Ethiopian University Entrance Examination (EUEE)

Scholastic Aptitude Test

Ginbot 2010/June 2018
BOOKLET CODE:32 SUBJECT CODE: 03
NUMBER OF ITEM: 60 Time allowed 2 hours

Section one verbal reasoning

This section contains a total of 35 verbal reasoning questions with subsections of synonyms,
antonyms, analogy, sentence completion, classification, reading comprehension, and logical and
analytical reasoning. Each sub-section has its own directions.
Analogy
DIRECTIONS: For questions 1-7 read each of the following words carefully and choose the
word that correctly completes the analogy. Then, blacken the letter of your choice on the
separate answer sheet provided.
1. FOOT is to LEG as HAND is to:
A. FINGERS
B. THUM
C. TOE
D. ARM
E.

2. BEEF is to:
A. LION
B. PIG
C. GOAT
D. SHEEP

3. BEGIN is to START as EMPLOY is to:

A. END
B. FIRE
C. HIRE
D. CELEBRAT

4. ADULT is to CHILD as CAT is to:

A. HERD
B. KITTEN
C. MARE
D. ANIMAL

5. CAP is to HEAD as RING is to:

A. HAND
B. EAR
C. LEG
D. NECK

6. CROWD is to DISPERSED as MEETING is to:

A. DEPRESSED
B. RECESSED
C. ADJOURNED
D. DISCUSSED

7. SUCCESS is to EFFORT as FAILURE is to:

A. DEVOTION
B. DISASTER
C. CHANCE
D. LAZINESS
E.
 Antonyms
DIRECTIONS: Questions 8-10 consist of words printed in capital letters followed four
words. Choose the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital
letters. Then, find the question number and blacken the letter of your choice on the
separate answer sheet provided.
8. MEAN
A. Cruel
B. Friendly
C. Malicious
D. Unkind

9. SELFISH:
A. Greedy
B. Meager
C. Altruistic
D. Generous

10. CONDENSE:
A. Block
B. Convert
C. Summarize
D. Expand

Synonyms
DIRECTIONS Questions 11-13 consist of words printed in capital letters followed by four
words. Choose the word that is most nearly similar in meaning to the word in capital letters.
 Then, find the question number and blacken the letter of your choice on the separate answer
sheet provided.
11. POVERTY
A. Destitution
B. Humility
C. Restraint
D. Deficit

12. MISFORTUNE:
A. Collapse
B. Adversity
C. Crisis
D. Defenselessness

13. MISERABLE
A. Challenging
B. Refutable
C. Violent
D. Abject

Reading comprehension
DIRECTIONS: Questions 14-18 deal with restoring words correctly into a passage. The
following five words listed at random are removed from the passage given below. Numbers are
written instead of the words. Read the passage and choose the word that correctly completes the
passage. Then, blacken the letter of your choice on the separate answer sheet provided.

Emissions exception unprecedented warmest trend

The Earth’s climate has changed throughout history. The current warming --- 1—is of particular
significance because most of it is extremely likely to be the result of human activity since the
mid-20th century and proceeding at a rate that is --- 2---. The planet’s average surface
temperature has risen about 1.1 degrees Celsius since the late 19th century, a change driven
largely by increased carbon dioxide and other human-made -3- into the atmosphere. Most of the
warming occurred in the past 35 years, with 16 of the 17 warmest years on record occurring
since 2001. Not only was 2016 the –4—year on record, but eight of the 12 months that make up
the year – from January through September, with the –5—of June – were the warmest on record
for those respective months.
14. Which of the following is the correct word that should replace 4 (the fourth blank in the
passage) is ------------------.
A. Exception
B. Warmest
C. Trend
D. Unprecedented

15. The correct word that should replace 1 (the first blank in the passage) is --------.
A. Emissions
B. Unprecedented
C. Warmest
D. Trend

16. Which of the following is the correct word that should replace 3(the third blank in the
passage) is ----------.
A. Trend
B. Emissions
C. Warmest
D. Unprecedented
17. Which of the following is the correct word that should replace 5 (the fifth blank in the
passage) is ---------.
A. Warmest
B. Trend
C. Exception
D. Unprecedented

18. Which of the following is the correct word that should replace 2 (the second blank in the
passage) is -------------–.
A. Exception
B. Emissions
C. Warmest
D. Unprecedented

Sentence completion
DIRECTIONS: Answer questions 19-21 by selecting the choice that contains the word or
pair of words that correctly complete the statements. Then, blacken the letter of your
choice on the separate answer sheet provided.
19. It was a war the prime minister and her wise counselors wished to -----------if they could
and were determined in any event to --------------- as long as possible. They were
repeatedly meeting and discussing on this issue until the case was under their control.
A. Curtail: promote
B. Oppose: fight
C. Provoke : delay
D. Avoid : postpone
20. The natural balance between prey and predator has been increasingly ---------------,
usually because of the human intervention.
A. Recognized
B. Disturbed
C. Observed
D. Predicted

21. Typically legal proceedings begin with an investigation meant to ----------------- evidence,
followed by a trial that establishes whether that evidence ----------------- a criterion -----
``beyond a reasonable doubt`` in criminal proceedings, and ``according to the
preponderance evidence`` in civil proceedings.
A. Show : declare
B. Verify : contradicts
C. Collect : meets
D. Mean : amounts

DIRECTIONS: In questions 22-26 three of the words are in the same classification, the
remaining one word does not belong to the others. From the given four alternatives,
choose the word that does not belong in the same classification as the others and blacken
the letter of your choice on the separate answer sheet provided.
22. Choose the word that is different from the other three.
A. Zoology
B. Ecology
C. Psychology
D. Biology

23. Choose the word that is different from the other three.
A. Leaf
 B. Root
C. Stem
D. Dirt

24. Which one of the following words does Not belong with the others?
A. Orange
B. Apple
C. Sugarcane
D. Grape

25. Choose the odd one out of the following words.

A. Anger
B. August
C. Disgust
D. Laughter

26. Which one of the following words does NOT belong with the others?
A. Earth
B. Mars
C. Jupiter
D. Cosmos

Logical and analytical reasoning (27-35)

DIRECTIONS: Read the following assumptions and answer questions 27-28.
 Assume J, L, N , M, P, W, C, A, B, F, E, and R represent persons living in a university
dormitory. All live in a building having six floors each having two rooms/apartments. No
more than two persons live in any apartment/room. Some rooms may be empty.
L and his roommate live two floors above a and his roommate, C.
J lives alone, three floors below W and two floors below E.
M lives alone, three floor below A and C.
N lives three floors above the floor on which B and F have single rooms.
R and P live in single rooms two floor below M.
27. Which of the following is true about where R lives?
A. Fourth floor, opposite A and C
B. Third floor, above M or E
C. First floor, below B or F
D. Second floor, below J or A and C

28. Which of the following lists the persons named in the correct order, going from the
bottom floor to the top?
A. R, B, M, A, L, N
B. R, F, N, E, L, C
C. L, E, A, M, F, R
D. P, B, J, C, N, L

DIRECTIONS: Question 29 needs to be answered based on the statement, followed by

two conclusions labeled I and II. You have to assume the statement is true, then consider
the conclusions and decide which of them logically follows beyond a reasonable doubt
from the information given in the statement. Then, blacken the letter of your choice on
the separate answer sheet provided.
29. Statement: if all the players play to their full potential, we will win the football match.
We have won the football match.
Conclusions: I. All players played to their full potential.
 II. Some players did not play to their full potential.
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Both I and II follows
C. Only conclusion II follows
D. Either I or II follows
DIRECTIONS: In this section (Questions 30-35) each question or a group of questions is
based on a passage or set of conditions. Read each question carefully and select the best
answer and blacken the letter of your choice on the separate answer sheet provided.
30. Today`s secondary school students are not being educated. They are being trained. Their
teacher demand little of them other than that they memorize facts and follow directions.
The current emphasis on training in basic maths and verbal skills, while a useful step,
rarely leads to the essential second step: development of independence critical thinking.
The author would probably consider which of the following aspect of a student`s term
paper to be most praiseworthy?
A. Evidence of original insights and freshly developed concepts
B. The use of grammatically correct sentence structure
C. Evidence of extensive research prior to writing
D. The choice of a challenging topic

31. Obesity is a serious problem in many developed countries. Research suggests that obesity
can lead to a number of health problems including diabetes, asthma, and heart disease.
Recent research has even indicated that there may be a relationship between obesity and
some types of cancer. Major public health campaigns that increase awareness and
propose simple life style changes that will, with diligence and desire, eliminate or at least
mitigate the incidence of obesity are a crucial first step in battling this critical problems.
This paragraph best supports the statement that
A. A decline in obesity would radically decrease the incidence of asthma.
B. People in those countries watch too much television and not exercise enough.
 C. Public health campaigns that raise consciousness and propose lifestyle changes
are productive way to fight obesity.
D. Fast-food restaurants and unhealthy school lunches countries greatly to obesity.

32. A company worker has six children. No one else in the factory has six children. Which of
the following conclusions logically follows from the statements given above?
A. Some of the company workers have more than six children.
B. Only one worker in the company has exactly six children.
C. All workers in the company have six children each.
D. Everybody in the company has children.

33. Hassen is standing to the right of Bereket. Beletu is standing on the opposite side of
Bereket. Since the opposite of right is wrong, Beletu must be standing on the wrong side
of Bereket.
Which of the following logical errors has the author of the argument above committed?
A. He has confused cause and effect.
B. He has provided in factual evidence for his conclusion.
C. He has drawn a general conclusion from an insufficient number of examples.
D. He has used a single term to mean two different things.

34. Alula must be a basketball player; he is wearing a basketball jersey.

The conclusion above is valid only If it is true that:
A. Only basketball players wear basketball jerseys.
B. All basketball players often wear basketball jerseys.
C. Basketball players often wear basketball jerseys.
D. Basketball players are required to wear basketball jerseys.
 35. Today`s secondary school students spend too much time thinking about trivial and
distracting matters such as fashion. Additionally, they often dress inappropriately on
college grounds. Rather than spending time writing another detailed dress policy, we
should make school uniforms mandatory. If students were required to wear uniforms, it
would increase a sense of community and harmony in our schools and it would I still a
sense of discipline in our students. Another positive effect would be that teachers and
administrators would no longer have to acts clothing police, freeing them up to focus on
more important issues.
This paragraph best supports the statement that
A. Students are not interested in being part of a community.
B. Students who wear school uniforms get into better colleges.
C. School uniforms should be compulsory for secondary school students.
D. Inappropriate clothing leads to failing grades.

SECTION TWO: Quantitative reasoning (Questions 36-60)

Data interpretation
DIRECTIONS: Questions 36-40 are based on the hypothetical data given in the table below.
Answer each question based on the data and blacken the letter of your choice on the separate
answer sheet provided.
Table: Number of candidates that took and qualified in a license examination from different
regions over the years.
Region Year
1997-2000 1998-2001 1999-2002 2000-2003 2001-2004
took Qual. Took Qual. took Qual. took Qual. took Qual.
AA 5200 720 8500 980 7400 850 6800 775 9500 1125
AM 7500 840 9200 1050 8450 920 9200 980 8800 1020
OR 6400 780 8800 1020 7800 890 8750 1010 9750 1250
TI 8100 950 9500 1240 8700 980 9700 1200 8950 995
SP 7800 870 7600 940 9800 1350 7600 945 7990 885
36. What is the percentage of total number of qualified candidates to the total number of
candidates took the exam among all the five regions in 2002?
A. 11.84%
B. 11.52%
C. 11.48%
D. 11.89%
37. What is the percentage of candidates qualified from region AM for all the years together,
over the candidates took the exam from Region AM during all the years together?
A. 11.75%
B. 11.46%
C. 11.57%
D. 11.15%

38. In which of the given years the number of candidates took the exam from region OR has
maximum percentage of qualified candidates?
A. 2001
B. 2003
C. 2004
D. 2000

39. What is the average number of candidates who took the exam from region TI during the
given years?
A. 8800
B. 8900
C. 8860
D. 8990
40. What percent is the total number of qualified candidates in 1997-2000 to the total
number of those qualified in 2001-2004?
A. 84%
B. 76%
C. 78%
D. 80%

DIRECTIONS: Questions 41-42 consist of two quantities, one in column A and one in
column B. compare the two quantities and answer the questions by choosing the
alternative best explains the relationship between ``column A`` and ``column B``
41. X>Y
Quantity A Quantity B
30% of X 50% of Y
A. The two Quantities are equal.
B. Quantity A is less than Quantity B
C. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
D. Quantity A is greater than Quantity B.

42.
Quantity A Quantity B
(-21)12 (-31)13
A. The two quantities are equal.
B. Quantity A is greater than quantity B.
C. Quantity A is less than Quantity B.
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

DIRECTIONS: Solve each of the problems given in questions 43-60 below and select the
best answer from the given alternatives. Then, find the correct questions number and
blacken the letter of your choice on the separate answer sheet provided.
43. If S is a number between 0 and 1, which of the following is Not more than S?
A. √S
B. 1/S
C. 2S
D. S2

44. look at the pattern carefully: 10 20 25 35 40 50 55, then which of the following pair of
numbers comes next?
A. 60, 65
B. 65, 70
C. 60, 75
D. 60, 70

45. What is the simplified form of (1÷10 -1) X (-1)-10?

A. 10
B. 1
C. 0.1
D. 100

46. If b ≠0 and a/5=b/7, what is the value of a/b?

A. 7/5
B. 1/7
C. 1/5
D. 5/7

47. Look at the pattern carefully: 32 , 31, 32, 29, 32, 27, 32, then which the following pair of
numbers comes next?
A. 29, 32
 B. 29, 30
C. 25, 32
D. 25,30

48. 1÷0.1÷0.01÷0.001 is equal to

A. 1,000,000
B. 0.001
C. 100
D. 0.00001

49. What number increased by 3 is equal to 3 less than twice the number?
A. 3
B. 9
C. 12
D. 6

50. Three professors contested an election for a University president and received 1136,7636
and 11628 votes, respectively. What percentage of the total votes did the winning
professor get?
A. 65%
B. 57%
C. 59%
D. 61%

51. If one-fourth of one-third of a number is 15, then what is three-tenth of that number?
A. 39
 B. 45
C. 54
D. 34

52. An athlete completes a journey in 10 hours. He travels first half of the journey at the rate
of 21 km/hr and second half at the rate of 24 km/hr. what is the total journey in km?
A. 216 km
B. 225 km
C. 218 km
D. 230 km

53. If y≠0 and xy =y/6, what is the value of x?

A. ½
B. 1/8
C. ¼
D. 1/6

54. What number should come next in the series: 7, 10, 8, 11, 12, …….?
A. 13
B. 10
C. 12
D. 70

55. The difference between a positive proper and its reciprocal is 9/20. What is the value of
the fraction?
A. 5/4
B. 3/5
 C. 4/3
D. 4/2

3
56. What is the product of √7 − 2)(7 + 2)?
A. 5
B. 4
C. 2
D. 3

57. The sum of ages of 5 children born at the interval of 3 years each is 50 years. What is the
age of the youngest child?
A. 8 years
B. 4 years
C. 6 years
D. 10 years

58. What number should come next in the series: 544, 509, 474, 439, ….?
A. 445
B. 420
C. 404
D. 414

59. A library has an average of 510 visitors on Sundays and 240 on other days. What is the
average number of visitors per day in a month of 30 days beginning with a Sunday?
A. 285
B. 283
C. 275
 D. 29

60. What number should come next in the series: 58, 52, 46, 40, 34 ……?
A. 32
B. 30
C. 28
D. 34
 Ethiopian University Entrance Examination (EUEE)
Scholastic Aptitude Test
Ginbot 2011/June 2019
BOOKLET CODE:22 SUBJECT CODE: 03
NUMBER OF ITEM: 60 Time allowed 2 hours
This section contains a total of 35 verbal reasoning questions with subsections of synonyms,
antonyms, analogy, sentence completion, classification, reading comprehension, advanced verbal
anagrams, analytical and logical reasoning. Each sub-section has its own directions.
Analogy
DIRECTIONS: To answer questions 1-3, read the related pair of words written in capital letters
followed by four pairs of words. Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that
expressed in the original capitalized pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that
expressed in the original capitalized pair. then find corresponding number on the separate answer
sheet and blacken the letter of your choice.
1. BELT: WAIST
A. BRACELET: WRIST
B. SHOE: LEG
C. STOCKINGS: GLOVE
D. WATCH: ARM

2. NATIVE: FOREIGN
A. MEAN: UNKIND
B. DOMESTIC: HOMEGROWN
C. NAÏVE: SOPHISITCATED
D. LOCAL: IMPORT
3. GALLON: LITRE
A. KLOMETRE: METRE
B. POUND:WEIGHT
C. YARD: POUND
D. MILE: KILOMETRE

DIRECTIONS: For questions 4-7 read each of the following words carefully and choose
the work that correctly completes the analogy. Then blacken the letter of your choice on
the separate answer sheet provided.
4. HIRE is to FIRE as SELECT is to --------------------------.
A. Receive
B. Reject
C. Admit
D. Employ

5. MOUNT is to HORSE as ………………….. is to TRAIN.

A. Board
B. Drive
C. Ride
D. Lift

6. WAR is to DESTRUCTION as GERM is to ----------------------.

A. Bacteria
B. Disease
C. Doctor
D. Hospital
7. QUIET is to NOISY as CALM is to -------------------.
A. Slow
B. Arrogance
C. Dormant
D. Agitated

Synonyms
Directions: Questions 8-10 consists of words printed in capital letters followed by
four words. Choose the word that is most nearly similar in meaning to the word in
capital letters. Then, find the questions number and blacken the letter of your choice
on the separate answer sheet provided.
8. EXTINGUISH
A. Ignite
B. Turn on
C. Switch off
D. Distinguish

9. INDEPENDENCE
A. Individualism
B. Sovereignty
C. Colonialism
D. Cordiality
10. PERSEVERANCE
A. Frequent suffering
B. Continuity of effort
C. Lack of energy
D. Severity of disease
 Antonyms
Directions: questions 11-15 consists of words printed in capital letters followed by four
words. Choose the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capital
letters. Then, find the question number and blacken the letter of your choice on the
separate answer sheet.
11. FRAUD
A. Authentic
B. Fake
C. Scam
D. Fragile

12. SINCERE
A. Genuine
B. Dissent
C. Disapprove
D. Dishonest

13. FOLLOW
A. Go behind
B. Precede
C. Trail
D. Go after

14. EXTRAORDINARY
A. Unique
B. Usual
C. Unexpected
D. Amazing
15. DOMESTIC
A. Local
B. Neighborhood
C. Foreign
D. Household

Classification items
Directions: in questions 16-18, three out of the four words are In the same classification.
Choose the word that does not belong in the same classification as the others and blacken
the letter of your choice on the separate answer sheet provided.
16. Which of the following words has a different meaning from the others.
A. Bright
B. Shade
C. Shining
D. Luminous

17. Choose the odd one out.

A. Ignore
B. Disregard
C. Respect
D. Disobey

18. Which one of the following words is different from the others?
A. Unbreakable
B. Helpless
 C. Fragile
D. Weak

Reading comprehension
Directions: 19-23, deal with restoring words correctly into a passage. The following four
words listed at random are removed from the passage given below. Numbers are written
instead of the words. Read the passage and choose the word that correctly completes the
passage. Then, blacken the letter of your choice on the separate answer sheet provided.
Brain Potential Encouragement Creative Specialization
We all have the potential to 1. However, because of the pressures of modern living and
the need for 2, many of us never have the time or opportunity, or indeed are given the 3,
to explore our talents, even though most of us have sufficient ammunition to realize this 4
in the form of data which has been fed into, collated and processed by the 5 over many
years.
19. Which of the following is the correct word that should replace 2 (the second blank in the
passage)?
A. Potential
B. Brain
C. Creative
D. Specialization

20. Which of the following is the correct word that should replace 3(the third blank in the
passage)?
A. Brain
B. Encouragement
C. Specialization
D. Creative
21. Which of the following is the correct word that should replace 5 (the fifth blank in the
passage)?
A. Specialization
B. Potential
C. Brain
D. Creative

22. Which of the following is the correct word that should replace 4 (the fourth blank in the
passage)?
A. Potential
B. Brain
C. Creative
D. Specialization

23. Which of the following is the correct word that should replace 1 (the first blank in the
passage)?
A. Encouragement
B. Specialization
C. Potential
D. Creative

Advanced verbal test anagrams

Directions: Questions 24-25 deal with word anagrams. Read each question carefully and
give your answer by blackening the letter of your choice on the separate answer sheet
provided.
24. Only one of the groups of four letters below can be rearranged to spell-out a four-letter
English word which is direction.
 A. Seat
B. Norm
C. Tank
D. Inch

25. Only one the groups of seven letters below can be rearranged to yield a seven-letter
English word which is an item. Identify.
A. Visible
B. Recital
C. Crooked
D. Success

Analytical and logical reasoning questions

Directions: answer questions (26-29) based on the following information. Then, blacken
the letter of your choice on the separate answer provided.
The director of a small rural primary school plans to assign six teachers—kargebo,
Melaku, Nahom, Paulos, Robel, and Samson – tutor/help students after school from
Monday to Saturday according to the following rule:
Melaku must be before Robel
Paulos must tutor on Tuesday
Krgebo must tutor on the day immediately before or after Nahom tutored
26. If Nahom is assigned on Saturday, when should Karebo be assigned on:
A. Monday
B. Wednesday
C. Friday
D. Thursday
E.

27. If Melaku is assigned on Wednesday, Robel cannot be assigned on:

 A. Saturday
B. Thursday
C. Friday
D. Monday

28. Which can be assigned on Monday?

A. Melaku
B. Kargebo
C. Paulos
D. Robel

29. If Nahom is assigned on Wednesday, Kargebo is to be assigned on:

A. Saturday
B. Friday
C. Monday
D. Thursday

Directions: read each question (30-32) below and correct answer. Then, blacken the
letter of your choice on the separate answer sheet provided.
30. Adama is one of the cities with lowest car accidents, and it is one of the few cities that
require strict annual care safety inspections. Therefore, all cities of Ethiopia should apply
similar safety inspection procedures.
The argument above is based on which of the following assumptions?
A. Most cities tend to impose few rules on the cars drivers use.
B. Annual care safety inspections contribute significantly to reduce adama car accident.
C. Most cities are doubtful that annual car safety inspection can reduce accidents
D. Smaller number of accidents can be reported in other major cities of Ethiopia
31. A factory worker has one more than five. No one else in the factory has six children.
Which of the following conclusions logically follows from the given statements?
A. All workers in the factory have six children each
B. Some of the factory workers have more than six children
C. Every body in the factory has children
D. Only one worker in the factory has exactly six children.

32. According to one psychological theory, in order to be happy, one must have an intimate
relationship with another person. Yet the world’s greatest composers spent most of their
time in solitude and had no intimate relationships. So the psychological theory must be
wrong.
The conclusion above assumes that
A. The world’s greatest composers were happy
B. People who have intimate relationships spend little time in solitude
C. Less well known composers had intimate relationship
D. The world’s greatest composers chose to avoid intimate relationship

Directions: answer questions 33-35 based on the information given in the statement
and conclusions that follow.
33. Statement : the teacher humiliated Abraham in the presence of his colleagues.
Conclusions: (I) the teacher did not like Abraham.
(II) Abraham was not popular with his colleagues.
A. Only conclusion (II) follows
B. Both conclusion (I) and (II) follow
C. Neither conclusions (I) nor (II) follows
D. Only conclusions (I) follows
34. Statement: North Korea faced growing international opposition for its decision to explode
nuclear weapons at its test site.
Conclusions: (I) the citizens of the nation favored the decision.
(II) some powerful countries do not want other nations to become powerful as
they are.
A. Only conclusion (II) follows
B. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
C. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
D. Only conclusions (I) follows

35. Statement: population increase coupled with drought is going to be the scenario of many
African countries in the days to come.
Conclusions: (I) the population of developing countries will not continue to increase will
not continue to increase in the future.
(II) it will be very difficult for the government of many African countries to provide its
people decent quality of life.
A. Both (conclusions (I) and (II) follow
B. Only conclusion (II) follows
C. Only conclusion (I) follows
D. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

Section Two: Quantitative reasoning (Questions 36-60)

Directions: solve each of the problems given in questions 36-52 and give your answer by
blackening the letter of your choice on the separate answer sheet provided.
36. Find the value of x in the following sequence?
3, 12 x, 48, 75 ….
A. 15
 B. 21
C. 36
D. 27

37. Find the value of x in the following sequence?

10, 15, 22, x, 42, 55, 70, …….
A. 28
B. 31
C. 30
D. 29

38. What is the length of a side of square with area C?

A. 4c
B. 2c
C. √c
D. C2

39. If ABCD is a four digit positive number divisible by 5 and 10, what is the value of D?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. It can’t be determined

40. If one-third of one-fourth of a number is 15,then what is the three-tenth of that number?
A. 35
B. 36
C. 54
 D. 45

41. Which of the following number pair is different from the other in the group?
A. 7,3
B. 3,5
C. 6,2
D. 1,7

42. Which of the following numbers is different from the others in the group?
A. 37
B. 29
C. 17
D. 27

43. Find the value of x in the following sequence.

16, 8, 4, 2, X, ½ ,……
A. 2
B. 1
C. ¼
D. 1/8

44. Find the value of x in the following sequence.

6, 9, 7, 10, 8, 11, 9, 12, x, ……
A. 15
B. 14
C. 9
D. 10
45. What is the sum of the first five prime numbers? (S)
A. 11
B. 26
C. 18
D. 28

46. It takes two and half an hour to get from Addis Abeba to Adama travelling at a constant
rate of speed. What part of the distance is travelled by 4/3 of and hour, approximately?
A. 1/3
B. ½
C. 2/3
D. ¾

47. Assume that Ujulu saves ¼ of his income and his father had been saving half of his
income of the father, which is 5000 birr, is double of his son, how much is saved by his
son?
A. 500
B. 1250
C. 625
D. 2500

48. What is the number of squares in the figure given below?

A. 18
B. 15
C. 12
D. 9

49. A bag contains 28 yellow, 44 black and 36 green marlbes. Ali takes out one marble from
the bag at random. What is the probability that he will take out a gree marble?
A. 1/3
B. 36%
C. 1/36
D. 1/9

50. How many irrational numbers are there between 2 and7?

-1, 0, 2, 6, x, 30, 62, …
A. 10
B. 20
C. Infinitely many
D. 30

51. What number should replace x in the following series?

-1, 0, 2, 6, x, 30, 62, ….
A. 14
B. 24
C. 12
D. 10

52. The square of a positive number is greater than the number itself when the number is:
 A. Greater than one
B. Greater than zero
C. Between zero and one
D. Impossible to determine

Quantities comparison
Directions: questions 53-55 consist of two quantities, one in column A and one in column
A and one in column B. compare the two quantities and answer the questions by choosing
alternative that best explains the relationship betw.een ‘’Column A’’ ‘’ column B’’. give
the answer by blackening the letter of your choice on the separate answer sheet provided.
53. Suppose that 0<Y<5. Compare the following two quantites.
Quantity A Quantity B
Y2 Y3
A. Quantity A is equal to Quantity B.
B. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
C. Quantity A is equal to Quantity B
D. Quantity A is less than Quantity B

54. Compare the two Quantities.

Quantity A Quantity B
The percent increase from 10 metres to 15 The percent increase from 50 metres to 65
metres. ,metres
A. Quantity A is equal to quantity B
B. Quantity A is less than Quantity B
C. Quantity A is greater than Quantity B
D. The relationship cannot be determined from the information given.

55. Compare the two quantities.

 Quantity A Quantity B
5/3 13/8
A. Quantity A is equal to Quantity B
B. Quantity A is less than Quantity B
C. Quantity A is greater than Quantity B
D. The relationship cannot be determined based on the given information

Data interpretation
Questions 56-60 are based on the hypothetical data in the table below. It is about the total
population, primary school age population and school enrolment by sex of the seven
Regions in Ethiopia
Regions Total population School age population School Enrolment
Male female Boys Girls boys Girls
A 1,387,000 1500000 162000 166000 220000 267000
B 756,000 603000 141000 114,000 34000 22000
C 9,309,000 9317000 1913000 1887000 1711000 1572000
D 12,934,000 12934000 2709000 2670000 2734000 2099000
E 7,203,000 7287000 1522000 1500000 1474000 1113000
F 2,268,000 1950000 445000 445000 157000 95000
G 2,080,000 2143000 443000 443,000 447000 436000
Total 35,886,000 7335000 7335000 7,335,000 6777000 5604000
56. Which region is least in enrolling girls to school compared to the boys?
A. C
B. F
C. E
D. D

57. Total male population, in millions, in the seven regions is nearly.

A. 35
 B. 13
C. 20
D. 26

58. Assuming that the total population of the country at the time the above data is taken is 73
million, what is the share, in percent, of the population in C and D together?
A. 40
B. 50
C. 70
D. 60

59. The proportion of girls enrolled in schools in region D to the female population is:
A. 1:2
B. 2:13
C. 1:17
D. 5:14

60. The three least populous Regions in order are:

A. A, D,G
B. B, A, E
C. A, G, F
D. B, A, F
 Ethiopiasn University Entrance Examination (EUEE)
SCHOLASTIC APTITIDE TEST
Ginbot 2009/May 2017
BOOKLET CODE: 63 SUBJECT CODE: 03
Number of Items: 60 Time Allowed: 2 hours
SECTION ONE: Verbal Reasoning (Questions 1-35)
This section contains as total of 35 verbal reasoning questions with subsections of analogy,
synonyms, antonyms, language usage, sentence completion, reading comprehension, and logical
and analytical reasoning. Each subsection has its own directions.
Analogy
DIRECTIONS: Questions 1-5 deal with analogy. In question 1, a related pair of words written in
capital letters in followed by four pairs of words of phrases. Select the pair that best expresses a
relationship similar to that expressed in the original capitalized pair. In questions 2-5 related pair
of words are followed by a word that has similar relationship when paired with another words.
Answer these questions by selecting the choice that completes the given analogy correctly by
Shading the letter of the correct choice on the separate answer sheet.
1. DEPARTURE: ARRIVAL
A. Inception: Conclusion
B. Beginning: Culmination
C. Upshot : End
D. Process : Outcome

2. WIDOW is to a WOMAN as -------------------------- is to MAN.

A. Divorcee
 B. Widower
C. Widow
D. Fiance

3. OPINION is to DEBATE as HYPOTHESIS is to ------------------------------------ .

A. Rejecting
B. Discovering
C. Stating
D. Testing

4. CAUSE is to EFFECT as PREDECESSOR is to ------------------------------------.

A. Foundation
B. Outcome
C. Successor
D. Precursor

5. LAND is ARABLE as RIVER is to -----------------------------.

A. Shallow
B. Navigable
C. Water
D. Impenetrable
ANTONYMS
DIRECTIONS: Questions 6-7 consist of a word printed in capital letters, followed by four
words. Choose the word that is most nearly Opposite in meaning to the word in capital letters
and blacken the letter of your choice on the separate answer sheet.
6. THRIVE
A. Trail
B. Strive
C. Deteriorate
D. Distractive

7. ARROGANCE
A. Truthful
B. Humility
C. Courage
D. Self-esteem

Synonyms
DIRECTIONS: Questions 8-9 consist of words printed in capital letters followed by four words.
Choose the word that is most nearly Similar in meaning to the word in capital letters. Then, find
the question number and blacken the letter of your choice on the separate answer sheet.
8. CURTIL
A. Facilitate
 B. Improve
C. Recover
D. Restrain

9. IMMEDIATELY:
A. Instantly
B. Gradually
C. Slowly
D. Temporarily

Language Usage
DIRECTIONS: Each of the questions below (10-12) consists of underlined phrase or word. From
the given alternatives, choose the one that most nearly has the same meaning as the underlined
phrase or word and blacken the letter of your choice on the separate answer sheet.
10. If you can’s make it to my graduation party, it’s not a big deal.
A. Not tolerable
B. No need to worry
C. Surprising
D. Something I dislike

11. Hannan remained as cool as a cucumber even when she was in the pressure of the
competition against her opponent.
A. Strong
B. Ruffled
C. Calm
D. Agitated
12. Taciturn by nature, Eyasu speaks very little even to his own family members.
A. Quiet
B. Talkative
C. Warm
D. Obtrusive

Sentence completion
DIRECTIONS: Each sentence (13-17) below has one or two blanks, each blank indicating that
something has been omitted. Beneath the sentence are four words or sets of words. Choose the
word or set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole and
blacken the letter of your choice on the separate answer sheet.
13. Even after long years of extensive investigation, scientists could not discover the treatment
for cancer. The treatment still remains -----------------.
A. Clear
B. Cursory
C. Apparent
D. Mysterious

14. While the disease is in -------------------- state it is almost impossible to determine its
existence by ----------------------.
A. A critical ------ examination
B. An acute ------- analysis
C. A latent -------- observation
D. A dormant ----- postulate

15. As Mhammed and Abdi have planned to join University in the coming year by sponsoring
themselves, they are ------------- and ------------- a lot.
A. Reading ---- saving
B. Applying ----- playing
C. Teaching ----- learning
 D. Working ----- entertaining

16. Because artist Aster Aweke paved the way for later jazz-fusion musicians, she is considered
a --------- of that style.
A. Beneficiary
B. Connoisseur
C. Revivalist
D. Progenitor

17. The ------------------------ of the apartment was unbelievable; it was difficult to realize that
human beings could live in such ---------------------.
A. Squalor ----- filth
B. Stench ------ disarray
C. Disorder ---- isolation
D. Spacious ---- proximity

Reading Comprehension
DIRECTION: Read passage I and II bellow carefully and answer questions 18-25 based on the
information stated or implied in the passages. Then find the question number and blacken the
letter of your choice on the separate answer sheet.
Reading Passage I
Black holes are the most efficient engines of destruction known to humanity. Their intense
gravity is a one-way ticket to oblivion, and material spiraling into them can heat up to millions of
degrees and glow brightly. Yet, they are not all-powerful. Even super-massive black holes are
minuscule by cosmic standards. They typically account for less than one percent of their galaxy’s
mass. Accordingly, astronomers long assumed that super-massive holes, let alone their smaller
cousins, would have little effect beyond their immediate neighborhoods. So it has come as a
surprise over the past decade that black hole activity is closely inter wined with star formation
occurring farther our in the galaxy.
18. Which of the following best describes the function of the statement in lines 7-9 (``so it …
galaxy``)?
A. It challenges recent scientific findings.
B. It offers examples to support a theory.
C. It introduces a new view of information presented earlier in the passage.
D. It provides support for the argument asserted in the preceding statement.

19. Which of the following most resembles the relationship between ``black hole activity`` and
``star formation`` (lines 8-9) as described in the passage?
A. A drought in a wilderness area causes a significant loss of vegetation in that area.
B. Overfishing in a gulf leads to an increase in the population of smaller aquatic organisms.
C. A volcanic eruption on one continent results in higher rainfall totals on another continent.
D. Industrial emissions in one region lead to an increase in airborne pollutants in adjacent
regions.

20. What does the word ``minuscule`` in line 4 refer to?

A. Tiny
B. Very large
C. Invisible
D. Noticeable

21. What is the primary purpose of the passage?

A. Advocating the importance of black holes.
B. Disproving an existing theory of black holes.
C. Verifying the danger of black holes for human being.
D. Explaining the role that black holes play in the formation of star.
 Reading passage II
Born in Adigrat, Tigray Region OF Ethiopia, Miruts Yifter spent early part of his Youth
working in different factories as a carriage driver. His talent as a long distance runner
Was noticed when he joined the Ethiopian air force.
Miruts was called to the Ethiopian national team for the 1968 summer Olympics in Mexico city
. But he made his Olympic debut four years later in muich Olympic where he won a bronze
medal 10,000 meters. In the 1973 all African games he won one gold and one silver medals in
10,000 and 5,000 meters, respectively. at the first African championships in 1979 he won tho
gold medals in 5,000 and 10,000 meters .
Miruts was unable to participate in the 1976 summer Olympics because his nation boycotted
the event. Four year later in Moscow, miruts made up for his disappointments.in the final of the
10,000 metres he sprinted into the lead 300 meter from the finish and won ten meters difference
from his follower.
Five day later, in the 5000 metres final, miruts was boxed in during the last lap, but with 300
meter to go, his Ethiopian teammate mohammed kedir, stepped aside and Mirutes again sprinted
to victory. Due to his abrupt change in speed when executed his kick to finish, Miruts acquired
the nickname ``Miruts the shiffer.``
Miruts Yifter died at the age of 72 on 22 December 2016 in Toronto, candada where he had lived
since 2000 after suffering from respiratory problems.
22. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word debut (line 5)?
A. First appearance
B. Second appearances
C. Usual appearances
 D. Obligatory appearances

23. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word abrupt (line 14)
A. Easy
B. Difficult
C. Storing
D. Sudden

24. According to the passage, which one of the following is TRUE about the gold medal in
Moscow Olympics?
A. Miruts had to run with knee injury when he won the gold medal.
B. It would not have made any difference whether or not Mohammed Kedir had stepped
aside.
C. Miruts was in uncomfortable position but he came out of that position without anyone’s
help.
D. Thanks to the support from Mohammed Kedir, Miruts won the medal with his unique
sprint at the end

25. According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about Miruts Yifter?
A. Miruts had won two gold medals in one Olympic.
B. Miruts had run in all Olympics since munich Olympic.
C. M iruts won a gold medal the first time he ran at the international stage.
D. Miruts began his career as long-distance runner since his childhood years.

Logical and analytical reasoning

DIRECTIONS:- Questions 26-35 deal with logical and analytical reasoning. Read the given
set of conditions and assumptions for each question. Choose the answer that you think is
 most appropriate among the given alternatives. Then find the correct question number and
blacked the letter of your choice on the separate answer sheet.
26. If you present a yellow pass, then you may enter the compound. If statement above is true,
which of the following must also be true?
I. If you do not present a yellow pass, then you may not enter the compound.
II. If you may enter the compound, then you must have presented a yellow pass
III. If you may not enter the compound, you did not present a yellow pass
A. III only
B. II only
C. I only
D. I and II only

Questions 27-28 are based on the following paragraph

A company`s facilities were too small to accommodate the crown for a special one day meeting.
The company members received a license to use the public park, and a public address system
was promptly installed. Citizens who were not members of the company protested the action of
the park department for having issued this license.
27. What is the best argument used by the company to retains its license
A. The company is a local taxpayer
B. No one would be excluded from entering the park during the meeting
C. Wide publicity had already been gived to the location of special meeting
D. The park had been used before by companies for meetings, concerts, rallies.

28. Which of the following is the best argument used by the citizens who protested the action by
the park department?
A. Freedom of speech was violated.
B. A public referendum should have been held
C. Citizens would be denied the enjoyment of the public park during this one day.
D. The town would incur expenses to clean up the park after the one day meeting.
29. Since it is possible that substances contained in certain tree roots may provide a cure for
cancer, the government must provide sufficient funds to allow thorough testing of this
possibility.
What is the assumption in the argument above
A. A cure for cancer would be extremely valuable to society.
B. Substances contained in certain tree roots will probably cure cancer.
C. The possibility of finding a cure is sufficient reason for funding research into possible
cancer cures.
D. The line of research mentioned offers at present the most promising possibility for
finding a cure for cancer.

Questions 30-31 are based on the following conditions

MS. Halima: Mr. Abera insists that the only way for our company to increase its profits is
to double the advertising budget. That obviously is not the answer. Our two major
copmetitors have operations similar to ours. Both are showing increased profits while
spending less on advertising than we presently spend.
30. Ms. Halima`s primary method of making her point is to:
A. Draw an analogy
B. Question Mr. Abera`s competence
C. Present evidence which was previously overlooked.
D. Suggest a different underlying cause of the problem.

31. Which of the following statements would be Mr. Abera`s most effective rebuttal of Ms.
Halima argument:
A. My proposal is not `obviously` wrong. There is only one way to is find out if it wrong,
and that is to try it.
B. You have offered statistics to back up neither your claims nor any proposal for an
alternative solution to our problem.
 C. I have been in this business for 30 years, during which time I have repeatedly proven my
ability to identify and solve business problems.
D. Our two major competitors do not need to advertise as much as we do, because they are
already much better known and have larger shares of the market.

Questions 32-35 are based on the following information

In order to conduct the work of a mail order concern it is necessary to have a minimum of three
workers each day. The staff consists of five persons who work on a part-time basis. Mohammed
can work on Mondays, Wednesday, and Fridays. Meaza connot report for work on Wednesdays.
Nati can report for work on Tuesdays and Wednesdays only. Alemayehu cannot work on
Fridays. Yeshi is available any time except on the first Monday and Tuesday of the month.
32. Which three are available on any Monday?
A. Meaza, Nati, and Yeshi.
B. Mohammed, Yeshi, and Nati
C. Nati, Meaza, and Mohammed
D. Alemayehu, Meaza, and Mohammed

33. Which three could you count on to report for work Friday?
A. Meaza, Nati, and Yeshi
B. Nati, Meaza, and mohammed
C. Mohammed, Meaza, and Alemayehu
D. Mohammed, Meaza, and Alemayehu

34. During which day of the week might it be impossible to obtain a full complement of
workers?
A. Monday
B. Tuesday
C. Thursday
 D. Wednesday

35. During which day of the week would it be necessary to call on Mohammed to complete the
full complement of workers?
A. Friday
B. Monday
C. Thursday
D. Wednesday

Section Two: Quantitative Reasoning (Questions 36-60)

Directions: solve each of the problems given in Questions 36-54 below and select the best
answer from the given alternatives. Then find the correct question number and blacken the
letter of your choice on the separate answer sheet provided.
36. When 80,000 is written as 8.0x10n , what is the values
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

37. What is the sum of the following values

(1/4+0.25+25/100+10/40+25/50+50/100)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

38. If 75 percent of x is equal to Percent of 25 where p>0, what is the value of x/p?
A. 1/3
B. 3/16
 C. ¾
D. 3

39. What is the value of(0.0001x204) ÷16/10?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 10
D. 100

40. If 15+X is 5 more than 20, what is the value of X?

A. 5
B. 10
C. 25
D. 50

41. Which of the following is less than Z is Z is a number between 0 and 1?

A. Z 2
B. √𝑍
C. 2z
D. 1/z

42. What is the value of x+10, if (x-5)=11/(x+5), for X≠-5?

A. -10
B. 4
C. 10
D. 25

43. If 6/x =18/x+6,what is the value of x/3?

A. 1
 B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

44. When a number is divided by 2 the result is equal to the result when that same number is
divided by 4. What is that number?
A. -2
B. 0
C. 2
D. 4

45. Which of the following is the average of the first 10 odd numbers?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25

46. A number is called ``even-odd`` if it is halfway between and even integer and an odd integer.
If x is an even-odd number, which of the following must be true?
I. 2x is an integer
II. 2x is even –odd
III. X is halfway between two even integers.
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only

47. The arithmetic mean of p and q is 15 and the average of Y and X is 15. What is the average
of p, Y, x and q?
 A. 7.5
B. 15
C. 22.5
D. 30

48. What is the value of E, if ABCDE is a five digit positive number divisible by 5 and 10?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 5

49. If the sum of three consecutive integers is 33, what is the middle integer?
A. 9
B. 10
C. 11
D. 12

50. If three students have scores x, y and 80 with their sum equal to 180, what is the average
(arithmetic mean) of the three scores?
A. 60
B. 70
C. 80
D. 90

51. When 5 times the number x is added to 12, the result is 32. What number results when 2
times x is added to 7?
A. -15
B. -5
C. 5
 D. 15

52. Hawa used 1/4 of her monthly salary for buying teff and ½ more than the price of teff for
house rent. What fraction of her monthly salary did hawa use that month for the teff and rent
combined?
A. 1/3
B. 7/12
C. 5/8
D. ¾

53. If as many 7 meter pieces of wire as possible are cut from a wire that is 36 meters long, what
is the total length of the wire that is left over?
A. 1 meter
B. 2 meter
C. 3 meter
D. 4 meter

54. The price for one quintal of sugar is birr 5,800 and it decreases at the rate of birr 2 every
three months. The price for one quintal of coffee is birr 4,200 and it increases at the rate of
birr 8 every four months. How many years will it take for the two commodities to become
equal in price?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 50
D. 60

Data interpretation questions (55-60)

 Directions: Questions 55-60 below are based on the hypothetical data given in the table
below. Answer the questions based on the data and blacken the letter of your choice on the
separate answer sheet provided.
Questions 55-60 are on the hypothetical data given below.
Annual income and expenditure of five schools
School Income (in ETB) Expenditure (in ETB)
A 1,200,000 1,000,000
B 1,400,000 1,200,000
C 1,000,000 1,100,000
D 2,000,000 1,600,000
E 1,600,000 1,100,000
Sum 7,200,000 6,000,000
55. The average annual income of the five schools in ETB is ---------------------.
A. 1,200,000
B. 1,400,000
C. 1,300,000
D. 1,440,000

56. The difference between the average annual income and the average annual expenditure of the
five schools in ETB is -----------------.
A. 100,000
B. 240,000
C. 200,000
D. 1,200,000

57. Which one of the following is NOT TRUE about the income-ex------------ given above?
A. The difference between income and expenditure was the school E.
B. All schools have managed to keep their expenditure lower income
C. Most of the schools had annual income which was larger than the average annual income
of the five schools combined.
 D. Only one school had an annual expenditure which was larger than average annual
expenditure of the five schools combined.

58. How many schools had higher rate of saving compared to the rate of the saving from the total
income of all school?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

59. If each school was expected to save at least 10% of its income, how many schools have met
the expectation?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

60. Assume that one school will be awarded based on the proportion of saving to the income
generated. Which school do you think deserves the award?
A. B
B. C
C. D
D. E