Quark Medical Test Series (2024)

PART TEST–03

DURATION : 200 Minutes 23.1.2024 MARKS : 720

Topics Covered
Physics : Electromagnetic Induction, Alternating Current, Electromagnetic Waves
Chemistry : The p-Block Elements, The d and f Block elements, Coordination Compounds, Haloalkanes and
Haloarenes, Alcohols
Biology : (Botany) : Molecular Basis of Inheritance
(Zoology) : Evolution

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hour 20 minute duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
4. There are four Section in the Question Paper, Section I, II, III & IV consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Botany) & Section IV (Zoology) and having 50 Questions in each part.
5. There is only one correct response for each questions.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
OMR Instructions:
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bubbles completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
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area may create problems during the evaluation.
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7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).

[1]
 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION: A
7. An inductance L and a resistance R are first
1. The magnetic flux across a loop of resistance 10 connected to a battery. After some time the battery
is given by  = (5t2 – 4t + 1) Wb. How much current is disconnected but L and R remain connected in a
is induced in the loop just after 0.2 sec? close circuit. Then the current reduces to 37% of its
(1) 0.4 A initial value in time equal to
(2) 0.2 A R
(3) 0.04 A (1) RL (2)
(4) 0.02 A L
L 1
(3) (4)
2. A 0.1 m long conductor carrying a current of 50 A R LR
is held perpendicular to a magnetic field of 1.25 mT.
The mechanical power required to move the 8. A conductor AB lies along the axis of a circular loop
conductor with a speed of 1 m sec–1 is of radius R. If the current in the conductor AB varies
(1) 62.5 mW
at the rate of I ampere/sec, the induced emf in the
(2) 625 mW
loop is:
(3) 6.25 mW
(4) 12.5 mW

3. In circular coil, when number of turns is doubled

1
and resistance becomes th of initial, then
4 0IR 0IR
inductance becomes– (1) 2 (2) 4
(1) 4 times (2) 2 times
(3) 8 times (4) No charge 0IR
(3) (4) Zero
2
4. A current is varying at the rate of 3 A/sec in a coil
generates an emf of 8 mV in a nearly coil. The 9. Assertion: If two inductors are in parallel, then
mutual inductance of the two coils is current in them distributes in inverse ratio of their
(1) 2.66 mH inductances.
(2) 2.66 × 10–3 mH Reason: In parallel, potential difference remains
(3) 2.66 H
constant.
(4) 0.266 H
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
5. In the figure, magnetic energy stored in the coil is Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
(1) 0 (2) 
(3) 25 J (4) None of these 10. A system S consists of two coils A and B. The coil
A carries a steady current I while the coil B is
6. The time taken for the magnetic energy to reach suspended nearly as shown in figure. Now, if the
25% of its maximum value, when a solenoid of system is heated, so as to raise the temperature of
resistance R and inductance L is connected to a two coils steadily, then
battery, is–
L
(1) (ln 2)
R
L
(2) (ln10)
R
(3) Infinite (1) The two coils show attraction
L (2) The two coils show repulsion
(4) (ln 5)
R (3) There is no change in the position of the two coils
(4) Induced current is not possible in coil B

[2]
11. An L-R circuit has R = 10 and L = 2H. If 120 V, 18. An L-C circuit contains a 20 mH inductor and 50 F
60 Hz AC voltage is applied, then current in the capacitor with an initial charge of 10 mC. The
circuit will be resistance of the circuit is negligible. At the instant
(1) 0.32 A (2) 0.16 A t = 0 the circuit is closed. At what time is the energy
(3) 0.48 A (4) 0.80 A stored completely magnetic?
(1) t = 0 (2) t = 1.57 ms
(3) t =3.14 ms (4) t = 6.28 ms
12. In a series resonant LCR circuit, the voltage across
R is 100 volts and R = 1 with C = 2F. The 19. Which of the following statement is correct
resonant frequency  is 200 rad/sec. At resonance, regarding the AC circuit shown in the adjacent
the voltage across L is: figure?
(1) 4 × 10–3 volt (2) 2.5 × 10–2 volt
(3) 40 volt (4) 2.5 × 105 volt

13. The output sinusoidal current versus time curve of

a rectifier is shown in the figure. The average value
of output current in this case is

(1) The rms value of current through the circuit is

irms = 5 2 A
(2) The phase difference between source emf and
1
current is  = cos–1 
I0  3 
(1) 0 (2)  
2 (3) Average power dissipated in the circuit is 500 W
2I0 (4) None of the above
(3) (4) I0

20. A condenser of 250 pF is connected in parallel to a
14. In a transformer, numbers of turns in the primary coil of inductance of 0.16 mH, while its effective
are 140 and that in the secondary are 280. If current resistance is 20. Determine the resonant
in primary is 4A, then in the secondary is frequency.
(1) 9 × 104 Hz (2) 16 × 107 Hz
(1) 4A (2) 2A 5
(3) 8 × 10 Hz (4) 9 × 103 Hz
(3) 6A (4) 10A
21. The average electric field of electromagnetic waves
15. The rms voltage of the waveform shown is in certain region of free space is 9 × 10–4 NC–1. Then
the average magnetic field in the same region is of
the order of
(1) 27 × 10–4 T (2) 3 × 10–12 T
1
(3)   10
12
T (4) 3 × 1012 T
 
3
(1) 10 V (2) 7 V
22. A parallel plate capacitor is charged to 60 C. Due
(3) 6.37 V (4) None of these to a radioactive source, the plate loses charge at the
16. In a series L-R-C circuit resistance R = 10 and the rate of 1.8 × 10–8 Csec–1. The magnitude of
impedance Z = 10. The phase difference between displacement current is
the current and the voltage is (1) 1.8 × 10–8 C/sec
(1) 0° (2) 30° (2) 3.6 × 10–8 C/sec
(3) 45° (4) 60° (3) 4.1 × 10–11 C/sec
(4) 5.7 × 10–12 C/sec
17. In the circuit shown, rms current is 11A. The
potential difference across the inductor is 23. The electric field intensity produced by the
radiations coming from 100W bulb at a 3 m distance
is E. The electric field intensity produced by the
radiations coming from 50 W bulb at the same
distance is
E
(1) (2) 2E
2
E
(3) (4) 2E
(1) 220 V (2) 0 V 2
(3) 300 V (4) 200 V

[3]
24. Assertion: Ultraviolet radiations of higher 31. An emf of 15 V is applied in a circuit coil containing
frequency wave are dangerous to human being. 5 H inductance and 10  resistance. The ratio of the
Reason: Ultraviolet radiation are absorbed by the currents at time t =  and t = 1 sec is
atmosphere. 1
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and e2
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. (1)
1
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
e 2 1
Reason is not the correct explanation of
2
Assertion. e
(2)
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. e 1
2
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false. (3) 1 – e–1
(4) e–1
25. In an electromagnetic wave, the electric and
magnetic fields are 100 V/m and 0.265 T. The
maximum energy flow is: 32. A uniform but increasing with time magnetic field
(1) 26.5 W/m2 (2) 36.5 W/m2 exists in a cylindrical region. The direction of force
2
(3) 46.7 W/m (4) 765 W/m2 on an electron at P is

26. Radiations of intensity 0.5 W/m2 are striking a metal

plate. The pressure on the plate is
(1) 0.166 × 10–8 N/m2
(2) 0.322 × 10–8 N/m2
(3) 0.111 × 10–8 N/m2
(4) 0.083 × 10–8 N/m2
(1) Towards right
27. Light with an energy flux of 20 W/cm2 falls in a (2) Towards left
non-reflecting surface at normal incidence. The (3) Into the plane of paper
surface has an area of 30 cm2. The total momentum (4) Out of the plane of paper
delivered (for complete absorption) during 30
minutes is 33. Magnetic flux during time interval  varies through
(1) 36 × 10–5 kg-m/sec a stationary loop of resistance R as
(2) 36 × 10–4 kg-m/sec
B = at( – t). Find the amount of heat generated
(3) 1.08 × 104 kg-m/sec
during that time. Neglect the inductance of the loop.
(4) 1.08 × 107 kg-m/sec
a23
(1)
28. The charge on a parallel plate capacitor varies as q R
= q0 cos2ft. The plates are very large and close a
2 2
together (area = A, separation = d). Neglecting the (2)
2R
edge effects, find the displacement current through
a23
the capacitor. (3)
(1) – 4q0f sin(2ft) 3R
(2) – 2q0f sin(2ft) a23
(4)
(3) – 3q0f sin(2ft) 4R
(4) q0f sin(2ft)
34. In the given branch AB of a circuit a current, I = (10t
29. A radio can tune into any station in the 7.5 MHz to + 5)A is flowing, where t is time in second. At t = 0,
12 MHz band. What is the corresponding wave the potential difference between point A and B (VA
– VB) is–
length band?
(1) 80 m to 40 m (2) 85 m to 40 m
(3) 45 m to 50 m (4) 40 m to 25 m
(1) 15 V
30. What physical quantity is the same for X-ray of
(2) – 5 V
wavelength 10–10 m, red light of wavelength 6800 Å (3) – 15 V
and radio waves of wavelength 500 m? (4) 5 V
(1) Frequency (2) Speed
(3) Distance (4) None of these

[4]
35. An alternating current I in an inductance coil varies 38. Voltage applied to an AC circuit and current

with time t according to the graph as shown which flowing in it is given by V  200 2 sin t  


 4 


one of the following graphs gives the variation of

  
voltage with time? 
and i   2 cos  t   . Then, power consumed
 4
in the circuit will be
(1) 200 W (2) 400 W
(3) 200 2 W (4) None of these

39. The frequency of an alternating current is 50 Hz.

The minimum time taken by it in reaching from zero
to peak value is
(1) (1) 5 ms (2) 10 ms
(3) 20 ms (4) 50 ms

40. If L and R be the inductance and resistance of the

choke coil, then identify the correct statement.
(2) (1) L is very high compared to R.
(2) R is very high compared to L.
(3) Both L and R are high.
(4) Both L and R are low.

(3) 41. In an AC circuit, the impedance is 3 times the

reactance, then the phase angle is
(1) 60° (2) 30°
(3) Zero (4) None of these

(4) 42. A complex current wave is given by i = (5 + 5 sin

100t)A. Its average value over one time period is
given as
(1) 10 A (2) 5 A
SECTION – B (3) 50 A (4) 0
36. In figure, final value of current in 10 resister, long
time after plug of key k is inserted, is 43. The magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave is
given by, By = 3 × 10–7 sin(103x + 6.28 × 1012t). The
wavelength of the electromagnetic wave is:
(1) 6.28 mm (2) 0.63 mm
(3) 3.14 mm (4) 0.32 mm

44. In an electromagnetic wave, the amplitude of

electric field is 1 V/m. The frequency wave is 5 ×
104 Hz. The wave is propagating along z-axis. The
3 3 average energy density of electric field in joule/m3,
(1) A (2) A
10 20 will be
3 (1) 1.1 × 10–11 (2) 2.2 × 10–12
(3) A (4) Zero
–13
11 (3) 3.3 × 10 (4) 4.4 × 10–14

37. A square loop of side b is rotated in a constant 45. The self-inductance of two coils of a transformer
magnetic field B at angular frequency  as shown in are 20 mH and 30 mH. What is the resistance
the figure. What is the emf induced in it?
between them?
(1) Infinite
(2) Zero
(3) 1.5
(4) 600
(1) b2B sin (t) (2) bB sin (t)
(3) bB2 cos (t) (4) b2B

[5]
 46. The magnetic flux linked with a circuit of resistance 49. The resonant frequency of the given RLC circuit.
100 increases from 10 to 60 Wb. The amount of
induced charge that flows in the circuit is (in
coulomb)
(1) 0.5 (2) 5
(3) 50 (4) 100

47. If emf induced in a coil is 2V by changing the

current in it from 8 A to 6 A in 2 × 10–3 sec, then the (1) 50 Hz (2) 100 Hz
coefficient of self-induction is (3) 150 Hz (4) 200 Hz
(1) 2 × 10–3 H (2) 10–3 H
(3) 0.5 × 10–3 H (4) 4 × 10–3 H 50. An alternating emf 200 volts at 50 Hz is connected
to a circuit of resistance 1 and inductance 0.01 H.
48. The average power dissipated in AC circuit is 2 W. What is the phase difference between the current
If a current flowing through a circuit is 2A, and the emf in the circuit?
impedance is 1, then what is the power factor of (1) tan–1 (2) (2) tan–1 ()
the circuit?
1   

1  3 
(1) 0.5 (2) 1 (3) tan   (4) tan  
1 2   2 
(3) Zero (4)
2

SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION-A 55. Which of the following is correct?
51. Dinitrogen exists as a diatomic linear molecule but (1) Pure ozone is a pale blue gas, dark-blue liquid
phosphorous exists as tetra atomic tetrahedral and violet-black solid.
molecule. Why? (2) Pure ozone is a pale-pink gas, dark-red liquid
(1) Tetrahedral structure is more stable than and brown solid.
linear. (3) Pure ozone is a pale-yellow gas, dark-yellow
(2) Phosphorous cannot form pπ – pπ bond as the liquid and orange solid.
length of P–P σ-bond is very large due to which
(4) Pure ozone is a pale grey gas, dark-grey liquid
p-orbitals are unable to overlap to give -bond
and silvery solid.
(3) Phosphorous cannot form hydrogen bond
(4) Size of P is very small 56. A dioxide of sulphur reacts with molecular halogen
gas in the presence of charcoal to give a liquid A
52. Except , all the member of N-family forms which on oxidation using molecular oxygen in the
allotropes. presence of vanadium(V) oxide to give a trioxide B
(1) N (2) P
of an element having mass number 32. Identify A
(3) As (4) Bi
and B.
(1) SO3 and SO2Cl2 (2) SO3 and SOCl2
53. Out of all the member of N-family, only
(3) SO2Cl2 and SO3 (4) SOCl2 and SO3
does not form complex by accepting electron pairs.
(1) N (2) P
57. Match the following
(3) As (4) Sb
Column I Column II
54. The bond angle of hydrides of elements of A. Oleum 1. H2S2O8
Chalcogens decreases down the group because
(1) The size and electronegativity of central atom B. Caro’s acid 2. H2SO5
increases down the group
C. Marshall’s Acid 3. H2S2O7
(2) The size increases and electronegativity
decrease of central atom down the group A B C
(3) The size decreases and electronegativity (1) 1 2 3
increase of central atom down the group (2) 3 2 1
(4) The size and electronegativity of central atom (3) 2 3 1
decreases down the group (4) 3 1 2
[6]
58. Assertion: Contact process is an exothermic, 65. The effective magnetic moment of transition metal
reversible and the forward reaction leads to containing unpaired electron is the magnetic moment
decrease in volume. due to spin angular moment of the electron. The orbital
Reason: For Maximum yield, the reaction is magnetic moment is not considered due to
operated at low temperature and high pressure. (1) Quenching of the orbital magnetic moment by
(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason the surrounding ligands.
is a correct explanation for assertion. (2) d- orbitals are seated deeply into the atom.
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason (3) f-orbitals are seated outside the atom
is not a correct explanation for assertion (4) None of the above
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct 66. The reason behind the catalytic property of d-block
element is
59. Name the hydrogen halide having the longest bond (1) High ionization enthalpy
length. (2) Low heat of hydration
(1) HI (2) HBr (3) Negative standard reduction potential
(3) HCl (4) HF
(4) Variable valency

60. If we take hypochlorous acid, chlorous acid, chloric

67. Assertion: Transition elements form complexes
acid and perchloric acid, which is the strongest
Reason: The transition metals ions have very small
acid?
size and have high positive charge density. Also,
(1) Hypochlorous acid
they have vacant orbitals having right type and
(2) Chlorous acid
amount of energy to accept lone pair.
(3) Chloric acid
(4) Perchloric acid (1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
is a correct explanation for assertion.
61. Which among the following has low melting and (2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
boiling point? is not a correct explanation for assertion
(1) Copper (2) Nickel (3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(3) Iron (4) Zinc (4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct

62. The maximum number of oxidation states are shown by 68. Among 15 lanthanoids, the metals which can only
(1) Cr have +3 oxidation state.
(2) Mn (1) La, Ce, Pr (2) Nd, Pm, Sm
(3) Fe (3) Er, Tm, Yb (4) La, Gd, Lu
(4) Both (1) and (2)
69. Which of the following is false?
63. Among the elements of first transition series, the (1) Lanthanoid hydroxide is ionic and basic in
element having the most negative reduction nature.
potential for M+3/M system. (2) Lanthanoid hydroxides are stronger base than
(1) Scandium aluminium hydroxide.
(2) Manganese (3) Lanthanoid hydroxides are weaker base than
(3) Titanium calcium hydroxide.
(4) Vanadium (4) As we move from La to Lu hydroxides, the
basicity increases.
64. The first series of transition elements have negative
standard reduction potential except, copper. 70. Which of the following statement are correct?
Therefore, they should be good reducing agents but A. Lanthanoid ions have low charge density as
they are weaker reducing agents in comparison to they have large size.
group 1, 2, 13 elements. Why? B. They have low tendency to form complexes
(1) High heats of vaporisation especially with unidentate ligand.
(2) High ionisation enthalpies C. They preferably form chelating complexes.
(3) Low heat of hydration of their ions.
D. They form -acid complexes.
(4) All of the above
(1) ABC (2) BCD
(3) CDA (4) None

[7]
71. If a solution containing mixture of tri positive 79. The isomerism shown by CrCl36H2O complex is
lanthanoid ions of metals Lu, La, Gd, Tm made to (1) Ionisation (2) Hydrate
pass through ion-exchange chromatography under (3) Coordination (4) Linkage
the wash of effective eluent, the lanthanoid which
comes out first is 80. The isomerism shown by
(1) Lu (2) La [Pt (NO2) (C5H5N) (NH3) (NH2OH)] + is
(3) Gd (4) Tm (1) Ionisation (2) Geometrical
(3) Optical (4) Coordination position
72. Which of the following is the tridentate ligand?
(1) Py (2) Dipy 81. If you are given with d4 system, the CFSE for high
(3) Terpy (4) Trien spin and low spin octahedral complex would be (in
Dq)
73. When a complex PtCl42NH3 is treated with excess (1) 6 & 16 (2) 16 & 6
of silver nitrate solution, no white ppt is formed. (3) 6 & 6 (4) 16 & 16
The expected structure of the given complex is
(1) [PtCl2(NH3)2]Cl2 (2) [PtCl4(NH3)2] 82. Which of the following is true?
(3) [PtCl3(NH3)2]Cl (4) [PtCl(NH3)2]Cl3
(1) CFSE depends only on the nature of the
ligands
74. When PtCl46NH3 is treated with excess of silver (2) Big size ligands can approach the metal very
nitrate solution, four moles of silver chloride
easily and cause high CFSE
precipitated out. The total number of ions for the
(3) CO is a strong field ligand than ammonia.
complex is
(4) The metal with higher oxidation state cause
(1) 5 (2) 4
less CFSE value.
(3) 3 (4) 6
83. The nature of bonding in metal carbonyls is
75. Which of the following is not an ambidentate
(1) Purely  donation
ligand?
(2) Purely  donation
(1) Nitro (2) Thiocyanato
(3) Cyanato (4) Chloro (3)  donation and  acceptation
(4)  donation and  acceptation
76. The stability constant of a complex is 10–3. The
dissociation constant of the complex is 84. The hybridisation caused in [FeF6]3– complex is
(1) 103 (2) 106 (1) sp3d2 and outer sphere complex
(3) 10 9
(4) 10–6 (2) sp3d2 and inner sphere complex
(3) d2sp3 and outer sphere complex
77. From the Irving William series, the log K value of (4) d2sp3 and inner sphere complex
complex formation of ferrous ion is more than that
of calcium ion because 85. The d-orbital involved in pentacarbonyl iron (0)
(1) Iron is transition metal complex is
(2) Size is small (1) dxy (2) dyz
(3) Octahedral complex of iron is additionally (3) dxz (4) d 2
z
stabilised by CFSE
(4) High charge to size ratio
SECTION B
78. Assertion: The octahedral complex of cupric ion is 86. Arrange the following alkyl bromides in order of
more stable than that of nickel ion. decreasing reactivity in an SN2 reaction:
Reason: The CFSE of former is less than that of 1-bromo-2-methylbutane(A),
latter but additional stability is given by Jahn-Teller 1-bromo-3-methylbutane(B),
Distortion. 2-bromo-2-methylbutane(C),
(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason and 1-bromopentane(D).
is a correct explanation for assertion. (1) C < A < B < D
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason (2) A < C < D < B
is not a correct explanation for assertion (3) D < A < B < C
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect (4) B < C < D < A
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct

[8]
87. How will you distinguish between methyl alcohol 94. In the E1 reaction, how is the rate affected when the
and ethyl alcohol? concentration of attacking nucleophile is doubled?
(1) Lucas test (2) Iodoform test (1) Doubled
(3) Carbylamine test (4) None (2) Halved
(3) Quadruples
88. Arrange the following compounds, which are (4) Unchanged
nearly of identical molecular weights, in order of
increasing boiling points. 95. In the reaction of 1-chloropentane and potassium
A. 1-butanamine tert-butoxide, the dominant mechanism is
B. 1-butanol (1) SN1 (2) SN2
C. Methyl n-propyl ether (3) E1 (4) E2
D. Pentane
(1) D < C < A < B (2) A < B < C < D 96. Which is the most basic nucleophile?
(3) D < C < B < A (4) C < B < D < A (1) Fluoride (2) Ethanol
(3) Water (4) Ethoxide
89. Arrange the following compounds in order of
increasing solubility in water.
97. Which of the following is a true statement?
A. Ethanol
(1) The weaker the base, the better it is as a
B. Ethyl chloride
leaving group.
C. 1-hexanol
(2) The smaller the group, the better it is as a
(1) A < B < C (2) B < C < A
leaving group.
(3) C < A < B (4) A < C < B
(3) The stronger the base, the better it is as a
90. Which combination is known as the “Lucas leaving group
Reagent”? (4) The more electronegative the group, the better
(1) NaCl, HCl, CuCl2 it is as a leaving group
(2) HCl, ZnCl2
(3) HCl, SnCl2 98. What product is formed when para-methyl phenol
(4) NaCl, SnCl2 reacts with Br2 with FeCl3?
(1) Mainly 3-bromo-4-methyl phenol
91. For which of the following oxidation reaction does (2) Mainly 2-bromo-4-methyl phenol
one need to use PCC? (3) 2-bromo-4-methyl phenol and 3-bromo-4-
(1) Methanol  Formic acid methyl phenol in comparable amount
(2) Ethanol  Acetic acid (4) Mainly 4-bromomethyl phenol
(3) Ethanol  Acetaldehyde
(4) Acetaldehyde  Acetic acid 99. What function does nitric acid serve in the reaction
of benzene with iodine to produce Iodobenzene?
92. Which compounds can be reduced easily with (1) The acid oxidizes iodine to iodine cation
sodium borohydride? (2) The acid converts iodine to iodide anion
(1) Amide (3) The acid converts iodine to hydrogen iodide
(2) Esters acid.
(3) Aldehyde and ketones (4) The acid serves as a catalyst.
(4) Alkenes
100. Which of the following is not an ortho-para
93. What role does pyridine play in PCC reagent? director?
(1) To make chromium reagent less acidic. (1) – Cl
(2) To make chromium reagent a stronger (2) – Br
oxidizing agent (3) – CN
(3) To make the chromium compound water (4) – F
soluble
(4) To make chromium reagent soluble in
nonpolar organic solvents

[9]
 SECTION-III (BOTANY)
SECTION-A 110. Histones are rich in
101. DNA was first identified by (1) Lysine (2) Arginine
(1) Miescher (2) Watson (3) Serine (4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Griffith (4) Francis Crick
111. In a double stranded DNA
102. The process of copying genetic information from (1) There is unequal proportion of purines and
one strand of DNA into RNA is pyrimidine
(1) Translation (2) Replication (2) Pitch of the helix is 3.4 nm
(3) Transformation (4) Transcription (3) The two strand run parallel in 5  3
direction
103. DNA replication takes place in which phase of cell (4) Guanine is bonded with thymine by three
cycle? hydrogen bond
(1) G1 phase (2) G2 phase
(3) S-phase (4) M-phase 112. Read the following statements and choose the
correct option
104. In Meselson and Stahl experiment, heavy DNA (a) Two Nucleotides are linked through
distinguished from normal DNA by centrifugation phosphoester bond.
in which density gradient medium? (b) Nitrogen base is linked to pentose sugar by N-
(1) 14NH4Cl (2) 15NH4Cl glycosidic linkage.
(3) CsCl (4) Both (1) and (2) (c) Thymine is also referred to as 5-ethyl-uracil.
(d) Presence of thymine confers additional
105. Taylor and his colleagues performed experiments stability to DNA.
on vicia faba using (e) Nucleotides are formed by phosphodiester
(1) Radioactive cytidine bond.
(2) Radioactive thymidine (1) a, b, c, e are correct
(3) Radioactive uridine (2) b, c, d are correct
(4) Radioactive sulphur (3) b, d are correct
(4) All are correct
106. The correct formula of Chargaff rule is
(1) A + G = T + C 113. A typical nucleosome contains bp of DNA
(2) A + T = G + C helix.
(3) A + C = G + T (1) 200 base pairs
(4) All are incorrect (2) 100 base pairs
(3) 300 base pairs
107. The percentage of guanine is 18 in a double (4) 3.3 × 109 base pairs
stranded DNA molecule, what would be the
percentage of thymine in it? 114. Match the column I with suitable terms in column
(1) 18 (2) 36 II
(3) 62 (4) 32 Column I Column II
A. Bacteriophages i. mRNA
108. The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic
processing
material given by which experiment and performed
using ? B. Capsid ii. Transposons
(1) Hershey – chase using bacterial virus
(2) Transforming principle using bacteria C. Splicing iii. Protein coat
(3) Meselson and Stahl using bacteria D. Okazaki iv. Viruses
(4) Biochemical method using enzymes fragments
E. DNA with v. DNA
109. Length of DNA is affected by switching position
(1) Nitrogenous bases
(2) Sugar A B C D E
(3) Pitch (1) iv iii v ii i
(4) Phosphate (2) iv iii i v ii
(3) v ii iii i iv
(4) iii v i ii iv

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115. RNA polymerase I transcribes which of the DNA ( 
ii )
mRNA ( 
i ii )
 prot ein
124.
following RNA? (i)

(1) rRNA (2) tRNA Identify (i), (ii) and (ii) and who proposed the
(3) SnRNA (4) mRNA given central dogma?
(1) (i)  Translation, (ii)  Replication, (iii) 
116. How many codons code for different types of Transcription  James Watson
amino acids? (2) (i)  Replication, (ii)  Transcription, (iii) 
(1) 32 (2) 61 Translation  Francis crick
(3) 64 (4) 60
(3) (i)  Transcription, (ii)  Replication, (iii) 
Translation  Francis crick
117. RNA polymerase binds to which of the following
(4) (i)  Replication, (ii)  Transcription, (iii) 
factors to terminate transcription?
(1) Gamma (2) Alpha Transcription  James Watson
(3) Sigma (4) Rho
125. Which of the following is correct regarding genetic
118. Statement I: RNA polymerase are present only in code?
nucleus. (1) UUU is the initiation codon which also codes
Statement II: RNA polymerase catalyse only for phenylalanie.
process of elongation. (2) There are 64 triplet codons and only 20 amino
(1) Both statements are correct acids.
(2) Both statements are incorrect (3) Three random nitrogen bases specify the
(3) Only statement I is correct placement of one amino acid.
(4) Only statement II is correct (4) UAA is the nonsense codon which also codes
for methionine.
119. Identify A, B, C and D for the given diagram?
126. Which is true about ribonucleic acid?
(1) RNA can not generate its replica.
(2) RNA mutate at a very slow rate.
(3) RNA is highly reactive and catalytic.
(1) A  3  5, B  5  3, C  Coding (4) RNA is most stable due to presence of uracil.
strand, D  Terminator
(2) A  5  3, B  3  5, C  Template 127. Identify the incorrect pair:
strand, D  Terminator (1) E. coli.  4.6 × 106 bp
(3) A  3  5, B  5  3, C  Template (2) Diploid human DNA  6.6 × 109 bp
strand, D  Terminator (3) Bacteriophage   48502 nucleotides
(4) All are incorrect (4)  × 174  53860 nucleotides

120. RNA polymerase III transcribes 128. Select true (T) or false (F) for the following
(1) rRNA (2) tRNA statements and choose the correct option
(3) hnRNA (4) All of these A. The experiment of Hershey and chase gave
unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic
121. Which is not true about splicing? material.
(1) Introns are removed and exons are joined in a B. Free 2'OH of RNA makes it more labile and
defined order. easily degradable.
(2) Exons are removed and introns are joined in a C. Hershey and chase used bacteria in their
defined order experiment to confirm that DNA is the genetic
(3) Presence of non-coding sequence makes the material in organisms.
primary transcripts non-functional D. Bacteria infected with bacteriophage
(4) Splicing occurs only in eukaryotes radiolabeled with 35P were radioactive

122. Which of the following is not a stop codon? A B C D

(1) UGA (2) UAA (1) T T F F
(3) UGU (4) UAG (2) T F T F
(3) T F F F
123. Which codon performs dual function? (4) T F T T
(1) AGU (2) UGA
(3) AUC (4) AUG

[11]
129. DNA replicates semi-conservatively was proved 135. In lac operon, gene y, z, i, a codes for
by (1) -galactosidase, permease, repressor protein,
(1) Griffith transacetylase
(2) Meselson and Stahl (2) Permease, -galactosidase, repressor protein,
(3) Hershey and Chase transacetylase
(4) Beadle and Tatum (3) -galactosidase, transacetylase, permease,
repressor protein
130. Match the following and choose the correct option (4) Transacetylase, permease, -galactosidase,
(A) Jacob and Monad (i) Cell free system repressor protein
(B) Alec Jeffery (ii) Neurospora
Crassa SECTION-B
(C) Nirenberg (iii) Operon
(D) One gene one enzyme (iv) Viruses 136. The inducer for switching on and off of the lac
(E) Capsid (v) DNA fingerprinting operon is
A B C D E (1) Sucrose (2) Repressor
(1) iii v i ii iv (3) Promoter (4) Lactose
(2) i ii iii iv v
(3) iii i v iv ii 137. Match the codons with their coded amino acids and
(4) v i ii iii iv choose the correct option
(A) AUG (i) Cysteine
131. A B-DNA molecule completes one turn after every (B) UUU (ii) Glycine
(1) Base pair (2) 10 bp (C) UGU (iii) Methionine
(3) 12 bp (4) 8 bp (D) GGG (iv) Phenylalanine
A B C D
132. VNTR size varies from (1) iii iv ii i
(1) 0.1-20 kb (2) 1.0-20 kb (2) i ii iii iv
(3) 0.2-10 kb (4) 0.1-200 kb (3) iii ii iv i
(4) iii iv i ii
133. Assertion: DNA molecule acts as a template for
synthesis of both DNA and RNA. 138. Which is true for translation?
Reason: DNA double helix has feature of right (1) UTRs are present before stop codon.
handed coiling which alone confers stability to (2) Translation begins when large subunit of
DNA. ribosome encounters an mRNA.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason (3) Ribozyme catalyse the formation of peptide
is correct explanation of assertion. bond.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason (4) For terminating translation, a release factor
is not correct explanation of assertion. binds to start and stop codon.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true
139. Methyl guanosine triphosphate is related to
(1) Tailing (2) Capping
134. Regulation of gene expression occurs at various
levels in eukaryotes. (3) Dual Function (4) Okazaki fragments
Choose the correct sequence of these levels
(1) Gene  Primary transcript  Splicing  140. Mention the polarity of DNA, strand a-b and
Identify c, d & c in the following diagram?
mRNA  Translation  Protein
(2) Primary transcript  Gene  mRNA 
Splicing  translation  Protein
(3) Gene  mRNA  Primary transcript 
Splicing  Translation  Protein
(4) Gene  Primary transcript  Splicing 
mRNA  Splicing  Translation

(1) a-b 3  5, c-template strand, d-leading

strand, e-lagging strand
(2) a-b 5  3, c-template strand, d-lagging
strand, e- leading strand
(3) a-b 3  5, c-template strand, d-lagging
strand, e- leading strand
(4) All are incorrect

[12]
141. Statement I: The functions are unknown for over 147. Assertion: Only one strand of DNA is being
60% of the discovered genes. copied during transcription called template strand.
Statement II: Less than 2% of the genome codes Reason: Copying of both strand would prevent
for proteins. translation of RNA into protein.
(1) Both statements are correct (1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
(2) Both statements are incorrect is correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Only statement I is correct (2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
(4) Only statement II is correct is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
142. Polymorphism in DNA sequence forms the basis of: (4) Assertion is false but reason is true
(1) Genetic mapping 148. Assertion: Transcription and translation could be
(2) DNA fingerprinting coupled in E. coli.
(3) Mutation Reason: There is no well-defined nucleus present
(4) Both (1) and (2) in E. coli.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
is correct explanation of assertion.
143. During density gradient centrifugation small peaks
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason
formed are referred to as is not correct explanation of assertion.
(1) Satellite DNA (2) Genomic DNA (3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(3) Bulk DNA (4) Both (1) and (3) (4) Assertion is false but reason is true

144. DNA fingerprinting involve following steps. 149. Which of the following is not a goal of human
Arrange them in correct sequence. Gerome project?
A. Isolation of DNA (1) To determine sequence of 3 billion chemical
B. Separation of DNA by gel electrophoresis base pairs that make human DNA
(2) Store the information of genes & bp in
C. Digestion of DNA by endonucleases
databases.
D. Blotting
(3) Elimination of all diseases
E. Autoradiography
(4) Addressing ELSI
F. Hybridisation using VNTR probe
(1) B  A  C  D  F  E 150. Okazaki fragments are joined by enzyme
(2) C  A  B  D  E  F (1) Topoisomerase
(3) A  C  B  D  F  E (2) Polymerase
(4) A  B  C  D  F  E (3) Helicase
(4) Ligase
145. In DNA fingerprinting, what is used as probe .
(1) Bulk DNA (2) Genomic DNA
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Satellite DNA

146. Identify the correct statements and choose the

correct answer.
A. Heterochromatin are darkly stained and
transcriptionally active
B. Euchromatin are lightly stained and
transcriptionally active
C. Frequency of crossing over is high in
euchromatin
D. Frequency of crossing over is low in
euchromatin
E. Heterochromatin are mostly affected by
temperature and age.
(1) A, B, D are correct
(2) B, C are correct
(3) B, C, E are correct
(4) All are incorrect

[13]
 SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)
SECTION – A 158. The first form of life arose in environment.
151. Life cannot originate from inorganic materials (1) Aquatic (2) Terrestrial
because of (3) Arboreal (4) Aerial
(1) High degree of environment pollution
(2) Very high atmospheric temperature 159. According to theory of special creation earth was
(3) Very high amount of oxygen in the atmosphere supposed to be
(4) Absence of raw materials (1) 4000 years old
(2) 2000 years old
152. Match column I with column II and choose the (3) 4 billion years old
correct option (4) 4 million years old
Column I Column II
160. Given below are two statements.
A. Saltation 1. Spores
Statement I: Louis Pasteur conducted experiments
B. Darwin 2. Founder effect
on killed yeast.
C. Genetic drift 3. Evening primose Statement II: Louis Pasteur disproved the theory
D. Panspermia 4. Finches of special creation.
A B C D Choose the correct option:
(1) 3 4 2 1 (1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(2) 3 2 1 4 (2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) 3 4 1 2 (3) Both Statement I and II are correct
(4) 1 4 2 3 (4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect

153. Water broke up into oxygen and hydrogen in early 161. What was the term given by Darwin for the
atmosphere due to differences in characteristics?
(1) Ultraviolet radiations (1) Natural selection
(2) X-rays (2) Fitness
(3) Gamma rays (3) Evolution
(4) Infrared rays (4) Variation

154. Which organism was taken by Pasteur for his 162. Fossils are dated by
experiment? (1) Amount of calcium residue in them
(1) Yeast (2) E. coli (2) Their sodium content
(3) Salmonella (4) Streptococcus (3) Their number in an area
(4) Amount of radioactive carbon isotope in them
155. The conditions present on the early earth were: 163. Analogous organs/structures are
(1) High temperature
(1) Similar in origin
(2) Volcanic eruptions (storms)
(2) Similar in function
(3) Reducing atmosphere containing CH4, NH3 etc.
(3) Non-functional
(4) All of these (4) Similar in anatomy

156. Which gases had taken up by S.L. Miller for his 164. The divergent evolution can be seen in
experimentation? (1) Analogous structures
(1) CH4, H2 (2) NH3 (2) Artificial breeding
(3) H2O (4) All of these (3) Drug resistance
(4) Homologous structures
157. The first cells were supposed to be originated on
earth about 165. Fossilisation can occur when
(1) 2 billion years ago (1) Animals are buried and preserved by natural
(2) 2000 million years ago process
(3) 3000 million years ago (2) Animals are destroyed by the scavengers
(4) Both (1) and (2) (3) Animals are eaten up by predators
(4) Animals are destroyed by environmental
condition

[14]
166. Forelimbs of man, cheetah, whale and bat are 173. Choose the incorrect statement about natural
examples of selection.
(1) Homologous structures (1) Before industrialisation tree trunk were darker
(2) Analogous structures in colour
(3) Convergent evolution (2) Before industrialisation tree trunk were lighter
(4) All of these in colour.
(3) Before industrialisation white coloured
lichens were present on tree trunk
167. The occurrence of endemic species in South
(4) Before industrialisation there were no
America and Australia is due to
deposition of smoke and soot on tree trunk
(1) Extinction of these species from other regions
(2) Continental separation 174. Smoke has that eradicated the lichens.
(3) No terrestrial route to these places (1) SO2 (2) CO2
(4) Retrogressive evolution (3) NO2 (4) All of the above

168. Example of divergent evolution is 175. Lichens are

(1) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of (1) Algae
Cucurbita (2) Fungi
(2) Wings of butterfly and birds (3) Pollution indicator
(3) Sweet potato and potato (4) Animal
(4) All of these
176. The paleontological evidences are obtained from:
169. Analogous structures are result of (1) Homologous structure
(2) Analogous structure
(1) Divergent evolution
(3) Fossils
(2) Convergent evolution
(4) Lichens
(3) Parallel evolution
(4) Both (1) and (2) 177. Which of the following was a land dinosaur?
(1) Triceratops
170. Given below are two statements. (2) Pteranodon
Statement I: Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins (3) Archaeopteryx
are example of analogous structures. (4) Ichthyosaur
Statement II: Analogous structures are the result
of divergent evolution. 178. Presence of gills in the tadpole of frog indicates that
Choose the correct option. (1) Fishes were amphibians in the past
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect (2) Fishes evolved from frog like ancestors
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct (3) Frogs will have gills in future
(3) Both statement I and II are correct (4) Frogs evolved from gills ancestors
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect
179. The Darwinian variations are–
(1) Small and directionless
171. Examples of natural selection are (2) Random and directional
(1) Industrial melanism (3) Small and directional
(2) Antibiotic and drug resistance (4) Random and directionless
(3) Herbicides resistance
(4) All of these 180. Assertion (A): Inter specific hybrids are usually
sterile
172. Natural selection was given by Reason (R): Interspecific hybrids receives
(1) Darwin chromosomes from two different species
(2) Louis Pasteur (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is the
(3) Lamarck correct explanation of (A)
(4) Hardy (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true statement but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false statements

[15]
181. Adaptive radiation is exemplified by 189. The Neanderthal man had cranial capacity of
(1) Darwin’s finches around
(2) Australian marsupials (1) 1600 cc (2) 650-800 cc
(3) Placental mammals (3) 900 cc (4) 1400 cc
(4) All of these
190. Assertion (A): In 1938, a coelacanth was found in
182. Variation of beaks of finches that Darwin found in South Africa.
Galapagos Island is due to Reason (R): Pelycosaurs and Therapsids were
(1) Head movement synapsids.
(2) Food eating habits (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is the
correct explanation of the (A)
(3) Eye blinking
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
(4) Both (1) and (2)
correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are false
183. Theory of Panspermia was proposed to explain the
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false
(1) Origin of universe
(2) Origin of life
191. The homologous organs are those that show
(3) Origin of earth similarity in
(4) Evolution of life (1) Diameter (2) Function
(3) Origin (4) Size
184. Evolutionary biology is the study of
(1) Civilisation 192. All Australian marsupials evolved in the
(2) History of life forms on earth (1) Africa
(3) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium (2) Galapagos island
(4) Reproductive success (3) Australian continent
(4) North America
185. If gene migration happen multiple times, it would
lead to 193. Fitness, according to Darwin, refers ultimately and
(1) Mutation only to
(2) Gene flow (1) Physically dominant over other
(3) Chemical evolution (2) Ability to defend from other
(4) Genetic drift (3) Inheritance of acquired characters
(4) Number of offsprings produce
SECTION: B
186. First life forms on earth were: 194. The idea not related to the Darwinian theory of
(1) Cyanobacteria evolution is
(2) Chemoheterotrophs (1) Survival of the fittest
(3) Autotrophs (2) Struggle for existence
(3) Inheritance of acquired characters
(4) Photoautotrophs
(4) Origin of species by natural selection
187. Among following, the most recent is
195. Lamarck gave the example of to explain his
(1) Homo sapiens
theory.
(2) Australopithecus
(3) Homo habilis (1) Giraffes (2) Finches
(4) Dryopithecus (3) Marsupials (4) Placental mammals

188. Australopithecines probably lived in the 196. The factor/s affect hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is
(1) East Africa grasslands are :
(2) West Africa grasslands (1) Genetic drift
(3) North Africa grasslands (2) Gene migration
(4) South Africa grasslands (3) Mutation
(4) All of these

[16]
197. Genetic drift operates in 200. Assertion (A): Both mule and hinny are sterile
(1) Small isolated population Reason (R): These are the example of hybrid
(2) Large isolated population sterility
(3) Non-reproductive population Chose the correct option
(4) Slow reproductive population (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
198. Saltation means (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and the (R) is not the
(1) Single step small mutation correct explanation of (A)
(2) Single step small variation (3) (A) is true and (R) is false
(3) Single step large mutation (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
(4) Single step large variation

199. If nature selects both of the peripheral traits of a

characters than which kind of natural selection to
be operating?
(1) Stabilising (2) Disruptive
(3) Directional (4) Rotating

[17]