AIBE 16

Official Question Paper

Set (A) with key

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 BCI-OCT-21 AIBE-XVI ENGLISH-SET-C

1. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 issues to be resolved by means

petition in which a of arbitration.
decree of restitution of conjugal d) (a) (b) (c)
rights has been passed to apply to 5. Which of the following Sections of
the court for a decree for divorce the Civil Procedure Code define the
by showing that there has been no Mesne Profit'?
restitution of conjugal rights as a) Section 2(4)
between parties of marriage for a b) Section 2(14)
period of one year or upwards after c)Section2(6)
passing of the decree. d) Section 2(12)
a) Does not permit any party to 6. How many kinds of presumptions
that are there as classified by the
b) Does not permit the party Supreme Court?
against whom the a) Permissive presumptions or
c) Does permit any.party to that presumptions of facts
d) Does permit any person related b) Compelling presumptions or
to either party to that presumptions of law (rebuttable
2. The offences under the Prohibition presumptions)
of Child Marriage Act, 2006 are c)Irrebuttable presumptions of
law or conclusive presumptions.
a) Cognizable and bailable d) All of them
b) Non cognizable and non-bailable 7. What is the leading decision in the
cCognizable and non-bailable case of Menaka Gandhi Vs Union of
d) Non cognizable and bailable India?
3. An arbitration proceeding is a: a) Right of hearing
a) Judicial proceeding b) Separation of powers
b) Quasi-judicial proceeding c) Delegated legislation
c) Administrative proceeding d) Rule of evidence
d) None of the above 8. Advocate's act 1961 came into
4. What is ad hoc arbitration? force on:
a) It is a proceeding administered a) 19th May, 1961
by the parties themselves, with b) 19th April, 1961
rules created solely, for that c) 1st May, 1961
specific case d) 19th January, 1961
b) Parties make their own 9. A Railway servant was killed in a
arrangement with respect to all bus accident during the course of
aspects of the arbitration, employment. His family members
including the laws and rules may claim compensation under
c) The seal of arbitration, the a) The Motor Vehicle Act
language, and the scope and b) The Employees Compensation
 BCI-OCT-21 ENGLISH-SET-C
AIBE-XVI

Act, 1923 made an attempt to look into the

c)Both (a) and (b) question regarding the extension
d) Either under (a) OR under (b) of the right to life to the right
10."Casting Couch" in Bollywood, the to Health and other Hygienic
Indian film industry, is an example conditions
of a) The Rural Litigation and
a)sexual assault Entitlement Kendra Vs State
b) sexual harassment of Uttar Pradesh.
c) both (a) and (b) b) M.C Mehta Vs Union of India
d) None of the above c) V. Lakshmipathy Vs State of
11.According to section 2 of motor Karnataka
vehicles Act, 1988 the term motor d) F.K. Hussain Vs Union of
cab means any motor vehicle India.
constructed or adapted to carry not 15.Basel Convention is associated
more than with one of the following
a) 5 passengers or including the a International Trade in
driver Endangered species of wild
b) 6 passengers or including the Fauna & flora
driver b) Climate change
C) 5 passengers or excluding the c)Protection of Ozone layer
driver d) The control of transboundary
d) 6 passengers or excluding the movement of Hazardous waste
driver and their disposal.
12.The National Commission of 16.Cyber crime is in nature
Consumer Protection is composed a)Tangible
of b) Intangible
a) 7 members; c) Of mental Violence
b) 5 members; d) None of the above
c)8members 17.Under Civil Procedure Code, 1908
d) 6 members; "Foreign Court" means
13.Which of the following sections of a) A court situated outside India
the Hindu Adoption and b) A court situated outside India
Maintenance Act, 1956 deals with and not established under the
"amount of maintenance"? authority of Government of
a) Section 21 India
b) Section 22 c) A court situated in India,
c)Section 23 applying foreign law
d) Section 24 d) All of the above
14.In which of the following case 18.Misuse of mechanism of PILs
the Supreme Court First of all means-
 BCI-OCT-21 AIBE-XVI ENGLISH-SET-C

a) filing PILs for protection of d) 18 month

private interest 23.A Chief Judicial Magistrate may
b) filing PILs for oblique motive pass a sentence of imprisonment
c) filing PILS only for publicity a) Not exceeding seven years
d) All of the above b) Exceeding seven years
19.What is meant by procedural ultra- c) For life
vires? d) None of the above
a It is the non-observance of the 24.Harbouring an offender who has
procedural norms by the rule- escaped from custody, or whose
making authority apprehension has been ordered, if
b) It may make the rule ultra vires the offence be capital is dealt under
due to non-observance of rule- a) Section 215 of IPC
making authority and hence b) Section 216 of IPC
become void c) Section 217 of IPC
c) It means the lacuna in the d) Section 218 of IPC
procedure of law 25.The maxim 'actus not facit reum
d) (a) and (b) nisi mens sit rea' means
20.The ground of "error of law a) There can be no crime without a
apparent on the face of the record" guilty mind
is connected with which of the b) Crime has to be coupled with
writ? guilty mind
a Quo-warranto c) Crime is the result of guilty mind
b) Mandamus d) In crime intention is relevant,
c) Habeas Corpus motive is irrelevant
d) Certiorari 26.Law laid down under section -73 of
21.Under Civil Procedure Code find the Indian Contract Act 1872 is related
incorrect match: to which of the following cases:
a) Section 5.. Revenue Court a) Hothester Vs De-la-tur
b) Section 7. Provincial
. . b) Rabinson Vs Devison
Small Causes Court c) Hedley Vs Baxendal
c) Section 9.. .Pecuniary d) Dikinson Vs Dads
Jurisdiction of Courts 27.Recovery of Specific Immovable
d) Section 8.. Presidency Property may be obtained by C.P.C
Small Cause Courts within what period-
22.What is the Period of Limitation for a) Within 7 months
expeditious disposal of Suit under b) Within 6 months
Specific Relief Act 1963: c) Within 8 months
a) 6 month d) Within 10 months
b) 10 month
c) 12 month
 BCI-OCT-21 ENGLISH-SET-C
AIBE-XV1
28.Who appoints the Commissioner There is offer and acceptance
a)
for rehabilitation and resettlement only.
under the LARR Act? b) There is intention to create legal
a) LARR Authority
relation.
b) Minister of Environment and c)There is loss to one party
Forests d) The loss of one party is the gain
c) Central Government of other party.
d) State Government 34.Provisions of Section 10 of CPC are:
29.The Bond under section 109 Cr.P.C
a) Directory
as security for
good behaviour from b) Mandatory
suspected person can be executed c) None- Mandatory
for a period not exceeding: d Discretionary
a) Six months
35.Constructive res-judicata is
b) Two years contained in which of the
c)Oneyear following?
d) Three months a)Explanation ll to Section 11
30.The maximum limit of Rs. 500 that b) Explanation IV to Section 11
could be paid to the wife as c) Explanation VI to Section 11
maintenance under Section 125 of d) Explanation VIll to Section 11
the Cr.P.C 1973 was removed in: 36.The famous pronouncement of
a) 1973 Delhi High Court regarding
b) 1989 constitutional validity of section
c) 2001 377 Indian Penal Code reversed by
d) 2007 Supreme Court in:
31.The term 'WIPO" stands for: a) NALSA Vs Union of India
a) World Investment policy b) Naz Foundation Vs Government
organization of NCT of Delhi
b) World intellectual property c) Shabnam Hasmi Vs Union of
organization India
c) Wildlife Investigation and d) Suresh Kaushal Vs Naz
Policing organization Foundation
d) World institute for Prevention of 37.Reference to the Arbitration is
organized crime provided in which section of the
32.Health and education cess is Arbitration and Conciliation Act,
applicable t o - 1996
a All assesses a) Section 7
b) All assesses except company b) Section 8
c) Individual/ HUF c) Section9
d) Company only d) Section 10
33.Contractual Liability arises, where:
 BCI-OCT-21 AIBE-XVI
ENGLISH-SET-C
38.Under the head subsequent a) Fifteen days
conduct, which of the following b) Fourteen days
type of conduct would be material? c) Twenty days
a) Change of life d) Thirty days
b) Evasion of justice 43.Punishment of advocates for
c) Fear, trembling misconduct has been given under
d) All of them section of the Advocate's Act - 1961

39.Freedom of Residence under Article a) 30

19 of that Indian Constitution is b)32
available in which of the following c) 35
clauses? d) None
aBClause (1) (E) 44.Under which Section of IPC,
b) Clause (1) (D) Professional Negligence is often
c) Clause (1) (B) invoked against medical
d) Clause (1) (C) professionals in cases alleging
40.Under which section of the professional negligence?
Evidence Act, admissions are a) 303A
defined? b) 304A
a) 17 c) 302
b) 16 d) 305
c) 15 45 A offers a bribe to B, a public
d) 18 servant, as a reward for showing A
41.In which of the following cases the some favour in the exercise of B's
Supreme Court has held that the official functions. B accepts the
investigating officer should be bribe
allowed to refer to the records of a) A has abetted the offence define
investigation in Section 160, IPC
a) State of Karnataka Vs Yarappa bA has abetted the offence define
Reddi in Section 161, IPC
b) Mohammed Khalid Vs State of c)A has abetted the offence define
West Bengal in Section 162, IPC
c) Baburam Vs State of U.P. d) A has abetted the offence define
d) State of Rajasthan Vs Om in Section 163, IPC
prakash 46.When Perpetual Injunction may be
42.If a party who obtained an order for granted-
leave to amend pleading does not a) Where the defendant is trustee
amend the same within how many of the Property for the plaintiff.
days, he shall not be permitted to b) Where there is no standard for
do that without the leave of the ascertaining the actual damage.
Court
 BCI-OCT-21 ENGLISH-SET-C
AIBE-XVI1
c) Compensation in money would d) 120 days
not afford adequate relief. 50.Cyber law deals with
d) All of the above. a) All activities concerning
the
47.An advocate is under an obligation internet
to upholdthe rule of law and b) IPR
ensure that the pubic
justice c) E-commerce
system is enabled to function at its d) All of the above
full potential. Any violation of the 51.The payment of compensation to
principle of professional ethic by an railway employees by the railway
advocate is unfortunate and administration for injuryby accident
unacceptable. Ignoring even a is governed by:
minor violation/misconduct aThe Employees Compensation
militates against the fundamental Act, 1923
foundation of the public justice b) The payment of Wages Act,
system. It was said in- 1936
a Hikmant ali khan Vs Ishwar c)Rights of Persons with
Prasad Arya, 1997 3 SCC 131 Disabilities Act, 2016
b) O.P. Sharma Vs high court of d) The Workmen Compensation
Punjab & Haryana, (2011) 6 SCC Act, 1986
86 52.The minimum amount of
c) L.D. Jaikwal Vs state of Uttar compensation payable under
Pradesh, (1984) 3 SCC 405 Employees Compensation Act,
d) Shamsher singh bedi Vs High 1923 in case of total permanent
court of Punjab & Haryana, disablement of a railway servant
(1996) 7 SCC 99 due to accident is Rs_
48.Section 8 of the companies act, a) Rs 80,000/-
2013 contains provision relating to b) Rs 90,000/-
a) incorporation of company
c)Rs1,40,000/
b) formation of companies with d) Rs 1,20,000/-
charitable objects, etc 53.A company wishes to ensure that
c) effect of registration no one else can use their logo.
d) Effect of memorandum and a) Copy rights
articles. b) Trade mark
49.The verification of the registered c) Patent
office shall be furnished to the
d) Industrial designs
registrar within a period of 54.The Section of the Arbitration and
incorporation Conciliation Act, dealing with the
a) 30 days time of commencement of arbitral
b) 60 days proceeding is
c) 90 days a) Section 20
 BCI-OCT-21 AIBE-XV ENGLISH-SET-C

b) Section 21 . It is assumed that a person who

c) Section 22 is not Muslim, Santhal, Christian,
d) None of the above Jew or Parsi by religion is Hindu
55.Under Criminal procedure Code I. A person who belongs to
1973, who shall record the Lingayat sub sect is assumed to
information of rape being given by be Hindu
a rape victim? . A person converted who
a) Officer in-charge of the police converted to another religion
station needs to follow local ritual/
b) Deputy Superintendent of police custom for converting back to
c) Officer not below the rank of Hinduism
Sub Inspector a) lonly
d) Woman police officer or any b) land I
Woman officer c l only
56.Under the provision of the code of d) land IlI
criminal procedure, 1973 59.Provision for settlement of dispute
a) Summons can be oral outside court has been provided
b) Summons cannot be served on under Section... Of Civil
corporate entities Procedure Code.
c} Summons are either for a) 91
appearance or for producing a b) 89
document/thing c) 51
d) Summons can be served to d) 151
servants in case the person on 60.The Indian Evidence Act came into
whose name summons are made force on
cannot be found a) 6th October, 1860
57.Every person who is a member ora b) 1st March, 1974
defence service or hold a any civil c) 15th March, 1872
post under the Union, holds office d) 1st September, 1872
during the pleasure of the 61.According to the provisions of
a) Prime Minister Article 315 of the Indian
b) President Constitution:
c) Council of Minister I. There shall be a public service
d) Both (A) and (B) commission for the Union and a
58.Which of the following statement/ Public Service commission for
statements is/are false for the each state.
purpose of the Hindu Marriage Act, Il. The public service commission
1955? for the Union, if requested to do
by the governor of a state may,
with the approval of the
 ENGLISH-SET-C
BCI-OCT-21 AIBE-XVI

is not
66.The test of reasonableness
president, agree to serve all or test and its
any of the needs of the state. wholly
Which of the above statements is/are contours are Fairley indicated by
constitution.
correct?
a) Only a) Subjective
b) Only II b) Objective
ef Descriptive
c)landI
d) None of them d) Summative
62.Any private person may arrest any
67.The power to enact a law relating
person who: to the citizenship of India is left to

a) Commits non-bailable offence in under the provisions of

his presence Article 11 of the Indian
bailable offence Constitution.
b) Commits non-

and cognizable offence in his a) President

presence b) Council of ministers

c) Commits compoundable offence c) House of people
in his presence d) Parliament
d) Commits offence in his presence 68.Promissory estoppel against
or is a proclaimed offender Government agencies is decided in:
63.How long a warrant of arrest shall a) Tweedle Vs Atkinson
remain in force? b) Dutton Vs Poole
a) 6 years c) Pournami all Mills Vs State of
b) 10 years Kerala
c)12years d) Kedar Nath Vs Gauri Mohamad
69.Frustration of contract is provided
d) Until executed or cancelled
64.Rate of additional Depreciation by which section of the India
will be----- under section 32- contract Act?

Indian Income Tax Act a) Sec. 73

a) 10 % b) Sec. 70
b) 20 % c) Sec. 2(d)
c) 15 % d) Sec. 56
d) 30 % 70.Schedule Il of the Employees
65.Amount of deduction under section Compensation Act 1923 deals witl
24 of The Income Tax Act from a) Age factor for calculating the
annual value is -
amount of compensation
a) % of Annual Value b)List of persons who are included
in the definition of "Employee'
b) 1/3 of Annual Value
c) 3/10 of Annual Value c)List of occupational diseases
d) 17/10 of Annual Value d) List of injuries Deemed to
Result in Permanent Total
 BCI-OCT-21 AIBE-XV1 ENGLISH-SET-C

Disablement a) Public wrongs

71.Admission can be broadly b) Private wrongs
categorised into: c) Both public and private wrongs
a) Judicial d) None of the above
b) Extra-judicial 76.A discrimination against a man or a
c)Either Aand B woman, only on grounds of
d) Both A and B would be violative of
72.Section 66, Indian Evidence Act lays Article 1S(1)
down: a) Sex
a) A notice must be given before b) Remuneration
secondary evidence can be c) Place of birth
received under section 65 (a), d) Religion
Indian Evidence Act 77.The "Objective Resolution" adopted
b) Notice to produce a document by the constituent assembly on
must be in writing January 22, 1947 was drafted by
c) Order XI, Rules 15, of Civil a) Jawaharlal Nehru
Procedure Code, prescribes the b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
kind of notice to produce a c) Dr. Rajendra Prashad
document d) B.N. Rao
d) All of them 78.Right to the property was
73.Maxim "Res Ipsa Loquitur" means eliminated from the list of
Fundamental Rights during the
a) The thing speaks for itself tenure off
b) Where there is right there is a tndira Gandhi
remedy b} Charan Singh
c)Where there is remedy there c)RajivGandhi
is right d) Morarji Desai
d) Where there is no fault there 79.When the accused states, "I will
is no remedy produce the share which I gave
74.The Committee which led to the received in such and such robbery"
passing of the Criminal Law which of the following are not
(Amendment) Act, 2013 was admissible with regard to Section
headed by 25, Indian Evidence Act?
a) Justice Dalveer Bhandari I. An admission that there was a
b) Justice Altamas Kabir robbery
c) Justice J.S. Verma I. An admission that the accused
d) Justice A.S. Anand took part in it
75.Under the scheme of Criminal An admission that he got part of
Procedure Code, non-cognizable the property
offences are:
 ENGLISH-SET-C
BCI-OCT-21 AIBE-XVI

IV. A statement as to where the c) Render the execution voidable

property is d) Not affect the execution
a) 1, Il and II 85.Where a decree is passed against
b)Illand IV the Union of India or State for the
of
c) I1, l and IV Act done in the official capacity
d) All of them the person concerned, under
80.The rule of Strict Liability is section 82 CPC, execution, shall not
based on the decision in: be issued on any such decree
a) Donoghue Vs Stevenson unless the decree remains
b) Homes Vs Ashford unsatisfied for a period of
c) Rylands Vs Fletcher a) 3 months from the date of
d) None of the above decree
81.The Rule of Last opportunity was b) 6 months from the date of the
Laid down in decree
a) Davies Vs Manh c) 1 year from the date of the
b) State of A.P. Vs Ranganna decree
c) Nugent Vs Smith. d) 2 years from the date of decree
d) Kalawati Vs state of HP 86.On which of the following dates did
82.In which of the following cases was Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 come
it held that "the rights conferred into operation?
under section 25 of the Hindu a) 18th May, 1955
Adoption and Maintenance Act, b) 17th June, 1955
1956 supersedes any contract to c) 22md May, 1955
the contrary. The fact that the date d) 18th June, 1955
of decree makes no difference"? 87.Which of the following properties
a) Surenderabal Vs Suppiah will section 30 of the Hindu
b) Mukesh teli Vs Bharti Teli Succession Act, 1956, govern?
c) Sesi Ammal Vs Thaiyu Ammal I. Tarwad
d) Laxmi Vs Krishna II. Tavazhi
83.A plaint has to be presented to the II. Kutumba
Court under Order IV, Rule 1 in IV. Kavaru
a) Single copy V. llom
b) Duplicate a) 1, 11, and V
c) Triplicate b) I1, IV and V
d) No fixed rule
c) land
84.Omission to give notice under d) All of the above
Order XXI. Rule 22 will
88.The maximum limit of the
a) Render the execution null and members
of the state bar council:
void a) 15
b) Render the execution irregular
b) 20
 BCI-OCT-21 AIBE-XVI ENGLISH-SET-C

c) 25 c) Z has committed an offence for

d) None. not using his mind
89.Specific Relief Act 1963 contains- d) None above
a) 6 chapters and 40 Sections 93.Protection against arrest and
7 detention in certain cases is
b) chapters and 42 Sections
c) 8 chapters and 43 Sections mentioned in which of the
d) 8 chapters and 44 Sections following Articles of Indian
90.The phrase "file a PIL, ostensibly in Constitution?
public interest but, in fact, to serve a) Article 21
personal or private interests" b) Article 21A
means c) Article 22
a) filing PIL for protection of only d) Article 22A
public interest 94.Article 300A of Indian Constitution
b} filing PIL for protection of both i.e. Right to property has been
public and private interest inserted in the Constitution by
c) filing PIL for protection of only
private interest a) 44h Amendment Act
d) filing PIL alleging it to be in b) 42 Amendment Act
public interest but actually c) 40 Amendment Act
seeking protectión of private d) 51st Amendment Act
interest 95.Which of the following sections of
91.Filing of frivolous PILS results in- the Muslim Personal Law (Shariat)
a increasing backlog of cases Application Act, 1937 have been
b) wastage of resources repealed/ amended by section 6 of
c)lesser availability of time for the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage
hearing other genuine cases Act, 1939?
d) All of the above a Section 4
92.7, under the influence of madness, b) Section 5
attempts to kill X. Is Z guilty of an c) Section 6
offence. Has X the same right of d) Section 7
private defence which he would 96.As per section 53 of IPC, the word
have if Z were sane? "injury" denotes any harm
a) Z has not committed any whatever illegally caused to any
offence as per section 98 of IPC person's
and same right of private a) Body
defence to X if Z is mad b) Mind
b) As per Section 98 of IPC, X has c) Reputation
committed an offence and no d All above
right of private defence to X
 ENGLISH-SET-C
BCI-OCT-21 AIBE-XVI

97.Which of the following cases can be d) 20%

Cured under section 465 of the

code of criminal procedure, 1973?
a) Entertaining of complaint
without complying with section
195 and 340 of the Cr.P.C
b) The reading and recording of the
evidence taken in one case into
another companion case

c)The examination of witness in

absence of the accused
d) Non Compliance with 235(2)
98.Which of the following statements
hold true for de nova trials?
a) Omission or illegality in the
procedure even if it does not
affect the core of the case can
become a ground for calling de
nova trials
b) A de nova trial should be the last
resort

c) the court originally trying the

case can order de nova trial
d) None of these
99.In case of land acquisition by the
Central Government for public
private partnership projects,
consent of how many affected
families is mandated by the LARR
Act?
a) 60%
b) 70%
c) 80%
d) 90%
A company which is not a
100.
domestic company will pay
income tax
at the rate of-
a) 25 %
b ) 30%

c) 40%
 Revised Answer Key AIBE-XVI
Qno SET- A SET- B SET- C SET- D
1 D C C B
2 A D C C
3 A D B B
4 B A D B
5 A A D A
6 C A D C
7 C B A C
8 C D A C
9 B A D B
10 C C B C
11 DELETE B D B
12 B A B DELETE
13 B C C D
14 C B A D
15 A D D C
16 B B B A
17 D B B D
18 B D D D
19 C B D B
20 D D D DELETE
21 D D C D
22 B B C B
23 D B A C
24 B A B C
25 DELETE D A A
26 A A C D
27 A B B B
28 A C D D
29 A A C D
30 B D C B
31 D B B B
32 B C A A
33 C C B D
34 B C B DELETE
35 DELETE A B B
36 D C D B
37 B B B D
38 B D D D
39 C B A A
40 A A A D
41 D D A DELETE
42 A D B A
43 C C C C
44 C A B A
45 C D DELETE C
46 B D D D
47 B C B B
48 B B B D
49 D D A B
50 D DELETE D C
51 C B A A
52 B B C C
53 B C B C
54 D D B A
55 D C D D
56 A B C B
57 D DELETE B B
58 B D D D
59 B DELETE B B
60 A A D DELETE
61 D D C A
62 D D B C
63 B A D C
64 D C B C
65 B C C A
66 D B A B
67 C D D A
68 C B C D
69 A D D A
70 D B D A
71 B A D A
72 A D DELETE B
73 B B A D
74 C DELETE C B
75 A A B B
76 C C DELETE D
77 D A A B
78 D B D D
79 A B D D
80 D C C B
81 DELETE B A D
82 A DELETE C C
83 B D B D
84 D D DELETE A
85 B C A A
86 C B A A
87 B B D B
88 DELETE C C D
89 A B D B
90 D B D D
91 D C D C
92 C A A B
93 D D C C
94 C D A D
95 A B B D
96 B D DELETE D
97 D C B B
98 D D B B
99 D A B A
100 C A C C