Solved XAT 2016 Paper With Solutions

XAT 2016
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Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning
Instructions
For the following questions answer them individually
Question 1
Which of the following Options best captures the relationship similar to INSPECT : VIVISECT?
A Enquire : Observe
B Inquire : Explore
C Investigate : Interrogate
D Query : Survey
E Question : Respond
Answer: C
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Question 2
Read the following poem and answer the question that follows:
I sought a soul in the sea

And found a coral there
Beneath the foam for me
An ocean was all laid bare.
Into my heart’s night
Along a narrow way
I groped; and lo! The light,
An infinite land of day.
Which of the following would best capture the ESSENCE of the poem above?
A What lies ‘outside’ is always deceptive.
B Pursue the narrow path and avoid the broadways.
C External search is futile; explore the inner space for answers.
D Heart’s pathways are broad and clear to find the destination.
E Light offers sight and insight.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The author wants to convey that if we search our inner self, we can find the truth and reality. Using the analogy of oceans and his own
heart, he has reiterated this point. Option C concurs with this.
Option A is extreme.
Other options are out of scope.
Hence, option C is the correct answer.
Question 3
“Assumptions are analogous to the basic ingredients in a gourment recipe. Only the final product of the recipe dictates whether the
ingredients suffice………”
Which of the following is ANALOGOUS to the statement above?

A Good wine needs no advertisement!
B The apple never falls far from the tree!
C All is well that ends well!
D As you sow, so shall you reap!
E The proof of the pudding is in the eating!
Answer: E
Explanation:
It can be inferred from the given line that assumptions are analogous to ingredients in a recipe. Only the taste of the final food can tell
whether the ingredients were appropriate or not. Option E is the most relevant.
Hence, option E is the correct answer.
Question 4
The FIRST and the LAST sentences of the paragraph are numbered 1 & 6. The others, labelled as P, Q, R and S are given below:
1.Suppose I know someone, Smith.
P. One day you come to me and say: “Smith is in Cambridge.”
Q. I inquire, and find you stood at Guildhall and saw at the other end a man and said: “That was Smith.”
R. I’d say: “Listen. This isn’t sufficient evidence.”
S. I’ve heard that he has been killed in a battle in this war.
6. If we had a fair amount of evidence he was killed I would try to make you say that you’re being credulous.
Which of the following combinations is the MOST LOGICALLY ORDERED?
A 1SPQR6
B 1RSPQ6
C 1PRSQ6
D 1QSRP6
E 1RQPS6
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement S is connected to statement 1 in which the author provides information about Smith and his knowledge about him.
'Inquire' in statement Q refers to the fact mentioned in statement P. So, statement Q should follow P. 'Evidence' mentioned in statement
R refers to the argument mentioned in statement Q. So, statement R should follow statement Q. Thus, the correct order is 1 - S - P - Q - R
- 6.
Hence, option A is the correct answer.
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Question 5
The FIRST and the LAST sentences of the paragraph are numbered 1 & 6. The others, labelled as P, Q, R and S are given below:
1. The word “symmetry” is used here with a special meaning, and therefore needs to be defined.
P. For instance, if we look at a vase that is left-and-right symmetrical, then turn it 180° around the vertical axis, it looks the same.
Q. When we have a picture symmetrical, one side is somehow the same as the other side.
R. When is a thing symmetrical - how can we define it?
S. Professor Hermann Weyl has given this definition of symmetry: a thing is symmetrical if one can subject it to a certain operation
and it appears exactly the same after operation.
6.We shall adopt the definition of symmetry in Weyl’s more general form, and in that form we shall discuss symmetry of physical laws.
Which of the following combinations is the MOST LOGICALLY ORDERED?

A 1PQRS6
B 1QRSP6
C 1RQPS6
D 1RQSP6
E 1SPQR6
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement R will come first as it asks a question. Statement Q answers the question asked in statement R. Statement S provides one
definition of 'symmetry' and statement P further elaborates the definition. Thus, the correct order is 1 - R - Q - S - P - 6.
Hence, option D is the correct answer.
Question 6
In recent past, Indian football team has lost most of the matches in international football tournaments. The most successful coaches
in Indian club football tournaments are from Latin American countries. In most of the Latin American countries, football is more
popular sport than cricket.
From the passage above, choose the correct option:
A It can be DEFINITELY concluded that “In India, cricket is more popular than football”.
B It can be DEFINITELY concluded that “Most Latin American countries are successful at football”.
C It can be DEFINITELY concluded that “In recent past, coaches of Indian football teams are not from Latin America”.
It can be DEFEINITELY concluded that “European football coaches are less successful than their Latin American counterparts for
D
Indian national team”.
It cannot be DEFINITELY concluded that “The more popular a sport the better the chance of producing a successful coach in that
E
sport”.
Answer: E
Explanation:
There is no mention of popularity of cricket in India. Option A cannot be concluded.
It is given that football is popular in Latin America. But, we cannot conclude that football is also successful there. Option B cannot be
inferred.
The paragraph gives information about coaches of Indian club football teams. We cannot infer option C.
Option D is out of the scope of the passage.
Option E is true that the relation between expertise of a coach and the popularity of that sport in his country cannot be established based
on the information provided in the passage.
hence, option E is the correct answer.
Question 7
Choose the best pronunciation of the word, Sobriquet, from the following options:
A soh-bruh-key
B suub-rry-ka
C sob-bee-ri-kwet
D soub-rick-kaat
E Sobb-rik-kwet
Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct pronunciation of "sobriquet" is "soh-bruh-key".
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Question 8
Consider the two related statements below:
Statement I: Offices and positions for the marginalized sections should be open to those with greater savings among them.
Statement II: Offices and positions must be open to everyone based on the principle of fair opportunity
Which of the following is true?
A Statement I assumes that the marginalized sections are incapable of saving.
B Statement II assumes that all citizens are equally exposed to all opportunities.
C Statement II contradicts meritocracy.
D Statement II assumes that all citizens are equally intelligent.
E Statement I assumes that the marginalized sections always depend on subsidies.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Supporting equal opportunity does not necessarily contradicts meritocracy. Option C is wrong.
Statement I does not assume that marginalized sections of society are incapable of saving or depend on subsidies. Options A and E are
irrelevant.
Statement II mentions fair opportunity as a principle but it never suggest that everyone is exposed to it. Hence B is incorrect.
Statement II assumes that everyone is equally capable and intelligent. So, it is justified to open offices and positions to everyone.
Question 9
This season will pass. The Prime Minister may not win Lok Sabha elections, or she may; she may not continue as Prime Minister, or
she may. The country will survive whatever the texture of politics in this decade or the next.
Which of the following, IF TRUE, will BEST reinforce the author’s view?
A The survival of any Prime Minister is dependent on the country’s economics growth.
B The country has a vibrant young working population.
C The survival of the country depends on a dynamic, growth-oriented Prime Minister, not on the texture of politics.
D The previous season had also witnessed similar political uncertainty.
E The survival of the Prime Minister is dependent on the political texture of the country.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Option A and B are irrelevent.
Option C is contradictory to what author states, because then if prime minister falls country will not be able to survive.
The main point of the passage is country will survive as it is independent of any other factors.
The author is presenting several alternative futures and stating that the country would thrive in every future and this fact will not depend
on any of the current factors responsible. If this thing would have happened earlier also and the country is still thriving, this will most

strongly support the author's argument.
Question 10
The subject of this book is knavery, skullduggery, cheating, betrayal, unfairness, crime, sneakiness, malingering, cutting corner,
immorality, dishonesty, betrayal, graft, wickedness, and sin.
Which of the following options best captures ALL the italicized words above?
A Aggressive behaviours
B Illegal behaviours
C Deviant behaviours
D Banned behaviours
E Vetoed behaviours
Answer: C
Explanation:
Some of the behaviours mentioned above are aggressive, some are illegal, some are banned. So, the common umbrella under which all
these behaviours would come is "deviant behaviours".
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Question 11
Read the following conversation:
OINOS: I can comprehend you thus far-that certain operations of what we term Nature, or the natural laws, will, under certain
conditions, give rise to that which has all the appearance of creation. Shortly before the final overthrow of the earth, there were, I well
remember, many very successful experiments in what some philosophers were weakenough to denominate the creation of
animaculae.
AGATHOS: The cases of which you speak were, in fact, instances of the secondary creation - and of the only species of creation which
has ever been, since the first word spoke into existence the first law.
Which of the following options CANNOT be DEFINITELY inferred based on the above conversation?
A Agathos was explaining something related to creation to Oinos.
B At the time of conversation there was nothing called Earth.
C The creation of animalculae is a natural law.
D Natural laws are creations of philosophers.
E Law is a spoken word.
Answer: D
Question 12
… there is a degree of convergence in the definition of trust which can be summarized as follows: Trust is a particular level of the
subjective probability with which an agent assesses that another agent or group of agents will perform a particular action. When we
say we trust someone or that someone is trustworthy, we implicitly mean that the probability that he will perform an action that is
beneficial to us….
Which of the following statement BEST COMPLETES the passage above?

A is high enough for us to find out if he will cheat us.
B is high enough for us to consider engaging in some form of cooperation with him
C is low enough for him not to engage in negative behavior against us.
D is high enough for us not to build defences against his possible aggression.
E is low enough for us to attack him.
Answer: B
Instructions
Analyse the following passage and provide appropriate answers for the questions that follow:
An effective way of describing what interpersonal communication is or is not, is perhaps to capture the underlying beliefs using specific
game analogies.
Communication as Bowling: The bowling model of message delivery is probably the most widely held view of communication. I think
that’s unfortunate. This model sees the bowler as the sender, who delivers the ball, which is the message. As it rolls down the lane (the
channel), clutter on the boards (noise) may deflect the ball (the message). Yet if it is aimed well, the ball strikes the passive pins (the
target audience) with a predictable effect. In this one - way model of communication, the speaker (bowler) must take care to select a
precisely crafted message (ball) and practice diligently to deliver it the same way every time. Of course, that makes sense only if target
listeners are interchangeable, static pins waiting to be bowled over by our words - which they aren’t.
This has led some observers to propose an interactive model of interpersonal communication.
Communication as Ping - Pong: Unlike bowling, Ping - Pong is not a solo game. This fact alone makes it a better analogy for
interpersonal communication. One party puts the conversational ball in play, and the other gets into position to receive. It takes more
concentration and skill to receive than to serve because while the speaker (server) knows where the message is going, the listener
(receive) doesn’t. Like a verbal or nonverbal message, the ball may appear straightforward yet have a deceptive spin. Ping - Pong is a
back - and - forth game; players switch roles continuously. One moment the
person holding the paddle is an initiator; the next second the same player is a responder, gauging the effectiveness of his or her shot by
the way the ball comes back. The repeated adjustment essential for good play closely parallels the feedback process described in a
number of interpersonal communication theories.
Communication as Dumb Charades The game of charades best captures the simultaneous and collaborative nature of interpersonal
communication. A charade is neither an action, like bowling a strike, nor an interaction, like a rally in Ping - Pong. It’s a transaction.
Charades is a mutual game; the actual play is cooperative. One member draws a title or slogan from a batch of possibilities and then
tries to act it out visually for teammates in a silent mini drama. The goal is to get at least one partner to say the exact words that are on
the slip of paper. Of course, the actor is prohibited from talking out loud. Suppose you drew the saying “God helps those who help
themselves.” For God you might try folding your hands and gazing upward. For helps you could act out offering a helping hand or giving
a leg - up boost over a fence. By pointing at a number of real or imaginary people you may elicit a response of them, and by this point a
partner may shout out, “God helps those who help themselves.” Success.
Like charades, interpersonal communication is a mutual, on - going process of sending, receiving, and adapting verbal and nonverbal
messages with another person to create and alter images in both of our minds. Communication between us begins when there is some
overlap between two images, and is effective to the extent that overlap increases. But even if our mental pictures are congruent,
communication will be partial as long as we interpret them differently. The idea that “God helps those who help themselves’ could strike
one person as a hollow promise, while the other might regard it as a divine stamp of approval for hard work. Dumb Charade goes beyond
the simplistic analogy of bowling and ping pong. It views interpersonal communications as a complex transaction in which overlapping
messages simultaneously affect and are affected by the other person and multiple other factors.
Question 13
The meaning CLOSEST to ‘interchangeable’ in the ‘Communication as Bowling’ paragraph is:
A Complementary
B Contiguous

Conforming
C
D Compatible
E Comparable
Answer: E
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Question 14
Which of the following options is the CLOASEST to the necessary condition of communication:
A Threshold overlap of shared images
B Simultaneous exchange
C Ability to stimulate affect
D Ability to enact a drama
E Ability to elicit a response
Answer: A
Question 15
The two inherent LIMITATIONS of Ping - Pong as a metaphor for communication are:
A It is governed by conventions with possibility for appeal; it has clear rules.
B The operating model is win - lose because only one individual or team can win; the receiver can always predict the spin.
C The number of players is limited as very few can be meaningfully engaged at a time; the rules of the game are fixed by the regulators.
D It demands more skills of the receiver than of the speaker; it is as passive as bowling.
E Real life communication is like Dumb Charade with multiple players; there are multiple balls used in Dumb Charade.
Answer: C
Question 16
Action, interaction and transaction is CLOSEST to:
A Advertising, Buyer negotiating with a seller, Bidding for a player in Indian Premier League.
B Preparing an election manifesto, Addressing a public gathering, Engaging in door to door canvassing.
C Preparing for MBA entrance exam, Writing the MBA entrance exam, Facing an interview for business school.
D Applying for learner licence, Negotiating with a driving school, Driving a Car.
E Negotiating overseas posting, Applying for visa, Undertaking a journey.
Answer: A
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Instructions

Advances in economic theory in the 1970s and 1980s illuminated the limits of markets; they showed that unfettered markets do not lead
to economic efficiency whenever information is imperfect or markets are missing (for instance, good insurance markets to cover the key
risks confronting individuals). And information is always imperfect and markets are always incomplete. Nor do markets, by themselves,
necessarily lead to economic efficiency when the task of a country is to absorb new technology, to close the “knowledge gap”: a central
feature of development. Today, most academic economists agree that markets, by themselves, do not lead to efficiency; the question is
whether government can improve matters. While it is difficult for economics to perform experiments to test their theories, as a chemist
or a
physicist might, the world provides a vast array of natural experiments as dozens of countries try different strategies. Unfortunately,
because each country differs in its history and circumstances and in the myriad of details in the policies – and details do matter – it is
often difficult to get a clear interpretation. What is clear, however, is that there have been marked differences in performance, that the
most successful countries have been those in Asia, and that in most of the Asian countries, government played a very active role. As we
look more carefully at the effects of particular policies, these conclusions are reinforced: there is a remarkable congruence between
what economic theory says government should do and what the East Asian governments actually did. By the same token, the economic
theories based on imperfect information and incomplete risk markets that predicted that the free flow of short-term capital – a key
feature of market fundamentalist policies – would produce not growth but instability have also been borne out.
Question 17
“… whether government can improve matters”. Here ‘matters’ indicates
A Economic efficiency
B Information imperfectness
C Knowledge gaps
D Good insurance markets
E Incomplete risk markets
Answer: A
Question 18
Which of the following options CANNOT be inferred from the above passage?
A Free flow of short - term capital might fail to ensure economic growth.
B Insurance market is a proof that ‘markets, by themselves, do not lead to efficiency’.
C It is difficult to interpret the success of economic policies of Asian countries.
D Technology can impede market efficiency.
E State intervention and imperfect information can never go hand - in - hand.

Answer: E
Question 19
Which of the following statements BEST captures the ESSENCE of the two paragraphs in the above passage?
A Paragraph I and paragraph II are parallel arguments that are unrelated.
B Paragraph I describes markets in general whereas Paragraph II describes market failures in Asian economics in particular.
Paragraph I explains why markets fail. Paragraph II spells out why market based economic theories fail to explain success of Asian
C
economics.
D Paragraph I raises question and paragraph II answers it.

Paragraph I states an economic theory and Paragraph II cites a natural experiment to disprove it.
E
Answer: C
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Instructions
The base of Objectivism according to Ayan Rand is explicit: “Existence exists – and the act of grasping that statement implies two
corollary axioms: that something exists which one perceives and that one exists processing consciousness, consciousness being the
faculty of perceiving that which exists.”
Existence and consciousness are facts implicit in every perception. They are the base of all knowledge (and the precondition of proof):
knowledge presupposes something to know and someone to know it. They are absolutes which cannot be questioned or escaped: every
human utterance, including the denial of these axioms, implies their use and acceptance. The third axiom at the base of knowledge – an
axioms true, in Aristotle’s words, of “being qua
being” – is the Law of Identity. This law defines the essence of existence: to be is to be something, a thing is what it is; and leads to the
fundamental principle of all action, the law of causality. The law of causality states that a thing’s actions are determined not by chance,
but by its nature, i.e. by what it is. It is important to observe the interrelation of these three axioms. Existence is the first axiom. The
universe exists independent of consciousness. Man is able to adapt his background to his own requirements, but “Nature, to be
commanded, must be obeyed” (Francis Bacon). There is no mental process that can change the laws of nature or erase facts. The
function of consciousness is not to create reality, but to apprehend it. “Existence is Identity, Consciousness is Identification.”
Question 20
Which of the following is DEFINITELY CORRECT according to the passage:
A Only what can be perceived exists.
B What exists is perceived.
C All that exists does not have consciousness.
D Consciousness makes perception of being possible.
E Something to be known and someone to know are the conditio sine qua non for Existence.
Answer: D
Question 21
Which of the following is the ESSENCE of ‘The law of Causality’?
A To be is to be something; ‘being qua being’.
B Wishing to become something else denies the nature of that being.
C The law of identity is the same as the law of causality.
D Essence of existence.
E Actions of a being are determined by its nature.
Answer: E
Question 22
Which of the following can be best captured as ‘Identity’ and ‘Identification,?
A College as identity; perception of cultural events as identification.

Twitter as identity; perception of Twitter as identification.
B
C Government as identity; perception of taxation of citizens as identification.
D Marriage as identity; perception of children as identification.
E MBA as identity; perception of campus placement as identification.
Answer: B
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Question 23
The author would interpret Francis Bacon’s “Nature, to be commanded, must be obeyed” as:
A Reality should not to be modified or escaped but faced.
B Man’s existence depends on nature’s whims.
C Essentially and objectively nature is superior to humans.
D Obstacles are better circumvented than confronted.
E Before channeling nature one must first comply with it.
Answer: E
Instructions
Each piece, or part, of the whole of nature is always merely an approximation to the complete truth, or the complete truth so far as we
know it. In fact, everything we know is only some kind of approximation, because we know that we do not know all the laws as yet.
Therefore, things must be learned only to be unlearned again or, more likely, to be corrected. The principal of science, the definition,
almost, is the following: The test of all knowledge is experiment. Experiment is the sole judge of scientific “truth.” But what is the source
of
knowledge? Where do the laws that are to be tested come from? Experiment, itself, helps to produce these laws, in the sense that it
gives us hints. But also needed is imagination to create from these laws, in the sense that it gives us hints. But also needed is
imagination to create from these hints the great generalizations – to guess at the wonderful, simple, but very strange
patterns beneath them all, and then to experiment to check again whether we have made the right guess. This imagining process is so
difficult that there is a division of labour in physics: there are theoretical physicists who imagine, deduce, and guess at new laws, but do
not experiment; and then there are experimental physicists who experiment, imagine, deduce, and guess.
We said that the laws of nature are approximate: that we first find the “wrong” ones, and then we find the “right” ones. Now, how can an
experiment be “wrong”? First, in a trivial way: the apparatus can be faulty and you did not notice. But these things are easily fixed and
checked back and forth. So without snatching at such minor things, how can the results of an experiment be wrong? Only by being
inaccurate. For example, the mass of an object never seems to change; a spinning top has the same weight as a still one. So a “law” was
invented: mass is constant, independent of speed. That “law” is now found to be incorrect. Mass is found is to increase with velocity, but
appreciable increase requires velocities near that of light. A true law is: if an object moves with a speed of less than one hundred miles a
second the mass is constant to within one part in a million. In some such approximate form this is a correct law. So in practice one
might think that the new law makes no significant difference. Well, yes and no. For ordinary speeds we can certainly forget it and use the
simple constant mass law as a good approximation. But for high speeds we are wrong, and the higher the speed, the wrong we are.
Finally, and most interesting, philosophically we are completely wrong with the approximate law. Our entire picture of the world has to be
altered even though the mass changes only by a little bit. This is a very peculiar thing about the philosophy, or the ideas, behind the laws.
Even a very small effect sometimes requires profound changes to our ideas.
Question 24
Which of the following options is DEFINITLY NOT an approximation to the complete truth?

A I know that I know.
B I know that I do not know.
C I know what I know.
D I know what I do not know.
E I know that others do not know.
Answer: D
Question 25
Consider the two statements from the passage:

Statement I: The mass of an object never seems to change.
Statement II: Mass is found to increase with velocity.
Which of the following options CANNOT be concluded from the above passage?
A Both statements I and II are approximation to the complete truth.
B Both statements I and II are complete truth so far as we know.
C Statement I is an approximation to the complete truth but Statement II is complete truth.
D Statement I reveals that experimental physicists who imagine, deduce, and guess are philosophically wrong.
E Statement II shows that theoretical physicists can pinpoint the shortcomings of experimental physicists.
Answer: E
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Question 26
‘Big Bang’ is a popular theory related to the origin of the universe. It states that the universe was the outcome of a big bang that
released enormous energy.
Which of the following is the MOST PROBABLE inference about the big bang theory?
A Big Bang Theory was first proposed by experimental physicists.
B Big Bang Theory was first proposed by theoretical physicists.

C Big Bang Theory was first proposed by experimental physicists and then deduced by theoretical physicists.
D Philosophers got the Big Bang theory wrong.
E Big Bang theory is not an approximation of the complete truth.
Answer: B
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Decision Making
Instructions
Analyse the following caselet and answer the questions that follow:

Indian Institute of Research is a Government-established body to promote research. In addition to helping in policy making, it also
provides free online access to all the articles to the public. It has a mission of publishing high quality research articles. Till 2010, the
publication of articles was very slow because there was no incentive for researchers to publish. Researchers stuck to the mandatory one
article a year. Most of the researchers engaged in offering consultancy and earned extra income. Since its inception, the institute was
considered the best place for cutting edge research. The new director of the institute was not happy with the work done by researchers
in silo and came out with a new research policy in 2013 to increase research output and improve collaboration among researchers. It
was decided that extra benefits would be offered to researchers with new publications. As a result, the number of research articles
increased fourfold in 2014. At the 2015 annual audit, an objection was raised against increased expenses towards remuneration for
researchers. Further, the Government opined that the publication was itself a reward and hence researchers need be paid nothing extra.
The director tried to defend his policy but the response from the government was not encouraging.
l. Note: Auditors role is to verify accounts.
Question 27
The following facts were observed by an analytics team hired by the government to study the extant situation.
1. There was a four-fold increase in the number of researchers leaving the organization in 2014.
2. A researcher died while on duty.
3. The quality of articles published declined substantially.
4. The average number of people accessing an article decreased by 2%.
Which of the following options would justify the government’s intention to DISCONTINUE the scheme?
A 1 and 2
B 2 and 3
C 3 only
D 4 only
E 3 and 4
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 and statement 2 have no relevance to the scheme. Statement 4 cannot be an effect of the mentioned scheme. Statement 3
can be a valid reason for discontinuing the scheme. Government can claim that people, being highly motivated by incentives, are
concentrating more on quantity than quality.
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Question 28
The director still wanted to persuade the government to review its stand. He had framed the following arguments:
1. Most famous researchers in the world are also the highest paid.
2. American institute of research gives extra benefits to its scientists.
3. This year’s highest paid researcher had won the Noble Prize last year.
Considering the Government to be reasonable which of the following options is UNLIKELY to convince the Government?
A 1 and 2
B 2 only
C 2 and 3
D 1 and 3
E 1, 2 and 3
Answer: E
Explanation:

Most famous researchers are also highly paid does not mean that they are famous because they are highly paid. Statement 1 cannot
convince the Government.
Statement 2 does not imply that extra benefits result in high quality research papers. Statement 2 is also ineffective.
Statement 3 is irrelevant because the time of winning Nobel prize and the year of being the highest paid are different. Statement 3 is
also unlikely to convince the Government.
Question 29
The director wanted to promote good decision making at Indian Institute of Research. A few trusted colleagues offered the following
suggestions:
1. Auditors need not be allowed to object to extra benefits schemes.
2. Auditors need not pin-point sudden increase in expenditure.
3. Auditors need not be consulted before taking any policy level decision.
Which of the following combination of options should the director agree THE MOST with?
A 1 and 2
B 2 only
C 2 and 3
D 1 and 3
E 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
Auditor's role is to verify accounts only. So, statement 1 and statement 3 are out of the scope of auditors' role. Therefore, the director
would agree with statement 1 and statement 3.
Instructions
Kamal Chinnappa, Vimal Rao, Ganesh Krishnan and Dinesh Kumar own a saloon each on the Barbil street. They are the only hairdressers
on that street. Each of them offered three services viz. haircut, shaving and hair-dye. One evening, all four of them met in a nearby tea-
stall and agreed to charge Rs. 100 for any of the three services (haircut, shave and hair-dye) on weekdays. They also agreed to increase
this rate to Rs. 115 on weekends and holidays. All verbally decided to implement the agreement.
Question 30
The following day Kamal, being the most competent hairdresser on the street, was contemplating charging higher than agreed upon
price.
Which of the following would enable him to charge more with minimal violation of the agreement?
A He should introduce a new and specialized service at Rs. 130.
B He should open another shop on the same street and charge Rs. 150.
C He should charge Rs. 130 for those wanting to jump the queue.
D He should charge Rs. 115 for a service to a particular customer and give the next service free.
E He should open his shop two hours before others and close it two hours after.
Answer: A
Explanation:
All the four hair dressers agreed upon the prices of haircut, shaving and hair-dye. If Kamal introduces a new service fro which there is no
agreement as such, he would be able to charge extra and also he would not be violating the agreement.

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Question 31
Vimal relies heavily on a bunch of loyal customers. He is concerned about retaining them.
Which of the following options should he choose if he does not want to violate the agreement?
A He should charge differential rates for loyal customers.
B He should charge the loyal customers lower.
C He should make every third visit free for his loyal customers.
D He should charge all the agreed upon price
E He should allow his loyal customers to jump the queue.
Answer: E
Explanation:
The hairdressers have agreed on the prices. So, changing the price in any manner would be violation of the agreement. Thus, options A,
B, C incorrect. Note that option C is making the price 0 which is also in violation of agreement.
In decision making questions, it is important to focus on the premise of the question. The central purpose of the shopkeeper is to
avoid any violation of agreement while retaining his loyal customers. The option that fits both is the best fit.
In option D, he does not violate the agreement but he is not doing anything to retain the loyal customers.
Hence option E is the best fit among the given options where loyal customers are benefited while not violating the agreement.
It is entirely true that jumping queue is a moral quandary in itself but as per the central purpose of the author, option E is the lesser of the
evils and logically coherent.
Instructions
The City of Yashmund is served by licensed taxis operating on officially sanctioned metered rates and driven by licensed drivers who do
not own the taxis but pay a monthly rent to the taxi-owners. Shailesh Nair, the mayor of Yashmund, perceived that most of these taxis do
not offer sufficient comfort and safety to passengers.
Question 32
The Mayor wants the owners and drivers to care about comfort.
Which of the following decisions, IF TAKEN, is MOST LIKELY to increase the comfort levels of passengers?
A The mayor issues a guideline that taxis will be randomly inspected by the police for the comfort level.
B The mayor ensures banks grant drivers loans to own cars. Owner driven cars generally offer greater comfort.
C The mayor introduces licensing of air-conditioned taxis which can charge increased rates to the rich customers.
The mayor introduces a feedback system that records passenger satisfaction with comfort levels; this will affect renewal of annual
D
taxi license
E The mayor permits doubling metered rates which will ensure enhanced income for owners to invest in greater comfort.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Random inspection will not be effective. Also, there is no provision of punishment mentioned. Option A is incorrect.

Options B and C are focused on new taxis and do not resolve current problem.
It has not been mentioned that safety is not offered due to less income generated. Option E is irrelevant.
Option D best serves the purpose. As every taxi needs renewal, affecting it and the taking feedback from passengers would not allow
the taxi drivers and owners to overlook safety and comfort.
Question 33
The mayor wants to involve the car owners in finding a solution to the problem of comfort and safety. He is concerned that the
customers may not be willing to pay more for safety.
Which of the options below is MOST LIKELY to convince the owners?
The taxi owners who clear comfort-inspection can charge higher rentals from the drivers and drivers with impeccable safety record
A
can charge the same from customers
The taxis that clear comfort-inspection can charge 25% above the metered rates; studies have shown that customers are willing to
B
pay around 18% extra for comfort.
C If a taxis owner has a consistent record of comfort and safety the government will subsidize a second loan.
Taxis can charge 25% more if they clear comfort-inspection. However, owners of the taxis found compromising on safety will be
D
jailed.
E Taxis that pass comfort-inspection test can charge 25% more. Should they violate any traffic rule this privilege would be withdrawn.
Answer: D
Download XAT GK PDF

Instructions
Analyse the following caselet and answer the question that follow:
Chatterjee, the MLA of Trikathapur, owes his election success to his close friend and businessman Ghosh. The victory had appeared
unlikely for Chatterjee after the arrival of Bhowmick, a budding politician with hordes of money. However, his clean image along with
Ghosh’s money ensured Chatterjee’s resounding victory.
Question 34
After the elections, Ghosh requested Chatterjee to sanction the land adjoining his factory, for expansion. However, the requested
government land was a green belt reducing harmful pollution from the factory.
Which of the following is the BEST option for Chatterjee in these circumstances?
A Chatterjee should approve the sale only after Ghosh plants a large number of trees around the factory and the city.
Chatterjee should oblige Ghosh provided he recruits 20 locals as his employees on condition that they plant and maintain a tree
B
each in their locality.
C As Ghosh is paying market rates Chatterjee should approve the sale with no rides.
Chatterjee should approve the sale and ensure that the green belt is shifted to a different tract of land outside the city, purchased
D
from the proceeds of the sale.
E Chatterjee should unconditionally approve the transfer of the land to Ghosh as a token of gratitude.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Options C and E are extremes and hence, cannot be the answer.
Shifting the green belt outside the city will not help in mitigating pollution inside the city. Option D is incorrect.
Recruiting 20 people who plant a tree each will not be able to compensate for the effect that a loss of green belt would have. Option B is

incorrect.
Option A will easily fill the gap left after loss of green belt.
Question 35
Inspired by Bhowmick’s manifesto, Chatterjee is contemplating a green policy which can adversely affect Ghosh’s business interest.
Which of the following actions from Ghosh is likely to convince Chatterjee NOT to pursue this policy?
A Request Chatterjee to defer implementation of the green policy by 3 years, the time needed to make his factory green.
B Remind Chatterjee that it is for his clean image that people voted him and not for Bhowmick’s green policy.
C Warn Chatterjee that all industrialists will turn against him and despite his clean image he may be hated by the industry.
D Appeal to Chatterjee’s sympathy citing the potential loss his business will suffer if the policy were to be implemented.
E Threaten Chatterjee that he should not take his loyalty for granted as Bhowmick has invited him to join his party.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Options C and E are extreme. Option D would imply that Chatterjee has to forego his plan regarding implementation of the green policy
because of his friend which is not ethical. Option A implies that Chatterjee would have to delay the implementation in favour of his friend
which is unethical. Option B will appeal the most to him as it will affect his future interests.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
Instructions
Nicky, Manoj and Benita are graduates from a top ranked B-school. They joined ABC corporation a year ago. ABC is known for its
performance oriented culture. This is the first time the organization recruited from a top ranked B-school. They are part of a five member
team with two others from lower ranked B-schools. Nicky, Manoj and Benita draw 40 percent higher salaries than other team members.
This team reports to Amelia Ganeshmurthi, a senior Executive.
Question 36
Amelia is disappointed with the performance of Nicky, Manoj and Benita. She came to know that ABC was not their first choice and
they had spent the first ten months applying to other organizations. However, they have now started liking ABC and promised to do
their best henceforth. Amelia has to rate their annual performance and decide about their future. She has the following choices:
1. Fire them from ABC for insincerity and save the organization’s time and money.
2. Given them average ratings with a year to prove their worth and fire them from ABC if they fail to show significant progress.
3. Impose a pay-cut of 15% since they have not delivered on the promise, but give them relatively high ratings.
4. Given them relatively poor ratings with one year time to improve and fire them from ABC if they fail to show significant progress.
5. Give them high ratings and give them a second chance to prove their worth.
Which of the following options rank the above choices in the order of MOST APPROPRIATE to LEAST APPROPRIATE?
A 1, 2, 4
B 2, 1, 4
C 4, 2, 5
D 4, 3, 1
E 5, 2, 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
Since all three of them have started liking ABC and have also promised to do their best, they deserve a second chance. So, the
statements, in which giving them a second chance is not mentioned, are incorrect. We are left with three choices. As they have not done

a good job, they also deserve a poor rating. So, the most appropriat option would be to give them poor rating, then average rating and at
last, high ratings. Thus, 4-2-5 is the correct order.
XAT Score Vs Percentile

Question 37
Recruiting Nicky, Manoj and Benita was part of a larger initiative to make the organization attractive to prospective employees.
Recently Amelia’s boss informally told her that the trio’s perception of the organization might influence future recruitment from top B-
schools. However, the trio had already expressed their unhappiness about the organization to Amelia. She suspected that her
promotion due next year might depend on the trio!
Which of the following is the BEST way for Amelia to deal with this situation?
A Henceforth, she should be lenient with the trio.
B She should promise the trio an early promotion if they can help her recruit good talent from top B-schools.
C Henceforth, she should occasionally invite the trio for dinner and informal outings.
D She should tell her boss that it is unfair to link her promotion to the trio’s behaviour.
E She should convey the trio’s unhappiness to her boss.
Answer: E
Question 38
Nicky’s performance on the job is disappointing though she is considered a very helpful person outside the workplace helping her
teammates and others in the organization with their personal needs e.g. finding a place to rent, a good place to get homely food etc.
On the other hand, Manoj and Benita are performing well in their respective jobs and are perceived by their teammates as important to
the team. But they are not interested in helping outside the workplace. Amelia has to decide the future of the trio. She has the
following options:
1. Inform the higher authorities about Nicky’s poor performance and ask them to take a call.
2. Send Nicky for a one month training earmarked for top performing employees.
3. Serve Nicky an ultimatum to improve within the next six months or get fired.
4. Even though they performed well, give Manoj and Benita average ratings because of their disinterest in helping outside workplace.
5. Give Manoj and Benita high ratings based on their performance.
Which of the following combination of above options will be the MOST APPROPRIATE?
A 1 and 5
B 2 and 4
C 2 and 5
D 3 and 4
E 3 and 5
Answer: E
Explanation:
The situation is not so complex as to involve senior management. Statement 1 is unsuitable.
Nicky is not a top performing employee. Statement 2 is not valid.
Statement 4 is not appropriate because they are doing their primary work well.
Statements 3 and 5 are best in the interest of the company.
Instructions

Recently a private food testing agency reported the presence of a harmful chemical in Crunchy Chips, a product of a fast moving
consumer goods giant. The report sparked a nationwide Outcry.
Question 39
Rajan Shekhawat, the CEO of the company, feared this incident might affect the company’s image among consumers. Rajan had the
following options:
1. Apologizing publicly for this inconvenience and immediately withdrawing the products from all stores.
2. Communicate ‘the correct findings’ to the public.
3. Hire a reputed independent testing agency to verify the claims of the report.
4. Establish internal mechanisms to prevent repetition of such incidences in future.
5. Give higher incentives to distributors and retailers for selling the company brands.
Which of the following would be the MOST APPROPRIATE ORDER of options for Rajan, starting from the immediate?
A 3, 1, 5
B 3, 2, 4
C 1, 3, 5
D 1, 2, 5
E 5, 3, 2
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 would mean the acceptance of the allegation which will tarnish the company's image.
Statement 5 would neither be effective in increasing sales nor be able to sway allegations.
The authenticity and accuracy of the report is not known. Hence, the statements 3,2, and 4 are the correct way to approach the crisis at
hand.
Hence, option B is the correct answer.
XAT Score Calculator

Question 40
Mukesh Routray, a shopkeeper in a remote village was surprised to read in the newspaper, his only source of information, about
harmful chemicals in Crunchy Chips. He had stocked a large quantity of Crunchy Chips for the forthcoming festive season. He also
realized that people in his village are completely unaware of this controversy. He had the following options:
1. Sell the entire stock at a discount before the news spreads.
2. Destroy the entire stock and advise customers not to buy this product from other shops as well.
3. Donate the entire stock of Crunchy Chips to a local orphanage.
4. Inform customers about the controversy but understate its seriousness.
5. Ignore the news and sell the stock at the forthcoming festive season as planned.
6. Explore the veracity of the report and then take decision
If arranged from ethical to unethical which of the following is DEFINITELY the WRONG order?
A 6, 5, 1
B 6, 1, 4
C 4, 5, 1
D 2, 4, 3
E 2, 4, 1
Answer: B
Explanation:
Mukesh has just read the news in the newspaper and he is not sure about its truthfulness. So, the most appropriate step for him would
be to explore the reality behind the news. Therefore, 6 is an ethical option. Option 2 is ethical too. 1,3,5 are unethical options. Option 4
can be considered as unethical too but to a lesser degree than 1,3,5.
So 6,1,4 is definitely the wrong order because 1 is more unethical option than 4. Hence, option B is the correct answer.
Question 41
An independent and trustworthy confidante of Rajan Shekhawat, the CEO of the company, informed him that one of their main
competitors had bribed the food testing agency to manipulate the report.
Which of the following actions will BEST help Crunchy Chips to bounce back?
A Proclaim over the media that their product is completely safe.
B Secretly hire a food testing agency to ascertain the quality of the competitor’s product.
C Hire another food testing agency to test and communicate the outcome to the consumers.
D File a defamation case against the competitor for their alleged involvement in the conspiracy
E File a defamation case against the food testing agency.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Proclaiming something without any evidence is futile. Option A is wrong.
Without being sure of the involvement of competitors in any conspiracy, blaming is not correct. Options D and E are incorrect.
Option B would not help Shekhawat prove that his product is healthy which is the main allegation.
Option C is the best alternative for Shekhawat. He can prove both that his product is healthy and the allegations are false.
Instructions
Purushottam Bhatnagar own and operates a sweetshop Puru and Sons. He is about 60 years old is eager to hand over the business to
his sons Ratan and Pramod. He however, fears that his sons, fresh from college may not understand the tricks of the trade.
Question 42
Purushottam sends a batch of sweets to the police station across the street every day. Ratan construed it as a bribe and wanted to
stop this practice.
Which of the following arguments, IF TRUE, would BEST convince Ratan NOT to given up this practice?
A In the last three years, three attempts to burgle Puru and Sons were effectively foiled by the police.
B Each policeman receives only two piece of sweet, too small to be considered a bribe.
C The police in return send two policemen in mufti to mingle with the customers during rush hours to prevent pickpockets.
Every day, Purushottam also sends a batch of sweets to the school next to the station, an orphanage nearby and the temple at the
D
end of the street.
Purushottam’s competitor Uttampurush who runs a sweetshop in the same street and his neighbour Mahapurush who runs a
E
samosa stall, both do similar things every day.
Answer: D
XAT Crash course

Question 43
Purushottam’s eldest son discovered that the shop repackaged sweets that were close to
expiry and sold them at a discount under different names. These sweets usually get sold
very fast. But his son was concerned about the possible consequences of this practice.
Purushottam was thinking of the following arguments to convince his son.
1. These sweets are consumed the same day and therefore there is no cause for worry.
2. Reduced prices give enough indication about the sweets to the customers.
3. These products are preferred by those who cannot afford full price and in a way, this is a service done to them.
4. In the past 30 years not a single person has reported ill because of consumption of these sweets.
5. Repacking and selling sweets is a common practice.
Which combination of arguments below is MOST LIKELY to convince Ratan?
A 1 and 3
B 1 and 4
C 2 and 3
D 2 and 5
E 4 and 5
Answer: B
Question 44
Purushottam’s younger son Pramod discovered that 10% of their customers whom Purushottam called privileged customers
purchased sweets at prices fixed 10 years ago (which is significantly lower than the current prices). Purushottam told him, “This 10%
are my core and loyal customers with whom I have personal connect and therefore they deserve this privilege”. Pramod refuted his
father’s argument citing the following Information.
1. These customers from the top 20% of the income bracket of the city.
2. These customers frequently purchase from other sweetshops at market prices.
3. None of them recognises and greets Purushottam at the shop or at anywhere else.
4. None of them was present at Pramod’s marriage.
5. These customers actually buy sweets at Puru and sons for others not part of the core and loyal customer group.
Which of the following combination of the above will MOST LIKELY convince Purushottam to charge market price to all?
A 1 and 2
B 2 and 4
C 2 and 5
D 3 and 4
E 4 and 5
Answer: C
Instructions
Six people working at the Bengaluru office of Simsys are planning to buy flats at a real estate project at Whitefield. Their preferences are
listed below:

They have identified 7 real estate projects with following facilities available (marked with √):
A person is ‘satisfied’ if a project meets all three preferences.
Question 45
Identify the project(s) where NONE of the 6 persons will be ‘satisfied’.
A M only
B N only
C P only
D N and P only
E In all projects at least one person will be ‘satisfied’.
Answer: C
Explanation:
From the information given in the question, we can make the following table about the project and the person satisfied with it.

We can infer from the table that P cannot satisfy any of the following persons.

Question 46
Identify the project(s), where AT LEAST 3 of the persons will be ‘satisfied’.
A M only
B S only
C Q and R only
D M, Q and S only
E M, Q and R only
Answer: D
Explanation:
From the information given in the question, we can make the following table about the project and the person satisfied with it.
We can infer from the table that M, Q and S can satisfy at least three persons.
Question 47
The marketing managers of all the six projects have agreed to add a recreation club and a car parking facility to the projects. In this
changed scenario identify projects where AT MOST 2 of the 6 persons will NOT be ‘satisfied’.
A N, Q and R only
B P only

M and P only
C
D N and P only
E M, N and P only
Answer: A
Explanation:
We can create the following table from the above information.
From the table, we can infer that N, Q and R will satisfy the given condition.
Instructions
Geetha Gawde can cultivate up to 6 crops a year. Crop A and B are ready for harvest in 2 months; crop C and D in 3 months, and crop E
and F in 4 months. Crop A can be cultivated from January to June; crop B can be cultivated from April to September; crop C can be
cultivated from May to December; crops D as well as E can be cultivated from August to December, and crop F from November to May.
If Geetha plans a change of crop the soil should be left fallow for one month; however, if the same crop is sown no fallow time is
needed. Sowing takes place only at the beginning of a month. Geetha can only harvest a maximum of 1000 units of any crop at any point
in time. The production cost per unit (incurred at the time of sowing) and price per unit of crop are as follows:
For Geetha soil preparation does not incur any cost. If a crop is abandoned before the scheduled harvesting, she gets no money. Geetha
is preparing a cropping schedule to maximize her annual profits (i.e. price – cost). She plans to replicate the schedule in the coming
years.
Question 48
Which of the following would DEFINITELY be a part of the ideal schedule?
A Cultivate crop B in August or September.
B Cultivate crop B from April to September.

Do not cultivate any crop in August but cultivate crop D in September.
C
D Cultivate crop D or crop E in August or September.
E Do not cultivate any crop in August; but cultivate crop D or crop E in September.
Answer: C
Explanation:
As per the given conditions the following details have been mentioned .
Now Since for the months of January , February and March we have crop A for use .
So We select crop A for the months of January and February and earns a profit of USD 40000 . (1)
The author wants to replicate the same schedule for the upcoming years.
So If he wants to use Use crop A for the upcoming years in the month of January we must make sure that the month pf December must
be left empty because we cannot use crop A in the month of November .
Considering crop A and crop B only they could be used from January to September . A period of 9 months . The reason for considering B
is that it requires low time frame and relatively higher profits .
If we plan to use only A and B for the period of 9 months we are left with a period of 3 months and since we cannot sow a crop in the
month of December and we are left with October and November .No crop can be completely harvested in the period of 2 months .
Hence we must stop using A and B even before the month of September is reached.
While considering a set of crops the choice must be made on the basis of low time period and High Returns .
After February is complete we can extend the crop A once more or twice more which gives us returns of USD 80000 for the period of Jan
to April or USD 120000 from Jan to June .
The other case leaves us with taking a gap of 1 month in the month of March and sowing B in April .
If B is sowed in April and May it would provide a return of USD(40000+ 50000) =USD 90000 . (2)
If B is sowed in 2 consecutive sessions of April, May and June, July we earn USD (40000 +100000) = USD 140000 . (3) .
Until the month of August the best choice is sowing A from Jan to Feb , Leaving the land empty for March and sowing crop B from April
to July .
After July taking a gap of 1 more month to sow a different crop and make sure the crop is harvested in 3 months since
December cannot be used.
The best choice is to sow crop D which is harvested in three months September , October and November and generate a profit of USD
60000 .
The final result is as follows :

Question 49
Which of the following schedules would maximize her annual profit while minimizing the costs, if Geetha decides NOT to repeat a crop
in a calendar year?
A Crops A, B and E
B Crops B, D and F
C Crops B, D, E and F
D Crops C, D and F
E Crops A, B, D or E
Answer: A
Explanation:
As per the given conditions the following details have been mentioned .
Now Since for the months of January , February and March we have crop A for use .
So We select crop A for the months of January and February and earns a profit of USD 40000 . (1)
The author wants to replicate the same schedule for the upcoming years.
So If he wants to use Use crop A for the upcoming years in the month of January we must make sure that the month pf December must
be left empty because we cannot use crop A in the month of November .
Considering crop A and crop B only they could be used from January to September . A period of 9 months . The reason for considering B
is that it requires low time frame and relatively higher profits .
If we plan to use only A and B for the period of 9 months we are left with a period of 3 months and since we cannot sow a crop in the
month of December and we are left with October and November .No crop can be completely harvested in the period of 2 months .
Hence we must stop using A and B even before the month of September is reached.
While considering a set of crops the choice must be made on the basis of low time period and High Returns .
After February is complete we can extend the crop A once more or twice more which gives us returns of USD 80000 for the period of Jan
to April or USD 120000 from Jan to June .
The other case leaves us with taking a gap of 1 month in the month of March and sowing B in April .
If B is sowed in April and May it would provide a return of USD(40000+ 50000) =USD 90000 . (2)
If B is sowed in 2 consecutive sessions of April, May and June, July we earn USD (40000 +100000) = USD 140000 . (3) .
Until the month of August the best choice is sowing A from Jan to Feb , Leaving the land empty for March and sowing crop B from April
to July .
After July taking a gap of 1 more month to sow a different crop and make sure the crop is harvested in 3 months since
December cannot be used.
The best choice is to sow crop D which is harvested in three months September , October and November and generate a profit of USD
60000 .
The final result is as follows :

XAT Previous Papers
Quantitative Ability
Instructions
Question 50
In the figure below, AB = AC = CD. If ADB = 20°, what is the value of BAD?
A 40°
B 60°
C 70°
D 120°
E 140°
Answer: D
Explanation:
AB = AC = CD, => ∠CAD = ∠CDA = 20∘
and ∠ABC = ∠ACB
In △ ACD
=> ∠ACD + ∠CAD + ∠CDA = 180∘
=> ∠ACD = 180∘ − 20∘ − 20∘ = 140∘
=> ∠ACB = 180∘ − 140∘ = 40∘ = ∠ABC

Similarly, In △ ABC
=> ∠BAC = 180∘ − 40∘ − 40∘ = 100∘
∴ ∠BAD = 100∘ + 20∘ = 120∘

Question 51
In an amusement park, a visitor gets to ride on three different rides (A, B and C) for free. On a particular day 77 opted for ride A, 55
opted for B and 50 opted for C; 25 visitors opted for both A and C, 22 opted for both A and B, while no visitor opted for both B and C.
40 visitors did not opt for ride A and B, or both. How many visited the amusement park on that day?
A 102
B 115
C 130
D 135
E 150
Answer: E
Explanation:
From the figure, a + 22 + 25 = 77
=> a = 77 − 47 = 30
Similarly, c = 55 − 22 = 33
and b = 50 − 25 = 25
It is given that 40 visitors did not opt for ride A and B, or both
=> b + d = 40
=> d = 40 − 25 = 15
∴ Total number of people who visited with the entry pass on that day
= a + b + c + d + 22 + 25
= 30 + 25 + 33 + 15 + 47 = 150

Question 52
△ABC and △XYZ are equilateral triangles of 54 cm sides. All smaller triangles like △ANM, △OCP, △QPX etc. are also equilateral
triangles. Find the area of the shape MNOPQRM.
A 243√3 sq. cm.
B 486√3 sq. cm.

C 729√3 sq. cm.
D 4374√3 sq. cm.
E None of the above
Answer: B
Explanation:
AB = 54 cm and △ANM , △OCP , △OPX are equilateral triangles.
54
=> MN = MR = NO = OP = PQ = QR = 3 = 18 cm
Thus, MNOPQRM is a regular hexagon with side 18 cm

3 3
∴ Area of MNOPQRM = 2 (side)2
3 3
= 2 × 182 = 486 3cm2
Question 53
Akhtar plans to cover a rectangular floor of dimensions 9.5 meters and 11.5 meters using tiles. Two types of square shaped tiles are
available in the market. A tile with side 1 meter costs Rs. 100 and a tile with side 0.5 meters costs Rs. 30. The tiles can be cut if
required. What will be the minimum cost of covering the entire floor with tiles?
A 10930
B 10900
C 11000
D 10950
E 10430
Answer: A
Explanation:
Area of rectangular floor = 9.5 × 11.5
= 109.25m2
Now, cost of covering 109m2 (with 1x1 tiles) = 109 × 100 = Rs. 10,900
Cost of covering 0.25m2 (with 0.5 m square tile) = Rs. 30
∴ Total cost = 10, 900 + 30 = Rs.10, 930

Question 54
Anita, Biplove, Cheryl, Danish, Emily and Feroze compared their marks among themselves. Anita scored the highest marks, Biplove
scored more than Danish. Cheryl scored more than at least two others and Emily had not scored the lowest.
Statement I: Exactly two members scored less than Cheryl.
Statement II: Emily and Feroze scored the same marks.
Which of the following statements would be sufficient to identify the one with the lowest marks?
A Statement I only.
B Statement II only.
C Both Statement I and Statement II are required together.
D Neither Statement I nor Statement II is sufficient.
E Either Statement I or Statement II is sufficient.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Let A,B,C,D,E,F represents Anita, Biplove, Cheryl, Danish, Emily and Feroze respectively.
Statement I : It is not sufficient as nothing is mentioned about D and F.
Statement II : E = F, thus E and F cannot score the lowest.
Also, C scored higher than at least 2 and B scored more than D while A scored the highest.
The only person left with the lowest marks can be D.
Thus, statement II alone is sufficient.
Question 55
Rani bought more apples than oranges. She sells apples at Rs. 23 apiece and makes 15% profit. She sells oranges at Rs. 10 apiece
and marks 25% profit. If she gets Rs. 653 after selling all the apples and oranges, find her profit percentage.
A 16.8%
B 17.4%
C 17.9%
D 18.5%
E 19.1%
Answer: B
Explanation:
Let number of apples = x and oranges = y
=> 23x + 10y = 653 (x > y)
Since, 653 has last digit 3, which is possible when 23 is multiplies by 1,11,21,31 and so on.
Also, x > y => x = 21 and y = 17

100
=> C.P. of 1 apple = 115 × 23 = 20
100
C.P. of 1 orange = 125 × 10 = 8
=> Total C.P. = (21 × 20) + (17 × 8) = 420 + 136 = 556

653−556
∴ Profit % = 556 × 100 = 17.4%

Question 56
Consider the set of numbers {1, 3, 32 , 33 ,…..., 3100 }. The ratio of the last number and the sum of the remaining numbers is closest to:
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 50
E 99
Answer: B
Explanation:
Set : { 1, 3, 32 , 32 , … ..., 3100 }
Clearly, this set is a G.P. with common ratio, r = 3

a(rn−1)
Sum of G.P. = r−1
Number of terms = 101
Last term = 3100

1(3 100 −1)
Sum of remaining terms = 3−1
3 100 −1
= 2
3 100
3 100 −1
∴ Required ratio = 2
3 100 ×2
= 3 100 −1
3 100 ×2
≈ 3 100 =2

Question 57
f is a function for which f(1)= 1 and f(x) = 2x + f(x - 1) for each natural number x ≥2. Find f(31)
A 869
B 929
C 951
D 991
E None of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
Expression : f(x) = 2x + f(x − 1) and f(1) = 1
Putting, x = 2
=> f(2) = 2 × 2 + f(1) = 4 + 1 = 5
and f(3) = 2 × 3 + f(2) = 6 + 5 = 11

Similarly, f(4) = 2 × 4 + f(3) = 8 + 11 = 19
The pattern followed is : f(n) = n2 + (n − 1)
Now, n = 31
∴ f(31) = 312 + (31 − 1) = 961 + 30 = 991

Question 58
Two numbers in the base system B are 2061 B and 601 B. The sum of these two numbers in decimal system is 432. Find the value of
1010B in decimal system.
A 110
B 120
C 130
D 140
E 150
Answer: C
Explanation:
Converting numbers in decimal system
=> 2061B = 2B3 + 6B + 1
and 601B = 6B2 + 1
Acc. to ques, => 2B3 + 6B + 1 + 6B2 + 1 = 432
Solving above equation, we get : B = 5
∴ 10105 in decimal system = 1(5)3 + 1(5) = 130

Note :- This question is technically wrong as we cannot have digit 6 in Base 5.
Question 59
A water tank has M inlet pipes and N outlet pipes. An inlet pipe can fill the tank in 8 hours while an outlet pipe can empty the full tank
in 12 hours. If all pipes are left open simultaneously, it takes 6 hours to fill the empty tank. What is the relationship between M and N?
A M:N=1:1
B M:N=2:1
C M:N=2:3
D M:N=3:2
E Cannot be determined.
Answer: E
Explanation:
M
M inlet pipe can fill ( 8 )th part of the tank in 1 hour.
N
Similarly, N outlet pipes can empty ( 12 )th part of the tank in 1 hour.
M N 1
=> 8 − 12 = 6
=> 6M − 4N = 8
4+2N
=> M = 3
If, N = 1, => M = 2 => M : N = 2 : 1

If, N = 4, => M = 4 => M : N = 1 : 1
Thus, Ans - (E)

Question 60
Company ABC starts an educational program in collaboration with Institute XYZ. As per the agreement, ABC and XYZ will share profit
in 60 : 40 ratio. The initial investment of Rs.100,000 on infrastructure is borne entirely by ABC whereas the running cost of Rs. 400 per
student is borne by XYZ. If each student pays Rs. 2000 for the program find the minimum number of students required to make the
program profitable, assuming ABC wants to recover its investment in the very first year and the program has no seat limits.
A 63
B 84
C 105
D 157
E 167
Answer: A
Explanation:
For program to be profitable both companies must recover costs before they can start making profits.
Since, ABC wants to recoup investment in the first year and there is no limit of number of students, profits can only be shared after both
companies can reach a situation of minimum profits (zero profit), which would be:
Let x be minimum number of students required to reach a situation of minimum profits (in this case 0).
Comparing total costs and revenues :
=> 400x + 100000 = 2000x.

100000
=> x = (2000−400) = 62.5 = 63
Question 61
Study the figure below and answer the question:
Four persons walk from Point A to Point D following different routes. The one following ABCD takes 70 minutes. Another person takes
45 minutes following ABD. The third person takes 30 minutes following route ACD. The last person takes 65 minutes following route
ACBD. IF all were to walk at the same speed, how long will it take to go from point B to point C?
A 10 min.
B 20 min.
C 30 min.
D 40 min.
E Cannot be answered as the angles are unknown.
Answer: C

Explanation:
AB + BC + CD = 70 ------------(i)
AB + BD = 45 ------------------(ii)
AC + CD = 30 ------------------(iii)
AC + CB + BD = 65 ------------(iv)
Adding (i) & (iv)
=> AB + BC + CD + AC + CB + BD = 70 + 65
(AB + BD) + 2 BC + (AC + CD) = 135
From (ii) & (iii)
=> 45 + 2 BC + 30 = 135
=> 2 BC = 135 - 75 = 60
60
=> BC = 2 = 30 min
Question 62
Each day on Planet M is 10 hours, each hour 60 minutes and each minute 40 seconds. The inhabitants of Planet M use 10 hour analog
clock with an hour hand, a minute hand and a second hand. If one such clock shows 3 hours 42 minutes and 20 seconds in a mirror
what will be the time in Planet M exactly after 5 minutes?
A 6 hours 18 minutes 20 seconds
B 6 hours 22 minutes 20 seconds
C 6 hours 23 minutes 20 seconds
D 7 hours 17 minutes 20 seconds
E 7 hours 23 minutes 20 seconds
Answer: B
Explanation:
10 hour analog clock is used.
Time in mirror = 3 hours 42 minutes and 20 seconds
=> Actual time = 10 - (3 hrs 42 min 20 sec)
= 6 hrs 17 min 20 sec
∴ Time after 5 minutes = 6 hrs 22 min 20 sec

Question 63
a, b, c are integers, |a| ≠ |b| ≠|c| and -10 ≤ a, b, c ≤ 10. What will be the maximum possible value of [abc - (a + b + c)]?
A 524
B 693
C 731
D 970
E None of the above
Answer: C

Explanation:
|a| ≠ |b| ≠|c| and -10 ≤ a, b, c ≤ 10
Expression : [abc − (a + b + c)]
For maximum value, two of a,b and c should be negative, as all three negative will make abc negative.
Thus, max value will occur if a = −10, b = −9, c = 8
=> Max value = [(−10 × −9 × 8) − (−10 − 9 + 8)]
= 720 + 11 = 731
Question 64
A square piece of paper is folded three times along its diagonal to get an isosceles triangle whose equal sides are 10 cm. What is the
area of the unfolded original piece of paper?
A 400 sq. cm.
B 800 sq. cm.
C 800√2 sq. cm.
D 1600 sq. cm.
E Insufficient data to answer
Answer: A
Explanation:
When a square sheet is folded in half, its area is also halved. Now, an isosceles right triangle is formed after folded. For 2nd & 3rd folds,
again areas halved each time and isosceles right triangle is formed
Equal sides = 10 cm
1
Area of last such triangle = 2 × 10 × 10 = 50cm2
∴ Area of original square = 50 × 2 × 2 × 2

= 400cm2
Question 65
The difference between the area of the circumscribed circle and the area of the inscribed circle of an equilateral triangle is 2156 sq.
cm. What is the area of the equilateral triangle?
A 686√3
B 1000
C 961√2
D 650√3
E None of the above
Answer: A
Explanation:
Let radius of incircle = r, => Radius of circumcircle = 2r
Difference in area = π[(2r)2 − (r)2 ] = 2156

22
=> 3 × 7 × r2 = 2156
2156×7
=> r2 = 66
686
686
3
=> r =
3
Now, height of equilateral triangle = 3r = 2 a (where a is side of triangle)
686
3 3
=> 3 × = 2 a
=> a = 2 686
3
∴ Area of triangle = 4 a2
3
= 4 × 4 × 686 = 686 3cm2

Question 66
A person standing on the ground at point A saw an object at point B on the ground at a distance of 600 meters. The object started
flying towards him at an angle of 30° with the ground. The person saw the object for the second time at point C flying at 30° angle with
him. At point C, the object changed direction and continued flying upwards. The person saw the object for the third time when the
object was directly above him. The object was flying at a constant speed of 10 kmph.
Find the angle at which the object was flying after the person saw it for the second time. You may use additional statement(s) if
required.
Statement I: After changing direction the object took 3 more minutes than it had taken before.
Statement II: After changing direction the object travelled an additional 200√3 meters.
Which of the following is the correct option?
A Statement I alone is sufficient to find the angle but statement II is not.
B Statement II alone is sufficient to find the angle but statement I is not.
C Statement I and Statement II are consistent with each other.
D Statement I and Statement II are inconsistent with each other.
E Neither Statement I nor Statement II is sufficient to find the angle.
Answer: D
Explanation:

If the object does not change direction at point C then it will be at D above the person. But since it is given that object changed direction
and continued flying upwards, thus object would reach point E.
△ ABC is isosceles triangle ( ∵ ∠CAG = ∠ABC )

=> CG is perpendicular bisector to AB => BG = 300 m
In △ BCG
BG
=> cos30 = BC
3 300
=> 2 = BC
600
=> BC = 3 = 200 3
Now, according to statement I, time can increase only when the angle with ground level will increase.
But, according to statement II, if CD = 200 3 (= BC), then at constant speed, it will not take any additional time and thus there should
not be any increase in angle.
But in first statement direction has been changed whereas in second statement direction has not been changed.
So both the statements are inconsistent with each other.
Question 67
For two positive integers a and b, if (a + b)(a+b) is divisible by 500, then the least possible value of a × b is:
A 8
B 9
C 10
D 12
E None of the above
Answer: B
Explanation:
If (a + b)(a+b) is divisible by 500,
500 = 22 × 53
=> Least value of a + b = 2 × 5 = 10
For least a and b, let a = 1
=> b = 10 − 1 = 9
∴ Min (a × b) = 1 × 9 = 9
Question 68
Pradeep could either walk or drive to office. The time taken to walk to the office is 8 times the driving time. One day, his wife took the
car making him walk to office. After walking 1km, he reached a temple when his wife called to say that he can now take the car.
Pradeep figure that continuing to walk to the office will take as long as walking back home and then driving to the office. Calculate the
distance between the temple and the office.
A 1
B 7/3
C 9/7
D 16/7
E 16/9

Answer: C
Explanation:
Let walking speed = a
=> Driving speed = 8a
Let the distance between temple and office = x
Acc. to ques,
x 1 x+1
=> a = a + 8a
=> 8x = 8 + x + 1
9
=> x = 7

Question 69
If a, b and c are 3 consecutive integers between -10 to +10 (both inclusive), how many integer values are possible for the expression?
a3 +b 3 +c 3 +3abc
(a+b+c)2 =?
A 0
B 1
C 2
D 3
E 4
Answer: C
Explanation:
Since a,b,c are consecutive integers
=> a = b − 1 and c = b + 1
a3 +b 3 +c 3 +3abc
Expression : (a+b+c)2
(b−1)3 +b 3 +(b+1)3 +3(b−1)b(b+1)

= (b−1+b+b+1)2
b 3 +3b+b 3 +b 3 +3b+3b 3 −3b

= 9b 2
6b 3 +3b 2b 2 +1
= 9b 2 = 3b
Putting different values of b from - 10 to 10, we can verify that only - 1 and 1 satisfies to get integer values for the expression.
Ans - (C)
Question 70
In the figure below, two circular curves y and x create 60° and 90° angles with their respective centres. If the length of the bottom
curve Y is 10π , find the length of the other curve.

A 15π/√2
B 20π√2/3
C 60π/√2
D 20π/3
E 15π
Answer: A
Explanation:
Let P and Q be the centres of the circles with arcs x and y respectively.
Thus, ∠AP B = 90 and ∠AQB = 60
Also, length of arc y = 10π cm

θ
=> 360 × 2πr = 10π
1
=> 6 × 2 × r = 10
=> r = AQ = 10 × 3 = 30 cm
=> AB = 30 ( ∵ △ AQB is equilateral triangle)

30
Also, △ APB is right isosceles triangle, => AP = 2
90 30
∴ Arc length = x = 360 × 2π × 2
15π
= 2
Question 71
ABCD is a quadrilateral such that AD = 9 cm, BC = 13 cm and DAB = BCD = 90°. P and Q are two points on AB and CD respectively,
such that DQ : BP = 1 : 2 and DQ is an integer. How many values can DQ take, for which the maximum possible area of the
quadrilateral PBQD is 150 sq.cm?
A 14
B 12
C 10
D 9
E 8
Answer: D
Explanation:

Let DQ = x, => BP = 2x
Acc. to ques,
=> ar(△BP D) + ar(△BQD) ≤ ar(P BQD)

1 1
=> ( 2 × AD × BP ) + ( 2 × BC × QD) ≤ 150
1 1
=> ( 2 × 9 × 2x) + ( 2 × 13 × x) ≤ 150
300
=> 31x ≤ 300 => x ≤ 31
=> x ≤ 9.68
Thus, for x to be an integer and positive, 9 different values (1 to 9) are possible.

Instructions
Study the data given in the table below and answer the question that follow:
All figures are in percentage

Based on survey of ‘shop types’ Kamath categorized Indian states into four geographical regions as shown in the table above. His boss
felt that the categorization was inadequate since important labels were missing. Kamath argued that no further labels are required to
interpret the data.
Question 72
A consultant observing the data made the following two inferences:

Inference I: The number of Grocers per-thousand-population is the highest in North India.
Inference II: The number of Cosmetic per-thousand-population is the highest in South India.
Which of following options is DEFINITELY correct?
A Inference I alone is correct.
B Inference II alone is correct.
C Either of the inferences is correct.
D Neither of the inference is correct.

E Inference I will be correct only if inference II is correct.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Since the population of the different areas is unknown, None of the two statements can be inferred.
Hence D is the correct answer.
Question 73
The average size of Food Shops in East India was twice that of Food Shops in West India. Which of the following cannot be inferred
from the above data?
A As far as ‘Food Shops’ are concerned, customers in East India prefer spatial surroundings compared to customers in the West India.
B As far as ‘Food Shops’ are concerned, Rentals are very high in West India compared to East India.
C The ratio of customers buying from ‘Food Shops’ in East India to customers buying from ‘Food Shops’ in West India is 15.8 : 11.8.
D There are740 ‘Food Shops’ in West India.
E There are 240 ‘Food Shops’ in South India.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Since there is no data available about the population of the different areas, all the other options except C can be inferred. Option C
cannot be inferred as it talks about the ratio of the customers.
Hence C is the correct answer.
Question 74
Bala collected the same data five years after Kamath, using the same categorization.
Which of the following statements can DEFINITELY be concluded?
A In the last four years the number of Electrical hardware shop types has increased in North India.
B In the last four years the number of Grocers shop types has increased in South India.
C For the last four years in All India the number of Chemists shop types has remained constant.
D In the four years in East India the number of ‘other’ shop type has decreased.
E As per the new survey conducted Pan Bidi shops in East India are next only to Grocers.
Answer: E
Explanation:
Option A,B ,C,D talk about the increase or decrease in the number of shops with respect to each other. Since the total number of shops
can be different in two different years, hence they cannot be definitely concluded.
Option E compares the numbers of shops of two types in the same year. Since the percentage is given and total number of shops is
same, hence E can be concluded. Hence E is the correct answer.
Download XAT GK PDF

Instructions
Study the graph below and answer the questions that follow:
This graph depicts the last eight years’ annual salaries (in Rs. lacs.) offered to student during campus placement. Every year 100
students go through placement process. However, at least one of them fails to get placed. The salaries of all unplaced students are
marked zero and represented in the graph.

The bold line in the graph presents Mean salaries at various years.
Question 75
In which year were a maximum number of students offered salaries between Rs. 20 to Rs.30 lacs(both inclusive)?
A 2008
B 2009
C 2010
D 2012
E Cannot be determined
Answer: E
Explanation:
Let's tabulate the information given in the graph,
For a salary range we can get the highest and the lowest value of the range but cannot get the distribution of individual student.

In the year 2008 we have a complete salary range(76-100) inside it and some students of the range 51-75.
In the year 2009 some students of the range 51-75 and some students of the range 75-100.
In the year 2010 some students of the range 51-75 and some students of the range 75-100.
In the year 2012 we have a complete salary range 51-75 inside it and some students of the range (76-100) .
Since we cannot determine the exact students and cannot infer a particular year, Hence answer is E i.e cannot be determined.
Question 76
Identify the years in which the annual median salary is higher by at least 60% than the average salary of the preceding year?
A 2009, 2010
B 2012, 2014
C 2009, 2010, 2012
D 2009, 2012, 2014
E 2009, 2010, 2012, 2014
Answer: B
Explanation:
In all the options since 2009 is given
Lets check if 2009 is satisfying the given criteria
Median salary of 2009 = 24 l
Avg salary of 2008 = 16 l
So Median salary of 2009 is between 40 to 50% higher than 2008 avg salary.
Hence options 1,3,4,5 can be negated .
Option B is the correct answer
Question 77
Identify the number of years in which the difference between the average salaries of the top 25% and the bottom 25% is more than Rs.
20 lacs:
A 0
B 1
C 2
D 3

E None of the above options
Answer: E
Explanation:
The number of years cannot be calculated with precision as the distribution pattern is unknown .
Hence E is the correct answer

Question 78
If the average salary is computed excluding students with no offers, in how many years will the new average salary be greater than the
existing median salary? Refer the table below for number of students without offers.
A 3
B 4
C 5
D 6
E Cannot be solved without additional information.
Answer: A
Explanation:

It is clear from the table that the mean salary after discarding the unemployed students is greater than the mean salary for the years
2008,2010,2013
Hence A is the correct answer.
General Knowledge
Instructions
Question 79
Elon Musk is closely associated with:
A Google
B GM
C GD
D Tesla
E Apple
Answer: D

XAT Crash course
Question 80
Raspberry PI is a:
A computer sized credit card
B former name of iMac
C credit card sized dessert
D credit card swiping machine
E credit card sized computer
Answer: E
Question 81
Which of the following films is not associated with Christopher Nolan:
A Interstellar
B Matrix
C Memento
D Inception
E Prestige
Answer: B
Question 82
Timbuktu is:
A A city in China
B A fictional city
C A form of expression
D A city in Mongolia
E A city in Mali
Answer: E

Question 83
RuPay is related to:
A Rural Payment of wages office of India
B National association for facilitation of Rural Payments
C National Payments Corporation of India

Russia Pay, a Russian competitor of Paypal
D
E Rustic Poetry, an Annual Festival held in Jaipur, India
Answer: C
Question 84
Which Sea lies to the west of Yemen and Saudi Arabia?
A The Gulf of Aden
B Gulf of Oman
C Red Sea
D Black Sea
E Persian Gulf
Answer: C
Question 85
In the budget Estimates of 2015-2016:
A Non-planned expenditure was more than revenue receipts
B Revenue receipts were higher than non-planned expenditure
C Planned expenditure was higher than Non-planned Expenditure
D Fiscal Deficit was lower than Revenue deficit
E Total expenditure was 20% higher than total Receipts
Answer: B

Question 86
Consider the following statements:

1. Sinai is a part of Egypt.
2. Sinai is in Asia.
3. Sinai is in Africa.
4. Russian plane was downed in Sinai in November 2015.
Which of the above statements are true?
A 1 and 3 only
B 1, 2 and 4 only
C 1, 3 and 4 only
D 2 and 4 only
E 3 and 4 only
Answer: B

Question 87
In 2015, which country was ranked number one as “as best place to do business in”?
A U.S.A
B New Zealand
C Singapore
D Hong Kong
E India
Answer: C
Question 88
Perumal Murugan is a(n):
A Writer
B Painter
C Journalist
D Actor
E Director
Answer: A
XAT Previous Papers

Question 89
In percentages terms, which Indian state has the highest forest cover?
A Madhya Pradesh
B Harit Pradesh
C Nagaland
D Arunachal Pradesh
E Jammu and Kashmir
Answer: A
Question 90
Meghnad Saha was a famous:
A Historian
B Economist
C Painter
D Novelist

Physicist
E
Answer: E
Question 91
Read the following statements:

1. Russia supports President Assad of Syria.
2. Saudi Arabia opposes President Assad of Syria.
3. Iran supports President Assad.
4. The United President Assad.
Which of the above statements are true:
A 1 and 2 only
B 1, 2 and 3 only
C 1, 2, 3, and 4
D 2 and 3 only
E 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: B

Question 92
Angus Deaton is a famous:
A Economist
B Physicist
C Writer
D Historian
E Painter
Answer: A
Question 93
Which of the following is not a conglomerate?
A Reliance
B ITC
C TCS
D Adani
E Murugappa
Answer: C

Question 94
Plasmodium Vivax causes:
A Typhoid
B Malaria
C AIDS
D Syphilis
E Bird Flu
Answer: B

Question 95
Pilatus PC-7 is a(n):
A frigate
B aircraft carrier
C ship
D submarine
E aircraft
Answer: E
Question 96
Which of the following commodity is not rightly matched with its country, if ‘right match’ is considered as one of the top five
producers of that commodity?
A Oat : Russia
B Wheat : United States
C Apple : China
D Carrot : India
E Rice : Indonesia
Answer: D
Question 97
Which of the following countries has the lowest External Debt?
A United Kingdom
B France
C USA
D India

E China
Answer: D

Question 98
Which of the following city is not related to the automobile industry?
A Dharwad
B Lucknow
C Jamshedpur
D Pithampur
E Itanagar
Answer: E
Question 99
Which of the following is the closest country to Antarctica?
A Argentina
B Brazil
C South Africa
D Australia
E New Zealand
Answer: A
Question 100
The “New Horizon” was in news in 2015. It refers to:
A Award winning book
B Business Consulting Company
C Mission to Pluto
D Business Magazine
E Award winning Oscar film
Answer: C

Question 101
The Island that are under dispute of ownership between Japan and China are:
A Osaka Islands

B Muntheetu Islands
C South China Islands
D Senkaku Islands
E None of the above
Answer: D
Question 102
The Inuit Paradox:
A is a place in the article circle near Greenland.
B is that the Inuits eat a lot of fat and hardly any fruits and are still very healthy.
C is that the Inuits eat anything that moves but spare the reindeer.
D is that the inuits have very little exposure to the Sun but suffer no deficiency from Vitamin D.
E is a Glacier that looks like a circle from a distance but is actually a rectangle.
Answer: B
Question 103
Takata Corporation was in the news recently because it:
A was involved in airbag recalls.
B was the chief aide to Shinzo Abe who promised to revive the economy.
C was the Commander in Chief of the Japanese army accused by critics of mongering.
D was the second largest seller of phones in China.
E was the name of a band that fuses Japanese and American music.
Answer: A
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XAT Crash course

I sought a soul in the sea

A What lies ‘outside’ is always deceptive.

B Pursue the narrow path and avoid the broadways.

C External search is futile; explore the inner space for answers.

D Heart’s pathways are broad and clear to find the destination.

E Light offers sight and insight.

Which of the following is ANALOGOUS to the statement above?

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B The apple never falls far from the tree!

C All is well that ends well!

D As you sow, so shall you reap!

E The proof of the pudding is in the eating!

Which of the following combinations is the MOST LOGICALLY ORDERED?

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Which of the following combinations is the MOST LOGICALLY ORDERED?

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From the passage above, choose the correct option:

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XAT Free Preparation Demo VideosXAT Free Preparation Demo Videos

Consider the two related statements below:

Which of the following is true?

A Statement I assumes that the marginalized sections are incapable of saving.

C Statement II contradicts meritocracy.

D Statement II assumes that all citizens are equally intelligent.

E Statement I assumes that the marginalized sections always depend on subsidies.

B The country has a vibrant young working population.

D The previous season had also witnessed similar political uncertainty.

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Hence, option D is the correct answer.

XAT Previous Papers

Read the following conversation:

A Agathos was explaining something related to creation to Oinos.

B At the time of conversation there was nothing called Earth.

C The creation of animalculae is a natural law.

D Natural laws are creations of philosophers.

E Law is a spoken word.

Which of the following statement BEST COMPLETES the passage above?

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E is low enough for us to attack him.

The meaning CLOSEST to ‘interchangeable’ in the ‘Communication as Bowling’ paragraph is:

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XAT 1-month preparation video

A Threshold overlap of shared images

C Ability to stimulate affect

D Ability to enact a drama

E Ability to elicit a response

A It is governed by conventions with possibility for appeal; it has clear rules.

Action, interaction and transaction is CLOSEST to:

E Negotiating overseas posting, Applying for visa, Undertaking a journey.

XAT Decision Making Mock Tests

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“… whether government can improve matters”. Here ‘matters’ indicates

D Good insurance markets

E Incomplete risk markets

B Insurance market is a proof that ‘markets, by themselves, do not lead to efficiency’.

C It is difficult to interpret the success of economic policies of Asian countries.