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12 Minutes to CLAT Current Affairs Compendium – May 2023
CURRENT AFFAIRS COMPENDIUM – MAY 2023
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INDEX
1. Ludhiana Gas Leak
2. ASEAN- India Maritime Exercise
3. 25 years of Pokhran- II
4. Manipur Protests
5. New Parliament Building
6. Human space flight of the Gaganyaan Mission
7. 32nd Arab League Summit
8. National Supercomputing Mission
9. NHRC accreditation deferred by GANHRI
10. The Jallikattu Judgement
11. The Telangana- Andhra Pradesh Water Dispute
12. G7 Summit 2023
13. WMO Reports on Climate Change
14. US Debt Ceiling
15. Indus Water Treaty
16. Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment) Ordinance, 2023
17. China’s Shenzhou-16 spacecraft
18. Smart Cities Mission
19. Rasht-Astara railway Link
20. Denial of Tribal Certificates to Khasis
21. Taxation Rules for Online Gaming
22. Khelo India University Games 2023
23. SCO Summit 2023
24. The Global Report on Internal Displacement, 2023 (GRID- 2023)

25. Millet Experience Centre
26. Law Commission’s recommendation on Sedition
27. NITI Aayog’s Annual Health Index
28. Supreme Court’s Maharashtra Verdict
29. World Telecommunication Day 2023
30. CPEC Extended to Afghanistan
31. Annual Report on Religious Freedom
32. Controversy around Mohenjodaro’s Dancing Girl figurine
33. Poshan bhi, Padhai bhi
34. International Day for Biodiversity 2023
35. 6th Indian Ocean Conference
1. LUDHIANA GAS LEAK

Recently: 11 people died due to a gas leak in the Giaspura area of Ludhiana, Punjab, while four people fell ill and were
hospitalised.
∑ Any definitive reasons for the leak are not known so far but according to the air quality sensors used by National Disaster
Response Force (NDRF) team, high levels of Hydrogen Sulphide gas, a kind of neurotoxin, have been detected and it is
being ascertained how this gas might have led to the incident.
∑ The autopsy reports also suggested that the deaths were due to “inhalation poisoning”.
∑ The National Green Tribunal took suo moto cognizance of the case and has constituted an 8-member fact finding joint
committee to probe the tragedy.
∑ The committee is led by the Punjab State Pollution Control Board (PPCB) Chairman Adarsh Pal Vig.
∑ The NGT has also directed the Ludhiana District Magistrate to give Rs 20 lakh each to the families of the 11 victims.
Hydrogen Sulphide: It is an extremely pungent gas that has an obnoxiously foul smell which smells like rotten eggs.
∑ It is a colourless chalcogen hydride gas with the formula H2S.

∑ It is a highly corrosive, flammable and poisonous gas.
∑ Hydrogen sulphide is most commonly formed due to the microbial breakdown of organic matter in the absence of oxygen.
This occurs mostly in swamps and sewers, and the process is known as anaerobic digestion.
∑ It is highly toxic to humans. It causes respiratory depression, skin irritation or can even lead to coma.
∑ Once inhaled too much of it, one can experience headaches, dizziness, nausea, stomach upset, even unconsciousness and if
it’s a liquid gas, one can also get frostbite.
∑ Long-term exposure to hydrogen sulphide can lead to more serious health problems, such as damage to the nervous system
and lungs.
∑ To remove gases such as hydrogen sulphide from wastewater, chemical oxidation is done, where oxidants such as
hydrogen peroxide are added to the wastewater.
Neurotoxins: Neurotoxins are poisonous substances which can directly affect the nervous system.
∑ Neurotoxicity occurs when exposure to natural or man-made toxic substances alters the normal activity of the nervous
system.
∑ These substances can eventually disrupt or even kill neurons or nerve cells, which are important for transmitting and
processing signals in the brain and other parts of the nervous system.
∑ Methane, hydrogen sulphide, carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide are common neurotoxic gases.
National Green Tribunal:
∑ Formation: The National Green Tribunal has been established on 18.10.2010 under the National Green Tribunal Act
2010.
∑ During the summit of United Nations Conference on Environment and Development in June 1992, India vowed to
provide judicial and administrative remedies to the victims of the pollutants and other environmental damage.
∑ This is the first body of its kind that is required by its parent statute to apply the polluter pays principle and the principle
of sustainable development. (SDG 13 talks about Climate Action).
∑ India is the third country following Australia and New Zealand to have such a system.
∑ Aim: Effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other
natural resources.
Enforcement of any legal right relating to environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and
property and for matters connected with the same.
∑ It draws inspiration from Article 21 of the Constitution i.e., Protection of life and personal liberty, which assures the citizens
of India the right to a healthy environment.
∑ The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided
by principles of natural justice.
∑ The Tribunal is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing
of the same.
∑ Currently, it has five places of sitting: New Delhi (the Principal Place of Sitting), Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai.
Members and Chairperson: The tribunal has a chairperson, Judicial Members and Expert members.
∑ The Chairperson of the NGT is a retired Judge of the Supreme Court.

∑ The chairperson can hold office for a period of three years or till the age of sixty- five years, whichever is earlier, and
is not eligible for reappointment.
∑ On 18 October 2010, Justice Lokeshwar Singh Panta became its first Chairman.
∑ Retired justice Adarsh Kumar Goel is the incumbent chairman of NGT.
∑ Other Judicial members are retired Judges of High Courts
∑ Expert members should have a professional qualification and a minimum of 15 years of experience in the field of
environment/forest conservation and related subjects.
∑ Each bench should have at least one judicial member and one expert member.
Bhopal Gas Tragedy:
∑ In the year 1984, India had witnessed the world’s worst chemical (industrial) disaster – the “Bhopal Gas Tragedy” (which
happened on December 2nd, 1984).
∑ About 40 tons of the dangerous gas methyl isocyanate escaped from an insecticide plant owned by the Indian subsidy of
American firm Union Carbide.
∑ The gas affected the lungs, kidneys, liver, caused cerebral oedema, etc. the incident increased the stillbirth rate by 300%
and neonatal mortality by 200% in the area.
∑ Bhopal Gas Leak (Processing of Claims) Act was enacted in 1985 to give powers to the central government to secure
the claims arising out of or connected with the Bhopal gas tragedy.
∑ The Environment Protection Act (1986), The Public Liability Insurance Act (1991) and The National Environment Appellate
Authority Act (1997), are some other laws that provide safeguard against chemical disasters in India.
2. ASEAN- INDIA MARITIME EXERCISE

Recently: In the expanding India-ASEAN (Association of South East Asian Nations) military cooperation, the maiden ASEAN-India
Maritime Exercise (AIME) began on May 2 with war games in South China Sea.
∑ The ‘Harbour Phase’ of the exercise was held at Changi Naval Base of the Singapore Navy, India’s co- host for AIME-
2023, from May 2-4 and ‘Sea Phase’ from May 7-8 in the South China Sea.
∑ Indian Navy deployed indigenously designed and built destroyer INS Delhi, stealth frigate INS Satpura, maritime patrol
aircraft P-8I and integral helicopters for the exercise.
∑ INS Delhi, India's first indigenously-built guided missile destroyer and INS Satpura, an indigenously-built guided missile
stealth frigate are a part of Indian Navy's Eastern Fleet based at Visakhapatnam
∑ Approximately 1400 personnel manning nine ships participated in the sea phase of the multilateral naval exercise.
∑ The ships, during their port call at Singapore, also participated in International Maritime Defence Exhibition (IMDEX-23) and
International Maritime Security Conference (IMSC) being hosted by Singapore.
International Maritime Defence Exhibition (IMDEX- 23):
The inaugural edition of the naval and maritime defence event IMDEX was held in 1997.
∑ IMDEX Asia 2023, Asia’s leading naval and maritime biennial defence event, returns stronger than ever after a four-year
hiatus. The 12th edition of IMDEX took place in 2019.
∑ This 13th edition hosted more than 11,000 delegates from over 60 countries/ regions, and over 250 participating
companies from 25 countries/ regions from 3-5 May 2023, at the Singapore Changi Exhibition Centre.
International Maritime Security Conference (IMSC): Established in 2009, the IMSC is co-organised by Singapore Navy
and S. Rajaratnam School of International Studies (RSIS).
∑ The conference brings together navy chiefs, coast guard Director-generals, policy makers, strategic thinkers and maritime
stakeholders to exchange ideas and discuss ways to enhance and foster mutual security in our maritime commons.
∑ The theme for the 8th edition of IMSC is: “Safe and Secure Seas – Emerging stronger as a Maritime Community”.
South China Sea: South China Sea, Chinese Nan Hai, is the arm of the western Pacific Ocean that borders the Southeast Asian
mainland.
∑ Bordered by:
Taiwan Strait (northeast)
Taiwan and Philippines (east)
Borneo (South East and South)
Southern limit of the Gulf of Thailand
East coast of the Malay Peninsula
Asian mainland (west and north)
∑ The South China Sea and the East China Sea together form the China Sea.
∑ This sea holds tremendous strategic importance for its location as it is the connecting link between the Indian Ocean and
the Pacific Ocean through the Strait of Malacca.
∑ ASEAN members Vietnam, the Philippines, Brunei and Malaysia have competing claims with Beijing over the South
China Sea which asserts sovereignty over vast stretches of ocean that include parts of Indonesia's exclusive economic zone
(EEZ).
∑ Exclusive Economic Zone: It was recognized by the UN Conference on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) in 1976 as an area
covering a maximum of 200 nautical miles beyond the territorial sea of a country.
∑ China claims sovereignty via an expansive "nine-dash line" based on its historic maps, which an international arbitration
court in 2016 ruled had no legal basis.
Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN):
∑ It is a political and economic union of 10 member states in Southeast Asia, i.e., Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines,
Singapore, Thailand, Brunei, Vietnam, Laos, Myanmar, Cambodia.
∑ It was established by the governments of 5 South East Asian Nations- Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines,
Singapore, and Thailand, the founding fathers of ASEAN, in 1967 with the signing of the ASEAN Declaration or the
Bangkok Declaration.
∑ Brunei joined in 1984, followed by Vietnam in 1995, Laos and Myanmar in 1997, and Cambodia in 1999.
∑ The ASEAN charter was signed in 2007 and came into force in 2008 becoming a legally- binding agreement.
∑ The motto od ASEAN is - “One Vision, One Identity, One Community”.
∑ ASEAN Day- 8th August
∑ ASEAN Secretariat – Indonesia, Jakarta.
∑ Chairmanship of ASEAN rotates annually, based on the alphabetical order of the English names of Member States.
∑ Indonesia is the current chair of ASEAN.
∑ India-ASEAN bilateral relationship started evolving since India introduced 'Look East Policy' in 1990s.
∑ In 1992, India has emerged as a sectoral Partner of ASEAN followed by Dialogue Partner in 1996 and a Summit-
level Partner in 2002.
∑ In 2015, India has also set up a separate Mission to ASEAN and the East Asia Summit in Jakarta.
∑ India and ASEAN region is celebrating 30th Anniversary of their ASEAN-India Dialogue Relations in 2022.
∑ The 42nd ASEAN Summit, 2023 will have a theme of “ASEAN Affairs: Epicentre of Growth” with Joko Widodo, the
current President of Indonesia, presiding over the summit.
3. 25 YEARS OF POKHRAN- II
Recently: The 25th anniversary of India’s nuclear bomb explosions tests in the Pokhran range was celebrated on May 11th,
2023.
∑ On May 11, 1998, India conducted three nuclear bomb test explosions at the Indian Army’s Pokhran Test Range.
∑ Two days later, on May 13, two more bombs were tested.
∑ Codenamed Operation Shakti, meaning “strength”, these tests would display India’s capability to build fission and
thermonuclear weapons with yields up to 200 kilotons.
∑ The Ministry of Defence is organising a public exhibition in Pune from May 9 to 13, to mark the completion of 25 years of
Pokhran Nuclear Test-II.
Foundation of India’s Nuclear Programme:
∑ India’s three stage nuclear power programme was formulated by Homi Bhabha in 1950s to secure India’s long term
energy independence through Uranium and Thorium reserves found in the monazite sands of the coastal regions of South
India.
∑ In 1945, Bhaba’s successful lobbying led to the establishment of the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research in
Bombay.
∑ TIFR was India’s first research institution dedicated to the study of nuclear physics.
∑ Bhabha’s repeated advocacy of the importance of nuclear energy led to the foundation of the Department of Atomic
Energy (DAE) in 1954, with Bhabha as its director.
Causes of Pokhran- I Nuclear Test:
∑ Sino- India war, 1962- It started on 20 October 1962 with simultaneous Chinese offensives in Ladakh and along the
McMahon Line.
ÿ The Himalayan border dispute was the chief pretext of the war. China claimed the Aksai Chin area in Ladakh, Kashmir
and the Tawang area in Arunachal Pradesh as its own.
ÿ The war ended with a Chinese ceasefire a month later and a defeat for India.
ÿ The crushing defeat and China’s subsequent nuclear bomb test at Lop Nor in 1964 concerned India which led to shift
in the mood in the political establishment towards nuclear weapons.
∑ Indo- Pak was, 1965- The Second Kashmir War began following Pakistan's Operation Gibraltar, which was designed
to infiltrate forces into Jammu and Kashmir to precipitate an insurgency against Indian rule.
ÿ Hostilities between the two countries ended after a ceasefire was declared through UNSC Resolution 211 following a
diplomatic intervention by the Soviet Union and the United States, and the subsequent issuance of the Tashkent
Declaration in 1966.
ÿ China supported Pakistan and India was surrounded by two unfriendly nations, and needed to take steps towards
building self-sufficiency.
∑ The discriminatory non- proliferation treaty- The non- proliferation Treaty came into existence in 1968.
ÿ The treaty defines nuclear-weapon states as those that have built and tested a nuclear explosive device before
January 1, 1967 – the US, Russia (formerly USSR), the UK, France and China.
ÿ It effectively disallows any other state from acquiring nuclear weapons.
ÿ India is one of the only five countries that either did not sign the NPT or signed but withdrew, thus becoming part
of a list that includes Pakistan, Israel, North Korea, and South Sudan.
ÿ India always considered the NPT as discriminatory and had refused to sign it.
Pokhran- I:
∑ Bhaba’s successor at the DAE, Vikram Sarabhai, had worked to significantly broaden India’s nuclear technology and India
was now capable of conducting a nuclear bomb test.
∑ Indira Gandhi took over the country’s reins from Shastri after his sudden death in 1966 in Tashkent, Uzbekistan.
∑ She led India through another testing war against Pakistan in 1971 and winning an overwhelming mandate in the following
elections.
∑ On May 18, 1974, with support from Indira, India carried out its first nuclear test at the Pokhran test site.
∑ Pokhran-I, codenamed Operation Smiling Buddha, would be billed as a “peaceful nuclear explosion”, with “few military
implications”.
∑ It made India the 6th country in the world to possess nuclear weapons after US, Soviet Union, Britain, France and China.
∑ There was near-universal condemnation and countries like the US and Canada imposed significant international sanctions on
India.
Causes of Pokhran- II:
∑ The Emergency of 1975 and the opposition of Morarji Desai towards nuclear weapons halted the nuclear programme for a
while, which again picked up its pace as reports on Pakistan’s rapidly progressing nuclear capabilities emerged.
∑ US President George Bush’s refusal in 1990 to certify that Islamabad was trying to acquire nuclear weapons became a
reason of India’s concern.
∑ Dr APJ Abdul Kalam was put in charge of India’s missile programme in 1983.
∑ Early 1990s brought with them increased pressure to quickly develop nuclear weapons.
∑ With the fall of the USSR in 1991, India lost one of its biggest military allies, since the time Indira Gandhi had signed a
20-year security pact with it in 1971.
∑ US continued to provide military aid to Pakistan despite its own misgivings with its nuclear weapons programme.
∑ Discussions regarding a Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT) were also underway in the UN. It was finalised in
1996 but India did not sign it.
∑ Due to the Fast- closing window of opportunity, Prime Minister PV Narasimha Rao permitted the preparations for carrying
out a nuclear test in December 1995.
∑ However, logistical and political reasons pushed back the tests further.
Pokhran II:
∑ In 1998, the National Democratic Alliance (NDA) led by the BJP came to power under the leadership of Atal Bihari
Vajpayee.
∑ One of the key promises in its manifesto was to “induct nuclear weapons” into India’s arsenal.
∑ The Department of Atomic Energy chairman, R. Chidambaram and the DRDO head APJ Abdul Kalam was called by the
newly-elected PM of India. PM Vajpayee gave the green signal to conduct the tests.
∑ On May 1 of the same year, nuclear devices were flown from Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC), Mumbai to
Jaisalmer Airport in Rajasthan.
∑ From Jaipur, 4 army trucks transported the devices and other equipment to a small city called Pokhran.
∑ The 58th Engineer Regiment of the Indian Army was called for the task of maintaining the shafts in which nuclear
devices, six in total, would be tested.
∑ The commander of the 58th Engineer’s Regiment, Colonel Gopal Kaushik supervised the preparations and all the officers
were ordered to maintain absolute secrecy.
∑ In March 1998, Pakistan launched the Ghauri missile – built with assistance from China.
∑ Two months later, India responded with Operation Shakti.
∑ Consequently, the Indian Government declared itself as a state possessing nuclear weapons following Pokhran-II.
∑ In 2003, India officially came out with its nuclear doctrine that elaborated on the ‘no first use policy’.
∑ Nine countries have nuclear weapons currently – the US, Russia, France, China, the UK, Pakistan, India, Israel and North
Korea.
National Technology Day:
∑ Every year since 1998, May 11 is observed as National Technology Day in India to celebrate and remember the historic
nuclear tests by India in Pokhran.
∑ Theme for 2023- School to Startups- Igniting Young Minds to Innovate.
4. MANIPUR PROTESTS
Recently: With Manipur still tense after weeks of ethnic violence left nearly a 100 people dead, members of the Meitei community
held a rally demanding protection from “Kuki militants” who they claimed were to blame for the situation in the strife-torn state.
What happened?
Violent clashes broke out in the northeastern state of Manipur after a 'Tribal Solidarity March' was organised in the 10 hill
districts on May 3 to protest against the Meitei community's demand for Scheduled Tribe (ST) status.
Manipur’s Composition:
∑ The State is like a football stadium with the Imphal Valley representing the playfield at the centre and the surrounding hills
the galleries.
∑ The valley:
ÿ Comprises 10% of the landmass.
ÿ Occupied by non-tribal Meitei people (64% of the total population of the state).
ÿ Yields 40 of the state’s 60 MLAs
∑ The hills:
ÿ Comprises 90% landmass.
ÿ Occupied by more than 35% of recognized tribes.
ÿ Yield 20 of the state’s 60 MLAs.
∑ While a majority of the Meiteis are Hindus followed by Muslims, the 33 recognised tribes, broadly classified into ‘Any
Naga tribes’ and ‘Any Kuki tribes’ are largely Christians.
∑ Meiteis are barred from settling in the hilly regions of the state except with the permssion of the local district councils, as
per the Land Reform Act of Manipur.
∑ The tribal population is not prohibited from settling in the valley region.
Causes of the protests:
∑ The Eviction Drive- In February 2023, the BJP state government began an eviction drive in districts of Churachandpur,
Kangpokpi and Tengnoupal, declaring the forest dwellers as encroachers.
ÿ Several Chin, people of the same ethnic group as the Kukis from across the border in Myanmar, have entered India,
fleeing violence and persecution, and the government’s tough stance against these so-called illegal immigrants has
angered the Kukis.
ÿ Tribal groups have said that illegal immigration is a pretext under which the Meitei population wants to drive the
tribal population from their lands.
ÿ In March, the Manipur Cabinet decided to withdraw from the Suspension of Operation agreements with three Kuki
militant groups including the Kuki National Army and the Zomi Revolutionary Army, though the central government
did not support such a withdawal.
ÿ Many acres of land in the hills being used for poppy cultivation, is another cause for the tough stance of the BJP
state government of Manipur.
∑ Demand of ST status by the Meitei people- Manipur High Court order directing the state government to recommend to
the Union Tribal Affairs Ministry by May 29, an ST tag for the community.
ÿ The Scheduled Tribe Demand Committee of Manipur (STDCM) began demanding ST status for the Meiteis in 2012.
ÿ The Petitioners argued- Meiteis were recognised as a tribe before the merger of the State with the Union of India in
1949.
ST status is needed to “preserve” the community and “save the ancestral land, tradition, culture, and language” of
the Meiteis.
Meiteis needed constitutional safeguards against outsiders, stating that the community has been kept away from the
hills while the tribal people can buy land in the “shrinking” Imphal Valley.
ÿ This led to the issuance of a letter in 2013 by the Union Tribal Affairs Ministry to the state government seeking
specific recommendations along with the latest socio-economic survey and ethnographic report.
ÿ The tribals feel the ST status to the Meiteis would lead to loss of job opportunities and allow them to acquire land in
the hills and push the tribals out.
ÿ The language of the Meitei people is included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution and many of them have
access to benefits associated with the SC, OBC or EWS status.
Scheduled Tribes:
∑ Article 342 prescribes the procedure to be followed in the matter of specification of scheduled tribes.
∑ Article 366 (25) of the Constitution of India defined scheduled tribes as “such tribes or tribal communities or parts of or
groups within such tribes or tribal communities as are deemed under Article 342 to be Scheduled Tribes for the purposes of
this constitution”.
∑ The Scheduled Tribes are notified by the President after consultation with the State governments concerned.
∑ Criteria for specification of a community ST- primitive traits, distinctive culture, geographical isolation, shyness of contact
with the community at large, and backwardness. This was recommended by the Lokur Committee in 1965.
∑ The tribal communities of Manipur are recognized under the 5th Schedule of the constitution of India.
∑ 5th Schedule: deals with the administration and control of the Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes residing in any state
other than the States that come under the 6th Schedule, i.e., Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
∑ Bhuria Commission was constituted from 2002-2004 to focus on a wide range of issues from the 5th Schedule to tribal
land and forests, health and education, the working of Panchayats and the status of tribal women.
∑ The tribal population in India according to the 2011 census is 104 million or 8.6% of the total population.
∑ Madhya Pradesh has the highest population of Scheduled Tribes.
National Commission for Scheduled Tribes:
∑ It was established by amending Article 338 and inserting a new Article 338A in the Constitution through the Constitution
through 89th Constitutional Amendment,2003.
∑ The amendment erstwhile National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes by two separate
Commissions- National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC) and National Commission for Scheduled Tribes.
∑ The commission comprises a chairperson, a vice chairperson and 3 full time members (including one female
member).
∑ Term of the members is 3 years.
∑ The first commission was constituted in 2004 with Kunwar Singh as the chairperson.
∑ The present chairman of NCST is Harsh Chauhan.
Manipur:
∑ It is a state in northeast India, with the city of Imphal as its capital.

∑ It is bounded by the Indian states of Nagaland to the north, Mizoram to the south and Assam to the west.
∑ During the days of the British Indian Empire, the Kingdom of Manipur was one of the princely states.
∑ On 11 August 1947, Maharaja Budhachandra signed an Instrument of Accession, joining India.
∑ Later, on 21 September 1949, he signed a Merger Agreement, merging the kingdom into India, which led to it becoming
a Part C State.
∑ This merger was later disputed by groups in Manipur, as having been completed without consensus and under duress.
∑ The dispute and differing visions for the future has resulted in a 50-year insurgency in the state for independence from
India, as well as in repeated episodes of violence among ethnic groups in the state.
5. NEW PARLIAMENT BUILDING

Recently: India’s New Parliament building was inaugurated on May 28 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
∑ The Prime Minister also installed the sacred ‘Sengol’ in the Lok Sabha chamber, right next to the Speaker’s chair, after
performing puja.
∑ He also released a special commemorative postage stamp and a ₹75 coin to mark the inauguration of the new Parliament
building.
∑ The four-storey building has been constructed at an estimated cost of ₹970 crore.
∑ The building has been designed by Ahmedabad-based HCP Design, Planning and Management, and constructed
by Tata Projects Limited.
∑ The leader of the firm Bimal Jalan is the architect of the new Parliament building.
The Old Parliament Building: The building was constructed in six years- between 1921 to 1927.
∑ At the coronation of George V as Emperor of India on December 12, 1911, the capital was transferred from Calcutta to
Delhi.
∑ The building was designed by British architects- Herbert Baker, a British architect of repute who had designed prominent
buildings in another British colony’s city, South Africa’s Pretoria, and Edwin Lutyens, known for his strong adherence to
European Classicism.
∑ In 1913, when Baker and Lutyens signed on to be the architects for the Imperial City at New Delhi.
∑ In 1919, the British Parliament passed the Government of India Act which provided for a bicameral legislature for India.
∑ Therefore, A new building was needed to accommodate the new houses of the Legislative Council.
∑ The parliament building's circular shape was inspired by the Colosseum, the Roman historical monument.
∑ Parliament House building was designed by both Lutyens and Baker.
∑ Rashtrapati Bhavan was designed by Edwin Lutyens.
∑ The Secretariat which includes both north and south block was designed by Herbert Baker.
∑ The circular building had 144 cream sandstone pillars, each measuring 27 feet.
∑ The total cost of construction then was Rs 83 lakhs.

∑ The building was inaugurated by Lord Irwin, the Viceroy of India then.
∑ With the British regime in India coming to an end, the Constituent Assembly took over the building in 1947 and in 1950 it
became the location of the Indian Parliament as the Constitution came into force.
The Central Vista Redevelopment Project:
∑ The Central Vista Redevelopment Project was announced by the Union Ministry of Urban Affairs in 2019.
∑ The project includes the construction of triangular Parliament building, common Central Secretariat and
revamping of the 3-km-long vista or Rajpath between Rashtrapati Bhavan and India Gate.
∑ The project includes converting North and South Blocks into public museums.
∑ The construction of the new Parliament building was temporarily put on hold by Supreme Court of India but was released
again within few days with some riders.
Need for the New Parliament Building:
∑ Narrow seating space for MPs- The number of Lok Sabha seats is likely to increase significantly from the current 545
after 2026, when the freeze on the total number of seats lifts.
∑ Distressed infrastructure- The addition of services like water supply and sewer lines, air conditioning, firefighting
equipment, CCTV cameras, etc., have led to seepage of water at several places and impacted the aesthetics of the building.
Fire safety is also a major concern.
∑ Obsolete communication structures- Communications infrastructure and technology is antiquated in the existing
Parliament, and the acoustics of all the halls need improvement.
∑ Safety concerns- The current Parliament building was built when Delhi was in Seismic Zone-II; currently it is in Seismic
Zone-IV. This raises structural safety concerns.
∑ Inadequate workspace for employees- Over the years, inner service corridors were converted into offices which
resulted in poor-quality workspaces. In many cases, these workspaces were made even smaller by creating sub-partitions to
accommodate more workers.
Features of the New Parliament Building:
∑ It has a built-up area of about 65,000 sq m, with its triangular shape ensuring the optimum utilisation of space.
∑ The new building will house a larger Lok Sabha Hall with a capacity of up to 888 seats, and a larger Rajya Sabha hall with
a capacity of up to 384 seats.
∑ The Lok Sabha may accommodate up to 1,272 seats for joint sessions of Parliament.
∑ The Lok Sabha Hall is based on the peacock theme, India’s national bird.
∑ The Rajya Sabha is based on the lotus theme, India’s national flower.
∑ A state-of-the-art Constitutional Hall serves as the heart of Indian democracy, placing citizens at the center of governance.
∑ The building also offers ultra-modern office spaces equipped with cutting-edge communication technology, promoting
efficiency and security.
∑ The new Sansad Bhavan stands as a "Platinum-rated Green Building," reflecting India's dedication to environmental
sustainability.
∑ The public entrances lead to three galleries –
ÿ Sangeet Gallery- Exhibiting dance, song, and musical traditions of India.
ÿ Sthapthya Gallery- Depicting the architectural heritage of the country.
ÿ Shilp Gallery- Showcasing distinct handicraft traditions of different states.
What is Sengol?
∑ Derived from the Tamil word semmai, meaning righteousness, the sceptre is a “significant historical” symbol of
Independence that signifies the transfer of power from the British to Indians.
∑ Before Independence, Lord Mountbatten, the last Viceroy, asked Nehru if there was a ceremony that should be followed to
symbolise the transfer of power, as per the official document.
∑ The soon-to-be Prime Minister consulted C Rajagopalachari, the last Governor-General, who suggested that the newly
formed nation should follow a tradition of the Chola dynasty, where the transfer of power from one king to the other was
sanctified and blessed by high priests.
∑ Rajagopalachari reached out to various mutts in Tamil Nadu and it was Thiruvaduthurai Atheenam (a well-known mutt
in Tanjore district) that provided it.
∑ The leader of the mutt commissioned the manufacturing of the Sengol to Chennai-based Vummidi Bangaru Chetty
jeweller.
∑ It was built by Vummidi Ethirajulu and Vummidi Sudhakar, both of whom are still alive and remember making it.
∑ The sceptre is made of gold and is five feet in length and has a Nandi, Lord Shiva’s sacred bull, on the top, symbolising
justice.
∑ After receiving the Sengol sceptre in 1947, Nehru kept it at his residence in Delhi for some time before donating it to Anand
Bhavan Museum in Allahabad, where it remained for over seven decades.
6. HUMAN SPACE FLIGHT OF THE GAGANYAAN MISSION

Recently: India's maiden human space-flight mission 'Gaganyaan' is expected to be launched in 2024, Union Minister of State
(Independent Charge) for Science and Technology, Jitendra Singh said.
∑ Earlier, the mission was scheduled to be launched in 2022 but that could not be achieved due to Covid-19.
∑ Indian Navy and Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) released the Gaganyaan Recovery Training Plan at Water
Survival Training Facility (WSTF) at INS Garuda, Kochi.
∑ Astronaut Training Facility established in Bengaluru caters to Classroom training, Physical Fitness training, Simulator
training and Flight suit training.
∑ The first test-flight will be followed by sending a female-looking spacefaring humanoid robot -- VyomMitra -- in outer space
likely next year.
∑ The Indian Air Force had identified four fighter pilots as the potential crew for the human space flight mission. The potential
crew had undergone basic training in Russia.
∑ The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) will send at least two astronauts into a low earth orbit (LEO) in 2024 after
assessing the outcome of the two orbital test flights.
Gaganyaan Mission:
∑ The space mission was first announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in 2018 in his Independence Day address to the
nation.
∑ Gaganyaan project envisages demonstration of human spaceflight capability by launching crew of 3 members to a low-
earth-orbit of 300- 400 km for a 3 days mission and bring them back safely to earth, by landing in Indian sea waters.
∑ The ISRO Policy Planning Committee made recommendation for a manned
Space mission in 2004 and Preliminary studies of Gaganyaan started under the generic name Orbital Vehicle in 2006.
∑ Under the Gaganyaan schedule, three flights will be sent in orbit. Of the three, there will be two unmanned flights and one
human spaceflight called the orbital module.
∑ The total cost of Gaganyaan programme would be to the tune of Rs 9,023 crore.
∑ Payload of the orbital module:
The payload consists two modules-

ÿ Crew module which is the spacecraft carrying human beings.
ÿ The service module is powered by two liquid-propellant engines.
These two modules are collectively known as orbital module.
ÿ It weighs around 8000kg and will be equipped with emergency escape and emergency mission abort.
∑ LVM3 rocket is identified as the launch vehicle for Gaganyaan mission, as per ISRO.
∑ The orange colour suit prototype for the Gaganyaan Mission is developed by the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre,
Thiruvananthapuram.
ÿ It has the ability to hold one oxygen cylinder and will allow the astronaut to breath in space of 60 minutes.
∑ Gaganyaan is significant because it is the first indigenous mission that will send Indian astronauts to space. If it succeeds,
India will be the fourth country to have sent a human to space, the other three being the US, Russia and China.
LVM3-
∑ The Launch Vehicle Mark-III or LVM3, previously referred as the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle Mark
III or GSLV Mk III, is a three-stage, medium-lift launch vehicle developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation
(ISRO).
∑ It consists of solid stage, liquid stage and cryogenic stage.
∑ ISRO successfully conducted the first orbital test launch of LVM3 on 5 June 2017 from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre,
Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.
∑ The LVM3 has launched CARE, India's space capsule recovery experiment module, i.e. Chandrayaan-2, India's second
lunar mission in 2019.
∑ It was also a part of the mission in which 36 OneWeb satellites placed in orbit.
∑ It has the capacity to take 4 ton of payload to geosynchronous transfer orbit and 10- ton payload to low earth orbit. It is
totally suited for the Gaganyaan Mission that has an estimated payload of 5-6 tons.
∑ All systems in LVM3 launch vehicle are re-configured to meet human rating requirements and christened Human Rated
LVM3.
Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO):
∑ The Indian Space Research Organisation is the national space agency of India, headquartered in Bangalore, Karnataka.
∑ Operating under the Department of Space (DOS), ISRO is India's primary agency for conducting space research, space
exploration and research and development of technologies for space-based applications.
∑ Indian space programme started with Indian National Committee for Space Research (INCOSPAR) which was formed
in February 1962 under the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) on the insistence of Vikram Sarabhai.
∑ It eventually got superseded by ISRO on 15th August 1969 to institutionalize space research in India with Vikram
Sarabhai as its founder.
∑ In 1972, the government of India set up a Space Commission and DOS, bringing ISRO under it.
∑ India's first satellite Aryabhata, was built by ISRO in 1975 and was launched by the Interkosmos (Soviet Union).
∑ S. Somnath is the current chairman of ISRO.
∑ Rakesh Sharma became the first Indian to go into space in 1984. He flew aboard Soyuz T-11 spacecraft under a joint
India- Soviet Programme and spent nearly eight days orbiting.
∑ The ISRO also plans to launch the Chandrayaan-3 mission to the moon sometime in 2023.
∑ The Venus mission of ISRO, i.e., Shukrayaan- I, which was planned to be launched in 2024 is expected to be postponed
to 2031.
7. 32ND ARAB LEAGUE SUMMIT

Recently: The Arab League concluded its 32nd summit by adopting the Jeddah Declaration, reaffirming the need for unity to
achieve security and stability.
∑ The motto of the summit was – renewal and reform.

∑ The summit, which discussed various topics, including the Palestinian-Israeli conflict and developments in Sudan, Yemen,
Libya and Lebanon, was convened in Jeddah, Saudi Arabia.
∑ All countries represented at this meeting, including Syria, which returned after its membership was suspended in 2011 and
attended the summit after a decade.
∑ The members reaffirmed the centrality of the Palestinian cause and reiterated Palestine’s right “to absolute authority over all
territories occupied in 1967, including east Jerusalem
∑ The members also voiced the importance of “activating the Arab Peace Initiative,” which the Kingdom proposed and the
Arab League endorsed at the Beirut summit in 2002.
∑ The Jeddah Declaration rejected foreign interference in the Sudan Crisis, where fighting has raged between the army and
the paramilitary Rapid Support Forces (RSF) since April 15.
∑ Arab League reaffirmed support for all international and regional efforts that aim to reach a political solution to the
yearslong war in Yemen.
∑ On Lebanon that has been mired in an economic crisis since 2019, the Arab states urged authorities to resume efforts to
elect a president, form a cabinet “as soon as possible,” and carry out economic reforms to overcome the current crisis.
∑ The kingdom plans to strengthen joint Arab action in various cultural, economic, social and environmental sectors, during
Saudi Arabia’s Presidency which was handed over by Algeria.
∑ Ukrainian president Volodymyr Zelensky also reached Saudi Arabia for the 32nd Arab League summit.
∑ Other initiatives taken by the Declaration:
ÿ Teaching the Arabic language to non-native speakers- It will target children of second and third-generation
Arab immigrants and hence, enhance communication between Arab countries and the rest of the world.
ÿ Sustenance of supply chains of basic food commodities- It will be implemented using several measures, which
include providing investment opportunities with economic and financial feasibility and contributing to achieving food
security for the Arab world.
The Arab League:
∑ Arab League, also called League of Arab States (LAS), regional organization of Arab states in the Middle East and parts
of Africa, formed and headquartered in Cairo, Egypt, on March 22, 1945.
∑ Aim: To strengthen and coordinate the political, cultural, economic, and social programs of its members and to mediate
disputes among them or between them and third parties.
∑ It was founded by six nations- Egypt, Syria, Lebanon, Iraq, Transjordan (now Jordan), Saudi Arabia, and Yemen.
∑ The other nations in the 22-nation bloc are - Libya (1953); Sudan (1956); Tunisia and Morocco (1958); Kuwait (1961);
Algeria (1962); Bahrain, Oman, Qatar, and the United Arab Emirates (1971); Mauritania (1973); Somalia (1974); the
Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO; 1976); Djibouti (1977); and Comoros (1993).
∑ Structure:
ÿ The League consists of the Council, the Special Ministerial Committees, the General-Secretariat and the Specialised
Agencies.
ÿ The Council is the principal political organ, consisting of foreign ministers of all the member-countries.
ÿ It meets twice a year.
ÿ Each member has one vote on the League Council, decisions being binding only on those states that have voted for
them.
∑ When Yemen was a divided country, from 1967 to 1990, the two regimes were separately represented.
∑ The signing on April 13, 1950, of an agreement on joint defense and economic cooperation also committed the signatories
to coordination of military defense measures.
∑ In 1964, despite objections by Jordan, the league granted the PLO observer status as the representative of all
Palestinians. This was upgraded to full membership in 1976.
∑ Egypt was suspended in 1979 when it signed a peace treaty with Israel and the capital was suspended from Cairo and
shifted to Tunis.
∑ Egypt was reinstated as a member of the Arab League in 1989, and the league’s headquarters returned to Cairo in 1990.
∑ The Arab League was forced to adapt to sudden changes in the Arab world when popular protests known as the Arab
Spring broke out in several countries in the Middle East and North Africa in late 2010 and early 2011.
∑ General Ahmed Aboul Gheit is the current Secretary General of the Arab League.
Arab League reinstated Syria:
∑ The Arab League voted to reinstate Syria’s membership after its suspension more than 10 years ago, underlining the
thawing relations between Damascus and other Arab countries.
∑ The decision was taken at a closed-door meeting, attended by foreign ministers from 13 out of 22 member states of the
organisation, held in Cairo, Egypt.
∑ Syria was ousted from the Arab League in 2011 following President Bashar al-Assad’s brutal crackdown on pro-democracy
protests, which led to the ongoing civil war in the country.
∑ The ruling which allows Assad to attend the upcoming Arab League Summit in Saudi Arabia on May 19, has also called for a
resolution of the civil war and the resulting refugee and drug smuggling crises.
∑ A committee involving Egypt, Saudi Arabia, Lebanon, Jordan and Iraq will soon be created to ensure Syria achieves
these goals.
∑ Syrian President Bashar Al-Asad was also present in the summit that happened in Jeddah.
∑ Libya was also suspended from the league in February, 2011, amid its regime’s violent response to the Libya Revolt.
∑ Libya’s participation in the Arab League was reinstated in August under the representation of the Transitional National
Council (TNC) after Muammar al- Qaddafi was overthrown.
8. NATIONAL SUPERCOMPUTING MISSION
Recently: India will unveil its new 18 petaflop supercomputer for weather forecasting institutes later this year, Union Earth
Sciences Minister Kiren Rijiju.
∑ Currently India’s most powerful, civilian supercomputers — Pratyush and Mihir.

∑ ‘Mihir’, a 2.8 petaflop supercomputer, is housed in the National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting
(NCMRWF), Noida.
∑ ‘Pratyush’, a 4.0 petaflop supercomputer, as per PTI, is housed in the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology
(IITM), Pune.
∑ These were launched in 2018 at a cost of ₹438 crore and are planned to be decommissioned once the new
supercomputer is unveiled.
∑ Both IITM and NCMRWF are affiliated to the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MOEs) and will be housing the new
supercomputers too.
∑ The new supercomputers, yet to be named, are imported from French corporation, ATOS — an information technology
service and consulting company.
∑ The Modi Government signed a deal in December 2018 with France to procure high-performance computers worth ₹4,500
crore by 2025.
∑ The weather forecasting computers of the Ministry of Earth Sciences are likely to cost ₹900 crore.
∑ The current HPC (high- performance computing) allows the mapping of weather and climate changes to a resolution of
12*12 km. This resolution is improved to 6*6km by the new system.
∑ The fastest high-performance computing system in the world is currently the Frontier-Cray system at Oakridge
National Laboratory, United States with the peak speed of 1 exa-flop (or about 1,000 petaflops).
∑ The top 10 other systems, based on speed, range from about 400 petaflops to 60 petaflops.
∑ The United States has by far the highest share of total computing power on the list (nearly 50%).
∑ Globally, China has the maximum number of supercomputers (173) followed by the US, Japan, France, Germany,
Netherlands, Ireland and the United Kingdom.
What are FLOPs?
∑ Floating-Point Operations per Second (FLOPs), is a commonly used metric to measure the computational performance –
processing power and efficiency – especially in the field of high-performance computing (HPC) and artificial intelligence (AI).
∑ The metric of FLOPs is often denoted in giga (billions) or GFLOPs, tera (trillions) or TFLOPs and PETA (quadrillions) or
PFLOPs, of operations per second.
∑ A petaFLOP is equal to 1015 FLOPs.
Uses of the new Supercomputing System:
∑ The new supercomputer is expected to improve weather forecasts at the block level
∑ Help weather scientists give higher resolution ranges of the forecast.
∑ Predict cyclones with more accuracy and better lead time.
∑ Provide ocean state forecasts, including marine water quality forecasts, PTI reported.
National Supercomputing Mission:
∑ In 2015 the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology announced a "National Supercomputing Mission"
(NSM) to install 73 indigenous supercomputers throughout the country by 2022 at an estimated cost of $730 million.
∑ Aim: To create a cluster of geographically distributed high-performance computing centers linked over a high-speed
network, connecting various academic and research institutions across India. This has been dubbed as the "National
Knowledge Network" (NKN).
∑ It is being steered jointly by Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeiTY) and the Department of
Science and Technology (DST)
∑ Implemented by Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) and Indian Institute of Science
(IISc), Bangalore.
∑ The four major pillars of the National Supercomputing Mission include:
ÿ Infrastructure
ÿ Applications
ÿ Research and Development
ÿ HRD
∑ The mission was planned in three phases:
ÿ Phase I- assembling supercomputers
ÿ Phase II- manufacturing certain components within the country.
ÿ Phase III where a supercomputer is designed by India.
∑ India’s first supercomputer was PARAM 8000 which was launched in 1991.
∑ PARAM Shivay was the first supercomputer assembled indigenously. It was installed in IIT (BHU).
∑ C- DAC has designed and developed a compute server “Rudra” and high-speed interconnect “Trinetra” which are the
major sub-assemblies required for supercomputers.
∑ The AI Supercomputer ‘AIRAWAT’, installed at C-DAC, Pune has been ranked 75th in the world.
ÿ It was declared so in the 61st edition of Top 500 Global Supercomputing List yesterday at the International
Supercomputing Conference (ISC 2023) in Germany. It puts India on top of AI Supercomputing nations worldwide.
ÿ AI Research Analytics and Knowledge Dissemination Platform (AIRAWAT) is of 200 AI Petaflops Mixed
Precision peak compute capacity.
ÿ It is currently funded by MeitY and implemented by C-DAC
ÿ The AIRAWAT PoC of 200 AI Petaflops integrated with PARAM Siddhi – AI of 210 AI Petaflops gives a total peak
compute of 410 AI Petaflops Mixed Precision and sustained compute capacity of 8.5 Petaflops (Rmax) Double
Precision.
ÿ MeitY has already envisioned roadmap for scaling AIRAWAT to 1,000 AI Petaflops Mixed Precision compute capacity
to cater to the current AI computational needs.
ÿ In 2020, PARAM Siddhi, the High-Performance Computing-Artificial Intelligence (HPC-AI) supercomputer, achieved
global ranking of 62nd in Top 500 most powerful supercomputer systems in the world.
ÿ Vijay Pandurg Bhatkar is popularly known as Father of Indian Supercomputer.
Top 500 Project:
∑ The TOP500 project ranks and details the 500 most powerful non-distributed computer systems in the world.
∑ The project was started in 1993 and publishes an updated list of the supercomputers twice a year.
∑ The project aims to provide a reliable basis for tracking and detecting trends in high-performance computing.
∑ It bases rankings on HPL, a portable implementation of the high-performance LINPACK benchmark which was introduced
by Jack Dongarra to approximate how fast a computer will perform when solving real problems.
9. NHRC ACCREDITATION DEFERRED BY GANHRI
Recently: the U.N.-recognised Global Alliance of National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI) deferred the accreditation
of National Human Rights Commission, India (NHRC-India) for the second time in a decade.
∑ The year 2016 had marked the first instance when the accreditation had been deferred since the NHRC was established.
∑ This came two months after seven human rights watchers/institutions wrote to GANHRI objecting to NHRC India’s ‘A’ rank.
∑ These institutions were- Amnesty International, CSW, Front Line Defenders, Human Rights Watch International Commission
of Jurists, International Federation for Human Rights (FIDH), and the World Organisation Against Torture (OMCT)
How are the NHRIs accredited?
∑ The United Nations’ Paris Principles, adopted in 1993 by the U.N. General Assembly, provide the international
benchmarks against which National Human Rights Institutions (NHRI) can be accredited.
∑ The Paris Principles set out six main criteria that NHRIs are required to meet:
ÿ Mandate and Competence
ÿ Autonomy from Government
ÿ Independence guaranteed by a statute or Constitution
ÿ Pluralism
ÿ Adequate Resources
ÿ Adequate powers of investigation
∑ The GANHRI consists of sixteen, ‘A’ status NHRIs, four from each region, namely, the Americas, Europe, Africa, and the
Asia-Pacific.
∑ ‘A’ status accreditation also grants participation in the work and decision-making of the GANHRI, as well as the work of the
Human Rights Council and other U.N. mechanisms.
∑ The NHRC got the ‘A’ status of accreditation for the first time in 1999, which it retained in 2006, 2011, and in 2017.
Reasons for Deferment:
∑ Political interference in appointments

∑ Involvement of police in probes into human rights violations
∑ Poor cooperation with civil society.
∑ Lack of diversity in staff and leadership,
∑ Insufficient action to protect marginalised groups
What is Global Alliance of National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI)?
∑ It was established in 1993 as the global network of national human rights institutions (NHRIs) – administrative bodies set
up to promote, protect and monitor human rights in a given country.
∑ It coordinates the relationship between NHRIs and the United Nations human rights system, and is unique as the only non-
UN body whose internal accreditation system, based on compliance with the 1993 Paris Principles, grants access to UN
committees.
∑ It was known as the 'International Coordinating Committee of National Human Rights Institutions' prior to
2016.
∑ It is composed of 120 members including India.
∑ Its secretariat is situated in Geneva, Switzerland.
Sub- Committee on Accreditation (SCA):
∑ The GANHRI, through the Sub-Committee on Accreditation (SCA) is responsible for reviewing and accrediting NHRIs in
compliance with the Paris Principles every five years.
∑ The SCA meets in Geneva twice a year to consider accreditation applications.
∑ Once the SCA has considered an application, it presents a report and recommendations to the GANHRI Bureau, which has
responsibility for making the final decision on the accreditation of NHRIs.
∑ The members of the Sub-Committee on Accreditation (SCA) include one NHRI representative from each of the four regional
groupings.
∑ Current members-
ÿ Independent Commission for Human Rights of Palestine (Asia Pacific) – Chairperson
ÿ Human Rights Commission of South Africa (Africa)
ÿ Comisionado Nacional de los Derechos Humanos de Honduras (America)
ÿ Equality and Human Rights Commission of Great Britain (Europe)
∑ SCA members are voted to the position by their respective regional network.
∑ They serve a term of three years, which can be renewed.
∑ The United Nations Human Rights Office – through the National Institutions and Regional Mechanisms Section – is a
permanent observer and serves as Secretariat to the SCA.
National Human Rights Commission:
∑ It been set up under the Protection of Human Rights Act passed by Parliament in 1993. The act was later amended in
2006.
∑ It was established in order to ratify the Paris Principle that India is a signatory to.
∑ The Protection of Human Rights Act also allowed state governments to establish the State Human Rights Commission.
∑ The NHRC is responsible for the protection and promotion of human rights, defined by the act as "Rights Relating to Life,
liberty, equality and dignity of the individual guaranteed by the constitution under Article 21.
∑ The NHRC consists of: The chairperson and five members (excluding the ex-officio members).
∑ A Chairperson, can be someone who has been a Chief Justice of India or a Judge of the Supreme Court.
∑ Members-
ÿ One member is, or has been, a Judge of the Supreme Court of India
ÿ One member is, or has been, the Chief Justice of a High Court.
ÿ Three Members, out of which at least one shall be a woman, to be appointed from amongst persons having
knowledge of, or practical experience in, matters relating to human rights.
∑ Arun Kumar Mishra, a former judge of Supreme Court, is the current chairperson of the commission.
∑ Justice Ranganath Mishra was the first chairperson of the NHRC in 1993.
United Nations Human Rights Council:
∑ The Human Rights Council is an inter-governmental body within the United Nations system responsible for strengthening the
promotion and protection of human rights around the world.
∑ It was established in 2006 and is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
∑ Members of the Council serve for a period of three years and are not eligible for immediate re-election after serving two
consecutive terms.
∑ It is made up of 47 United Nations Member States which are elected by the UN General Assembly (UNGA).
∑ Vaclav Balek is the current President of UNHRC
International Human Rights Day:
∑ Human Rights Day is celebrated annually around the world on 10 December every year.
∑ The date was chosen to honor the United Nations General Assembly's adoption and proclamation, on 10 December 1948, of
the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR).
∑ It was incepted in 1950.
10. THE JALLIKATTU JUDGEMENT

Recently: A Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court has ruled that the amendment made in 2017 by the Tamil Nadu Assembly
to the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960, facilitating the smooth conduct of the sport with stringent regulations, is valid.
∑ The court has, thus, settled the question whether the sport should be disallowed on the ground that it involves unnecessary
cruelty to animals and violates animal rights.
∑ The verdict is also applicable to other sports involving bovines such as Kambala (buffalo race) in Karnataka and bullock-
cart racing in Maharashtra.
∑ The petitioners argued these bovine sports to be violative of Article 21, submitting that expression “person” as used in
Article 21 of the constitution includes sentient animals and their liberty is sought to be curtailed by legitimising the aforesaid
bovine sports.
∑ They also alleged the violation of Article 14 and other Fundamental Duties.
∑ The bench held that the constitution does not recognise any Fundamental Rights for animals.
∑ The bench held that the rights of sentient animals can be recognised by law, but such rights would be in a nature as
determined by the appropriate law-making body and not by judicial interpretation.
Jallikattu:
∑ Jallikattu is a bull taming event practiced in Tamil Nadu in the month of January as a part of Mattu Pongal (the 3rd day
of the four-day long harvest, Pongal).
∑ It is also known as Yeru thazhuvuthal or manju virattu.
∑ Bulls are brought to a common place where the ritual happens. The participants are supposed to embrace the bull’s hump
and try to tame it by bringing the bull to a stop.
∑ Jallikattu is an ancient sport. It is referred to belong to Tamil Classical Age (400-100 BC). Also, a cave painting which is said
to be 2500 years old depicts a man controlling a bull.
∑ The most popular Jallikattu is the one celebrated at Alanganallur near Madurai.
Kambala:
∑ It is an annual buffalo race held in the southwestern Indian state of Karnataka.

∑ Traditionally, it is sponsored by local Tuluva landlords and households in the coastal districts of Dakshina Kannada and
Udupi of Karnataka and Kasaragod of Kerala, a region collectively known as Tulu Nadu.
∑ The Kambala season generally starts in November and lasts until March
∑ The Kambala racetrack is a slushy paddy field, and the buffaloes are driven by a whip-lashing farmer.
Bullock Cart Racing:
∑ It is a popular and traditional sport in Western Maharashtra and in Pune district.

∑ Apart from a traditional sporting event, the rural economy too is associated with bullock cart races.
What is the matter?
∑ Animal rights activists have been arguing that the manner in which Jallikattu is held is cruel because it inflicts pain and
suffering.
∑ In 2006, a Madras High Court judge, barred the conduct of any such event including jallikattu.
∑ On appeal, a Division Bench set aside the order, but asked the government to take steps to prevent any kind of violence or
cruelty as well as ensure the safety of the participants and spectators.
∑ The State Assembly adopted the Tamil Nadu Regulation of Jallikattu Act in 2009 to strengthen its case for holding the
event by adopting regulations and safety measures.
∑ The landmark judgement of ‘Welfare Board of India v. A. Nagaraja’, 2014- A two- judge bench of Supreme Court
outlawed two common sports practised in the States of Tamil Nadu and Maharashtra popularly referred to as ‘Jallikattu’ and
‘Bullock Cart Race’ respectively.
ÿ The ruling held that “bovine sports” were contrary to the provisions of Sections 3 of the Prevention of Cruelty to
Animals Act, 1960 which deals with the duties of persons having charge of animals.
ÿ It was also considered violative of Section 11 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, which defines animal
cruelty.
∑ In 2016, a notification was issued by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change prohibiting the
“exhibition or training of bulls as performing animals”.
ÿ However, an exception was carved out, which specified that bulls might still be trained as performing animals at
events such as Jallikattu in Tamil Nadu, according to the customs and culture of different communities.
ÿ This notification was stayed by the Supreme Court later.
∑ A massive agitation broke out in January 2017 against the government’s failure to facilitate the conduct of jallikattu for
successive years, with tens of thousands of people, especially youngsters, occupying the sands of the Marina in Chennai for
days.
∑ The government of then Chief Minister O. Panneerselvam issued an ordinance to remove the basis for the 2014 Supreme
Court judgment. This ordinance was soon turned into an act.
∑ The act was adopted as a State-specific amendment to the PCA itself in order to avoid repugnancy with the Central law.
∑ It was framed in a way that would define jallikattu as an event organised to promote and follow tradition and culture and to
preserve the native breeds of bulls.
∑ Its clauses of the act were worded to remove the applicability of the PCA provisions to jallikattu.
∑ It added the sport as another exception to the list of acts the PCA itself allows as those that do not amount to cruelty.
∑ In its latest ruling, a Constitution Bench has accepted the basic argument that jallikattu is part of the cultural heritage of
Tamils.
∑ It upheld the Amendment Act, saying it has now legitimised the bovine sport and that it cannot be termed a piece of
colourable legislation.
∑ Doctrine of Colourable Legislation: What cannot be done directly, cannot be done indirectly.
Safeguards for animal rights:
∑ ‘Five Freedoms’- Developed in 1965, by the World Health Organization for Animal Health.
They are widely recognized and describe the society’s expectations for the conditions animals should experience when they
are under human control.
They are:
ÿ Freedom from hunger, thirst and malnutrition
ÿ Freedom from fear and distress
ÿ Freedom from physical and thermal discomfort
ÿ Freedom from pain, injury and disease
ÿ Freedom to express normal patterns of behaviour
∑ Article 51A(g) of the Indian Constitution imposes a duty on citizens to protect and improve the natural environment and to
have compassion for living creatures.
∑ Article 48 of the Constitution which deals with the duty of the State to “organise agriculture and animal husbandry”.
∑ Entry 17 of the concurrent list also deals with prevention of cruelty to animals.
∑ Prevention of Animal Cruelty Act, 1960-
ÿ It was enacted in 1960 to prevent the infliction of unnecessary pain or suffering on animals and to amend the laws
relating to the prevention of cruelty to animals.
ÿ The act defines "animal" as 'any living creature other than a human being'.
ÿ As per the provisions of the law, in 1962, the government of India formed the Animal Welfare Board of India
and appointed noted humanitarian and acclaimed dancer Rukmani Devi Arundale as steward.
ÿ This Act provides for the limitation period of 3 months beyond which no prosecution shall lie for any offences under
this Act.
11. THE TELANGANA- ANDHRA PRADESH WATER DISPUTE
Recently: The nagging dispute over the water share of the Krishna River between Andhra Pradesh (A.P.) and Telangana remains
unresolved, even nine years after the bifurcation of the combined State.
∑ At a Board meeting held in May, Telangana put its foot down for an equal share and refused to continue the existing
arrangement of water distribution between Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
∑ Unable to convince the member States, the river Board has referred the matter to the Ministry of Jal Shakti (MoJS).
What is the dispute?
∑ The dispute originated during the formation of Andhra Pradesh in November, 1956.
∑ A Gentlemen agreement was signed in February 1956 between four senior leaders of Andhra Pradesh, each from
different regions of Andhra, including the Rayalaseema Region and the Telangana region.
∑ The agreement also contained the provision for the protection of Telangana’s interests and needs with respect to the
utilisation of water resources with equitable distribution.
∑ Krishna Water Dispute Tribunal- I-
ÿ It was Constituted by the government on 10 April 1969 to adjudicate the river water utilization disputes among the
river basin states of Krishna and Godavari rivers under the provisions of Interstate River Water Disputes
Act,1956.
ÿ The common tribunal was headed by Sri RS Bachawat as its chairman with Sri DM Bhandari and Sri DM Sen as its
members. Therefore, it was also known as the Bachawat Tribunal.
ÿ It aimed to settle the dispute around water share among the riparian States of Maharashtra, Karnataka and old
Andhra Pradesh.
ÿ The final verdict of the tribunal was submitted in 1976.
∑ Tribunal’s verdict: The award contended based on 75% dependability that the total quantum of water available for
distribution was 2060TMC.
ÿ The Tribunal allocated 811 tmcft dependable water to Andhra Pradesh.
ÿ It also recommended taking the Tungabhadra Dam (a part of the Krishna Basin) water to the drought-prone
Mahabubnagar area of Telangana.
ÿ However, this was not followed through, giving birth to discontent among the people.
ÿ The KWDT-1 provided for a review of its award after 31 May 2000. However, no such review was taken up for more
than 3 years after that.
∑ The Andhra Pradesh government later apportioned it in the 512:299 tmcft ratio between Andhra (including parts of
Rayalaseema which comprise the Krishna Basin) and Telangana, respectively.
∑ Telangana had time and again reiterated how it had been meted out with injustice in Andhra Pradesh when it came to the
matter of distributing water resources.
After Bifurcation:
∑ Telangana was carved out of Andhra Pradesh 2014 through the Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014.
∑ There is no mention of water shares in the act, since the KWDT-I Award, had not made any region-wise allocation.
∑ In 2015, the two States had agreed for sharing water in the 34:66 (Telangana: A.P.) ratio as an ad hoc arrangement with
the minutes clearly specifying that it has to be reviewed every year.
∑ The act set up 2 boards for the management of the water resources- the Krishna River Management Board (KRMB)
and the Godavari River Management Board (GRMB).
∑ The KRMB continued the same ratio year after year in spite of the opposition by Telangana.
Arguments and Demands:
∑ Telangana has been arguing that as per the basin parameters, it is entitled for at least a 70% share in the allocation of the
811 tmcft.
∑ Besides, it has been highlighting how Andhra Pradesh has been diverting about 300 tmcft water to the areas outside the
basin from fluoride-affected and drought-prone areas within the basin in Telangana.
∑ Andhra Pradesh has also been staking claim for a higher share of water to protect the interests of command areas already
developed.
∑ The state wants the central government to start again the tribunal proceeding afresh as it was not party to the earlier
KWDT1 and KWDT2 adjudications.
∑ Karnataka and Maharashtra are opposing the tribunal proceeding afresh and state that the extension of the tribunal period
is only for resolving the water disputes between Andhra Pradesh and Telangana states.
What is the centre doing?
∑ The Centre has convened two meetings of the Apex Council comprising the Union Minister and Chief Ministers of Telangana
and Andhra Pradesh in 2016 and 2020 without making any attempt to deal with the issue.
∑ Telangana has withdrawn its petition from the Supreme court on the recommendation of MOJs and the assurance that the
matter will be referred to the tribunal, but the centre is sitting over the matter for two years.
Provision for water and resolution of disputes related to water:
∑ Entry 17 of State List deals with water i.e. water supply, irrigation, canal, drainage, embankments, water storage and
water power.
∑ Entry 56 of Union List gives power to the Union Government for the regulation and development of inter-state rivers and
river valleys.
∑ Article 262 of the Constitution provides that Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of disputes related to
water.
It also provides that, notwithstanding anything in this Constitution, Parliament may, by law provide that neither the Supreme
Court nor any other court shall exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint.
Water Dispute Resolution Tribunals:
∑ Inter-State Water Dispute Act, 1956, provides for the constitution of tribunals by the central government for resolution
of water disputes.
∑ Tribunal is constituted by the Chief Justice of India.
∑ Supreme Court shall not question the Award or formula given by tribunal but it can question the working of the tribunal.
∑ A state government can approach the Centre to refer the dispute to a tribunal.
∑ Active Water Dispute Tribunals:
ÿ Krishna Water Disputes Tribunal II (2004) – Karnataka, Telengana,Andra Pradesh, Maharashtra.
ÿ Mahanadi Water Disputes Tribunal (2018) – Odisha& Chattisgarh
ÿ Mahadayi Water Disputes Tribunal (2010)- Goa,Karnataka, Maharashtra
ÿ Ravi& Beas Water Tribunal (1986)- Punjab, Haryana,Rajasthan
ÿ Vansdhara Water Disputes Tribunal (2010)- Andra Pradesh & Odisha.
∑ The second Krishna Water Dispute Tribunal or Justice Brijesh Tribunal gave its final verdict in 2013.
ÿ The allocation of available water was done according to 65% dependability.
ÿ Andhra Pradesh got 1001 TMC of water, Karnataka 911 TMC and Maharashtra 666 TMC.
ÿ Next review of water allocations will be after the year 2050.
Krishna River:
∑ It is the second biggest river in peninsular India and the third longest river in India. It originates near
Mahabaleshwar in Maharashtra.
∑ It runs for a distance of 303 km in Maharashtra, 480 km through the breadth of North Karnataka and the rest of its 1300 km
journey in Telangana and Andhra Pradesh before it empties into the Bay of Bengal.
∑ It is 1400km long and its principal tributaries are- Ghatprabha, Malprabha and Tungabhadra.
12. G-7 SUMMIT 2023
Recently: The 49th G7 Summit took place on 19‑21 May 2023 under the Japanese Presidency in Hiroshima, a city with
worldwide symbolic importance for war, nuclear devastation and peace.
Who were the attendees?
∑ Participating Nations- All G7 member states- United States, Britain, Canada, France, Germany, Italy and Japan,
participated in the summit along with the representatives from the European Union.
∑ Invitees- In an attempt to reach to the “Global South'' of nations, the leaders of Australia, Brazil, Comoros, Cook
Islands, India, Indonesia, South Korea, and Vietnam, were also invited by the Japanese President Fumio Kishida.
ÿ Representatives from International Energy Agency (IEA), International Monetary Fund (IMF), Organization for
Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), United Nations (UN), World Bank, World Health Organization
(WHO) and World Trade Organization (WTO), also participated.
ÿ Ukraine’s President, Volodymyr Zelenskyy, also attended the summit.
Outcome of the Summit:
∑ Regional Affairs- G7 members agreed to tighten their sanctions against Russia in an attempt to limit its ability to
continue its war against Ukraine.
ÿ The restrictions will cover exports of industrial machinery, tools and technology useful to Russia's war effort.
ÿ There will also be attempts to limit Russian revenues from trade in metals and diamonds.
ÿ Leaders reaffirmed the importance of peace and stability across the Taiwan Strait and called for a peaceful
resolution of cross-Strait issues.
ÿ G7 Leaders voiced concerns about the human rights situation in China.
∑ Economic resilience and economic security- The leaders affirmed that they want to de-risk their relationship with
China – but not decouple from it – in order to ensure economic resilience and security.
ÿ They plan diversifying supply chains to avoid being dependent on one country, particularly for critical products
such as microchips and minerals used in clean-energy technologies.
ÿ The G7 has agreed to set up a Coordination Platform on Economic Coercion to counter any attempts to "weaponize"
trading and economic dependencies.
∑ Climate and Energy- The G7 leaders put support for gas investments back into their communiqué, but described it as
a "temporary" step as they try to decouple from Russian energy.
ÿ G7 members reaffirmed their pledge to achieve net-zero emissions by 2050 and to limit global warming to 1.5°C
– a goal that appears to be becoming increasingly elusive.
ÿ Having a highly decarbonized road sector by 2030 is a key target for the G7, with leaders talking up policy actions to
achieve 100% electric vehicles for new passenger car sales by 2035.
∑ Food- The G7 produced a Hiroshima Action Statement for Resilient Global Food Security with three key points. The are:
ÿ Respond to the immediate food-security crisis
ÿ Prepare for and prevent future food-security crises
ÿ Realize resilient global food security and nutrition for all
∑ Health- The G7 wants to reverse the first global decline in life expectancy in more than seven decades.
ÿ The route to this involves supporting better primary healthcare services, and preventing people from slipping
into poverty due to healthcare costs.
ÿ The G7 launched a Global Plan for Universal Health Coverage to help pursue this goal.
∑ Development- Accelerating progress towards the 2030 UN Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) was on the radar, with
recognition that “reducing poverty and tackling the climate and nature crisis go hand in hand”.
ÿ Outreach to the "global south" – shorthand for some low- and middle-income countries including India – was a
focus of the G7 talks.
ÿ It focused on how to bridge the vast gap between the global south and more advanced economies by creating
infrastructure and debt relief.
∑ Nuclear disarmament and non-proliferation- The G7 Summit venue of Hiroshima was particularly apt for talks on
nuclear non-proliferation.
ÿ The city was the first to be destroyed by US bombs 78 years ago (1945) in an act that ended World War Two
ÿ It called for the immediate start of negotiations for a treaty banning the production of fissile material for use in
nuclear weapons.
What is G7?
∑ The G7 is an informal grouping of 7 wealthy Western nations, i.e., United States, Britain, Canada, France, Germany,
Italy and Japan.
∑ The G7 was founded following the 1973 OPEC oil embargo as a forum for the richest nations to discuss global economic
issues.
∑ History: The concept of a forum for the capitalist world's major industrialized countries emerged before the 1973 oil
crisis.
ÿ In March, 1973, a meeting of 4 countries - West Germany, US, France and UK was convened in the library of the
White House. This original group of 4 was consequently known as the ‘Library Group’.
ÿ Japan was added to the grouping later in mid- 1973, through the proposal of U.S. President Richard Nixon. This
was known as the ‘G-5’.
ÿ France hosted a three-day summit in November 1975, inviting the Group of Five plus Italy, forming the "Group
of Six" (G6).
ÿ In 1976, Canada was also invited to join the group and the first meeting with all G-7 nations was hosted by the
United States which was held in Puerto Rico in 1976.
∑ Russia was included in what became the G8 in 1997 but was suspended in 2014 after annexing Crimea from Ukraine.
∑ G7 has no permanent secretariat or legal status.
∑ G7 members account for 60 percent of global net wealth, 46 percent of global gross domestic product, and 10 percent
of the world's population.
∑ Each year, a different member country assumes the presidency of the group.
∑ Japan is the current President and Italy will take over the presidency from Japan in 2024.
∑ The European Union has participated fully in the G-7 since 1981 as a "non-enumerated" member.
∑ While India is not a member of the G7 grouping of the world’s most developed economies, the Indian Prime Minister has
been invited several times as special guest to summits since 2008.
13. WMO REPORTS ON CLIMATE CHANGE
Recently: The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) released two reports titled “Global Annual to Decadal Climate
Update 2023-2027” and “State of Global Climate 2022.”
∑ The Global Annual to Decadal Climate Update is issued annually by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO).
∑ It provides a synthesis of the global annual to decadal predictions produced by the WMO designated Global Producing
Centres and other contributing centres for the period 2023-2027.
Major Findings:
∑ Annual mean global surface temperature between 2023 and 2027 will be 1.1-1.8 degree Celsius higher than the baseline
temperature of 1850-1900 (preindustrial level).
∑ In 2022, it was 1.15 degrees above the baseline.
∑ By 2027, the average will exceed 1.5 degrees, a critical point beyond which there may be no return.
∑ The chance of global near-surface temperature exceeding 1.5°C above preindustrial levels or at least one year between
2023 and 2027 is 66%.
∑ It is unlikely (32% chances) that the five-year mean will exceed this threshold.
∑ There is a 98 percent likelihood that at least one of the next five years, and the five-year period as a whole, will be the
warmest on record.
∑ Back-to-back La Niña events at the start and end of 2021 had a cooling effect on global temperatures, but this is only
temporary and does not reverse the long-term global warming trend.
∑ La Niña ended in March 2023 and an El Niño is forecasted to develop in the coming months.
∑ Typically, El Niño increases global temperatures in the year after it develops – in this case this would be 2024.
∑ The brewing El Nino will result in a 98% possibility of witnessing temperatures higher than 2016 at least in one of the years
in the 2023-27 period.
∑ The Arctic temperature anomaly, compared to the 1991-2020 average, is predicted to be more than three times as large
as the global mean anomaly when averaged over the next five northern hemisphere extended winters.
∑ Predicted precipitation patterns for 2023 relative to the 1991-2020 average suggest an increased chance of reduced rainfall
in parts of Indonesia, the Amazon and central America.
India:
∑ Indian monsoon will soon enter a positive period after remaining in a negative period since 1971.
∑ Many parts of India will receive above-normal rainfall. This will keep temperatures low.
∑ The future trend suggests that the decadal mean value will be close to near normal from 2021 to 2030, it will then turn
positive, the decade 2031-2040 will be the beginning of a wet period.
∑ India has been increasingly facing the brunt of climate change.
∑ February 2023 was recorded as the hottest month since record-keeping began in 1901.
∑ India witnessed extreme weather events for 80% of the days.
∑ India was ranked eighth in the Climate Change Performance Index, after Denmark, Sweden, Chile, and Morocco.
∑ Measures taken:
ÿ With domestic measures like the Green Hydrogen Mission and the introduction of green bonds, India is performing
fairly well despite contributing only a miniscule to cumulative GHG emissions.
ÿ At the international level, through the International Solar Alliance and Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure,
India can prove to be a responsible climate player keeping in mind that it has a long way to go in very little time.
What is the target of 1.5degree Celsius?
∑ In 2010, at the COP16 in Cancun, Mexico, countries agreed to limit the global average warming to below 2 Degree
Celsius.
ÿ It was an acceptable level of warming for decades but it was unacceptable to small island countries as it implied that
their survival was compromised.
∑ In 2015, at COP21 in Paris, France, the Paris agreement was adopted that pledged to limit the average temperature rise
to below 2 degree, while actively aiming for 1.5 degree above pre-industrial levels.
ÿ This was endorsed as a global target by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) in 2018 and since
then has been pursued in all climate dialogues.
ÿ The Paris Agreement replaced the Kyota protocol which was adopted during COP 7 in 1997 and came into force
in 2005.
ÿ According to the 4th part of the sixth assessment report of IPCC, there are 50% chances that the global temperature
rise will reach 1.5 degree Celsius between 2021 and 2040.
World Meteorological Organization (WMO):
∑ The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for promoting
international cooperation on atmospheric science, climatology, hydrology and geophysics.
∑ It originated from the International Meteorological Organization, a non-governmental organization founded in 1873.
∑ World Meteorological Convention of 1947 formally established the World Meteorological Organization which became
operational in 1950 as an intergovernmental organization within the UN system.
∑ It has 193 members and is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
∑ Gerhard Adrian is the current General Secretary of WMO.
∑ World Meteorological Day is celebrated globally on 23rd March annually to commemorated the established of WMO.
ÿ Theme for 2023- “The future of Weather, Climate, and Water Across Generations.”
Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC):
∑ It was established by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and World Meteorological
Organization (WMO) in 1988.
∑ It has 195 members and its Secretariat is situated in Geneva, Switzerland.
∑ IPCC has 3 working Groups:
ÿ Working Group-I - Deals with the scientific basis for climate change.
ÿ Working Group-II - Looks at the likely impacts, vulnerabilities and adaptation issues.
ÿ Working Group-III - Deals with actions that can be taken to combat climate change.
∑ One assessment cycle of the panel lasts for six to seven years and therefore, it releases its report every six to seven
years.
∑ Each assessment report has 4 parts- the reports of the four working groups and a final synthesis report.
∑ Timeline of the Six Reports:
ÿ 1st Assessment Report- 1990
ÿ 2nd Assessment Report- 1995 (formed the basis of the Kyota Protocol)
ÿ 3rd Assessment Report- 2001
ÿ 4th Assessment Report- 2007
ÿ 5th Assessment Report- 2015 (formed the basis of Paris Agreement)
ÿ 6th Assessment Report- 2023 (Working Group I released its report in August 2021. The synthesis report, final report,
report was released in 20th March 2023.
United Nations Framework for Climate Change:
∑ It was signed in 1992 at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development also known as the Earth
Summit, the Rio Summit or the Rio Conference.
∑ The Convention has near universal membership (197 Parties) and is the parent treaty of the 2015 Paris Agreement.
∑ The original secretariat was in Geneva. Since 1996, the secretariat has been located in Bonn, Germany.
∑ The Conference of Parties (COP) is the highest decision- making body of the convention and the climate change process
revolves around the annual sessions of the COP.
14. US DEBT CEILING
Recently: The United States Senate has passed the Federal Responsibility Act Of 2023 which will help avert a possible debt
crisis in world’s biggest economy.
∑ After passing both House of Representatives and Senate, the bill will now head to President Joe Biden’s table. The bill will
become a law after receiving President Biden's signature.
∑ The bill came after several weeks of negotiations between President Biden and Republicans over a deal to raise the US debt
ceiling.
∑ US Treasury Secretary Janet Yellen had warned that the government can run out of funds as early as June 5.
What is Debt Ceiling?
∑ It is the maximum amount of money that the USA can borrow cumulatively by issuing bonds.
∑ The debt ceiling was introduced in USA in 1917 during World War 1 to make the government fiscally responsible.
∑ This limit is called the debt ceiling, and right now the limit is $31.4tn.
∑ Borrowing money helps the federal government pay for expenses passed in its budgets, like social security and Medicare
benefits and the salaries of US military service members.
∑ Under Article I Section 8 of the United States Constitution, only Congress can authorize the borrowing of money on the
credit of the United States.
∑ Under the US Constitution's 14th Amendment, the President has the authority to raise the debt ceiling by their own
without the support of Legislature.
What happens if the debt ceiling is hit?
∑ By hitting the limit and failing to pay interests to bondholders, the US would default (would not be able to pay the debt)
which would affect the country greatly.
∑ Even a brief default the interest rates would spike and the equity prices would plunge.
∑ If US dollar, a global currency against which other currencies are pegged, defaults on its debt, it would lead to immediate
recession because of the following factors-
ÿ A downgrade of the credit rating agencies
ÿ Increased borrowing costs for businesses and homeowners
ÿ a drop-off in the consumer confidence
∑ The default by US dollar will also lead to rupee depreciation in India.
∑ In 2011, during the Presidency of Barak Obama, U.S. reached a crisis point of near default on public debt. The delay in
raising the debt ceiling resulted in the first downgrade in the United States credit rating, a sharp drop in the stock market,
and an increase in borrowing costs.
How frequently is the debt ceiling raised in USA?
∑ The debt ceiling has been fluid and raised whenever necessary that there had been questions raised on whether it’s
effective to pursue fiscal responsibility.
∑ The debt ceiling was raised whenever the US has approached the debt ceiling limit.
∑ Since 1960, the Congress has increased the debt ceiling seventy-eight times and it happened most recently in 2021.
Provisions of Federal Responsibility Act Of 2023:
∑ The US Congress has decided to suspend the debt ceiling till January 2025, beyond the 2024 presidential election.
∑ The non-defence spending of the government will remain flat for next year. The bill has capped the rise to 1 per cent
for 2025.
∑ Defence spending will be allowed to rise by 3 per cent. Funding for military veterans’ medicare will also be allowed to
increase.
∑ The bill mandates unspent Covid relief money to be returned. According to the available estimates, around $30 billion will
be rescinded from public funds.
∑ The maximum age for able-bodied workers under the Food Stamp Programme, which helps to pay for food for those
having low income, has been increased to 54 from 49.
∑ Congressional Budget Office predicts that the bill will reduce $1.5 trillion in budget deficits in the next decade.
15. INDUS WATER TREATY

Recently: Deputy National Security Advisor Vikram Misri reviewed the progress of various hydro-power projects in Jammu and
Kashmir while chairing the second meeting of the task force to ensure exercise of India’s rights under the Indus Water Treaty.
∑ The inter-ministerial Indus water task force was formed in 2016 to look into all the strategic aspects of the Indus Waters
Treaty with Pakistan.
∑ The meeting took stock of progress on various hydropower projects in the union territory of Jammu and Kashmir.
∑ The meeting was held against the backdrop of India formally informing Pakistan of its intention to modify the Indus Waters
Treaty of 1960 because of Islamabad’s “intransigence” in implementing the pact.
What is Indus Water Treaty?
∑ In 1947, the line of partition, aside from delineating geographical boundaries for India and Pakistan, also cut the Indus
River system into two.
∑ Both the sides were dependent on water from the Indus River basin to keep their irrigation infrastructure functional and
therefore, equitable distribution was needed.
∑ Inter-dominion accord was adopted in 1948.
ÿ Under this, India would supply water to Pakistan in exchange for an annual payment made by the latter.
ÿ This agreement soon disintegrated as both the countries could not agree upon its common interpretations.
∑ Both the countries applied to the World Bank for funding of their respective irrigation projects on Indus and its tributaries.
∑ World Bank offered to mediate the conflict.
∑ Finally in 1960, after nearly a decade of fact-finding, negotiation, proposals by the World Bank and amendments to them,
an agreement was reached between the two countries, called the Indus Water Treaty.
∑ The treaty was signed by former Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru, then President of Pakistan, Ayub Khan and the
former Vice President of the World Bank, W.A.B. Iliff.
Basic Provisions of the Indus Water Treaty
∑ The Indus River basin has six rivers- Indus, Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas and Sutlej.
∑ It originates from Tibet and flowing through the Himalayan ranges to enter Pakistan, ending in the south of Karachi.
∑ The treaty prescribed how water from the six rivers would be shared between India and Pakistan.
∑ It allocated the three western rivers—Indus, Chenab and Jhelum—to Pakistan for unrestricted use, barring certain non-
consumptive, agricultural and domestic uses by India.
∑ The three Eastern rivers—Ravi, Beas and Sutlej—were allocated to India for unrestricted usage.
∑ This meant that 80% of the share of water or about 135 Million Acre Feet (MAF) went to Pakistan, leaving the rest 33
MAF or 20% of water for use by India.
∑ It also required both the countries to establish a Permanent Indus Commission constituted by permanent commissioners
on both sides.
∑ Annexure C of the IWT allows India certain agricultural uses of the waters of Indus, Chenab and Jhelum.
∑ Annexure D allows it to build ‘run of the river’ hydropower projects, meaning projects not requiring live storage of water.
∑ India is allowed to have a minimum storage level on the western rivers – meaning it can store up to 3.75 MAF of water
for conservation and flood storage purposes.
∑ The treaty also allows Pakistan to raise objections over such projects being built by India, if it does not find them to be
compliant with the specifications.
∑ India has to share information on the project design or alterations made to it with Pakistan, which is required to respond
with objections, if any, within three months of receipt.
Permanent Indus Commission:
∑ It is a bilateral commission of officials from India and Pakistan, created to implement and manage goals of the Indus Waters
Treaty, 1960.
∑ The Commission, according to the treaty, shall meet regularly at least once a year, alternately in India and Pakistan.
∑ 118th meeting of the Indus Water Commission was held in May, 2022.
∑ Ashish Kumar Pal is the current Indus Commission of India.
Important Hydroelectric Projects objected by Pakistan:
∑ Kishenganga Hydro Electricity Project (KHEP)-

ÿ Kishenganga is a tributary of Jhelum. It originates in J&K and joins the river in Pakistan occupied Kashmir.
ÿ The work for KHEP was started in 2007.
ÿ It proposed to build a dam on the Kishenganga, diverting its water for a 330 MW hydropower plant in Kashmir’s
Bandipora and sending it back.
ÿ The work for the project was supposed to be completed by 2016, but before the construction started, Pakistan had
raised objections regarding the height of the dam, fearing it would mean increased water storage for India. India
changed the height from 97m to 37m.
ÿ Pakistan reached International Court of Arbitration at the Hague in 2010 which gave green signal to India in 2013.
ÿ Pakistan approached the World Bank three years later in 2016 and again in 2018, objecting to the design.
ÿ It also tried to stop the construction of the dam in 2016 by firing shells near the dam site in 2016.
ÿ The project was then inaugurated in 2018, despite continued protests from Pakistan.
∑ Ratle Hydroelectric Project:
ÿ It is 850-megawatt project on the Chenab River.
ÿ Islamabad has repeatedly raised concerns over its design, insisting that India would use the project’s reservoir to
create deliberate and artificial water shortage or cause flooding in Pakistan.
∑ Pakistan had earlier objected to the Salal dam project in 1970 and Baglihar Hydropower project in 1999.
∑ In the 2022 meeting, Pakistan was expected to bring up its objections to three Indian Hydropower projects in the Chenab
basin in Jammu and Kashmir- the 1000-Megawatt (MW) Pakal Dul project, the 48 MW Lower Kalnai project and
the 624 MW Kiru project.
∑ India is planning another multipurpose hydroelectric project on Ujh river in Jammu & Kashmir and another Sutlej- Beas
link project in Punjab so as to better utilize the Indus Waters.
16. GOVERNMENT OF NATIONAL CAPITAL TERRITORY OF DELHI (AMENDMENT)

ORDINANCE, 2023
Recently: The Centre has brought in an ordinance to give authority back to the Lieutenant Governor (L-G), days after the
Supreme Court passed a five-judge bench verdict granting power to the elected government of the National Capital Territory of
Delhi to take decisions regarding “services” and transfer-posting and discipline over officials.
What was the judgement?
∑ A Constitution Bench headed by the Chief Justice of India D.Y. Chandrachud on May 11 held that the Delhi government
can make laws and administer civil services in the national capital.
∑ The court limited the role of the Lieutenant Governor (LG) over bureaucrats in the capital to three specific areas — public
order, police and land.
Key Provisions of the Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment) Ordinance, 2023
∑ It amends the Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi Act, 1991 under Article 368 of the Constitution of India.
∑ The ordinance has introduced a new "Part IV A" to the GNCTD Act, with 13 provisions-- under Section 45 A to Section
45-M, which is titled "Provisions relating to the maintenance of the democratic and administrative balance in the
governance of the National Capital Territory of Delhi."
∑ Powers to legislate over services- The Ordinance specifies that the Delhi Legislative Assembly will not have the power
to legislate on the subject of ‘services’, which comes under the Entry 41 of the State List.
ÿ Services include matters related to appointments and transfers of employees of the Delhi government, and vigilance.
∑ The Ordinance forms a “permanent” National Capital Civil Service Authority (NCCSA)-
ÿ It has Chief Minister as chairperson, and the Chief Secretary as member and Principal Home Secretary as
Member Secretary.
ÿ The NCCSA exercises authority over civil service officers working in all Delhi government departments except those in
public order, police and land.
ÿ It would decide transfers, postings, prosecution sanctions, disciplinary proceedings, vigilance issues, etc, of civil
service officers deputed to Delhi government departments by majority of votes of the members present and voting.
The quorum of the meeting is two people.
ÿ The Lieutenant Governor’s decision, in case of a difference of opinion, would be final.
ÿ Problem: It opens a possibility where bureaucrats in the NCCSA could possibly veto the Chief Minister.
∑ Powers of the Lieutenant Governor- Under the Act, matters where the LG may act on his sole discretion are:
I. Matters outside the legislative competence of the Delhi Legislative Assembly but which have been delegated to the
LG.
II. Matters where he is required by a law to act in his discretion or exercise any judicial or quasi-judicial functions.
ÿ It expands the discretionary role of the LG by giving him powers to approve the recommendations of the Authority,
or return them for reconsideration.
ÿ The LG’s decision will be final in the case of a difference of opinion between him and the Authority.
∑ Appointments and conditions of service -The Union Public Service Commission will recommend appointments for Group
A and B gazetted posts.
ÿ Appointments to Group B and Group C non-gazetted posts will be recommended by the Delhi Subordinate Services
Selection Board.
ÿ Group A includes senior management roles, Group B includes middle management roles, and Group C includes clerical
assistance roles.
ÿ The central government will notify the conditions of service of persons appointed including their tenure, qualification,
salaries, powers and functions, and suspension.
Background:
∑ The S. Balakrishnan committee of 1987 recommended that the creation of institutions in the capital by inserting
provisions in this regard in the constitution.
∑ Therefore, GNCTD Act was enacted in 1991 to “supplement provisions of the Constitution relating to the Legislative
Assembly and a Council of Ministers for the National Capital Territory of Delhi”.
∑ Alongside, Article 239AA was inserted in the Constitution by the 69th Amendment Act 1991.
ÿ The Article provides for a special status to the National Capital Territory of Delhi (NCT).
ÿ The article states that the NCT shall have a Legislative Assembly, a Council of Ministers headed by a Chief Minister.
ÿ It gives the Legislative Assembly, power to make laws on all matters in the State List and the Concurrent List, except
for those matters that are specifically excluded by the Constitution.
∑ The GNCTD Act did not properly demarcate the powers of the Lieutenant Governor and the Delhi Government which led to a
lot a scuffle between centre and the Delhi Government after the Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) came to power in 2015.
∑ A 2015 notification of the centre gave the Lieutenant Governor (LG) power over the services. It required the LG to
consult the Chief Minister only at his “discretion”. This again became a point of contention.
∑ A Delhi High judgement in 2016 stated that complete control with all the matters related to the Delhi is with LG. The
Government cannot take any decision with the concurrence of the LG.
∑ In the Government of NCT of Delhi vs Union of India and Another in 2018 case, the SC favoured the Delhi
government and held that the government was not under obligation to seek the concurrence of the L-G on its decisions.
∑ This judgement was again overrun by the Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment) Act,
2021, which reinstated the powers of LG stating the “Government of Delhi is the Government of the Lieutenant
Governor”.
What is an ordinance?
∑ Ordinances are laws that are promulgated by the President of India under Article 123 of the constitution, on the
recommendation of the Union Cabinet, which will have the same effect as an Act of Parliament.
∑ They can only be issued when Parliament is not in session.
∑ Ordinances cease to operate either if Parliament does not approve of them within six weeks of reassembly, or if
disapproving resolutions are passed by both Houses.
∑ It is also compulsory for a session of Parliament to be held within six months.
17. CHINA’S SHENZHOU-16 SPACECRAFT

Recently: China sent three astronauts to its now fully operational space station as part of crew rotation on Tuesday in the fifth
manned mission to the Chinese space outpost since 2021.
∑ The spacecraft, Shenzhou-16, or "Divine Vessel", and its three passengers lifted off atop a Long March-2F rocket from
the Jiuquan Satellite Launch Centre in the Gobi Desert in northwest China.
∑ The astronauts on Shenzhou-16 will replace the three-member crew of the Shenzhou-15, who arrived at the space station
late in November.
Crew Members of the mission:
∑ Leading the Shenzhou-16 mission was Jing Haipeng, 56, a senior spacecraft pilot from China’s first batch of astronaut
trainees in the late 1990s. He had travelled to space three times before, including two trips as mission commander and has
now become the first astronaut in the country to travel in space four times.
∑ Jing flew with Zhu Yangzhu and Gui Haichao, both 36 and part of China’s third batch of astronauts. The mission is Zhu’s
and Gui’s first spaceflight.
∑ Former military university professor Zhu will serve as spaceflight engineer while Gui, a professor at Beihang University, the
first Chinese civilian into space, will serve as the payload specialist on the mission, managing science experiments at the
space station.
China’s Tiangong Space Station:
∑ The Tiangong space station or “Heavenly Palace” is the permanent space station of China, built in low Earth orbit between
340 and 450 kilometres above the earth.
∑ The station, comprising three modules, was completed at the end of last year after 11 crewed and uncrewed missions since
April 2021.
∑ Tianhe core module, an unmanned module, was the first module to launch the Tiangong space station module.
∑ Wentian and Mengtian science lab are the other two modules of the space station.
∑ It is built by the Chinese Manned Space Agency (CMSA).
∑ China is only the third country in history to have put both astronauts into space and to build a space station, after the
Soviet Union (now Russia) and the US.
∑ China hopes Tiangong will replace the International Space Station (ISS), which is due to be decommissioned in 2031.
International Space Station:
∑ The International Space Station (ISS) is the largest modular space station in low Earth orbit.
∑ The project involves five space agencies that represent 15 countries: the United States' NASA, Russia's Roscosmos,
Japan's JAXA, Europe's ESA, and Canada's CSA.
∑ The project, which began as an American effort, was long delayed by funding and technical problems.
∑ Assembly of the International Space Station (ISS) began with the launch of the Russian control module Zarya on November
20, 1998.
∑ The space station flies at an average altitude of 400 kilometers above Earth. It circles the globe every 90 min. at a speed
of about 28,000 kph.
∑ The first space station crews were three-person teams, though after the tragic Columbia shuttle disaster the crew size
temporarily dropped to two-person teams.
∑ The space station reached its full six-person crew size in 2009 as new modules, laboratories and facilities were brought
online.
∑ Last year, Russia announced to withdraw from the space station after 2024.
∑ The International Space Station is planned to be decommissioned in 2031.
China’s Space History and new plans:
∑ China put its first satellite into orbit in 1970. The only other powers to have gone into space by that stage were the US,
the Soviet Union, France and Japan.
∑ It has already sent an unmanned mission to the Moon, called Chang'e 5, to collect and return rock samples.
ÿ It plans to send a manned mission to the moon by 2030 for lunar scientific exploration.
ÿ US space agency NASA aims to send a second manned mission to the moon by 2025 to explore the south pole for
frozen water.
ÿ Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has announced plans to launch its ambitious Chandrayaan-3 mission
aimed at demonstrating critical technologies to land the spacecraft on the south pole.
∑ With the launch of Shenzhou 14, China has now put 14 astronauts into space, compared with 340 by the US and more
than 130 by the Soviet Union (and now Russia).
18. SMART CITIES MISSION

Recently: The Union Housing and Urban Affairs Ministry has extended the deadline till June 2024.
What are Smart Cities?
∑ A 'smart city' is an urban region that is highly advanced in terms of overall infrastructure, sustainable real estate,
communications and market viability.
∑ It is a city where information technology is the principal infrastructure and the basis for providing essential services to
residents.
∑ The six fundamental principles on which the concept of Smart Cities is based are:
ÿ Community at the core- of planning and implementation
ÿ More from Less- Ability to generate greater outcomes with the use of lesser resources
ÿ Cooperative and Competitive Federalism- Cities selected through competition; flexibility to implement projects
ÿ Integration, innovation, Sustainability- Innovating methods; integrated and sustainable solution
ÿ Technology as means, not the goal- careful selection of technology, relevant to the context of cities
ÿ Convergence- Sectorial and Financial Convergence
∑ The concept of smart cities originated at the time when the entire world was facing one of the worst economic crises.
ÿ In 2008, IBM began work on a 'smarter cities' concept as part of its Smarter Planet initiative.
ÿ By the beginning of 2009, the concept had captivated the imagination of various nations across the globe.
The Smart Cities Mission:
∑ The Smart Cities Mission is an initiative of the Union Housing and Urban Affairs Ministry that was launched by Prime
Minister Narendra Modi on June 25, 2015.
∑ Cities across the country were asked to submit proposals for projects to improve municipal services and to make their
jurisdictions more liveable.
∑ Between January 2016 and June 2018 (when the last city, Shillong, was chosen), the Ministry selected 100 cities for the
Mission over five rounds.
∑ The projects were supposed to be completed within five years of the selection of the city, but in 2021 the Ministry changed
the deadline for all cities to June 2023 (earlier the deadline for Shillong alone), which has again been extended to June
2024.
∑ According to the documents released on the Smart Cities website, the core infrastructure in a smart city would include:
ÿ Adequate water supply
ÿ Assured electricity supply
ÿ Sanitation, including solid waste management
ÿ Efficient urban mobility and public transport
ÿ Affordable housing, especially for the poor
ÿ Robust IT connectivity and digitalisation
ÿ Good governance, especially e-Governance and citizen participation
ÿ Sustainable environment
ÿ Safety and security of citizens, particularly women, children and the elderly
ÿ Health and education
∑ Key focus areas of the scheme include construction of walkways, pedestrian crossings, cycling tracks, efficient waste-
management systems, integrated traffic management and assessment.
∑ The scheme also assesses various indices to track urban development such as the Ease of Living Index, Municipal
Performance Index, City GDP framework, Climate Smart Cities assessment framework, etc.
∑ A Smart City Advisory Forum (SCAF) has also been established at the city level to advise and enable collaboration
among various stakeholders. So far, the Smart Cities have convened more than 756 meetings of SCAF.
∑ For each smart city, a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) has also been created to plan, appraise, approve, release funds,
implement, manage, operate, monitor and evaluate the Smart City development projects.
∑ The SPV is headed by a full-time CEO and has nominees of Central and State governments and ULB on its Board.
∑ The Smart Cities Mission includes setting up of a Integrated Command and Control Centre (ICCC) for each such city as a
vital step.
∑ These ICCCs are designed to enable authorities to monitor the status of various amenities in real time.
Financing:
∑ The central government and state/urban local governments share equal responsibility for mobilising funds.
∑ The government on May 23 said that more than 90% of the funds allocated under the Smart Cities Mission have been
utilised till now, while 73% of the projects have been completed.
∑ As of May 1, a total of ₹38,400 crore was released under the Smart Cities Mission, of which ₹35,261 crore has been
utilised, Union Urban Affairs Minister Hardeep Singh Puri informed a Parliamentary Consultative Committee.
∑ The Smart Cities Mission has around 7,800 projects worth ₹1.8 lakh crore, of which more than 5,700 projects worth ₹1.1
lakh crore have been completed.
19. RASHT-ASTARA RAILWAY LINK

Recently: An intergovernmental agreement for the construction of the 162 km Rasht – Astara railway in northern Iran was
signed by the transport ministers of Iran and Russia during a video conference between the national presidents on May 17.
∑ Rasht- Astara railway Link is a part of the major North-South Transport Corridor.
What is North-South Transport Corridor?
∑ The idea to build a transport corridor linking Russia’s Baltic Sea coast to India’s western ports in the Arabian Sea via Iran,
was first mooted in 2000.
∑ An agreement to develop the 7,200-km-long International North-South Transport Corridor (NSTC) was signed in 2002 by
Russia, India and Iran.
∑ Three years later (2005), Azerbaijan signed up.
∑ The agreement was eventually ratified by 13 countries — India, Russia, Iran, Azerbaijan, Belarus, Bulgaria, Armenia,
Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Oman, Tajikistan, Turkey and Ukraine.
∑ According to the original plan, the corridor has several branches-
ÿ On the western Corridor of the Caspian Sea, it would link Russia to Iran through Azerbaijan.
ÿ The eastern Corridor runs along the eastern coast of the Caspian Sea and links the main corridor to different road
and rail networks of Central Asian countries such as Turkmenistan and Kazakhstan.
ÿ Central Corridor begins from the Jawaharlal Nehru Port in Mumbai and connects to the Bandar Abbas port
(Iran) on the Strait of Hormuz.
∑ Reasons for slow implementation- Western sanctions on Iran over its nuclear programme.
ÿ Reluctancy to make large investments in the Islamic Republic, fearing third party sanctions from the U.S.
∑ Russia’s February 2022 invasion of Ukraine and the western sanctions seems to have brought Moscow and Tehran closer,
giving a fresh impetus to the NSTC.
The Rasht-Astara link
∑ In the western branch of NSTC, which is the faster route, the Rasht-Astara railway, 162km long, would link Iranian railways
up with Azerbaijan’s railways.
∑ It will link the city of Rasht (Iran) near the Caspian Sea, to Astara (Azerbaijan) on the border with Azerbaijan.
∑ It will open a direct corridor from St. Petersburg to Bandar Abbas on the Gulf, Iran’s busiest port.
∑ Russia will invest $1.73 billion on the construction of the railway, while Iran will spend roughly $5 billion.
∑ Iran and Russia claim that the Rasht-Astara link would be completed in 48 months.
∑ The link will have 22 tunnels and 15 special bridges and there is no guarantee that it will be finished as per schedule in
48 months (2027).
Impact on India
∑ For India, a country that’s dependent on imports for about 80% of its energy requirements, this corridor would open fresh
avenues for energy security.
∑ The corridor can also boost trade between India and Central Asia.
∑ India is now asking for the Chabahar, the Iranian port it is developing, to be connected to the corridor.
∑ According to a report by the Federation of Freight Forwarders’ Associations in India, the corridor is 30% cheaper and
40% shorter than the current traditional route.
∑ The traditional route to move goods from Russia or Europe to India is through the Suez Canal — the Baltic Sea-North
Sea-Mediterranean-Arabian Sea route.
∑ NSTC will work as an alternative to Suez Canal.
Major Challenges:
∑ Construction of the Rasht-Astara railway, along the Caspian Sea, has been lagging for years because of both financial and
practical reasons.
∑ There is no guarantee that it will be finished as per schedule in 48 months.
∑ Both Russia and Iran would find it difficult to raise enough funds to finance the project as they are grappling with sanctions,
while third parties remain reluctant to make investments in Iran.
∑ And Iran’s relationship with Azerbaijan remains tense as Baku has repeatedly accused Iran of interference in its internal
matters.
Suez Canal:
∑ It is sea-level waterway running north-south across the Isthmus of Suez in Egypt to connect the Mediterranean and
the Red seas.
∑ The canal separates the African continent from Asia, and it provides the shortest maritime route between Europe and
the lands lying around the Indian and western Pacific oceans.
∑ It is one of the world’s most heavily used shipping lanes that extends 193km and carries over 12% of world trade by
volume.
∑ The Suez Canal is actually the first canal that directly links the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea. It was opened for
navigation in November 1869.
∑ The 150-year-old canal was controlled by British and French interests in its initial years, but was nationalised in 1956
by Egyptian president, Gamal Abdel Nasser.
∑ The nationalization led to an international crisis in the middle- east, known as the Swiss Crisis.
∑ A large cargo ship named 'Ever Given' got stuck near the southern end of the Suez Canal causing a huge jam of vessels at
either end of the canal.
Chabahar Port:
∑ Iran’s Chabahar port is located on the Gulf of Oman and is the only oceanic port of the country. The port gives access to
the energy-rich Persian Gulf nations’ southern coast.
∑ The Chabahar Agreement was signed in June 2015 and approved by Iran’s Guardian Council in November 2016.
∑ Chabahar is seen as a gateway for trade by India, Iran and Afghanistan with Central Asian countries.
∑ It makes way for India to bypass Pakistan in transporting goods to Afghanistan using a sea-land route.
∑ With Chabahar port being developed and operated by India, Iran also becomes a military ally to India.
∑ The port has been handed over to India by Iran.
20. DENIAL OF TRIBAL CERTIFICATES TO KHASIS
Recently: An autonomous district council in Meghalaya has directed all traditional Khasi village chiefs to strictly follow customary
norms of issuing tribal certificates to only those using their mother's surname.
∑ The Khasi Hills Autonomous District Council (KHADC) said the move was aimed at strengthening the matrilineal
system practised by the Khasi tribe.
∑ According to Sections 3 and 12 of the Khasi Hills Autonomous District Khasi Social Custom of Lineage Act, 1997, only
those following the custom of using mother's surname will be identified as a Khasi.
Khasi Community:
∑ The Khasi people are an ethnic group of Meghalaya in north-eastern India with a significant population in the bordering
state of Assam.
∑ During the Bangladesh Liberation War in 1971, some Khasi families became separated and now live across the border from
Meghalaya in Bangladesh.
∑ Today, most Khasis live in Meghalaya, which became an independent state in 1972.
∑ Khasi people form the majority of the population of the eastern part of Meghalaya, that is Khasi Hills, constituting 78.3% of
the region's population, and is the state's largest community, with around 48% of the population of Meghalaya.
∑ Khasis are believed to be migrants with ancestral links to the Mon-Khmer people of East Asia.
∑ The Khasi tribe has a distinctive social structure that is based on matrilineality and matrilocality. This means that
the lineage and inheritance are traced through the mother's side.
∑ The Khasi tribe speaks a language called Khasi. The script of the language is called Ka Seng Khasi or the Khasi Alphabet
developed by a Khasi scholar named U Blei U Hynniew Trep in the 19th century.
∑ Niam Khasi or Niam Tre, meaning the Original or Ancient Religion, is the religion followed by the Khasis. They worship
nature and its elements as God.
∑ They are recognized as a Scheduled Tribe under article 342 of the constitution of India.
How was the Matrilineal society of Meghalaya formed?
∑ Khasi men often went down to the plains for clashes as warriors who often battled with other groups for land.
∑ During those battles, some men died. Others settled for a new life in the plains.
∑ During those battles, some men died. Others settled for a new life in the plains.
∑ Left without their partners, Khasi women would remarry or find other partners, and it often became difficult to determine a
child's paternity.
∑ In order to prevent the children from being labelled as illegitimate by the society, they decided that children should have
one last name: the mother's.
∑ This ironically, is reflective of the Patriarchy in the society.
Features of a Matrilineal society:
∑ Women have a dominant role in the matrilineal society of Meghalaya.

∑ The youngest daughter of the family, the Ka Khadduh, inherits all ancestral property.
∑ After marriage, husbands live in the mother-in-law's home.
∑ The mother's surname is taken by children.
∑ When no daughters are born to a couple, they adopt a daughter and pass their rights to property to her.
∑ The birth of a girl is celebrated while the birth of a son is simply accepted.
∑ There is no social stigma attributed to a woman remarrying or giving birth out of wedlock as the "Khasi Social Custom
Lineage Act, 1997" gives security to them.
∑ Garos and Jaintias are other two indigenous matrilineal communities in the northeastern State.
Khasi Hills Autonomous District Council:
∑ It is one of the 10 autonomous district council included in the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
∑ Sixth Schedule: Deals with the administration of the tribal areas in the four northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya,
Tripura and Mizoram as per Article 244.
∑ The tribal areas in these four states come under the name of ‘Autonomous Districts,’ but the state still has its executive
authority over them
∑ Articles 244(2) and 275(1) — is a special provision that allows for greater political autonomy and decentralized
governance under the Sixth Schedule.
ÿ It is applicable to certain tribal areas of the Northeast through autonomous councils that are administered by elected
representatives.
∑ The Governor is empowered to increase or decrease the areas or change the names of the autonomous districts.
∑ The acts of Parliament or the state legislature do not apply to autonomous districts and autonomous regions or apply with
specified modifications and exceptions.
∑ There is a district council for each autonomous district
ÿ It has 30 members- four are nominated by the Governor and 26 are elected using the adult franchise.
∑ The Councils have also been endowed with wide civil and criminal judicial powers, for example establishing village courts
etc.
∑ However, the jurisdiction of these councils is subject to the jurisdiction of the concerned High Court.
21. TAXATION RULES FOR ONLINE GAMING
Recently: The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) has issued Income- tax (Fifth Amendment) Rules, 2023, for online
gaming platforms.
∑ It has amended Income Tax rules of 1962 to streamline and standardize the calculation and reporting of winnings from
online gaming to improve tax compliance.
∑ The new rules specify a formula for computing the net winnings from online games in a financial year which is liable to a
30% income tax.
Guidelines for the deduction of TDS:
∑ Tax Deducted at Source (TDS)- It is the tax deducted on income, dividends, or asset sales. It requires the payer or legal
intermediary to deduct tax due before paying the balance the payee.
∑ In the amendments made in Finance Bill in March, the tax department changed the date of applicability of the TDS provision
for online gaming to April 1, 2023 as opposed to an earlier proposed date of July 1, 2023.
∑ Section 194B of Income Tax Act-
ÿ 194BA was inserted in the Income-tax Act, 1961 through Finance Act 2023, to mandate the online gaming platforms
to deduct income-tax on the net winnings in the person’s user account.
ÿ All the income earned through winnings from lottery, crossword puzzle, gambling, betting, horse racing and any
similar nature were taxed under section 194B of the Income Tax Act,
ÿ The payer of such winnings would be required to deduct TDS at 30% if such winnings exceed Rs. 10,000/-.
ÿ This threshold has been removed under the Budget 2023.
∑ According to new guidelines, online gaming platforms need deduct tax at source on winnings withdrawn by players if the
amount is more than ₹100 a month and meets certain riders.
∑ Bonus, referral bonus, incentives etc given by the online gaming company to the intermediate user also to be considered as
taxable deposit under Rule 133 of the Income-tax Act.
∑ Equivalent Money- Some deposits could be money equivalent too like coins, coupons, vouchers, counters, etc.
∑ In such a situation, the equivalence in money of such deposits shall be considered as taxable deposits and would
accordingly form part of the balance in the user account.
When is the tax not deducted on withdrawals?
∑ The CBDT said that in order to remove the difficulty in deducting tax at source under section 194BA of the Act for
“insignificant withdrawal”, it is clarified that tax may not be deducted on withdrawal on the satisfaction of all of the following
conditions:
I. Net winnings comprised in the amount withdrawn does not exceed Rs 100 in a month.
II. Tax not deducted on account of this concession is deducted at a time when the net winnings comprised in withdrawal
exceeds Rs 100 in the same month or subsequent month or if there is no such withdrawal, at the end of the financial
year.
III. The deductor undertakes the responsibility of paying the difference if the balance in the user account at the time of
tax deduction under section 194BA of the Act is not sufficient to discharge the tax deduction liability calculated in
accordance with Rule 133.
Rules for multiple wallets:
∑ Under Rule 133 every user account will be included, by whatever name it is registered with the online gaming
intermediary and where any taxable deposit, non-taxable deposit, or the winning of the user is credited and withdrawal is
debited.
∑ When there are multiple accounts of a user, each user account shall be considered for the purposes of calculating net
winnings.
∑ The deposit, withdrawal or balance in the user account shall mean aggregate of deposits, withdrawals or balances in all user
accounts.
Transfers:
∑ Transfer from one user account to another account, maintained with the same online intermediary, of the same user shall
not be considered as withdrawal or deposit.
∑ However, if withdrawal or deposit will be done by one user to another user account, then any such transfer is a withdrawal.’
Valuation:
∑ The valuation will be based on fair market value of the winnings in kind.
∑ Exceptional Cases-
I. When the online gaming intermediary has purchased the winnings before providing to the user.
II. When the online gaming intermediary manufactures such items as winnings.
Annual Net Taxable Winning:
∑ Net taxable winning in a year = (amount withdrawn from the user account + the closing balance) – (non- taxable deposits
made in the user account + opening balance).
Central Board of Direct Taxes:
∑ It is a statutory body established as per the Central Board of Revenue Act, 1963.
∑ It is India’s official financial action task force unit.
∑ It deals with matters related to levying and collecting Direct Taxes and formulation of various policies related to direct taxes.
∑ The CBDT has been derived from the Central Board of Revenue that functioned as the apex body of the Income Tax
Department.
ÿ The Central Board of Revenue was set up under the Central Board of Revenue Act, 1924 and was in charge of
both direct and indirect taxes.
ÿ It got split in 1964 into two boards - Central Board of Direct Taxes and Central Board of Excise and
Customs.
∑ It is administered by the Department of Revenue under the Ministry of Finance.
∑ It has one chairman and six members.
∑ Nitin Gupta is the current chairperson of CBDT.
22. KHELO INDIA UNIVERSITY GAMES 2023
Recently: The third edition of the Khelo India University Games, organised in four cities of Uttar Pradesh, concluded in
Varanasi.
∑ The Games had begun on May 25 and were held across nine venues in Lucknow, Varanasi, Gorakhpur and Gautam
buddh Nagar.
∑ The opening ceremony was held in Lucknow.
∑ During the closing ceremony, a short film summarising the third edition of the Games was also screened.
∑ Around 4,000 athletes from 108 universities of India, all in the under-27 category, from various institutions will
feature in the event and vie for medals in 21 sports.
Winners:
∑ Panjab University stood first in the games with- a total of 69 medals — 26 gold, 17 silver and 26 bronze.
∑ Guru Nanak Dev University, Amritsar stood at the 2nd position with 68 medals — 24 gold, 27 silver, 17 bronze.
∑ Jain University, Karnataka was third with 32 medals — 16 gold, 10 silver, 6 bronze.
Khelo India Youth Games 2023:
∑ The 5th edition of the Khelo India Youth Games was held between January 30th until February 11th,2023. Madhya
Pradesh was the host this year.
∑ The opening ceremony was held in the Tatya Tope stadium of Bhopal.
∑ More than 5,000 athletes from the 36 states and Union Territories of India competed for 1,936 medals in 27 sports at
a total of 11 venues dispersed across eight cities in Madhya Pradesh and one in New Delhi.
∑ Madhya Pradesh stood first with 56 gold, 55 silver, and 50 bronze followed by Haryana.
∑ Water Sports were added for the first time this year.
∑ Canoeing, Kayaking, Rowing, and Canoe Slalom are some new games that have been included this time.
Khelo India Programme:
∑ National Programme for Development of Sports, branded as Khelo India, aims at improving India's sports culture at
the grass-root level through organized talent identification, structured sporting competitions and infrastructure development.
∑ It is a Government of India programme launched in 2017-18 under the tenure Prime Minister Narendra Modi and Sports
Ministers Vijay Goel and Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore.
∑ Competitions conducted under the programme –
ÿ Khelo India Youth Games- 1st edition in 2018 (New Delhi); Age Limit is 18.
ÿ Khelo India University Games- 1st edition in Kalinga Institute of Industrial Technology.
ÿ Khelo India Winter Games- 3 editions held since 2020 in Leh, Ladakh and Gulmarg.
∑ Ministry of Youth & Sports Affairs is the nodal ministry for the games.
∑ Anurag Thakur is the Minister of Youth & Sports Affairs currently.
23. SCO SUMMIT 2023
Recently: The much-anticipated 22nd Summit of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) will be held in a virtual mode
on 4 July, the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) announced without specifying the reason.
∑ It was widely reported that the meeting would take place in New Delhi, which could have seen the physical attendance of
Russian President Vladimir Putin, Chinese President Xi Jinping, Pakistan Prime Minister Shehbaz Sharif among others.
∑ According to a statement from the MEA, invitations were sent to heads of state of all SCO member countries — China,
Russia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan.
∑ Heads of six international and regional organisations such as the UN, ASEAN, CIS, CSTO, EAEU and CICA have also been
invited for the upcoming summit.
∑ Earlier in May, Pakistan foreign minister Bilawal Bhutto Zardari reached Goa to attend the SCO Foreign Ministers Council
meeting. It was the first official visit by a Pakistani foreign minister since 2011.
What is Shanghai Corporation Organization (SCO)?
∑ SCO is a Eurasian political, economic, international security and defence organization.

∑ It is the world's largest regional organization in terms of geographic scope and population.
∑ It covers approximately 60% of the area of Eurasia, 4% of the world population and 25% of the combined global GDP.
∑ Formation- The SCO is the successor to the Shanghai Five, formed in 1996 between the People's Republic of China,
Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, and Tajikistan.
ÿ Uzbekistan joined in 2001.
ÿ The SCO Charter was signed on 7 July 2002 and entered into force on 19 September 2003.
ÿ Its membership has since expanded to eight states, with India and Pakistan joining on 9 June 2017.
∑ It is headquartered in Beijing, China.
∑ Chinese and Russian are the official languages.
∑ Zhang Ming is the current Secretary General of SCO.

∑ SCO currently has 4 observers, interested in acceding to full membership – Afghanistan, Belarus, Iran and Mongolia.
∑ It has six dialogue partners- Armenia, Azerbaijan, Cambodia, Nepal, Srilanka and Turkey.
∑ India was admitted as an observer in SCO in 2005.
∑ Iran and Belarus are anticipated to gain full membership of SCO soon.
∑ The SCO is governed by the Heads of State Council (HSC), its supreme decision-making body, which meets once a year.
∑ Exercise Peaceful Mission is a biennial Multilateral and Joint Counter Terrorism Exercise conducted between the member
of SCO.
∑ Varanasi has been designed as the first cultural capital of SCO for 2023.
SCO Startup Forum 2023:
∑ The third edition of the Startup Forum of SCO was organized in New Delhi by the Department of Promotion for
Industry and Internal Trade, Ministry of Commerce recently.
∑ It was the first ever startup forum of SCO conducted in Physical form.
∑ Aim- Expanding the startup interactions amongst the SCO Member States
ÿ Nurturing the spirit of innovation
ÿ Generating more employment
ÿ Encouraging young talent to build innovative solutions.
∑ What happened?
ÿ Union Minister of State, Ministry of Commerce & Industry, Shri Som Parkash delivered the keynote address
highlighting the role of Startup Ecosystem in boosting the economy of a nation.
ÿ The delegates also attended a workshop conducted by Startup India on the ‘Role of Bilateral and Multilateral
Engagements in developing startup ecosystem’.
ÿ The delegation visited Foundation for Innovation and Technology Transfer (FITT) at Indian Institute of Technology
(IIT), Delhi, where a startup showcase was organised.
∑ The first-ever SCO Startup Forum was held in 2020 on virtual platform and the 2nd one in 2021 was also held in virtual
mode.
24. THE GLOBAL REPORT ON INTERNAL DISPLACEMENT, 2023 (GRID- 2023)
Recently: The eighth edition of the Global Report on Internal Displacement was recently released by the Internal
Displacement Monitoring Centre.
∑ It sheds light on the significant increase in the number of people displaced by disasters in 2022.
What is Internal Displacement?
∑ When a person is forced to leave their home but remains withing the country’s borders, it is called Internal Displacement.
Findings of the Report:
∑ 71.1 million people were living in internal displacement worldwide at t1he end of 2022, a 20 per cent increase in a year
and the highest number ever recorded.
∑ 60.9 million internal displacements, or movements, were recorded during the year, 60 per cent more than in 2021 and
also the highest figure ever.
∑ Displacement by Conflict:
ÿ No. of People displaced in 65 countries as of Dec 2022- 62.5 million.
ÿ 17% increase since 2021.
ÿ 60% of the global conflict pattern were recorded in Ukraine.
ÿ 6 out 10 of the internal displacements happened due to internal armed conflict.
ÿ Increase in the number of displacements triggered by non-international armed conflicts in the last three years, largely
the result of escalating violence in DRC, Ethiopia and Somali.
∑ Displacement by Disaster:
ÿ No. of People displaced in 88 countries as of Dec 2022- 8.7 million. 45% increase since 2021.
ÿ 53% share of the internal displacement is triggered by disasters.
ÿ 98% of the disaster displacement was triggered by weather related hazards such as floods, storms and drought.
ÿ 6 out of 10 disaster displacement was triggered by flood.
o 25% of the global disaster displacement were triggered by monsoon flooding in Pakistan. Pakistan, India
and Bangladesh were most affected by floods.
o Last year, India and Bangladesh started to experience flooding even before the official onset of the monsoon
season.
o Assam was affected by early floods in May, and the same areas were again flooded in June. Nearly five
million people were affected across the state.
o In India, the total internal displacement was 25 lakhs in 2022 because of climate crisis.
o India experienced extreme weather events on 314 days in 2022.
ÿ Storms triggered around 1.1 million internal displacements across South Asia in 2022.
o Cyclone Sitrang led to 66,000 displacements in Odisha and West Bengal.
o Cyclone Asani triggered 1,500 displacements in Andhra Pradesh and Cyclone Mandous 9,500 in Tamil
Nadu.
ÿ 1.1 million people were displaced in Somalia, as the country experienced the worst drought in 40 years.
ÿ 2% of the population of Tonga was force to displace after an extremely rare volcanic eruption.
ÿ Pakistan topped the list of countries with the highest number of disaster displacements in 2022.
ÿ India ranked fourth, with 2.5 million displacements.
ÿ La Niña, the cooler phase of the El Niño Southern Oscillation, played a crucial role in the increase in disasters in
2022.
o GRID-2023 attributes the rise in weather-related disasters, especially floods, to the prolonged three-year La
Niña phenomenon.
o Its effects continued for a third consecutive year, leading to widespread disasters across the globe.
∑ Regional Overview:
ÿ Sub-Saharan Africa experienced the highest-ever displacement due to disasters in 2022, with 16.5 million
internal displacements—an increase of 17% from the previous year.
ÿ South Asia witnessed double the annual average of disaster displacements, reaching 12.5 million.
ÿ In contrast, the East Asia and Pacific region experienced fewer displacements due to less intense rainy and
cyclone seasons.
Internal Displacement Monitoring Centre:
∑ The Internal Displacement Monitoring Centre or IDMC is an International non-governmental organization established in
1998 by the Norwegian Refugee Council in Geneva.
∑ It is focused on monitoring and providing information and analysis on the world's internally displaced persons (IDPs).
∑ IDMC also develops statistics and analysis on internal displacement, including analysis commissioned for use by the United
Nations.
25. MILLET EXPERIENCE CENTRE
Recently: Union Minister of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare, Shri Narendra Singh Tomar, along with the Managing Director of
National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India (NAFED), Shri Rajbir Singh, commemorated the launch of the
first of its kind ‘Millets Experience Centre (MEC)’ at Dilli Haat, INA, New Delhi today.
∑ NAFED in collaboration with the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare (MoA&FW) established the Millets
Experience Centre with an aim to raise awareness on Millets and encourage its adoption among general public.
∑ United Nations declared 2023 as the International Year for Millets.
∑ Dilli Haat is a national & cultural hub for visitors from all around the world, the MEC will further help the global outreach of
the local millets and provide visitors a chance to witness India’s Millet Movement.
∑ Recognising the enormous potential of Millets, which also aligns with several UN Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), the
Government of India (GoI) has prioritized Millets.
Millets:
∑ Millets are a highly varied group of small-seeded grasses, widely grown around the world as cereal crops or grains for fodder
and human food.
∑ Most species generally referred to as Millet belong to the tribe Paniceae.
∑ All the millets belong the Family Poaceae.
∑ ‘Millets’ were among the first crops to be domesticated in India with several evidence of its consumption during the Indus
valley civilization.
∑ Being grown in more than 130 countries at present, Millets are considered traditional food for more than half a billion people
across Asia and Africa.
∑ In April 2018, Millets were rebranded as “Nutri Cereals”, followed by the year 2018 being declared as the National Year
of Millets by India.
∑ Some of the common millets available in India are Ragi (Finger millet), Jowar (Sorghum), Sama (Little millet), Bajra
(Pearl millet), and Variga (Proso millet).
∑ India, Nigeria and China are the largest producers of millets in the world, accounting for more than 55% of the global
production.
∑ India is the largest producer and accounts for 80% of Asia’s production and 20% of global production.
∑ They have been referred as Shree Anna in the Union Budget 2023-24.
International Year for Millet:
∑ In the 75th session of United Nations in March 2021, Food and Agriculture Organization and United Nations
recognised 2023 as 'International Year of Millets’ for awareness about health and nutritional benefits of millets.
∑ This was a result of India’s proposal supported by 72 countries.
∑ The declaration positioned India at the forefront of the celebrations and the Government of India has been working on
‘mission mode’ to champion millets as a crop good for farmer, environment and consumer.
∑ FAO is the lead agency for celebrating the Year in collaboration with other relevant stakeholders.
∑ In India, millets are primarily a kharif crop (June to November), requiring less water and agricultural inputs than other
similar staples.
∑ The global millets market is projected to register a CAGR of 4.5% during the forecast period between 2021-2026.
Food and Agricultural Organization:
∑ The Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations that leads
international efforts to defeat hunger and improve nutrition and food security.
∑ It was founded on 16 October 1945 at Quebec City, Canada.
∑ October 16th is observed as the World Food Day every year to mark the foundation of Food and Agriculture Organization.
∑ It comprises 195 members, including 194 countries and the European Union.
∑ It is headquartered in Rome, Italy.
∑ Qu Dongyu is the current Director General of the FAO.
National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India (NAFED):
∑ It was founded on the birthday of Mahatma Gandhi on 2nd October, 1958 to promote to trade of agricultural produce and
forest resources across the nation.
∑ It is registered as a Multi-State Cooperative Society.
∑ It is one of the largest products and marketing agencies for the agricultural products in India.
∑ NAFED is headquartered in New Delhi and has four regional offices at Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata.
26. LAW COMMISSION’S RECOMMENDATION ON SEDITION
Recently: In its 279th Report, the Law Commission of India has recommended the retention of Section 124A of the Indian
Penal Code which contains the Law of Sedition.
∑ The SC had, through an order in May last year in S.G. Vombatkere v. Union of India, put the law enacted in 1860 in
abeyance with an instruction to the central and state governments not to file any FIR under Section 124A while suspending
all investigations, trials and proceedings under this law.
∑ The government had promised to bring suitable amendments in the controversial provisions of the sedition law and referred
the matter to the Law Commission for a detailed study.
What is Sedition:
∑ Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) defines sedition as “Whoever, by words, either spoken or written, or by
signs, or by visible representation, or otherwise, brings or attempts to bring into hatred or contempt, or excites or attempts
to excite disaffection towards the Government established by law in India shall be punished with imprisonment for life, to
which fine may be added, or with imprisonment which may extend to three years, to which fine may be added, or with fine.”
∑ It was drafted by Thomas Babington Macaulay in IPC 1837 as section 113 but it was omitted from the IPC 1860.
ÿ Later in 1870, Sir James Stephen introduced it by an amendment.
∑ It is a non- bailable offence and a person charged with Sedition cannot apply for a government job.
∑ They cannot have their passport and have to be present before the court whenever required.
∑ Incidentally, the sedition charge was abolished by the United Kingdom in 2010.
Recent recommendations of the Law Commission:
∑ The panel’s recommendations provide for compulsory investigation of a case by an inspector-rank officer and
approval of the central or state government before registering an FIR under Section 124A.
ÿ Amendment should be made in section 154 of CrPC to incorporate the above provision.
ÿ The reasons for registration of the FIR are to be recorded in writing and only thereafter, permission shall be granted
∑ The commission recommended a maximum life term, or seven years, or just a fine, depending on the case.
ÿ Currently, the penal provision has a maximum punishment of life term, or three years, or fine.
Important judgments related to sedition:
∑ Queen Empress vs Bal Gangadhar Tilak 1897- The court held that Sedition is exciting or attempting to excite in others
certain bad feelings towards the government.
ÿ The court held that even if there was no excitement or attempt to excite mutiny or rebellion or any sort of actual
disturbance, exciting dissatisfaction is enough to charge someone for Sedition.
ÿ Privy Council, the highest appellate court of that time, upheld this exposition of law.
∑ Ram Nandan vs State of Uttar Pradesh 1958- It was the first case to address the legitimacy of Section 124A.
ÿ Allahabad High Court held that Section 124A of the IPC was ultra vires in character and violated Article 19(1)(a) of
the Constitution (right to freedom of speech and expression).
∑ Kedar Nath Singh vs State of Bihar case 1962- The constitutional validity of Section 124A was again challenged in
Supreme Court.
ÿ The Supreme Court ruling was that for a crime to be established as sedition under Section 124A, there must be said
or written remarks that have the potential to cause disruption or disturbance of public order by means of violence.
ÿ It meant there is no offence unless the statements are likely to incite violence.
ÿ This verdict thus overruled the decision of the Allahabad High Court as the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional
validity of the Law of Sedition.
∑ Balwant Singh And Anr vs State of Punjab 1995- The Supreme Court ruled that simply raising slogans like "Khalistan
Zindabad" and "Raj Karega Khalsa" in public places do not amount to sedition in the absence of evidence or record of
occurrence of violence.
∑ Vinod Dua vs Union of India (2021)- The petitioner in a Youtube video presented a critical analysis of the Covid-induced
nationwide lockdown, to major health issues and insufficient testing facilities, along with scarcity of information regarding
availability of materials like PPE kits, N95 masks, etc.
ÿ the apex court quashed a sedition case registered against senior journalist and held that a citizen has a right to
criticise or comment upon the measures undertaken by the government and its functionaries so long as he does not
incite people to violence against the government established by law or with the intention of creating public disorder.
∑ State vs Disha A. Ravi (2021)- Disha A. Ravi, a 22-year-old environment activist was taken in custody for her
involvement in the toolkit case during the farmer's movement against the new farmer's bills in 2020. She was accused of
sedition and criminal conspiracy.
ÿ In the absence of evidence, the court set her free and upheld that dissent and divergence of thoughts was a sign of
healthy democracy as free speech is a Constitutionally granted fundamental right.
Law Commission of India:
∑ It is an executive body constituted by the Government of India from time to time.

∑ The first Law Commission was established during the British Raj era in 1834 by the Charter Act of 1833 and was chaired
by Lord Macaulay.
∑ The first Law Commission of independent India was established in 1955 for a three-year term.
∑ Rituraj Awasthi is the Chairman of the current and 22nd Law Commission of India.
∑ The current law commission was constituted in February, 2020, for a period of three years. Its extended term will end
on 31st August, 2024.
27. NITI AAYOG’S ANNUAL HEALTH INDEX
Recently: NITI Aayog released the 5th Annual ‘Health Index’ for the Covid year of 2020-21.
Rankings:
∑ Large States- Total 19 large states are a part of the ranking.

ÿ Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Telangana have emerged as the top three performers, occupying first, second and third
place respectively, in terms of overall performance.
ÿ In terms of incremental performance, Rajasthan, Uttarakhand and Odisha emerged as the top three
performers in 2020-21, as compared to their performance in 2019-20.
ÿ Bihar (19th), Uttar Pradesh (18th) and Madhya Pradesh (17th) are at the bottom of the list.
∑ Small States- Total eight small states are a part of the ranking.
ÿ Tripura has recorded the best overall performance, followed by Sikkim and Goa.
ÿ Arunachal Pradesh (6th), Nagaland (7th) and Manipur (8th) are at the bottom.
∑ Union Territories- Total eight Union Territories are a part of the ranking.
ÿ Lakshadweep has been ranked as the top performer in terms of overall performance.
ÿ Delhi is ranked at the bottom.
What NITI Aayog’s Annual Health Index?
∑ The Index was launched by NITI Aayog in 2017.

∑ The Aayog brings out the index in collaboration with the Union Health Ministry and World Bank.
∑ It measures the performance of states and UTs on a “weighted composite score incorporating 24 health performance
indicators grouped under the domains of ‘health outcomes’, ‘governance and information’, and ‘key inputs/ processes’.
ÿ The ‘health outcomes’ include indicators like - neonatal mortality rate, total fertility rate, sex ratio at birth,
immunisation coverage, proportion of institutional deliveries, total case notification rate of tuberculosis, and
proportion of people living with HIV on antiretroviral therapy.
ÿ The ‘governance and information’ domain includes indicators like proportion of institutional deliveries, average
occupancy (in months) of three key posts at state level, average occupancy (in months) of the chief medical officer,
and days taken for fund transfer.
ÿ The ‘key inputs/ processes’ is a measure of health infrastructure available, including proportion of functional 24X7
primary healthcare centres, districts with functional cardiac care units, and vacancies in healthcare provider positions.
∑ It assesses states and UTs on two parameters – incremental performance (year-on-year progress) and overall
performance.
∑ The states and UTs — categorised separately as ‘larger states’, ‘smaller states’ and UTs — are then ranked based on their
scores.
What is NITI Aayog?
∑ On January 1st, 2015, the Planning Commission was substituted by a new organization called NITI Aayog.
∑ Planning Commission- The Planning Commission was an institution in the Government of India, which was set in 1950
under the chairmanship of PM Jawaharlal Nehru to formulate India's Five-Year Plans, among other functions.
∑ The establishment of NITI Aayog aimed to promote a ‘Bottom-Up’ approach and achieve the goal of Maximum Governance,
Minimum Government, aligning with the principles of Cooperative Federalism.
∑ NITI Aayog consists of two main components-
ÿ Team India Hub- serves as a communication link between the States and the Central Government.
ÿ Knowledge and Innovation Hub- enhances the think-tank capabilities of NITI Aayog.
∑ Prime Minister Narendra Modi chaired the 8th Governing Council Meeting of NITI Aayog recently.
ÿ The Meeting was held at the New Convention Centre, Pragati Maidan, New Delhi, which is the venue of the G20
Summit, 2023.
ÿ It was attended by Chief Ministers and Lieutenant Governors representing 19 States and 6 Union Territories.
ÿ The theme for the meeting- Viksit Bharat @ 2047.
∑ Governing Council: It is the premier body trusted with developing a shared vision of national priorities and strategies with
the active involvement of States and Union Territories.
ÿ It is a platform to discuss inter-sectoral, inter-departmental and federal issues.
ÿ Its composition includes the Prime Minister of India, Chief Ministers of all states and union territories with legislative
bodies, Lieutenant Governors of other Union Territories, Ex-Officio Members, Vice Chairman (NITI Aayog), Full-Time
Members (NITI Aayog), and Special Invitees.
∑ BVR Subramanyam is the current CEO of the NITI Aayog.
World Bank:
∑ The World Bank is an international financial institution that provides loans and grants to the governments of low- and
middle-income countries for the purpose of pursuing capital projects
∑ It was established along with the International Monetary Fund at the 1944 Bretton Woods Conference.
∑ It is headquartered in Washington D.C.
∑ The World Bank is the collective name for the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) and
International Development Association (IDA).
∑ The IBRD has 189 countries while the IDA has 174 countries.
∑ Ajay Banga is the current and 14th President of World Bank.
28. SUPREME COURT’S MAHARASHTRA VERDICT
Recently: In a unanimous judgment on the various issues related to the split in Shiv Sena in June 2022, the Supreme Court made
strong observations about the role of the then Governor of Maharashtra and the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly.
The Disqualification Issue: The Supreme Court did not intervene in the issue considering that Speaker is the appropriate
authority for this under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution (the anti-defection law).
∑ The Anti- Defection Law does not allow judicial interference until the Presiding Officer or the Speaker giver his order.
∑ It was noted that there were “no extraordinary circumstances” warranting the court adjudicating in the matter.
∑ It also clarified that an MLA has the right to participate in proceedings of the House regardless of pendency of any
petitions for disqualification.
∑ The SC said that while deciding disqualification pleas, the Speaker must consider the constitution of the Shiv Sena, which
was submitted to the Election Commission (EC) with the consent of both the factions, mentioning the removal of Para 3 of
the Anti- Defection Law (Para 3 explained below).
Anti- Defection Law:

∑ The Tenth Schedule was inserted in the Constitution in 1985 by the 52nd Amendment Act.
∑ It lays down the process by which legislators may be disqualified on grounds of defection or Anti- Defection Law.
∑ Conditions for disqualification under anti- defection law- A member of a house can be disqualified if he/she:-
ÿ Voluntarily gives up the membership of his political party; or
ÿ Votes, or does not vote in the legislature, contrary to the directions of his political party without taking proper
permission or informing before 15 days of such voting.
ÿ If an independent candidate joins a political party after the election.
ÿ If a nominated member joins a party six months after he becomes a member of the legislature.
∑ Paragraph 4 of the law states that disqualification on ground of merger will not apply in case of merger, provided if the
said merger is with two-thirds of the member of the legislative party who have consented to the merger.
∑ Paragraph 3 exempted disqualifications arising out of split with one-third of the members defecting from a political party.
ÿ This paragraph was omitted after amending the schedule by the 91st amendment act of 2003.
∑ The law initially stated that the decision of the Presiding Officer is not subject to judicial review.
ÿ This condition was struck down by the Supreme Court in 1992, thereby allowing appeals against the Presiding
Officer’s decision in the High Court and Supreme Court.
ÿ However, it held that there may not be any judicial intervention until the Presiding Officer gives his order.
The Floor Test Issue:

∑ The court said that then Maharashtra Governor Bhagat Singh Koshyari was not justified in calling for a floor test on
June 30, 2022, as he did not have objective material to show that the incumbent government had lost the confidence of the
House.
∑ In Shivraj Singh Chouhan & Ors vs Speaker, MP Legislative Assembly, the court upheld the power of the Governor
to call for a floor test if there is a prima facie view that the government has lost majoiry.
∑ The Governor’s action led to the resignation of the Uddhav Thackeray-led Maha Vikas Aghadi government.
∑ But the Court also said that it could not reinstate Mr. Thackeray as Chief Minister because he had resigned instead of
facing the trust vote.
What is a floor Test?

∑ A floor test or a “No Confidence Motion” is a legislative measure conducted on the floor of the House to check whether
the executive has the majority support (51%) in the legislature.
∑ It is called for when an incumbent government is suspected to have lost the majority in the house.
∑ Under the Article 164 of the Indian Constitution, “the council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Legislative
Assembly of the State.” Therefore, the party of the ministers must have a majority.
Governor’s Powers:
∑ Article 163- Governor acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister.
∑ Article 174- Governor can summon, dissolve and prorogue the state legislative assembly.
ÿ Article 174(2)(b)- The governor can dissolve the assembly on aid and advice of the cabinet.
∑ Article 175(2)- The governor can summon the house and call for a floor test.
The Whip Issue:

∑ The matter
ÿ As the Shiv Sena MLAs’ rebellion was unfolding, on June 21, 2022, the party chief whip, Sunil Prabhu, issued a whip
directing all the MLAs to attend a meeting at CM Uddhav Thackeray’s residence.
ÿ Those in attendance passed a resolution to remove Eknath Shinde as Group Leader of its legislative party.
ÿ The Shinde-led faction then issued its own resolution, removing Prabhu as the whip and appointing Bharat Gogawale
in his place.
ÿ After assuming office, Speaker Rahul Narvekar recognised Gogawale as the whip.
∑ The Judgement:
ÿ The SC said the Speaker did not attempt to identify which of the two persons were authorised by the political party.
ÿ It added that the Speaker should have conducted an independent inquiry based on the rules of the party.
ÿ It deemed the Speaker’s decision recognising Gogawale as the whip to be illegal, as he had not verified if it was
the decision of the political party.
Legislature Party, Political Party Issue:

∑ Legislature Party- It is a party which has been recognized by the Election Commission for the purpose of conducting
elections, is allotted a common symbol and has been elected to the House.
∑ Political Party- It is an organization that coordinated candidates to compete elections in a particular country.
∑ The court said that as per provisions of the Representation of the People Act, an association of individuals calling itself a
political party has to be registered with the EC.
∑ Questions arose on whose whip is binding if the whip appointed by the political party and the one acting on behalf of the
legislature party (the Shinde group in this case) give different instructions to members.
∑ The court said that a whip interacts with members of the legislature party to communicate the directions of the political
party. Therefore, it is the political party and not the legislature party which appoints the Whip and the Leader of the party in
the House”.
Speaker and EC adjudication Issue:

∑ The court said it could not accept the Thackeray group’s contention that the EC was barred from deciding on the party
symbol dispute until the Speaker decided the disqualification pleas before him.
∑ The court said this would amount to “indefinitely staying proceedings before the ECI”, as the Speaker’s decision would attain
finality only after the appeals against his decision were disposed of.
29. WORLD TELECOMMUNICATION DAY, 2023
Recently: World Telecommunication and Information Society Day was observed on May 17th.
∑ World Telecommunication and Information Society Day is celebrated every year on May 17.
∑ The purpose is to help raise awareness of the possibilities the Internet and other information and communication
technologies (ICT) can bring to societies and economies.
∑ On May 17, 1969, World Telecommunications Day was first observed to mark the founding of the ITU, originally called the
International Telegraph Union.
∑ The date, May 17, was also declared as World Information Society Day by the United Nations General Assembly
(UNGA) in a March 2006 resolution.
∑ In November of the same year, the ITU Plenipotentiary Conference clubbed the two days collectively as World
Telecommunication and Information Society Day.
∑ Theme for 2023- “Empowering the least developed countries through information and communication
technologies” is the theme for is the theme of this year’s World Telecommunication and Information Society Day
programme which will be held in Geneva, Switzerland.
∑ India has the largest telecommunication industry in the world. China is the largest.
International Telecommunication Union

∑ The ITU was established by the signing of the very first International Telegraph Convention, on May 17, 1865, in Paris.
∑ It changed its name to International Telecommunication Union in 1932 and eventually became a specialised agency of the
United Nations in 1947.
∑ It is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland.
∑ Doreen Bogdan-Martin is the Secretary-General of ITU, the first woman to serve as its head.
30. CPEC EXTENDED TO AFGHANISTAN
Recently: Afghanistan has decided to join the multi-billion China Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC), which will help the
landlocked country to become a center of trade and attract investment, a senior Afghan official said on Tuesday.
∑ China has proposed construction of the Peshawar-Kabul motorway as an extension of CPEC in Afghanistan.
∑ This was decided at the 5th China-Afghanistan-Pakistan Foreign Ministers’ Dialogue held among the Pakistan
Foreign Minister Bilawal Bhutto Zardari, his Chinese counterpart Qin Gang and Afghanistan’s Taliban-appointed acting
Foreign Minister Mawlawi Amir Khan Muttaqi.
China Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC):

∑ It is a massive bilateral project to improve infrastructure within Pakistan for better trade with China and to further integrate
the countries of South Asia.
∑ It is part of the larger Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) Announced in 2013.
∑ The project was launched on April 20, 2015, when Chinese Pres. Xi Jinping and Pakistani Prime Minister Nawaz Sharif
signed 51 agreements and memorandums of understanding valued at $46 billion.
∑ It worth of the project rose to $65 bn as of 2022.
∑ It aims to connect the deep-sea Pakistani ports of Gwadar and Karachi to the Xinjiang Uygur Autonomous Region in
China and beyond by overland routes.
∑ India has objected to the CPEC as it traverses through Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (PoK).
Belt and Road Initiative:

∑ The Belt and Road Initiative or the One Belt One Road Initiative (OBOR) initiative was announced in 2013 by China’s
President Xi Jinping.
∑ It is a global infrastructure development strategy to invest in more than 150 countries and international organizations.
∑ The plan is two-pronged:
ÿ the overland Silk Road Economic Belt
ÿ Maritime Silk Road

∑ The project involves creating a vast network of railways, energy pipelines, highways, and streamlined border crossings.
∑ The Indian security establishment is deeply suspicious of China’s silk road initiatives.
31. ANNUAL REPORT ON RELIGIOUS FREEDOM
Recently: Washington, D.C. – The United States Commission on International Religious Freedom (USCIRF) released its
2023 Annual Report.
∑ The report provides recommendations to improve the promotion of freedom of religion or belief abroad.
∑ International Religious Freedom Day was observed every year on October 27th.
∑ International Day for the victims of acts of violence based on religion is observed on August 22nd.
Key Findings:
∑ USCIRF recommends 17 countries to the State Department for designation as Countries of Particular Concern (CPCs)
because their governments engage in or tolerate “systematic, ongoing, and egregious violations” of the right to freedom of
religion or belief.
ÿ Country of Particular Concern- It is designation by US Secretary of State of a nation guilty of particularly severe
violations of religious freedom under International Religious Freedom Act of 1998 and its amendment of 1999.
ÿ 12 out of these 17 countries were already designated as CPCs by the State Department. They are: Burma, China,
Cuba, Eritrea, Iran, Nicaragua, North Korea, Pakistan, Russia, Saudi Arabia, Tajikistan, and Turkmenistan
ÿ Remaining 5, Afghanistan, India, Nigeria, Syria, and Vietnam, are additional recommendations.
ÿ For the first time ever, the State Department designated Cuba and Nicaragua as CPCs in 2022.
∑ The 2023 Annual Report also recommends 11 countries for placement on the State Department’s Special Watch List
SWL based on their governments’ perpetration or toleration of severe religious freedom violations.
ÿ These include two that the State Department placed on that list in November 2022: Algeria and Central African
Republic (CAR)
ÿ Nine additional recommendation- Azerbaijan, Egypt, Indonesia, Iraq, Kazakhstan, Malaysia, Sri Lanka, Turkey, and
Uzbekistan.
ÿ USCIRF is recommending the State Department add Sri Lanka to the SWL for the first time.
∑ USCIRF further recommends to the State Department seven non-state actors for redesignation as “entities of particular
concern” (EPCs).
ÿ They are: al-Shabaab, Boko Haram, the Houthis, Hay’at Tahrir al-Sham (HTS), Islamic State in the Greater Sahara
(ISGS), Islamic State in West Africa Province (ISWAP or ISIS-West Africa), and Jamaat Nasr al-Islam wal Muslimin
(JNIM).
ÿ All seven already designated in November 2022.
India:
About the anti- conversion laws-

∑ The report suggests that the anti- conversion laws being enacted in multiple states are against the Article 18 of the
Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948, provides that everyone has the right to freedom of religion or belief
including “freedom to change” their religious beliefs.
∑ Article 18(1) of the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR), 1976, provides that everyone
has the “freedom to have or to adopt a religion or belief” of their choice.
∑ Twelve of India’s 28 states have anti-conversion laws as of February 2023: Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat,
Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Rajasthan, Uttarakhand, and Uttar Pradesh.
∑ It mentions that India’s state-level anti-conversion laws prohibit conversions under circumstances that go beyond coercion,
using broad and vague language that can be used to target voluntary religious conversions.
∑ The report mentions the example of Section 3 of the Uttar Pradesh Prohibition of Unlawful Conversion of Religion
Act, 2021 which provides that provides that “no person shall convert or attempt to convert” another individual, directly or
otherwise, by “misrepresentation, force, undue influence, coercion, allurement or by any fraudulent means.
ÿ Violations of section three are punishable by prison terms between one and five years and a fine of at least 15,000
Indian rupees.
ÿ Punishments are enhanced if an individual converts or attempts to convert a minor, woman, or person to Scheduled
Caste which is punishable by prison terms between two and 10 years and a fine of at least 25,000 rupees.
ÿ In case of Scheduled Tribes, it is, prison terms between three and 10 years and a fine of at least 50,000 rupees.
∑ The laws are considered draconian and violative by the report.
∑ Laws regarding interfaith relationships, hijab, and cow slaughter, as well as the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 and the
National Register of Citizens (NRC) have also criticized by the report of their potential to discriminate on the basis of religion.
United States Commission on International Religious Freedom (USCIRF):

∑ The United States Commission on International Religious Freedom (USCIRF) is a U.S. federal government commission
created by the International Religious Freedom Act (IRFA) of 1998.
∑ USCIRF Commissioners are appointed by the President and the leadership of both political parties in the Senate and the
House of Representatives.
∑ It is headquartered in Washington DC.
∑ Nury Turkel is the current chair of USCIRF.
Provisions of Indian Constitution for Religious Freedom:

∑ Article 25- Freedom of Conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion.
∑ Article 26- Freedom to manage religious affairs.
∑ Article 27- Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion.
∑ Article 28- Freedom for attendance of religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions.
Landmark Judgements regarding religious Freedom:

∑ Bijoe Emmanuel v. State of Kerala, 1987- The case involves three students who refused to sing the national anthem of
India on religious grounds who were expelled from the school.
ÿ The Supreme Court held that the action of the school authorities in expelling the three students was arbitrary and
violative of the Fundamental Right to Freedom of Conscience and Religion.
ÿ The Court observed that the students' right to Freedom of Conscience and Religion extends to not only the holding of
their beliefs but also to the act of expressing or practising their beliefs.
∑ The Ahmedabad St. Xaviers College vs State of Gujarat,1974- In this case, St. Xavier's College challenged state
legislation encroaching upon the right of minority educational institutions to autonomy.
ÿ The petitioner challenged certain provisions of Gujarat University Act, 1972, to be violative of the autonomy of the
educational institutions.
ÿ Supreme Court rightly pointed out that” the whole object of conferring the right on the minorities under Article 30 is
to ensure that there will be equality between the majority and the minority. If the minorities do lnot have such special
protection, they will be denied equality.”
∑ Shayara Bano v. Union of India (Triple Talaq case)- Shayara Bano v. Union of India was a landmark case heard by
the Supreme Court of India in 2017.
ÿ The case dealt with the practice of "triple talaq," a form of instant divorce prevalent in the Muslim community in
India, where a husband could divorce his wife by saying the word "talaq" three times.
ÿ The bench delivered a historic verdict, striking down the practice of triple talaq and declaring it unconstitutional and
illegal.
ÿ The Court also observed that personal laws must be subject to the test of constitutional validity and gender justice,
and Article 25(2) says that if any religious practice violates the fundamental rights, then it can be struck down by the
Supreme Court.
ÿ It held that the practice of Triple Talaq was derogatory and was a violation of Article 14 (Right to Equality).
32. CONTROVERSY AROUND MOHENJODARO’S DANCING GIRL FIGURINE
Recently: The Dancing Girl figurine discovered in Mohenjodaro in 1926 found itself at the centre of controversy.
What happened?
∑ On the occasion of International Museum Day (May 18), Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the International
Museum Expo in Delhi’s Pragati Maidan.
∑ During the ceremony, PM Modi also unveiled the Expo’s mascot – a “contemporised” version of the famous Dancing Girl
of Mohenjodaro.
∑ The over five-feet tall adaptation drew flak from several quarters for distorting the original figure’s form.
∑ The 10.5cm figurine is a naturalistic free-standing dark-skinned sculpture of a nude woman, with small breasts,
narrow hips, long legs and arms, and a short torso.
ÿ She wears a stack of 25 bangles on her left arm. She has very long legs and arms compared to her torso.
ÿ Her head is tilted slightly backward and her left leg is bent at the knee.
ÿ On her right arm are four bangles, two at the wrist, two above the elbow; that arm is bent at the elbow, with her
hand on her hip.
ÿ She wears a necklace with three large pendants, and her hair is in a loose bun, twisted in a spiral fashion and pinned
in place at the back of her head.
∑ Against this, the adapted mascot has fairer skin, and is dressed in a bright pink blouse and an off-white waist-
coat.
Government’ s Justification:
∑ The Ministry of Culture insists it is not a transformation or a new look to the original piece of art, but just “an inspired craft
work”. “
∑ The idea of introducing the mascot, especially through a toy, was also to bring forth the importance of Museum
merchandise and in turn, self-sustainability of these cultural institutions
∑ They added that the Mascot was a stylised and contemporised life size (5 ft as compared to the original 10 cm) figure
inspired from the Dancing Girl of the Sindhu Saraswati Sabhyata.
∑ The Mascot was also to be interpreted as a modern-day Dwarpal or Door Guardian to usher audiences into the
experience of Expo.
∑ The traditional craft of Channapatna toys, also protected by a GI (geographical indication) tag since 2005, was used to
create this mascot.
The Dancing Girl:

∑ The Dancing Girl of Mohenjo-Daro is what generations of besotted archaeologists have named a 10.8 centimeter (4.25
inch) tall copper-bronze statuette found in the ruins of Mohenjo Daro.
∑ The Dancing Girl figurine was sculpted using the lost wax (cire perdue) process, which involves making a mold and
pouring molten metal into it.
∑ The Dancing Girl was discovered in an excavation in 1926, by British archaeologist Ernest McKay in a ruined house in the
‘ninth lane’ of the ‘HR area’ of Mohenjodaro’s citadel.
∑ Even though Mohenjodaro and Harappa became part of Pakistani territory after the Partition, the Dancing Girl remained in
India as part of an agreement.
∑ Today, the bronze figurine sits in the National Museum of India, New Delhi.
The Harappan Civilization and Mohenjodaro:

∑ The Indus Civilisation (3300-1300 BC with its mature stage dated to 2600-1900 BC), also known as the Harappa-
Mohenjodaro Civilisation, was discovered in 1924.
∑ In 1920s, the Archaeological Department of India carried out excavations in the Indus valley wherein the ruins of the two
old cities, viz. Mohenjodaro and Harappa were unearthed.
∑ In 1924, John Marshall, Director-General of the Archaeological Survey of India, announced the discovery of a new
civilisation in the Indus valley to the world.
∑ Harappa- It was discovered by Daya Ram Sahini in 1921.
ÿ It is situated on the bank of river Ravi in Montgomery district of Punjab (Pakistan).
∑ Mohenjodaro- It was discovered by R.D Banerjee in 1922.

ÿ It is situated on the Bank of river Indus in Larkana district of Punjab (Pakistan).
∑ In 2021, The Harappan city of Dholavira in Gujarat became the first site of Indus valley Civilization to be included in the list
of World Heritage Sites of UNESCO.
International Museum Day:

∑ Every year, on May 18, IMD is observed to raise public awareness of museums.
∑ The Day was instituted in 1977 by the International Council of Museums (ICOM).
∑ Theme for 2023 (47th edition of the day)- Museums, Sustainability and Wellbeing.
∑ Each year since 2020, the International Museum Day supports a set of Goals from the Sustainable Development Goals of the
United Nations. In 2023, we will focus on:
ÿ Sustainable Development Goal 3- Health and Wellbeing
ÿ Sustainable Development Goal 13- Climate Action
ÿ Sustainable Development Goal 15- Life on Land
∑ The Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi inaugurated the International Museum Expo 2023 at Pragati Maidan in New
Delhi on the occasion of International Museum Day.
∑ He also inaugurated a virtual walkthrough of the upcoming National Museum at the North and South Blocks.
∑ The Prime Minister also mentioned that the development of ten special museums is underway to immortalize the
contributions of the tribal communities in India’s freedom struggle.
33. POSHAN BHI, PADHAI BHI
Recently: Union Minister for Women and Child Development Smriti Irani launched the Centre’s flagship programme ‘Poshan
Bhi, Padhai Bhi’, which will focus on Early Childhood Care and Education (ECCE) at anganwadis across the country.
∑ The ministry has allocated Rs 600 crore for the training of anganwadi workers to implement the ECCE.
∑ The National Institute of Public Cooperation and Child Development (NIPCCD) has been roped in for the training
of Anganwadi workers
∑ The ECCE will focus on education in the mother tongue, as per the New Education Policy, she said.
∑ As per the guidelines of the National Education Policy 2020, with ‘Poshan bhi Padhai bhi, Government has taken up the goal
of strengthening the foundations of the country’s future generations.
∑ Government will target children’s development in every domain mentioned in the National Curriculum Framework, viz.,
physical and motor development, cognitive development, socio-emotional-ethical development, cultural/artistic development,
and the development of communication and early language, literacy, and numeracy.
∑ All States will follow the national ECCE taskforce recommendations for a play-based, activity-based learning pedagogy,
targeted specifically at developmental milestones of 0-3year olds as well as 3-6year olds, including special support for
Divyang children.
∑ Every child would be provided with at least two hours of high-quality pre-school instruction on a daily basis.
What is an Anganwadi?
∑ An Anganwadi is a type of rural child care centre in India.
∑ They were started by the Indian government in 1975 as part of the Integrated Child Development Services program to
combat child hunger and malnutrition.
∑ A typical Anganwadi centre provides basic health care in a village.
∑ These centres provide supplementary nutrition, non-formal pre-school education, nutrition, and health education,
immunization, health check-up and referral services of which the last three are provided in convergence with public health
systems
∑ There are close to 13.9 lakh operational Anganwadi centres across the country.
ÿ They are providing supplementary nutrition and early care and education to around 8 crore beneficiary children under
the age of 6 years, making it the largest public provisioning of such services in the world.
ÿ Considering global evidence on 85% of brain development being achieved by the age of 6 years, the Anganwadi
eco-system becomes a critical access point for building our children’s base, in order to secure their future.
New Education Policy (NEP):
∑ The National Education Policy of India 2020 (NEP 2020), which was started by the Union Cabinet of India on 29 July 2020,
outlines the vision of new education system of India.
∑ The new policy replaces the previous National Policy on Education, 1986.
∑ The first education policy of India was formulated in 1968.
∑ Universalization of education from preschool to secondary level with 100% Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER) in school education
by 2030.
∑ It aims the 10+2 system to be replaced by a new 5+3+3+4 curricular structure.
∑ It will also have 12 years of schooling with three years of Anganwadi/ pre schooling.
34. INTERNATIONAL DAY FOR BIODIVERSITY 2023
Recently: The International Day for Biodiversity 2023 was observed in May 22.
∑ Every year, May 22 is observed as International Day for Biological Diversity (IDB) to promote comprehension and
consciousness of biodiversity concerns.
∑ This global event, also referred to as World Biodiversity Day, revolves around acknowledging biodiversity's vital role in
supporting our nourishment and well-being, and as a fundamental driver for enhancing food systems and human health.
What is Biodiversity?
∑ Biodiversity describes the richness and variety of life on earth. It is the most complex and important feature of our
planet. Without biodiversity, life would not sustain.
∑ The term biodiversity was coined in 1985.
∑ It is important in natural as well as artificial ecosystems.
∑ It deals with nature’s variety, the biosphere. It refers to variabilities among plants, animals and microorganism species.
∑ Biodiversity is of 3 types: Genetic Biodiversity, Species Biodiversity and Ecological Biodiversity.
Theme for 2023: From Agreement to Action: Building Back Biodiversity

∑ This theme is a continuation of the outcomes from COP 15, where the world witnessed the establishment of the Kunming-
Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework, signifying a significant milestone.
How was the day adopted?

∑ December 29th was initially adopted as the International Biodiversity Day by the Second Committee of the UN General
Assembly in 1993 until 2000.
∑ On December 20, 2000, the date was shifted to commemorate the adoption of the Convention on Biological Diversity
(CBD) on May 22, 1992, at the Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit.
Kunming- Montreal Biodiversity Framework:

∑ It was adopted at the 15th Conference of Parties (COP15) in 2022, which was held in Montreal, Canada.
∑ It sets out four goals for 2050, and 23 targets for 2030, to save the existing biodiversity.
∑ The GBF aims to protect at least 30% of the planet by 2030 and reverse ecosystem degradation (30*30 policy).
∑ It replaces the Aichi Biodiversity Targets that were adopted at COP 10 in Nagoya, Japan.
35. 6TH INDIAN OCEAN CONFERENCE
Recently: The Sixth Edition of the Indian Ocean Conference took place in Dhaka.
∑ More than 150 participants from 25 countries participated in the conference.
∑ The conference was organised by the Indian Foundation, supported by the Ministry of External Affairs and the Bangladesh
government.
∑ The theme of the conference was “Peace, Prosperity, and Partnership for a Resilient Future.”
Major Highlights:
∑ A land connectivity to South-East Asia and a multi-model one to the Gulf and Central Asia was envisioned.
∑ Need for the countries to take the long view of cooperation was realized as any nation disregarding the legal obligation or
violating long standing agreements could damage trust and confidence among the member nations.
∑ Unsustainable debt generated by unviable projects is a concern for countries in the region.
∑ Ensuring maritime security is a collective responsibility that should not be compromised for individual dominance. Practical
action is needed, complementing diplomatic positions.
∑ Importance of climate action and counter-terrorism initiatives was also highlighted.
Indian Ocean Conference:
∑ The Indian Ocean Conference is a flagship consultative forum of the Indian Ocean countries to deliberate upon the
prospects of regional cooperation for Security and Growth for All in Region (SAGAR).
∑ SAGAR: Security and Growth for All in the Region (SAGAR) or Vission Sagar is India’s strategic vision for the Indian Ocean,
which was unveiled in 2015.
ÿ Initially, India did not issue an official report or outline for Vision SAGAR.
ÿ Finally, Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi referred to the doctrine as a “blueprint for cooperation” in the
Maldivian Parliament in June 2019.
ÿ The SAGAR doctrine is defined as- Maritime Security, Maritime Cooperation, Economic Cooperation, Capacity Building,
Sustainable Development and Collective Action.
∑ The process of Indian Ocean Conference began in 2016.
∑ The first edition of the Indian Ocean conference was held in Singapore in 2016 and fifth in 2021 in Abu Dhabi,
United Arab Emirates.

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24. The Global Report on Internal Displacement, 2023 (GRID- 2023)

1. LUDHIANA GAS LEAK

∑ It is a colourless chalcogen hydride gas with the formula H2S.

National Green Tribunal:

∑ The Chairperson of the NGT is a retired Judge of the Supreme Court.

Bhopal Gas Tragedy:

2. ASEAN- INDIA MARITIME EXERCISE

International Maritime Defence Exhibition (IMDEX- 23):

Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN):

Foundation of India’s Nuclear Programme:

Causes of Pokhran- I Nuclear Test:

Causes of Pokhran- II:

National Technology Day:

Causes of the protests:

National Commission for Scheduled Tribes:

∑ It is a state in northeast India, with the city of Imphal as its capital.

5. NEW PARLIAMENT BUILDING

∑ The total cost of construction then was Rs 83 lakhs.

The Central Vista Redevelopment Project:

Need for the New Parliament Building:

Features of the New Parliament Building:

6. HUMAN SPACE FLIGHT OF THE GAGANYAAN MISSION

The payload consists two modules-

These two modules are collectively known as orbital module.

Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO):

7. 32ND ARAB LEAGUE SUMMIT

∑ The motto of the summit was – renewal and reform.

The Arab League:

Arab League reinstated Syria:

8. NATIONAL SUPERCOMPUTING MISSION

∑ Currently India’s most powerful, civilian supercomputers — Pratyush and Mihir.

What are FLOPs?

Uses of the new Supercomputing System:

National Supercomputing Mission:

Top 500 Project:

9. NHRC ACCREDITATION DEFERRED BY GANHRI

How are the NHRIs accredited?

Reasons for Deferment:

∑ Political interference in appointments

What is Global Alliance of National Human Rights Institutions (GANHRI)?

Sub- Committee on Accreditation (SCA):

National Human Rights Commission:

United Nations Human Rights Council:

International Human Rights Day:

10. THE JALLIKATTU JUDGEMENT

∑ It is an annual buffalo race held in the southwestern Indian state of Karnataka.

Bullock Cart Racing:

∑ It is a popular and traditional sport in Western Maharashtra and in Pune district.

What is the matter?

Safeguards for animal rights:

11. THE TELANGANA- ANDHRA PRADESH WATER DISPUTE

What is the dispute?

Arguments and Demands:

What is the centre doing?