) 1/3 rd B) 1/4 th
heat, that does not escape into space? - C) 2/3 rd D) 1/2 nd
(Pg. 281, E)
A) Infrared radiation
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82. What would be the average temperature of C) By action of PAR on molecular oxygen
earth if there would be no greenhouse D) none of the above
effect?- (Pg. 281, E) 90. Full Form of CFCs is (Pg. 282, E)
°
A) 0 C B) 15° C A) Chlorofluoro cation
C) -18° C D) -105° C B) Chlorofluroscent carbon
16.7 Ozone Depletion in the C) Chlorofluoro carbon
Stratosphere D) Cationicfluoroin carbon
91. Which among the following is true about
83. Bad ozone is found in which layer? - CFCs? (Pg. 282, E)
(Pg. 282, E) i) It degrades the ozone layer
A) Upper Stratosphere ii) By the action of UV ray CFCs releases
B) Thermosphere Cl atom
C) Troposphere iii) Cl bind with ozone and releases
D) Ionosphere molecular oxygen and act as merely
84. Good ozone is found in which layer? catalysts
(Pg. 282, E) iv) Cl atom are consumed in the reaction
A) Upper Stratosphere A) Only i and ii B) Only i and iii
B) Thermosphere C) i, ii and iii D) all of these
C) Troposphere 92. what are the effects of UV- B rays?
D) Ionosphere (Pg. 282, E)
85. The thickness of ozone layer is measured A) Damages DNA by causing mutation
by (Pg. 282, E) B) Causes inflammation of Cornea, snow
A) Fukin unit B) Delberg unit blindness,
C) Dobson unit D) Colleit unit C) causes cataract
86. The area where, ozone layer is thin is D) All of these.
known as (Pg. 282, E) 93. Which among the following international
A) Ozone reduced area treaty was signed to control emission of
B) Ozone hole ozone depleting substances? (Pg. 282, E)
C) Spare ozone area A) Kyoto Protocol
D) Zero ozone B) Nagoya Protocol
87. At which area, ozone hole is prominent? C) Earth summit
(Pg. 282, E) D) Montreal Protocol
A) Above antarctica 94. In which year Montreal Protocol was
B) Above north Pacific ocean signed? (Pg. 283, E)
C) Above Atlantic ocean A) 1990 B) 1985
D) Above whole Asia C) 1986 D) 1987
88. What is the time period at which ozone 16.8 Degradation By Improper
hole area Antarctica develops each year? Resources Utilization And
(Pg. 282, E) Maintainance
A) Late August- early October
B) January- Feburary 95. What cause soil erosion? (Pg. 283, E)
C) Early March- Late March A) Un-restricted grazing
D) Mid December- Mid January B) Deforestation
89. How ozone gas are formed? (Pg. 282, E) C) Poor-irrigation practices
A) By action of UV rays on molecular D) All of these
oxygen 96. What are the effect of water logging?
B) By action of infrared rays on molecular (Pg. 283, E)
oxygen
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A) It result in soil salinity as it draws salt A) Deforestation

from underground and deposit on land B) Repeated forestation
surface as thin crust. C) Reforestation
B) It results in accumulation of acid on D) All of these
soil surface. 16.9.1 Case Study of Peoples
C) It results in desertification. participation in conservation of
D) All of these. Forests
16.1 Air Pollution and Its Control
101. Amrita devi was a lady from which
97. When was National Forest Policy came? community? (Pg. 284, E)
(Pg. 284, E) A) Garwhal B) Bajpah
A) 1987 B) 1985 C) Bishnoi D) Barwal
C) 1988 D) 1986 102. Chipko movement was performed in?
98. Another name of slash and burn (Pg. 285, E)
agriculture is ___ (Pg. 284, E) A) Diwanans Gujarat
A) Sling cultivation B) Bishnoi Gir forest
B) Donum cultivation C) Garhwal Himalayas
C) Jhum cultivation D) Deoni Delhi
D) Fiala cultivation 103. When was Chipko movement observed?
99. Assertion: Jhum cultivation also causes (Pg. 285, E)
deforestation A) 1972 B) 1971
Reason: It include cutting down of trees in C) 1973 D) 1974
forest and burned the remaining plant. 104. What does JFM stand for? (Pg. 285, E)
Ashes used as fertilizer and land is used A) Junior Federation of Management
for cultivation, then same process is B) Junior Forest Manager
repeated to another area due to increased C) Joint Fellowship Management
population time-gap given is limited for D) Joint Forest Management
recovery and results in deforestation. 105. Which among the following award is given
(Pg. 284, M) to the individual community for their
A) Assertion and Reason both are correct extraordinary courage and dedication in
B) Assertion is correct but Reason is protecting wildlife? (Pg. 285, E)
wrong A) Chipcombent award.
C) Both are wrong B) Amrita Devi Bisnoe wildlife protection
D) Assertion is wrong but reason is correct award.
100. The process of restoration of forest that C) Garval wildlife protection award
once existed, but was removed at some D) none of these.
point of time in past is called ___
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Answer Key
ENVIRONMENTAL ISSUES
Q 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans B C D D C C C A D A
Q 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans A B C B C A C B B C
Q 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans C B B A B A C A C B
Q 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans A A B A D B A C B C
Q 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans C D C A B D A B C D
Q 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans D A D C D B A D B A
Q 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans C D A D A D D B D B
Q 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans D B C B B B A D B D
Q 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans B C C A C B A A A C
Q 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans C D D D D D C C A B
Q 101 102 103 104 105
Ans A C D D B
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Living world ..............................5

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants ............................ 149

What is living? A) digestion B) growth

D) Metabolic reactions cannot be

A) systematics B) taxonomy C Identification (3) A system of

Pg-8, Easy 52. Choose the incorrect statement from the

C Family (3) Plantae

B) Chord Mamm Carniv Felida Panth Tigri I D) I 2 I 1 I 3 I 4 I

77. Zoological parks are commonly known as a b C d

A) a = cocci, b = rod - shaped, c = bacilli, A) i) - c, ii) - b, iii - a

20. Synthesis of own food from inorganic

21. Match the column - I&column - II

D) Nutrition A) Morphology of mycelium

102. In Phycomycetes sexual reproduction A) Agaricus B) Alternaria

B) Fusion of two nuclei (ii)

135. Who showed that viruses could be B) A= capsid, B= capsomere, C= genetic

138. Genetic material of viruses are/is -

D) BSE and CJD cause in human B) Gymnosperm root&fungi

� )_ ...l ...l ...l '-';I/

1. Artificial classification system is based on C) Kelp D) Spirogyra

B) Brown algae algin), Red algae Paragraph - 3.1.2

A) Sphagnum, a liverwort A = archegonia

i) Sphenopsida A) Dryopteris (Pg38, E)

D) None of these C) Three male gamete is embryo sac

How many of following are show haplontic, D) A & C both

D) Algae only A) Haplontic life cycle eg: Volvox

Unit-2 9. Choose the given statement which is

A) B) C) A) Region of - Small thin wall

C) Respiration B) Unfavourable condition growth

52. Leaves of dicotyledonous plants generally D) A= palmately compound leaf; Neem B

64. In Australian acacia (Pg. 71, E)

A) Both A & B are modified by leaves

D)None of these B) 2. Brinjal

A) Four reproductive whorl other members of same whorl is termed as

C) Both A & B D) None of these

The fruit ii) Orchid is example of dicot seed

123. Find odd one with respect to endosperm

A) 1 B)2 138. Find out one with respect to Solanaceae

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Anatomy of Flowering Plants

Paragraph 6.1 The Tissues A) Apical meristem

C) Permanent tissues having all cells C) Pectin D) All of these

19. Where does collenchyma occur?

D) (i) - collenchyma, (ii) fibre, (iii) - A) Xylem vessels

B) Have peripheral cytoplasm and no C) 3 D) 4

A) Both A and R are correct and R is D) Transverse section of mature zones of

A) Semi - square patches of collenchyma

97. Increase in girth of plant-

D) All of these 104. Assertion: secondary xylem form a

(Pg. 96, E) Select the appropriate answer-

B) (ii) - cork cambium (Pg. 98, E)

Cell Structure and Function Cell Theory

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A) Have no well defined nucleus Pg-128, easy

A) Glycocalyx B) Capsule D) Filament only.

49. A polysome is:- C) Monera D) Animals

Paragraph - 8.5.1 i) Phospholipid ii) Carbohydrate

Paragraph - 8.5.3 Pg-133, easy

D) All of the above. iv) Mitochondria matrix has enzyme of

Centrosome and centrioles elaborate nucleoprotein fibers known as:

B) a-ii, b-iii, c-i Choose the correct option from following :

B) Ribose Bisphosphate Carboxylase (Pg. 216, E)

The three steps in Calvin cycle are D) RUBisCo 1 0