Pages 510-560

CHAPTER
12
12.1 CRYSTAL STRUCTURE
Engineering Materials
A crystalline material is one in which the atoms are situated in a repeating or
periodic well
ordered series over large atomic distances; that is, long-range order exists, such
that upon
solidification, the atoms will position themselves in a repetitive three-
dimensional pattern, in
which each atom is bonded to its nearest-neighbour atoms. All metals, many ceramic
materials,
and certain polymers form crystalline structures under normal solidification
conditions. For
those that do not crystallize, this long-range atomic order is absent; these non
crystalline
materials are known as amorphous.
Sometimes the term lattice is used in the context of crystal structure; in this
sense "lattice"
means a three-dimensional array of points coinciding with atom position. The atomic
order
in crystalline solids indicates that small groups of atoms form a repetitive
pattern. Thus, in
describing crystal structures, it is often convenient to subdivide the structure
into small repeat
entities called unit cells.
Coordination number and atomic packing factor (APF). Each atom has the same number
of nearest-neighbour touching atoms, which is the combination number. For face-
centered
cubics, the coordination number is 12.
The APF is the fraction of solid sphere volume in a unit cell, assuming the atomic
hard sphere
model, or
APF
=
Volume of atoms in a unit cell
total unit cell volume
For the FCC structure, the atomic packing factor is 0.74, which is the maximum
packing
possible for spheres all having the same diameter.
510
CHAPTER
12
12.1 CRYSTAL STRUCTURE
A crystalline material is one in which the atoms are situated in a repeating or
periodic well
ordered series over large atomic distances; that is, long-range order exists, such
that upon
solidification, the atoms will position themselves in a repetitive three-
dimensional pattern, in
which each atom is bonded to its nearest-neighbour atoms. All metals, many ceramic
materials,
and certain polymers form crystalline structures under normal solidification
conditions. For
those that do not crystallize, this long-range atomic order is absent; these non
crystalline
materials are known as amorphous.
Sometimes the term lattice is used in the context of crystal structure; in this
sense "lattice"
means a three-dimensional array of points coinciding with atom position. The atomic
order
in crystalline solids indicates that small groups of atoms form a repetitive
pattern. Thus, in
describing crystal structures, it is often convenient to subdivide the structure
into small repeat
entities called unit cells.
Coordination number and atomic packing factor (APF). Each atom has the same number
of nearest-neighbour touching atoms, which is the combination number. For face-
centered
cubics, the coordination number is 12.
The APF is the fraction of solid sphere volume in a unit cell, assuming the atomic
hard sphere
model, or
APF
Volume of atoms in a unit cell
total unit cell volume
For the FCC structure, the atomic packing factor is 0.74, which is the maximum
packing
possible for spheres all having the same diameter.
510
12.2 CRYSTAL SYSTEMS
A unit cell with x, y, and z coordinate axes, showing axial lengths (a, b and c)
and interaxial
angles (a, ß and y) is shown.
T
C
Cystal System
Cubic
X
Lattice Parameter Relationships for the Crystal Systems.
Axial Relationships
a = b = c
a=b+c
a = b = c
a = b = c
a‡b c
a‡b c
a‡b #c
Hexagonal
Tetragonal
Rhombohedral
Orthorhombic
I
Monoclinic
Triclinic
1
a
Interaxial Angles
a =
B=y=90°
a = ß= 90°, y = 120⁰
a = ß=y=90°
α =B=y=90°
a = ß=y=90°
511
α=y=90° ß
a‡y‡ß‡ 90°
12.3 IRON-CARBON EQUILIBRIUM DIAGRAM
Carbon is the most important alloying element in iron which significantly affects
the allotropy,
structure and properties of iron. The study of Fe-C system is thus, important, more
so as it
forms the basis of commercial steels and cast irons, and many of the basic features
of this
system influence the behaviour of even the most complex alloy steels. Steels may
have
incidental elements, or intentionally added alloying elements, which modify this
diagram, but
if modifications are interpreted cautiously, then this diagram acts as a guide. The
ability to
interpret this diagram is important for proper appreciation of phase changes.
Conventionally, the complete Fe-C diagram should extend from 10% Fe to 100% carbon,
but
it is normally studied up to around 6.67% carbon as is also illustrated in the
Fig., because iron
alloys of practical industrial importance contain not more than 5% carbon. Thus,
this diagram
is only just a part of the complete Fe-C equilibrium diagram.
512
Objective Type Questions in Mechanical Engineering
When the carbon content becomes more than the solubility limits of iron, iron forms
a compound
with carbon called cementite.
Cementite, chemical formula Fe, C has a fixed carbon content of 6.67% i.e., when
iron has
6.67% carbon, then 100% cementite is obtained. Thus, this diagram (see bottom most
horizontal
line I which has components iron and cementite (100% Fe on one end to 100%
cementite on
the other end of the diagram) can rightly be called as iron-cementite diagram.
Iron-cementite diagram is not a true equilibrium diagram, since equilibrium means
no change
of phase with time. Graphite is more stable form of carbon. Cementite is a
metastable phase,
which decomposes to graphite if given long periods of time. Graphitisation,
however, rarely
occurs in steels and may take years to form. Thus, cementite, though a metastable
phase, can
be taken to be practically stable. Thus, Fe-Fe3 C diagram even though represents
metastable
conditions, can be assumed to represent equilibrium state relevant to the behaviour
of most
steels in paractice. In cast irons, the high carbon content and the high silicon
additions promote
graphite formation and thus, in cast irons (except white cast iron) transformations
are based
much more on Fe-graphite diagram. Fe-C diagram is strictly valid only at one
atmospheric
pressure. Conventionally, the compositions are marked in weight percentage.
8-Ferrite
8-Ferrite
Austenite
Ferrite
+
Austenite
Ferrite
1539
1500
1400
1300
1200
1100
1000
900
800
700
600
500
400
300
200
100
Fe
0
2 4 6
I
I
A 1495
Peritec-tic
Austenite
910
S'
.02
10
V
0.77
1
8 10 12 14 16 18 20 22 24 26 28
1
I
1
I L
8-Ferrite + Liquid
Liquid
B
U.
1
20
.+
Austenite
2.11
Eutectoid
2
C
I
30
1147
Austenite +Cementite
A₁ (210° C)
1+ Cementite
Eutectic
727°
Ferrite +Cementite
4 4.3
3
Carbon, %
I L
50 60 70
40
Iron-cementite diagram
-
5
80
6
90
D
R
T'
6.67
100%Fe, C
513
12.4 HEAT TREATMENT
Hardening. Hardening of the metal is done to increase its hardness so that it can
resist wear. For
hypoeutectoid steels heating is done from 30° to 50°C above the upper critical
temperature. For
hyper eutectoid steels heating is done from 30° to 50° C above the lower critical
temperature.
Quenching (sudden cooling) is done in suitable cooling medium like water, oil or
brine. The
higher the rate of cooling, the hardening is the resulting structure.
Annealing. The purpose of annealing is to soften hard steel so that it may be
machined or cold
worked. In this process grain size is refined and ductility is improved. The steel
is heated from
30° to 50°C above the upper critical temperature for hyper eutectoid steel and by
the same
temperature above the lower critical temperature for hyper eutectoid steels. The
steel is held
above these critical temperature until the temperature is uniform throughout. Then
cooling is
done at a slow rate in the furnace. The process is known as full annealing because
it wipes out
all traces of previous structure.
Normalizing. The process of normalizing consists of heating the steel about 10 to
40°C above
the upper critical range and cooling in still air, to room temperature. This
process is principally
used with low and medium carbon as well as alloy steels to make the grain structure
more
uniform to relieve internal stresses or to achieve desired results in physical
properties.
Tempering. Steel that has been hardened by rapid quenching is brittle and not
suitable for
most useful work. By tempering or 'drawing', the hardness or brittleness may be
reduced to
the desired point for service conditions. As these properties are reduced, there is
also a decrease
in tensile strength and an increase in the ductility and toughness of the steel.
The operation
consists of the heating of hardened steel to some temperature below the critical
range followed
by any rate of cooling.
Carburising. (addition of carbon) The low carbon steel is heated to about 870°C to
930°℃ and
is kept for several hours in contact with a solid carburising medium (pack
carbursing), a suitable
hydro-carbon gas (gas carburising) or fused baths of carburising salts (liquid
carburising). A
hardened surface results after quenching.
Cyaniding. (addition of cabon and nitrogen): The low carbon steel is heated to
about 850°C
in a molten sodium cyanide bath for a definite period of time and then quenched in
water or
oil.
Nitriding. Nitriding is a surface hardening process accompanied by heating certain
steel alloys
called Nitralloys. The treatment consists in heating the part to a temperature of
about 560°C
inside a chamber through which a stream of ammonia is passed. The part is rough
machined
before being nitrided, and is then heated to the nitriding temperature without
ammonia, in order
to produce whatever distortion may occur. The nitrided surface has hardness from
730 to 1100
BHN and resists corrosion. Nitriding also raises the endurance limit of the steel.
Flame hardening. It is a process in which a steel part is heated locally above the
critical
temperature and then quenched. The depth of the flame hardened layer can be varied
from
1.5 mm to about 3.0 mm the exact depth depends on the service requirements. After
being
quenched the piece must be stress relieved by tempering, a temperature of 200°C is
usually
sufficient. Plain carbon steels with a carbon content of 0.30 to 0.70 percent are
best suited
for this method. It is often applied to gear teeth, cams. Castings, forgings and
rolled sections
irrespective of their size.
514
1. Structure of common glass is:
(a) Amorphous
(b) Partially crystalline
(c) Fully crystalline
(d) None of the above
12.5. CRYSTAL STRUCTURE
2. Specify the sequence correctly:
(a) Grain growth, recrystallisation, stress
relief
(b) Stress relief, grain growth, recrys-
tallisation
(c) Stress relief, recrystallisation, grain
growth
(d) Grain growth, stress relief, recry-
stallisation.
[IES-1992]
3. When the atoms are arranged in definite
and orderly manner in a material, it is
known as:
(a) Amorphous material
(b) Mesomorphous material
(c) Crystalline structure
[IES-1992]
4. Which of the following statement is true
about brittle fracture?
(a) High temperature and low strain rates
favour brittle fracture
(b) Many metal with HCP crystal structure
commonly show brittle fracture
(c) Brittle fracture is always preceded by
noise
(d) Cup and cone formation is
characteristic for brittle materials.
[IES-1992]
5. Polyamides are characterized by:
(a) Flexible chain (b) Rigid chain
(c) Amorphous structure
(d) Crystalline structure [IES-1992]
6. Which of the following is a point
imperfection:
1. Vacancy
2. Interstitially
3. Frankel imperfection
4. Schottky imperfection
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
[IES-1992]
7. In a unit cell of body centred cubic space
lattice, the total number of atoms is:
(b) 9
(a) 6
(c) 14
(d) 24 [IES-1992]
8. The microstructure composition of pearlite
for an Fe, C diagram consists of:
(a) Carbon dissolved in alpha iron having
a body-centred cubic structure
(b) Carbon dissolved in gamma iron
having a face-centred cubic structure
(c) A mixture of body centred alpha iron
and face-centered gamma iron.
(d) Carbon dissolved in body-centered
alpha iron and an Fe, C.
[IES-1992]
9. In a unit cell of a face centred cubic space
lattice, the total number of atoms is:
(a) 6
(b) 9
(c) 14
(d) 24 [IES-1992]
10. Atomic packing factor (APF) in the case
of copper crystal is:
(a) 0.52
(c) 0.74
(b) 0.68
(d) 1.633
[IES-1992]
11. If a unit cell of structure having nine atoms
out of which one atom is located at the
centre of cube and eight atoms are located
at the corners of the cube, then the structure
is known as:
(a) Body centered cubic space lattice
(b) Face centered cubic space lattice
(c) Hexagonal closed packed space lattice
12. Which of the following pairs of axis
lengths (a, b, c) and interaxial angles
(a, ß, y) represents the tetragonal crystal
system?
(a) a = b = c; a=B=y=90°
(b) a=bc; α= ß=y=90°
(c) a+b+c; a=ß=y=90°
(d) a = b = c; α= ß = y* 90°
[IES-1992]
13. If a unit cell of structure having fourteen
atoms out of which eight atoms are located
at the corners of the cube and six atoms at
the centres of six faces of the cube, then
the structure is known as:
(a) Body centred cubic space lattice
(b) Face centred cubic space lattice
(c) Close packed hexagonal space lattice
[IES]
14. Match List I (Name of the Element) with
List II (Crystal Structure) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below
the lists:
List-I
List-II
A. Flourspar 1. Body-centred
B. Alpha-Iron
C. Silver
D. Zinc
Codes: A
(a) 3
(b)
B
2
4 1
4
2
3
1
cubic
2. Hexagonal close
packed
3. Simple cubic
4. Face-centred
cubic
C
4
3
34
D
1
2
1
2
(a)
[IES-2001]
15. Which of the following factors govern
solubility of two non-ferrous metals both
in liquid state as well as in solid state?
1. Crystal structure
2. Relative size factor
3. Chemical-affinity factor
4. Relative valence factor
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 2
(c) 1 and 4
List-I
(Materials)
16. A space lattice found in a-iron is known
as:
A. Charcoal
(d) None of the above [IES-2001]
17. Match List-I with List-II and select the
the lists:
B. Graphite
C. Chromium
D. Copper
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Codes: A
3
M N
3
2
R2N 33
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(d)
B
2 3
1, 2, 3 and 4
[IES-2001]
515
List-II
(Structure)
1. F.C.C
2. H.C.P
3. Amorphous
4. B.C.C
C D
1
4
4
1
4
1
1
4
[IES-1998]
18. A space lattice found in gamma-iron is:
(d) None of the above [IES-1998]
19. Match List-I (Crystal structure) with List-
II (Atomic packing factor) and select the
the lists:
516
List-I
List-II
A. Simple cubic
1. 94%
B. Body-centred cubic
2. 74%
C. Face-centred cubic
3. 52%
D. Hexagonal close packed 4. 68%
Codes: A B C
(a) 3
4
2
(b)
4
3
2
(c)
3
4
1
(d)
4
3
1
20. Body centred cubic space lattice is found
in:
(a) X-iron, chromium, tungsten and
molybdenum
D
1
1
21. Gibb's phase rule is given by
2
2
(b) Y-iron, aluminium copper, lead, silver
and nickel
(c) Zinc, cobalt, cadmium, antimony and
bismuth
(a) F=C+P
(b)
(c) F=C-P-2 (d)
(F= number of degrees of freedom
C = number of components
P= number of phases)
F=C+P-2
F=C-P+2
[IES-1999]
22. Face centred cubic space lattice is found
in:
(a) a-iron, chromium, tungsten and
molybdenum
(b) y-iron, aluminium, copper, lead, silver
and nickel
bismuth
[IES-2001]
23. The set of Miller indices of the plane
shown in the given figure is:
(a) (100)
(c) (101)
(b) (100)
(d) (110)
[IES-1999]
24. Close packed hexagonal space lattice is
found in:
(a) a-iron, chromium, tungsten and
molybdenum
(b) ß-iron, aluminium, copper, lead, silver
and nickel
bismuth
25. Which one of the following is true?
(a) Structure of metallic materials consists
of atoms having valence of 5, 6 or 7
(b) Ceramic materials have long range
electron matrix bond
(c) Polymers are composed of long chain
of repeating molecules
(d) Ceramics are weaker than metals
because of weak electrostatic bond.
[IES-2002]
26. Most ductile lattice is:
(a) Body centred cubic lattice
(b) Face centred cubic lattice
(c) Close packed hexagonal lattice
[IES-2001]
27. In the grain-size determination using
standard charts, the relation between
the given size number n and the average
number of grains 'N' per square inch at a
magnification of 100X is:
(a) N=2"
(c) N=2"+1
(b)
N=2"-1
(d) N=2"+1
[IES-2002]
28. Structure of a material which can be
examined by naked eye is:
(a) Macro-structure (b) Micro-structure
(c) Atomic structure (d) Grain structure
29. Chemicals attack atoms within grain
boundaries preferentially because they
have:
(a) Lower energy than those in the grains
(b) Higher energy than those in the grains
(c) Lower number of atoms than in the
grain.
(d) Lower number of atoms than in the
grains
[IES-2002]
30. Micro-structure of a material is generally
examined by:
(a) Naked eye
(b) Microscope
(c) X-ray and electron diffraction
(d) Optical microscope
[IES-2002]
31. Crystal structure of a material is generally
examined by:
(a) Naked eye
(b) Microscope
(c) Optical microscope
(d) X-ray and electron diffraction
[IES-2002]
32. As per Gibb's phase rule, if number of
components is equal to 2 then the number
of phases will be:
(a) ≤2
(c) ≤4
(b) ≤3
(d) ≤5
[IES-2002]
517
33. Interface angles, a = ß = 90° C are in the
crystal system:
(a) Cubic
(c) Orthogonal
(b) Tetragonal
(d) All the above
[IES-2002]
34. Total atoms in Face-centred cubic structure
(FCC) unit cell is:
(a) 2
(c) 6
(b) 4
35. Atom at the centre of BCC structure is:
(a) 1
(c) 4
36. A unit cell a crystal is shown in the given
figure. The miller indices of the direction
(arrow) shown in the figure is:
(a) (012)
(c) (120)
(b) 2
(d) 6
NIS
IN
(b) (021)
(d) (201)
[IES-1998]
37. Which of the following properties of a solid
are dependent on crystal imperfections?
1. Yield stress
3. Semiconductivity 4. Ductility
given below:
(a) 1 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
2. Melting point'
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
[IES-1997]
518
1. Strength of a material is its ability to resist:
(a) Deformation due to stress
12.6 PROPERTIES OF MATERIALS
(b) Fracture due to high load
(c) External force applied with yielding
or break down
2. For a linearly elastic, isotropic and
homogeneous material, the number of
elastic constants required to relate stress
and strain is:
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Six
[I.A.S-94]
3. The temperature stress is a function of
1. Coefficient of linear expansion
2. Temperature rise
3. Modulus of elasticity
The correct answer is:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 & 3 only
(b) 1 & 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Elasticity
(c) Stiffness
[IES-1992]
4. Ability of material to resist fracture due to
high impact load is known as:
(a) Toughness (b) Stiffness
(c) Plasticity
(d) Hardness
5. The independent elastic constants for a
homogenous and isotropic material are:
(a) E, G, K,V
(c) E, G, V
(b) E, G, K
(d) E, G
[I.S.A-95]
6. Ability of a material to absorb energy in
the plastic range is known as:
(a) Resilience
(c) Plasticity
7. Property of material due to which they can
be drawn into wires, is known as:
(b) Stiffness
(d) Hardness
(b) Plasticity
(d) Ductility
[IES-2000]
8. Which one of the following materials is
highly elastic?
(a) Rubber
(c) Steel
(b) Brass
(d) Glass
[I.A.S-95]
9. Which of the following would you
prefer for checking the hardness of thin
sections?
(a) Hebert cloud burst test
(b) Shore's Scleroscope
(c) Knoop hardness test
(d) Vickers hardness test
[IES-1992]
10. The true strain for a low carbon steel bar
which is doubled in length by forging is
(a) 0.307
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.693
(d) 1.0
[GATE-1992]
11. Ability of a material to retain the
deformation permanently is known as:
(a) Stiffness
(b) Ductility
(c) Hardness
(d) Plasticity
12. Ability of a material to resist penetration
by another material is known as:
(a) Stiffness
(c) Hardness
(b) Toughness
(d) Ductility
(USM) the material
[GATE-92]
13. Ultrasonic Machining
removal rate would:
(a) Increase
(c) Increase and then decrease
(d) Decrease and then increase
14. Property of a material due to which it can
be rolled or hammered into thin sheets is
known as:
(b) Decrease
(a). Brittleness
(c) Malleability
15. Which one of the following refractory
materials is recommended for steel
furnaces containing CaO slages?
(b) Ductility
(d) Fatigue
(a) Alumina
(c) Magnesia
(b) Silica
(d) Fireclay
[IES-1997]
16. Fatigue strength of a rod subjected to cyclic
axial force is less than that of a rotating
beam of the same dimensions subjected to
steady lateral force because:
(a) Axial stiffness is less than bending
stiffnes
(b) of absence of centrifugal effects in
the rod
(c) The number of discontinuities
vulnerable to fatigue are more in the
rod
(d) At a particular time the rod has only
one type of stress whereas the beam
has both the tensile and compressive
stresses
[GATE-92]
17. Property of a material due to which it
breaks with little permanent distortion is
known as:
(a) Brittleness (b) Ductility
(c) Fatigue
(d) Creep
[GATE-92]
18. Property of a material due to which
recovery after unloading is complete but
instantaneous, is known as:
(a) Elasticity
(b) Plasticity
(c) Anelasticity (d) Inelasticity
19. In ultrasonic machining process, the
material removal rate will be higher for
materials with:
(a) Higher toughness
(b) Higher ductility
(c) Lower toughness
(d) Higher fracture strain [GATE-93]
20. In a material subjected to fluctuating or
repeated stress, fracture takes place under
a stress whose maximum value is less
than the tensile stress of the material. This
phenomenon is known as:
(a) Fatigue
(b) Creep
(c) Malleability (d) Resilience
519
21. A test specimen is stressed slightly beyond
the yield point and then unloaded. Its yield
strength will:
(a) Decrease
(b) Increase
(c) Remains same
(d) Becomes equal to ultimate tensile
strength
[GATE-95]
22. The highest stress that a material can with
stand for a specified length of time without
much deformation is called:
(a) Fatigue
(c) Malleability
(b) Creep strength
(d) Resilience
[IES-1997]
23. A free bar of length / is uniformly heated
from 0°C to a temperature t°C. & is the
coefficient of linear expansion and E is the
modulus of elasticity. The stress in the bar
is:
(b)
octE/2
(a) o tE
(c) 0
[GATE-95]
24. Crater wear is predominant in:
(a) Carbon steel
(b) Tungsten carbide
(c) High speed steel
(d) Ceramics.
25. If a material is heated, its toughness:
[IES-1995]
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains same
[IES-1992]
26. Machineability of metals depends upon:
(a) Tensile strength
(b) Toughness
(c) Harndess
(d) Both (a) and (b) above [IES-1992]
27. By hardness, a material can:
(a) Cut another metal
(b) Be drawn into wires
(c) Be rolled
(d) Resist fracture due to high thin sheets.
520
28. Toughness of a material means its:
(a) Strength
(b) Fatigue resistance
(c) Machinability
(d) Softening
29. With increase in the hardness of material
elastic recovery after deformation:
(b) Decreases
(a) Increases
(c) Remains same
30. Decreasing grain size in a polycrystalline
material:
2. Hardness
B. Endurance
C. Resistance to
abrasion
3. Energy
(a) Increases yield strength and corrosion
resistance
(b) Decreases yield strength and corrosion
resistance
(c) Decreases yield strength but increases
corrosion resistance
(d) Increases yield strength but decreases
corrosion resistance. [GATE-98]
31. Alloy steel which is work hardenable
and which is used to make the blades of
bulldozers, bucket wheel excavators and
other earth moving equipment contain iron,
carbon and:
(a) Chromium (b) Silicon
(c) Manganese (d) Magnesium
[IES-1996]
32. Which of the following materials requires
the largest shrinkage allowance, while
making a pattern for casting?
(b) Brass
(a) Aluminium
(c) Cast Iron
(d) Plain Carbon Steel
[GATE-1999]
33. Match List I with List II and select the
the lists:
List-I
List-II
A. Toughness 1. Moment
area
method.
D. Deflection in
beam
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
absorbed
before
fracture in
a tension
test
4. Fatigue
loading
Codes: A
B
4
3
4
3
4
3
3
C D
1
2
2
1
2
1
4 1
2
[IES-1997]
34. Fatigue failure occurs when a part is
subjected to:
(a) Torsion
(b) Fluctuating stress
(c) Tension
(d) Compression
[IES-1997]
35. Stress-concentration occurs when a body
is subjected to:
(a) Extensive stress
(b) Non-uniform stress
(c) Reverse stress
(d) Fluctuating stress
36. In Electric-Discharge Machining (EDM),
the tool is made of:
(a) Copper
(b) High Speed Steel
(c) Cast Iron
(d) Plain Carbon Steel
[GATE-99]
37. For most brittle materials, the ultimate
strength in compression is much large
than the ultimate strength in tension. This
is mainly due to:
(a) Presence of flaws X microscopic
cracks or cavities
(b) Necking in tension
(c) Severity of tensile stress as compared
to compressive stress
(d) Non-linearity of strees-strain diagram.
[IES-1992]
38. When a body recovers its original
dimensions on removing the load, it is
known as:
(a) Elastic
(b) Plastic
(c) Brittle
39. Amount of external energy required to
deform an elastic body is known as:
(a) Elastic energy (b) Plastic energy
(c) Strain energy
40. Herbert cloudburst Hardness test is
conducted to know:
(a) Uniformity of hardness over a surface
(b) Softness of non-metallic components
(c) Hardness of non-metallic components
(d) Hardness at specified depth inside the
surface
[IES-1992]
41. The rate of production of a powder
metallurgy part depends on:
(a) Flow rate of powder
38. (a) 39. (c)
1. Wrought iron is:
(a) Not used for castings
(b) Easily hardened
(c) Used for castings
(d) Melts at 150°C
2. Stainless steel contains:
(a) 10% vanadium, 8% nickel
(b) 18% chromium, 8% nickel
(c) 18% tungsten, 8% nickel
(d) 18% tungsten, 8% chromium
(b) Green strength of compact
(c) Apparent density of compact
(d) Compressibility of powder
Answers
[IES-1996]
[IES-2002]
42. Match List-I (Elastic properties of isotropic
elastic material) with list II (Nature of
strain produced) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the
Lists.
List-I
A. Young's
modulus
C. Bulk
40. (a) 41. (c)
42. (c) 43. (a)
12.7 FERROUS METALS & ALLOYS
B. Modulus of 2. Normal strain
rigidity
modulus
D. Poisson's
ratio
521
List-II
1. Shear strain
3. Transverse strain
4. Volumetric
strain
[IES-1997]
43. The unit of elastic modulus is the same as
those of:
(a) Stress, shear modulus and pressure
(b) Strain, shear modulus and force
(c) Shear modulus, stress and force
(d) Stress, strain and pressure
4. Percentage of carbon
(a) 0.1 to 0.8%
(c) 1.8 to 4.2%
[I.A.S-1993]
3. First product of the blast furnace in the
process of converting iron ore into useful
metal by reduction is known as:
(a) Cast iron
(c) Pig iron
(b) Wrought iron
(d) Steel
in carbon steels is:
(b) 0.35 to 0.45%
(d) 0.1 to 1.5%
522
5. Raw material for all iron and steel products
is:
(a) Cast iron
(c) Pig iron
(b) Wrought iron
(d) Steel
6. Percentage of carbon in low carbon steel
is:
(a) 0.1 to 0.15% (b) 0.15 to 0.8%
(c) 0.8 to 1.5%
(d) More than 1.5%
7. Blast furnace is used to produce:
(a) Cast iron
(b) Wrought iron
(d) Steel
(c) Pig iron
8. Percentage of carbon in high carbon steel is:
(a) 0 to 0.15%
(b) 0.15 to 0.8%
(c) 0.8 to 1.5%
(d) More than 1.5%
9. Pig iron is produced from the iron ore:
(a) Magnesite
(b) Limonite
(c) Hematite
(d) Pyrite
10. Small amounts of which one of the
following elements/pair of elements is
added to steel to increase its machinability?
(a) Nickel
(b) Silicon
(c) Sulphur and phosphorous
(d) Manganese and copper [IES-1996]
11. Carbon steel is:
14. In carbon steel castings, the percentage of:
(a) Carbon is below 1.7%
(b) Carbon is between 1.7 to 2%
(c) Alloying elements is controlled
15. Iron alloy having carbon more than 2% is
known is:
(a) Produced by adding carbon in steel
(b) An alloy of iron and carbon with
varying quantities of phosphorous and
sulphur.
(c) Pure than the cast iron
12. Which of the following display properties
similar to that of steel:
1. Black-heart cast iron
2. White-heart cast iron
3. Gray cast iron
4. Pig iron
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
[IES-1992]
13. Carbon in the pig iron varies from:
(a) 1 to 5%
(b) 2 to 4%
(c) 5 to 8%
(d) 5 to 10%
(a) Cast iron
(b) High carbon steel
(c) Mild steel
16. For the pipe fitting like elbow, tee union
etc. which of the following is preferred?
(a) Pig iron
(b) Malleable iron
(c) Spheroidal graphite cast iron
(d) High carbon steel
17. Cast iron is a:
[IES-1992]
(a) Ductile material
(b) Malleable material
(c) Brittle material
18. To raise yield point of low carbon steel:
(a) Silicon is added
(b) Carbon is added
(c) Phosphorus is added
(d) Sulphur is added
[IES-1992]
19. A phase transformation in which all the
liquid phase transforms on cooling to two
solid phases simultaneously, is known as:
(a) Eutectic
(b) Hyper-eutectic
(c) Hypo-eutectic
20. Cast iron is genrally specified by its:
(a) Hardness
(b) Iron percentage
(c) Carbon percentage
(d) Tensile strength
21. Addition of magnesium to cast iron
increases its:
(a) Hardness
(b) Corrosion resistance
(c) Creep strength
(d) Ductility and strength in tension
[IES-1995]
22. A reversible changes in an atomic structure
of the metal with a corresponding change
in the properties of steel, is known as:
(a) Allotropic
(b) Polytropic
(c) Critical point
(d) None of the these
23. Addition of silicon to cast iron:
1. Promotes graphite module formation
2. Promotes graphite flake formation
3. Increases the fluidity of molten metal
4. Improves ductility
Which of the following statement is
correct?
(a) 1 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
24. An alloy steel contains:
(b) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
(a) More than 0.5% Mn and 0.5% Si
(b) Less than 0.5% Mn and 0.5% Si
(c) More than 0.35% Mn and 0.5% Si
(d) Less than 0.35% Mn and 0.5% Si
25. If steel is slowly cooled in furnace, the
structure obtained is known as:
1. Carbide
3. Ceramic
[IES-1995]
(a) Pearlite
(b) Sorbite
(c) Martensite (d) Troosite
26. Consider the following tool materials:
2. Cernet
(a) 1, 2 and 3, 4
(c) 2, 1, 3, 4
4. Borazon
Correct sequence of these tool materials
in increasing order of their ability to retain
their hot hardness is:
(b) 1, 2, 4, 3
(d) 2, 1, 4, 3
[IES-1994]
523
27. Steel which destroy by burning is known
as:
(a) Alloy steel
(c) Silicon steel
[IES-1992]
28. Match List I and List II and select the
the lists:
List-I
(Steel type)
A. Mild steel
B. Tool steel
C. Medium
D. High Carbon
steel
carbon steel
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Codes: A
1
4
2
4
1
3
4
2 4 3
List-I
(Mechanical
property)
A. Malleability
B. Hardness
C. Resilience
D. Isotropy
Codes: A
(a)
(b)
4435 3
(d)
3
(c) 5
34
B
1
[IES-1993]
29. Match List I and List II and select the
the lists:
3
(b) Carbon steel
(d)
Killed steel
BE442
List-II
(Product)
1. Screw Driver
2. Commercial
beams
3. Crane hooks
4. Blanking dies
C D
3
2
1
3
List-II
(Relate to)
1. Wire drawing
2. Impact loads
3. Cold rolling
4. Identation
5.
Direction
C
1
2
2
1
A3535
D
[IES-1993]
524
30. Properties of cast iron are regulated by:
(a) Percentage of carbon present
(b) Control of amount, type, size
and distribution of various carbon
formations
(c) Heat treatment
(d) All of the above
31. Compressive strength of cast iron as
compared to tensile strength is:
(a) More
(b) Less
(c) Same
32. Match correct pairs between List I
(cutting tool materials) and List II (major
characteristics constituent):
List-I
A. High speed
steel
List-II
1. Carbon
(a) Cast iron
(b) Wrought iron
(c) Grey iron
(d) Mild steel
B. Stellite
2. Molydbenum
C. Diamond
3. Nitride
D. Coated carbide 4. Cobalt
tool
[IES-1993]
33. In steel, main alloy causing corrosion
resistance is:
(a) Manganese (b) Vanadium
(c) Chromium (d) Cobalt
[IES-1992]
34. Machining properties of steel are improved
by adding:
(a) Nickel
(b) Chromium
(c) Silicon
(d) Sulphur, lead and phosphorous
35. The cupola is used to make:
(a) Pig iron
(c) Wrought iron (d) Steel
(b) Cast iron
[IES-1999]
36. Which is closest to the purest form of
iron:
37. Killed steels:
[Leet-1999]
(a) Have minimum impurity level
(b) Have almost zero percentage of
phosphorus and sulphur
(c) Are produced by LD process
(d) Are free from oxygen [IES-1996]
38. Vanadium is added to steel to:
(a) Increase corrosion resistance
(b) Soften shock resistance
(c) Increase shock resistance
[IES-1992]
39. Tungsten when added to steel, its critical
temperature:
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains same
[IES-1992]
40. In low carbon steels, the presence of small
quantities of sulphur improves:
(a) Weldability
(b) Form ability
(c) Machinability (d) Hardenability
[IES-1995]
41. Under repeated loading a material has the
stress-strain curve shown in [GATE-99]
σ
E
(a) The smaller the shaded area, the better
the material damping
(b) The larger the shaded area, the better
the material damping
(c) Material damping is an independent
material property and does not depend
on this curve
[GATE 99]
42. Which one of the following sets of
constituents is expected in equilibrium
cooling of a hyper-eutectoid steel from
austenitic state?
(a) Ferrite and pearlite
(b) Cementite and pearlite
(c) Ferrite and bainite
(d) Cementite and martensite
[IES-1995]
(a) Vanadium 18%, chromium 4% and
tungsten 1%
(b) Vanadium 4%, chromium 18% and
tungsten 1%
(c) Vanadium 1%, chromium 4% and
tungsten 18%
(d) Vanadium 18%, chromium 1% and
tungsten 4%
44. Hyper-eutectoid steels have structure of:
(a) Pearlite alone
(b) Phases of ferrite and pearlite
(c) Phases of cementite and pearlite
(d) Phases of ferrite and cementite
43. 18-4-1 high steel contains:
[Leet-99]
45. Eutectic reaction for iron-carbon system
occurs at:
(a) 600°C
(c) 1147°C
[IES-1993]
46. If carbon present in cast iron is mostly in
the combined state, it is known as:
(a) Whtie cast iron (b) Grey cast iron
(c) Molten cast iron
the lists:
List-I
(Name of
material)
A. Hypo-
eutectoid
(b) 723°C
(d) 1493°C
B. Hyper
eutectoid
List-II
(% age of carbon)
1. 4.3-6.67
2. 2.0-4.3
C. Hypo-
eutectic cast
iron
D. Hyper-
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
eutectic cast
Codes: A B
4
3
1
4
1
3
1
2
3. 0.8-2.0
4. 0.008-0.8
C
NNN M
2
2
2
3
D
1
4
3
4
525
[IES-1995]
48. Steel containing 11 to 14% chromium and
0.35% carbon is known as:
(a) Martensitic stainless steel
(b) Ferritic stainless steel
(c) Austenitic stainless steel
49. The main alloying elements in high speed
steel in order of increasing proportion
are:
(a) Vanadium, chromium, tungsten
(b) Tungsten, titanium, vanadium
(c) Chromium, titanium, vanadium
(d) Tungsten, chromium, titanium
[IES-1992]
50. Temperature required for full annealing in
hyper-eutectoid steel is:
(a) 50°C above upper critical temperature
(AC3)
(b) 50°C below upper critical temperature
(AC3)
(c) 50°C above lower critical temperature
(AC₂)
(AC₂)
(d) 50°C below lower critical temperature
[IES-1992]
51. Percentages of various alloying elements
present in different steel materials are
given below:
(a) 18% W,4% Cr; 1% V; 5% Co; 0.75% C
(b) 8% Mo; 4% Cr; 2% V; 6% W; 0.75% C
(c) 27% Cr; 3% Ni; 5% Mo; 0.25% C
(d) 18% Cr; 8% Ni; 0.15% C
[IES-2000]
526
52. Pearlite consists of:
(a) 6.67% C and 93.33% ferrite
(b) 12% Fe and 87% cementite
(c) 13% C and 87% ferrite
(d) 13% cementite and 87% ferrite.
[IES-2000]
53. Steel containing pearlite and ferrite is:
(a) Tough
(b) Hard
(c) Soft
(d)
Ductile
54. Addition of vanadium to steel results in
improvement of:
(a) Heat-treatability by quenching
(b) Hardenability
61. The lower critical temperature for steel:
(a) varies according to carbon content in it
(b) is constant
(c) Depends on the rate of heating
(c) Fatigue strength
(d) Resistance to oxidation at elevated
temperature
[IES-2000]
55. Steel with carbon below 0.8% known as:
(a) Eutectoid steel
(b) Hyper-tectoid steel
(c) Hypo-tectoid (d) Austenite
56. Martensite is a super-saturated solution of
carbon in:
(a) Alpha iron
(c) Gamma iron
(b) Beta iron
(d) Delta iron
[IES-2001]
57. Steel with carbon above 0.8% is known as:
(a) Eutectoid steel
(b) Hyper-tectoid steel
(c) Hypo-tectoid steel
(d) Austenite
58. Grey cast iron as compared to white cast
iron is:
(b) Softer
(a) Harder
(c) Same
59. Hardness of steel depends upon amount of:
(a) Pearlite
(b) Ferrite
(c) Cementite
(d) Martensite
60. Nodular grey cast iron is obtained from the
grey cast iron by adding a small amount of:
(a) Manganese (b) Phosphorous
(c) Magnestum (d) Chromium
[IES-2001]
62. The alloy steel designated as 40 Cr 18 Ni
2 by Bureau of Indian Standard contains:
(a) 0.4% C, 18% Cr and 2% Ni
(b) 4.0%C, 1.8% Cr and 0.2% Ni
(c) 0.4% C, 1.8% Cr and 2% Ni
(d) 0.4%C, 18% Cr and 0.2% Ni
[IES-2001]
63. Iron carbon alloy containing 1.7 to 4.3%
carbon is known as:
(a) Eutectic cast iron
(b) Hyper-eutectic cast iron
(c) Hypo-eutectic cast iron
[IES-2001]
64. Temperature at which the change ends on
heating the steel, is known as:
(a) Lower critical point
(b) Upper critical point
(c) Point of recalescence
65. Match List I (Alloying element in steel)
with List II (Property conferred on steel by
the element)and select the correct answer
using below the lists:
List-I
A. Nickel
B. Chromium
C. Tungsten
D. Silicon
Codes: A
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
B
4 1
4
1
1
4
1
4
List-II
1. Corrosion
resistance
2. Magnetic
permeability
3. Heat resistance
4. Hardenablity
C
3
2
2
D
2
3
2
3
IES-19981
66. Lower critical point for all steels is:
(b) 732°C
(d)
(a) 600°C
(c) 900°C
[IES-2001]
67. Two cooling curves A and B for a eutectoid
iron-carbon alloy are superimposed on a
continous cooling transformation diagram
as shown in the given figure. Fine pearlite
microstructure is represented by the points
labelled.
Temperature (°C) →→→→
800
€ 700
600
500
400
0
1
(a) I and III
(c) IV
91400°C
Eutectoid temperature
10 100 10³ 104
Time (sec.)
(b) II
(d) I.
[IES-1998]
68. Alpha iron exists at
(a) Below 768° C
(b) Between 768°C to 900°C
(c) Betwen 900° C to 1400°C
(d) Between 1400° C to 1530°C
Codes: A B
(a) 3 1
[IES-1992]
69. Match List I (Alloys) with List-II
(Applications) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-II
List-I
A. Chromel 1. Journal bearing
B. Babbit alloy
2. Milling cutter
C. Nimonic
alloy
3. Thermocouple
wire
D. High speed
steel
4. Gas turbine
blades
C D
4
2
(b)
(c)
(d)
MN N
3
4
2 4
1
1
1 4
2
W W N
2
3
3
[IES-1998]
70. Beta iron exists in the temperature range
of:
527
(a) 0°C to 768°C
(b) 768°C to 900°C
(c) 900°C to 1400°C
(d) 1400°C to 1530°C
71. Delta iron exists in the temperature range
of:
(a) 0°C to 768°C
(b) 768°℃ to 900°C
(c) 900°C to 1400°C
(d) 1400°C to 1530°℃
72. Poor machinability of centrifugally cast
iron pipe is due to:
(a) Chilling
(b) Segregation
(c) Dense structure
(d) High mould rotation speed
[IES-1998]
73. In a eutectic system, two elements are
completely:
(a) Insoluble in solid and liquid state
(b) Soluble in liquid state
(c) Soluble in solid state
(d) Insoluble in liquid state
[IES-1999]
74. In iron - carbon diagram the abscissae is:
(a) Carbon percentage
(b) Temperature
(c) Time
(d) None of these
[IES-1992]
75. Iron-carbon equilibrium diagram:
(a) Correlates the microstructure and
properties of steel and cast iron
(b) Indicates the phase changes occuring
during heating and cooling
528
(c) Is made by plotting carbon percentage
along x-axis and temperature along
y-axis
76. Match List I (Loaded cylindrical bar) with
List II (Type of fracture) and select the
the lists:
List-I
(Loaded
cylinder bar)
A. CI bar
subjected to
tension
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
B. CI bar under 2. Granular
helicoidal
torsion
C. MS bar
under
torsion
3. Granular plan
perpendicular
axis
D. MS bar under 4. Granular plain at
tension
45° to axis
Codes: A
3
5
3
5
List-II
(Type of fracture)
B
2
1
1. Cup and Cone
1
2
C D
4
1
3
4
3
78. Critical points for steels:
2
2
1
[IES-2002]
77. The correct sequence of the given materials
in ascending order of their weldability is:
(a) MS, copper, cast iron, aluminium
(b) Cast iron, MS, aluminium, copper
(c) Copper, cast iron, MS, aluminium
(d) Aluminium, copper, cast iron, MS
[IES-1999]
lists:
(a) May change in number on heating or
cooling
(b) Causes change in physical properties
(c) Causes change in chemical
composition of steel
79. Match List I (Phase diagram) with List
II (Characteristic) and select the correct
Answers
List-I
List-II
A. Isomorphous 1. One liquid
system
B. Eutectic
system
C. Peritectic
system
D. Monotectic
system
Codes: A
2
4
(c)
(d)
(a)
(b)
2
4
B
3
1
1
3
decomposes
into another
liquid and solid
2. One liquid
and another
solid combine
to form a new
solid
3. Two metals
are completely
soluble in
liquid state and
completely
insoluble in
solid state
4. Two metals,
soluble in solid
and liquid state
C
4
2
4
2
D
1
3
3
1
[IES-2002]
80. The steel making process, which is a
combination of acidic Bessemer and basic
open hearth process, is known as:
(a) Duplex process
(b) L-D process
(c) Electric process
[IES-2002]
81. The correct composition of austenitic
stainless steel used for domestic utensils is:
(a) 0.08% C, 18% Cr, 8% Ni 2% Mn, 1% Si
(b) 0.8% C, 24% Cr. 12% Ni, 2% Mn, 1%
Si
(c) 0.15% C, 12% Cr. 0.5% Ni, 1% Mn,
1% Si
(d) 0.30% C, 12% Cr. 0.4% Ni, 1% Mn,
1% Si
[IES-2002]
82. When a steel containing more than 0.8%
carbon is cooled slowly below the lower
critical point, it contains
(a) Ferrite mainly (b) Pearlite mainly
(c) Ferrite and pearlite
(d) Pearlite and cementite [IES-2002]
83. Match the terms used in connection
with heat-treatment of steel with the
microstructural / physical characteristics:
Terms
A. Pearlite
B. Martensite 2. Cementite is finely
dispersed in ferrite
C. Austenite
D. Eutectoid
Characteristics
1. Extremely hard and
brittle phase
82. (d)
88. (b)
3. Alternate layers
of cementite and
ferrite
4. Can exist only
above 723°C
5. Pertaining to state
of equilibrium
between one liquid
and two solid phase
84. The machinability of steel is increased by:
(a) Silicon and Sulphur
(b) Phosphorus, lead and sulphur
83. (a, 3); (b, 1); (c, 4); (d, 5)
89. (d)
Answers
1. Purpose of heat treatment is to:
(a) Improve mechanical and electrical
properties
(c) Remove gases
(b) Increase resistance to wear, heat and
corrosion
(c) Sulphur, graphite and aluminium
(d) Phosphorous and aluminium
85. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased
by adding:
(a) Chromium
(b) Nickel
(c) Aluminium
(d) Tungsten
86. Pearlite is a combination of:
(a) Ferrite and cementite
(b) Cementite and austenite
(c) Ferrite and austenite
(d) Ferrite and iron graphite
87. Small percentage of boron is added to steel to
(a) Increases hardenability
(b) Reduce machinability
(c) Increases wear resistance
(d) Increase endurance strength
12.8. HEAT TREATMENT
2. In heat treatment process, to obtain certain
desirable properties:
[IES-1992]
88. The blade of a power hacksaw is made of:
(a) Boron steel
(b) High speed steel
(c) Stainless steel
(d) Malleable cast iron
[IES-1993]
89. T.T.T diagram indicates time and
temperature transformation of:
(a) Cementite (b) Pearlite
(c) Ferrite
(d) Austenite
84. (a) 85. (a)
529
86. (a)
87. (a)
(a) Heating of metal is done in a solid
state
(b) Cooling of metal is done in a solid
state
(c) Heating or cooling of metal is done
in a solid state
(a) Raises the yield point of material
(b) Produces a better surface finish
(c) Introduces a compressive layer on the
surface
530
3. Which of the following statements are true
for annealing of steels?
1. Steels are heated to 500 to 700°C
2. Cooling is done slowly and steadily
3. Internal stress are relieved
4. Ductility of steel is reduced
given below codes:
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
[IES-1993]
4. Recrystallisation temperature is one at
which:
(a) Crystal start growing in size
(b) Change of allotropic form takes place
(c) New spherical crystals first begin to
form the old deformed ones when a
strained metal is heated
(d) Crystal again begin to appear
5. Consider the following statements:
1. A temperature gradient exists in the
component
2. The component is free from any
restraint
3. It is restrained to exapand or contract
freely
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 alone
(d) 2 alone
[IES-2002]
6. Temperature at which the first tiny new
grain appears, is known as:
(a) Melting temperature
(b) Recrystallisation temperature
(c) Boiling temperature
[IES-2002]
7. Carburised machine components have high
endurance limit because carburisation:
(d) Suppresses any stress concentration
produced in the component
[GATE-92]
8. Recrystallisation temperature depends
upon:
(a) Type and purity of metal
(b) Grain size
(c) Annealing time
9. Purpose of heat treatment is to:
(a) Produce hard surface on a ductile
interior
(b) Improve machinability
(c) Change grain size
10. Tempering temperature of most of the
materials is of the order of:
(a) 100-150°C (b) 200-300°C
(c) 350-400°C (d) 100-500°C
[Leet-99]
11. Process of austempering results in
formation of:
(a) Bainite structure
(b) Carburised structure
(c) Martensite structure
12. Heat treatment process is:
(a) Hardening by quenching
(b) Normalising
(c) Annealing
13. Heat treatment:
[IES-1999]
(a) Is effective only with certain alloys
(b) Depends upon cooling rate
(c) Both (a) and (b) above
14. Process of heating iron base alloys to
approximately 40°C above the critical
temperature range followed by cooling
to below that range in still air at ordinary
temperature is known as:
(a) Normalising (b) Annealing
(c) Tempering (d) Spheriodising
15. Guidways of lathe beds are hardened by:
(a) Carburising (b) Cyanding
(c) Nitriding
(d) Flame hardening
16. By normalising of steel, its:
[IES-1997]
(a) Ultimate tensile strength increases
(b) Yield point increases
(c) Ductility decreases
17. Normalising of steel is done to:
(a) Refine grain structure
(b) Remove dislocations caused in the
internal structure due to hot working
(c) Remove strains caused by cold
working
18. Heat treatment process used for castings is:
(d) Hardening
(c) Tempering
19. The hypo-eutectoid steel is heated 30°C to
50°C above the upper critical temperature
and then cooled slowly in the furnace, is:
(a) Normalising (b) Full annealing
(c) Process annealing
(d) Hardening
20. To relieve internal stresses previously
set up on the metal and to increase
machinability of steel, process used is:
(a) Normalising
(b) Full annealing
(c) Process annealing
(d) Hardening
Amanors
21. Annealing of steel is done to:
(a) Soften the metal
(b) Improve machinability
(c) Relieve internal stresses
22. onsider the following treatments:
1. Normalising 2. Hardening
3. Martempering 4. Cold working
Hardness and tensile strength in austenitic
steel can be increased by
(b) 1 and 3
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 4 alone
[IES-1994]
23. Match the terms used in connection with
heat treatment of steel with the micro
structural/physical characteristics:
Terms
A. Pearlite
B. Martensite 2.
C. Austenite
D. Eutectoid
Characteristics
1. Extremely hard
and brittle phase
Fine dispersion of
cementite in ferrite
Alternate layers
of cementite and
ferrite
3.
4. Can exist only
upto 723°C
5. State of
531
equilibrium
between three
solid phases
6. State of
equilibrium
between one liquid
and two solid
phase
[GATE-92]
24. Process of production of articles having a
soft ductile interior and a very hard surface,
is known as:
(a) Hardness
(b) Tempering
(c) Case-hardening (d) Annealing
532
25. Process of inducing carbon to low carbon
steel to get a hard surface, is known as:
(a) Carburising
(b) Cyaniding
(c) Nitriding
(d) Flame hardening
the lists
List-I
(Heat treatment)
A. Nitriding
B. Annealing
Codes: A
3
1
1
3
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
List-II
(Effect on
properties)
C. Martempering 3. Improves
surface
hardness
1. Improves the
D. Normalising 4. Improve
ductility
B
2
2
3
4
(a) 0.15%
(c) 1.5%
2. Refined grain
structure
hardness of the
whole mass
C
4
3
4
2
D
1
4
2
1
(a) Case carburising
(b) Flame hardening (c) Nitriding
(d) Any of the above
processes
[IES-1995]
27. Carburising is done on steel with carbon
percentage:
(b) 0.7%
(d) 2%
28. Process of adding carbon and nitrogen to
increase hardness at the surface is known
as:
(a) Carburising (b) Cyaniding
(c) Nitriding
(d) None of the these.
29. Quenching in not necessary when
hardening is done by:
[IES-1992]
30. Nitriding is a process for:
(a) Normalising
(b) Annealing
(c) Case hardening (d) Tempering
31. Induction hardness is basically a:
(a) Carburising process
(b) Surface hardening process
[IES-1992]
(c) Core-hardening process
32. Process of reheating the hardened steel to
some temperature below theoretical range,
followed by any rate of cooling is known
as:
(c) Tempering (d) Spheroidising
33. Consider the following quenching media:
2. Water
1. Oil
3. Water + NaOH
4. Brine
The correct sequence of these media
in order of increasing hardness of steel
undergoing heat treatment is
(a) 1, 3, 2, 4
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4
(a) Normalising
(c) Tempering
(b) 2, 1, 3, 4
(d) 4, 3, 2, 1
[IES-2001]
34. Heat treatment process used to soften
hardened steel is:
(b) Annealing
(d) Spheroidising
35. The process in which the steel is
heated slightly above the lower critical
temperature and then cooled slowly to a
temperature of 600°C is known as:
(c) Tempering (d) Spheroidising
following pairs is
36. Which one of the
correctly matched?
(a) Solid solution
strengthening
Increasing density
of dislocations
(b) Disperion-
hardening
(c)
Strain-
hardening
(c) Precipitation-
hardening
Creating strained
region in the crystal
Creating particles
to resist the
movement of
dislocations
37. Sorbite is obtained by:
(a) Annealing of steel
(b) Quenching steel during transformation
(c) Both (a) and (b) above
1. Bronze is an alloy of:
(a) Copper and zinc
(b) Copper and tin
Creating particles
by decreasing
solubility of one
phase in another.
38. "Tempering' of quenched martensitic steel
is necessary to improve the:
(a) Hardness of the metal
(b) Surface texture of the metal
(c) Corrosion resistance of the metal
[IES-2001]
(d) Ductility of the metal
39. In powder metallurgy, the operation carried
out to improve the heating property a bush
is called:
(a) Infiltration
(b) Impregnation
37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (d)
12.9. NON-FERROUS
2. Quartz is a
(c) Copper, tin and zinc
[IES-2001]
(a) Ferro-electric
(b) Ferro-magnetic
(c) Piezo-electric
(d) Diamagnetic
material:
(c) Plating
(d) Heat treatment
[IES-1993]
[IES-1998]
40. Heating the hypoeutectoid steels to 30°C
above the upper critical temperature
line, soaking at the temperature and then
cooling slowly to room temperature to
form a pearlite and Ferrite structure, is
known as:
(a) Hardening (b) Normalising
(c) Tempering (d) Annealing
[IES-1999]
41. Cast steel crank shaft surface is hardened
by:
(a) Nitriding
(b) Normalising
(c) Carburising
(d) Induction heating
[GATE-2000]
42. On completion of heat treatment, the
resulting structure will have retained
Austenite if:
Answers
41. (c)
533
(a) Rate of cooling is greater than the
critical cooling rate
(b) Rate of cooling is less than the critical
cooling rate
(c) Martensite formation starting tempe-
rature is above the room temperature
(d) Martensite formation finish tempe-
rature is below the room temperature
42. (a)
METALS AND ALLOYS
3. German silver contains:
(a) 60% copper and 40% zinc
(b) 50% copper and 40% zinc
(c) 60.45% copper, 35.2% and 4.35%
nickel
(d) 70% copper and 30% zinc
4. German silver contains:
(a) 1% silver
(c) 10% silver
[IES-1993]
(b) 5% silver
(d) No silver
534
5. Carbide-tipped cutting tools are
manufactured by powder-metal technology
process and have a composition of:
(a) Zirconium - Tungsten (35% -65%)
(b) Tungsten carbide-Cobalt (90%-10%)
(c) Aluminium oxide-Silica (70%-30%)
(d) Nickel-Chromium Tungsten
[IES-2001]
(30%-15%-55%)
6. Solder is an alloy of:
(a) Copper and tin
(b) Lead and tin
(c) Lead and copper
(d) Aluminium and copper
7. An example of brass is:
(a) Muntz metal
(c) Delta metal
the lists:
List-I
(Material)
A. Tungsten
carbide
B. Silicon
nitride
C. Aluminium
oxide
D. Silicon
carbide
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Codes: A
A WA WA
3
4
3
4
(b) Gun metal
(b) Non-equilibrium and equilibrium
conditions respectively
(c) Equilibrium conditions for both
(d) Non-equilibrium conditions for both
[IES-1992]
List-II
(Application)
1. Abrasive wheels
2. Heating
elements
3. Pipes for
conveying liquid
metals
4. Drawing dies
B C D
4
1
2
3
2
1
4
2
1
3
1
2
[IES-1999]
9. The iron-carbon diagram and the TTT
curves are determined under:
(a) Equilibrium and non-equilibrium
10. Example of bronze is:
(a) Muntz is
(b) Gun metal
(c) Delta metal
[GATE-96]
For precision machining of non-ferrous
alloys, diamond is preferred because it has
1. Low coefficient of thermal expansion
2. High wear resistance
3. High compression strength
4. Low fracture toughness
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
[IES-1999]
the lists:
List-I
(Material/Part)
A. Ductile iron
B. Malleable
iron
C. Rail steel
joints
D. White cast
iron
Codes: A
1
(a)
(b)
5
2
1
B
3
3
1
4
List-II
(Techniques)
1. Inoculation
2. Chilled
3. Annealing
4. Thermit welding
5. Isothermal
annealing
C
4
2
4
2
D
2
1
5
3
[I.A.S-1995]
13. Gun metal contains:
(a) 60% copper and 40% zinc
(b) 88% copper, 10% tin and 2% zinc
(c) 70% copper and 30% zinc
14. Addition of which of the following
improves machining of copper?
(b) Vanadium
(d) Zinc
(a) Sulphur
(c) Tin
[IES-1992]
15. The alloying element mainly used to
improve the endurance strength of steel
materials is:
(a) Nickel
(b) Vanadium
(c) Molybdenum (d) Tungsten
[GATE-97]
16. Match List I (Ingredients) with List II
(Welding functions) and select the correct
lists:
List-1
(Ingredients)
C. Ferro silicon
D. Cellulose
A. Silica
B. Potassium 2. De-oxidizer
silicate
Codes: A
B
(a) 3
4
(b) 2
1
(c) 3 1
(a)
2
4
17. Permalloy is:
(Welding functions)
1. Arc stabilizer
3. Fluxing agent
4. Gas forming
material
C
2
3
List-II
2
WN
3
D
1
4
4
1
[IES-1992]
(a) An alloy similar to carbides
(b) A non ferrous alloy containing nickel
copper and chromium
(c) A nickel and iron alloy having high
permeability
[IES-1992]
18. Monel metal consists of:
(a) Nickel, lead and tin
(b) Nickel and copper
(c) Nickel, zinc and copper
(d) Nickel, zinc and aluminium
19. Monel metal contains:
(a) 68% nickel, 29% copper and 3% other
constituents
(b) 70% nickel, 30% chromium
(c) 80% nickel, 14% chromium, 6% iron
20. Cast alloy consists of:
(a) Copper and nickel
(b) Copper and aluminium
(c) Molybdenum and nickel
(d) Nickel and aluminium
21. Constantan alloy consists of:
(a) Copper and nickel
(b) Copper and aluminium
(c) Nickel and Molybdenum
(d) Nickel and aluminium
22. Inconel is alloy containing:
(a) Nickel, copper and zinc
(b) Nickel, chromium and iron
(c) Nickel and chromium
(d) Nickel, chromium and copper
23. Nichrome is an alloy containing:
(a) Nickel and chromium
(b) Nickel, chromium and zinc
(c) Nickel, chromium and copper
(d) Nickel, chromium and iron
535
24. Nichrome contains iron as compared to
inconel is:
(b) Less
(a) More
(c) Same
25. Beryllium bronze contains:
(a) 97.25% copper and 2.75% beryllium
(b) 90% copper and 10% beryllium
(c) 80% copper and 20% beryllium
536
26. Silicon bronze contains:
(a) 96% copper, 3% silicon and 1% Mn
(b) 96% copper, 1% silicon and 3% Mn
(c) 97.25% copper, 1.75% silicon and 1%
Mn
27. Beryllium bronze has:
(a) High yield point
(b) High fatigue
(c) Low fatigue limit
(d) Both (a) and (b) above
28. Babbitt metal is:
(a) Copper base alloy
(b) Tine base alloy
(c) Cadmium base alloy
29. A Babbitt metal is:
1. Silicon steels
transformer
stampings
2. Duralumin
cooking utensils
3. Gun metal
bearings
given below:
(a) A gaget for measuring volume
(b) An eutectic of iron phosphide
(c) Antimony bearing lead or tin alloy
30. Cermets are:
(a) Metals for high temperature use with
ceramic like properties
(b) Ceramics with metallic strength and
lustre
(c) Coated tool materials
(d) Metal - ceramic composites
31. Which of the following is used for
limitation jewellery?
(a) Duralumin
(b) Aluminium bronze
(c) Gun metal
(d) Silicon bronze
[IES-2002]
32. Aluminium alloy commonly used for
utensils is:
(a) Duralumin
(b) y-alloy
(c) Babbit alloy (d) Hindalium
33. Which of the following pairs are correctly
matched?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(d)
34. Phosphorus bronze has:
(a) High resistance to corrosion
(b) Good wearing qualities and high
elasticity
35. Manganese bronze has:
1, 2 and 3
(c) Good cold working property
[IES-1994]
(b) Good wearing qualities and high
elasticity
(c) Good cold working property
36. Doe metal is an alloy of:
37. A bearing alloy should have
[IES-1992]
(a) Copper, aluminium and magnesium
(b) Copper, zinc and molybdenum
(c) Tin, lead and antimony
39. Bearing alloy preferred
bearing is:
(b) High compressive strength
(c) Low coefficient strength
(d) Resistance to shocks and vibrations
38. Bearing alloy preferred for heavy load
bearings is:
(a) Phosphorus bronze
(b) White metal
(c) Monel metal
(d) Brass
(a) Phosphorus (b) Whiter metal
(c) Brass
(d) Monel metal
for light load
40. Bush bearings is:
(a) Phosphorus bronze
(b) Aluminium bronze
(c) White metal alloy
41. Alloys of copper with lead increases:
(a) Hardness
(b) Machinability
(c) Weldability
(d) Strength and ductility
42. Alloy of copper with manganse increases:
(a) Hardness (b) Machinability
(c) Weldability (d) Tensile strength
43. Alloying aluminium with silicon increases
its:
(a) Hardness (b) Casting ability
(c) Tensile strength (d) All of the above
44. Alloy of the copper with silicon increases:
(a) Hardness and strength
(b) Ductility
(c) Machinability
(d) Weldability
45. Alloy of copper and nickel increases:
(a) Hardness
(b) Strength
(c) Machinability (d) Weldability
46. Alloy not containing tin is:
(a) Gun metal
(b) Phosphorus bronze
(c) White metal
47. Corrosion resistance of steel is increased
by alloying with:
(a) Sulphur
(c) Cobalt and vanadium
(d) Chromium
40. (c) 41. (b)
48. (b) 49. (a)
(b) Silicon
48. Magnesium alloy are:
1. When the atoms are arranged haphazard in
a material, it is known as:
(a) Highly machineable
(b) Light
(c) Resistant to corrosion
(d) Magnetic
49. Basic constituents of monel Metal are:
(a) Nickel, copper
(b) Nickel, molybdenum
(c) Zinc, tin and lead
50. Duralumin contains:
(a) 94% aluminium, 4% copper and 0.5%
Mn, Mg, Si and Fe
(b) 92.5% aluminium, 4% copper, 2%
nickel and 1.5% Mg
Answers
(c) 100% aluminium and 90% copper
(d) 90% magnesium and 9% aluminium
with some copper.
51. Satellites is a non-ferrous cast alloy
composed of:
537
(a) Cobalt, chromium and tungsten
(b) Tungsten, chromium and vanadium
(c) Tungsten, molybdenum and cobalt
(d) Molybdenum, vanadium and cobalt
52. White metal is an alloy of lead with:
(a) Aluminium (b) Tin
(c) Zinc
53. Brass is an alloy of copper and:
(a) Lead
(b) Zinc
(d) Antimony
42. (d)
43. (b)
44. (a)
45. (a)
50. (a)
51. (a)
52. (d) 53. (b)
12.10 NON-METALLIC MATERIALS
(d) Bismuth
(c) Tin
54. Bell metal is used for making bell in an
alloy of copper with:
(a) Lead
(c) Tin & zinc
(b) Tin
(d) Lead & zinc
46. (c)
54. (b)
47. (d)
(c) Crystalline material
538
2. Match List I (Material) with List II
(Application) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists:
List-II
List-I
A. Ceramics
1. Construction of
chemical plants
B. Refractories 2. Columns and
pillars
3. Lining of
furnaces
C. Stones
D. High silicon
glass
4. Tiles
Codes: A B C
(a)
4
3
2
(b)
2 1
4
(c)
4
1
(d)
2
3
3. When the atoms are arranged regularly
in some direction but not in others, in a
material, it is known as:
2
4
(c) Crystalline material
4. Cubic born nitride (CBN):
D
1
3
3
1
3. Softened on heating and hardened on
cooling for any number of times
4. Moulded by heating cooling
Which of these statements are correct:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
(a) Has a very high hardness which is
comparable to that of nitrogen
(b) Has a hardness which is slightly more
than that of high speed steel
5. Amorphous material is
(a) Mica
(c) Brass
(c) Is used for making cylinder block of
aircraft engines
(d) Is used for making optical glasses
[IES-1996]
(b) Glass
(d) Siiver
Thermo setting plastics are
1. Formed by addition polymerisation
2. Formed by condensation polyme-
risation
7. Mesomorphous material is:
(a) Mica
(c) Brass
8. Polymers can:
[IES-1996]
(b) Glass
(d) Silver
(a) Be vaporised and recycled
(b) Not be vaporised and recycled
(c) Be vaporised but cannot be recycled
(d) Neither be vaporised but can be
recycled
9. Which of the following fibre materials
are used for reinforcement in composite
materials:
2. Boron carbide
(a) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
1. Glass
3. Graphite
given below:
Codes:
(b) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
[IES-2002]
10. Which one of the following materials is
used for car tyres as a standard materials?
(a) Styrene-butadiene rubber
(b) Butyl rubber
(c) Nitrile rubber
(d) Any of the above depending upon the
need.
[IES-1997]
11. Which of the following pairs of plastics
and their modes of formation are correctly
matched?
1. Polythene: Condensation
polymerisation
2. Polycarbonate: addition
polymerisation
3. Polychrome: addition polymerisation
4. Polyamide: either by addition or by
condensation polymerisation
given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 4
12. Plastics are:
(b) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
[IES-1994]
(a) Bad conductor of heat and electricity
(b) Good conductor of heat and electricity
(c) Good conductor of heat and bad
conductor of electricity
(d) Bad conductor of heat and good
conductor of electricity
13. Which of the following refractory materials
is recomended for steel furnaces containing
CaO slags?
(a) Alumina
(c) Magnesia
(b) Silica
(d) Fire clay
[IES-1997]
14. Thermosetting plastics are materials which:
(a) Become soft on application of heat
and can be moulded again
(b) Do not become hard with the
application of heat and pressure and
no chemical change occurs
(c) Permanently set with heat and
pressure and can not be deformed
when again subjected to heat
(d) Production on synthesis basic
15. Consider the following pairs of plastics and
their distinct characteristics:
1. Acrtylics ... Very good transparency
to light
2. Polycarbonate ... Poor impact
resistance
3. PTFE... Low coefficient of friction
4. Polypropylene Excellent fatigue
strength
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
[IES-1999]
16. Which of the following materials are used
in Grinding wheel?
1. Aluminium oxide
2. Cubic boron nitride
3. Silicon carbide
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
given below:
Codes:
539
(b)
and 2
(d) 1 and 3
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
[IES-2002]
17. Which of the following components can
be manufactured by powder metallurgy
methods?
1. Carbide tool tip 2. Bearing
3. Filters
4. Brake linings
[IES-1992]
given below:
Codes:
(b) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
[IES-1997]
18. Thermo-plastic materials are produced by:
(a) Die-casting process
(b) Shell moulding process
(c) Cold forming process
(d) Injection moulding process
19. Fillers are added to plastics to:
(a) Improve flow
(b) Reduce brittleness
(c) Facilitate processibility
(d) Reduce cost
[IES-1992]
20. Thermo setting materials are produced by:
(a) Cast moulding process
(b) Injection moulding process
(c) Extrusion process
540
21. The percentage of phosphorous in phosphor
bronze is:
(a) 0.1
(c) 11.1
(b) 1
(d) 98
[IES-1992]
22. Thermo plastic materials cannot be
produced by:
(a) Injection moulding process
(b) Extrusion process
(c) Blow moulding process
(d) Both (a) and (b) above
26. Polyesters belong to the group of:
(a) Thermoplastic plastics
(b) Thermosetting plastics
(c) Phenolics
27. Visco elastic behaviour is common in:
(b) Plastics
23. Which of the following statement is
incorrect about duralumin?
(a) It is prone to age hardening
(b) It can be forged
(c) It has good machining properties
(d) It is lighter than pure aluminium
[IES-1992]
24. A material is known as allotropic or
polymorphic if it:
(a) Has a fixed structure under all
conditions
(b) Exists in several crystal forms at
different temperatures
(c) Responds to heat treatment
(d) Has its atoms dsitributed in a random
pattern
The strength of the fibre reinforced plastic
product
1. Depends upon the strength of the fibre
alone
2. Depends upon the fibre and plastic
3. Is isotropic
(a) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
4. Is anisotropic
(b) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
[IES-1999]
(a) Rubber
(c) Crystalline materials
(d) Non-crystalline organic polymers
Polytetra-fluoroethene is
1. A thermoplastic material
2. Having high friction coefficient
3. A thermosetting material
4. Having low friction coefficient
5. An electric insulator
6. Non sticking to surfaces
[IES-2002]
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 5
(b) 2, 3 and 6
(c) 3, 4 and 5
(d) 3, 2 and 5
29. Match List I (materials) and List II
(applications) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below:
List-I
List-II
A. Engineering 1. Bearings
ceramics
B. Fibre
reinforced
plastic
C. Synthetic
D. Boron
Codes: A
(a)
(b)
(c)
AL14
4
B
2
4
4
3
2. Control rods in
nuclear reactors
3. Aerospace
industry
4. Electrical
insulator
C D
3
4
3
3
1
NNN
2
2
2
[IES-2004]
12.11. IMPORTANT QUESTIONS
1. Consider the following statements: 6. The phase rule is expressed mathematically
Alloying elements are added to
as
1. Improve hardness and toughness
2. Corrosion and oxidation resistance
imporvement
(a) P=F+C+2 (b) P+F=C+2
(c) P+F=C (d) P+F=C-2
[HSPC-2013]
7. Consider the following statements
regarding composite materials:
3. Improve mechinability and hardena-
bility
4. Increase weight and volume
Which of these statments are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
[IES-2010]
2. The melting point of mild steel is
approximately
(a) 600°C
(c) 1000°C
(b) 800°C
1500°C
(d)
[HPSC-2013]
3. Isothermal annealing is mainly used in
alloy steels to improve.
(a) Machinability (b) Toughness
(c) Ductility
(d) Weldability
[IES-2010]
4. The capacity of metal to exhibit
considerable elastic recovery upon release
of load, is known as
(a) toughness (b) hardness
(c) stiffness
(d) resilience
[HPSC-2013]
5. Plastic material is used for the component
which requires characteristics as
(a) Low density, machinability and high
strength
(b) Machinability, high strength and large
plastic deformation
(c) High strength, large platic deformation
and low density
(d) Low density, machinability and large
plastic deformation [IES-2010]
1. Material is termed as advanced
composite, if fibres are directionally
oriented and continuous.
541
2. Reinforced fibre glass products are
strong and light weight
3. Concrete is reinforced with steel rebar,
the rebar becomes matrix
4. Pearlitic steels are composite materials
Which of these statments are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
[IES 2010]
8. Addition of copper to aluminium results in
(a) Precipitation hardening system
(b) Corrosion resistance
(c) Grain refinement
(d) High machinability
[ISRO]
9. Anodising is
(a) A process od coating of zinc by hot
dipping
(b) A zinc diffusion process
(c) A process used for making thin
phosphate coatings on steel to act as a
base or primer for enamels and paints
(d) An oxidising process used for
aluminium and magnesium articles
[ISRO]
10. High carbon steel carries carbon percentage
of
(a) 0.1 to 0.3%
(c) 0.6 to 0.8%
(b) 0.3 to 0.6%
(d) 0.8 to 1.5%
[ISRO-2010]
542
11. In order to measure/detect materials
by non-destructive testing the method
generally used is:
(a) Acoustic emission
(b) Infrared radiometer
(c) Liquid crystallography
(d) Thermochemic point [ISRO-2010]
12. Shock resistance steels should have
(d) Magnesium content
[IES-2011]
18. Structure of common glass is
(a) Amorphous
(b) Partially crystalline
(a) Low water resistance
(b) High water resistance
(c) Touchness
(d) Poor hardenability [ISRO-2010]
13. The main alloying elements in high speed
steel in order of increasing proportion are
(a) Vanadium, chromium, tungsten
(b) Tungsten, titanium, vanadium
(c) Chromium, titanium, vanadium
(d) Tungsten, chromium, titanium
[ISRO-2010]
14. Aluminium Bronze is also known as
(a) Muntz metal (b) White metal
(c) Duraluminium (d) Imitation gold
[IES-2011]
15. Which one of the following is the major
alloying element in Invar?
(a) Aluminium (b) Nickel
(c) Vanadium (d) Copper
[IES-2011]
16. Liquid + solid (1) on cooling converting
into solid (2) reaction is known as
(a) Eutectoid reaction
(b) Eutectic reaction
(c) Periodotic reaction
(d) Peritectoid reaction [IES-2011]
17. In the designation of Aluminium casting
A514.0 14 indicates
(a) Aluminium purity
(b) Aluminium content
(c) Percentage of alloy element
19.
(c) Fully crystalline
Babbit is an alloy of
(a) Sn, Cu, Sb and Pb
(b) Sn and Cu
(c) Sn, Cu, and Pb (d) Sn, Cu and Sb
[IES-2011]
20. The iron carbon diagram and the TTT
curves are determined under:
(a) non-equilibrium and equilibrium
(b) equilibrium and non-equilibrium
[IES-2011]
(c) non-equilibrium conditons for both
(d) equilibrium conditions for both
[HPSC-2014]
21. In nodular iron, graphite is in the form of
(a) Cementite (b) Free carbon
(c) Flakes
(d) Sypheroids
[ISRO]
22. Hardness of steel depends on
(a) Amount of carbon it contains
(b) The shape and distribution of the
carbides in iron
(c) Method of fabrication
(d) Contents of alloying elements
[ISRO]
23. Which of the following has maximum
hardness
(a) Austenite
(c) Troostite
(b) Pearlite
(d) Martensite
24. Hardness of martensite is about
(a) RC 65
(b) RC 48
(c) RC 57
(d) RC 80
[ISRO]
[ISROI
25. Which is false statment about annealing.
Annealing is done to
(a) Relieve stresses
(b) Harden steel slightly
(c) Improve machining characteristics
(d) Soften material
[ISRO]
26. Materials exhibiting time bound behaviour
are known as
(a) Visco elastic (b) Anelastic
(c) Isentropic (d) Resilient
[ISRO]
27. Kevlar Epoxy composite is widely used in
(a) Automobiles (b) Aerospace
(c) Navy
(d) Interior decoration
28. Admiralty Brass is used for
(a) Condenser tubes (b) Rivets
(c) Piston rods (d) Utensils
29. 'Whiskers' are
List-I
A. Gun metal
B. Phosphor
bronze
(a) Very thin metallic particles
(b) Very thin single crystals
(c) Very thin polycrystals
(d) Fiber particles of aspect ratio less than
10
[IES-2011]
30. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct anwer using the code given below
the lists:
C. Gray cast
iron
D. Al alloy
Codes: A
3
4
3
4
[IES-2011]
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
B
1
1
2
2
[IES-2011]
List-II
1. Worm wheel
2. Cylinder block
3. Piston
4. Bushings
C
D
2
4
2
3
1 4
1
3
DES-20111
31. Lead is widely used in
(a) Transformers
(b) Switch gear
(c) Galvanized pipes
(d) Batteries
32. Troosite is obtained when
(a) Quenching steel during transformation
(b) A fully hardened steel is finally drawn
at about 677°C
543
(c) Steel is rapidly quenched in oil
(d) When alloy steels are rapidly quenched
in water
[ISRO]
[IES-2011]
33. Induction hardening is the process of
(a) Hardening the core
(b) Uniform hardening
(c) Selective hardening
(d) Hardening surface for wear resistance
[ISRO]
34. Which one is not the purpose of heat
treatment of steels
(a) Changing the composition of steel on
the surface
(b) Changing the percentage of carbon
and Si in the bulk
(a) Creep
(c) Strees concentration
(c) Increasing or decreasing the grain size
(d) Removing undesirable residual
[ISRO]
stresses
35. On loading a ductile material in excess
of a certain value, gradual increase
in elongation occurs with time. Such
phenomenon is known as:
(b) Fatigue
36. Rivets are made of
(a) Soft material
(b) Hard material
(c) Ductile material
(d) Brittle material
[ISRO]
[ISRO, HPSC 2003]
544
37. Corrosion resistance of steel increases by
addition of
(a) Vanadium, aluminium
(b) Sulphur, phosphorous, lead
(c) Chromium and Nickel
(d) Tungsten, molybdenum, vanadium,
chromium
[ISRO]
38. Interstitial Free Steels are used for
(a) Forging crank shafts
(b) Making of car bodies
(c) Making of tall buildings
(d) Making of steel rails for high speed
tractions
[IES-2012]
39. PVC stands for
(c) Tensile strength in N/mm² and
elongation in %
(d) Tensile strength in kg/mm² and
elongation in % [IES-2012]
(a) Plastic very compact
(b) Polythene vinyl chloride
(c) Phosphorus vanadium compound
(d) Poly vinyl chloride
[BHEL]
40. Which of the following case hardening
processes, result in a change in the
composition in a steel component?
1. Carburizing 2. Cyaniding
3. Nitriding
4. Flame hardening
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 1,3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
[IES-2012]
41. Which of the following is a copper free
alloy?
(a) Brass
(b) Phosphor bronze
(c) Invar
(d) Muntz metal
[NTPC]
42. Spheroidal or nodular graphite iron is
designated as SG 500/7. Here 500 and '7'
stand for
(a) Proof stress in N/mm² and elongation
in %
(b) Tensile strength in N/mm² and impact
strength in N-m
43. Ferrites are:
(a) Ferro-magnetic
(b) Ferri-magnetic
(c) Para-magnetic
(d) Anti-magnetic
44. Which of the following belong to
thermoplastics?
1. Natural resins
2. Phenol formaldehyde
3. Polystyrene
4. Poly vinyl chloride
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b)
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d)
1,2 and 3 only
2, 3 and 4 only
[IES-2012]
45. The connecting leads of an IC are made
of
(a) Silicon
(c) Aluminium (d) Carbon
(b) Germanium
[BHEL]
46. In Eutectoid reaction a solid phase
transforms into two other solid phases
upon cooling. Whic one of the following
is correct in the case of Eutectoid reaction
occuring in Iron-Carbon phase diagram?
(a) Austenite converts to Ferrite and
Cementite
(b) Ferrite converts to Cementite and
Martensite
(c) Cementite converts to Austenite and
Ferrite
(d) Martensite converts to Ferrite and
Cementite
[IES-2013]
47. Decreasing grain size in a polycrystalline
material
(a) Decreases yield strength and corrosion
resistance
(b) Increases yield strength and corrosion
resistance
(c) Increases yield strength but decreases
corrosion resistance
(d) Decreases yield strength but increases
corrosion resistance [HPSC-2014]
48. Tungsten in High Speed Steel provides
(a) Hot hardness (b) Toughness
(c) Wear resistance
(d) Sharp cutting edge [ISRO-2011]
49. Precipitation hardening is applicable for
(a) Pure aluminium
(b) Low carbon steel
(c) Non mental
(d) Aluminium-Copper alloy
[ISRO-2011]
50. In radiographic test, type of defect not
detectable by X-Ray is
(a) Delamination in cladded sheet
(b) Porosity in castings
(c) Tungsten inclusion in TIG weld
(d) Under cut in metal arc welding
[ISRO-2011]
51. Which of the following methods are used
for protection against fracture?
1. Avoid sharp corners and notches in
the part to eliminate points of stress
concentration
2. Provide better finish to the surface by
polishing
3. Introduce residual tensile stresses on
the surface
Which of these statements are correct :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d)
[IES-2003]
52. Bakelite is a
(a) acrylate
(b) silicon varnish
(c) thermoplastic synthetic resin
(d) phenol formaldehyde resin [NTPC]
53. Which of the following phase of steel is not
present in Iron-Carbon Phase diagram?
(a) Ferrite
(c) Austenite
(b) Cementite
(d) Martensite
[IES-2003]
54. All of the following substances are
hygroscopic except
(a) Silica gel
(b) Calcium chloride
(c) Sulphuric acid
(d) Sodium chloride
[BHEL]
55. Zirconium is a material of choice for
nuclear application as it:
(a) is transparent to neutrons
(b) is ductile
(c) has good wear properties
(d) absorbs radiation
(a) PVC
(c) PMMA
56. Windows of aeroplane are made of
(b) PTFE
(d) PEEK
545
57. Lead is widely used in
[IES-2003]
[IES-2011]
(a) transformers (b)
(c) galvanised pipes (d) batteries
switch gears
58. Vanadium in high speed steel:
[BHEL]
(a) Has a tendency to promote
decarburization
(b) Forms very hard carbides and thereby
increases the wear resistance of the
tool
(c) Helps in achieving high hot hardness
(d) Has tendency to promote retention of
Austenite
[IES-2013]
59. Silicon diodes are preferred to germanium
diodes for high temperature operation
because
(a) doping of silicon is a simple processes
(b) rate of increase of reverse saturation
current with temperature is more in
the case of silicon
(c) the reverse saturation current of
silicon diodes is smaller than that of
germanium
[BHEL]
546
60. Consider the following statements for a
composite material:
1. It is considered to be any multiple
material that exhibits a significant
proportion of the properties of both
constituents
2. Constituents phases in a composite
must be chemically similar
3. A matrix combined with a reinforcing
material is used in composite
4. Thermosetting epoxy resin is used as
matrix for some kinds of composites.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d)
2, 3 and 4
61. In 'plasma' state, a gas
(a) loses electrical conductivity
(b) attracts moisture
(a) Predominant nature of Cr present in
stainless steel
(b) The formation of thin film of oxygen
& moisture absorbed from the
atmosphere
[IES-2013]
(c) become perfect dielectric medium
(d) conducts electricity
[NTPC]
62. Sialon ceramic is used as:
(a) Cutting tool material
(b) Creep resistant
(c) Furnace linens
(d) Hide strength
[IES-2013]
63. For a magnetic material when temperature
is raised above Curie temperature, the
material will become
64. ABS plastic is:
(a) ferromagnetic (b) paramagnetic
(c) diamagnetic (d) semiconductor
[BHEL]
(b) Copolymer
(a) Monomer
(c) Homopolymer (d) Terpolymer
[IES-2013]
65. Which of the following statements is false
about annealing? Annealing is done to
(a) Harden Steel slightly
(b) Relieve Stress
(c) Soften metal
(d) Permit further cold working
[ISRO-2012]
66. The property of corrosion resistance of
chromium Stainless Steel is due to
(c) The formation of a thin film of Cr₂O3
on the surface of steel
(d) The inherent property of Cr to resist
corrosion
[ISRO-2012]
67. Hot working operation is carried out at
(a) Re-crystallization temperature
(b) Near plastic stage temperature
(c) Below re-crystallization
(d) Above re-crystallization
68. When a material sustains steady loads for
long periods of time, the material may
continue to deform until they may tend
to fracture under the same load. This
phenomenon is known as
(a) Creep
(c) Impact
(b) Fatigue
(d) Malleability
[ISRO-2012]
69. The most popular and standard type for all
purpose tool steels is 18:4:1 High Speed
Steel (H.S.S.), which contains.
(a) 18% chromium, 4% tungsten and 1%
vanadium
(b) 18% tungsten, 4% vanadium and 1%
chromium
(c) 18% tungsten, 4% chromium and 1%
vanadium
(d) 18% vanadium, 4% chromium and
1% tungsten
70. The correct statement is:
[ISRO-2012]
(a) Characteristic of any series of alloys
cannot be found by phase diagram
(b) Phase diagram does not give amount
of phases which are a function
of composition, temperature and
pressure
(c) The phase may be liquid or vapour
with ordered crystal structure
(d) Phase diagram provides the information
on how rapidly equilibrium is reached
[IES-2010]
71. The line, below which the alloy is in solid
state and where solidification completes is
known
[HPSC-2013]
(a) liquidus
(c) gaseous
72. Which one of the following statement is
NOT correct for normalizing?
(a) It is often applied to castings to relieve
stresses
(b) solidus
(d) semi liquidus
(b) It increases strength of medium carbon
steel to some extent
(c) Better surface finish can be obtained
in machining
(d) It increases grain size
73. Iron-carbon equilibrium diagram
(a) correlates the microstructure and
properties of steel and cast iron
(b) indicates the phase changes occurring
during heating and cooling
(c) is made by plotting carbon percentage
along x-axis and temperature along
y-axis
74. In solid solution of copper and zinc
(a) Copper atoms are solvent atoms
(b) Copper atoms are solute atoms
(c) Zinc atoms are solute atoms
(d) a and c
[IES-2010]
[HPSC-2013]
75. Pearlite phase in an iron-carbide phase
diagram is
(a) Eutectic phase
(b) Hypo-eutectic mixture
(c) Eutectoidal mixture
(d) Hyper-eutectic phase
[IES-2010]
76. Burger vector in case of screw dislocation is
(a) inclined to the dislocation line
(b) parallel to the dislocation line
(c) perpendicular to the dislocation line
(d) at an acute angle to the dislocation line
[IAS-2003]
77. Which of the following statements is
correct for ductile materials?
547
(a) They have a clearly defined yield point
(b) They fail by fracture
(c) They do not obey Hooke's law
(d) Their % elongation is less than brittle
materials
78. The recrystallisation temperature of Tin is
(b) 1000°C
(a) 300°C
(c) 650°C
(d) below room temperature
[HPSC-2014]
79. Failure in rolling bearing takes place
because of
(a) high temperature
(b) race fracture
(c) fatigue
(d) plastic deformation
[HPSC-2014]
80. Cast iron is used for machine beds because
of its high
(a) tensile strength
(b) endurance strength
(c) damping capacity
(d) compressive strength
81. Which abrasive material is used in grinding
wheels?
(a) Silicon carbide
(b) Tungsten carbide
(c) Aluminium carbide
(d) Tungsten oxide
82. Normalizing process of heat treatment
improves
(a) strength
(b) machinability
(c) hardness only
(d) strength and machinability both
[HPSC-2014]
83. Tensile strength of steel is improved by
adding
(a) Lead
(c) Silicon
(b) Nickel
(d) Chromium
[HPSC-2014]
CHAPTER
13
PRODUCTION PLANNING AND CONTROL
Break-even Chart
1. The cost and the sales income (revenue) in rupees are plotted along the vertical
axis.
2. The quantity (volume of production) is plotted along the horizontal axis.
3. Fixed cost is represented by a straight line parallel to the horizontal axis.
Industrial Engineering
4. The variable costs are superimposed upon the horizontal line representing the
fixed cost.
The top line then represents the total cost line.
5. The sales income line passes through the origin.
6. The point of intersection of the sales income line and the total cost line
represents the break
even point.
7. The shaded area between the total cost line and the sales income line one the
left hand side of
B.E.P. indicates loss; whereas the shaded area on the right hand side of B.E.P.
shows profit.
Total cost (F+VQ)
Cost & income
in Rs.
Break even point
Sales income (PQ)
Q₁ Q₂
Volume of production (Quantity)
Break-even chart
BEP=-
Break-even point: (BEP)
The point of intersection of the total cost line and the income line is called as
the break-even
point. The break-even point is that junction where income and costs are exactly in
balance. Thus
there is neither profit nor loss for that particular volume of production. Break-
even point indicates
minimum operating level below which it is dangerous to fall. As the performance
reaches towards this
non-profit point, corrective measures should be taken to cut down the cost,
(increase output or raise
selling price.) The spread to the right of BEP shows the profit potential while to
the left represents
the loss potential. BEP is also called as the "no-profit-no-loss point".
CF
Cp-Cy
548
Fixed costs (F)
=X
where
CF = Fixed cost
Cy= Variable cost/product
Cp = Sales cost / Product
Margin of safety:
Margin of safety is the distance between the break-even point and the output being
produced.
A large margin of safety is relatively small then it indicates that the profit will
be considerably small
even if there is a small drop in output. A low margin of safety level indicates
high fixed costs and
profits are not possible unless the output level is sufficient enough to absorb
fixed costs.
Mathematically:
Margin of safety =
Sales-Sales at BEP
Sales
549
-×100
CPM and PERT
The inherent limitations and inadequacies of the Gantt Chart technique, encouraged
the man-
agement to find out a more efficient and effective method of planning, scheduling
and controlling
of project consisting of several activities. This resulted in a development of
PERT, CPM and other
techniques based on network analysis.
There was a dramatic revolution in time of completion of projects by the use of CPM
and
PERT. Today CPM and PERT are universally used by most of companies both in advanced
and less
advanced countries.
What is PERT and CPM?
PERT (Programme Evaluation and Review Technique) and CPM (Critical Path Method) are
the scheduling techniques which are used to plan, schedule and control a project
consisting of num-
ber of inter-related activities. These techniques provide a frame which defines the
jobs to be done,
integrates them in a logical sequence and provides a system of control over the
progress of the plan.
Objectives of CPM and PERT:
In general, the network analysis and allied techniques have the following
objectives:
1. To plan, schedule and control the project consisting of number of interrelated
activities.
2. To define and integrate the tasks in a logical sequence.
3. These techniques show the precedence relationship i.e., they show how the
activities
are dependent.
4. With the help of these techniques the management can know which operation should
be done after completing a particular operation.
5. To focus management attention on the most critical activities. It tells the
management
at what moment and for which activities the time schedules should be strictly
followed
so that the future project will not be affected and where it may be, delayed and
upto
what extent without affecting the last date of completion of the project.
6. To know the progress of the work as related to the scheduling timing.
7. To plan the best possible use of resources to achieve a given goal within
overall time
and cost limitations.
8. It provides the basis for determining manpower, material and capital
requirements.
9. Network analysis helps in designing, planning, co-ordinating, controlling and
decision-
making in order to accomplish the project economically in the minimum available
time,
with the limited resources.
550
Terms Related with CPM and PERT
The CPM and PERT techniques have their own language which can be understood only
when
the following terms and their representation is known.
Event
An event is a specific instant of time which indicates the beginning or end of the
activity. Event
is also known as a junction. It is represented by a circle and the event number is
written within the
circle. Unlike an activity, an event consumes neither time or resources.
Activity
Every project consists of number of job operations or tasks which are called
activities. An
activity is resource consuming part of the project which has definable start and
finish. It may be a
process such as moulding, finishing, cutting etc; a material handling or material
procurement cycle.
Head event
Tail event
Start
Finish
An activity is represented by an arrow in the network diagram. It begins in start
event which
is also known as 'Tail Event' and ends in completion event or 'Head Event'. An
activity is normally
given a name like A, B, C etc. which is marked below the arrow and the estimated
time to accomplish
the activity is marked above the arrow.
Classification of Activities
Activities are classified as:
(a) Critical activities
(b) Non-critical activities
(c) Dummy activities
(a) Critical Activities. In a network diagram critical activities are those which
if consume more
than their estimated time, the project will be delayed. More attention should be
paid to the
critical activities. The expected completion dates cannot be met, even if one of
the critical
activities is delayed.
A
Activity
A critical activity is marked either by a thick arrow or a double line arrow to
distinguish it from
non-critical activities.
A
(b) Non-critical Activities. Such activities have a provision of float or slack so
that, even if they
consume a specified time over and above the estimated time, the project will not be
delayed.
(c) Dummy Activities. When two activities start at the same instant of time like A
and B, the head
events are jointed by dotted arrows and this is known as dummy activity.
B
3
C
Dummy Activity
D
5
551
The dummy activity is included in the network to show that the activity C cannot be
started
until activities A and B are completed. The dummy activities however complete the
logical
concept, but do not consume any time or resources. A dummy activity is thus a
connecting link
for control purpose or for maintaining uniqueness of activity.
Network diagram or Arrow diagram:
It is a pictorial representation of a project plan showing the inter-relationship
and interdepend-
encies between the various activities in a sequence in which they are to be
performed to complete
the project. Fig. shows a simple network consisting of 5 events and its activities
to be performed are
designated as A to F. Event 1 is the start of the project and event 5 is the
completion of the project.
1
A
B
E
F
Network Diagram
The logic of the network is that activities B and C cannot start until event 2 is
reached or in
other words until activity A is completed. Activities B and C can be done
concurrently. As shown
in the figure the activity D is a dummy activity connecting events 3 and 4 and
hence it is shown by
dotted line. This dummy activity denotes that activity F cannot start unless both
activities B and C
are completed.
Post Operations
Post-operations are the operations which succeed the operations under
consideration. In the
previous example, machine installation is the post-operation of the machine
foundation.
Concurrent operations. These are the operations which can be started
stimultaneously.
Earliest Start Time (EST).
It is the earliest possible time at which an activity can start, and is calculated
by moving from
first to last event in the network diagram.
Earliest Finish Time (EFT). It is the earliest possible time at which an activity
can finish.
EFT = EST + duration of that activity.
Latest Start Time (LST)
It is the latest possible time by which an activity can start without delaying the
date of comple-
tion of the project.
LST=LFT - duration of that activity.
Latest Finish Time (LFT).
It is the latest time by which the activity must be completed so that the scheduled
date for the
completion of the project may not be delayed. It is calculated by moving backwards
ie. from last
event to first event of the network diagram.
Float or Sack = Time available for completion of the activity - Time necessary to
complete
the same.
552
Critical path
A path along the network in which Earliest Finish Time and Latest Finish time are
equal is
known as critical path. It is that sequence of activities which decides the total
project duration. It
is the longest path and consumes maximum time. Critical path is formed by critical
activities and
has zero float. It is the path which the management is most anxious to determine,
shorten and moni-
tor. If the project has to be completed in lesser time, then the duration of the
activities lying in the
critical path have to be shortened. The critical path is represented by double or
thick arrow line to
distinguish it clearly.
Estimation of Activity Time
PERT is based on the assumption that operation time cannot be estimated accurately
because of
the lack of past data and uncertainties involved in working. To take these
uncertainties into account
PERT uses three time estimates for each activity.
1. Optimistic time (t). It is the shortest time in which an activity can be
completed assuming
that everything goes exceptionally well. It has low probability of occurence.
2. Most likely time (t). It is the most likely time required to complete the
activity taking into
consideration all favourable and unfavourable elements. This estimates of time lies
between
the optimistic and pessimistic time.
3. Pessimistic time (t₂). It is the time which an activity will take to complete if
everything turns
out to be against expectation (i.e. under adverse conditions). Similar to
optimistic time it has
low probability of occurence.
From the practicability point of view, these time estimates of an activity should
not vary much
from each other, however, greater the uncertainity, the wider would be the range of
the estimated
completion times.
If the probability distribution of these times estimates is drawn, the curve would
approximately
follow (beta) distributions.
Expected Time (t₂). The three times estimate to› › are combined statistically to
develop
the expected time t. It is assumed that t and to are about equally likely to occur
whereas the
probability of occurence of tm is 4 times that oft and t
to + 4tm
+1.
Therefore, t
6
Economic Order Quantity
Economic Order Quantity is that order quantity which will minimize the total
variable cost of
managing the inventory.
EOQ (90) =
2 × (Annual consumption (units)) × (Cost of placing an order)
Price / unit x Inventory carrying cost
ABC Analysis (Basic Method of Stock-Control)
Inventory in a company consists of thousands of different items in stock. The
control of all
these items creates a serious problem to the management, if the same amount of
control is exercised
on each of these items.
Therefore, in order to execute proper control, it is necessary to take selective
approach and
find the attention required for each item according to its importance. This is
essential for achieving
maximum benefits with minimum efforst and cost.
Depending upon the advantage and purposes, different analyses have been developed
to help
in bringing practical solution to the problems of inventory control. The commonly
used systems can
he classified as:
1. ABC analysis: Always Better Control Analysis or Alphabetical Approach.
2. VED analysis: Vital Essential and Desirable Analysis.
3. SDE analysis: Scarce, Difficult, Easily Available Analysis.
4. HML analysis: High, Medium and Low cost Inventory Analysis.
5. MNG analysis: Moving items, Non-moving items, Ghost items analysis.
Or (FSN) analysis: Fast moving, Slow moving and Non-moving items analysis.
ABC analysis
ABC analysis divides inventories into three groupings in terms of percentage of
number of items
and percentage of total value. It is based on Pareto Analysis. In ABC analysis
important items (high
usage valued items) are grouped in 'A', while trivial items (low usage valued
items) are grouped in
'C' and the "remaining middle level items are considered 'B' items. The inventory
control is exercised
on the principle of "management by exception", i.e., rigorous controls are
exercised on 'A' items
and routine loose controls for 'C' items and moderate control on 'B' item.
The items classified by virtue of their uses as:
Category
A - High value items
B - Medium value items
C-Low value items
% of items (approx)
10%
20%
70%
% Value (approx.)
553
70%
20%
10%
A items. In the total inventory items A items are few in number and thus represent
a small percentage
of the total items. However, due to high cost and huge consumption, they represent
a large percentage
of company's total expenditure. It is common that approx. 10% of the total quantity
of items percentage
70% of the amount spent on these items. These items need accurate, careful records,
careful handling
and storage under tight control. Minium and maximum limit and re-order point is set
for A items.
Such items should be thought of in advance and purchased well in time. A detailed
record of receipt
and issue should be kept and proper handling of facilities should be provided for
them.
Such items being costly are purchased in small quantity oftenly and just before
their use. This,
of course, increase the procurement cost and involve little risk of non-
availability. However, inven-
tory holding cost decreases and problems of storage and care taking are minimised.
B items. These are middle level items which do not require as detailed and close
control as A items,
but they need more attention and control than C items. These items usually
represent 20% of the
total quantity of the items (approx.) and represent 15% to 20% of the total
expenditure on items.
C items. These are numerous in expensive items. They generally represent 70% to 75%
of the total
quantity and 5 to 10% of the total expenditure on materials.
Operation Research
Operation research may be defined as 'Systems Study' of basic structure,
characteristics,
functions and relationship of an organisation to provide the executive with a sound
scientific and
quantitative basis for 'Decision making'.
Techniques Used in Operation Research
The following techniques are used in O.R. to solve the problems of optimisation:
1. Linear programming. It is used in the solution of problems concerned with
assignment of
personnel, blending of materials, distribution and transportation, and investment
port-folios.
2. Dynamic programming. It is used in such areas as planning, advertising,
expenditures,
distributing sales effort and production scheduling etc.
554
3. Queuing Theory. It is used in solving problems concerned with traffic
congestion, servicing
machines subject to breakdown, air traffic scheduling, production scheduling,
hospital
operations, determining optimum number of repairmen for a group of machines etc.
4. Inventory Theory. In determining when and how much to produce or purchase.
5. Game Theory. The primary objective of game theory is to develop rational
criteria for selecting
strategy.
6. Simulation. The technique of simulation is an important tool of the designer in
stimulating
airplane flight in a wind tunnel, simulating plant layouts with scale models of
machines or
simulating lines of communication with an organization chart. With the advent of
the high-speed
digital computer with which to conduct simulated experiments, this technique has
become
experimental arm of researcher.
Linear Programming
Linear programming is one of the operation research techniques. It has its early
use for mili-
tary applications but it is employed widely for business problems.
Definition
Linear programming is a mathematical technique for the purpose of allocating the
limited re-
sources in an optimum manner (i.e., either maximum or minimum) to achieve the
objectives of the
business, which may be maximum overall profit or minimum overall cost. The word
"linear" means
the relationships handled are those which can be represented by straight lines,
i.e., the relationships
are of the form y = ax + b and the work " programming" means. "taking decisions
systematically".
Salient Features of Linear Programming.
Linear programming is based on the following basic concepts:
(1) Objective Functions. It states the determinants of the quantity either to be
maximised or to
be minimised. For instance, profit is a function to be maximised or cost is a
function to be
minimised. An objective function must include all the posiblities with profit or
cost is coefficient
per unit of output. For example, for a firm which produces four different products
A, B, C and
D in quantities Q₁, Q₂, Q3, and Q4, respecively, the objective functions can be
stated as:
Minimise C = Q₁C₁ + Q₂C₂ + Q3C3 + Q4C4 where C is the total cost of production, and
C₁,
C₂, C3, and C4 are unit costs of products A, B, C and D respectively.
(2) Constraints (Inequalities). These are the restriction imposed on decision
variables. These
may be in terms of availability of raw materials, machine hours, man hours etc.
Suppose each
of the above items. A, B, C and D requires t₁, 1₂, 13 and 14 machine hours
respectively. The total
machine hours available are T'hours and this is a constraint. Therefore it can be
expressed as:
Q₁²₁ + Q₂²₂ +Q3¹3 + Q4²4 ≤ T
(3) Non-Negative Condition. The linear programming model essentially seeks that the
values for
each variable can either be zero or positive. In no case it can be negative. For
the products A,
B, C and D the non-negative conditions can be
4, 20
1₂
≥ 0
Q₁ 20
2₂ ²0
23 20
2₁ ²0
¹4 20
This implies that quantity produced can be at the most zero and not below that.
Similarly, the
machine hours expended for each unit A, B, C and D can be at the most zero and in
no case it
can be negative.
and also
13 20
555
(4) Linear Relationship. It implies straight line or proportional relationship
among the relevant
variables. It means change in one variable produces proportionate change in other
variables.
(5) Process and its Level. Process represents to produce a particular output. If a
product can be
produced in two different ways, then there are two different processes or decision
variables
for the purpose of linear programming.
(6) Feasible Solution. All such solutions which can be worked out under given
constraints are
called "feasible solutions" and region comprising such solution is called the
"feasible region".
(7) Optimum Solution. Optimum means either maximum or minimum. The object of
obtaining
the feasible optimum solution may be maximisation of profit or minimisation of
cost. Optimum
solution is the best of all feasible solutions.
Solution of Linear Programming Problems
Linear programming problems can be solved by following methods:
(i) Graphical method
(ii) Simplex method
(iii) Transportation method
Graphical Method
The graphical method can be used only for two or three variables, whereas the
simplex
method can be used for any number of variables.
The various steps in the graphical method are as follows:
(i) The problem is formulated in the mathematical form : (a) specifying the
decision variable, (b)
identifying the objective function, and (c) writing the constraint equations.
(ii) The constraints (inequalities) are converted temporarily into equalities (into
equations) and
plotted on the graph.
(iii) The region satisfying each constraints is determined and then the region
common to all the
constraint regions is located. This region is known as feasible region, as all the
points lying in
this region will simultaneously satisfy the given constraints.
(iv) The next step is to use trial and error method to locate the optimal solution
inside the feasible
region so that the objective function is optimised. It is experienced that the
optimal solution is
located near the extreme points of the feasible region.
Simplex Method
When the decision variables are more than two, the graphical method becomes
inadequate, and
the liner programming problem is solved by simplex method. The simplex method is an
algebraic
procedure that, through a series of repetitive operations, progressively approaches
an optimal solu-
tion. The various steps in solving problems using simplex method are:
1. To formulate the problem.
2. To set up initial simplex table with slack surplus variables in solution.
3. To determine the decision variable to be brought into the solution.
4. To determine which variable to replace.
5. To calculate new row values for entering variable.
6. To revise remaining rows.
7. To repeat stepts 3 to 6 till optimum solution is obtained.
556
Value Analysis
Value analysis aims at a systematic identification and elimination of unnecessary
costs. It criti-
cally investigates and analyses the different aspects of materials, purchase,
design and production of
each and every component of the product. Value engineering/analysis examines the
design, method
of manufacturing, material used, function and cost of each and every component in
order to produce
it economically without decreasing its utility, function or reliability. It
involves a creative approach
for systematic identification of unnecessary costs. Such costs which are incurred
in normal way in the
product and neither increase its efficiency or say quality in any way nor provide
additional customers
features. If these are first identified and then systematically eliminated the
overall cost of the product
can be considerably reduced and sales resulting profit proportionately increased.
Thus, it enables
to produce the products with the same performance, quality and efficiency with a
less overall unit
cost and consequently greater profits. Value analysis applied to existing rather
than new products.
Value
Value is the price we pay for a product, process, material, or service required to
perform a
specific function or service with the required quality and reliability. Value is
the least cost that can
accomplish an essential function or service with the required quality and
reliability. Value can be de-
fined as the combination of quality, efficiency, price and service which ensures
the ultimate economy
and satisfaction of the purchaser.
Value =
Function (or utility)_ Worth to you
Cost
Price you pay
Difference Between Value Analysis and Value Engineering
The two terms-value analysis and value engineering are often used synonymously.
Though
the philosophy underlying the two is same i.e., the identification of unnecessary
cost yet they are dif-
ferent. The difference lies in the time and at the stage and which technique is
applied. Value analysis
is the application of set of techniques to an existing product with a view to
improve its value. It is
thus a remedial process. Value engineering is the application of exactly the same
set of techniques
to a new product at the design stage-project concept or preliminary design when no
hardware ex-
ists. Its purpose is to ensure that no bad features are added in the product at the
design stage. Value
engineering is thus a preventive process. The value efforts are more rewarding when
they are applied
at the design stage of the product.
Incentive
Incentive is an inducement of reward given to the worker for his efficiency and
hard work.
In this system the worker gets a guaranteed minimum wages plus some extra payment
or bonus for
extra work done over and above the standard work. Incentive motivates and
encourages the worker to
produce more and better. An incentive scheme may be defined as, ‘a system of wage
payment under
which the earnings of a employee, or a group of employees, or all employees in an
organisation is
directly related to the output of an acceptable quality and over and above a
standard laid down by
means of predetermined formula'.
Wage Incentive Plans
1. Straight piece-rate system.
2. Taylor's differential piece rate system.
3. Merrick differential or multiple piece system.
4. Gantt task and bonus system.
5. Halsey incentive plan.
6. The Rowan system.
7. The Bedaux point system
8. Emerson's Efficiency plans.
9. Group incentive plans :
(i) The Scanlon plan
(ii) The Priestman production plan
(iii) Profit sharing.
Straight Piece Rate System. It is applied for simple manual operations like
producing number of
similar articles, loading, unloading, etc. by individual efforts. In straight piece
rate system, a piece
rate for the completion of the job is fixed. If a worker produces more acceptable
jobs in a prescribed
time limit he gets extra money.
Taylor's Differential Piece Rate system. This incentive plan was developed by by
Taylor, the father
of Scientific Management. This sytem provides for two piece rates. The workers who
produce more
than the standard units are paid at a higher piece rate, and those who produce less
than the standard
output are paid at low piece rate. The scheme thus rewards efficient workers and
penalises sluggish
workers.
Gantt Task and Bonus System. This system was proposed by Henry L. Gantt, an
associate of Taylor.
It is a modification of Taylor's differential piece rate system.
The characteristics of Gantt task system are:
(i) The wages are calculated on hourly basis rather than on piece rate basis.
(iii) Guaranteed time wages are paid for below standard peformance.
(iii) Bonus is paid to the workers to achieve standard output which is a powerful
incentive (say,
minimum wage + 20% of the time rate as bonus).
Earnings
Per day (Rs.)
Higher level
557
of performance
Standard
Output
Output
Gantt task and bonus system.
(iv) Higher piece rate is paid at higher level of performance (above standard
performance)
(v) The standard time based on scientific work measurement is specified for each
job.
The main object of this system to raise the performance upto a standard level.
Halsey Incentive Plan.
The Halsey plan was introduced by Fedrick A. Halsey, an American engineer, in 1981.
In this
system a minimum wage is guaranteed to the worker. A standard time is fixed for the
performance of
558
each job before the standard time, he gets guaranteed wage plus incentive bonus at
fixed percentage
of earnings for the time saved. The most common percentage is 50 per cent.
Let hourly rate (Rs.) = R
Standard time (Hrs.) = T,
Time actually taken (Hrs) = T₁
Time saved (Hrs.) = (T,– T)
Bonus earned = (T¸— T.) ×
Wages earned by worker = TX R +
R(T.-T.)
The Rowan System. This plan was introduced by James Rowan of Glasgow in 1901. The
plan
provides each workman guaranteed minimum wage plus incentive bonus for certain
portion of
the time saved. In this scheme the proportion of the time payable for incentive
being the ratio
of actual time taken to the standard time.
Therefore, Bonus =
standard time-Actual time
Standard time
-(¹7
-Ta
T,
Earning = T₁ × R+
E=R.T+0.75 (T. – T.)
Where E = Earning of the worker
R = Hourly wage rate
T = Standard time
T= Actual time
50 ‹R=-1/1 R(T₂-T)
==
100
2
×TXR
T, -Ta
XT, XR
a
x Actual timex Ratio
The Bedaux Point System. The Bedaux point system is also called as units or 'points
system'.
In this system each minutes of standard time is expressed in terms of units or
points after a
detailed time study. One point is called as one B which equals one minutes. This
means that a
standard hour would consist of 60 Bs or 60 points. The guaranteed basic wage is
paid upto 60
points per hour. Points earned above 60 are paid at 75% to 100% of the basic wage
rate.
This system is suitable when:
(i) The work is of routine repetitive nature under standardised conditions.
(ii) Where operational scope is widely varied and
(iii) Where production control is highly developed.
The earning of worker can be computed by the formula:
Emerson's Efficiency Plan. The Emerson's efficiency plan was introduced by
Harrington
Emerson. In the plan wages are calculated on the basis of efficiency of
performance. Daily
wages are guaranteed irrespective of the output. Less efficient workers are not put
to loss, but
at the same time workers who prove their efficiency are paid bonus. A standard of
performance
559
is based on past performance (previous records). The actual output of the worker is
compared
with the standard output to calculate his efficiency for the day.
i.e., Efficiency % =
Or
Actual output for the period
Standard output for the period
Actual time taken to complete the job
Standard time for the job
1. The plant location is affected to maximum
extent by the single factor:
(a) Nearness to market
(b) Proximity to raw materials
(c) Cost of land and building
(d) Low wages of labourers in the locality
[I.A.S. -94]
2. Work study involve:
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
(a) Only method study
(b) Only work measurement
(c) Method study and work measurement
(d) Only motion study
3. In Be Daux plan, the worker is paid extra
for:
-x100
(a) 75% of the time saved
(b) 60% of the time saved
(c) 50% of the time saved
4. The curve representing the level of
achievement with reference to time is
known as:
(a) Performance curve
(b) Operating characteristic curve
(c) S-curve
(d) Learning curve
[IES-02]
5. Which is not the objective of plant layout?
(a) To make economical use of floor area
(b) To minimise material handling
(c) To keep the machine break down to
minimum
-×100
(d) To maintain flexibility in arrangement
of operations
6. Consider the following advantages:
1. Lower in-process inventory
2. Higher flexibility in rescheduling in
case of machine breakdown
3. Lower cost in material handling
equipment
When compared to process layout, the
advantages of product layout would
include
(a) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
7. In a Taylor's Differential Piece-rate
system:
[I.A.S. -94]
(a) One piece rate is followed
(b) Two piece rates are followed
(c) Three pieces rates are followed
8. The graph shows the results of various
quality levels for a component
B
C
Level of quality
D
560
12. The primal of a LP problem is maximization
of objective function with 6 variables and
2 constraints
Consider the following statement:
1. Curve A shows the variation of value of
component.
2. Curve B shows the variation of cost
of the component.
3. Graph is called as fish bone diagram
4. The preferred level of quality is given
by line CC
5. The preferred level of quality is given
by line DD.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 5 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
[IES-02]
9. The following activities are to be performed
in a particular sequence for routing a
product:
[I.A.S-94]
1. Analysis of the product and breaking
it down into components
2. Determination of the lot size
3. Determination of operations and
processing time requirement
4. Taking make of buy decisions
The correct sequence of these activities is:
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(c) 3, 1, 4, 2
10. Product layout is used where:
(b) 3, 1, 2, 4
(d) 1, 4, 3, 2
(a) More floor space is available
(b) Large quantities of a product are to be
manufactured
(c) Expensive machinery is involved
and variety of products are to be
manufactured
(d) Hand tools are required to carry out
the different operations.
11. According to Emerson Efficiency Plan, a
worker having an efficiency of up to 80%
gets an incentive of:
(a) 5% of daily wages
(b) 20% of daily wages
(c) 10% of daily wages
Which of the following correspond to the
dual of the problem stated?
1. It has 2 variables and 6 constraints
2. It has 6 variables and 2 constraints
3. Maximisation of objective function
4. Minimisation of objective function
given below:
Codes
(a) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 14
(d) 2 and 4
[IES-02]
13. Consider the following situations:
1. Loads are uniform
2. Materials move relatively continuously
3. Movement rate is variable
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
4. Routes do not vary
For material transformation, conveyors
are used when the prevailing conditions
include
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
[I.A.S -94]
14. The product layout is considered to be best
if it minimises:
(a) Cycle time of an assembly line
(b) Total cost of machinery used
(c) Total idle time for a work centre
(d) Number of work centres required
15. Statistical Quality Control (SQC) is the
technique of:
(a) Using standard charts
(c) Applying statistical method based on
the basis of Theory of Probability to
establish quality standard.
(d) Using Flow Process Chart to establish
quality standards
16. Consider the following statements
regarding updating of the network :

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