Criminal Detection and Investigation

1. The art which deals with the identity, location and arrest of a
person who committed a particular crime and concurrently includes
identification, collection, preservation and evaluation of evidence
for the purpose of bringing criminal offender to the bar of justice.
a. Investigation
b. Criminal Investigation
c. Preliminary Investigation
d. Custodial Investigation
in·ves·ti·ga·tion
- the action of investigating something or someone; formal or
systematic examination or research.
Preliminary investigation
- is an inquiry conducted by the Prosecutor to determine whether an
indictment or criminal information can be filed in court against the
respondent.
Preliminary investigation
- is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there is sufficient
ground to engender a well-founded belief that a crime has been
committed and the respondent is probably guilty thereof, and should be
held for trial.
Custodial Investigation"
- shall include the practice of issuing an "invitation" to a person
who is investigated in connection with an offense he is suspected to
have committed, without prejudice to the liability of the "inviting"
officer for any violation of law.
(RA 7438)
2. It is the body of the crime or the existence of a fact that the
specific loss or injury was sustained as
a result of the crime..
a. Mens Rea
b. Actus Reus
c. Corpus delicti
d. Inflagrante Delicto
3. Elements of Corpus Delicti are?
i. Proof of Occurrence of a certain event
ii. Person's criminal responsibility of the acts.
iii. Additional evidence of a different character the same point
iiii. Additional evidence of same character the same point.
a. iii and iiii
b. i and iii
c. ii and iii
d. i and ii
4. This tool of Criminal Investigation is referring to knowledge or
data collected by the prober which may be in sensory, written, or
physical forms.
a. Information
b. Interview/Interrogation
c. Instrumentation
d. All of the Above
5. Refers to any person who furnishes the police an information
relevant to a criminal case about the activities of criminal or
syndicates . He may openly give the information or a projected and
planned crime?
a. Informants
b. Informer
c. Modus Operandi
d. Corroborative
Informer
defined as the person who provides information to the police on a
regular basis they are either paid regularly or in a case to case
basis, or none at all
Modus Operandi refer to the summary of habits, techniques and
peculiarities of behavior characterizing the operational procedure
employed by certain offenders
6. It is the direct acknowledgement of guilt arising from the
commission of a crime?
a. Admission
b. Confession
c. Judicial Admission/Confession
d. Extra Judicial Admission/Confession
Admission
It is the acknowledgement of a fact or circumstance without accepting
guilt.
7. It is the graphic representation of the scene of the crime. With
complete measurements of the relative distances of relevant object and
conditions obtaining therein.
a. Photograph
b. Sketch
c. Portrait Parle
d. Anthropometry
The General Kind of Sketch
a. Rough Sketch
- It is made y the investigator at the crime scene which is full of
important details. But without scale of proportion .
This is used as the basis for the finished sketch.
b. Finished Sketch
- This is a sketch with a scale of proportion and drawn by the
draftsman. The rough sketch and the finished sketch are for court
presentation.
8. It is made y the investigator at the crime scene which is full of
important details. But without scale of proportion?
a. Rough Sketch
b. Finished Sketch
c. Physical Reconstruction
d. Mental Reconstruction
Crime Analysis
It is the assessment made by the investigator after the crime scene
investigation, of why the crime is committed.
Crime Reconstruction
It is the assessment made by the investigator after the crime scene
investigation, of how the crime is committed.
Kinds of Reconstructing The Crime
a. Physical Reconstruction
It is based on the physical appearance of the crime scene mainly
focused on the pieces of physical evidence. And the accounts of
witnesses and suspects.
b. Mental Reconstruction
Based on the physical reconstruction, some conclusions could be
formulated taking into account all available pieces of evidence.
9. It is the duty of the investigator that after determination that a
crime was committed, the cardinal points shall be also determine.
Which one among the following answers to the question, What is the
motive of the crime commisson?
a. What is the crime committed?
b. How the crime was committed?
c. When it was committed?
d. Why it was commited?
10. Among the cardinal points of investigation, Which is referring to
Modus Operandi?
a. What is the crime committed?
b. How the crime was committed?
c. When it was committed?
d. Why it was commited?
Crime Scene Search Method
SPIRAL
Search starts at an outer point and gradually moves towards the center
or starts at an inner point and move outward away from the center.
STRIP OR LINE
Crime Scene divided into strips and each strip is searched
GRID METHOD OR DOUBLE STRIP
Crime scene divided into a grid and each grid segment is searched
QUADRANT/ZONE METHOD
Crime scene divided into quadrants and each quadrant is searched
11. The search method or pattern that breaks the area into smaller
ones is ____?
a. Grid
b. Strip
c. Spiral
d. Quadrants
12. The methodology involving the systematic searching, handling,
distribution and accountability of all evidence found at the crime
scene, including the documentation of every article of evidence from
the point of initial discovery at the scene , to its collection and
transport to the point of examination, its temporary storage and its
final disposal is referred to as?
a. Chain of Custody
b. Corpus Delicti
c. Criminal Responsibilty
d. Facts of occurence of the Crime
13. What kind of evidence assists the investigator in locating the
malefactor?
a. Associative
b. Tracing
c. Corpus Delicti
d. Nota
14. The following are the three-fold aim of criminal investigation
EXCEPT?
a. Prosecute the suspect
b. gather evidence of guilt of the suspect
c. locate the suspect
d. Identify the suspect
15. It describes the immediate scene only where the crime was
committed such as the room of the victim and the essentials details
thereof.
a. Sketch of Locality
b. Sketch of Ground
c. Sketch of Detail
d. NOTA
16. Who is considered as the Father of Criminalistics and noted
Criminologist who said that Criminal Investigation is 95% perspiration
, 3% inspiration and 2% luck?
a. Albert Osborn
b. Cesare Lombroso
c. Dr. Hans Gross
d. Leonard Keeler
17. It is a kind of confession, which is made by the accused in open
court and is therefore admissible as evidence.
a. Intraterritorial
b. Extraterritorial
c. Judicial
d. Extra Judicial
18. This kind of confession is admissible unless corroborated by proof
of corpus delicti. For it to be admissible, it must be voluntary, in
writing and made with the assistance of a counsel of his own choice
with full understanding of the consequence of such confession.
a. Intraterritorial
b. Extraterritorial
c. Judicial
d. Extra Judicial
19. It deals with the study of major crimes based on the application
of special investigative techniques.
a. Criminalistics
b. Instrumentation
c. Special Crime Investigation
d. Criminal Investigation
20. The following cases are applying Special Crime Investigation
Except?
a. Rape
b. Falsification
c. Murder
d. Gambling
21. Within what period should a Police Officer who has arrested a
person liable for Afflictive Penalty (ex. Murder) under a warrant of
arrest should turn over the arrested person to the judicial authority?
a. 12 hours
b. 18 hours
c. 36 hours
d. nota
22. What is the confrontational and vigorous questioning of a person
suspected of having committed a crime that is also applied to a
reluctant or uncooperative person to divulge information pertinent to
the investigation?
a. Inquiry
b. Interrogation
c. Interview
d. Instrumentation
Interview
It is defined as the simple questioning of a person believed to
possess knowledge that is necessary, relevant and material to the
crime committed which is under investigation
23. The mistakes of the homicide investigator cannot be corrected or
irreversible. The homicide investigator should not cross the three
bridges, which he burns behind him. Which of the following is not one
of this so called "Burned bridges" ?
a. When the dead person has been moved.
b. When the dead body has been embalmed.
c. When the dead body has been cremated or burned
d. When the dead body has been contaminated.
24. Each person handling an item of evidence from the time of
discovery until presentation in court must take certain safeguards.
This total processed is called ____.
a. identify, tag, seal
b. Physical Integrity
c. Chain of Custody
d. Legal Integrity
25. A Blowfly commonly lays its eggs in?
a. canals
b. dirty water
c.Rotten flesh
d.Rotten Vegetables
26. Deaths resulting from asphyxia are due to?
a. Sudden and Gradual loss of perspiration.
b. The hardening and clotting of the blood.
c. Lack of platelets in the blood.
d. A sudden or gradual cessation of oxygen intake.
27. The stiffening of the body caused by severe trauma to the nervous
system of intense stress is?
a. Post mortem lividity
b. Cadaveric Spasm
c. Post Mortem Rigidity
d. Algor Mortis
28. What is the investigator's way to determine whether a dead body
has been move from one site to another.
a. Autopsy
b. Necropsy
c. Livor Mortis
d. Rigor Mortis
29. These are objects that assist the investigator in locating the
malefactor.?
a. Associative
b. Tracing
c. Corpus Delicti
d. Fingerprint
30. Rigor mortis usually starts with what part of the body?
a. Arms
b. Chest
c. Jaw
d. Legs
31. The following questions can be answered by a medico-legal officer,
except..
a. Caused of death
b. How many perpetrators
c. Owner of collected sperm cell
d. Weapon used
32. Sketching method that requires measuring the distance of an object
along a straight line from two widely separated fixed reference point
is known as..
a. Compass Point Method
b. Triangulation
c. Baseline
d. Rectangular
33. Agent Salman was assigned to conduct search in the crime scene,
which is approximately circular or oval. What is the best search
method, which Agent Salman should apply?
a. Quadrant
b. Spiral
c. Strip
d. Zone
34. As a general rule, a warrant of arrest can be servedat..
a. Day time only
b. Night time only
c. Week ends only
d. Anytime of the day and night
35. It is a kind of evidence, which may link the suspect to the crime
scene or offense.
a. Associative
b. Tracing
c. Corpus Delicti
d. Plate number
35. What is the very popular acronym in describing the step by step
procedure in conducting interview?
a. AROMATIC
b. BBC
c. IRONIC
d. SONIC
I.R.O.N.I.C. FORMAT
The interview of a witness can be described by its acronym ‘IRONIC’
which stands for Identity, Rapport, Opening Statement, Narration,
Inquiry, and conclusion.
Identity – prior to the commencement of an interview, the investigator
should identify officer’s identity.
Rapport – it is good to get the positive feeling of the subject
towards the investigators, such friendly atmosphere is a vital for
both the subject and the investigator t have a better interaction.
Opening Statement – the investigator must have to indicate why the
subject is being contracted.
Narration – the witness should be allowed to tell all he knows with
little interruptions from the investigator.
Inquiry – after all information have been given by the subject, that
is the time for the investigator to as question to clarify him about
the case under investigation.
Conclusions – after the interview, it is but proper to close the
interview with outmost courtesy and thanking the subject for his
cooperation.
36. It is a form of investigation in which the investigator assumes a
different and unofficial identity to gather information about the
identity and activity of the subject.
a. Convoy
b. Decoy
c. Reconnaisance
d. Roping
37. Ador used an equipment or tool to listen and record discreetly in
the conversation between Alden and Yaya Dub. This is known as..
a. Bugging
b. Eavesdropping
c. Researching
d. Stalking
38. It is conducted when the subject is moving from one place to
another.
a. Casing
b. Lost
c. Made
d. Shadowing
39. The following are the 3 bridges that a homicide investigator
should not cross , except..
a. That the dead body hass been moved
b. That the cadaver has been embalmed.
c. That the dead person is burned or cremated.
d. That the cadaver has been preserved.
40. It refers to the movement of persons, goods and vehicles either
powered by animals or animal-drawn vehicles, or by combustion system
from one place to another for the purpose of safe travel..
a. Deployment
b. Traffic Units
c. Traffic Management
d. Traffic
Traffic Management
-It refers to all agencies having responsibilities for ascertaining
traffic flow requirements such as planning, approving, funding,
constructing, and/or maintaining public facilities for such movement.
- It also refers to all agencies responsible for licensing, approving,
restricting, stopping, prohibiting, or controlling the use of these
facilities.
- Further, it also refers to the direction, control, and supervision
of all vehicular and pedestrian traffic around a construction zon,
thus ensuring the safety of construction workers and the general
public.

41. A pillar of Traffic Management that refers to the science of

measuring traffic and travel. The study of the basic laws relative to
traffic flow and generation. The application of this Knowledge to the
professional practice of planning and operating traffic system to
achieve safe and efficient movement of persons and goods.
a. Traffic Engineering
b. Traffic Education
c. Traffic Enforcement
d. Traffic Environment
The Pillars of Traffic Management (5s)
1. Traffic Engineering
The science of measuring traffic and travel. The study of the basic
laws relative to traffic flow and generation. The application of this
Knowledge to the professional practice of planning and operating
traffic system to achieve safe and efficient movement of persons and
goods.
2. Traffic Education
The process of giving training and travel and practice in the
actual application of traffic safety knowledge.
3. Traffic Enforcement
Is the action taken by the traffic law enforcer such as arresting,
issuing traffic citation ticket and giving warning to erring drivers
and pedestrian, for the purpose of deterring and discouraging and/or
to prevent such violations.
4. Traffic Environment
Is the study of dealing with potentially disastrous population
explosion, exchanges in urban concentration and new activities carried
out, air pollution, water pollution and crowding, specially transport
congestion which result therein.
5. Traffic Economics
Is the study how people choose to use scare or limited productive
resources to produce commodities and distribute them for their
consumption.
42. Is the action taken by the traffic law enforcer such as arresting,
issuing traffic citation ticket and giving warning to erring drivers
and pedestrian, for the purpose of deterring and discouraging and/or
to prevent such violations.
a. Traffic Engineering
b. Traffic Enforcement
c. Traffic Environment
d. Traffic Economics
43. It refers to a modern urban system of roadway above street level
for free flow traffic..
a. Expressway
b. Skyway
c. Subway
d. Tunnel Road
44. It refers to a modern urban system of roadway above street level
for free flow traffic..
a. Expressway
b. Skyway
c. Subway
d. Tunnel Road
Expressway
A through traffic for free-flow of vehicular movement.
Subway
An underground conduit running entirely under the ground for fast
travel route of commuters.
Tunnel Road
A passage of wide section cut through a hill or sea to shorten
circuitous roadway.
Major Highway
Serves as main artery that caters on big volumes of vehicular traffic
on national roadway.
Feeder Roads
Intended for farm to market roads.
42. Marks left on the roadway by tires when the brakes
were applied strongly, hence the wheels locked, and not
free to rotate..
a. Debris
b. Skid Marks
c. Scuff marks
d. Centrifugal marks
42. Marks left on the roadway by tires when the brakes were applied
strongly, hence the wheels locked, and not free to rotate..
a. Debris
b. Skid Marks
c. Scuff marks--forward as well as rotating
d. Centrifugal marks -due to fast moving vehicle on a curve road.
43. In the chain of events of traffic accident it refers to the first
accident touching between traffic units involved in the collision.
a. Perception of Hazard
b. Start of Evasive Action
c. Initial contact
d. Maximum Engagement
43. In the chain of events of traffic accident it refers to the first
accident touching between traffic units involved in the collision.
a. Perception of Hazard
b. Start of Evasive Action
c. Initial contact
d. Maximum Engagement

Chain of Events of Traffic Accident

1. Perception of Hazard
- the sensing that an accident is about to happen.
2. Start of Evasive Action
- first action taken to avoid collision.
3. Initial Contact
- first accidental touching of traffic units.

4. Maximum Engagement
- greatest collapse/force is in maximum
5. Disengagement
- separation of traffic units
6. Stopping
- traffic unit come to rests
7. Injury
- receiving bodily harm

44. Chain of Events of Traffic Accident that refers to the

sensing that an accident is about to happen.
a. Perception of Hazard
b. Disengagement
c. Stopping
d. Injury

44. Chain of Events of Traffic Accident that refers to the

sensing that an accident is about to happen.
a. Perception of Hazard
b. Disengagement
c. Stopping
d. Injury
45. Anthony is a driver permitted by the government to
operate a Public Utility Jeepney. Which of the following
driving privilege he must possess?
a. Student Driver's Permit
b. Non-Professional driver's license
c. Professional driver's license
d. 5 years

45. Anthony is a driver permitted by the government to

operate a Public Utility Jeepney. Which of the following
driving privilege he must possess?
a. Student Driver's Permit
b. Non-Professional driver's license
c. Professional driver's license
d. 5 years

Licensing System
Driver's License - Privilege
A. Student Driver's Permit
- At least 17 years old
- When operating must be accompanied by either a
holder of a non-professional driver's license or a
professional driver's license.
- good for one year, none renewable
- Private motor vehicle
B. Non-professional Driver's License
- At least 17 years old
- Must be holder of student Driver's Permit for a period
of 30 days from the date of issuance.
- good for 5 years
- can operate private motor vehicles

C. Professional Driver's License

- At least 18 years old
- Holder of a student's driver's permit for a period of
atleast 5 months or holder of non-professional driver's
license for the period of 4 months from its first issuance.
- Can operate all types of Motor vehicles
- Good for 5 years

46. An elevated structure built for the safety of the

pedestrian in crossing busy highways.
a. Skyway
b. Overpass
c. Cross walk
d. Pedestrian lane

46. An elevated structure built for the safety of the

pedestrian in crossing busy highways.
a. Skyway
b. Overpass
c. Cross walk
d. Pedestrian lane

46. The part of the traffic enforcement performed by the

police and other agencies with police power including
deterrent to law violation created by the presence of
uniformed police officer and their special equipment,
special assistant to court and Prosecutors and incidental
service to highway users.
a. Police Traffic Law Enforcement
b. Court Traffic Law Enforcement
c. Both A and B
d. Nota

46. The part of the traffic enforcement performed by the

police and other agencies with police power including
deterrent to law violation created by the presence of
uniformed police officer and their special equipment,
special assistant to court and Prosecutors and incidental
service to highway users.
a. Police Traffic Law Enforcement
b. Court Traffic Law Enforcement
c. Both A and B
d. Nota

Functions of Traffic Enforcement

. Police Traffic Law Enforcement
The part of the traffic enforcement performed by the police
and other agencies with police power including deterrent to
law violation created by the presence of uniformed police
officer and their special equipment, special assistant to
court and Prosecutors and incidental service to highway
users.
. Court Traffic Law Enforcement
The part of traffic law enforcement performed by the court,
by adjudication and penalization.

47. It is a wholly police responsibility and entails looking

for defects in the behavior of the motorists, pedestrian,
vehicles and roadway condition.
a. Apprehension
b. Prosecution
c. Detection
d. Penalization

47. It is a wholly police responsibility and entails looking

for defects in the behavior of the motorists, pedestrian,
vehicles and roadway condition.
a. Apprehension
b. Prosecution
c. Detection
d. Penalization

Police Court Enforcement Processes. This involves five (5)

essential steps which the police provides varying
responsibilities and influence:
1. Detection
2. Apprehension
3. Prosecution
4. Adjudication
5. Penalization

48. The following are the goals of Enforcement Activities

except?
a. To increase safety level
b. To increase traffic efficiency
c. To ensure harmonious and comfortable environment
d. To increase of insurance premium

48. The following are the goals of Enforcement Activities

except?
a. To increase safety level
b. To increase traffic efficiency
c. To ensure harmonious and comfortable environment
d. To increase of insurance premium

49. Refers to an AN ACT TO COMPILE THE LAWS RELATIVE

TO LAND TRANSPORTATION AND TRAFFIC RULES, TO
CREATE A LAND TRANSPORTATION COMMISSION AND FOR
OTHER PURPOSES?
a. RA 7924
b. RA 7160
c. RA 4136
d. RA 6969

49. Refers to an AN ACT TO COMPILE THE LAWS RELATIVE

TO LAND TRANSPORTATION AND TRAFFIC RULES, TO
CREATE A LAND TRANSPORTATION COMMISSION AND FOR
OTHER PURPOSES?
a. RA 7924 -MMDA
b. RA 7160 - LGU's
c. RA 4136
d. RA 6969

Kinds of Enforcement Action

1. Traffic Citation
- There are 3 types of traffic citation such as, Temporary
Operator's Permit (TOP), Unified Ordinance Violation's
Receipt (UOVR) and Ordinance Violation's Receipt (OVR)
2. Traffic Arrest
a. Offense committed is serious
b. There is necessity to avoid continued violation
c. There is reasonable doubt that the violator will not
appear in court.
3. Traffic Warning
- The three kinds of warning:
a. Visual warning
b. Verbal warning
c. Written warning
50. If a traffic law enforcer would decide to arrest a traffic
law violator, what would not be his basis for such action?
a. Offense committed is serious
b. There is necessity to avoid continued violation
c. There is reasonable doubt that the violator will not
appear in court.
d. The offender would attend the hearing.

50. If a traffic law enforcer would decide to arrest a traffic

law violator, what would not be his basis for such action?
a. Offense committed is serious
b. There is necessity to avoid continued violation
c. There is reasonable doubt that the violator will not
appear in court.
d. The offender would attend the hearing.

51. Skid marks as evidence in accident cases would show:

a. If the vehicle was traveling in the wrong direction or on
the wrong side of the road.
b. If the driver failed to observe the right of way.
c. If the driver did not obey the traffic signal.
d. All of the above

51. Skid marks as evidence in accident cases would show:

a. If the vehicle was traveling in the wrong direction or on
the wrong side of the road.
b. If the driver failed to observe the right of way.
c. If the driver did not obey the traffic signal.
d. All of the above

52. When there are two motor vehicles approaching the

intersection almost at the same time, one is travelling
along the national road and the other is in the secondary
road. Who has the right of way?
a. Vehicle on the secondary road
b. Vehicle on the right
c. Vehicle on the national road
d. Vehicle on the left

52. When there are two motor vehicles approaching the

intersection almost at the same time, one is travelling
along the national road and the other is in the secondary
road. Who has the right of way?
a. Vehicle on the secondary road
b. Vehicle on the right
c. Vehicle on the national road
d. Vehicle on the left

Right of Way Rule

. Intersection
- when two or more vehicles is entering an intersection the one on the
left will give
way to the right vehicle.
. Pedestrian
- drivers should yield to pedestrian crossing except at intersection
whereas the
movement of vehicles is regulated by a police officer.
. Through highway/railroad crossing
- the driver shall bring to a full stop before traversing to an
intersection. If there is no
hazard the driver may slowdown to 5mph.
. Police/emergency vehicle
- all drivers should yield to emergency vehicle, except as directed by
traffic enforcer.
Fire trucks are accepted to speed limit but they are prohibited to
have unnecessary
speed.

53. Painted on the pavement and placed at intersections

and other places to provide pedestrians with safety zone
when crossing:
a. Center
b. Lane
c. Cross walk
d. Stop lines

53. Painted on the pavement and placed at intersections

and other places to provide pedestrians with safety zone
when crossing:
a. Center
b. Lane
c. Cross walk
d. Stop lines
54. What is the most important, in determining the
skidding distance of a motor vehicle?
a. Driver's driving attitude
b. Tire material of the motor vehicle
c. Slipperiness of the road
d. Speed of the motor vehicle

54. What is the most important, in determining the

skidding distance of a motor vehicle?
a. Driver's driving attitude
b. Tire material of the motor vehicle
c. Slipperiness of the road
d. Speed of the motor vehicle

55. The privilege of immediate use of roadway in

preference to another vehicle or pedestrian.
a. Immunity
b. Leniency
c. Right of Way
d. Gift of way

55. The privilege of immediate use of roadway in

preference to another vehicle or pedestrian.
a. Immunity
b. Leniency
c. Right of Way
d. Gift of way

56. Two vehicles approach an intersection at

approximately the same time, the ___ vehicle should give
the right of way.
a. Coming from the left
b. Coming from the center
c. Coming from the right
d. One which arrives first

56. Two vehicles approach an intersection at

approximately the same time, the ___ vehicle should give
the right of way.
a. Coming from the left
b. Coming from the center
c. Coming from the right
d. One which arrives first

57. Which of the following is otherwise known as the

"Land Transportation and Traffic Code of the
Philippines.
a. RA 4136
b. RA 7924
c. Act No 3815
d. RA 6969
57. Which of the following is otherwise known as the
"Land Transportation and Traffic Code of the
Philippines.
a. RA 4136
b. RA 7924
c. Act No 3815
d. RA 6969

58. It is responsible for the regulation of transport

routes, granting, denying, suspending or cancelling land
transport franchises.
a. Department of Transportation and Communication
b. Land Traffic Franchising Regulatory Board
c. Land Transportation Office
d. Traffic Management Bureau

58. It is responsible for the regulation of transport

routes, granting, denying, suspending or cancelling land
transport franchises.
a. Department of Transportation and Communication
b. Land Traffic Franchising Regulatory Board
c. Land Transportation Office
d. Traffic Management Bureau

59. It is any motor vehicle accident occurring entirely at a

place other than on a highway.
a. Motor Vehicle Non- Traffic Accident
b. Motor Vehicle Traffic Accident
c. Non - Motor Vehicle Traffic Accident
d. Non - Motor Vehicle Non - Traffic Accident

59. It is any motor vehicle accident occurring entirely at a

place other than on a highway.
a. Motor Vehicle Non- Traffic Accident
b. Motor Vehicle Traffic Accident
c. Non - Motor Vehicle Traffic Accident
d. Non - Motor Vehicle Non - Traffic Accident

60. What is the process of giving training on travel and

practice in the actual application of traffic safety
knowledge; the crowning jewel of traffic management and
abstract architect of social life and unyielding master of
man's destiny on the roadway?
a. Economic
b. Enforcement
c. Education
d. Engineering

60. What is the process of giving training on travel and

practice in the actual application of traffic safety
knowledge; the crowning jewel of traffic management and
abstract architect of social life and unyielding master of
man's destiny on the roadway?
a. Economic
b. Enforcement
c. Education
d. Engineering

61. What agency of the government is in charge with the

administration and issuance of license for driving vehicles in
the traffic road?
a. DOTC
b. LTO
c. LTFRB
d. TMB

61. What agency of the government is in charge with the

administration and issuance of license for driving vehicles in
the traffic road?
a. DOTC
b. LTO
c. LTFRB
d. TMB

62. It is an activity by which the movement of traffic units

at a particular intersection are controlled and allocated
according to proportionate time to prevent traffic
accidents and to maintain the smooth flow of traffic.
a. Traffic Direction and Control
b. Traffic Enforcement
c. Traffic Education
d. Traffic Engineering

62. It is an activity by which the movement of traffic units

at a particular intersection are controlled and allocated
according to proportionate time to prevent traffic
accidents and to maintain the smooth flow of traffic.
a. Traffic Direction and Control
b. Traffic Enforcement
c. Traffic Education
d. Traffic Engineering

63. It is a ticket issued to an erring driver apprehended for

certain traffic violation in exchange for his confiscated
driver's license and stands as his temporary driver's license
for the period provided for.
a. Traffic Citation
b. Traffic Permit
c. Traffic Pass
d. Traffic Ticket

63. It is a ticket issued to an erring driver apprehended for

certain traffic violation in exchange for his confiscated
driver's license and stands as his temporary driver's license
for the period provided for.
a. Traffic Citation
b. Traffic Permit
c. Traffic Pass
d. Traffic Ticket

64. This refers to a device mounted or on a portable

support where a message is conveyed by means of
words or symbols, officially erected or installed for the
purpose of regulating, warning and guiding traffic.
a. Traffic Aide
b. Traffic Guide
c. Traffic Sign
d. Traffic Symbol

64. This refers to a device mounted or on a portable

support where a message is conveyed by means of
words or symbols, officially erected or installed for the
purpose of regulating, warning and guiding traffic.
a. Traffic Aide
b. Traffic Guide
c. Traffic Sign
d. Traffic Symbol

3 types of Traffic Sign

Regulatory signs
depict a variety of symbols that are applied to show or
re-enforce traffic laws, regulations or specifications
which apply either at all times or at specified times or
positions upon a street or highway. These kinds of
signs assist in managing the flow of traffic.
Warning sign
is a type of sign which indicates a potential
hazard, obstacle, or condition requiring special
attention.

Guiding/Informative sign
These road signs show what destination is lying ahead or
after a particular turn or exit. Alternatively, these symbols
can tell drivers their current positions, and where this
direction might lead them to.

65. Is a type of sign which indicates a potential hazard,

obstacle, or condition requiring special attention.
a. Regulatory signs
b. Warning sign
c. Guiding/Informative sign
d. Triangle

65. Is a type of sign which indicates a potential hazard,

obstacle, or condition requiring special attention.
a. Regulatory signs
b. Warning sign
c. Guiding/Informative sign
d. Triangle
66. It is the entire width between the boundary lines of
every way that is publicly maintained and is open to the
use of the public for the purposes of vehicular travel.
a. Highway
b. Public way
c. Both a and b
d. Nota

66. It is the entire width between the boundary lines of

every way that is publicly maintained and is open to the
use of the public for the purposes of vehicular travel.
a. Highway
b. Public way
c. Both a and b
d. Nota

67. What vehicle route carries a large volume of traffic

and serves as main artery in the road network?
a. Secondary road
b. Feeder road
c. Major Highway
d. Overpass

67. What vehicle route carries a large volume of traffic

and serves as main artery in the road network?
a. Secondary road
b. Feeder road
c. Major Highway
d. Overpass

68. When interviewing persons involved in a traffic

accident, as an investigator what should you consider?
a. The interview of person must be conducted jointly
b. The interview of person must be conducted separately
c. The police must listen to all witnesses because they
are not bias
d. The police must listen to both side

68. When interviewing persons involved in a traffic

accident, as an investigator what should you consider?
a. The interview of person must be conducted jointly
b. The interview of person must be conducted separately
c. The police must listen to all witnesses because they
are not bias
d. The police must listen to both side

69. In Land Transportation Office Code, it is Not a park

prohibition when you park .
a. In front of private driveway
b. On the sidewalk
c. Within four meters from a fire station driveway
d. Within intersection
69. In Land Transportation Office Code, it is Not a park
prohibition when you park .
a. In front of private driveway
b. On the sidewalk
c. Within four meters from a fire station driveway
d. Within intersection

70. Shall mean a structured group of three or more persons,

existing for a period of time and acting in concert with the
aim of committing one or more serious crimes or offenses
in order to obtain, directly or indirectly, a financial or other
material benefit.
a. White collar crime
b. Blue collar crime
c. Organized Crime
d. Transnational Crime

70. Shall mean a structured group of three or more persons,

existing for a period of time and acting in concert with the
aim of committing one or more serious crimes or offenses
in order to obtain, directly or indirectly, a financial or other
material benefit.
a. White collar crime
b. Blue collar crime
c. Organized Crime
d. Transnational Crime
Transnational crimes - are violations of law that involve
more than one country in their planning, execution, or
impact.

71. In Organized Crime He is the one who makes for the

arrangements for the killing (Injuring or Carrying out the
task physically, economically or psychologically) the
member or non members.
a. Enforcer
b. Corrupter
c. Corruptee
d. Nota

71. In Organized Crime He is the one who makes for the

arrangements for the killing (Injuring or Carrying out the
task physically, economically or psychologically) the
member or non members.
a. Enforcer
b. Corrupter
c. Corruptee
d. Nota

For Organized Group to work usually it has

atleast the following:
1. An Enforcer
2. A Corrupter
3. A Corruptee

An Enforcer
- The one who makes for the arrangements for the killing
(Injuring or Carrying out the task physically, economically or
psychologically) the member or non members.
A Corrupter
- The one who corrupts or bribes, intimidate or threatens,
negotiate or "sweet talks" into a relationship with public
officials, law enforcement officer, or anyone who would be
of help in obtaining security and immunity from possible
arrest, prosecution and punishments.
A Corruptee
- a public officials, law enforcement officers or anybody
who not a member of the organization who can helps the
organization.

72. An Organized Criminal Criminal Group hired a hitman

to kill the mayor. The hitman is referred to as the?
a. Enforcer
b. Corrupter
c. Corruptee
d. Nota

72. An Organized Criminal Criminal Group hired a hitman

to kill the mayor. The hitman is referred to as the?
a. Enforcer
b. Corrupter
c. Corruptee
d. Nota

73. Anton offers to pay money to Police Captain Homena

inorder not to arrest their Bossing. The latter accepted
the money and do what is agreed between them. Police
Captain Homena is referred to as?
a. Enforcer
b. Corrupter
c. Corruptee
d. Nota

73. Anton offers to pay money to Police Captain Homena

inorder not to arrest their Bossing. The latter accepted
the money and do what is agreed between them. Police
Captain Homena is referred to as?
a. Enforcer
b. Corrupter
c. Corruptee
d. Nota

74. Generic Type of Organized Crimes. Committed by

political criminals for purpose of gaining profit through
violence or force for the attainment of political goals or
ambitions such as used of private armies, buying of voters.
a. Political Graft
b. In-Group Oriented Organized Crime
c. Mercenary/Predatory Organized Crime
d. Syndicated Crime

74. Generic Type of Organized Crimes. Committed by

political criminals for purpose of gaining profit through
violence or force for the attainment of political goals or
ambitions such as used of private armies, buying of voters.
a. Political Graft
b. In-Group Oriented Organized Crime
c. Mercenary/Predatory Organized Crime
d. Syndicated Crime

Generic Type of Organized Crimes

1. Political Graft
- Committed by political criminals for purpose of gaining
profit through violence or force for the attainment of political
goals or ambitions such as used of private armies, buying of
voters.
2. In-Group Oriented Organized Crime
- manned by semi-organized individual with the end view of
attaining psychological gratification such as adolescent gangs

3. Mercenary/Predatory Organized Crime

- Perpetuated for the attainment of direct personal gain but
prey upon unwilling victims.
4. Syndicated Crime
- Comes with a structure organization that participates in
illicit activity in society using force, or intimidation.

75. Ron and his friends in order to gain an easy money set
up a plan to wait in the dark and take the money and
properties by means of force or intimidation of all person
who happens to pass to the place of their plan. Their
purpose is solely for personal gain.
a. Political Graft
b. In-Group Oriented Organized Crime
c. Mercenary/Predatory Organized Crime
d. Syndicated Crime

75. Ron and his friends in order to gain an easy money set
up a plan to wait in the dark and take the money and
properties by means of force or intimidation of all person
who happens to pass to the place of their plan. Their
purpose is solely for personal gain.
a. Political Graft
b. In-Group Oriented Organized Crime
c. Mercenary/Predatory Organized Crime
d. Syndicated Crime

76. Sicilian Mafia Belongs to what Generic Type of

Organized Crime?
a. Political Graft
b. In-Group Oriented Organized Crime
c. Mercenary/Predatory Organized Crime
d. Syndicated Crime

76. Sicilian Mafia Belongs to what Generic Type of

Organized Crime?
a. Political Graft
b. In-Group Oriented Organized Crime
c. Mercenary/Predatory Organized Crime
d. Syndicated Crime

77. Mayor Bugsa engaged in vote buying in order to win

the election. And during his term as a mayor it was found
out that he is the head of the terrorists group in his City.
This describes what type of organized crime?
a. Political Graft
b. In-Group Oriented Organized Crime
c. Mercenary/Predatory Organized Crime
d. Syndicated Crime

77. Mayor Bugsa engaged in vote buying in order to win

the election. And during his term as a mayor it was found
out that he is the head of the terrorists group in his City.
This describes what type of organized crime?
a. Political Graft
b. In-Group Oriented Organized Crime
c. Mercenary/Predatory Organized Crime
d. Syndicated Crime

78. Jared together with his friends organized a group for

the purpose of robbing different houses and he named
their group as Robin Hood Group he wants their group
to be known to all and to be popular.
a. Political Graft
b. In-Group Oriented Organized Crime
c. Mercenary/Predatory Organized Crime
d. Syndicated Crime

78. Jared together with his friends organized a group for

the purpose of robbing different houses and he named
their group as Robin Hood Group he wants their group
to be known to all and to be popular.
a. Political Graft
b. In-Group Oriented Organized Crime
c. Mercenary/Predatory Organized Crime
d. Syndicated Crime

79. Is a term used to describe a number of criminal

organizations around the world. In sum, it also means
Protection against arrogance of the powerful, remedy to
any damage, sturdiness of the body, strength and
serenity of spirit, and the best and exquisite part of life.
a. Omerta
b. Mafia
c. Sicilian Mafia
d. Cosa Nostra

79. Is a term used to describe a number of criminal

organizations around the world. In sum, it also means
Protection against arrogance of the powerful, remedy to
any damage, sturdiness of the body, strength and
serenity of spirit, and the best and exquisite part of life.
a. Omerta
b. Mafia
c. Sicilian Mafia
d. Cosa Nostra

Mafia
- Is a term used to describe a number of criminal
organizations around the world.
- the first organization to bear the label was the Sicilian
Mafia based in Italy, known to its members as Cosa
Nostra
-In sum, it also means Protection against arrogance of
the powerful, remedy to any damage, sturdiness of the
body, strength and serenity of spirit, and the best and
exquisite part of life.

Omerta
- Is a code of silence and secrecy that forbids Mafiosi
from betraying their comrades to the authorities.
- a code of silence about criminal activity and a refusal
to give evidence to authorities.

80. It is a crime whereby the proceeds of unlawful

activity are transacted or attempted to be transacted, to
make them appear to have originated from legitimate
sources:
a. Estafa
b. Swindling
c. Theft
d. Money Laundering

80. It is a crime whereby the proceeds of unlawful

activity are transacted or attempted to be transacted, to
make them appear to have originated from legitimate
sources:
a. Estafa
b. Swindling
c. Theft
d. Money Laundering (RA 9160)

Stages of money Laundering

1. Placement
- The initial stage of money laundering where illegally
obtain money is placed in financial System.
2. Layering
- Transfering the money to hide the origin of funds
- to prevent the tracing back of illicit funds
- transfer to another account
- Ex. invest to casino
3. Integration
- returning the money back to the economy.
- buying assets and goods

81. Known as G-7 Nations, they were mandated to devise

international standards and policies to combat money
laundering. Which of the following is not one of them?
a. Japan, United States of America
b. Germany, France, United Kingdom
c. Canada, Italy
d. China, South Korea and Russia

81. Known as G-7 Nations, they were mandated to devise

international standards and policies to combat money
laundering. Which of the following is not one of them?
a. Japan, United States of America
b. Germany, France, United Kingdom
c. Canada, Italy
d. China, South Korea and Russia

82. In Joseph Albini's Patron-Client Model, organized

crime group consists of syndicates in a loose system of
power relationship. At the center of each organized crime
unit or crime is/are:
a. Capo, Sottocapo and Consigliere
b. Caporegime
c. Soldati
d. Mafioso

82. In Joseph Albini's Patron-Client Model, organized

crime group consists of syndicates in a loose system of
power relationship. At the center of each organized crime
unit or crime is/are:
a. Capo, Sottocapo and Consigliere
b. Caporegime -Midlevel Manager , Buffer
c. Soldati - Lowest level
d. Mafioso

83. An operation launch by the Philippine National Police

Special Action Force Commandos that led to the killing of
the International terrorist Zulkifli Bin Hir at the
Mamasapano, Maguindanao.
a. Operation Merdeka
b. Oplan Tokhang
c. Oplan Neptune Spear
d. Oplan Exodus

83. An operation launch by the Philippine National Police

Special Action Force Commandos that led to the killing of
the International terrorist Zulkifli Bin Hir at the
Mamasapano, Maguindanao.
a. Operation Merdeka -Jabidah Massacre
b. Oplan Tokhang
c. Oplan Neptune Spear -Osama Bin Laden
d. Oplan Exodus

84. The Yakuza is the most influential Japanese

organization of criminals. It is organized into families
which adopts a relationship called:
a. Oyabun-Kobun
b. Omerta
c. Caporegime
d. Kabuto

84. The Yakuza is the most influential Japanese

organization of criminals. It is organized into families
which adopts a relationship called:
a. Oyabun-Kobun
b. Omerta
c. Caporegime
d. Kabuto

85. Known as the Guzman-Loera Organization called La

Alianza de Sangre (Blood Alliance) which considered by
the United States intelligence community as the most
powerful drug trafficking organization in the world.
a. Yakuza
b. Sinaloa Cartel
c. Mexican Mafia
d. Capo

85. Known as the Guzman-Loera Organization called La

Alianza de Sangre (Blood Alliance) which considered by
the United States intelligence community as the most
powerful drug trafficking organization in the world.
a. Yakuza
b. Sinaloa Cartel
c. Mexican Mafia
d. Capo

Mexican Mafia
- This is a criminal organization associated with Sinaloa
Cartel which is known as "La Eme" which is the most
powerful gang within the California prison System.

86. This Organized Criminal Group was a powerful and

highly organized Colombian drug cartel and terrorist-type
criminal organization originating in the city of Medellín,
Colombia that was founded and led by Pablo Escobar.
a. Cali Cartel
b. Medellin Cartel
c. Sinaloa Cartel
d. Triad
86. This Organized Criminal Group was a powerful and
highly organized Colombian drug cartel and terrorist-type
criminal organization originating in the city of Medellín,
Colombia that was founded and led by Pablo Escobar.
a. Cali Cartel
b. Medellin Cartel
c. Sinaloa Cartel
d. Triad

Cali Cartel (Spanish: Cartel de Cali) was a drug cartel

based in southern Colombia, around the city of Cali and
the Valle del Cauca Department. Its founders were the
brothers Gilberto Rodríguez Orejuela and Miguel
Rodríguez Orejuela, and José Santacruz Londoño. They
broke away from Pablo Escobar and his Medellín
associates in the late 1980s

Triad
- is a Chinese transnational organized crime syndicate
based in Greater China and has outposts in various
countries with significant overseas Chinese populations.

87. Which of the following is not one of the motorcycle

gangs which are active in selling drugs (they control 75
North American methamphetamine market), prostitution,
extortion, theft, arson, robbery, bombings and contract
murders?
a. Hells Angels
b. Outlaws
c. Triads
d. Pagans and Bandidos

88. What is the process involved in money laundering

wherein the illicit funds that are already in financial
institutions are introduced back to the mainstream
economy for legitimate purposes?
a. Placement
b. Layering
c. Integration
d. Nota

88. What is the process involved in money laundering

wherein the illicit funds that are already in financial
institutions are introduced back to the mainstream
economy for legitimate purposes?
a. Placement
b. Layering
c. Integration
d. Nota

89. What is this crime which inception, prevention and/or

direct or indirect effects in more than one country?
a. Organized Crime
b. Transnational Crime
c. Transnational Organized Crime
d. Globalization

89. What is this crime which inception, prevention and/or

direct or indirect effects in more than one country?
a. Organized Crime
b. Transnational Crime
c. Transnational Organized Crime
d. Globalization

Transnational Organized Crime

- Is a crime perpetuated by organized criminal group
which the aim of committing one or more serious crimes
or offenses in order to obtain directly or indirectly, a
financial or other material benefits committed through
crossing of borders or jurisdictions.

Globalization - is the word used to describe the growing

interdependence of the world's economies, cultures, and
populations, brought about by cross-border trade in goods
and services, technology, and flows of investment, people,
and information.

90. In the study of organized crime, a criminal group that is

non-ideological and possess no political agenda always
motivated by.
a. Political change
b. Power
c. Profit
d. Influence

90. In the study of organized crime, a criminal group that is

non-ideological and possess no political agenda always
motivated by.
a. Political change
b. Power
c. Profit
d. Influence

91. Refers to the recruitment, transportation, transfer or harboring

or receipt of persons with or without the victim's consent or
knowledge, within or across national borders by means of threat or
use of force, or other forms of coercion, abduction, fraud,
deception, abuse of power or of position, taking advantage of the
Vulnerability of the person, or, the giving or receiving of payments
or
benefits to achieve the consent of a person having control over
another person for the purpose of exploitation which includes at a
minimum, the exploitation which includes at a minimum, the
exploitation or the prostitution of others or other forms of sexual
exploitation, forced labor or services, slavery, servitude or the
removal or sale of organs. Section 3a, RA 9208.
a. Human Trafficking
b. Smuggling
c. Drug Trafficking
d. Money Laundering

91. Refers to the recruitment, transportation, transfer or harboring

or receipt of persons with or without the victim's consent or
knowledge, within or across national borders by means of threat or
use of force, or other forms of coercion, abduction, fraud,
deception, abuse of power or of position, taking advantage of the
Vulnerability of the person, or, the giving or receiving of payments
or
benefits to achieve the consent of a person having control over
another person for the purpose of exploitation which includes at a
minimum, the exploitation which includes at a minimum, the
exploitation or the prostitution of others or other forms of sexual
exploitation, forced labor or services, slavery, servitude or the
removal or sale of organs. Section 3a, RA 9208.
a. Human Trafficking
b. Smuggling
c. Drug Trafficking
d. Money Laundering

Drug Trafficking
Is considered as a global black market consisting of the
cultivation, manufacture, distribution and sale of prohibited
substances and essential chemicals, which crosses national
territories or national borders not just in the commission of
crimes but it include both the effects and planning of the
said crime.
Smuggling
The act of conveying or introducing surreptitiously or
importing/exporting secretly contrary to law and
especially without paying duties imposed by law

92. What countries constitute the Golden Triangle?

a. Iran,Afghanistan,Pakistan,India
b. Myanmar, Laos, Thailand
c. Peru, Columbia, Bolivia
d. Nota

92. What countries constitute the Golden Triangle?

a. Iran,Afghanistan,Pakistan,India -Golden Crescent / SEA
b. Myanmar, Laos, Thailand - SWA
c. Peru, Columbia, Bolivia -Silver Triangle - SA
d. Nota

93. This medication is used to treat severe pain. This

drugs belongs to a class of drugs known as opioid
analgesics. It works in the brain to change how your body
feels and responds to pain.
a. Opium poppy
b. Morphine
c. Heroin
d. Codeine
93. This medication is used to treat severe pain. This
drugs belongs to a class of drugs known as opioid
analgesics. It works in the brain to change how your body
feels and responds to pain.
a. Opium poppy
b. Morphine
c. Heroin
d. Codeine

Heroin
is a white or brown powder or a black, sticky goo. It's an
opioid drug made from morphine, a natural substance in
the seedpod of the Asian poppy plant

94. The drug taken from the coca bush plant Ertyroxylon
Coca. A stimulant drugs.
a. Cocaine
b. Marijuana
c. Alcohol
d. Stimulant

94. The drug taken from the coca bush plant Ertyroxylon
Coca. A stimulant drugs.
a. Cocaine
b. Marijuana
c. Alcohol
d. Stimulant

95. Known as the "Big Four Drugs" trafficked in the global

drug market.
I. Heroin and Cocaine
II. Shabu and Ecstasy
III. Marijuana and Methamphetamine
IV. Narcotics, Hallucinogens, Stimulants and Depressants.
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. I and IV

95. Known as the "Big Four Drugs" trafficked in the global

drug market.
I. Heroin and Cocaine
II. Shabu and Ecstasy
III. Marijuana and Methamphetamine
IV. Narcotics, Hallucinogens, Stimulants and Depressants.
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. I and IV

96. National Campaign strategy against illegal drugs, focus

of which is through law enforcement, prosecution and
judicial actions.
a. Demand Reduction
b. Supply Reduction
c. Inter-agency coordination
d. International cooperation

96. National Campaign strategy against illegal drugs, focus

of which is through law enforcement, prosecution and
judicial actions.
a. Demand Reduction
b. Supply Reduction
c. Inter-agency coordination
d. International cooperation

97. A substance considered as main precursor of

methamphetamine hydrochloride?
a. Ephedrine
b. Codeine
c. Tetrahydrocannabinol
d. Marijuana

97. A substance considered as main precursor of

methamphetamine hydrochloride?
a. Ephedrine
b. Codeine
c. Tetrahydrocannabinol
d. Marijuana

Tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) is the psychoactive

substance that produces the “high” associated with
smoking marijuana and can also lead to central nervous
system depression.

98. A category of drugs which involves those which are

legally sold or dispensed without prescription. A user is
prone to self-medication syndrome.
a. Prescriptive drugs
b. Illicit drugs
c. Over the counter drugs
d. Unrecognized drugs

98. A category of drugs which involves those which are

legally sold or dispensed without prescription. A user is
prone to self-medication syndrome.
a. Prescriptive drugs
b. Illicit drugs
c. Over the counter drugs
d. Unrecognized drugs

Prescriptive drugs
a drug that can be obtained only by means of a
physician's prescription.
99. When the organism is too accustomed with a certain
chemical, it will no longer react to such a particular
substance. The need for additional amount to achieve the
desired effect is necessary.
a. Addiction
b. Tolerance
c. Abstinence
d. Planting of evidence

99. When the organism is too accustomed with a certain

chemical, it will no longer react to such a particular
substance. The need for additional amount to achieve the
desired effect is necessary.
a. Addiction
b. Tolerance
c. Abstinence
d. Planting of evidence

100. An opiate which was synthesized by Alder Wright

for purposes of morphine addiction treatment. This drug
is considered as the most potent type of depressant.
a. Codein
b. Hallucinogens
c. Heroin
d. Detoxification
100. An opiate which was synthesized by Alder Wright
for purposes of morphine addiction treatment. This drug
is considered as the most potent type of depressant.
a. Codein
b. Hallucinogens
c. Heroin
d. Detoxification

101. Selling, distributing, supplying or transporting of

legitimately imported, in-transit, manufactured or
procured controlled precursors and essential chemicals,
by the manufacturer of medicine to the drug trafficker
is called:
a. Bootleging
b. Buttlegging
c. Chemical Diversion
d. Smuggling

101. Selling, distributing, supplying or transporting of

legitimately imported, in-transit, manufactured or
procured controlled precursors and essential chemicals,
by the manufacturer of medicine to the drug trafficker
is called:
a. Bootleging
b. Buttlegging
c. Chemical Diversion
d. Smuggling
102. Dylan uses drugs. This drug produces sensations such
as distortion of time, space, sound, color and other bizarre
effects?
a. Stimulants
b. Depressants
c. Hallucinogens
d. Poor man's cocaine

102. Dylan uses drugs. This drug produces sensations such

as distortion of time, space, sound, color and other bizarre
effects?
a. Stimulants
b. Depressants
c. Hallucinogens
d. Poor man's cocaine

103. Tabong uses amphetamines for him to be able to

observe himself during night time. What are the
symptoms of the use of amphetamines?
a. Sensation of distortion of time, space, sound and
color.
b. False perception of object and experience
c. Excitement, alertness, and wakefulness.
d. Initial relaxation, drowsiness and sleep.
103. Tabong uses amphetamines for him to be able to
observe himself during night time. What are the
symptoms of the use of amphetamines?
a. Sensation of distortion of time, space, sound and
color.
b. False perception of object and experience
c. Excitement, alertness, and wakefulness.
d. Initial relaxation, drowsiness and sleep.

104. A form of physical dependence characterized by

severe craving for the drugs even to the point of
interfering with the person's ability to function normally.
a. Tolerance
b. Addiction
c. Psychological Dependence
d. Drug dependence

104. A form of physical dependence characterized by

severe craving for the drugs even to the point of
interfering with the person's ability to function normally.
a. Tolerance
b. Addiction
c. Psychological Dependence
d. Drug dependence

105. Only a physician can prescribe a medicinal drug. The

practice of taking drugs without proper medicinal
supervision is called non-medical use of drugs or ___.
a. Drug misuse
b. Drug abuse
c. use
d. Administer

105. Only a physician can prescribe a medicinal drug. The

practice of taking drugs without proper medicinal
supervision is called non-medical use of drugs or ___.
a. Drug misuse
b. Drug abuse
c. use
d. Administer

Administer
Injection, inhalation, ingestion or other means, of
dangerous drug to the body

106. The facility used for the illegal manufacture of

dangerous drugs is ___.
a. Drug laboratory
b. Laboratory equipment
c. Drug den
d. Clandestine laboratory

106. The facility used for the illegal manufacture of

dangerous drugs is ___.
a. Drug laboratory
b. Laboratory equipment
c. Drug den
d. Clandestine laboratory

107. Aware of number of arrest and cases filed in court,

experts propose that hearing of illegal drugs cases should
be tried and heard by ?
a. RTC courts designated as Heinous Crime
b. Special Courts designated by the SC among existing
RTC.
c. Sadiganbayan
d. Special Prosecutor designated by DOJ

107. Aware of number of arrest and cases filed in court,

experts propose that hearing of illegal drugs cases should
be tried and heard by ?
a. RTC courts designated as Heinous Crime
b. Special Courts designated by the SC among existing
RTC.
c. Sadiganbayan
d. Special Prosecutor designated by DOJ

108. A minor who is convicted for the possession of illegal

drugs is entitled to.
a. Suspended sentence
b. Suspension of judgement
c. Custody by the DSWD
d. Suspension of enforcement

108. A minor who is convicted for the possession of illegal

drugs is entitled to.
a. Suspended sentence
b. Suspension of judgement
c. Custody by the DSWD
d. Suspension of enforcement

109. Andrew is a drug addict. Realising that drug use will

bring him nowhere, he ceased from using it anymore.
Daniela's act is called:
a. Abstinence
b. Rehabilitation
c. Self medication
d. Dependence

109. Andrew is a drug addict. Realising that drug use will

bring him nowhere, he ceased from using it anymore.
Daniela's act is called:
a. Abstinence
b. Rehabilitation
c. Self medication
d. Dependence
110. Marijuana has been one of the most abuse
hallucinogens in the Philippines and its control becomes
difficult according to some authorities due to the fact that.
a. It is easy to smoke it Secretly
b. It is sellable in the market
c. It is easy to cultivate
d. It is in demand

110. Marijuana has been one of the most abuse

hallucinogens in the Philippines and its control becomes
difficult according to some authorities due to the fact that.
a. It is easy to smoke it Secretly
b. It is sellable in the market
c. It is easy to cultivate
d. It is in demand

111. It is the policy making and strategy formulating

body in the planning and formulation of policies and
programs on drug prevention and control, under the
Office of the President.
a. DDB
b. PDEA
c. PNP
d. NBI

111. It is the policy making and strategy formulating

body in the planning and formulation of policies and
programs on drug prevention and control, under the
Office of the President.
a. DDB
b. PDEA
c. PNP
d. NBI

112. Also known as Papaver Somniferum and considered

as the mother drugs of other narcotics substance.
a. Codeine
b. Heroin
c. Morphine
d. Opium Poppy

112. Also known as Papaver Somniferum and considered

as the mother drugs of other narcotics substance.
a. Codeine
b. Heroin
c. Morphine
d. Opium Poppy

113. It is any act of knowingly planting, growing, raising or

permitting the planting, growing or raising of any plant
which is the source of a dangerous drug.
a. Cultivation
b. Manufacture
c. Administration
d. Development

113. It is any act of knowingly planting, growing, raising or

permitting the planting, growing or raising of any plant
which is the source of a dangerous drug.
a. Cultivation
b. Manufacture
c. Administration
d. Development

114. It is the investigative technique of allowing an

unlawful or suspect consignment of any dangerous drug
and/or controlled precursor and essential chemical,
equipment or paraphernalia, or property believed to be
derived directly or indirectly from any offense, to pass
into, through or out of the country under the supervision
of an authorized officer, with a view to gathering evidence
to identify any person involved in any dangerous drugs
related offense, or to facilitate prosecution of that Offense.
a. Controlled manufacture
b. Controlled delivery
c. Chemical Diversion
d. Administration

114. It is the investigative technique of allowing an

unlawful or suspect consignment of any dangerous drug
and/or controlled precursor and essential chemical,
equipment or paraphernalia, or property believed to be
derived directly or indirectly from any offense, to pass
into, through or out of the country under the supervision
of an authorized officer, with a view to gathering evidence
to identify any person involved in any dangerous drugs
related offense, or to facilitate prosecution of that Offense.
a. Controlled manufacture
b. Controlled delivery
c. Chemical Diversion
d. Administration

115. It is the illegal cultivation, culture, delivery,

administration, dispensation, manufacture, sale, trading,
transportation, distribution, importation, exportation,
and possession of any dangerous drug and/or controlled
precursor and essential chemical:
a. Sell
b. Trafficking
c. Dispense
d. Deliver

115. It is the illegal cultivation, culture, delivery,

administration, dispensation, manufacture, sale, trading,
transportation, distribution, importation, exportation,
and possession of any dangerous drug and/or controlled
precursor and essential chemical:
a. Sell
b. Trafficking
c. Dispense
d. Deliver

Deliver
It is an act of knowingly passing a dangerous drug
to another, personally or otherwise, and by any
means, with or without consideration.

Sell
It refers to any act of giving away any dangerous drug
and/or controlled precursor and essential chemical
whether for money or any other consideration

Dispense
It is an act of giving away, selling or distributing medicine
or any dangerous drug with or without the use of
prescription.

116. This government agency shall take charge and have

custody of all dangerous drugs, plant sources of
dangerous drugs equipment so confiscated, seized and/or
surrendered.
a. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
b. Anti-Illegal Drugs Task Force
c. Philippine National Police
d. Dangerous Drugs Board

116. This government agency shall take charge and have

custody of all dangerous drugs, plant sources of
dangerous drugs equipment so confiscated, seized and/or
surrendered.
a. Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency
b. Anti-Illegal Drugs Task Force
c. Philippine National Police
d. Dangerous Drugs Board

117. The inadvertent or deliberate consumption of a

much larger doses than the habitually used by the
individual in question and resulting in serious toxic
reaction or death.
a. Tolerance
b. Overdose
c. Drug dependence
d. Abstinence

117. The inadvertent or deliberate consumption of a

much larger doses than the habitually used by the
individual in question and resulting in serious toxic
reaction or death.
a. Tolerance
b. Overdose
c. Drug dependence
d. Abstinence

118. It refers to the willful act of any person of maliciously

and secretly inserting, placing, attaching, or adding directly
or indirectly, through any overt or covert acts:
a. Entrapment
b. Instigation
c. Planting of Evidence
d. Black mailing

118. It refers to the willful act of any person of maliciously

and secretly inserting, placing, attaching, or adding directly
or indirectly, through any overt or covert acts:
a. Entrapment
b. Instigation
c. Planting of Evidence
d. Black mailing

119. Any person who knowingly and willfully consents to

the unlawful act involved in the illegal trafficking of
dangerous drugs and uses his/her influence, power or
position in shielding. Harboring, or screening or
facilitating the escape of any person he/she knows.
a. Pusher
b. Coddler
c. Financier
d. Drug den
119. Any person who knowingly and willfully consents to
the unlawful act involved in the illegal trafficking of
dangerous drugs and uses his/her influence, power or
position in shielding. Harboring, or screening or
facilitating the escape of any person he/she knows.
a. Pusher
b. Coddler/Protector
c. Financier
d. Drug den

120. When the heat is transmitted through fluid or vapor,

the method is called?
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. Nota

120. When the heat is transmitted through fluid or vapor,

the method is called?
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. Nota
121. Which among the following fall under Class A fires?
a. Paper
b. Gasoline
c. Dynamite
d. Short Circuit

121. Which among the following fall under Class A fires?

a. Paper
b. Gasoline
c. Dynamite
d. Short Circuit

Extinguishing Agent
Class A - water (all agents)
Class B - foam/carbon dioxide (all agents)
Class C - carbon dioxide/powder (never use water, soda
acid and foam)
Class D - special powder
Class K - all agents

122. Mechanical device strategically located in an

installation or street where fire hose is connected so that
water with pressure will be available to extinguish fire.
a. Fire hose box
b. Damper
c. Duct system
d. Fire hydrant

122. Mechanical device strategically located in an

installation or street where fire hose is connected so that
water with pressure will be available to extinguish fire.
a. Fire hose box
b. Damper
c. Duct system
d. Fire hydrant

Fire hose box

Duct System
A building must have this design which is used as a
continuous passageway for the transmission of air.

Damper
Open device installed inside the air duct system which
is automatically closes the passage of smoke or fire.

123. It is an element of fire or triangle of fire which refers

to the source of ignition?
a. Fuel
b. Oxygen
c. Heat
d. Fire Tetrahedron

123. It is an element of fire or triangle of fire which refers

to the source of ignition?
a. Fuel
b. Oxygen
c. Heat
d. Fire Tetrahedron

Elements of Fire or Triangle of Fire

1. Fuel - anything that will burn when heated with
sufficient oxygen.
2. Oxygen - aids in combustion; comes from the
Atmosphere we breath; the atmosphere contains:
21% oxygen, 78% nitrogen and 1% impurities
3. Heat - source of ignition

Tetrahedron of Fire
- a geometric representation of what is required for fire
to exist, namely, fuel, an oxidizing agent, heat, and an
uninhibited chemical reaction.

Self-Sustained Chemical Reaction

Combustion is a complex reaction that requires a fuel ( in
the gaseous or vapor state), an oxidizer, and heat energy
come together in a very specific way. Once flaming
combustion or fire occurs, it can only continue when
enough heat energy is produced to cause the continued
development of fuel vapors or gases. Scientists call this type
of reaction a " chain reaction".
A chain reaction is a series of reactions that occur in
sequence with the result of each individual reaction being
added to the rest.

124. Basically, fire has three important elements for its

sustenance. Authorities however established what is
known as the 4rth element of fire. This refers to ___.
a. Fuel
b. Heat
c. Oxygen
d. Uninhabited chemical

124. Basically, fire has three important elements for its

sustenance. Authorities however established what is
known as the 4rth element of fire. This refers to ___.
a. Fuel
b. Heat
c. Oxygen
d. Uninhabited chemical

Fire Development
When the four components of the fire Tetrahedron come
together, ignition occurs. For a fire to grow beyond the first
material ignited, heat must be transmitted beyond the first
material to additional fuel packages.
Stages of Fire
- Ignition
- Growth
- Flashover
- Fully-Developed
- Decay

Ignition - describes the period when the four

elements of the fire Tetrahedron come together and
combustion.

Growth - shortly after Ignition, a fire plume begins to form

above the burning fuel. As the plume develops, it begins to
draw or entrain air from the surrounding space into the
column.

Flashover - the transition between the growth and the

fully developed fire stages and is not a specific event such
as ignition. During flashover, conditions in the
compartment change very rapidly as the fire changes
from one that is dominated by the burning of the
materials first ignited to one that involves all of the
exposed combustible surfaces within the compartment
Fully-Developed - occurs when all combustible materials
in the compartment are involved in the fire.

Decay - as the fire consumes the available fuel in the

compartment the rate of heat released begins to
decline .

125. Occurs when all combustible materials in the

compartment are involved in the fire.
a. Ignition
b. Growth
c. Fully-Developed
d. Decay

125. Occurs when all combustible materials in the

compartment are involved in the fire.
a. Ignition
b. Growth
c. Fully-Developed
d. Decay

126. Fire occurrences are divided into three stages.

Which stage has the highest rate of intensity?
a. Incipient
b. Free burning
c. Smoldering
d. Nota

126. Fire occurrences are divided into three stages.

Which stage has the highest rate of intensity?
a. Incipient
b. Free burning
c. Smoldering
d. Nota

Three (3) stages of Fire

1. Incipient phase
2. Free Burning Phase
3. Smoldering

1. Incipient Stage - initial stage

2. Free Burning Phase - a phase of burning in which
materials or structures are burning in the presence of
adequate oxygen.
3. Smoldering Phase - final phase of burning wherein
flame ceases but dense smoke and heat completely fill
the confined room.

127. What is portable metal device used to put out fires

of limited size?
a. fire hose
b. Fire extinguisher
c. Fire hydrant
d. Fire truck

127. What is portable metal device used to put out fires

of limited size?
a. fire hose
b. Fire extinguisher
c. Fire hydrant
d. Fire truck

128. Is an act of making an opening to a building for

purposes of removing smoke and heat from the burning
building.
a. Distillation
b. Ventilation
c. Abatement
d. Combustion

128. Is an act of making an opening to a building for

purposes of removing smoke and heat from the burning
building.
a. Distillation
b. Ventilation
c. Abatement
d. Combustion
Types of Ventilation
a. Vertical ventilation
- must be worked from the top to bottom
b. Cross or Horizontal Ventilation
- used if gases have not reached the higher level through
the opening of windows
c. Mechanical force ventilation
- a method whereby a device such as smoke ejector is
utilized to remove faster excessive heat and dense smoke.

129. A complete and detailed checked of the structures

and materials involved in the fire to make sure that every
spark and ember has been extinguished and to have
assurance against rekindling.
a. Overhaul
b. Salvage
c. Rescue
d. None

129. A complete and detailed checked of the structures

and materials involved in the fire to make sure that every
spark and ember has been extinguished and to have
assurance against rekindling.
a. Overhaul
b. Salvage
c. Rescue
d. None

Rescue - any action taken by the firefighters to remove

occupants/ persons from building/hazards to a safety
place.
Salvage - an action taken by the firefighters in preventing
excessive damage by fire
Overhaul - searching a fire scene to detect hidden fires
or sparks that may rekindle and to identify the possible
point of origin.

130. Highly flammable chemicals that are used to facilitate

flame propagation.
a. Plant
b. Accelerant
c. Trailer
d. Gasoline

130. Highly flammable chemicals that are used to facilitate

flame propagation.
a. Plant
b. Accelerant
c. Trailer
d. Gasoline
Plant
The preparation and or gathering of combustible materials
needed to start a fire.
Trailer
The preparation of flammable substances in order to spread
the fire.

131. Refers to the willful and malicious burning of all

kinds of buildings and structures including personal
properties.
a. Arson
b. Destructive arson
c. PD 1613
d. Malicious Mischief

Malicious Mischief
(1) That the offender deliberately caused damage to the
property of another;
(2) That such act does not constitute arson or other crimes
involving destruction;
(3) That the act of damaging another's property be
committed merely for the sake of damaging it.

PD 1613
The law amending the law on arson.
Destructive Arson. — The penalty of Reclusion temporal
in its maximum period to Reclusion perpetua shall be
imposed if the property burned is any of the following:
1. Any ammunition factory and other establishment
where explosives, inflammable or combustible materials
are stored.
2. Any archive, museum, whether public or private or any
edifice devoted to culture, education or social services.

3. Any church or place or worship or other building where

people usually assemble.
4. Any train, airplane or any aircraft, vessel or watercraft,
or conveyance for transportation of persons or property.
5. Any building where evidence is kept for use in any
legislative, judicial, administrative or other official
proceedings.

6. Any hospital, hotel, dormitory, lodging house, housing

tenement, shopping center, public or private market,
theater or movie house or any similar place or building.
7. Any building, whether used as dwelling or not, situated
in a populated or congested area.

132. Classification of fire causes. Fire due to human error

or negligence.
a. natural
b. Accidental
c. Incendiarism
d. Undetermined

132. Classification of fire causes. Fire due to human error

or negligence.
a. natural
b. Accidental
c. Incendiarism
d. Undetermined

Classification of fire causes

1. Natural/Providential - w/o direct human intervention.
2. Accidental - due to human error or negligence
3. Incendiarism - fire was deliberately set, aka intentional
fire/arson
4. Undetermined - cause is not proven

133. What is the term used to describe the lowest

temperature at which a flammable liquid in an open
container at which vapors are evolved fast enough to
support continuous combustion.
a. Flash point
b. Fire point
c. Overloading
d. Overheating
133. What is the term used to describe the lowest
temperature at which a flammable liquid in an open
container at which vapors are evolved fast enough to
support continuous combustion.
a. Flash point -supports ignition
b. Fire point
c. Overloading
d. Overheating

Overloading
When one or more electrical appliances or device which
draw or consume electrical current beyond the designed
capacity of the existing electrical system.

134. What is this liquid having a flash point at or above

37.8_C (100_F)?
a. Flammable liquid
b. Combustible liquid
c. Conduction
d. Convection

134. What is this liquid having a flash point at or above

37.8_C (100_F)?
a. Flammable liquid -less than 37.8_C
b. Combustible liquid
c. Conduction
d. Convection
135. The main source where it is assumed to be the
beginning and the exact place where fire started is ___?
a. Ignition temperature
b. Point of origin
c. Incendiarism
d. Corpus delicti

135. The main source where it is assumed to be the

beginning and the exact place where fire started is ___?
a. Ignition temperature
b. Point of origin
c. Incendiarism
d. Corpus delicti

Ignition temperature
The minimum temperature to which the substance in the
air must be heated in order to initiate combustion without
the addition of heat from outside source.
The ignition temperature (sometimes called the
autoignition temperature) is the minimum temperature at
which the material will ignite without a spark or flame
being present.

136. It is a methods of extinguishment where the fuel is

being remove.?
a. Cooling
b. Separation
c. Smothering
d. Inhibition

136. It is a methods of extinguishment where the fuel is

being remove.?
a. Cooling
b. Separation
c. Smothering
d. Inhibition

Methods of Extinguishment
1. Cooling - heat absorption
2. Separation - the removal of the fuel
3. Smothering - by expelling oxygen.
4. Inhibition of the interruption of chemical chain
reaction.

Basis of liability in Arson

1. Kind and character of the building, whether of public
or private ownership.
2. It's location, whether in an uninhabited place or in a
populated place.
3. Extent of damage caused; and
4. The fact of its being inhabited or not.
136. Means employed to avoid the occurrence of fire.
a. Fire Control
b. Fire Suppression
c. Fire Prevention
d. Fire Inspection

136. Means employed to avoid the occurrence of fire.

a. Fire Control
b. Fire Suppression- Pacify the fire
c. Fire Prevention
d. Fire Inspection

Fire Inspection
It is performed to assess the safety of an installation from
destructive fires.