MSN 2 Short Answers

Medical-Surgical Short Answers @_nursegram 1
MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING 2
UNIT 1 SHORT ANSWERS

1. List four causes deafness.
Ans. Deafness is hearing loss that precludes a person from understanding spoken
language, an audiological condition. Causes include Aging; Noise exposure; Head
trauma; Virus (German measles, cytomegalovirus) or disease; Genetics; Ototoxicity.
2. List down the classification of hearing loss

Ans. Hearing loss is the partial or total inability to hear sound in one or both ears
(unilateral or bilateral). Non organic hearing loss can be defined as an apparent
hearing loss with no evidence of known disorder or insufficient evidence to explain it.
Organic hearing loss includes the three main types of hearing loss are classified as
conducive, sensorineural, and mixed hearing losses. CHL is a type of hearing loss
characterized by having better hearing thresholds for bone-conducted signals
compared with air-conducted signals. CHL is usually associated with dysfunction
located in the outer and/or middle ear while having a normal inner ear function.
SNHL is a hearing loss that occurs as a result of damage in the cochlea or beyond,
that is, either along the 8th cranial nerve or in the brain. Mixed hearing loss is a type
of hearing loss that has a combination of conductive and sensorineural damage in the
same ear.
3. List four causes of speech disorders.

Ans. A speech disorder is a condition in which a person has problems creating or
forming the speech sounds needed to communicate with others. This can make the
child's speech difficult to understand. Causes may include: vocal cord damage, brain
damage, muscle weakness, respiratory weakness, strokes, polyps or nodules on the
vocal cords, vocal cord paralysis, cleft palate, neuromuscular impairment, dementia.
4. List any two indications of speech therapy.

Ans. Speech therapy is the assessment and treatment of communication problems and
speech disorders. Speech therapy techniques are used to improve communication.
These include articulation therapy, language intervention activities, and others.
Indications : articulation disorders(difficulty to form certain sounds) , fluency
disorders(stuttering) , resonance disorders(in cleft palate) , receptive disorders
(autism) , expressive disorders(down syndrome) , cognitive communication disorders
, aphasia, dysarthria
5. Define peritonsillar abscess.
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Ans. A peritonsillar abscess is a bacterial infection that usually begins as a

complication of untreated strep throat or tonsillitis. It generally involves a pus-filled
pocket that forms near tonsils. Peritonsillar abscesses are most common in children,
adolescents, and young adults.Symptoms include fever, throat pain, trouble opening
the mouth, and a change to the voice.
6. Define laryngitis.
Ans. Laryngitis is inflammation of the mucous membrane of the larynx, also known
as the voice box. It can be acute or chronic.Laryngitis is an inflammation of the vocal
cords from overuse, irritation or infection. A viral infection is the most common cause
of laryngitis.Laryngitis can cause a wide range of symptoms in adults, including:
hoarseness, difficulty with speech, throat pain, low fever, persistent cough, frequent
throat clearing.
7. What is adenoiditis
Ans. Adenoiditis is an inflammation of the adenois / adenoid tissue caused by
infection. Adenoids are masses of lymphatic tissue that help the body fight infection.
Adenoids are found in the throat, also called the pharynx, just behind the nose. Along
with the tonsils, adenoids are the first line of defense against bacteria and viruses.
Acute adenoiditis is characterized by fever, runny nose, nasal airway obstruction
resulting in predominantly oral breathing, snoring and sleep apnea, Rhinorrhea.
8. What is oral cancer?

Ans. Oral cancer is cancer that develops in the tissues of the mouth or throat.Oral
cancer appears as a growth or sore in the mouth that does not go away. Oral cancer,
which includes cancers of the lips, tongue, cheeks, floor of the mouth, hard and soft
palate, sinuses, and pharynx. Most develop in the squamous cells found in your
mouth, tongue, and lips. Symptoms include sores on mouth, lips, bleeding, mass or
growth, loose teeth, sore throat, lump in neck .
9. Define parotitis
Ans. Parotitis is an inflammation of one or both parotid glands, the major salivary
glands located on either side of the face, in humans. : it can be acute, chronic, or
chronic with acute exacerbations. Causes include dehydration, infectious paroditis
(bacterial, viral), autoimmune causes, blockage of ducts.
10. What is audiometry?

Ans. Audiometry (from Latin: audīre, "to hear" and metria, “to measure") is a branch
of audiology and the science of measuring hearing acuity for variations in sound
intensity and pitch and for tonal purity, involving thresholds and differing frequencies.
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Results of audiometric tests are used to diagnose hearing loss or diseases of the ear,
and often make use of an audiogram. Typically, audiometric tests determine a subject's
hearing levels with the help of an audiometer, but may also measure ability to
discriminate between different sound intensities, recognize pitch, or distinguish speech
from background noise.
11. List two types of audiometry

Ans. Subjective audiometry requires the cooperation of the subject, and relies upon
subjective responses which may both qualitative and quantitative, and involve
attention (focus), reaction time, etc. (Weber test, rinne test, bing test). Objective
audiometry is based on physical, acoustic or electrophysiologic measurements and
does not depend on the cooperation or subjective responses of the
subject.(tympanometry, Electronystagmography (ENG) )
12. What are hearing aids?

Ans. A hearing aid is a device designed to improve hearing by making sound audible
to a person with hearing loss. Hearing aids are used for a variety of pathologies
including sensorineural hearing loss, conductive hearing loss, and single-sided
deafness. Types include Behind-The-Ear (BTE), Receiver-In-Canal (RIC), In-The-Ear
(ITE), In-The-Canal (ITC), Completely-In-Canal (CIC), Invisible (IIC).
13. Define tympanic membrane perforation

Ans. Tympanic membrane perforation, also known as a perforated eardrum, is a hole
in the thin membrane that separates the ear canal from the middle ear. Tympanic
membrane perforations (TMPs) can result from infection (acute or chronic) or trauma,
or be secondary to otologic procedures (iatrogenic). Symptoms include sharp ear pain
that subsides quickly, drainage, ringing in the ear (tinnitus) or hearing loss.
14. List the etiological factors of tympanic membrane

Ans. Infection of middle ear, direct injury to the ear, sudden loud noises explosion,
barotrauma-changes in altitude, pressure , rupture during surgery, during cleaning the
ear (improper wax removal) , severe blow, foreign bodies such as hair pin, keys.
15. List the Clinical manifestations of tympanic membrane

Ans. Otalgia , bleeding, fullness of ear, tinnitus, hearing loss (conductive or mixed),
discomfort, vertigo, blood tinged discharge.
16. Define. Otosclerosis.

Ans. Otosclerosis is a term derived from oto, meaning “of the ear,” and sclerosis,
meaning “abnormal hardening of body tissue.” The condition is caused by abnormal
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bone remodeling in the middle ear. This condition affects one of the ossicles (the
stapes) resulting in hearing loss, tinnitus, vertigo or a combination of symptoms.
Otosclerosis can be caused by both genetic and environmental factors, such as a viral
infection (like measles). Otosclerosis happens because there is abnormal bone
formation in one of the tiny bones in the middle ear. Symptoms include hearing loss,
speaking softly, Hearing sounds from within your body, Dizziness and balance
problems.
17. Define meniere’s disease?

Ans. Meniere's disease is a disorder of the inner ear that can lead to dizzy spells
(vertigo) and hearing loss. In most cases, Meniere's disease affects only one ear.
Meniere's disease is a chronic inner ear disorder that can cause problems with hearing
and balance. Classic symptoms include pressure in the ear, hearing loss, vertigo and
tinnitus. Potential causes or triggers of Meniere's disease include:Head injury,
Infection to the inner or middle ear, Allergies, Alcohol use, Stress, Side effects of
certain medications, Smoking, Stress or anxiety, Fatigue, Family history of the
disease, Respiratory infection,Recent viral illness,Abnormal immune
response,Migraines.
SHORT ANSWERS-DK
1. Define otalgia.
Ans. Otalgia is defined as ear pain. Two separate and distinct types of otalgia exist.
Pain that originates within the ear is primary otalgia; pain that originates outside the
ear is referred otalgia. Typical sources of primary otalgia are external otitis, otitis
media, mastoiditis, and auricular infections. referred otalgia is pain felt in the ear but
originating from a non otologic source.
2. Write the method of foreign body removal from the throat.

Ans. All pharyngeal foreign bodies are medical emergencies that require airway
protection. Because complete airway obstruction usually occurs at the time of
aspiration and results in immediate respiratory distress. The most common foreign
bodies in the throat are pieces of plastic, metal pins, seeds, nuts, bones, coins, and
dental appliances. Radiography can be helpful in localizing coins, button batteries, and
other radiopaque objects, but most laryngeal foreign bodies, including many fish
bones, are radiolucent. Establish exactly what was swallowed, when, and the
progression of symptoms since then. If symptoms are mild, test the patient's ability to
swallow, first using a small cup of water and then small piece of bread. Percuss and
auscultate the patient's chest. A foreign body sensation in the throat can be produced
by a pneumothorax, pneumomediastinum, or esophageal disease, all of which may
show up on a chest x ray. • With the patient sitting in a chair, inspect the oropharynx
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with a tongue depressor, looking for foreign bodies or abrasions • Inspect the
hypopharynx with a good light or headlamp mirror. If the object can been seen
directly, carefully grasp and remove it with bayonet forceps or hemostat. Reserve rigid
laryngoscopy, esophagoscopy, and bronchoscopy under general anesthesia for the few
cases where your suspicion of a perforating foreign body remains high.
3. What are the clinical manifestations of foreign body in the ear?

Ans. Symptoms of a foreign body in the ear include the sensation of fullness or having
something stuck in the ear, pain, inflammation, irritation and a decrease in hearing on
the affected side. Associated symptoms can include vomiting and nausea, cough, and
bleeding, unsteady walking results from inflammation of the ear or build-up of
pressure on the eardrum causing dysfunction of their middle ear.
4. List types of otalgia.

Ans. Otalgia can be classified as primary or referred. Primary otalgia is ear pain that
originates inside the ear (Otogenic otalgia originates from diseases of the external,
middle and inner ear ) maybe due to Laceration & bite • Impacted wax • Hematoma •
Foreign body , whereas referred otalgia is ear pain that originates from outside the ear
due to teeth infection, oral infection ,trigeminal neuralgia, sinusitis.
5. Enumerate the causes of nasal obstruction

Ans. Nasal obstruction is not a disease but rather a symptom of an underlying
disorder that causes the nasal passages to be blocked or obstructed. some of the most
common causes include enlarged adenoids,Structural Abnormality. Deformities of the
nasal septum and nasal allergies. Less common causes of nasal blockages are nasal
polyps, sinus infection, non allergic rhinitis, tumors and congenital malformations of
the nose.
6. List complications of suppurative otitis media

Ans. suppurative otitis media (CSOM) is the result of an initial episode of acute otitis
media and is characterized by a persistent discharge from the middle ear through a
tympanic perforation. It is an important cause of preventable hearing loss.
COMPLICATIONS intratemporal complications include 1.Mastoiditis (acute & latent)
2.Petrositis 3.Facial paralysis 4.labyrinthitis . Intracranial complications include
meningitis, extradural and subdural abscess, brain abscess, otitic hydrocephalus.
7. List surgical interventions of suppurative otitis media

Ans. Tympanoplasty, a surgery that seals the perforation, prevents the translocation
of bacteria from the external ear canal into the middle ear; the uninflamed, protected
middle ear mucosa deters future development of CSOM. Tympanocentesis is the
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trans-tympanic needle aspiration of Media effusion (ME) contents. Aspiration of fluid

reduces ME pressure and is very effective in relieving pain. myringotomy is a
surgical procedure in which a tiny incision is created in the eardrum (tympanic
membrane) to relieve pressure caused by excessive buildup of fluid, or to drain pus
from the middle ear. mastoidectomy is a surgical procedure that removes diseased
mastoid air cells if it's associated with mastoiditis. Adenoidectomy for removal of
adenoid if it's related to infection.
8. Enumerate the Indications for otoscopic examination

Ans. The otoscope exam helps to assess the condition of the external auditory canal (
EAC), tympanic membrane (TM), and the middle ear. Indications : an earache, an ear
infection, hearing loss, ringing in your ears, any other ear-related symptoms, discharge
from ear, fullness of ear, head injury, chronic ear infections.
9. List indications for ear irrigation.

Ans. Ear irrigation is an ear cleansing method that people use to remove a buildup of
earwax. Irrigation involves inserting liquid into the ears to flush the earwax out.
Indications : earwax buildup, foreign body in the ear, pain/discomfort, total
occlusion, otitis externa, tinnitus (but may aggravate)
10. Define Quinsy

Ans. Peritonsillar abscess (PTA), also known as quinsy, is an accumulation of pus due
to an infection behind the tonsil. Symptoms include fever, throat pain, trouble opening
the mouth, and a change to the voice. Pain is usually worse on one side. They are
typically due to infection by a number of types of bacteria.
11. What is impacted wax?

Ans. Cerumen impaction refers to the buildup of layers of earwax within the ear canal
to the point of blocking the canal and putting pressure on the eardrum. Symptoms :
Decreased hearing, Dizziness, Ear pain, Plugged or fullness sensation, Ringing in the
ear. Causes: improper wax removal technique, old age, use of hearing aids
12. What is Tympanoplasty

Ans. Tympanoplasty is a surgical technique to repair a defect in the tympanic
membrane with the placement of a graft, either medial or lateral to the tympanic
membrane annulus. The goal of this surgical procedure is not only to close the
perforation but also to improve hearing. tympanoplasty is recommended when the
eardrum is torn (perforated), sunken in (atelectatic), or otherwise abnormal and
associated with hearing loss.
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13. What is nasal septal deviation?

Ans. A deviated septum occurs when the thin wall (nasal septum) between your nasal
passages is displaced to one side. In many people, the nasal septum is off-center — or
deviated — making one nasal passage smaller. When a deviated septum is severe, it
can block one side of your nose and reduce airflow, causing difficulty breathing.
Symptoms : nasal obstruction, bleeding, facial pain, noisy breathing during sleep
14. List the types of hearing aids

Ans. Behind-The-Ear (BTE), Receiver-In-Canal (RIC), In-The-Ear (ITE)
In-The-Canal (ITC), Completely-In-Canal (CIC),Invisible (IIC)
15. What is ototoxicity ?

Ans. Ototoxicity is the property of being toxic to the ear (oto-), specifically the
cochlea or auditory nerve and sometimes the vestibular system, for example, as a side
effect of a drug. The effects of ototoxicity can be reversible and temporary, or
irreversible and permanent.
Ototoxic drugs include antibiotics such as gentamicin, streptomycin, tobramycin, loop
diuretics such as furosemide and platinum-based chemotherapy agents such as
cisplatin and carboplatin. A number of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
(NSAIDS) have also been shown to be ototoxic. This can result in sensorineural
hearing loss, dysequilibrium, or both.
16. List down any FOUR ototoxic drugs

Ans. Ototoxic drugs include antibiotics such as gentamicin, streptomycin,
tobramycin, loop diuretics such as furosemide and platinum-based chemotherapy
agents such as cisplatin and carboplatin. A number of nonsteroidal
anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS) have also been shown to be ototoxic.
UNIT 2 SHORT ANSWERS-MK

1. List the Clinical manifestations of glaucoma.
Ans. Glaucoma is a disease that damages your eye’s optic nerve. It usually happens
when fluid builds up in the front part of your eye. That extra fluid increases the
pressure in your eye, damaging the optic nerve. Symptoms : open angle glaucoma
Patchy blind spots in your side (peripheral) or central vision, frequently in both eyes,
Tunnel vision in the advanced stages. In Acute angle-closure glaucoma symptoms
include Severe headache,Eye pain, Nausea and vomiting, Blurred vision, Halos
around lights,Eye redness.
2. Enumerate the medical management for glaucoma
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Ans. Glaucoma is treated by lowering your eye pressure (intraocular pressure).

Depending on your situation, your options may include prescription eyedrops, oral
medications, laser treatment, surgery or a combination of any of these. Glaucoma
treatment often starts with prescription eyedrops. These can help decrease eye
pressure by improving how fluid drains from your eye or by decreasing the amount of
fluid your eye makes. Prescription eyedrop medications include: Prostaglandins, beta
blockers, Alpha-adrenergic agonists, Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, cholinergic
agents. oral medication, usually a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor. Carbonic anhydrase
inhibitors (CAIs) reduce eye pressure by decreasing the production of intraocular
fluid. (acetazolamide). Laser trabeculoplasty is an option if you have open-angle
glaucoma.
3. List any two functions of eye banks.

Ans.Eye banks are the institutions responsible for collecting (harvesting) and
processing donor corneas, and for distributing them to trained corneal graft surgeons.
Eye banks are regulated and part of the local health system; they may be attached to a
hospital or housed in a separate building. Eye banks recover, prepare and deliver
donated eyes for cornea transplants and research
4. Differentiate between mature & immature cataracts.

Ans.A cataract is a cloudy area in the lens of the eye that leads to a decrease in vision
.An immature cataract has some transparent protein, but with a mature cataract, all the
lens protein is opaque. Iris shadow is present in immature cataract whereas it's absent
in mature cataract. Fundus maybe visible in immature cataract whereas no fundus
details in mature cataract. Vision reduced to varying degree in immature cataract
whereas vision reduced to hand movements close to face or to perception of light in
mature cataract.
5. Enumerate the etiology of cataracts.

Ans. Causes of cataract • Old age (commonest) • Ocular & systemic diseases – DM –
Uveitis – Previous ocular surgery • Systemic medication – Steroids – Phenothiazines •
Trauma & intraocular foreign bodies • Ionizing radiation – X-ray – UV • Congenital –
Part of a syndrome – Abnormal galactose metabolism – Hypoglycemia • Inherited
abnormality – Myotonic dystrophy – Marfan’s syndrom – Rubella – High myopia
6. List emergencies of eye.

Ans. Retinal arterial Perforation, Orbital cellulitis occlusion ,Ruptured Orbital injury
,Chemical burns ,Acute glaucoma Corneal ulcer ,Sudden congestion, Corneal abrasion
proptosis Hyphema ,Intraocular FB Retinal detachment, Macular edema ,Acute
Angle-Closure Glaucoma ,Central Retinal Artery Occlusion. Ocular burns and trauma
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Ocular Burn Alkali Burns Acid Burns Thermal Burns Burns Due to Ultraviolet
Radiation Mechanical Trauma to the Eye Penetrating or Perforating injuries Blunt
Trauma to the Eye, Adnexa,& Orbit. Lacerations of the Eyelids ,Orbital hemorrhage,
Fracture of the Ethmoid bone, Blowout Fractures of the Floor of the Orbit, Corneal
Abrasions ,Corneal & Conjunctival Foreign Bodies Ocular Emergencies.
7. state the characteristic symptoms of retinal detachment.

Ans. Retinal detachment is a disorder of the eye in which the retina separates from the
layer underneath.Symptoms include an increase in the number of floaters, flashes of
light, and worsening of the outer part of the visual field. very brief flashes of light
(photopsia) in the extreme peripheral (outside of center) part of vision, a sudden
dramatic increase in the number of floaters, a ring of floaters or hairs just to the
temporal (skull) side of the central vision.a dense shadow that starts in the peripheral
vision and slowly progresses towards the central vision, the impression that a veil or
curtain was drawn over the field of vision, straight lines (scale, edge of the wall, road,
etc.) that suddenly appear curved (positive Amsler grid test), central visual loss.
8. Define Astigmatism.
Ans. Astigmatism is a type of refractive error in which the eye does not focus light
evenly on the retina. This results in distorted or blurred vision at any distance.Other
symptoms can include eyestrain, headaches, and trouble driving at night. Astigmatism
is a common vision problem caused by an error in the shape of the cornea. With
astigmatism, the lens of the eye or the cornea, which is the front surface of the eye,
has an irregular curve.
7. What is the use of Snellen chart?

Ans. A Snellen chart is an eye chart that can be used to measure visual acuity. Snellen
charts are named after the Dutch ophthalmologist Herman Snellen, who developed the
chart in 1862. The Snellen test uses a chart of letters or symbols. Viewed from 14 to
20 feet away, this chart helps determine how well you can see letters and shapes.
During the test, you’ll sit or stand a specific distance away from the chart and cover
one eye. You’ll read out loud the letters you see with your uncovered eye. You’ll
repeat this process with your other eye. Typically, your doctor will ask you to read
smaller and smaller letters until you can no longer accurately distinguish letters.
8. State the purposes of slit-lamp examination.

Ans. A slit lamp is an instrument consisting of a high-intensity light source that can be
focused to shine a thin sheet of light into the eye. The lamp facilitates an examination
of the anterior segment and posterior segment of the human eye, which includes the
eyelid, sclera, conjunctiva, iris, natural crystalline lens, and cornea. The binocular
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slit-lamp examination provides a stereoscopic magnified view of the eye structures in

detail, enabling anatomical diagnoses to be made for a variety of eye conditions. The
slit lamp exam may detect many diseases of the eye, including:Cataract,
Conjunctivitis, Corneal injury such as corneal ulcer or corneal swelling, Diabetic
retinopathy, Macular degeneration, Retinal detachment, Retinal vessel occlusion.
9. Define Glaucoma.
Ans. Glaucoma: A common eye condition in which the fluid pressure inside the eye
rises to a level higher than healthy for that eye. If untreated, it may damage the optic
nerve, causing the loss of vision or even blindness.
10. What Is Myopia?

Ans. a condition in which the visual images come to a focus in front of the retina of
the eye resulting especially in defective vision of distant objects :
NEARSIGHTEDNESS. Myopia: Nearsightedness, the ability to see close objects
more clearly than distant objects. Myopia can be caused by a longer-than-normal
eyeball or by any condition that prevents light rays from focusing on the retina. Most
forms of myopia can be managed with corrective lenses.
11. What is Hypermetropia?

Ans. Far-sightedness, also known as long-sightedness, hypermetropia, or hyperopia, is
a condition of the eye where distant objects are seen clearly but near objects appear
blurred. This blurred effect is due to incoming light being focused behind, instead of
on, the retina wall due to insufficient accommodation by the lens. Management can
occur with eyeglasses, contact lenses or refractive corneal surgeries. Glasses are
easiest while contact lenses can provide a wider field of vision.
12. What is Conjuctivitis?

Ans. Conjunctivitis, also known as pink eye, is inflammation of the outermost layer of
the white part of the eye and the inner surface of the eyelid. It makes the eye appear
pink or reddish. Pain, burning, scratchiness, or itchiness may occur. Conjunctivitis can
affect one or both eyes. Infective conjunctivitis is most commonly caused by a virus.
Bacterial infections, allergies, other irritants, and dryness are also common causes.
Both bacterial and viral infections are contagious, passing from person to person or
spread through contaminated objects or water.
13. What do you mean by diplopia?

Ans. Diplopia is the simultaneous perception of two images of a single object that
may be displaced horizontally, vertically, diagonally (i.e., both vertically and
horizontally), or rotationally in relation to each other. Also called double vision, it is a
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loss of visual focus under regular conditions, and is often voluntary. Diplopia has a
diverse range of ophthalmologic, infectious, autoimmune, neurological, and neoplastic
causes. Diplopia can be one of the first signs of a systemic disease, particularly to a
muscular or neurological process, and it may disrupt a person's balance, movement, or
reading abilities.
14. What is night blindness?

Ans. Nyctalopia also called night-blindness, is a condition making it difficult or
impossible to see in relatively low light. It is a symptom of several eye diseases. Night
blindness may exist from birth, or be caused by injury or malnutrition (for example,
vitamin A deficiency). It can be described as insufficient adaptation to darkness. The
most common cause of nyctalopia is retinitis pigmentosa, a disorder in which the rod
cells in the retina gradually lose their ability to respond to the light. Another cause of
night blindness is a deficiency of retinol, or vitamin A, found in fish oils, liver and
dairy products.
15. Differentiate entropian & ectropian

Ans. Entropion is a medical condition in which the eyelid (usually the lower lid) folds
inward. It is very uncomfortable, as the eyelashes continuously rub against the cornea
causing irritation. Entropion is usually caused by genetic factors. Entropion can also
create secondary pain of the eye (leading to self trauma, scarring of the eyelid, or
nerve damage). The upper or lower eyelid can be involved, and one or both eyes may
be affected. Ectropion is a condition in which your eyelid turns outward. This leaves
the inner eyelid surface exposed and prone to irritation. Ectropion is more common in
older adults, and it generally affects only the lower eyelid. In severe ectropion, the
entire length of the eyelid is turned out. Causes maybe congenital, aging, scarring,
allergy,facial nerve palsy.
16. What is enucleation?

Ans. Enucleation is the removal of the eye that leaves the eye muscles and remaining
orbital contents intact. This type of ocular surgery is indicated for a number of ocular
tumors, in eyes that have suffered severe trauma, and in eyes that are otherwise blind
and painful. Indications: cancer of eye,Severe injury of the eye when the eye cannot
be saved ,End stage glaucoma, Phthisis bulbi,Painful blind eye, congenital cystic eye,
sympathetic ophthalmia.
17. What is Evisceration?

Ans. An evisceration is the removal of the eye's contents, leaving the scleral shell and
extraocular muscles intact. The procedure is usually performed to reduce pain or
improve cosmesis in a blind eye, as in cases of endophthalmitis unresponsive to
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antibiotics. In an evisceration, the implant is wrapped by the sclera with the

extraocular muscles still attached.
SHORT ANSWERS-DK
1. What are the chief complaints of a patient with Uveitis?
Ans. Uveitis is a general term describing a group of inflammatory diseases that
produces swelling and destroys eye tissues. Chief complaints include Eye redness,
Eye pain, Light sensitivity, Blurred vision, Dark, floating spots in your field of vision
(floaters), Decreased vision.
2. List two common malignant tumors of the eyelids?

Ans. Eyelid tumors are very similar to skin tumors except they form on the upper or
lower eyelids. They can be non-invasive (benign) or invasive (malignant). Basal cell
carcinoma — The most common malignant eyelid tumor, basal cell carcinoma
appears as a small lump. It is most often found on the lower eyelid . Squamous cell
carcinoma — An aggressive tumor of the outer layer of the skin. It often results from
excessive sun exposure and is usually found on the upper eyelid.
3. Define blepharitis.
Ans. Blepharitis is an inflammation of the eyelids in which they become red, irritated
and itchy with dandruff-like scales that form on the eyelashes. It is a common eye
disorder caused by either bacteria or a skin condition, such as dandruff . It's classified
into posterior and anterior blepharitis.
4. Define Hordeolum.
Ans. hordeolum aka stye is an acute bacterial infection of the glands of the eyelid. An
internal hordeolum affects the Meibomian (oil) glands . The cause of a stye is usually
a bacterial infection by Staphylococcus aureus.The internal ones are due to infection
of the meibomian gland while the external ones are due to an infection of the gland of
Zeis.
5. What is a Chalazion?
Ans. Chalazion (also known as Meibomian cyst) is a cyst in the eyelid usually due to a
blocked meibomian gland.They are typically in the middle of the eyelid, red, and not
painful. It can develop on the upper or lower eyelid, and may disappear without
treatment. In the early stages, a chalazion appears as a small, red or otherwise
inflamed area of the eyelid. Within a few days, this inflammation can develop into a
painless and slow-growing lump. A chalazion can appear on the upper or lower eyelid,
but they are more common on the upper lid.
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6. State any two common types benign tumors of the eyelids.

Ans. Nevus — These are freckles with or without color that form on the eyelid or
eyelid margin. These rarely become malignant. Papilloma — A painless growth that
is similar to a skin tag and most often seen in middle-aged or elderly people. Others
include pseudoepitheliomatous hyperplasia, seborrheic keratosis, keratoacanthoma,
and inverted follicular keratosis.
7. Define blindness?
Ans. The term blindness is used for complete or nearly complete vision loss.
Blindness is defined as the state of being sightless. A blind individual is unable to see.
Causes of blindness include glaucoma, macular degeneration, cataract, optic neuritis,
tumors affecting retina or optic nerve.
8. List types of ocular prosthesis.

Ans. An ocular prosthesis, artificial eye or glass eye is a type of craniofacial prosthesis
that replaces an absent natural eye following an enucleation, evisceration, or orbital
exenteration. The prosthesis fits over an orbital implant and under the eyelids. The
most common type of artificial eye is the Moulded Prosthesis, that is an eye that is
produced individually and specifically. Cosmetic Shell This type of eye is of a thinner
construction and worn over an existing eye disguising any disfigurement. Some are
made of medical grade plastic acrylic. A few ocular prostheses today are made of
cryolite glass. A variant of the ocular prosthesis is a very thin hard shell known as a
scleral shell which can be worn over a damaged or eviscerated eye. There are many
different types of implants, classification ranging from shape (spherical vs egg (oval)
shaped), stock vs custom, porous vs nonporous, specific chemical make-up, and the
presence of a peg or motility post. divide implant types into two main groups:
non-integrated (non-porous) and integrated (porous). Non-integrated implants
include the acrylic (PMMA), glass, and silicone spheres.porous include synthetic
hydroxyapatite, aluminium oxide, and polyethylene.
9. List any two functions of Nurse in an Eye camp.

Ans. Counseling of patients to make them aware of how serious a blinding condition
is in order for them to comply with the treatment protocols. Assist the visiting
ophthalmologist by preparing patients for surgeries and monitor their condition after
surgery. Organize and lead outreach programmes. Perform general consultation of
patients.
10. What is the use of Opthalmoscope?

Ans. The ophthalmoscope consists of a metallic optical tube, usually made of a
durable light weight metal such as chrome-plated brass for proper alignment of the
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contents. Inside this tube, glass condensing lens, objective lens, mirror/prism aperture
dial assembly, red-free/polarizer assembly and lamp are sealed. It is used to detect
and evaluate symptoms of retinal detachment or eye diseases such as glaucoma.
Ophthalmoscopy may also be done if you have signs or symptoms of high blood
pressure, diabetes, or other diseases that affect the blood vessels.
1. List cranial nerves.

And. The cranial nerves are 12 pairs of nerves that can be seen on the ventral (bottom)
surface of the brain. I. Olfactory nerve II. Optic nerve III. Oculomotor nerve IV.
Trochlear nerve V. Trigeminal nerve VI. Abducens nerve VII. Facial nerve VIII.
Vestibulocochlear nerve IX. Glossopharyngeal nerve X. Vagus nerve XI.
Accessory nerve XII. Hypoglossal nerve.
2. Differentiate Primary & Secondary headache.

Ans. Headache is the symptom of pain in the face, head, or neck. (Cephalalgia)
Headaches are broadly classified as "primary" or "secondary".Primary headaches
are benign, recurrent headaches not caused by underlying disease or structural
problems. For example, migraine is a type of primary headache. While primary
headaches may cause significant daily pain and disability, they are not dangerous from
a physiological point of view. Secondary headaches are caused by an underlying
disease, like an infection, head injury, vascular disorders, brain bleed, stomach
irritation or tumors. Secondary headaches can be dangerous. Certain "red flags" or
warning signs indicate a secondary headache may be dangerous.
3. List major types of head injuries.

Ans. A head injury is any sort of injury to your brain, skull, or scalp. This can range
from a mild bump or bruise to a traumatic brain injury. Common head injuries include
concussions, skull fractures, and scalp wounds. Major types are hematoma (
hematoma is a collection, or clotting, of blood outside the blood vessels), hemorrhage,
concussion ( A concussion occurs when the impact on the head is severe enough to
cause brain injury.), edema, skull fracture, Diffuse axonal injury (injury to the brain
that doesn’t cause bleeding but does damage the brain cells).
1. Differentiate between Paraplegia, hemiplegia and quadriplegia.

Ans. Paralysis is the inability—whether temporary or permanent—to move a part of
the body. Hemiplegia is, in its most severe form, complete paralysis of half of the
body. Hemiplegia, paralysis of the muscles of the lower face, arm, and leg on one side
of the body. Causes of hemiplegia include stroke, trauma, brain tumors, and brain.
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Paraplegia is an impairment in motor or sensory function of the lower extremities. It

is usually caused by spinal cord injury or a congenital condition that affects the neural
(brain) elements of the spinal canal. The area of the spinal canal that is affected in
paraplegia is either the thoracic, lumbar, or sacral regions. Tetraplegia, also known as
quadriplegia, is paralysis caused by illness or injury that results in the partial or total
loss of use of all four limbs and torso; paraplegia is similar but does not affect the
arms. The loss is usually sensory and motor, which means that both sensation and
control are lost. The paralysis may be flaccid or spastic. Tetraplegia is caused by
damage to the brain or the spinal cord at a high level. The injury, which is known as a
lesion, causes victims to lose partial or total function of all four limbs, meaning the
arms and the legs. Typical causes of this damage are trauma (such as a traffic
collision, diving into shallow water, a fall, a sports injury), disease (such as transverse
myelitis, Guillain–Barré syndrome, multiple sclerosis, or polio), or congenital
disorders (such as muscular dystrophy).
2. Define herniation of intervertebral disc.

Ans. A herniated disc (also called bulged, slipped or ruptured) is a fragment of
the disc nucleus that is pushed out of the annulus, into the spinal canal through a
tear or rupture in the annulus. Discs that become herniated usually are in an early
stage of degeneration. Spinal disc herniation is an injury to the cushioning and
connective tissue between vertebrae, usually caused by excessive strain or trauma to
the spine. It may result in back pain, pain or sensation in different parts of the body,
and physical disability.
3. Define Gliomas.
Ans. Glioma is a type of tumor that occurs in the brain and spinal cord. Gliomas
begin in the gluey supportive cells (glial cells) that surround nerve cells and help
them function. Gliomas comprise about 30 percent of all brain tumors and central
nervous system tumours, and 80 percent of all malignant brain tumours. A brain
glioma can cause headaches, vomiting, seizures, and cranial nerve disorders as a result
15
of increased intracranial pressure. A glioma of the optic nerve can cause visual loss.
Spinal cord gliomas can cause pain, weakness, or numbness in the extremities.
4. List FOUR warning signs of aneurysms.

Ans. A brain aneurysm, also known as a subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH), is a weak
spot in the wall of a blood vessel inside the brain. Common warning signs and
symptoms of a ruptured aneurysm include: Sudden, extremely severe headache,
Nausea and vomiting, Stiff neck, Blurred or double vision, Sensitivity to light,
Seizure, A drooping eyelid, Loss of consciousness.
5. List the changes occur in CSF in bacterial Meningitis.

Ans. Haemophilus influenzae type B, Neisseria meningitides ,Streptococcus
pneumoniae. Typical CSF abnormalities associated with bacterial meningitis
include the following: Turbidity, Increased opening pressure (>180 mm water),
Pleocytosis (usually of polymorphonuclear (PMN) leukocytes); WBC counts > 10
cells/mm3, Decreased glucose concentration (<45 mg/dl), Increased protein
concentration (>45 mg/dl),Low CSF chloride (less than 110mmol/1) is used to
distinguish tuberculous from viral and bacterial meningitis, CSF lactate
dehydrogenase (LDH) may be elevated in bacterial meningitis, CSF adenosine
deaminase (ADA) elevations can occur in tuberculous meningitis.
6. Define Chorea.
Ans. Chorea is a movement disorder that causes involuntary, irregular,
unpredictable muscle movements. The disorder can make you look like you're
dancing (the word chorea comes from the Greek word for “dance”) or look restless or
fidgety. abnormal involuntary movement disorder, one of a group of neurological
disorders called dyskinesias. Caused by Huntington's disease, other genetic causes
such as brain iron accumulation disease, Wilson's disease. The most common acquired
causes of chorea are cerebrovascular disease and HIV.
7. State the triad of Parkinson ’s syndrome.

Ans. Parkinson's disease (PD) is a long-term degenerative disorder of the central
nervous system that mainly affects the motor system. The most obvious early
symptoms are tremor, rigidity, slowness of movement, and difficulty with walking.
Cognitive and behavioral problems may also occur with depression, anxiety, and
apathy occurring in many people with PD. It is clinically manifested by a triad of
cardinal motor symptoms - rigidity, bradykinesia( slowness of movement) and
tremor - due to loss of dopaminergic neurons.
11. List the stages of Seizures.
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Ans. Seizures take on many different forms and have a beginning (prodrome: people
can tell seizure is on it's way, experience symptoms such as anxiety,mood changes)
and aura: generally considered an early part of the seizure. deja vu, dizziness,odd
smells), middle phase (ictal: the time from the first symptom to the end of the seizure
activity. It is during this time that intense electrical activity is occurring in the brain.
Loss of awareness, twitching, Loss of muscle control and repeated movement) and
end phase (postictal : This is the recovery stage and during this phase any physical
after effects of the seizure are felt. Confusion, Loss of consciousness, tiredness,
headache, fear and anxiety) stage.
12. Write the constituents of CSF.

Ans. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear, colorless body fluid found within the tissue
that surrounds the brain and spinal cord of all vertebrates. Water 99.13%, solids
0.87%. solid contain inorganic and organic compounds. Organic compound
contains proteins, amino acid, glucose, creatinine, lactic acid, urea, cholesterol,
uric acid. Inorganic compounds contain Na, Ca, K, Mg, chlorides, phosphates,
bicarbonates, sulfates.
13. List FOUR clinical features of increased intracranial pressure.

Ans. A brain injury or another medical condition can cause growing pressure inside
your skull. This dangerous condition is called increased intracranial pressure (ICP)
and can lead to a headache. The pressure also further injure your brain or spinal cord.
symptoms and signs that suggest a rise in ICP include headache, vomiting
without nausea, ocular palsies, altered level of consciousness, back pain and
papilledema. behavior changes, reduced alertness,sleepiness, muscle weakness,
speech or movement difficulties, blurred vision, confusion.
8. What is Bell’s Palsy?

Ans. Bell's palsy is a type of facial paralysis that results in a temporary inability
to control the facial muscles on the affected side of the face.Symptoms can vary
from mild to severe. They may include muscle twitching, weakness, or total loss of
the ability to move one, and in rare cases, both sides of the face. Other symptoms
include drooping of the eyelid, a change in taste, and pain around the ear. The cause of
Bell's palsy is unknown. Risk factors include diabetes, a recent upper respiratory tract
infection, and pregnancy. It results from a dysfunction of cranial nerve VII (the facial
nerve).Bell's palsy is an unexplained episode of facial muscle weakness or paralysis
that usually resolves on its own and causes no complications.
9. What is Trigeminal Neuralgia ?
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Ans. Trigeminal neuralgia is a condition characterized by pain coming from the

trigeminal nerve, which affects the face — most commonly one side of the jaw or
cheek. It is often described as stabbing, lancinating or electrical in sensation and so
severe that the affected person cannot eat or drink. Trigeminal neuralgia is sometimes
known as tic douloureux, which means "painful tic." Usually, the problem is contact
between a normal blood vessel and the trigeminal nerve at the base of your brain. This
contact puts pressure on the nerve and causes it to malfunction. Trigeminal neuralgia
can occur as a result of aging, or it can be related to multiple sclerosis or a similar
disorder that damages the myelin sheath protecting certain nerves.
10. What is Cerebral aneurysm?

Ans. A cerebral aneurysm (also known as a brain aneurysm) is a weak or thin
spot on an artery in the brain that balloons or bulges out and fills with blood. The
bulging aneurysm can put pressure on the nerves or brain tissue. It may also burst or
rupture, spilling blood into the surrounding tissue (called a hemorrhage) or SAH.
11. List classical symptoms of Parkinsonism.

Ans. There are four primary motor symptoms of Parkinson’s disease: tremor, rigidity,
bradykinesia (slow movement) and postural instability (balance problems). Others
include walking or gait instability,dystonia, vocal symptoms such as changes in voice
& stuttering. Non motor symptoms include Disturbances in the Sense of Smell, Sleep
Problems, Depression and Anxiety, Pain,Psychosis, Fatigue, Cognitive Changes,
Weight Loss, Gastrointestinal Issues,Lightheadedness, Urinary Issues, Sexual
Concerns, Sweating, Melanoma, Personality Changes, Eye & Vision Issues.
12. Define Aphasia.

Ans. Aphasia is an impairment of language, affecting the production or
comprehension of speech and the ability to read or write. The major causes are a
cerebral vascular accident (stroke) or head trauma. Aphasia can also be the result of
brain tumors, brain infections, or neurodegenerative diseases, but the latter are far less
prevalent.
13. Classify Aphasia.

Ans. Aphasia is broken down into two categories:Nonfluent aphasia. Speech is
difficult or halting, and some words may be absent. However, a listener can still
understand what the speaker is trying to say. It includes Broca's aphasia, global
aphasia,transcortical motor aphasia. Fluent aphasia. Speech flows more easily, but
the content of the message lacks meaning. It includes Wernicke's aphasia,conduction
aphasia, anomic aphasia, transcortical sensory aphasia.
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14. Define Spinal Shock.

Ans. Also known as spinal shock syndrome, spinal shock is the loss of muscle tone
and spinal reflexes below the level of a severe spinal cord lesion. This "shock" does
not imply a state of circulatory collapse but of suppressed spinal reflexes below the
level of cord injury or a loss of sensation accompanied by motor paralysis with initial
loss but gradual recovery of reflexes, following a spinal cord injury (SCI). Reflexes in
the spinal cord below the level of injury are depressed (hyporeflexia) or absent
(areflexia), while those above the level of the injury remain unaffected.
15. Differentiate between Concussion & contusion.

Ans. A contusion refers to the bruising of the brain. Needless to say, there is bleeding
present as evidenced by the development of a bruise. A contusion is often caused by a
strong impact to the head, and it commonly takes place where the brain is right next to
the skull’s sharp ridges. Mild cases of contusion may require very little medical
attention. Concussion Unlike a contusion, there is no physical damage to the brain. It
is characterized by an alteration in the functioning of the brain. Despite the absence of
a bruise in the brain, someone who incurred a concussion still requires immediate
medical attention. There are certain risks involved especially when the fact that the
brain moves back and forth in the skull is considered. A concussion is a type of
traumatic brain injury (TBI) that happens when the brain is jarred or shaken hard
enough to bounce against the skull. It can range from mild to severe. You don't have to
be hit in the head to get a concussion.
16. Coup and counter coup injury.

Ans. In head injury, a coup injury occurs under the site of impact with an object,
and a contrecoup injury occurs on the side opposite the area that was hit. Coup
and contrecoup injuries are associated with cerebral contusions, a type of traumatic
brain injury in which the brain is bruised.Coup and contrecoup injuries can occur
individually or together. When a moving object impacts the stationary head, coup
injuries are typical,while contrecoup injuries are produced when the moving head
strikes a stationary object.
17. List out uses of Glasgow coma scale.

Ans. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a clinical scale used to reliably measure a
person's level of consciousness after a brain injury. The GCS assesses a person based
on their ability to perform eye movements, speak, and move their body. These three
behaviors make up the three elements of the scale: eye, verbal, and motor. A person's
GCS score can range from 3 (completely unresponsive) to 15 (responsive). This score
is used to guide immediate medical care after a brain injury (such as a car accident)
and also to monitor hospitalized patients and track their level of consciousness. Lower
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GCS scores are correlated with higher risk of death. * used to describe the level of
consciousness in a person following a traumatic brain injury *used to help gauge the
severity of an acute brain injury.
18. List out the components of Glasgow coma scale.

Ans. GCS was determined based on three components: eyes (four = opening
spontaneously, three = opening to verbal command, two = opening to pain, and one =
no eye opening), verbal (five = oriented, four = disoriented, three = inappropriate
words, two = incomprehensible sounds, and one = no verbal response), and motor
(six = obeys, five = localizes pain, four = withdrawal, three = abnormal flexion, two =
abnormal extension, and one = no motor response)
19. What is Agnosia?

Ans. Agnosia is the inability to process sensory information. Often there is a loss
of ability to recognize objects, persons, sounds, shapes, or smells while the
specific sense is not defective nor is there any significant memory loss. It is usually
associated with brain injury or neurological illness, particularly after damage to the
occipitotemporal border, which is part of the ventral stream. Agnosia only affects a
single modality, such as vision or hearing.
20. What is Dementia?

Ans. Dementia is a syndrome in which there is deterioration in memory, thinking,
behaviour and the ability to perform everyday activities. Although dementia
mainly affects older people, it is not a normal part of ageing. It is a general term to
describe symptoms of impairment in memory, communication, and thinking.
Symptoms include recent memory loss, disorientation, problems communicating,
Difficulty completing familiar tasks, Problems with abstract thinking – for instance,
dealing with money, Misplacing things , mood changes, personality changes.
21. What is Romberg test?

Ans. Romberg's test, is a test used in an exam of neurological function for
balance. The exam is based on the premise that a person requires at least two of
the three following senses to maintain balance while standing: proprioception (the
ability to know one's body position in space); vestibular function (the ability to know
one's head position in space); and vision (which can be used to monitor and adjust for
changes in body position).The Romberg test is a test of the body's sense of positioning
(proprioception), which requires healthy functioning of the dorsal columns of the
spinal cord. The Romberg test is used to investigate the cause of loss of motor
coordination (ataxia). A positive Romberg test suggests that the ataxia is sensory in
nature. Romberg's test is not positive, it suggests that ataxia is cerebellar in nature.
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SHORT ANSWERS: DK
1. Define Neurocysticercosis.
Ans. Neurocysticercosis is a specific form of the infectious parasitic disease
cysticercosis that is caused by the infection with Taenia solium, a tapeworm
found in pigs. Neurocysticercosis occurs when cysts formed by the infection take
hold within the brain, causing neurologic syndromes such as epileptic seizures.
2. List sign & symptoms of Neurocysticercosis.

Ans. Common symptoms of neurocysticercosis include seizures, headaches,
blindness, meningitis and dementia. Symptoms common to all forms of
neurocysticercosis include headaches, seizures and accumulation of excessive
cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the skull (hydrocephalus) causing increased pressure
on the tissues of the brain, resulting in a variety of symptoms including
headaches, nausea, dizziness, changes in vision.
3. Enumerate medical & surgical management of Neurocysticercosis.

Ans. Praziquantel and albendazole, the two antiparasitic drugs, have been reported
to be effective against cysticercosis. Both the drugs effectively destroy the cerebral
parenchymal cystic lesions. Steroids such as dexamethasone, prednisolone. Supportive
drugs include anticonvulsant and analgesics. Surgery is usually recommended for
intraventricular cysts, hydrocephalus, large cisternal cysts, large parenchymal cysts
and when the diagnosis is not certain on imaging studies. For intraventricular cysts,
endoscopic surgery is the procedure of choice as it is minimally invasive.
ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt is also used.
4. Define Hydrocephalus.
Ans. Hydrocephalus is a condition in which an accumulation of cerebrospinal
fluid (CSF) occurs within the brain.This typically causes increased pressure inside
the skull. Older people may have headaches, double vision, poor balance, urinary
incontinence, personality changes, or mental impairment. In babies, it may be seen as
a rapid increase in head size. Other symptoms may include vomiting, sleepiness,
seizures, and downward pointing of the eyes.
5. Define Syringomyelia.
Ans. Syringomyelia is a generic term referring to a disorder in which a cyst or
cavity forms within the spinal cord. This cyst, called a syrinx, can expand and
elongate over time, destroying the spinal cord. The damage may result in loss of
feeling, paralysis, weakness,and stiffness in the back, shoulders, and extremities.
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Syringomyelia may also cause a loss of the ability to feel extremes of hot or cold,
especially in the hands. Syringomyelia causes a wide variety of neuropathic
symptoms, due to damage to the spinal cord. Patients may experience severe chronic
pain, abnormal sensations and loss of sensation, particularly in the hands. Some
patients experience paralysis or paresis, temporarily or permanently.
6. Classify Spina Bifida.

Ans. Spina bifida (Latin for "split spine"; SB[9]) is a birth defect in which there is
incomplete closing of the spine and the membranes around the spinal cord during
early development in pregnancy. There are three main types: spina bifida occulta,
meningocele and myelomeningocele. Occulta has no or only mild signs, which may
include a hairy patch, dimple, dark spot or swelling on the back at the site of the gap
in the spine. Meningocele typically causes mild problems, with a sac of fluid present
at the gap in the spine. Myelomeningocele, also known as open spina bifida, is the
most severe form.
7. List clinical manifestation of Chiari Malformation.

Ans. Chiari malformation (CM) is a structural defect in the cerebellum, characterized
by a downward displacement of one or both cerebellar tonsils through the foramen
magnum (the opening at the base of the skull). CMs can cause headaches, difficulty
swallowing, vomiting, dizziness, neck pain, unsteady gait, poor hand
coordination, numbness and tingling of the hands and feet, and speech problems.
8. What are the normal values of Proteins & Glucose in Cerebrospinal fluid?
Ans. Proteins: 20-40 mg/dL. At different levels of spinal tap: Lumbar: 20-40
mg/dL , Cisternal: 15-25 mg/dL, Ventricular: 15-45 mg/dL. Glucose: 45-80 mg/dL
(orgreater than 2/3 of the blood sugar level).
9. Where is the Cerebrospinal fluid produced?

Ans. CSF is produced mainly by a structure called the choroid plexus ( specialised
ependymal cells) in the lateral, third and fourth ventricles. CSF flows from the
lateral ventricle to the third ventricle through the interventricular foramen.
10. List three major functions of Nervous System.

Ans. The nervous system has three broad functions: sensory input, information
processing, and motor output. The nervous system is the major controlling, regulatory,
and communicating system in the body. It is the center of all mental activity including
thought, learning, and memory. Together with the endocrine system, the nervous
system is responsible for regulating and maintaining homeostasis.
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11. List the symptoms of Guillain-Barre Syndrome.

Ans. Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) is a rare neurological disorder in which the
body's immune system mistakenly attacks part of its peripheral nervous system—the
network of nerves located outside of the brain and spinal cord. The symptoms of
Guillain-Barré include: tingling or prickling sensations in your fingers and toes ,
muscle weakness in your legs that travels to your upper body and gets worse over
time, difficulty walking steadily difficulty moving your eyes or face, talking,
chewing, or swallowing, severe lower back pain, loss of bladder control, fast
heart rate, difficulty breathing, paralysis.
12. Write about Levodopa.

Ans. Levodopa (L-Dopa) is an amino acid precursor of dopamine and is the most
effective and commonly used drug in the treatment of Parkinson disease.
L-DOPA crosses the protective blood-brain barrier, whereas dopamine itself cannot.
Thus, l-DOPA is used to increase dopamine concentrations in the treatment of
Parkinson's disease and dopamine-responsive dystonia. Once l-DOPA has entered the
central nervous system, it is converted into dopamine . Side-effects include
hypertension, nausea,GI bleeding, arrhythmias, disorientation, confusion, insomnia,
visual or auditory hallucinations.
UNIT 4 SHORT ANSWERS DK

1. Define infertility.
Ans. Infertility is “a disease of the reproductive system defined by the failure to
achieve a clinical pregnancy after 12 months or more of regular unprotected
sexual intercourse.” or “Infertility is the inability of a sexually active,
non-contracepting couple to achieve pregnancy in one year.
2. List any four causes of infertility.

Ans. Age, polycystic ovarian syndrome, endometriosis, fallopian tube blockage,
recurrent miscarriages, hypogonadism, varicocele, urogenital infection .
3. Classify Infertility.
Ans. There are 2 types of infertility: primary infertility refers to couples who have
not become pregnant after at least 1 year having sex without using birth control
methods. Secondary infertility refers to couples who have been able to get pregnant
at least once, but now are unable.
4.Enumerate the Barrier methods of contraception.
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Ans. The most common forms of barrier contraception are: physical method: condoms
(male and female),diaphragm,cervical cap, and contraceptive sponge. Chemical
Methods: Locally applied chemicals – spermicidal. Foams, jellies.
5..What is Hormonal Contraception?

Ans. Hormonal contraception refers to birth control methods that act on the
endocrine system. There are two main types of hormonal contraceptive
formulations: combined methods which contain both an estrogen and a
progestin, and progestogen-only methods which contain only progesterone .
Hormonal contraception is primarily used for the prevention of pregnancy, but is also
prescribed for the treatment of polycystic ovary syndrome, menstrual disorders such
as dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia, and hirsutism.
6. List Intrauterine methods of contraception.

Ans. Intrauterine methods of contraception (IUC) include the copper intrauterine
device Cu-IUD and the levonorgestrel releasing intrauterine system LNG-IUS. IUC is
considered to be a long acting reversible method of contraception. A Lippes loop is
an inert intrauterine contraceptive device with a double 'S' shaped polyethylene loop
impregnated with barium sulfate. The copper intrauterine device (IUD) is a small
'T-shaped' plastic and copper device.
7. Enumerate the types of Sterilization in birth control.

Ans. There are two ways that sterilization for women can be performed:
tubectomy/minilaparotomy (The fallopian tubes are brought up through the incision.
A small section of each tube is removed, or both tubes can be removed completely)
and laparoscopy ( The fallopian tubes are closed off using instruments passed through
the laparoscope). Vasectomy is a surgical procedure for male sterilization or
permanent contraception. During the procedure, the male vasa deferentia are cut and
tied or sealed . Non-Scalpel Vasectomy (NSV) which does not require an incision and
is a simple, safe, sound, short, stitch less and scalpel less procedure.
8. List complications of Intrauterine Device (IUD).

Ans. IUD Side Effects · Cramps · Fainting · Irregular or Heavy Periods · Ovarian
Cysts · Pregnancy · Ectopic Pregnancy · Infection. Pelvic inflammatory disease,
bleeding pattern changes, expulsion, uterine perforation.
9. List common sites of endometriosis.

Ans. Endometriosis is the abnormal growth of cells ( endometrial cells) similar to
those that form the inside of the uterus but in a location outside of uterine cavity.
Common sites of endometriosis: The ovaries, The fallopian tubes, Ligaments
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that support the uterus (uterosacral ligaments), The posterior cul-de-sac, i.e., the
space between the uterus and rectum., The anterior cul-de-sac, i.e., the space
between the uterus and bladder, the outer surface of the uterus.
10. Define cervical polyps.

Ans. Cervical polyps are small, elongated tumors that grow on the cervix.
Cervical polyps are growths on the cervical canal, the passage that connects the
uterus to the vagina. They're often reddish, purplish, or grayish in color. They may
be shaped like a finger, bulb, or thin stem. They can range in size from a few
millimeters to several centimeters long.
11. Enlist the emergency contractive pills.

Ans. Emergency contraception is a way to prevent pregnancy after unprotected sex.
Often called the morning-after pill, emergency contraceptive pills (ECPs) are pills that
can be taken up to 120 hours (5 days) after having unprotected sex. Emergency
contraceptive pills (ECPs) containing UPA(Ulipristal acetate). ECPs containing
LNG ( levonorgestrel) and combined oral contraceptive pills. UPA in a single
dose (30 mg); Levonorgestrel in a single dose (1.5 mg)
12. Define Fertilization.

Ans. Fertilization, union of a paternal sperm nucleus with a maternal egg nucleus
to form the primary nucleus of an embryo. Or the fusion of gametes to give rise
to a new individual organism or offspring and initiate its development.
13. Define Oogenesis and Spermatogenesis.

Ans. Oogenesis, in the human female reproductive system, growth process in
which the primary egg cell (or ovum) becomes a mature ovum. The process of
egg formation or the differentiation of the ovum. Spermatogenesis is the origin
and development of the sperm cells within the male reproductive organs, the
testes. Spermatogenesis is the production of sperm from the primordial germ
cells.
14. List the External Genitalia of Female Reproductive System.

Ans. The components of the external female genitalia occupy a large part of the
female perineum and collectively form what's known as the vulva. The external
female genitalia are a part of the female reproductive system, and include the:
mons pubis, labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, vestibule, hymen, vestibular
bulb and vestibular glands.
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1. State the Rule of Nine.

Ans. The Wallace rule of nines is a tool used in pre-hospital and emergency medicine
to estimate the total body surface area (BSA) affected by a burn. The size of a burn
can be quickly estimated by using the "rule of nines." This method divides the body's
surface area into percentages:
Body Part Estimated BSA (Adults) Estimated BSA

(Children)
Entire left arm 9% 9%
Entire right arm 9% 9%
Entire head 9% 9%
Entire chest 9% 9%
Entire abdomen 9% 9%
Entire back 18% 18%
Entire left leg 18% 18%
Entire right leg 18% 18%
Groin 1% 1%
2. Write the Parkland’s formula for fluid calculation in burns.

Ans. The Parkland formula is mathematically expressed as: V= 4.m. (A.100)
where mass (m) is in kilograms (kg), area (A) as a percentage of total body
surface area, and volume (V) is in milliliters (mL). For example, a person weighing
75 kg with burns to 20% of his or her body surface area would require 4 x 75 x 20 =
6,000 mL of fluid replacement within 24 hours. The first half of this amount is
delivered within 8 hours from the burn incident, and the remaining fluid is delivered
in the next 16 hours.
3. Write the Evan’s formula for fluid calculation in burns.

Ans. The Evans formula was the first burn resuscitation formula based on body
surface area damage and body weight. Evans formula: normal saline at 1 ml/kg/%
TBSA burn " colloid at 1 ml/kg/% TBSA burn. For second 24 hours, give half of
the first 24-hour requirements " D5W (dextrose 5% in water) 2000 ml.
3. Write the modified Brooke formula for fluid calculation in burns.
26
Ans. Brooke formula( modified): 2 ml x % of burn x weight (Kg) in 24 hours . First

½ of total volume given in the first 8 hours Remaining ½ of total volume given over
following 16 hours. Next 24 Hrs : Total volume ½ of first day
Colloids (0 .3-0.5 ml / kg / % ).
4. List the cardiovascular complications of Burns.

Ans. Cardiovascular System • Hypovolemia as a consequence of fluid loss • Results
in decreased perfusion • Decreased cardiac output due to fluid loss & decrease in
vascular volume & peripheral vasoconstriction • Decrease in BP & Increased pulse
rate • Activation of sympathetic nervous system due to burn shock • Decreased
Myocardial contractibility • Anemia due to blood cell damage • Increased hematocrit
value due to plasma loss • Coagulation disorder, thrombocytopenia, increased clotting
& prothrombin time.
5. List the renal complications of Burns.

Ans. Renal System Acute renal failure. Acute tubular necrosis. Decreased urine output
due to decreased renal blood flow. Hemoglobinuria & Myoglobinuria. Altered renal
functions due to fluid loss, hypovolemia and decreased GFR. Renal ischaemia .
6. List the pulmonary complications of Burns.

Ans. Pulmonary system Decreased broncho ciliary action leads to tracheobronchitis
and ARDS .Direct injury leads to edema, erythema and ulceration, decreased
bronchial ciliary action Leads to tissue hypoxia . Inhalation injury leads to formation
of carboxyhemoglobin .Pulmonary vascular resistance increases and lung compliance
may decrease. Hyperventilation due to increase in respiratory rate and tidal volume
hypermetabolism.
7. List the gastrointestinal complications of Burns.

Ans. Gastrointestinal complications are a common problem in severe burned patients.
Reported complications include paralytic ileus, gastrointestinal tract bleeding, gastric
ulcers and acute necrotizing cholecystitis. Gastrointestinal experience ↓peristalsis,
gastric distention and ↑risk of aspiration. Paralytic ileus due to secondary to burn
trauma. Stress ulcer (stomach/duodenum) due to burn injury. Indication of stress
ulcer-melena stool or hematemesis. These signs suggest gastric or duodenal erosion
(Curling`s ulcer) ,Gastric distention and nausea may lead to vomiting.
8. State the American Association classification of Burns.

Ans. The American Burn Association (ABA) has classified burns into minor,
moderate and major based primarily on the depth and size of the burn. The size of the
burn is typically expressed as a percentage of the total body surface area (TBSA) that
27
is burned. Superficial burns are not usually included in this estimation. To be

considered a minor burn the total burn surface area (TBSA) must be less than 10%
in adults and less than 5% in children or older adults. For moderate burns, the TBSA
burn in adults is 10%-20%, 5%-10% in children or the elderly, and 2-5% if it’s a full
thickness burn. Finally, for major burns, TBSA greater than 20% in adults, greater
than 10% in children and the elderly, high voltage burns, known inhalational injury,
any significant burn to the face, eyes, ears, genitalia, or joints, and anyone with
significant associated injuries such as a fracture or major trauma.
9. Enumerate the major Nursing diagnoses of a patient with Burns.

Ans. Impaired Physical Mobility, Deficient Knowledge, Disturbed Body Image,
Fear/Anxiety, Impaired Skin Integrity, Imbalanced Nutrition: Less Than Body
Requirements, Risk for Ineffective Tissue Perfusion, Acute Pain, Risk for Infection,
Risk for Deficient Fluid Volume, Risk for Ineffective Airway Clearance.
10. What is Chemical burns?

Ans. chemical burn occurs when living tissue is exposed to a corrosive substance
(such as a strong acid, base or oxidizer) or a cytotoxic agent (such as mustard gas,
lewisite or arsine). Chemical burns follow standard burn classification and may cause
extensive tissue damage. The main types of irritant and/or corrosive products are:
acids, bases, oxidizers / reducing agents, solvents, and alkylants. Additionally,
chemical burns can be caused by some types of cytotoxic chemical weapons, e.g.,
vesicants such as mustard gas and Lewisite, or urticants such as phosgene oxime.
11. What is Electrical burns?

Ans. An electrical burn is a burn that results from electricity passing through the body
causing rapid injury. Electrical burns differ from thermal or chemical burns in that
they cause much more subdermal damage. They can exclusively cause surface
damage, but more often tissues deeper underneath the skin have been severely
damaged. Electrical burns can be caused by a variety of ways such as touching or
grasping electrically live objects, short-circuiting, inserting fingers into electrical
sockets, and falling into electrified water. Lightning strikes are also a cause of
electrical burns, but this is a less common event.
12. What is Thermal burns?

Ans. A thermal burn is a type of burn resulting from making contact with heated
objects, such as boiling water, steam, hot cooking oil, fire, and hot objects. Scalds are
the most common type of thermal burn suffered by children, but for adults thermal
burns are most commonly caused by fire. Causes include hot liquids and steam, fire
and hot objects.
28
13. What is Inhalational burns?

Ans. Inhalation injury refers to pulmonary injury resulting from inhalation of smoke
or chemical products of combustion. Inhalation injury results in direct cellular
damage, alterations in regional blood circulation and perfusion, obstruction of the
airways, and the release of pro-inflammatory cytokine and toxin release. Or the acute
damage of the respiratory tract caused by the inhalation of combustion products or
steam in a closed space. The 3 primary mechanisms that lead to injury are thermal
damage, asphyxiation and pulmonary irritation.
14. What is Carbon-monoxide poisoning?

Ans. Carbon monoxide poisoning typically occurs from breathing in carbon monoxide
(CO) at excessive levels. Symptoms are often described as "flu-like" and commonly
include headache, dizziness, weakness, vomiting, chest pain, and confusion. Large
exposures can result in loss of consciousness, arrhythmias, seizures, or death. The
classically described "cherry red skin" rarely occurs.Long-term complications may
include feeling tired, trouble with memory, and movement problems. In those exposed
to smoke, cyanide toxicity should also be considered.
Carbon monoxide primarily causes adverse effects by combining with hemoglobin to
form carboxyhemoglobin (HbCO) preventing the blood from carrying oxygen.
15. Write the formula for calculation of caloric requirement in burns patient.
Ans. Daily caloric requirements in patients with major burns are frequently estimated
using the Curreri formula (25 X body weight (kg) + 40 X % BSA burned).
16. What is Curling’s ulcer?

Ans. Curling's ulcer is an acute gastric erosion resulting as a complication from severe
burns when reduced plasma volume leads to ischemia and cell necrosis (sloughing) of
the gastric mucosa. These stress ulcers (actually shallow multiple erosions) were once
a common complication of serious burns, presenting in over 10% of cases, and
especially common in child burn victims. They result in perforation and hemorrhage
more often than other forms of intestinal ulceration. combination therapies including
enteral feeding with powerful antacids such as H2-receptor antagonists or, more
recently, proton pump inhibitors such as omeprazole have made Curling's ulcer a rare
complication.
17. What is Stress Induced Diabetes mellitus?

Ans. Stress hyperglycemia (also called stress diabetes or diabetes of injury) is a
medical term referring to transient elevation of the blood glucose due to the
stress of illness. It usually resolves spontaneously, but must be distinguished from
29
various forms of diabetes mellitus. It is often discovered when routine blood

chemistry measurements in an ill patient reveal an elevated blood glucose. Stress
hyperglycemia is especially common in patients with hypertonic dehydration and
those with elevated catecholamine levels (e.g., after emergency department treatment
of acute asthma with epinephrine). People who have experienced stress
hyperglycemia during severe illness have a threefold risk of developing diabetes in
subsequent years.
18. List out FOUR clinical features of Burns.

Ans. Burns are tissue damage that results from heat, overexposure to the sun or other
radiation, or chemical or electrical contact. 1st-degree burn:This minor burn affects
only the outer layer of the skin (epidermis). It may cause redness and pain.
2nd-degree burn.It may cause swelling and red, white or splotchy skin. Blisters may
develop, and pain can be severe. Deep second-degree burns can cause scarring.
Hematuria, shock, pain free
3rd-degree burn. Burned areas may be black, brown or white. The skin may look
leathery. General features include acute anxiety, dehydration and fluid loss, pain,
hyperesthesia, edema.
19. List out the topical applications used in Burns.

Ans. Commonly used topical agents include combination antimicrobial ointments,
silver sulfadiazine, silver nitrate, sulfamylon(mafenide acetate), bismuth-impregnated
petroleum gauze, and chlorhexidine, gentamicin sulfate, nitrofurazone, acetic acid.
Other agents such as honey, povidone-iodine, and Dakin's solution are less commonly
used.
20. List out the complications of burns in rehabilitation phase.

Ans. Post burn edema, sensory impairment, Loss of skin stability, Skin and joint
contractures, neuropathies, heterotopic ossification, septic arthritis, joint
subluxations/dislocations, hypertrophic scarring, pruritus and dry skin, abnormal gait
or postures (e.g.,scoliosis), critical care myopathy/neuropathy and heat intolerance
(TBSA>40%) are all possible complications.
21. Classify skin grafts.

Ans. Skin grafting is a surgical procedure that involves removing skin from one area
of the body and moving it, or transplanting it, to a different area of the body. A
split-thickness graft involves removing the top layer of the skin — the epidermis —
as well as a portion of the deeper layer of the skin, called the dermis. A full-thickness
graft involves removing all of the epidermis and dermis from the donor site.
30
Other classification include heterograft (from other species aka allograft) ,

homograft(from the same species) and autograft (skin from the same individual).
22. What is cleansing in burns?

Ans. Cleansing the burn is recommended to remove the dead skin cells. The skin and
the burn wound should be washed gently with mild soap and rinsed well with tap
water. Use a soft wash cloth or piece of gauze to gently remove old medications. A
small amount of bleeding is common with dressing changes. Your doctor will decide
on the appropriate dressing and ointment.
23. What is Debridement?

Ans. Debridement is the medical removal of dead, damaged, or infected tissue to
improve the healing potential of the remaining healthy tissue. Removal may be
surgical, mechanical, chemical, autolytic (self-digestion), and by maggot
therapy.Debridement is an important part of the healing process for burns. It involves
thoroughly cleaning the wound and removing all hyperkeratotic (thickened skin or
callus), infected, and nonviable (necrotic or dead) tissue, foreign debris, and residual
material from dressings.

1. State the warning signs of cancer.
Ans. These are potential cancer symptoms:
● Change in bowel or bladder habits
● A sore that does not heal
● Unusual bleeding or discharge
● Thickening or lump in the breast or elsewhere
● Unexplained weight loss or loss of appetite
● Indigestion or difficulty in swallowing
● Obvious change in a wart or mole
● Nagging cough or hoarseness
2. Define “Distance” as principles of Radiation safety.

Ans. “Distance” refers to how close you are to a radioactive source. Maximize your
distance from a radioactive source as much as you can. This is an easy way to protect
yourself because distance and dose are inversely related. If you increase your distance,
you decrease your dose. Radiation safety principles aim to limit exposure to ionising
radiation for radiation therapy personnel, people affected by cancer and the general
public. The inverse-square law states that radiation exposure and distance are
inversely related. That means that as the distance from the source increases, the
intensity of radiation decreases.
31
3. Define “Time & Timing” as principles of Radiation safety.

Ans. Time: The less time spent near a radiation source, the less radiation absorbed.
This is especially important for personnel such as radiation therapists and physicists
preparing radioactive sources, and for nursing staff when caring for individuals who
have a radioactive source in a body tissue or cavity. For inpatients, the nurse should
restrict direct contact to 30 minutes per eight-hour shift.Time: For people who are
exposed to radiation in addition to natural background radiation, limiting or
minimizing the exposure time reduces the dose from the radiation source.
4. Define “Shielding” as principles of Radiation safety.

Ans. The type of shielding device used depends on the range of emission of the
radioactive source. Standard shielding devices include lead aprons, thyroid shields,
and eye shields. Rooms that house x-ray generating equipment are shielded using
specified materials. Radioactive sources need to be transported by licensed personnel
in lead containers. Shielding: Barriers of lead, concrete, or water provide protection
from penetrating radiation such as gamma rays and neutrons. Therefore, inserting the
proper shield between you and a radiation source will greatly reduce or eliminate the
dose you receive.
5. Enumerate the treatment modalities of treating Cancer.

Ans. Some of the treatment modalities of cancer include: Surgery: Surgical resection
of tumors may often be accompanied by removal of adjacent normal tissues, regional
lymph nodes or organs.
Radiation therapy: High energy waves such as x-rays, gamma rays or electron beams
may be used to destroy or shrink tumor cells
Chemotherapy: uses chemotherapeutic drugs that destroy or kill cancerous cells.
Targeted Therapy: These molecules are specifically tailored to target tumor cells.
32
Palliative Care: called “Comfort care” or “supportive care” provides continuous care
to improve quality of life, ease symptoms of cancer treatment and provide
psychological, social and spiritual support.
Nuclear Medicine: provides both diagnostic and therapeutic services to cancer
patients.
Intervention Radiology: sub-specialty of Radiology that uses minimally-invasive
procedures has been a boon to many patients both in cancer diagnosis as well as of
cancer management.
Stem Cell therapy: It is the method that reconstructs the blood-forming stem cells
into the patient’s body that may have otherwise been destroyed by other treatment
methods, like radiation or chemotherapy.
6. List four Biologic Response modifiers.

Ans. Biological response modifiers are substances that modify immune responses.
They can be both endogenous and exogenous, and they can either enhance an
immune response or suppress it. Most BRMs are biopharmaceuticals (biologics),
including monoclonal antibodies, interleukin 2, interferons, and various types of
colony-stimulating factors (e.g., CSF, GM-CSF, G-CSF), tumour necrosis factor,
colony stimulating factors and anticancer vaccines.
7. Classify Leukemia.
Ans. Leukemia is classified by the type of white blood cells affected and by how
quickly the disease progresses. leukemia is classified as either acute (fast-growing) or
chronic (slow-growing). Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) progresses rapidly,
replacing healthy cells that produce functional lymphocytes with leukemia cells that
can't mature properly. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) is a fast-growing form of
cancer of the blood and bone marrow. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) is a
typically slow-growing cancer that begins in lymphocytes in the bone marrow and
extends into the blood. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) begins in the
blood-forming cells of the bone marrow and then, over time, spreads to the blood.
Hairy cell leukemia (HCL) is a rare subtype of chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
that progresses slowly. HCL is caused when bone marrow makes too many B cells.
8. Define Alopecia.
Ans. Alopecia areata is believed to be an autoimmune disease resulting from a breach
in the immune privilege of the hair follicles. Risk factors include a family history of
the condition. It is a common autoimmune skin disease, causing hair loss on the
scalp, face and sometimes on other areas of the body. It is thought to be a
systemic autoimmune disorder in which the body attacks its own anagen hair
follicles and suppresses or stops hair growth. Hair loss is a common side effect of
33
cancer treatment. Hair loss can happen as a side effect of chemotherapy, targeted
therapy, radiation therapy, or a stem cell (bone marrow) transplant. These cancer
treatments can harm the cells that help hair grow.
9. Define Tumor Markers.

Ans. A tumor marker is a biomarker found in blood, urine, or body tissues that
can be elevated by the presence of one or more types of cancer. There are many
different tumor markers, each indicative of a particular disease process, and they are
used in oncology to help detect the presence of cancer. Tumor markers can be
produced directly by the tumor or by non-tumor cells as a response to the presence of
a tumor. Eg alpha fetoprotein, CA 15-3, CA-125.
10. List common Metastatic sites.

Ans. In metastasis, cancer cells break away from where they first formed (primary
cancer), travel through the blood or lymph system, and form new tumors (metastatic
tumors) in other parts of the body. In breast cancer sites of metastasis are Bone, brain,
liver, lung. Colon cancer: Liver, lung, peritoneum, Kidney cancer: Adrenal gland,
bone, brain, liver, lung. Lung cancer: Adrenal gland, bone, brain, liver, other lung.
Lymph nodes are also sites of metastasis.
11. Write down the characteristics of Cancer cells.

Ans. Cancer cells grow and divide at an abnormally rapid rate, are poorly
differentiated, and have abnormal membranes, cytoskeletal proteins, and morphology.
cancer cells have the ability to both invade nearby tissues and spread to distant regions
of the body. Posses genome instability and mutation, induce angiogenesis, resist cell
death, evade growth suppressor, avoid immune destruction, No growth control.
12. Define Hospice Care.

Ans. Hospice care is a type of health care that focuses on the palliation of a
terminally ill patient's pain and symptoms and attending to their emotional and
spiritual needs at the end of life. Hospice care prioritizes comfort and quality of
life by reducing pain and suffering. The goal of hospice care is to prioritize
comfort, quality of life and individual wishes. This can include addressing physical,
emotional, spiritual and/or social needs. In hospice care, patient-directed goals are
integral and interwoven throughout the care. Hospices typically do not perform
treatments that are meant to diagnose or cure an illness but also do not include
treatments that hasten death. Instead, hospices focus on palliative care to relieve pain
and symptoms.
13. Define Gene therapy.
34
Ans. Gene therapy is a medical field which focuses on the genetic modification of
cells to produce a therapeutic effect or the treatment of disease by repairing or
reconstructing defective genetic material. In somatic cell gene therapy (SCGT), the
therapeutic genes are transferred into any cell other than a gamete, germ cell,
gametocyte, or undifferentiated stem cell. In germline gene therapy (GGT), germ
cells (sperm or egg cells) are modified by the introduction of functional genes into
their genomes.
14. Specify two types of surgical procedure for cancer stomach.

Ans. A gastrectomy is the most common surgery to treat stomach cancer. A
gastrectomy is the removal of all or part of the stomach through an incision in the
abdomen. A Distal Subtotal Gastrectomy is used for tumours that are found in the
lower (distal) part of the stomach. A Proximal Gastrectomy is used for tumours in
the upper (proximal) part of the stomach and in the area where the stomach joins the
esophagus (gastroesophageal junction). A Total Gastrectomy is used for stomach
cancer that has spread throughout the stomach or for a stomach tumour in the middle
or upper part of the stomach.
15. List out any four chemotherapeutic drugs.

Ans. Chemotherapeutic agents, also referred to as antineoplastic agents, are used to
directly or indirectly inhibit the uncontrolled growth and proliferation of cancer cells.
● Antimetabolite: Methotrexate
● Alkylating agents: Busulfan
● Topoisomerase inhibitors: Topotecan
● Mitotic inhibitors:Vincristine

1. Define Occupational Disorders.
Ans. Occupational disorder is an event or exposure that occurs in the workplace
that causes or contributes to a condition or worsens a preexisting condition. An
occupational disease is any chronic ailment that occurs as a result of work or
occupational activity. It is an aspect of occupational safety and health. An
occupational disease is typically identified when it is shown that it is more prevalent
in a given body of workers than in the general population, or in other worker
populations.
2. List the major Occupational lung disorders.

Ans. Occupational lung diseases include Asbestosis among asbestos miners and those
who work with friable asbestos insulation, as well as black lung (coalworker's
pneumoconiosis) among coal miners, Silicosis among miners and quarrying and
35
tunnel operators and Byssinosis among workers in parts of the cotton textile industry.
Occupational Asthma has a vast number of occupations at risk. Hypersensitivity
Pneumonitis. Occupational lung diseases are occupational, or work-related, lung
conditions that have been caused or made worse by the materials a person is exposed
to within the workplace. It includes a broad group of diseases, including
Occupational Asthma, Industrial Bronchitis, Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary
Disease (COPD), Bronchiolitis Obliterans, Inhalation Injury, Interstitial Lung
Diseases (such as pneumoconiosis, hypersensitivity pneumonitis, lung fibrosis),
infections, lung cancer and Mesothelioma.
3 . Define asbestosis.
Ans. Asbestosis is long-term inflammation and scarring of the lungs due to
asbestos fibers. Symptoms may include shortness of breath, cough, wheezing, and
chest tightness. Complications may include lung cancer, mesothelioma, and
pulmonary heart disease. Asbestosis is caused by breathing in asbestos fibers
4. Enumerate the causes of Byssinosis.

Ans. Byssinosis is a rare lung disease. It's caused by inhaling hemp, flax, and cotton
particles and is sometimes referred to as brown lung disease. It's a form of
occupational asthma. RISK FACTORS Textile workers(1st stage of processing of
cotton) Smoking , Impaired lung function, History of respiratory allergy, Bronchitis
Asthma ,Infections , Exposure >20 years.
5. Define silicosis.
Ans. Silicosis is a form of occupational lung disease caused by inhalation of
crystalline silica dust. It is marked by inflammation and scarring in the form of
nodular lesions in the upper lobes of the lungs. It is a type of pneumoconiosis
.Silicosis (particularly the acute form) is characterized by shortness of breath, cough,
fever, and cyanosis (bluish skin). It may often be misdiagnosed as pulmonary edema
(fluid in the lungs), pneumonia, or tuberculosis.
6. State the medical management of pneumoconiosis.

Ans. Pneumoconiosis (black lung disease" or "popcorn lung) is the general term for a
class of interstitial lung diseases where inhalation of dust has caused interstitial
fibrosis. (A long-term cough, Coughing up large amounts of mucus,Feeling short of
breath) .You may need to stop doing the work that led to your pneumoconiosis. If
you're a smoker, your doctor will recommend you quit smoking and second hand
smoke to improve your lung health. Get a flu shot every year. Your doctor may
prescribe an inhaled medication such as a bronchodilator or corticosteroid.
36
Bronchodilators open up your airways if you have trouble breathing, while

corticosteroids can curb airway inflammation.
7. List the high risk occupations for developing contact dermatitis.

Ans. Contact dermatitis is a red, itchy rash caused by direct contact with a substance
or an allergic reaction to it. Occupations with high risk for contact dermatitis
include those with repeated exposure to water, solvents, caustic materials and
those with microtrauma (acrylics,alcohols, fragrances, cobalt, chromium and
chromates, disinfectant,nickel, petroleum products, preservatives,resins,
degreaser). Agriculture workers, beauty industry workers,health care,metal
workers,mechanists,cooks food handlers, vehicle assembly workers, construction
workers
8. List five preventive measures for prevention of occupational skin disorders.

Ans. Distancing your skin from chemicals will lower the chance of risk. Wear proper
fitting gloves and protective clothing. Wearing protective gloves may prevent
occupational skin disease, but if a glove becomes dirty inside, it can be the cause of
irritation. Make sure to replace your gloves regularly. Occupational Skin Disorders –
Prevention Pre-placement (safely introduce employees to the workplace)
examination- Previous history of allergy with the particular agent, Eczema, other
dermatitis, Patch Test ,Proper personal hygiene , Substitution of agent , Use of PPE ,
Technical measures to avoid/reduce skin contact should be implemented such as
capsuling machinery to avoid splashes on the skin.
9. Define Farmer’s lung.

Ans. Farmer's lung is a hypersensitivity pneumonitis induced by the inhalation of
biologic dusts coming from hay dust or mold spores or any other agricultural
products. It results in a type III hypersensitivity inflammatory response and can
progress to become a chronic condition which is considered potentially dangerous.
Farmer's lung occurs because repeated exposure to antigens, found in the mold spores
of hay, crops, and animal feed, triggers an allergic reaction within the farmer's
immune system.The defense mechanisms of the body present as cold and flu-like
symptoms that occur in individuals who experience either acute or chronic reactions.
10. What is computer vision syndrome?

Ans. Computer vision syndrome (CVS) is a condition resulting from focusing the
eyes on a computer or other display device for protracted, uninterrupted periods
of time and the eye's muscles being unable to recover from the constant tension
required to maintain focus on a close object. Some symptoms of CVS include
headaches, blurred vision, neck pain, fatigue, eye strain,dry eyes, irritated eyes, double
37
vision, vertigo/dizziness, polyopia, and difficulty refocusing the eyes. These

symptoms can be further aggravated by improper lighting conditions (i.e. glare, strong
blue-spectrum backlights,[citation needed] or bright overhead lighting) or air moving
past the eyes (e.g. overhead vents, direct air from a fan).
11. List out FOUR symptoms of Lead poisoning.

Ans. Lead poisoning, also known as plumbism and saturnism, is a type of metal
poisoning caused by lead in the body. The brain is the most sensitive. Symptoms may
include abdominal pain, constipation, headaches, irritability, memory problems,
infertility, and tingling in the hands and feet. In severe cases, anemia, seizures,
coma, or death may occur. Symptoms: Intellectual disability, abdominal pain,
constipation, headaches, irritability, memory problems, inability to have children,
tingling in the hands and feet.
12. What is Anthracosis?

Ans. Anthracosis (anthrac- meaning coal, carbon + -osis meaning condition) is
defined in Bioline as, “the asymptomatic, milder type of pneumoconiosis as
caused by the accumulation of carbon in the lungs due to repeated exposure to
air pollution or inhalation of smoke or coal dust particles” or black discoloration
of bronchi from carbon pigment that typically causes deformation and
obstruction, may be asymptomatic or cause respiratory symptoms (such as cough
and labored breathing), and is often associated with the inhalation of coal dust
and wood smoke.
13. Define Occupational Dermatitis.

Ans. Occupational dermatitis is a skin disorder caused by coming into contact
with certain chemical products in the workplace. Occupational contact dermatitis is
a local inflammation of the skin. Symptoms of inflammation include itching, pain,
redness, swelling, and the formation of small blisters or wheals (itchy, red circles with
a white centre) on the skin. The inflammation is caused by an allergy or irritation as a
result of substances found in the workplace that come into direct contact with the skin.
14. List out the diseases which occur due to radiation exposure.
Ans. Long-term exposure to small amounts of radiation can lead to gene
mutations and increase the risk of cancer, while exposure to a large amount over
a brief period can lead to radiation sickness. Some examples of the symptoms seen
in radiation sickness include nausea, skin burns, hair loss and reduced organ function.
In severe cases, exposure to a large amount of radiation can even cause death.
Cancers of the bile ducts, bone, brain, breast, colon, esophagus, gall bladder, liver
(primary site, but not if cirrhosis or hepatitis B is indicated), lung (including
38
bronchiolo-alveolar cancer), pancreas, pharynx, ovary, salivary gland, small

intestine, stomach, thyroid, urinary tract (kidney/renal, pelvis, urinary bladder,
and urethra), Leukemia (except chronic lymphocytic leukemia), Lymphomas
(except Hodgkin’s disease), Multiple myeloma (cancer of plasma cells). All
cancers, Non-malignant thyroid nodular disease, Parathyroid adenoma,
Posterior subcapsular cataracts, Tumors of the brain and central nervous system.
39

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Medical-Surgical Short Answers @_nursegram 1

MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING 2

UNIT 1 SHORT ANSWERS

2. List down the classification of hearing loss

3. List four causes of speech disorders.

4. List any two indications of speech therapy.

5. Define peritonsillar abscess.

Ans. A peritonsillar abscess is a bacterial infection that usually begins as a

8. What is oral cancer?

10. What is audiometry?

11. List two types of audiometry

12. What are hearing aids?

13. Define tympanic membrane perforation

14. List the etiological factors of tympanic membrane

15. List the Clinical manifestations of tympanic membrane

16. Define. Otosclerosis.

17. Define meniere’s disease?

2. Write the method of foreign body removal from the throat.

3. What are the clinical manifestations of foreign body in the ear?

4. List types of otalgia.

5. Enumerate the causes of nasal obstruction

6. List complications of suppurative otitis media

7. List surgical interventions of suppurative otitis media

trans-tympanic needle aspiration of Media effusion (ME) contents. Aspiration of fluid

8. Enumerate the Indications for otoscopic examination

9. List indications for ear irrigation.

10. Define Quinsy

11. What is impacted wax?

12. What is Tympanoplasty

13. What is nasal septal deviation?

14. List the types of hearing aids

15. What is ototoxicity ?

16. List down any FOUR ototoxic drugs

UNIT 2 SHORT ANSWERS-MK

2. Enumerate the medical management for glaucoma

Ans. Glaucoma is treated by lowering your eye pressure (intraocular pressure).

3. List any two functions of eye banks.

4. Differentiate between mature & immature cataracts.

5. Enumerate the etiology of cataracts.

6. List emergencies of eye.

7. state the characteristic symptoms of retinal detachment.

7. What is the use of Snellen chart?

8. State the purposes of slit-lamp examination.

slit-lamp examination provides a stereoscopic magnified view of the eye structures in

10. What Is Myopia?

11. What is Hypermetropia?

12. What is Conjuctivitis?

13. What do you mean by diplopia?

14. What is night blindness?

15. Differentiate entropian & ectropian

16. What is enucleation?

17. What is Evisceration?

antibiotics. In an evisceration, the implant is wrapped by the sclera with the

2. List two common malignant tumors of the eyelids?

6. State any two common types benign tumors of the eyelids.

8. List types of ocular prosthesis.

9. List any two functions of Nurse in an Eye camp.

10. What is the use of Opthalmoscope?

UNIT 3 SHORT ANSWERS

1. List cranial nerves.