4ch1 1c Pef 20220825
4ch1 1c Pef 20220825
4ch1 1c Pef 20220825
June 2022
International GCSE Chemistry 4CH1 1C
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June 2022
Candidates generally performed well on paper 1C. Candidates had clearly read the Advance
Notice and were well prepared for most questions. Some of the extended response
questions were particularly well answered, most notably Q2(b)(iii), Q5(b) and Q8(b).
Candidates found questions difficult where they needed to apply their knowledge, most
notably Q3(b)(ii), Q3(c) and Q9(a)(iii). Most candidates performed well on calculations, most
notably Q9(c), where they were able to calculate the formula of a hydrated ionic compound
and Q9(b)(ii), where most candidates were able to perform a mole calculation. Ratios in
equations were a problem for some candidates and this was often missed. Many candidates
found questions relating to a practical context most difficult. Q4(c) proved challenging along
with Q6(a)(iv) and Q7(c)(iii). In extended response questions, many candidates did not answer
the question given and should be encouraged to draft their ideas first or tick parts of the
question off when they appear in the answer.
Question 1 was well answered by most candidates. Q1(d) caught some candidates out:
Period 1 of the Periodic table contains hydrogen and helium only; many candidates did not
realise this and gave an answer of 2 rather than 3.
Question 2 was well answered. Most candidates knew the changes of state. The
modifications to the method were well understood in Q2(b)(i) and most candidates knew to
filter the mixture in Q2(b)(ii).
Question 2 (b)(iii)
Many candidates answered Q2(b)(iii) very well and presented a concise and clear method to
produce pure dry crystals of sodium chloride.
Candidates need to ensure they are answering the question set. They
have been asked to produce crystals of salt from salt solution. The
comments about filtering at the start were therefore ignored as
filtering would add nothing to the method.
Candidates were familiar with fractional distillation and the uses of fractions in Q3(a). Most
knew the conditions for cracking in Q3(b)(i). Candidates answered the rest of the question
less well.
Question 3 (b)(i)
Candidates should think carefully about what the equation shows us.
C13H28 is being heated to produce C8H18, a shorter alkane present in
the gasoline fraction and two very short alkenes. This answer only
scored 1 mark.
Link your answer to the equation. Shorter alkanes are more flammable
than longer alkanes and are therefore more useful as fuels. Short
alkenes such as C2H4 and C3H6 can be used to make polymers.
Question 4(a) was well answered by most candidates who were familiar with the formation of
rust and the conditions for rusting. Most candidates made the link between the increased
surface area of iron in Q4(a)(iv) and an increased rate of reaction.
A number of candidates misread the volumes in Q4(b) or scored 1 mark for the volumes the
wrong way around.
Read the question carefully. The question states the volume at the
start is shown in the diagram. These volumes are reversed.
Very few candidates scored 3 marks here as few appreciated that there was air in the conical
flask, gas tube and syringe making a total of 350cm3.
Think where the air is coming from that is reacting. Also check your
answer. This is a sample of air, so the expected answer is around 20%.
This answer is too high as the candidate has only considered the air in
the conical flask and glass tube.
Question 5 was well answered by most. Candidates knew the definition for isomers although
there was some confusion with isotopes. The relative atomic mass in Q5(a)(ii) was well
answered and most candidates knew the name of pentane in Q5(a)(iii).
Question 5 (a)(iv)
Many candidates did not score both marks here. Candidates need to appreciate that
branches do not occur on the end carbon and that there are multiple ways of drawing
methylbutane.
In Q5(b) many candidates did not take the time to plan their answer or ensure that they
answered the question that was asked. A paragraph for ethane and one for ethene would
help to ensure every point in the question was covered.
A concise answer that scored full marks. The comment about colour
change was not asked for in the question so was ignored. There were
enough correct points in the answer so the incorrect formula of
dibromoethane could be ignored too.
Many candidates understood rates of reaction and the collision theory in question 6. Many
coped well with a challenging calculation in Q6(a)(iii) although some candidates missed the
ratio in the equation. The graph was well drawn by most and the vast majority of candidates
knew how increasing the temperature would change the graph. When answering rate of
reaction questions, candidates need to appreciate that only changing the temperature
changes the energy of the particles. Particles do not have more energy at the start of a
reaction.
Question 6 (a)(iii)
Don't forget to use the ratio in the equation in a question like this. If
the candidate had shown 0.00375 moles of magnesium needs 0.00750
moles of hydrochloric acid, they would have scored both marks.
To score full marks in Q6(c)(ii) candidates needed to link increased energy to successful
collisions.
The calculations in question 7 were well answered by most candidates although many did
not give the Ar of copper to 3 significant figures as stated in the question. Few candidates
gave a definition for isotopes that scored full marks.
Many candidates showed a good understanding of the different properties of diamond and
graphite. Some answers, however, referred to properties such as melting and boiling points
which were ignored as this is not what the question was asking for. Candidates should take
time to plan their answers and consider separate paragraphs for diamond and graphite.
Candidates should also focus their answers on the properties in the question and should tick
these off when included in the answer.
Many candidates clearly understood why C60 has a much lower melting point than diamond
or graphite. To score full marks here, candidates need to clearly identify what force or bond is
being broken and compare the energy required.
Most candidates answered Q9(a) correctly, although some wrote the names of the states
instead of the state symbols in Q9(a)(i).
Question 9 (a)(iii)
There were many poorly expressed answers in Q9(a)(iii). When explaining why a reaction is a
redox reaction, candidates need to explain which reactant is oxidised and which is reduced.
Many answers lacked precision.
Be clear what is oxidised and what is reduced. Lead oxide (not lead) is
reduced as it loses oxygen and hydrogen is oxidised as it gains
oxygen. This answer therefore scored 1 mark.
This answer scores both marks as it is clear what is being oxidised and
what is being reduced.
In Q9(a)(iv) many candidates did not score both marks as they failed to describe a test. Pure
water has a boiling point of 100ºC scores 1 mark. Test the boiling point, if it's 100ºC water is
pure scores 2 marks.
Question 9 (b)(ii)
Many candidates scored full marks in Q9(b)(ii). The most common reason for losing marks
was for incorrect application of the ratio in the equation.
The dot and cross diagram for ammonia was very well answered by most candidates. In
Q10(b) few candidates knew, or could work out, the formula for ammonium carbonate as
(NH4)2CO3
Throughout the question, there was confusion with the molecule ammonia and the
ammonium ion.
Question 10 (b)(iii)
In Q10(b)(iii) the test for ammonium ions was poorly understood. Candidates need to make it
clear that they need to add sodium hydroxide solution then test the gas produced with damp
red litmus which turns blue.
In Q10(c)(ii) many candidates did not answer the question. Many compared ammonia with
ammonium nitrate.
Candidates are encouraged to plan their answer before starting, as few candidates spotted
that ammonia being a gas could make it more problematic to apply to soil.
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