Test 1

1. The statement of records of visits (f. 039/0) is filled in by:

(1 answer is correct)
A. in the clinic
B. in the outpatient clinic
C. in the dispensary
D. in the counseling office
E. all answers are correct
Answer:E

2. Who has the right to work as a general practitioner - family medicine?

(3 answers are correct)
A. to all doctors
B. only to district therapists
C. pediatricians who have received a certificate of general practitioner - family
medicine in specialization courses
D. physicians who have been retrained in general practice courses - family
medicine and received a certificate
E. emergency physicians and adolescent physicians who have completed a primary
specialization in general practice - family medicine and received a certificate
Answer: C,D,E

3. What kind of work is not performed by a family doctor?

(1 answer is correct)
A. admission of patients
B. reception of healthy persons
C. visiting patients at home
D. preventive work
E. major surgery
Answer:E

4. A general practitioner must be able to:

(1 answer is correct) 0 0 0 0 100%
A. provide qualified emergency care
B. conduct an examination of temporary incapacity for work
C. selection of patients for sanatorium treatment
D. diagnosis and treatment of diseases of the internal organs
E. all listed
Answer:E

5. The general practitioner must have everything except:

(1 answer is correct)
A. physical methods of examination of patients
B. basic techniques of instrumental and laboratory examinations
C. keeping medical records
D. injection techniques, blood transfusions and blood substitutes
E. ultrasound of the thyroid gland
Answer:E

6. A general practitioner must diagnose and provide emergency medical care in the
following emergencies:
(1 answer is correct)
A. acute heart failure
B. acute vascular insufficiency
C. hypertensive crisis
D. all listed
E. asthmatic status
Answer: D

7. What medical records do family physicians keep?

(1 answer is correct)
A. shift log
B. certificate of incapacity for work
C. prescription notebook
D. portions
E. map of the patient
Answer: B

8. The family doctor must be able to perform all manipulations, except:

(1 answer is correct) A. injections
B. puncture of the pleural cavity
C. tracheostomy
D. therapeutic baths
E. determination of blood group
Answer: D

9. To fulfill the set goals and objectives, the family doctor, as a manager must:
(1 answer is correct)
A. constantly have a complete picture of the economic situation in the hospital and
beyond
B. establish the level of remuneration for the work of subordinate medical staff
C. correctly evaluate the result to be achieved
D. establish the scope of medical services provided to the population
E. establishment of the queue of medical examination of veterans
Answer: A

10. The family doctor, as the manager of the medical organization, uses in the
work the following basic resources:
(3 answers are correct)
A. natural
B. human
C. economic
D. political
E. financial
Answer: B,D,E

11. The family doctor, as a manager, uses control in his work to:
(2 answers are correct)
A. motivate the activities of medical staff
B. timely record errors in the work of the medical institution
C. have data for drawing up a work plan for the current period
D. correct mistakes before they harm the achievement of the goal of the medical
organization
E. plan the work of other doctors of the clinic
Answer: B,D
12. Management functions used by the family doctor in his work:
(2 answers are correct)
A. observation and analysis
B. planning and control
C. organization and motivation
D. accounting and forecasting
E. consultation of narrow specialists
Answer: B,C

13. Methodical approaches to the analysis of the family doctor:

(3 answers are correct)
A. system method
B. social experiment
C. comparative law
D. forecasting method
E. correlation method
Answer: A,B,D

14. Sources of funding for family medicine:

(2 answers are correct)
A. insurance and charitable funds
B. pension fund and social insurance fund
C. value added tax
D. medical budget and insurance organizations
E. banks
Answer: A,D

15. Calculations of necessary finances for family medicine are made:

(1 answer is correct)
A. per 1 inhabitant per year
B. per 1,000 inhabitants per year
C. for 1 resident for 5 years
D. per 1,000 inhabitants per quarter
E. per 10 inhabitants per quarter
Answer: A
16. The amount of salary of a family doctor in Ukraine is calculated:
(1 answer is correct) 0 100% 0 0 0
A. from the number of hours worked per month
B. of the number of registered residents
C. for work in a team
D. for training of young specialists and consultations
E. for work for a week
Answer: B

17. The family doctor works on the principle:

(1 answer is correct)
A. brigade
B. district doctor
C. clinics
D. privacy
E. day hospital
Answer: B

18. The duties of a family doctor include:

(4 answers are correct)
A. providing timely medical care to the adult population
B. providing timely medical care to children
C. medical examination of the population
D. taking courses to improve the professional level
E. training of medical personnel for the operation
Answer: A,B,C,D

19. The rights and responsibilities of a general practitioner - family medicine are
defined:
(1 answer is correct)
A. Order of the Ministry of Health №1 "On Improving the Monitoring of Primary
Health Care on the Basis of Family Medicine and Unification of Relevant Medical
Records"
B. basics of the legislation of Ukraine on health care "
C. Order of the Ministry of Health №303 "On the organization of work of
institutions (units) of general practice - family medicine"
D. The Constitution of Ukraine
E. order of the Ministry of Health №72 "On approval of certain documents on
family medicine"
Answer: E

20. The workload of a general practitioner - family medicine is carried out at the
rate of 1 position of a doctor:
(2 answers are correct)
A. 1100-1200 children and adults in rural areas
B. for 1400-1500 people - in urban areas
C. for 1400-1500 children and adults in rural areas
D. for 1100–1200 people in urban areas
E. per 1000-1800 adults and children in rural areas
Answer: A,B

1. E

2. CDE 3. E 4. E 5. E 6. D 7. B 8. D 9. A 10. BDE

11. BD 20.AB

12. DC 13. AB 14. AD 15. A 16. B 17. B 18. ABC 19. E

D D
 Test tasks 2
1. The insurer is:
A. -institution, organization, local executive authorities,
which provide insurance to the beneficiary
B. - a person covered by health insurance
C. - a legal organization that assumes the financial risk of the cost of medical care
to the insured
D. - a legal entity that operates to carry out insurance activities
E. -when the insured pays his own insurance premiums
Answer: D

2. The subjects of the health insurance system are:

A. -insurance organization, fund, health insurance funds;
B. - insurer, insured, insured, medical institution;
C. - there is no system of medical insurance of subjects;
D. -institution, organization, local executive authorities;
E. -insurance organization, bank, clinic
Answer: B
3. The main tasks of health insurance are:

A. -providing citizens with medical care through the accumulated funds and
financing of preventive measures.
B. -payment for work performed by social institutions to medical institutions and
private doctors
C. -mediation activities in the organization and financing of insurance programs
for medical care
D. -control over the volume and quality of insurance medical programs by
treatment and prevention facilities and individual doctors
E. - all the listed tasks
Answer: E

4. Compulsory health insurance is characterized by:

A. -commercial nature
B. -private type of insurance
C. -determination of insurance rules by insurance companies
D. -setting tariffs for insurance according to a single, state-approved methodology
E. -use of profits for any commercial or non-commercial activities
Answer: D
5. Voluntary health insurance is characterized by:
-non-commercial nature.
A. - mandatory for all citizens.
B. -implementation by state insurance companies
C. -establishment of insurance rates according to the only method approved by the
state
D. -the dependence of the amount of medical care on a particular, selected
insurance program and the amount of insurance premium
Answer: D

6. The subjects of compulsory health insurance are all of the following, except:
A. -health insurance fund
B. -insurance organization
C. - health authority
D. -medical institution
E. -citizen
Answer: C

7. A 37-year-old patient, who was temporarily incapacitated for 117 days during
the year due to exacerbation of chronic obstructive bronchitis, consulted a district
physician. Determine the legally correct tactics of the doctor in this case:
A. -issuance of an employment (surcharge) certificate of incapacity for work
B. -continuation of the certificate of incapacity for work by the therapist
C. -direction to the LCC to extend the certificate of incapacity for work
D. - the patient is to be referred to MSEC
E. - referral of the patient for sanatorium treatment
Answer: D

8. A natural or legal person who pays monetary (insurance) contributions and

must, by law or on the basis of a contract, receive a sum of money in the event of
an insured event:
A. - insured
B. -insurer
C. -insured
D. -insurance agent
E. -insurance broker
Answer: A
9. Organization (legal entity) that conducts insurance, which undertakes to
reimburse the loss or pay the sum insured, as well as the creation and expenditure
of the insurance fund:
A. - the insured
B. - insurer
C. -insured
D. -insurance agent
E. -insurance broker
Answer: B

10. An individual, whose life, health and ability to work are the object of insurance
protection:
A. -insured
B. -insurer
C. - insured
D. -insurance agent
E. -insurance broker
Answer: C

11. An individual who concludes an insurance contract on behalf of the insurer for
a commission indemnity, a freelancer:
A. -insured
B. -insurer
C. -insured
D. - insurance agent
E. -insurance broker
Answer: D

12. Insured's fee for the insurance contract:

A. - insurance premium
B. -insured amount
C. -insurance rate
D. -franchise
E. -all listed
Answer: A

13. The amount of damages that is not recoverable:

A. -insurance premium
B. -insured amount
C. -insurance rate
D. - franchise
E. -all listed
Answer: D

14. Subject to medical insurance:

A. -children
B. - able-bodied workers
C. - able-bodied unemployed
D. -pensioners
E. - all listed
Answer: E

15. Persons who are registered in:

A. -drug treatment center
B. -psychoneurological dispensary
C. -tuberculosis dispensary
D. -dermal and venereological dispan
E. - all listed
Answer: E

16. The amount of money paid by the insurer in the event of an insured event is:
-insurance premium (Insurance premium)
A. - insurance indemnity
B. -insurance rate
C. -franchise
D. -all listed
Answer: A

17. The first state law on compulsory health insurance was issued in:
A. -Germany
B. -Russia
C. -England
D. -Austria
E. -France
F. The family doctor must:
Answer: A
18. Have a certificate of a specialist in "General Practice - Family Medicine",
timely certification
A. -in the case of private medical practice to have a license for it
B. -provide the insured with quality medical care in accordance with the standards
C. - provide the insurer with reports on the amount of medical care provided to the
insured
D. - all listed liabilities
Answer: D

19. The family doctor must pass the certification with the receipt of the appropriate
category not earlier than just:
A. -3 years
B. -4 years
C. - 5 years
D. -7 years
E. -no time requirements
Answer: C

20. The fixed method of payment for family doctors is:

A. - payment at wage rates
B. -payment for each detailed medical service
C. -funding according to the standard for 1 person
D. -combination of the above methods
E. -payment for years of service
Answer: A
TESTS BEFORE THE CLASS 3

1. How many health groups are allocated?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 4
E. 6
Answer: B

2. The first group of health includes:

A. Completely healthy people who do not suffer from any chronic non-
communicable diseases, and also do not have a large number of risk factors for
their development
B. People who do not have any chronic non-communicable diseases. At the same
time, they have a fairly high risk of acquiring them in the near future. In addition,
have several factors in the development of cardiovascular disease
C. People at high risk of cardiovascular disease, as well as the presence of chronic
non-infectious pathology
D. Cancer patients
E. E. None of the above
Answer: A

3. The second group of health includes:

A. Completely healthy people who do not suffer from any chronic non-
communicable diseases, and also do not have a large number of risk factors for
their development
B. People who do not have any chronic non-communicable diseases. At the same
time, they have a fairly high risk of acquiring them in the near future. In addition,
have several factors in the development of cardiovascular disease
C. People at high risk of cardiovascular disease, as well as the presence of chronic
non-infectious pathology
D. Cancer patients
E. None of the above
Answer: B

4. The third group of health includes:

A. Completely healthy people who do not suffer from any chronic non-
communicable diseases, and also do not have a large number of risk factors for
their development
B. People who do not have any chronic non-communicable diseases. At the same
time, they have a fairly high risk of acquiring them in the near future. In addition,
have several factors in the development of cardiovascular disease
C. People at high risk of developing diseases of the cardiovascular system, as well
as the presence of chronic pathology of non-infectious nature
D. Cancer patients
E. None of the above
Answer: C

5. Which vaccinations according to the calendar of prophylactic vaccinations in

Ukraine (2006) are not mandatory in the medical care of patients at high risk of
occurrence and severe course of infection:

A. Against measles and rubella

B. Pneumococcal infection
C. Meningococcal infection
D. Influenza B
E. Chickenpox
Answer: A

6. Measure not included in the recommendation for patients with hypertension:

A. Limit salt intake to 5 g per day
B. Monitor fluid intake - no more than 5-6 glasses per day
C. Increase sugar intake
D. Include in the diet raw and processed vegetables - not less than 400 g per day
and fruits - not less than 300 g per day
E. Limit the consumption of animal fats
Answer: C

7. Recommendations for patients with chronic heart failure do NOT include:

A. Daily fluid intake of 1-1.5 liters
B. Adherence to the mode of motor activity
C. A complete diet with enough protein, fat and carbohydrates
D. Restriction of protein intake
E. Restriction of alcohol consumption
Answer: D
8. Risk factors for hypertension are all but:
A. Obesity
B. Smoking
C. Hypodynamia
D. Psycho-emotional loads
E. Moderate aerobic exercise
Answer: E

9. The development of atherosclerosis is facilitated by all the above factors, except:

A. Reduction of chylomicrons
B. Increase in very low density lipoproteins
C. Decrease in high-density lipoproteins
D. Increase in low density lipoproteins
E. Increased triglycerides
Answer: A

10. A 60-year-old man showed pale skin, bleeding gums, isolated petechiae on his
legs. Laboratory: in blood Hb 110 g / l, er. 3.8 × 1012 / l, CP 0.9; the amount of
vitamin C in the serum and daily urine is reduced. The energy value of the daily
diet, the daily amount of proteins, fats, carbohydrates is sufficient for a man. The
content of ascorbic acid in the diet is 30 mg. What should be included in the diet
for nutritional correction of a man's nutritional status?
A. Homemade cheese
B. Baked potatoes
C. Carrots
D. Black currants
E. The liver
Answer: D

11. The patient at the doctor's office complained of joint pain. From the dietary
history it is known that the patient prefers meat and fatty foods. Diagnosed with
gout. What product or diet is recommended for the patient?
A. Dairy-vegetable diet
B. Meat of young animals and birds
C. By-products
D. Beans
E. Animal fats
Answer: A
12. Due to irregular eating, the patient complains of reduced efficiency, a sharp
feeling of hunger and fatigue, periodic headaches. What interval between meals
should his doctor recommend?

A. 2-3 years
B. 3-4 years
C. 5-6 years
D. 6-7 years
E. 7-8 years
Answer: B

13. What indicators of blood pressure are considered by the WHO classification
optimal for adults and do not contribute to the development of cardiovascular and
endocrine pathology?
A. Less than 120/80 mm Hg
B. Less than 130/85 mm Hg
C. 130-139 / 85-89 mm Hg
D. Less than 140/90 mm Hg
E. More than 140/90 mm Hg
Answer: A

14. What level of blood pressure is considered normal by the WHO classification?
A. Less than 120/80 mm Hg
B. Less than 130/85 mm Hg
C. 130-139 / 85-89 mm Hg
D. Less than 140/90 mm Hg
E. More than 140/90 mm Hg
Answer: B

15. Measures not related to the prevention of gallstones:

A. Regular meals, small portions
B. Exercise and sports
C. Change in body position during work
D. Elimination of constipation
E. The use of tight belts
Answer: E
16. Dietary recommendation for a patient with constipation:
A. Consumption of high dietary fiber
B. Restriction of dietary fiber
C. Consumption of increased amounts of protein
D. Restriction of protein intake
E. Consumption of increased amounts of carbohydrates
Answer: A
17. Substance with atherogenic effects:
A. High density lipoproteins
B. Low density lipoproteins
C. Bile acids
D. Phospholipids
E. Triglycerides
Answer: B

18. The upper limit of normal cholesterol levels in the blood of an adult:
A. 5.0 mmol / L
B. 5.2 mmol / L
C. 5.8 mmol / L
D. 6.2 mmol / L
E. 6.8 mmol / L
Answer: A

19. Measure used to prevent atherosclerosis and lower cholesterol:

A. Activation of physical activity
B. Increased consumption of animal fats
C. Restriction of consumption of egg yolk, offal
D. Inclusion in the diet of polyunsaturated fatty acids (sunflower oil, nuts)
E. Lifestyle change
Answer: B

20. The health index is:

A. The ratio of the number of children of all ages who have never been ill during
the year to the total number of children × 100
B. Ratio of the number of children who have never been ill in the first year of life
to the number of children who have reached one year of age × 100
C. The ratio of the number of children of all ages to the number of children of the
same age who have never been ill during the year × 100
D. Ratio of the number of children under one year of age who have never been ill
to the total number of children of all ages × 100
E. The ratio of the number of preschool children who were not ill during the year
to the total number of children of all ages × 100
Answer: B

21. Body mass index is:

A. Body mass index (kg) divided by the square of the amount of growth (sq.m)
B. Waist circumference (cm) divided by the square of the amount of growth (sq.m)
C. Growth rate (sq.m) divided by body mass index (kg)
D. Body mass is multiplied by the square of the amount of growth sq.m)
E. Body mass index (kg) multiplied by the amount of growth (m)
Answer: A

22. The level of health of the population depends on the state of the environment
(in%):
A. 49-53%
B. 18-22%
C. 17-20%
D. 8-10%
E. 55-64%
Answer: C

23. Medico-biological factors affect the level of health of the population (c

%):
A. 49-53%
B. 18-22%
C. 17-20%
D. 8-10%
E. 55-64%
Answer: B

24. In the structure of morbidity in Ukraine the first place is occupied by:
AA Respiratory diseases
B. Cancer
C. Diseases of the nervous system
D. Endocrine diseases
E. Diseases of the circulatory system
Answer: E
25. The main criteria for a healthy lifestyle are, in addition to:
A. Observance of the rules of personal hygiene
B. Rational nutrition
C. Eliminate bad habits
D. Regular physical education and sports
E. Harmonious relations between people
Answer: E

26. The content of preventive orientation in the activities of the health care system
provides:
A. Socio-economic measures are aimed at improving the work and life of the
population
B. Medical care for patients with inflammatory acute diseases
C. Carrying out of sanitary and hygienic, sanitary technical actions and dispensary
supervision over sick and separate groups of healthy people
D. Timely emergency medical care
E. Optimization of lifestyle and improvement of socio-economic conditions
Answer: C

27. What is the risk factor for illness or death?

A. The immediate cause of illness or death
B. Endo- or exogenous additional adverse effects on the body that increase the
likelihood of disease or death
C. Serum-specific antibody levels and hypertension
D. Lifestyle, state of the environment
E. State of the environment, psycho-emotional instability
Answer: B

28. The risk of development and progression of atherosclerosis include:

A. Excessive alcohol consumption
B. Smoking
C. Overweight
D. True A, B
E. True B, C
Answer: E

29. Non-drug methods of lowering blood pressure include:

A. Smoking cessation
B. Normalization of weight
C. Reducing salt intake
D. Increasing the dosed exercise
E. All of the above
Answer: E

30. Primary care provides:

A. Treatment in specialized departments
B. Treatment of the main most common diseases, health measures
C. Referral of the patient for specialized and highly specialized care
D. Simple diagnosis, hygienic education of the population
E. Consultation of a general practitioner (family doctor), simple diagnosis, referral
of the patient for specialized and highly specialized care
Answer: E
Test topic 4
1. Specify the upper limit of normal diastolic pressure?
A. 60 mm Hg
B. 69 mm Hg
C. 79 mm Hg
D. 89 mm Hg
E. 99 mm Hg
Answer: D

2. A 60-year-old patient who has been suffering from hypertension for 20 years
suddenly had an attack of shortness of breath after a stressful situation.
Objectively: orthopedic position, Ps - 120 for 1 min., Blood pressure 210/120 mm
Hg. Art. I tone above the apex of the heart is weakened, in diastole an additional
tone is heard, BH - 32 / min. Breathing over the lower lungs is weakened, single
inaudible wet small-bubble rales. What complication did the patient have?
A. Acute left ventricular failure
B. Attack of hysteria
C. Thromboembolism of the branches of the pulmonary artery
D. Pneumonia
E. Aortic dissection
Answer: A
3. A 46-year-old patient complains of a sudden heartbeat, which is accompanied by
pulsation in the neck and head, fear, nausea. The heartbeat lasts 15-20 minutes,
passes with respiratory arrest with straining. What kind of cardiac dysfunction can
be thought of in a patient?
A. Attack of atrial fibrillation
B. Attack of ventricular paroxysmal tachycardia
C. Attack of supraventricular paroxysmal tachycardia
D. Atrial fibrillation attack
E. Attack of extrasystolic arrhythmia
Answer: C
4. A 30-year-old patient complains of headache attacks, pulsation in the temples,
dizziness, palpitations, muscle weakness, accompanied by pale skin, a significant
increase in blood pressure (270/160 mm Hg). Seizures occur mainly at night and
tablets are not removed by antihypertensive drugs. Is there a suspicion of
pheochromocytoma? Which of the following drugs is the most effective in this
case?
A. Phentolamine IV
B. Benzohexonium IV
C. Clonidine intravenously
D. Dibazole IV
E. Furosemide IV
Answer: A
5. A 45-year-old man had an attack of atrial fibrillation with arrhythmic work of
the ventricles at about 150-160 / min. and lowering blood pressure. In this case, it
is best to apply:
A. Verapamil IV
B. Novocainamide IV
C. Cardiac glycosides
D. Electropulse therapy
E. Lidocaine in / in cap
Answer: D

6. A 70-year-old patient with hypertension (blood pressure 150/90 mm Hg) during

the examination revealed coronary heart disease: angina pectoris II FC,
atherosclerosis of the vessels of the lower extremities. Blood glucose 6.5 mmol / l,
total cholesterol 7 mmol / l, triglycerides - 3.2 mmol / l. Choose a drug for the
treatment of hypertension:
A. Perindopril
B. Chlorthalidone
C. Atenolol
D. Reserpine
E. Methyldopa
Answer: A

7. A 67-year-old man complains of periodic dizziness. During the examination,

heart sounds are deaf, significant bradycardia. Pulse 36 beats per minute, rhythmic.
AT 150/70. On the ECG: ventricular rate 32 / min., Atria and ventricular
complexes are independent of each other. The most likely cause of dizziness:
A. Complete AV blockade
B. Sinus bradycardia
C. Sinus arrhythmia
D. Sino-atrial blockade
E. Incomplete AV block
Answer: A
8. A 47-year-old patient with long-term bronchial asthma has recently had an
increase in asthma attacks that cannot be relieved by inhalation of berotec and
astmopent. Which drug should be used for intensive treatment?
A. Oxygen therapy
B. Bronchodilators
C. Glucocorticoids
D. Infusion therapy
E. Cardiac glycosides
Answer: C

9. The patient against the background of a normal state while eating suddenly
developed stridor breathing, loss of consciousness, severe symptoms of hypoxia.
Name the most probable reason:
A. Foreign body of the larynx or trachea
B. Asthma attack
C. Acute stenotic laryngotracheitis
D. Tumor of the larynx or trachea
E. Epileptic seizure
Answer: A

10. The patient is 67 years old, complains of heart failure. The ECG recorded the
presence of premature, dilated and deformed QRS complexes with a long pause
after them. Heart rate - 100 / min. AT- 90/60 mm Hg. Art. What is the probable
arrhythmia in the patient?
A. Atrial fibrillation attack
B. Paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia
C. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
D. Supraventricular extrasystole
E. Ventricular arrhythmia
Answer: E

11. A characteristic feature of clinical death that has developed as a result of sino-
auricular or atrio-ventricular block is:
A. Sudden onset
B. Relatively gradual onset after Morgan-Adams-Stokes attack
C. Accompanied by severe cyanosis
D. Develops after exercise
E. Spontaneous urination or defecation
Answer: A
12. For the treatment of hypertensive crisis in combination with acute coronary
syndrome are used, EXCEPT:
A. Nifedipine
B. Nitroglycerin intravenously
C. Sodium nitroprusside
D. Propranolol
E. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
Answer: A

13. The patient had an attack of a complex cardiac arrhythmia: atrial fibrillation,
paroxysm of ventricular tachycardia. Name the universal anti-arrhythmic drug, the
use of which is most appropriate for the patient:
A. Panangin
B. Novocainamide
C. Lidocaine
D. Verapamil
E. Digoxin
Answer: B

14. To what safe level it is necessary to reduce blood pressure at the first stage of
treatment of hypertensive crisis:
A. 50%
B. At 40%
C. At 30-35%
D. At 20-25%
E. It doesn't matter
Answer: D

15. The group of drugs that is most appropriate to use to stabilize blood pressure in
pheochromocytoma:

A. ACE inhibitors
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. Alpha- and beta-blockers
D. Angiotensin receptor blockers
E. Diuretics
Answer: C

16. The drug of choice for ventricular tachycardia type "pirouette" with stable
hemodynamics:
A. Magnesium sulfate
B. Calcium chloride
C. Antiarrhythmic drugs Ia, Ic and III (except amiodarone)
D. Adrenaline
E. Verapamil
Answer: A

17. What is not included in the treatment plan in case of suspicion of acute
myocardial infarction?
A. Nitroglycerin sublingually (3 times at 5-minute intervals); in the absence of
effect - nitroglycerin infusion
B. Moist oxygen through nasal cannulas
C. 160-325 aspirin orally
D. In pain - morphine intravenously
E. Lidocaine intravenously
Answer: E

18. Which of the following tests does not apply to non-drug treatments for
tachycardia with a "narrow" QRS complex:
A. Naso-labial test of Astvatsaturov
B. Valsalava test - respiratory arrest with tension at the height of inspiration 5-10
seconds
C. Chermak-Goering test - massage of the carotid sinus
D. Reproduction of the gag reflex
E. Balloon inflation test
Answer: A
19. A 45-year-old patient suffers from persistent bronchial asthma (grade 2).
Constantly used 200 mcg of beclomethasone per day and salmeterol. POSH ed.
Was> 80% of the appropriate. The patient's condition improved and he stopped
taking drugs. There was an exacerbation. Objectively: the patient is mostly in a
sitting position. Difficulty breathing, loud wheezing, speaks in individual phrases.
Excited. BH 25 / min. Participation of auxiliary muscles in the act of breathing.
Pulse 112 beats / min., Blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg. Heart tones are loud,
rhythmic. Percussion tone with a box shade; auscultatory - wheezing on
exhalation. Choose treatment tactics:
A. Outpatient: increase the dose of short-acting inhaled beta2-agonists (2-4 breaths
every 20 minutes for the first hour). In an hour to estimate effect of therapy
B. Immediate hospitalization of the patient
C. Immediately intravenous beta2-agonists
D. Immediate intravenous glucocorticosteroids
E. Intubation and artificial lung ventilation
Answer: A

20. After an attack of burning pain behind the sternum on the ECG: Q II, III, avF>
R II, III, avF, ST segment elevation, negative tooth T II, III, avF. Your diagnosis:
A. Large focal posterior diaphragmatic MI in the acute stage
B. ECG changes are characteristic of acute coronary insufficiency
C. ECG changes are characteristic of small-focal posterior MI
D. Transmural anterior MI in the acute stage
E. ECG changes are characteristic of acute pulmonary embolism
Answer: A
 Tests topic 5

1. When analyzing the spirometry data, the following data were obtained - Typhoid
index - 54%, FEV1-57%, determine the preliminary diagnosis:
A. Bronchial asthma
B. Mild COPD
C. COPD of medium degree
D. Severe COPD
E. COPD is extremely severe

Answer: C

2. A 60-year-old patient, a library employee, complained of constant shortness of

breath and dry, unproductive cough. Smokes for 30 years. On examination:
cyanosis of the lips, respiratory rate 26 per minute, lung percussion box sound,
heart rate 110 per minute. AD 145/80 mm. rt. Art. Determine the previous
diagnosis:
A. COPD
B. Bronchial asthma
C. Lung cancer
D. Acute respiratory viral infection
E. There is no correct answer

Answer: A

3. Identify external risk factors for COPD:

A. smoking
B. become
C. impaired growth of lung tissue
D. age
E. there is no correct answer

Answer: A

4. Determine which methods are non-drug principles of treatment of COPD:

A. elimination of risk factors
B. training of patients in pulmonary rehabilitation programs
C. oxygen therapy
D. true A, B
E. everything is true
Answer: E

5. Without which method it is impossible to diagnose COPD:

A. bronchoscopy
B. FLG
C. sputum analysis
D. spirometry
E. chest X-ray
Answer: D

6. Short-acting bronchodilator is -
A. salmeterol
B. formoterol
C. retard form of theophylline
D. ipratropium bromide
E. there is no right answer
Answer: D

7. Barrel-shaped chest, change in the shape of fingernails ("watch glasses"),

shortness of breath are common signs:
A. acute respiratory disease
B. pneumothorax
C. acute bronchitis
D. pneumonia
E. emphysema of the lungs
Answer: E

8. What are the most common side effects of tiotropium?

A. diarrhea, changes in liver function tests (sometimes toxic hepatitis), -headache,
dizziness;
B. gastrointestinal bleeding and other hemorrhagic manifestations;
C. headache, dizziness, taste disturbance, paresthesia, fever, serositis;
D. dry mouth, constipation, cough and local irritation of the mucous membranes,
tachycardia, difficulty urinating;
E. drowsiness, muscle weakness, memory impairment
Answer: C

9. To diagnose bronchospasm by spirography, peak flowmetry should use a test:

A. With dosed exercise
B. With oxygen inhalation
C. With inhalation of glucocorticosteroids
D. With inhalation of β2-adrenostimulant
E. With inhalation of β-blocker
Answer: D

10. Determine the correct rules for collecting sputum:

A. It is recommended to collect in the morning, before eating, before collecting
teeth should be brushed, collection should be made in sterile containers, which
should be delivered to the microbiological laboratory no later than 2 hours after
collection.
B. it is recommended to collect in the morning, teeth should not be brushed before
collection, collection should be made in sterile containers, which should be
delivered to the microbiological laboratory no later than 2 hours after collection.
C. it is recommended to collect in the morning, before meals, teeth should be
brushed before collection, collection should be done in sterile containers, which
must be delivered to the microbiological laboratory no later than 24 hours after
collection.
D. it is recommended to collect in the evening, the collection must be made in
sterile containers, which must be delivered to the microbiological laboratory no
later than 2 hours after its collection
E. there is no right answer
Answer: A

11. Determine why an asthma attack is a typical clinical manifestation:

A. dyspepsia
B. cardiogenic shock
C. Budd-Chiari syndrome
D. pneumonia
E. bronchial asthma
Answer: E

12. What are the goals of COPD treatment?

A. relief of symptoms, prevention and treatment of exacerbations, improving
quality of life, increasing tolerance to exercise;
B. reduction of mortality, increase of tolerance to physical activity, prevention of
disease progression, relief of symptoms;
C. relief of symptoms, prevention and treatment of exacerbations, improvement of
quality of life, increase of tolerance to physical activity, decrease of mortality,
increase of tolerance to physical activity;
D. true A, B
E. everything is true
Answer: B

13. Define the principles of drug treatment of stable COPD:

A. gradual increase in the volume of therapy without the possibility of reducing the
volume of therapy
B. the response to therapy is very individual and requires constant monitoring
C. gradual increase in therapy, stepdown when the effect is achieved
D. true a, b
E. true a, c
Answer: D

14. With bronchial asthma:

A. shortness of breath is often inspiratory, cough often accompanies shortness of
breath, sputum pink, frothy
B. shortness of breath is more often expiratory, cough appears at the end of the
attack, sputum is vitreous, dry rales are scattered during the attack
C. shortness of breath is often inspiratory, cough appears at the end of the attack,
sputum vitreous, wet rales
D. shortness of breath is often expiratory, cough often accompanies shortness of
breath, sputum pink, frothy
E. there is no right answer
Answer: B

15. Orthopnoe is a shortness of breath which:

A. occurs in the supine position and decreases in the sitting position
B. occurs in the supine position and does not decrease in the sitting position
C. occurs in a sitting position and decreases in a supine position
D. occurs in a horizontal position, decreases lying down
E. occurs regardless of body position
Answer: A

16. With massive pneumothorax:

A. chest mobility during respiration is reduced on the side of pneumothorax;
B. chest mobility during respiration is increased on the side of pneumothorax;
C. percussion box sound;
D. true A, C
E. true B, C
Answer: D

17. Contraindications to the appointment of theophylline drugs:

A. myocardial infarction, tachyarrhythmias, hyperthyroidism
B. angle-closure glaucoma, liver dysfunction
C. renal dysfunction, growth period
D. oncological pathology with a low level of bone metabolism, osteoporosis
E. there are no contraindications
Answer: A

18. Contraindications to the use of ipratropium bromide:

A. myocardial infarction, tachyarrhythmias, hyperthyroidism
B. angle-closure glaucoma
C. renal dysfunction, growth period
D. goncological pathology with a low level of bone metabolism
E. CA blockade
Answer: B

19. To which dispensary group do patients with bronchial asthma belong?

A. I
B. II
C. III
D. 0
E. there is no correct answer
Answer: C

20. How many times a year should a patient with bronchial asthma who is on the
dispensary register visit a physician / pulmonologist?
A. 2-3 times
B. 1-2 times
C. 5-6 times
D. as needed
E. there is no correct answer
Answer: A
21. With shortness of breath, which occurred suddenly, chest pain, tachycardia,
hemoptysis, pleural friction noise, cyanosis in a patient with varicose veins of the
lower extremities in the first place should be excluded:
A. asthmatic status
B. focal pulmonary tuberculosis
C. aspiration pneumonia
D. Pulmonary artery thromboembolism
E. spontaneous pneumothorax
Answer: D

22. For bronchial asthma, in contrast to COPD is characterized by:

A. the appearance of attacks of respiratory discomfort a few years after the onset of
cough and shortness of breath, often in the history of smoking, in the clinical
picture of alternating acute attacks and remissions, perhaps the connection of
asthma attack with allergen, sputum secretion is insignificant
B. usually begins with asthma attacks, allergic heredity is burdened, in the clinical
picture of alternating acute attacks and remissions, there may be a connection
between an asthma attack and an allergen, sputum secretion is insignificant
C. usually begins with asthma attacks, allergic heredity is not burdened, the
clinical picture is dominated by constant expiratory dyspnea, exacerbated by
exercise, shortness of breath occurs on the background of paroxysmal cough,
sputum production is insignificant
D. usually begins with asthma attacks, when analyzing the results of spirography
obstructive obstruction, the test with berotek negative
E. there is no right answer
Answer: A

23. Increased transparency of the lungs on the radiograph, the expansion of the
intercostal spaces, the flattening of the dome of the diaphragm are considered
signs:
A. spontaneous pulmonary hemorrhage
B. pneumonia
C. emphysema
D. cavernous tuberculosis
E. pneumofibrosis

Answer: C

24. The main clinical signs of bronchial obstruction are:

A. poor coughing up sputum
B. expiratory nature of shortness of breath
C. signs of pulmonary emphysema
D. dry rales
E. pneumothorax
Answer: B

25. An elderly patient with bronchial asthma, who also suffers from coronary heart
disease and angina, 3 years ago suffered a myocardial infarction. Ventricular
extrasystoles are periodically noted, there are symptoms of heart failure stage IIA.
It is preferable to prescribe to this patient for relief of an asthma attack:
A. ephedrine subcutaneously
B. euphyllin intravenous drip in combination with hydrocortisone and asparkam
C. adrenaline subcutaneously
D. bricanil subcutaneously
E. euphyllin intravenously in combination with strophanthin
Answer: E
TOPIC TEST № 6

1. At the patient of 18 years within the last 3 months polyuria, polydipsia, weight loss (8 kg)
at good appetite are observed. Laboratory examination revealed glycemia 18 mmol / l,
glucosuria 24 g / l. Against the background of insulin, these complaints, including thirst,
disappeared. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
B. Type 2 diabetes
C. Renal glucosuria
D. Diabetes mellitus
E. Secondary (symptomatic) diabetes mellitus

2. A 40-year-old patient complains of general weakness, weight loss, significant thirst (up to
8 liters per day), polyuria. Objectively: the skin and tongue are dry. The boundaries of the
heart are not changed, the pulse is 86 / min. Urine analysis: specific gravity - 1006,
leukocytes 2-6 in the field of view. Blood test without changes. Your previous diagnosis?
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Acute pyelonephritis
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Primary aldosteronism
E. Acute glomerulonephritis

3. Examination of a 49-year-old patient suffering from hypertension and obesity revealed

hyperlipidemia due to LDL, decreased HDL cholesterol and hyperinsulinemia. Diagnosed
with metabolic syndrome X. What is the main pathogenetic mechanism of this syndrome?
A. Insulinoma
B. Hyperlipidemia
C. Decreased HDL concentration
D. Hyperuricemia
E. Hyperinsulinemia and insulin resistance

4. A 42-year-old patient complains of headache, weakness, loss of appetite, thirst, swelling

of the face and legs. From the age of 18 receives 42-54 units of insulin. per day for diabetes.
The condition is serious. The face is gray, swollen, swollen legs. AT-210/110 mm Hg, pulse
110 / min, rhythmic. Heart, lungs  without features. The liver is not enlarged. Glycemic
profile: 9-12-10 mmol / l. An. urine: specific gravity - 1022, sugar - 3%, protein-1.32 g / l,
lake.- 3-5 in the field of view. There is not enough urine. What complication did the patient
develop?
A. Amyloidosis of the kidneys
B. Diabetic nephropathy
C. Chronic pyelonephritis
D. Nephrotic syndrome
E. Glomerulonephritis

5. A 39-year-old patient with type II diabetes. The disease is controlled by diet and
glurenorm. The patient is waiting for surgery for panaritium. Tactics of hypoglycemic
therapy?
A. Prescribe recombinant insulin
B. Assign maninil
C. Prescribe monocomponent insulin
D. Do not change therapy
E. Cancel glurenorm

6. Patient S. 29 years old, complains of thirst, increased urination, general weakness, weight
loss. Objectively: dry skin, red cheeks, vesicular respiration. Heart tones are sonorous. The
tongue is dry. There are no symptoms of peritoneal irritation. What research needs to be
done to confirm a plausible diagnosis?
A. Fasting glucose
B. General blood test
C. General analysis of urine
D. Analysis of urine according to Zymnytsky
E. Liver tests

7. Examination of a patient operated on for gastric ulcer revealed a body weight deficit of 10
kg, postoperative fasting glucose 6.7 mmol / l, postprandial glycemia - 11.1 mmol / l,
glycosylated hemoglobin - 10%. What is the previous diagnosis:
A. Impaired glucose tolerance
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Prediabetes
D. Norm
E. Postoperative hypoinsulinemia

8. A 52-year-old patient has been receiving antihypertensive therapy for 8 years. My father
has diabetes. Objectively: height - 173 cm. Weight - 105 kg. Pulse - 70 / min., Blood
pressure - 190/110 mm Hg. Liver +3 cm. Pasty legs. Fasting blood sugar 5.4 mmol / liter.
What means of diabetes prevention in this patient should be started?
A. Diuretic therapy
B. Normalization of blood pressure
C. Prescribing metformin
D. Appointment of hepatoprotectors
E. Normalization of body weight
9. Patient P., 60 years old, has been suffering from diabetes for 9 years, receives 26 units of
insulin. in the morning and 18 units. in the evening. Complaints of weakness, lethargy in the
morning after sleep, headache, night sweats. Objectively: pulse - 72 / min., Blood pressure -
125/70 mm Hg. The boundaries of the heart are normal. Liver +4 cm. Blood sugar: 8.00 - 14
mmol / l; 12.00 - 9 mmol / l; 17.00 - 11 mmol / l. Urine sugar in the range of 0.5-1%. What
are the most likely related complaints that occur in a patient at night?
A. The presence of hepatosis
B. Insufficient evening dose of insulin
C. Excess insulin in the evening
D. Menopausal syndrome
E. Insufficient dose of insulin in the morning

10. The patient is 46 years old, height 163 cm, weight 90 kg, BMI = 33.87 kg / m2.
Objectively: the general condition is satisfactory, heart sounds are deaf, no noise is heard
during auscultation. Heart rate - 78 / min. JSC: right - 140/90 mm Hg, left - 145/85 mm Hg.
Vesicular respiration in the lungs. The lower edge of the liver protrudes 2 cm from the edge
of the right hypochondrium. There is no edema. Determine the type of obesity and its
degree?
A. Overweight
B. Hypothalamic obesity 2 tbsp.
C. Alimentary-constitutional obesity, 1 tbsp.
D. Alimentary-constitutional obesity, 2 tbsp.
E. Alimentary-constitutional obesity, Art.

11. Patient L. is 59 years old, suffers from diabetes mellitus, type 2. Receives glibenclamide
at a dose of 15 mg per day and metformin - 1000 mg per day. After exercise I felt weakness,
dizziness, shortness of breath, slight pain in the heart. AT 70/30 mm Hg Pulse - 110 beats /
min. According to the ECG: dome-shaped rise of the ST segment, depression of the ST
segment in the reciprocal zone, the appearance of the QS tooth. Hospitalized to the infarct
department. What antihyperglycemic therapy does the patient need?
A. Cancel metformin and glibenclamide, prescribe gliclazide
B. Leave previous therapy
C. Cancel metformin
D. Cancel glibenclamide
E. Transfer to insulin therapy

12. A 62-year-old patient suffers from type 2 diabetes. During the week, worried about thirst
and polyuria, vomiting and diarrhea. Objectively: Sopor. Skin turgor is reduced. The
eyeballs are soft. The skin is dry. Frequent, shallow breathing. Pulse - 110 beats / min. Blood
pressure - 80/40 mm Hg Reflexes are increased. Oliguria. Blood sugar 49.6 mmol / l. Urine:
sugar - 40 g / l, protein 0.23 g / l, no acetone, lake. - 5-6 in the field of view. To clarify the
diagnosis should be further determined:
A. blood pH
B. Plasma osmolarity
C. Blood urea
D. Ketonemia
E. Blood lactate

13. Patient 26 years old, suffering from diabetes. No diabetic complications were detected.
Fasting blood glucose in the range of 6.0-7 mmol / liter. I went to the doctor about planning
a pregnancy. Choose the most informative method of examination to establish the level of
compensation for diabetes and decide on the possibility of having a child:
A. Glucosuric profile
B. Glycemic profile
C. The level of C-peptide
D. Postprandial glycemia
E. Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c)

14. A 70-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes complains of thirst, dry mouth, frequent
urination, mostly at night. Deterioration is noted after the use of diuretics for hypertension.
Objectively: CDR - 23 / min., Heart rate - 112 beats / min., Blood pressure - 100/60 mm Hg.
Sopor. The skin is dry, turgor is reduced, the eyeballs are soft. In the blood: glucose -
30 mmol / l, potassium, sodium and chlorides are increased. Ht - 57%, leukocytes - 12 * 109.
Ketones are absent in the urine. What solution should be prescribed to the patient for
rehydration?
A. 10% glucose
B. 0.9% sodium chloride
C. 4% sodium bicarbonate
D. 0.45% sodium chloride
E. 5% glucose

15. A 49-year-old patient with diabetes, after the development of furunculosis of the skin and
the appointment of antibiotics, independently refused to take glibenclamide. The patient's
condition deteriorated, increased thirst, dry skin, diuresis - 4.5 l / day, fainted. Objective:
shallow breathing, accelerated. BP - 24, pulse - 105 / min, blood pressure - 90/40 mm Hg.
Heart tones are deaf. The abdomen is soft. Liver - +5 cm. Glycemia 43 mmol / l, reaction to
acetone in urine is negative, glucose - positive. Determine the nature of the condition.
A. Infectious and toxic shock
B. Ketoacidotic coma
C. Hypersmolar coma
D. Diabetic ketoacidosis
E. Lactoacidotic coma

16. A 70-year-old man was taken to hospital in a coma. Has been suffering from diabetes for
12 years, does not follow a diet, does not take sugar-lowering drugs. Objectively: breathing
is frequent, shallow. Blood pressure - 70/30 mm Hg The pulse is filiform. Severe dryness of
the skin and mucous membranes, a sharp decrease in skin turgor and eye tone. Body
temperature 38˚С. Bilateral nystagmus. Tendon reflexes are absent. The smell of acetone
from the mouth is not felt. Blood glucose 19 mmol / l, plasma osmolarity 320 mosm / l What
changes in the biochemical analysis of blood probably accompany this condition?
A. Ketonemia
B. Hypoproteinemia
C. Hyperbilirubinemia
D. Hyperlactacidemia
E. Azotemia

17. Patient D. 64 years old, suffers from diabetes. Receives metformin at a dose of 1500 mg
per day. As a result of the accident he received burns of 2-3 tbsp. on 40% of the body
surface. In the intensive care unit, I was bothered by the weakness, which worsened every
day, periodic spasms of the muscles of the extremities. On the 10th day, frequent, shallow
breathing appeared. The skin and mucous membranes are dry, turgor is sharply reduced. АТ-
50/10 мм.рт.ст. Pulse - 130 beats / min. The liver is enlarged by 4.0 cm. Pathological tendon
reflexes are determined. Oliguria. Ketonuria is absent. Clinical signs of which coma are
observed in the patient?
A. Hyperosmolar diabetic coma
B. Hypoglycemic coma
C. Lactate-acidotic diabetic coma
D. Ketoacidotic diabetic coma
E. Hepatic coma

18. Clinical manifestations of hypoglycemia are characterized by:

A. Thirst and polyuria
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Decreased muscle tone and dry skin
D. Increased muscle tone and moisture of the skin
E. There is no correct answer

19. Treatment of hypoglycemic coma includes the appointment of the following drugs:
A. Intravenous administration of 40% glucose solution to 100 ml
B. Prescribing insulin therapy;
C. Prescribing loop diuretics
D. Intravenous administration of 5% glucose solution
E. Intravenous administration of 0.9% NaCl solution
20. Clinical manifestations of hyperglycemic ketoacidotic condition are characterized by:
A. Aggressive behavior
B. Decreased muscle tone, nausea and vomiting
C. Violation of the nature of bowel movements
D. Increased muscle tone
E. Tremor and sweating

21. Cardiac manifestations of ketoacidosis in diabetes include the following symptoms:

A. Bradycardia
B. ECG - signs of acute myocardial infarction
C. Hypertension
D. Severe chest pain
E. Atrial fibrillation

22. Laboratory signs of diabetic ketoacidosis include:

A. Hyperglycemia, hyperkalemia, hypermagnesemia, hyperchloremia, ketonemia
B. Leukocytosis, hypokalemia, hyponatremia, ketonemia, hypoinsulinemia
C. Hyperglycemia, leukocytosis, hypokalemia, hyponatremia, ketonemia
D. Hyperglycemia, azotemia, hypernarthremia, hyperinsulinemia
E. There is no correct answer

23. Principles of treatment of diabetic hyperglycemic ketoacidotic coma:

A. Radiation therapy
B. Administration of glucagon
C. Introduction of diuretics
D. Taking oral hypoglycemic drugs
E. Rehydration and insulin therapy

24. The causes of death in diabetic ketoacidosis can be:

A. Insulin resistance and hyperinsulinemia
B. Acute adrenal insufficiency
C. Lactic acidosis
D. Cardiac arrest on the background of hypokalemia and hypovolemic shock
E. Exocrine insufficiency of the pancreas

25. Treatment of hyperosmolar coma includes rehydration, insulin therapy, as well as:
A. Administration of glucagon
B. Correction of dyslipidemia
C. Correction of electrolyte disturbances
D. Introduction of diuretics
E. Introduction of glucose solution

Відповіді до таста № 6
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A C E B D A B E C C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
E B E D C E A D A B
21 22 23 24 25
B C E A C
TOPIC TEST №7
1. The depth of flexion of the sternum to the spine in newborns during
resuscitation should be:
A. 2-3 cm
B. 1-2 cm
C. 3-4 cm
D. D.4-5 cm
E. 5-6 cm
Answer: B

2. The depth of flexion of the sternum to the spine of adolescents during

resuscitation should be:
A. A.2-3 cm
B. 1-2 cm
C. C.3-4 cm
D. D.4-5 cm
E. 5-6 cm
Answer: C

3. The depth of flexion of the sternum to the spine of adults during resuscitation
should be:
A. A.2-3 cm
B. 1-2 cm
C. 3-4 cm
D. D.4-5 cm
E. 5-6 cm
Answer: D

4. What drugs during resuscitation can be injected into the trachea:

A. Epinephrine erez dish, calcium chloride, sodium bicarbonate
B. Adrenaline erez dish, lidocaine
C. Epinephrine eres dish, glucose, atropine sulfate
D. Epinephrine erez dish, calcium chloride, novocainomide
E. Epinephrine erez dish, lidocaine, sodium bicarbonate
Answer: B

5. Electrical defibrillation in case of cessation of blood circulation:

A. Used as a first measure in ECG-recorded asystole
B. Should not be used without ECG monitoring
C. Ineffective in case of decreased diuresis less than 30 ml per hour
D. Used in case of ineffective resuscitation, even in the absence
ECG monitoring
E. Not used unless the patient is grounded
Answer: B

6. According to the latest recommendations of the European Council of

Resuscitators (ERC), the ratio of the frequency of external cardiac massage and
mechanical ventilation during resuscitation of an adult victim should be:
A. A.15: 2
B. 18: 1
C. 15: 1
D. D.30: 2
E. 5: 1
Answer: D

7. According to the latest recommendations of the European Council of

Resuscitators (ERC), the ratio of the frequency of external cardiac massage and
mechanical ventilation during resuscitation of children by one person should be:
A. A.15: 2
B. 18: 1
C. 15: 1
D. 30: 2
E. 5: 1
Answer: D

8. According to the latest recommendations of the European Council of

Resuscitators (ERC), the ratio of the frequency of external cardiac massage and
mechanical ventilation during resuscitation of children by two persons should be:
A. A.15: 2
B. 18: 1
C. 15: 1
D. 30: 2
E. 5: 1
Answer: A

9. The following signs indicate the effectiveness of external cardiac massage,

except:
A. Narrowing of the pupils
B. The presence of a pulse in the carotid artery
C. Regurgitation
D. The appearance of the glossopharyngeal reflex
E. Skin discoloration
Answer: C

10. At asphyxia owing to hit of a foreign body and impossibility to eliminate it on

a case site it is necessary:
A. Throw the victim's head, bring the lower jaw up
B. Enter the air duct
C. Perform vest resuscitation
D. Use a laryngeal mask
E. Perform a conicotomy
Answer: E

11. Sudden death is most often caused by:

A. Ventricular fibrillation
B. Ventricular tachycardia
C. Electromechanical dissociation
D. Asystole
E. Atrioventricular block
Answer: A

12. The least threatening arrhythmia:

A. Polytopic extrasystole
B. Supraventricular single extrasystole
C. Frequent ventricular arrhythmias
D. D. Group extrasystole
E. Extrasystoles of type R on T
Answer: B

13. The patient on the way home suddenly fainted. The skin is bluish, the pulse is
not determined, blood pressure - 95/70 mm Hg, heart tones are weakened.
Vesicular respiration. Swelling is absent. On the ECG - complete dissociation of
the teeth P and QRS complexes, heart rate - 30 per 1 min. What are the next tactics
for the patient:
A. Hospitalization in the cardiology department
B. Outpatient treatment
C. Hospitalization in the intensive care unit
D. Treatment in a day hospital
E. Hospitalization to the bullets of the monologue department
Answer: C

14. The patient suddenly fainted, convulsions appeared. The skin is bluish, pulse
and blood pressure are not determined. There is no breathing, heart sounds are not
heard. On the ECG: a large number of waves that resemble the ventricular
complex, different in shape, amplitude; the R-R interval is almost absent. What
emergency measures should be taken first:
A. Artificial rhythm driver
B. Pacemaking
C. Electropulse therapy
D. Administration of cordarone
E. Defibrillation of the heart
Answer: E

15. The patient suddenly fainted, convulsions appeared. The skin is bluish, pulse
and blood pressure are not determined. There is no breathing, heart sounds are not
heard. On the ECG: a large number of waves that resemble the ventricular
complex, different in shape, amplitude; the R-R interval is almost absent. What
arrhythmia occurred in the patient:
A. Ventricular fibrillation
B. Paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia
C. Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation
D. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
E. Frederick's syndrome
Answer: A

16. An ambulance crew was called to a 7-year-old boy. Consciousness and

respiration are absent, the pulse in the carotid artery and blood pressure are not
determined, the pupils are wide, do not respond to light. After the release of the
airways, artificial respiration and restoration of blood circulation, you must first
enter:
A. Calcium chloride
B. Atropine sulfate
C. Epinephrine hydrochloride
D. Sodium bicarbonate
E. Glucose solution
Answer: C
17. An ambulance was called in the summer to a 10-year-old girl who was taken
out of the river unconscious. Objectively: pale skin, no spontaneous breathing, no
peripheral pulse on the main vessels, dilated pupils. Which of the following
resuscitation measures should be applied first:
A. Release of the respiratory tract
B. Introduction of calcium chloride
C. External heart massage
D. Carrying out defibrillation of the heart
E. Introduction of adrenaline hydrochloride
Answer: A

18. An eleven-month-old boy suddenly fell, stopped breathing, heartbeat, appeared

convulsive movements, accompanied by urination, defecation. Objectively: lack of
consciousness, respiration and heart rate, pupillary reaction to light, corneal and
conjunctival reflexes. What is the most likely diagnosis:
A. Meningoencephalitis
B. Epileptic state
C. Sudden death syndrome
D. Diabetic coma
E. Cardiogenic shock
Answer: C

19. The ambulance arrived 15 minutes after the call. Two paramedics perform
cardiopulmonary resuscitation: mechanical ventilation and indirect heart massage.
During the initial examination of the patient: the pupils are moderately dilated, the
pulse in the carotid arteries is not determined, no respiratory movements; on the
ECG - ventricular fibrillation. What measures should be taken first:
A. Carry out intubation of the trachea
B. Intravenously administer adrenaline hydrochloride
C. Inject lidocaine intravenously
D. Introduce intravenous β-blockers
E. Defibrillation
Answer: E

20. A 55-year-old man diagnosed with coronary heart disease: unstable angina
while walking down the hall. The general practitioner found a lack of
consciousness and pulsation on a. Carotis, heart tones; narrowed pupils and
shallow breathing. From what in this case it is necessary to begin resuscitation
actions?
A. From conducting eresis of esophageal pacing
B. Intravenous administration of adrenaline
C. Intracardiac administration of atropine
D. From the application of precardiac impact
E. Conducting mechanical ventilation
Answer: D

Відповіді на тест № 7

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B C D B B D D A C E
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A B C E A C A C E D