______________is any damage or abnormal change in the tissue of an organism,

usually caused by disease or trauma.

A. lesion
B. Microorganisms
C. Medical microbiology
D. Pharmaceutical Microbiology
ANSWER: C
Reverse isolation would be appropriate for
A. a patient with tuberculosis
B. a patient who has had minor surgery
C. a patient with glaucoma
D. a patient with leukemia
ANSWER: A
Edward Jenner he used the cowpox virus (Variolae Vaccinae) to immunize children
against?
A. Smallpox
B. Chickenpox
C. Leprosy
D. Tuberculosis
ANSWER: A
He is the father of microbiology, he was a professor of chemistry in France who is
this scientist?
A. Louis Pasteur
B. Antonie Philips van Leeuwenhoek
C. Joseph Lister
D. Robert Koch
ANSWER: B
______________ Is the removal of pathogens contaminating an object.
A. Preservation
B. Decontamination
C. Sanitizing
D. Cultivation
ANSWER: B
A transmission of disease or infection caused by a medical procedure such as
injection or dressing is known as
A. Oral transmission
B. Sexual transmission
C. Loatrogenic transmission
D. Vector transmission
ANSWER: C
B.anthracis was isolated by
A. Louis Pasteur
B. Robert Koch
C. Antonyvon Leewenhok
D. None of these
ANSWER: B
All are examples of viral infections except?
A. Influenza (the flu)
B. Common cold
C. Measles
D. Gonorrhea
ANSWER: D
Which of the following is not a subfield of microbiology?
A. Bacteriology
B. Botany
C. clinical microbiology
D. virology
ANSWER: B
The test used for detection of typhoid fever
A. WIDAL test
B. ELISA
C. Rosewaller test
D. Westernblotting
ANSWER: A
The developing offspring from implantation till 8 weeks post conception is called
A. Fetus
B. Embryo
C. Blastocyst
D. Zygote
ANSWER: A
The functional part of the ovary is
A. Medulla
B. Mesovariun
C. Helium
D. Cortex
ANSWER: D
The secretory phase of the menstrual cycle is under the influence of
A. Progerterone
B. Oestrogen
C. Oestrogen and prolactin
D. Oestrogem and progesterone
ANSWER: D
The testes are component of______________system
A. Reproductive and exocrine
B. Reproductive and endocrine
C. Urinary and reproduction
D. Endocrine and urinary
ANSWER: B
The penis carries
A. Urethra
B. Ureter
C. Spermatic cord
D. Vas deference
ANSWER: B
The posterior wall of the vagina measures ______________ centimeter
A. 7
B. 8
C. 10
D. 9
ANSWER: C

The uterus is located in the true pelvis

A. Between the bladder and the rectum
B. The bladder and the vagina
C. The vagina and the pouch of douglas
D. The bladder and the pouch of douglas
ANSWER: A
The functional part of the ovary is
A. Medulla
B. Mesovariun
C. Helium
D. Cortex
ANSWER: D
In the non-pregnant female, the urinary bladder lies between the symphysis pubis
and in front of the
A. Vagina and pouch of Douglas.
B. Rectum and vagina
C. Uterus and vagina.
D. Vagina and cervix.
ANSWER: C
The central nervous system of the fetus is derived from the
A. Endoderm.
B. Ectoderm.
C. Mesoderm
D. Ectoderm and Endoderm
ANSWER: B
_____________ is a normal commensal of the vagina
A. Escherichia coli
B. Doderlein’s bacillus
C. Staphylococcus aureaus.
D. Streptococcus.
ANSWER: B
During pregnancy, the endometrium of the uterus is transformed into
A. Parametrium
B. Myometrium
C. Endocardium
D. Decidua
ANSWER: D
The __________ is formed by the upper flared-out portions of the iliac bones and
protects the abdominal organs.
A. False pelvis
B. True planes
C. Pelvis planes
D. Android pelvis
ANSWER: A
The part of the vulva enclosed by the labia minora in which lies the openings of
the urethra and vaginal is the
A. Vaginal orifice.
B. Mons pubis.
C. Vestibules.
D. Bartholin’s gland.
ANSWER: C
The ovary is attached to the
A. Trasnverse ligament.
B. Pubocervical ligament
C. Infidibulo-pelvic ligament.
D. Broad Ligament.
ANSWER: D
The bulbo urethral glands are located
A. Below the Mammary glands
B. Below the prostate gland.
C. Below the thyroid gland
D. Above the prostate gland
ANSWER: B
The alveoli contain_______ which produces ________
A. Acini cells, milk.
B. Acini cell, water.
C. Myo-epithelial cells, milk.
D. Myo-epithelial cells, water.
ANSWER: A
The ethical principle that states that clients must be treated fairly is known as
A. Principle of fairness
B. Principle of equity.
C. Principle of justice.
D. Principle of non-maleficence.
ANSWER: C
The principle of non maleficene in ethics states that the midwife in the course of
duty should
A. Be very cheerful
B. Be truthful.
C. Do no harm
D. Be trustworthy
ANSWER: C
The clinical judgement about individual family or community responses to actual or
potential health problems within the domain of nursing is known as
A. Nursing process
B. Nursing diagnosis
C. Medical Process
D. Medical diagnosis
ANSWER: B
The first need to be met using Maslow’s hierarchy of need is known as
A. Love and belonging
B. Physiological need
C. Safety and security
D. Clothing and shelter
ANSWER: B
_______________ propounded the functional health patterns used in assessing clients
care
A. Majority Gordon’s
B. Virginia Henderson
C. Florence Nigthingale
D. Dorothy Orem
ANSWER: A
The midwife by her education and competence is able to do the following EXCEPT.
A. Make independent judgement as a practitioner
B. Manage normal labour and puerperium
C. Manage complicated pregnancy effectively alone.
D. Provide appropriate care at all levels of health
ANSWER: B
Measuring of the blood pressure of a woman during antenatal care is a way of
obtaining
A. Objective data
B. Long term data
C. Subjective data
D. Short term data.
ANSWER: A
The following are measurers needed to combat ill health in pregnancy EXCEPT.
A. Avoidance of heavy work in pregnancy
B. Safe water.
C. Education of girls
D. Good communication network.
ANSWER: B
The WHO document that reviews the criteria for use of contraceptive is called
A. WHO contraception manual.
B. Surgical and Medical elgibility criteria.
C. Medical eligibility criteria.
D. WHO document for contraception
ANSWER: C
Barrier to the use contraceptives in Nigeria include
A. myths, misconception, knowledge and awareness
B. Lack of access, lack of knowledge and awareness
C. Gender, inappropriate clinic hours, goodroads
D. Inadequate personnel, poor access road, misconception
ANSWER: B
Natural family planning method are based on the following except
A. The ability to recognize certain physiologic changes associated with
ovulation
B. It enables couples to recognize the fertile and infertile phases of the
menstrual cycle
C. Couples can have sexual intercourse in order to achieve or prevent pregnancy.
D. Coupes should abstain from sexual intercourse during the at risk days to
achieve pregnancy
ANSWER: D
All are natural family planning method except
A. Calendar/rhythm method
B. Emergency contrceptive
C. Lactational amenorrhea method (LAM)
D. Periodic Abstinence
ANSWER: B
_________________ is an organized way of recording, collating and interpreting
information for planning and decision making
A. Record keeping
B. Management information system
C. Electronic record keeping
D. Record information system
ANSWER: B
The following are definitions of the partograph EXCEPT.
A. A tool for effective monitoring and management of labour.
B. It is a chart in which client features of labour are written in a graphical
form.
C. It provides opportunity for early identification of any deviation from
normal.
D. It shows the contractions and relaxations during second stage of labour
ANSWER: D
Assessment phase of the Nursing process is
A. Data collection, organization of data, data validation and documentation of
data.
B. Data collection, data analysis, validation of data and documentation of data.
C. Collection of data, prioritization of data and validation of data.
D. Collection of data related outcome
ANSWER: B
The____________ is a statement of the right to which patients are entitled as
recipients of care
A. Nurses rights
B. Legal rights
C. Patients bills of rights
D. Health personal bill of right
ANSWER: A
The recommended intra venous fluid for manage postpartum haemorrhage is
A. Ringers lactate
B. Dextrose saline
C. Normal saline
D. 5% dextrose n water
ANSWER: A
Hyperplasia and hypertrophy mean
A. Increase in the number of cell and size.
B. Increase in the number of size and cells.
C. Decrease in size and increase in cells
D. Increase in growth and development
ANSWER: A
During pregnancy the weight of the uterus increases from 60gram to __________ gram
A. 800
B. 1000
C. 600
D. 400
ANSWER: B
The PH of the vagina during pregnancy is
A. 4.2 – 4.5
B. 4.5 – 5.0
C. 0.5 – 0.1
D. 4.3 – 4.5
ANSWER: D
Colostrums can be expressed from the breast as from _______ weeks of pregnancy
A. 14
B. 12
C. 16
D. 32
ANSWER: C
A full term baby is delivered at ________ weeks of gestation.
A. 36 – 38
B. 40 – 43
C. 38 – 42
D. 34 – 38
ANSWER: C
The following are signs of fetal distress during labour EXCEPT.
A. Fetal tachycardia.
B. Fetal bradycardia
C. Meconium stained liquor
D. Blood stained liquor
ANSWER: D
The nature of uterine contraction in spurious labour are
A. Irregular and erratic
B. Regular and full
C. Regular with cervical dilatation
D. Sub-regular and strong
ANSWER: A
The most important factor in reducing maternal morbidity and mortality is
A. Improved housing and recreation.
B. Improved obstetric care
C. Improved national health services
D. Improved school health services
ANSWER: B
The following are aims of ante-natal care EXCEPT.
A. To ensure that the woman reaches the end of her pregnancy physically and
emotionally prepared for delivery
B. To recognize deviation from the normal and manage till when the patient
delivers
C. To promote awareness of the sociological aspect of childbearing and the
influences it may have no the family
D. To monitor the progress of pregnancy in order to ensure maternal health and
normal fetal development
ANSWER: C
The part of the fetus which lies at the pelvic brim or in the lower pole of the
uterus is known as
A. Presentation
B. Attitude
C. Position
D. Denominator
ANSWER: A
The relationship between the denominator of the presentation and the six points on
the pelvic brim is called
A. Flexion
B. Attitude
C. Position
D. Lie
ANSWER: C
Prickling, tingling sensation due to increased blood supply to the nipple occurs at
_____ weeks of pregnancy
A. 3 – 4
B. 6 – 8
C. 8 – 12
D. 16
ANSWER: D
The probable sign of pregnancy include
A. Presence of human chorionic gonadotrophin in blood and urine
B. Hearing fetal heart sounds
C. Palpating fetal parts.
D. Visible fetal movement
ANSWER: A
The following are causes of non-engagement of the fetal head at term EXCEPT.
A. Occipito posterior position
B. Multiple pregnancy
C. Full bladder
D. Multiparity
ANSWER: A
The following are the aims of abdominal examination except.
A. To observe for signs of pregnancy.
B. To assess fetal size and growth
C. To auscultate the fetal parts.
D. To check for any haemorrhage
ANSWER: D
Bleeding from the genital tract after 24 weeks of gestation is referred as
A. Threatened abortion
B. Accidental bleeding
C. Antepartum haemorrhage
D. Incidental haemorrhage
ANSWER: D
A pregnant woman whose fundal height is at the level of the umbilicus, is said to
be________ weeks pregnant.
A. 20
B. 24
C. 26
D. 28
ANSWER: C
During lateral palpation of the abdomen the midwife is able to ascertain
A. Presentation and position
B. Position and lie
C. Locate only the fetal back
D. Presentation and lie
ANSWER: B
Milestones is used for the assessment of
A. Weight and height
B. Motor and psychological development
C. Weight and age
D. Height and motor development
ANSWER: B
The normal puerperium covers a period of ___________weeks after delivery
A. 5 – 6
B. 6 – 7
C. 6 – 8
D. 4 – 5
ANSWER: C
The following are factors affecting the choice of client’s food EXCEPT.
A. Religion
B. Relationship
C. Taboo
D. Political instability
ANSWER: B
The baby’s cord should fall off within __________ days
A. 3 – 5
B. 5 – 6
C. 7 – 10
D. 4 – 7
ANSWER: B
The_____________ is a delivery instrument
A. Methylated spirit
B. Kocker’s forceps
C. Lodine
D. Sterile towels
ANSWER: B
The leading cause of death among children in Nigeria is
A. Poverty
B. Poor waste disposal
C. Malnutrition.
D. Bad roads
ANSWER: C
The significance of primary health care is to
A. Rehabilitate health
B. Have contact with community members about their health needs
C. Attend emergency meetings
D. Socialize with community members
ANSWER: B
A small rudimentary structure corresponding to the male penis, extremely sensitive
and highly vascular is
A. Mons pubis
B. Clitoris
C. Vestibule
D. Urethral orifice
ANSWER: B

Vasectomy is the occlusion of the __________________

A. Glans penis
B. Vas deferens
C. Seminal vesicle
D. Spermatic cord
ANSWER: D
The perineal body is located between the
A. Vagianal intioitus and anus
B. Vaginal introitus,naus and rectum.
C. Vagina and buttock
D. Buttocks and anus
ANSWER: D
The length of the female urethra is
A. 5cm
B. 4.5cm
C. 4cm
D. 3.5cm
ANSWER: C
The most common complaint by women using implant is
A. Heavy bleedings
B. Scanty bleeding
C. Irregular bleeding
D. Moderate menstruation
ANSWER: C
Coitus interrupts means
A. Safe period
B. Hormonal method
C. Fertility test
D. Withdrawal of penis during intercourse before ejaculation
ANSWER: D
The following are contraindications for the use of progesterone only pill EXCEPT.
A. Hydatidiform mole
B. Undiagnosed abnormal vaginal bleeding
C. Severe arterial disease
D. Endomentrial and ovarian cancers
ANSWER: D
The female condom is also known as
A. Durex
B. Femidom
C. Cervical cap
D. Sheath
ANSWER: D
The following are barrier methods of contraception EXCEPT.
A. Condom
B. Intra uterine contraceptive device.
C. Diaphragm.
D. Cervical cap
ANSWER: B
Testosterone is produced by the
A. Seminiferous tubules
B. Interstitial cells
C. Prostate gland
D. Testes
ANSWER: B
The following are investigations done during male infertility tests EXCEPT.
A. Semen analysis
B. Chromosome studies
C. Basal body temperature check
D. Biopsy of the testis
ANSWER: D
Injectable hormonal method of child spacing, sayana is usually administered
A. Orally and intramuscularl
B. Subcutaneously
C. Intravenously
D. Intradermally
ANSWER: C
In males, the semifierous tubules produce
A. Spermatozoa
B. Testosterone
C. Semen
D. Seminal fluid
ANSWER: D
Pathological jaundice in newborn usually appears within ______________ hours of
birth
A. 12
B. 24
C. 48
D. 6
ANSWER: A
The most important factor in moulding is
A. The overriding of the skull bone
B. The overriding of the skull bone fontanelle
C. The overriding of the skull bone at the suture
D. Cephalhaematoma
ANSWER: B
An infant differentiates between family members and visitors by the age of
______________ Weeks
A. 12
B. 20
C. 24
D. 30
ANSWER: C
In order to prevent hypoglycaemia in a baby of a diabetic mother, the baby should
be fed within ________ Hours after birth
A. 2
B. 6
C. 8
D. 10
ANSWER: A
A normal child should be able to control his bowel by the age of
A. One and half years
B. Two and half years
C. Three and half years
D. Four and half years
ANSWER: A
To avoid suffocation, babies should be laid ____________ after meals
A. In supine position
B. On their sides
C. In the left lateral position
D. In the dorsal position
ANSWER: A
The best period to initiate exclusive breast feeding is
A. 3rd stage of labour
B. 2nd stage of labour
C. 2nd day post partum
D. 3rd day post partum
ANSWER: A
The first dose of measles vaccine is given at
A. Birth
B. 6 weeks
C. 6 months
D. 9 months
ANSWER: D
The best method to health educate women in the community is through
A. Discussion
B. Role play
C. Seminar
D. Lecture
ANSWER: D
During menstrual cycle, the secretary phase comes
A. After ovulation
B. Before proliferation phase
C. In between menstrual flow
D. After proliferation phase
ANSWER: A
The most important clinical examination for a primigravida at 36 weeks is
A. Haemoglobin check
B. Vaginal examination
C. Abdominal examination
D. Pelvic assessment
ANSWER: D
The vaginal secretion is made acidic by the action of
A. Escherichia coli
B. Staphylococcal bacilli
C. Doderlin’s bacilli
D. Streptococcal bacilli
ANSWER: C
Is the art of getting activities done through other people.
A. Leadership
B. Governance
C. Management
D. Delegation
ANSWER: C
Which of the following interpretations best describes the term “Management”?
A. Management is a discipline
B. Management is a process
C. Management is a profession
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
Person whose role is to care and look for other people is referred to as
A. Administrator
B. Manager
C. Subordinate
D. Teacher
ANSWER: A
______ defines management as a problem-solving process of effectively achieving
organizational objectives through the efficient use of scarce resources in a
changing environment
A. Henry Fayol
B. Kreither
C. Marfarland
D. Howard M Carlisle
ANSWER: B
While Administration is a thinking process, Management is an executive and
implementing working process.
A. True
B. False
ANSWER: A
Management differs in various ways from Administration in that, Managers focus on
A. Conceptual and human skills
B. Formulating objectives and policies
C. Technical and human skills
D. None of the above
ANSWER: C
Managers are involved in decision making that is, choosing between alternative
courses of action at all stages of management.
A. True
B. False
ANSWER: A
positions like governor, minister, registrar, and university vice chancellors are
example of Managers.
A. True
B. False
ANSWER: B
Below are functions of management except
A. planning,
B. organizing,
C. commendment,
D. coordinating
ANSWER: C
_______ Considers management as a conceptual, theoretical and analytical purpose by
which managers create to achieve organizational goals.
A. Henry Fayol
B. Kreither
C. Marfarland
D. Howard M Carlisle
ANSWER: C
There are _____ levels of management
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5
ANSWER: C
Top level managers are responsible for
A. Setting up organizational objectives
B. Policy implementation
C. Overseeing the junior staff
D. All of the above
ANSWER: A
Which of the following is an example of lower level managers?
A. Chief Medical Director of a hospital
B. HOD Nursing services
C. In-charge of the A&E unit
D. Student Nurse
ANSWER: C
All the following are examples of top level managers EXCEPT?
A. Head of department
B. Chair-person Board of Director
C. CEO of a company
D. Head of an agency
ANSWER: A

The basic concepts related to “directing” include the following but one
A. Anticipation
B. Communication
C. Motivation
D. Leadership
ANSWER: A

The following resources are essential for effective organizational management?

A. Human
B. Technical
C. Material
D. Financial
ANSWER: B

Below are inter personal roles of a manager EXCEPT?

A. Nominal head
B. Advisor
C. Director
D. Connection activities
ANSWER: B
Resource allocation is a __________ role of a manager
A. Informational
B. Interpersonal
C. Decisional
D. Leadership
ANSWER: C
Functional roles of managers are categorised as follows EXCEPT?
A. Informational
B. Interpersonal
C. Decisional
D. Leadership
ANSWER: D
Informational roles of managers include the following BUT one
A. Advisor
B. Negotiator
C. Propagator
D. Representative Activities.
ANSWER: B
_________ entails the strategy of actions that exist in the nurses’ mind
A. Formal nursing care plan
B. Informal nursing care plan
C. Standardized nursing care plan
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B
Is a form of care plans tailored towards meeting the unique needs of a specific
client
A. Standardised nursing care plan
B. Comprehensive nursing care plan
C. Individualized nursing care plan
D. All of the above
ANSWER: C
Nursing care plan serves the following purposes EXCEPT?
A. Promotes ambigious nurses’ role
B. Ensures consistency of care
C. Customizes care interventions
D. Promotes holistic nursing care
ANSWER: A
One of these does not constitute a good nursing care plan
A. It is based on clearly defined objectives/desired outcomes
B. It is economical
C. It is vague
D. It is simple
ANSWER: C
Is a type of nursing diagnosis that has only human response and related factor
A. Actual nursing diagnosis
B. Risk Nursing Diagnosis
C. Syndrome nursing diagnosis
D. Health promotion nursing diagnosis
ANSWER: B
__________ are required by a nurse for the interpretation of data EXCEPT
A. Critical Thinking
B. Problem Solving
C. Decision-Making
D. Laboratory indices
ANSWER: A
The most widely used approach to nursing history was credited to
A. Majory Gordon
B. Virginia Henserson
C. Faye Abdellah
D. Callister Roy
ANSWER: A
The following are data that cannot be empirically validated EXCEPT
A. Subjective data
B. Objective data
C. Covert data
D. None of the above
ANSWER: B
When water and electrolytes are lost or gained in equal proportions, and the
osmolality of body fluids remains constant, the condition is termed
A. Isotonic imbalances
B. Osmolar imbalances
C. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance
D. All of the above
ANSWER: A
8% weight loss constitutes
A. Mild fluid volume deficit
B. Moderate fluid volume deficit
C. Severe fluid volume deficit
D. All of the above
ANSWER: C
When fluid shifts from the vascular space into an area where it is not readily
accessible, the condition is termed
A. Dehydration
B. Oedema
C. Fluid volume excess
D. None of the above
ANSWER: D
3rd space syndrome constitutes the following EXCEPT
A. The fluid remains in the body but, it is essentially unavailable for use,
causing and isotonic fluid volume deficit.
B. Patients don’t usually manifest apparent fluid loss or weight loss
C. Spontaneous fluid shifts back to the vascular compartment
D. Patients require artificial drainage of the fluid
ANSWER: D
In fluid volume excess, the required nurse’s interventions include the following
but one
A. Monitor weight and vital signs.
B. Assess for edema.
C. Establishing vascular access for fluid replacement
D. Monitor laboratory findings
ANSWER: C
Mechanisms for the development of oedema include the following except
A. Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure,
B. Decreased serum osmotic pressure
C. Increased capillary permeability.
D. Increased serum osmotic pressure
ANSWER: D
Patient with hyperkalaemia requires the following interventions EXCEPT
A. Teach clients to avoid foods high in potassium and salt substitutes
B. Monitor serum K+ levels carefully
C. Administration of diuretics and other medications such as glucose and insulin
as ordered
D. Administration Aldactone
ANSWER: D
______ Are the major ECF electrolytes EXCEPT
A. Sodium
B. Chloride
C. Potassium
D. Bicarbonates
ANSWER: C
___________ Refers to a power of solutions to draw water across a semi-permeable
membrane
A. Osmotic pressure
B. Oncotic pressure
C. Hydrostatic pressure
D. Filtration pressure
ANSWER: A
The amount of insensible loss via skin is
A. 500-600mls/day
B. 300-400mls/day
C. 250-300mls/day
D. 200-250mls/day
ANSWER: B
The normal PH range is__________
A. 7.30 – 7.50
B. 7.45 – 7.85
C. 7.35 – 7.45
D. 7.55 – 7. 85
ANSWER: C
The principle of ACID BASE BALANCE that works by neutralizing excess acid or base
is
A. The lungs
B. The kidneys
C. The Buffer system
D. All of the above
ANSWER: C
Which of the following is more aggressive than some malignant tumors yet classified
as benign based on cell pathology.
A. Exostosis
B. Fibrous cortical defect and non-ossifying fibroma
C. Aneurysmal bone cyst
D. Giant cell tumor
ANSWER: D
The new bone created by body around the area of necrosis is called.
A. Involucrum
B. Osteocyte
C. Osteoclast
D. Osteoblast
ANSWER: A
Which of the following bone malignancy takes it origin from diaphysis.
A. Osteochondroma
B. Simple bone cyst
C. Ewing’s sarcoma
D. Aneurysmal
ANSWER: C
Multiple myeloma is said to be a bone tumor and some consider it haematological,
this is Because
A. It arises from bone marrow
B. It arises from the plasma cell of the bone marrow
C. It arises from the plasma cell
D. It arises from the blood cell
ANSWER: B
Bone lesion in a child of 7 years is most likely
A. primary, either benign or malignant.
B. Secondary either benign or malignant.
C. Tertiary either benign or malignant.
D. Metastatic either benign or malignant.
ANSWER: A
Tubercular osteomyelitis of the spine was so common before the initiation of
A. Surgical therapy
B. Prompt antitubercular therapy
C. Effective antitubercular therapy
D. All of the above
ANSWER: C
All the following micro-organism can cause septic arthritis EXCEPT;
A. Meningococcal
B. Streptococcus hemolyticus
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Clostridium species
ANSWER: D
One of the following is a medical emergency that requires prompt diagnosis and
treatment to prevent joint destruction.
A. Osteomyelitis
B. Septic arthritis
C. Gouty arthritis
D. Strain
ANSWER: B
Draining sinuses is normally seen in.
A. Osteoporosis
B. Osteomalacia
C. Osteomyelitis
D. None of the above
ANSWER: C
Which of the following term denote the device used to replace the missed Body part
A. Orthosis
B. Prosmatic
C. Prosthetic
D. Operculum
ANSWER: C
Some active benign lesions usually require intervention.
A. To deactivate cancer cells
B. To limited biopsy and curettage
C. To promote healing process
D. To halt the active process and allow healing
ANSWER: D
One of the following cell is responsible for reabsorption and remodelling of the
bone
A. Involucrum
B. Osteoclast
C. Osteocyte
D. Osteoblast
ANSWER: B
Physical examination is considered as one of the method for diagnosing patient with
tumor if there is a lump using 3S which stand for
A. Site, size & shape
B. Surface, size & shape
C. Sign, size & shape
D. Shape & Site
ANSWER: A
All the following are causes of Osteomalacia EXCEPT;
A. Malabsorption syndrome
B. Hypophosphatemia
C. Chronic kidney failure
D. Cushing syndrome
ANSWER: D
Tricyclic antidepressants drug can be used to treat.
A. Septic arthritis
B. Pyogenic arthritis
C. Osteosarcoma
D. None of the above
ANSWER: D
The nurse is caring for the patient diagnosed with bone tumor. Which outcome
requires A revision in the planned care?
A. The client participates in establishing goal
B. The client shows an improve general condition
C. The patient demonstrates intolerance to activity
D. The client has no signs of distress
ANSWER: C
A client with rheumatoid arthritis is admitted to the hospital on physical
examination of this client, the nurse should expect to find
A. Asymmetrical joint involvement
B. Symmetrical joint involvement
C. Obesity
D. Condylar joint involvement
ANSWER: B
The musculoskeletal system is particularly vulnerable to
A. External forces
B. Internal forces
C. Trauma
D. Physical hazard
ANSWER: A
A Correct diagnosis for musculoskeletal system depends on
A. an accurate patient history
B. Thorough examination
C. An accurate patient history and a thorough examination
D. All of the above
ANSWER: C
All the following are mental status assessment expected to be documented during
Physical examination EXCEPT:
A. Orientation to time, place and person
B. Ability to understand direction
C. Capacity to retain information
D. Ability to think critically
ANSWER: D

All the following are treatment of gouty arthritis EXCEPT;

A. Appropriate antibiotics therapy
B. Rest or immobilization of the joint.
C. Surgical drainage by needle aspiration
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D

Chronic tophaceous gout is treated by initiating

A. long-term hypouricaemic therapy
B. long-term biochemical therapy
C. long-term hyperuricaemic therapy
D. short-term hypouricaemic therapy
ANSWER: A
DMARD Stand for
A. Diagnosing-Modifying anti-rheumatic Drugs
B. Disease-Modifying anti-rheumatic Drugs
C. Diet-Modifying anti-rheumatic Drugs
D. Dimensional-Modifying anti-rheumatic Drugs
ANSWER: B
The primary methods used in the physical examination of the musculoskeletal system
Include
A. Inspection and Auscultation
B. Palpation and percussion
C. Inspection and palpation
D. Inspection and Percussion
ANSWER: C
Nociceptive pain is considered to be chronic when it has been present for
A. At least 4months.
B. At least 1 months.
C. At least 3 months.
D. At least 2 months.
ANSWER: C

The maiden national drug policy for Nigeria was adopted and launched in
A. 1990
B. 1999
C. 1991
D. 1909
ANSWER: A
All the following are progress made by implementation of national drug policy
EXCEPT;
A. Publication of an Essential Drug List and National Drug Formulary
B. Establishment of a statutory agency with responsibility for drug
administration and control,
C. Introduction of drug registration procedures
D. Establishment of drug bureaucracy
ANSWER: D
Which of the following is a background factor that can result in inadequacies of
drug availability, supply and distribution in health care institution
A. The involvement of unqualified persons in procurement, distribution and sale
of drugs
B. Poor performance of drug suppliers to public health care institutions
C. Lack of political will to provide safe, efficacious and good quality drugs to
meet the health need of Nigerians
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
Availability of adequate drug storage conditions in 80% of the public and private
health care sectors should be achieved by
A. 2008
B. 2007
C. 2000
D. 2009
ANSWER: A
Inclusion of the Rational Use of Drugs Concept and the National Drug Policy Issues
in the curricula of all health professional schools and continuing education
programmes by 2006 is a
A. strategies for implementing the national drug policy
B. targets of the national drug policy
C. objective of national drug policy
D. goal of national drug policy
ANSWER: B
One of the following is not preference to pharmacological products
A. most scientific research and clinical data
B. most favourable pharmacokinetic properties
C. best cost manipulation
D. best patient compliance
ANSWER: C
All the following are objectives of procurement of drug EXCEPT;
A. To provide drugs on the basis of relevant information
B. To provide drug on the basis of need
C. To provide available resources
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
All the following are reasons for ineffective running of Drug Revolving Fund
EXCEPT;
A. Maintenance of a separate account for the DRF scheme
B. poor management,
C. misapplication of the Fund,
D. purchasing of drugs at exorbitant prices
ANSWER: A
Any drug withdrawn or banned in many countries, due to unacceptable health risks,
shall be automatically withdrawn from distribution in
A. World
B. Nigeria.
C. City
D. Hospital
ANSWER: B
Which of the following is not an aim of Research and Development in drug production
A. Developing new drugs
B. Improving existing ones,
C. Producing safer and more effective
D. Ensuring availability of drugs in the market
ANSWER: D
MEBENDAZOLE is also known as
A. Vermox
B. vamox
C. vemox
D. vimox
ANSWER: A
Which of the following is not a Helminthic infection?
A. trichinosis
B. filariasis,
C. schistosomiasis
D. Amoebiasis
ANSWER: D
Oral bioavailability is maximal when given immediately after full meal in
A. intraconazole
B. ketoconazole
C. miconazole
D. monistat
ANSWER: A
One of the following can be used in prevention of candida overgrowth during
prolonged corticosteroid therapy
A. Grisovin
B. fulcin
C. nystatin
D. Monistat
ANSWER: C
Mycostatin Vaginal tablets can be given 100,000—200,000 units once or twice daily
for
A. at least 16 days
B. at least 14 days
C. at least 30 days
D. at least 13days
ANSWER: B
One of the following drug interefere with embryonation and development of larva
stge of the worm.
A. Ketrax
B. Decaris
C. Mintezole
D. Retrax
ANSWER: C
Paralyzing the worms muscular within minutes of contact and ejecting the worms by
normal peristaltic movements usually within 24 hours of this drug administration.
A. Levamisole hydrochloride
B. Robaxin
C. Risperdal
D. Risperdal
ANSWER: A
Encephalopthy-like syndrome is a common side effect of
A. Ranitidine
B. Ketrax
C. Refampicin
D. Rocephin
ANSWER: B
Diethylcarbamazine is also known as
A. Maxolon
B. Octamide
C. Banocide
D. Reglan
ANSWER: C
All the following are side effect of thiabendazole EXCEPT;
A. Steven`- Johnson Syndrome
B. Lymphadenopathy
C. Hypersensitivity reaction like skin rashes
D. Leucocytosis
ANSWER: D
The branch of psychology that describes and explains the causes patient of mental
illness is called
A. Mental mnpsychology
B. clinical psychology
C. subjective psychology
D. conscious psychology
ANSWER: B
The person’s belief that there is a connection between activity and goal is what we
considered as________________
A. Determination
B. Expectancy
C. Instrumentality
D. Valence
ANSWER: ANSWER:
A type of relationship in which children are forced to become independent and take
care of themselves as children is known as
A. Secure relationship
B. Avoidant relationship
C. Ambivalent relationship
D. Neglected relationship
ANSWER: B
Personality development is affected by the following factors except ___________
A. Home
B. Religion
C. Intelligence
D. Attitude
ANSWER: D
Relationship building is one of the effective strategy for_____________
A. Counselling process
B. problem solving
C. crisis intervention
D. conflict resolution
ANSWER: A
The following contributed to the development of individual’s personality except
A. Situational factors
B. Considerable factors
C. Environmental factors
D. Social factors
ANSWER: B
Which one among the following represent the personality structure of Id
A. Preconscious
B. Subconscious
C. unconscious
D. semi-conscious
ANSWER: C
Which one among the following is responsible for organizing and giving meaning to
all sensory stimulus.
A. Awareness
B. Attention
C. emotion
D. perception
ANSWER: D
Good counsellor must possess the following qualities except
A. Warm
B. empathy
C. talkative
D. educative
ANSWER: C
The process by which an individual respond to a new event in a way that is
consistent with an existing schema is referred to as…
A. Assimilation
B. Adaptation
C. accommodation
D. Acculturation
ANSWER: A
Who among the following postulated that the development of an individual is as the
result of his interaction with his social environment.
A. Jean Piaget
A. Maslow
B. Erikson
C. Mary seacole
ANSWER: C
The stage at which a child expresses no sexual feelings is known as________
A. Phallic stage
B. Anal stage
C. Genital stage
D. Latency stage
ANSWER: D
Our awareness about various stimuli that we encounter in difference modalities is
referred to as
A. Conscious
B. sensation
C. Perception
D. Awareness
ANSWER: B
The ability to remember learning materials with more or less effort is called
A. Recognition
B. Relearning
C. Understanding
D. Recall.
ANSWER: D
One of the following is not among the adolescent problems.
A. social withdraw
B. slowness in behavior
C. Peer group dominance
D. Parenting
ANSWER: A
People that don’t give enough importance to situations or events tend to have….
A. Careless attitude
B. negative attitude
C. Neutral attitude
D. useless attitude
ANSWER: C
The medium and means for bringing about changes in the organisms is known as
A. Growth and development
B. individual differences
C. genetic and environment
D. psychological process
ANSWER: A
Modifying someone’s mental structures to meet the demand of the environment is what
we called..
A. Assimilation
B. Accommodation.
C. Recommendation
D. Imitating
ANSWER: B
One of the following is among the strategy for problem solving
A. Identify of the problem
B. Consulting judges
C. Going to court
D. Rapport between parties
ANSWER: A
Which one among the following personality structure becomes mediator when others
are in conflict.
A. Id
B. Ego
C. super-ego
D. Mind
ANSWER: B
The process of treating psychological disorders using psychological techniques is
referred to as
A. Psycho-analytical
B. Psychopathology
C. Psychotherapy
D. Psychosis
ANSWER: C
The retention of memorize materials over a period of time is referred to as.
A. Retrieval
B. Encoding
C. Storing
D. Recognition
ANSWER: C
The crisis that occur as part of our growing process through various periods of
life is known as
A. Growing crisis
B. Developmental crisis
C. Existential crisis
D. socio-cultural crisis
ANSWER: B
A desire to act in a certain way as an action or reaction on your part and is
unique to every human being.
A. Impulses
B. Emotion
C. Instincts
D. Reflexes
ANSWER: C
One of the following is among the stages of cognitive development
A. formal operational stage
B. informal operational stages
C. semi-formal operational stage
D. post formal stage
ANSWER: A
The defense mechanism that allows us to avoid thinking about the stressful and
emotional aspect of the situation in a very coal and clinical is known as
A. Projection
B. Interjection
C. suppression
D. Intellectualization
ANSWER: D
The ability to act effectively under giving condition is what considered as ……
A. Attitude
B. perception
C. Intelligence
D. Aptitude
ANSWER: C
The branch of psychology which describe and explain the process of growth and
development in relation to human behaviour is called..
A. Growing psychology
B. experimental psychology
C. development psychology
D. comparative psychology
ANSWER: C
The process that describe and explain the ways of conducting psychological
investigation along scientific line.
A. Investigational psychology
B. experimental psychology
C. Geo psychology
D. Scientific psychology
ANSWER: B
The systematic and scientific study of metal processes, experience and behaviour is
known as
A. Mind
B. mental psychology
C. psyche
D. psychology
ANSWER: D
All are the functions of RBC except
A. Transport of oxygen from lungs to tissues
B. Buffering action
C. Formation of platelets clot
D. Determination of blood group
ANSWER: C
Under hypoxic condition the kidney produce hormone called _______Which stimulate
bone marrow to increase RBC production
A. Angiotensin
B. Erythropoiten
C. Thrombopoiten
D. Antithrombin
ANSWER: C
All veins of the body carries deoxygenated blood except
A. Coronary veins
B. Pulmonary veins
C. Pulmonary artery
D. Jugular veins
ANSWER: C
The reproductive cells called gametes or sex cells contain only
A. 23 pairs of chromosomes
B. 46 number of chromosomes
C. 23 pair of chromosomes
D. 22 pair of chromosomes
ANSWER: A
Just before cell division chromatin fiber condensed to form
A. Necleosome
B. Chromatin
C. Chromosomes
D. Chromatid
ANSWER: D
The importance of dietary supplement is to _______
A. Provide extra nutrients that a diet is lacking
B. to provide essential nutrients
C. to make diet balanced
D. all of the above
ANSWER: A
_______ is the relationship between energy in and energy out
A. Energy
B. Energy Balance
C. energy imbalance
D. none of the above
ANSWER: B
The use of diet in the treatment of disease was a/an_______
A. ancient practice
B. traditional practice
C. Religious practice
D. all of the above
ANSWER: A
Vitamin A plays an important role in____
A. vision and reproduction
B. Vision only
C. Reproduction
D. All of the above
ANSWER: A
Adequate intake of folate reduce risk of
A. Neural tube defects
B. Anemia
C. all of the above
D. none of the above
ANSWER: A
The most commonly crave foods during pregnancy are_______
A. salty food
B. clay and sand
C. sweets and dairy products
D. none of the above
ANSWER: C
Nausea in pregnancy may be due to derangement in carbohydrates metabolism or______
A. Abdominal upset
B. nervous disturbances
C. all of the above
D. none of the above.
ANSWER: B
Morning sickness of early pregnancy can be improved by_______
A. Small and frequent meals
B. I.V fluids
C. liquid food
D. all of the above
ANSWER: D
An 18-year-old female patient is brought to the emergency department due to drug
overdose. Which of the following routes of administration is the most desirable for
administering the antidote for the drug overdose?
A. Intramuscular
B. Subcutaneous
C. Oral
D. Intravenous
ANSWER: D
__________Is the safest and most common, convenient, and economical method of drug
administration.
A. Intradermal
B. enteral
C. topical
D. intramuscular
ANSWER: C
The parenteral route introduces drugs directly into the________
A. systemic circulation
B. blood
C. mouth
D. gastrointestinal tract
ANSWER: A
Parenteral administration is used for drugs that are ____________from the GI tract
A. easily absorbed
B. poorly absorbed
C. can not be absorbed
D. can be absorbed
ANSWER: B
One the following is a parenteral route of drug administration
A. Oral
B. Rectal
C. sublingual
D. intramuscular
ANSWER: D
Urinary incontinency is sometimes also called __________________
A. Fecal matter
B. Bowel incontinence
C. loss of stool
D. None of the above
ANSWER: D
When a large, solid stool become stuck in the rectum, it is called__________
A. fecal impaction
B. constipation
C. None of the above
D. all of the above
ANSWER: A
The heart is composed of specialized tissue known as
A. Mycocyte muscle
B. Actinocyte muscle
C. Lymphocyte cells
D. Cardiac muscle
ANSWER: D
Pancytopenia means
A. Diminished production of Red Blood Cells
B. Diminished production of White Blood Cells
C. Diminished production of platelets
D. Diminished production of all types of blood cells
ANSWER: C
At 24 months, the milk teeth are _______ in number
A. 16
B. 18
C. 20
D. 22
ANSWER: A
The hardest part of the teeth is called
A. Dentine
B. Enamel
C. Cement
D. Pulp cavity
ANSWER: B
Column of blood vessels within the anal wall in its normal physiology are called
A. Renal blood vessels
B. Haemorroids
C. Columnal blood vessels
D. Anal blood vessels
ANSWER: D

Rennin is secreted in the

A. Glomerular bed
B. Afferent arteriole
C. Juxta Glomerular apparatus
D. Bowman’s capsule
ANSWER: C
Which of the following muscles serves to rotate the neck and flex the head?
A. Trapezoid
B. Trapezium
C. Sternocleidomastoid
D. Occipitofrontalis
ANSWER: B
Neural tube defects in the foetus is a sign of
A. Vitamin A deficiency
B. Vitamin B12 deficiency
C. Vitamin B6 deficiency
D. Folic acid deficiency
ANSWER: D
Indigestion occurs as a result of
A. Eating between meals
B. Rapid eating
C. Improper chewing of food
D. All of the above
ANSWER: D
The following are functions of thyroid gland hormones EXCEPT
A. Accelerate the catabolism of glucose
B. Assists in growth and differentiation
C. Increases the uptake/absorption of calcium
D. Influences the functioning of the nervous system
ANSWER: D