SOAL UJIAN MCQ Jan 2022

KEMENTERIAN PENDIDIKAN, KEBUDAYAAN,
RISET, DAN TEKNOLOGI

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PROGRAM PENDIDIKAN DOKTER SPESIALIS OBSTETRI DAN GINEKOLOGI
BAGIAN OBSTETRI DAN GINEKOLOGI FK.UNAND
Laman: http://ppdsobgin.fk.unand.ac.id,
Telp : 0751 – 37705, Email : [email protected]
SOAL UJIAN MCQ

UJIAN PENERIMAAN CALON
PPDS OBSTETRI DAN GINEKOLOGI FK.UNAND
PERIODE JANUARI 2022
Waktu : 150 Menit
1. The perinatal period starts after delivery at 20 weeks’ gestation or older. When does it
end?
A. 7 days after birth
B. 6 weeks after birth
C. 1 year after birth
D. 28 days after birth (William ed 24 soal no 1-4) hal 2
2. Which of the following is an example of an indirect maternal death?

A. Septic shock following an abortion
B. Hemorrhage following uterine atony
C. Aortic rupture at 36 weeks’ gestation in a patient with Marfan syndrome
(William ed 24 soal no 1-12 ) hal 3
D. Aspiration following an eclamptic seizure
3. Which of the following is defined as the number of maternal deaths that result from the
reproductive process per 100,000 live births?
A. Maternal mortality rate
B. Direct maternal death rate
C. Pregnancy related death rate
D. Maternal mortality ratio ( William es 23 soal no 1-17 ) hal 3
4. A patient presents at 22 weeks’ gestation with spontaneous rupture of membranes and

delivers a 489-g male infant who dies at 4 hours of life. Her last menstrual period and
early sonographic evaluation confirm her gestational dating. All except which of the
following definitions accurately apply to this delivery?
A. Preterm neonate
B. Early neonatal death
C. Extremely low birthweight
D. Abortus ( William ed 24 soal no 1-8 ) hal 2
5. Most infant deaths occur in which of the following groups?

A. Infants of diabetic mothers
B. Low birth weight infants ( william ed 23 soal no 1-6 ) hal 2
C. Infants with congenital anomalies
D. Infants with chromosome abnormalities
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6. The labia minora is invested by which of the following structures?

A. Sebaceous glands (William ed 25 no soal 2-4) hal 8
B. Eccrine glands
C. Apocrine glands
D. Hair follicles
7. The posterior vaginal wall’s vascular supply primarily comes from which artery?
A. Middle rectal artery (William ed 25 no soal 2-6) hal 8
B. Hypogastric artery
C. Uterine artery
D. Internal pudendal artery
8. Which of the following is not a component of the perineal body?
A. Pubococcygeus muscle
B. Iliococcygeus muscle (William ed 25 no soal 2-7) hal 8
C. Bulbospongiosus muscle
D. Superficial transverse perineal muscle
9. Which of the following statements regarding the borders of the ischiorectal fossae is
incorrect?
A. Lateral border: obturator internus muscle fascia and ischial tuberosity
B. Medial border: anal sphincter complex and fascia of the levator ani
C. Anterior border: inferior border of the posterior triangle (William ed 25 no soal
2-9) hal 9
D. Posterior border: gluteus maximus muscle and sacrotuberous ligament
10. Which of the following muscles compose the levator ani muscle?
A. Puborectalis
B. Iliococcygeus
C. Pubococcygeus
D. All of the above (William ed 25 no soal 2-8) hal 8
11. The vascular supply of the uterus comes from which of the follow arteries?
A. Sampson artery
B. Uterine artery (William ed 25 no soal 2-15) hal 9
C. Middle sacral artery
D. Middle rectal artery
12. Which combination of structures provides support for fecal continence?

A. Internal and external anal sphincter (William ed 25 no soal 2-10) hal 9
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B. External anal sphincter and levator ani muscle

C. Puborectalis muscle and internal anal sphincter
D. Puborectalis muscle and external anal sphincter
13. Which of the following refers to the blue tint of the cervix that is due to increased
cervical vascularity in pregnancy?
A. Hegar sign
B. Goodell sign
C. Chadwick sign (William ed 25 no soal 2-13) hal 9
D. All of the above
14. The mobility of which joint aids in the delivery of the obstructed shoulder in the case of a
shoulder dystocia?
A. Sacroiliac (William ed 25 no soal 2-21) hal 10
B. Sacrococcygeal
C. Pubic symphysis
D. All of the above
15. Which of the following is the correct anatomic progression of the fallopian tube from
proximal to distal?
A. Isthmus, ampulla, infundibulum (William ed 25 no soal 2-18) hal 10
B. Ampulla, infundibulum, isthmus
C. Infundibulum, ampulla, isthmus
D. Ampulla, isthmus, infundibulum
16. Which of the following is the correct anatomical description of the ureter?
A. Passes just lateral to the ovarian vessels
B. Lies medial to the anterior branches of the internal iliac artery as it descends in
the pelvis (William ed 25 no soal 2-22) hal 10
C. Crosses underneath the bifurcation of the common iliac artery
D. Lies inferolateral to the uterosacral ligaments
17. The pelvic ureter receives blood supply from which of the following blood vessels?
A. Uterine
B. Internal iliac
C. Common iliac
18. Which of the following is accurate regarding the midpelvis?

A. Contains the smallest pelvic diameter
B. Serves as the point to measure station
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C. Is marked by the interspinous diameter

19. The fetal head presents at +5 station in a transverse diameter. What is the most
likely pelvic shape?
A. Android
B. Gynecoid (William ed 25 no soal 2-32) hal 12
C. Anthropoid
D. Platypelloid
20. Which structure arises from the urogenital sinus?

A. Distal vagina
B. Uterus
C. Fallopian tubes
D. Proximal vagina
21. At what gestational age is it possible to visually differentiate between male and
female external genitalia?
A. 10 weeks’ gestation
B. 12 weeks’ gestation (William ed 25 no soal 3-4) hal 14
C. 14 weeks’ gestation
D. 16 weeks’ gestation
22. Where is fetal antimüllerian hormone produced?

A. Sertoli cells (William ed 25 no soal 3-5) hal 14
B. Leydig cells
C. Theca cells
D. Granulosa cells
23. Which complication is associated with Turner syndrome?

A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Hashimoto thyroiditis
C. Coarctation of the aorta
24. A 30-year-old woman presents to your office at 18 weeks’ gestation with a large
ovarian mass and complaints of hirsutism and new-onset clitoromegaly. You make
a presumptive diagnosis of Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor based on her clinical
presentation and elevated levels of androstenedione and testosterone. The action of
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which of the following placental enzymes allows you to reassure her that her fetus
is unlikely to be affected by her elevated androgen levels?
A. Aromatase (William ed 25 no soal 3-7) hal 14
B. Sulfatase
C. 5-alpha reductase
D. 17-alpha hydroxylase
25. A woman with Mayer-Rokitansky-Küster-Hauser syndrome presents to your

office for a consult to discuss her reproductive options as she would like to start a
family. Which of the following is her best option for producing a biological child?
A. Timed intercourse
B. Uterine transplant
C. In vitro fertilization
D. In vitro fertilization with a surrogate (William ed 25 no soal 3-8) hal 15
26. Which imaging modality has the highest accuracy for the diagnosis of uterine
anomalies?
A. Magnetic resonance imaging (William ed 25 no soal 3-9) hal 15
B. Hysterosalpingography
C. Transvaginal 2-dimensional sonography
D. Transvaginal 3-dimensional sonography
27. A woman with a unicornuate uterus is at increased risk for which obstetrical
complication?
A. Miscarriage
B. Malpresentation
C. Preterm delivery
28. For which uterine anomaly would a surgical procedure be recommended prior to
attempting pregnancy?
A. Arcuate uterus
B. Bicornuate uterus
C. Uterine didelphys
D. Unicornuate uterus with a communicating horn (William ed 25 no soal 3-11)
hal 15
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29. Which uterine anomaly is associated with the highest risk of obstetrical
complications?
a b
C (William ed 25 no soal 3-14) hal 15

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30. When is this patient most likely to present?
A. In utero with polyhydramnios

B. Perimenarche with amenorrhea (William ed 25 no soal 3-28) hal 18
C. Neonatal period with urinary retention
D. Reproductive age with primary infertility
31. Which of the following is the most common uterine anomaly?

A. Uterine agenesis
B. Unicornuate uterus
C. Uterine didelphys
D. Bicornuate uterus (William ed 25 no soal 3-26) hal 18
32. Local production of which hormone is necessary for the virilization of male
genitalia in the fetus?
A. Testosterone
B. Androstenedione
C. Antimüllerian hormone
D. Dihydrotestosterone (William ed 25 no soal 3-27) hal 18
33. Which of the following pairs of female and male structures share a common
origin?
A. Paraurethral glands and prostate glands (William ed 25 no soal 3-30) hal 18
B. Labia minora and scrotum
C. Granulosa cells and Leydig cells
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D. Ovary and glans penis
34. A married couple presents with primary infertility. Their work-up is remarkable
for azoospermia. The husband is tall, with gynecomastia; you suspect Klinefelter
syndrome, which is diagnosed by karyotype. You explain he is at risk for which of
the following as compared to other men?
A. Breast cancer
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Diabetes mellitus
35. Which hormone acts locally to prevent the formation of the uterus, fallopian tube,
and upper vagina?
A. Testosterone
B. Androstenedione
C. Dihydrotestosterone
D. Antimüllerian hormone (William ed 25 no soal 3-32) hal 19
36. A 23-year old presents for her initial prenatal care visit. Reports that she had a cyst
on her right ovary removed 3 years earlier and asks if the cyst below needs to be
removed as well. You explain the function of the cyst and that excision of this cyst
before what gestational age would lead to loss of the pregnancy?
A. 8–9 weeks’ gestation
B. 5–6 weeks’ gestation
C. 10–12 weeks’ gestation
D. 14 weeks’ gestation
37. Which of the following is not a consequence of vascular changes in women during
pregnancy?
A. Palmar erythema
B. Angiomas
C. Melasma gravidarum
D. d.Dissipate excess heat generated by increased metabolism
38. The fetus gains the most weight proportionately during which time period in
pregnancy?
A. 40–42 weeks’ gestation
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B. 30–40 weeks’ gestation

C. 20–30 weeks’ gestation
D. 10–20 weeks’ gestation
39. Which of the following statements is true regarding glucose and insulin levels in
pregnant and nonpregnant women?
A. Insulin levels decrease after meals in pregnancy.
B. Glucose levels decrease after meals in nonpregnant women.
C. Glucose concentrations increase after meals in pregnancy
D. Insulin levels increase prior to meals in nonpregnant women
40. When are maternal iron stores used in pregnancy?

A. First trimester
B. Second trimester
C. Third trimester
D. Latter half of pregnancy
41. Which of the following statements regarding hemodynamic changes from the third
trimester to the postpartum period is not accurate?
A. Heart rate decreases in the postpartum period.
B. Serum colloid oncotic pressure is lower during pregnancy.
C. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is higher during pregnancy.
D. Systemic vascular resistance decreases in the postpartum period.
42. What is the relationship between stroke volume and position in the pregnant
woman when compared to the nonpregnant woman?
A. Compared to the nonpregnant state, stroke volume is increased when in the
supine position at all gestational ages.
B. Compared to the nonpregnant state, stroke volume is increased when in the
lateral position at all gestational ages.
C. At 26–30 weeks’ gestation, stroke volume in the supine position is equivalent
to that of the nonpregnant woman in the lateral position.
D. All of the above
43. Which statement accurately describes the changes in respiratory physiology during
pregnancy?
A. Respiratory rate increases.
B. Tidal volume remains the same.
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C. Inspiratory capacity rises by 5–10%.

D. Functional residual capacity decreases by approximately 50%.
44. Which of the following hepatic enzymes is increased in normal pregnancy?

A. Alanine hosphatase
B. Alkaline phosphatase
C. Aspartate transaminase
D. γ-Glutamyl transpeptidase
45. Your patient with previous diagnosis of pituitary microadenoma presents at 15

weeks’ gestation complaining of impaired vision. You suspect pituitary
enlargement. What is your next course of action?
A. Refer to ophthalmology for visual field testing
B. Collect a 24-hour urine collection
C. Refer to neurosurgery for excision
D. Initiate bromocriptine
46. Which statement accurately reflects placental growth hormone secretion in

pregnancy?
A. After 20 weeks’ gestation the placenta is the main source.
B. Primary source throughout pregnancy is the maternal pituitary gland.
C. It influences fetal growth by downregulation of insulin-like growth factor 1.
D. Placental and maternally secreted growth hormone have the same amino acid
composition.
47. Which of the following is true regarding the pituitary gland?

A. Oxytocin is secreted from the anterior pituitary gland.
B. Prolactin is secreted from the posterior pituitary gland.
C. Antidiuretic hormone is secreted from the anterior pituitary gland.
D. Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone are secreted from the posterior pituitary
gland
48. A 31-year-old G2P1 woman at 39 weeks’gestation complains of painful uterine

contractions that are occurring every 3 to 4 minutes. Her cervix has not changed from 6-
cm dilation over 3 hours. Which one of the following management plans is most
appropriate?
A. Cesarean delivery
B. Intravenous oxytocin
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C. Fetal scalp pH monitoring

D. Intranasal gonadotropin therapy
E. Observation
49. A 31-year-old G2P1 woman at 40 weeks’gestation has progressed in labor from 5 to 6 cm
cervical dilation over 3 hours. Which of the following best describes the labor?
A. Prolonged latent phase
B. Prolonged active phase
C. Arrest of active phase
D. Protracted active phase
E. Normal labor
50. A 24-year-old G2P1 woman at 39 weeks’ gestation presents with painful uterine
contractions. She also complains of dark, vaginal blood mixed with some mucus. Which
of the following describes the most likely etiology of her bleeding?
A. Placenta previa
B. Bloody show
C. Placenta abruption
D. Vasa previa
E. Cervical laceration
51. A 30-year-old G1P0 woman complains of nausea and vomiting for the first 3 months of
her pregnancy. She is noted to have a hemoglobin level of 9.0 g/ dL and a mean
corpuscular volume of 110 fL (normal 90-105 fL). Which of the following is the most
likely etiology of the anemia?
A. Iron deficiency
B. Vitamin B12 deficiency
C. Folate deficiency
D. Physiologic anemia of pregnancy
52. A 29-year old G2P1 woman at 28 weeks’gestation,who had normal hemoglobin level 4
weeks ago at her first prenatal visit, complains of 1 week of fatigue and now has a
hemoglobin level of 7.0 g/ dL. She noted dark-colored urine after taking an antibiotic for
a urinary tract infection. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Thalassemia
C.Hemolysis
D. Folate deficiency
E. Vitamin B12 deficiency
53. A 31-year-old G3P2 woman at 34 weeks’gestation presents to the OB Triage Unit due to
nausea and “not feeling well.” The BP is 110/ 82. The fetal heart rate pattern is category
1. The hemoglobin level is 9.0 g/ dL leukocyte count of 8000 cells/ mL and platelet count
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is 84 000/ fL, ALT of 500 IU/ L, AST 550 IU/ L, and bilirubin of 2.5 mg/ dL. Which of
the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute leukemia
B. HELLP syndrome
C. Hepatitis infection
D. Preeclampsia with severe features
E. Viral illness
54. A 23-year-old G1P0 woman at 38 weeks’gestation delivered a 7 lb 4 oz baby boy

vaginally. Upon delivery of the placenta, there was noted to be an inverted uterus, which
was successfully managed including replacement of the uterus. Which of the following
placental implantation sites would most likely predispose to an inverted uterus?
A. Lower segment
B. Anterior
C. Posterior
D. Lateral
E. Fundal
55. A 24-year-old woman underwent a normal vaginal delivery of a term infant female. After
the delivery, the placenta does not deliver even after 30 minutes. Which of the following
would be the next step for this patient?
A. Initiate oxytocin
B. Attempt a manual extraction of the placenta
C. Hysterectomy
D. Wait for an additional 30 minutes
E. Misoprostol estrogen intravaginally
56. A 25-year-old G1P0 woman delivers a 4000 g infant, and encounters a shoulder dystocia.
Which of the following is a risk factor for this condition?
A. Precipitous (fast) labor
B. Fetal hydrocephalus
C. Fetal prematurity
D. Maternal gestational diabetes
57. A 30-year-old woman is noted to be in active labor at 40 weeks’ gestation. Delivery of

the fetal head occurs, but the fetal shoulders do not deliver with the normal traction. The
fetal head is retracted toward the maternal introitus. Which of the following is a useful
maneuver for this situation?
A. Internal podalic version
B. Delivery of the anterior arm
C. Fundal pressure
D. Intentional fracture of the fetal humerus
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E. Suprapubic pressure
58. A 24-year-old G1P0 woman at 39 weeks’gestation had induction of labor due to
gestational hypertension. She was placed on magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis.
She was placed on oxytocin for 15 hours and reached a cervical dilation of 6 cm. After
being at 6-cm dilation for 3 hours despite adequate uterine contractions as judged by
240 Montevideo units, she underwent a cesarean delivery. The baby was delivered
without difficulty through a low-transverse incision. Upon delivery of the placenta,
profuse bleeding was noted from the uterus, reaching 1500 mL. Which of the following is
the most likely cause of hemorrhage in this patient?
A. Uterine inversion
B. Uterine laceration
C. Coagulopathy
D. Uterine atony
E. Retained placenta
59. A 26-year-oldG2P1001woman underwent a normalvaginal delivery.A viable 7 lb 4 oz

male infant was delivered. The placenta delivered spontaneously. The obstetrician noted
significant blood loss from the vagina, totaling approximately 700 mL. The uterine
fundus appeared to be well contracted. Which of the following is the most common
etiology for the bleeding in this patient?
A. Retained placenta
B. Uterine atony
C. Genital tract laceration
D. Coagulopathy
E. Endometrial ulceration
60. 34-year-old woman is noted to have significant uterine bleeding after a vaginal delivery
complicated by placenta abruption. She is noted to be bleeding from multiple
venipuncture sites. Which of the following is the best therapy?
A. Immediate hysterectomy
B. Packing of the uterus
C. Hypogastric artery ligation
D. Ligation of utero-ovarian ligaments
E. Correction of coagulopathy
61. A 26-year-old G2P2 woman underwent a normal vaginal delivery 10 days previously.
She comes into the doctor’s clinic complaining of a large amount of bright red bleeding
beginning since 5 PM the previous day. Which of the following is the most likely
diagnosis?
A. Subinvolution of the uterus
B. Cervical laceration
C. Vaginal laceration
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D. Uterine atony
E. Normal menses
62. A 30 years old multiparous woman has rapid delivery soon after arriving in emergency ro
om. After delivery the placenta she is noted to have heavy vaginal bleeding. Help has bee
n summoned. Abdominal examination demonstrated the fundus was soft. What is the mos
t appropriate next step?
A. Misoprostol administration
B. Balloon tamponade
C. Suture the laceration
D. Uterine packing
E. Intravenous access for fluid resuscitation
63. Numerous physiologic changes develop over the course of pregnancy and postpartum; ho
wever the greatest impact on potentially compromised cardiovascular system is:
A. Stroke volume decrease after delivery of placenta
B. Increased total plasma volume in second trimester
C. Maximum heart rate increases in the second trimester
D. Decreased SVR in the first trimester, and increase after 32 weeks
E. Maximal increase in cardiac output occurs during second stage of labor
64. A 25-year-old woman in her first pregnancy is noted to have prolonged first and second s
tages of labour. She was induced at 38 weeks’ pregnancy. The baby was delivered by for
ceps. After delivery the placenta she is noted to have heavy vaginal bleeding. Abdominal
examination demonstrates a relaxed uterus. What should we do if the fundus not firm afte
r placental delivery.
A. Methylergonovine (Methergine)
B. Carboprost (Hemabate, PGF2-alpha)
C. Fundal Massage
D. Misoprostol (PGE1)
E. Dinoprostone-prostaglandin E2
65. A 28-year-old G1 at 26 weeks present for her scheduled obstetric appointment. You order
ed OGTT examination that shows fasting blood glucose 102 mg/dL and 2 hours after 75
g oral glucose 185 mg/dL. Her gestational weight gain during pregnancy is 12 kg. Her B
MI before pregnancy was 26 kg/m2. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Normal OGTT
B. Gestational diabetes
C. Impaired glucose test
D. Diabetes melitus type 1
E. Diabetes mellitus type 2
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66. A Corticosteroids administered to women at risk for preterm birth have been demonstrate
d to decrease rates of neonatal respiratory distress if the birth is delayed for at least what
amount of time after the initiation of therapy?
A. 12 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 36 hours
D. 48 hours
E. 72 hours
67. A 21-year-old G1 P0 patient presents to your office with vaginal bleeding at approximate
ly 8 weeks’ gestation by her last menstrual period. Her examination is benign with a 9-we
ek-sized uterus, a closed cervical os, and a small amount of blood within the vaginal vault.
You order a complete pelvic ultrasound that shows an intrauterine gestational sac contain
ing a fetus measuring approximately 7 weeks’ gestation. Doppler sonography is unable to
demonstrate any fetal heartbeat. You decide to perform a suction D&C. When giving info
rmed consent, you discuss the risk most commonly encountered in this operation. Which
of the following is the most common risk associated with suction D&C?
A. Infection
B. Uterine perforation
C. Damage to the bladder
D. Uterovaginal bleeding
E. Need for future surgery
68.Which of the following is true regarding COVID-19 in pregnancy?

A. No anti-viral was approved by FDA for pregnant women
B. Preterm delivery and preeclampsia are increased in pregnant women with COVID-19
C. Vertical transmission is unlikely because placenta has low expression of ACE2 recept
or
D. Recommendation mode of delivery in pregnant women with COVID-19 is normal del
ivery with 1 health provider
E. Evidence showed that pregnancy offers an altered immunity scenario which may allo
w severe COVID-19 disease
69. According to algorithm for management of fetal growth restriction, you evaluate the Do
ppler Velocimetry then find a reserved end diastolic flow and oligohydramnios. What is t
he appropriate management at this time?
A. Regular fetal testing
B. Weekly evaluation of amniotic fluid
C. Consider corticosteroids for fetal lung maturation
D. Deliver the baby
E. Reevaluate middle cerebral arteries and ductus venosus
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70. Mrs. B, 37-years-old came to your office at 32 weeks of gestation according to her last me
nstrual period. She has no ultrasound examination before and did not do her routine anten
atal care. The vital sign is within normal limit. She has body mass index 19 kg/m2. Durin
g physical examination, the uterine fundal height is 22 cm. From ultrasound examination,
the fetus has biometric values that correlate with 30 weeks fetus. Which of the following i
s the next best step in managing this patient?
a. Antenatal care routinely for the next 2 weeks
b. Evaluate maternal status and comorbidities
c. Consider deliver the baby
d. Repeat sonography for fetal growth in 2 weeks
e. Doppler velocimetry evaluation every 3 days
71. Mrs E, 32 yo referred from midwife with antepartum hemorrhage. She is G3P2 term pregn
ancy. On examination her blood pressure is 160/100 mmHg, HR 100 bpm. She looks ane
mic, not icteric. Obstetrical examinations reveal contraction 4-5x/10 minutes, FHR 170 b
pm, head presentation 3/5. After thorough examination it is concluded that there is a plac
ental abruption with retroplacental hematoma size 6x5 cm. This patient is planned to do c
esarean section. If during operation the uterus is couvelaire but with good contraction, ho
w would you manage that condition?
A. Perform prophylactic b-lynch suture
B. Ascending uterine artery ligation
C. Hypogastric artery ligation
D. Sub total hysterectomy
E. Uterotonic and observation
72. What is the most common cause of heart failure during pregnancy and the puerperium?
A. Chronic hypertension with severe preeclampsia
B. Viral myocarditis
C. Obesity
D. Valvular heart disease
E. Pulmonary Artery Hypertension
73. A 36 years old patient, P0, presents to your clinic for fertility workup. She had been marri
ed for 2 years with regular intercourse. Her menstrual cycle is normal. Her general status
was normal. Vaginal examination revealed normal findings. Which of the following
examination that is not included in basic workup in the patient?
A. Hysterosalpingography
B. Ultrasonography
C. Semen analysis
D. Endometrial dating according to Noyes criteria
E. Mid luteal progesterone examination
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74.. A 18-year-old adolescent female complains of not having started her menses. Her breast
d evelopment is Tanner stage II, Pubic hair development was stage I. From vaginal exami
nation found a small uterus and normal vagina and vulva. Which of the following describ
es the most likely diagnosis?
A. Partial androgen insensitivity syndrome
B. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome
C. Turner syndrome
D. Late onset congenital hyperplasia
E. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
75. An 18-year-old adolescent female is noted to have a marginal placenta previa on an

ultrasound examination at 22 weeks’gestation. She does not have vaginal bleeding or
spotting. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
A. Schedule cesarean delivery at 39 weeks
B. Schedule an amniocentesis at 34 weeks and deliver by cesarean if the fetal lungs are
mature
C. Schedule an MRI examination at 35 weeks to assess for possible percreta involving
the bladder
D. Reassess placental position at 32 weeks’gestation by ultrasound
E. Recommend termination of pregnancy
76. A 45 years old woman presents to your office for consultation regarding her symptoms of
menopause. She stopped having periods 13 months ago after TAH-BSO operation and is
having severe hot flushes. The hot flushes are causing her considerable stress. What is the
management option for this patient?
A. Monophasic combined oral contraceptive pills
B. Biphasic combined oral contraceptive pills
C. Sequential estrogen-progestin therapy
D. Estrogen only pills
E. Progestin only pills
77. A 45 years old woman presents to your office for consultation regarding her symptoms of
menopause. She stopped having periods 13 months ago after BSO operation and is
having severe hot flushes. The hot flushes are causing her considerable stress. Which of
the following medication that you will give for hormonal therapy?
A. Estrogen only therapy
B. Biphasic combined oral contraception
C. Monophasic combined oral contraception
D. Triphasic combined oral contraception
E. Sequential estrogen-progestin therapy
78.. A 20-year-old G1P1 presents to the emergency room 10 days after an uncomplicated
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vaginal delivery complaining of fever, nausea/vomiting, abdominal pain, and increased

vaginal discharge. On arrival, she is febrile to 38.6 °C and she has fundal tenderness on
exam. Which of the following tests would be least helpful for further evaluation?
A. A complete blood count
B. A basic metabolic profile
C. A transvaginal ultrasound
D. A Gram stain of her vaginal discharge
A 25-year-old G2P1 patient at 32 weeks of gestation, complained of pain in the waist and groin
for 3 days, accompanied by mucus mixed with blood from the genitals. After examining the
height of the uterine fundus half the umbilical-processus xiphoideus, cervical dilatation 1-2 cm,
with effacement of 30%, membranes intact, the lower part of the breech of palpable.
79. What intervention should be considered in this patient based on the above data?
A. Tocolytic therapy
B. Bedrest total
C. Lung maturation therapy
D. Antibiotic therapy
E. A and C are correct
80. If preterm labor is unavoidable in this patient, what is the appropriate mode of delivery?
A. Vaginal delivey
B. Caesarean section
C. Vacuum Extraction
D. Forceps Extraction
E. Not one of the above
81. Management of labor in the above patient is very dependent on?

A. Mother's age
B. Facilities and infrastructure available
C. Physician skills
D. Gestational age
E. A and C are correct
82.. What is the appropriate tocolytic therapy for this patient?

A. Calcium antagonist
B. Mefenamic acid
C. Total bed rest
D. Atracrium
E. Indomethacin
A 30-year-old patient comes with complaints of bleeding after giving birth to her 4th child seven
days ago with a midwife with a manual history of placenta. After checking blood pressure
UNIVERSITAS ANDALAS
FAKULTAS KEDOKTERAN
100/80 mmHg, pulse rate 100x/minute, conjunctiva looks pale, uterine fundal as high as
umbilical and hard contraction, Haemoglobin 8.8 mg/dL platelets 180 103/uL.
83. The possible causes of bleeding in the above cases are;
A. Uterine atony
B. Manual placenta
C. Laeration/trauma
D. Infection
E. Residual tissue/placental
84.. Supporting data to answer question no 83 are;
A. uterine contractions
B. Platelet levels
C. Manual placenta
D. Hemoglobin level
E. Uterine fundal height
85. Examinations needed to find the cause of bleeding in these patients are;
A. Inspeculo
B. Laboratory, namely leukocytes
C. CT scan of the pelvis
D. Ultrasound
E. Pelvic X-ray
86.. Bleeding in the above case is also called;

A. Early/primer HPP
B. Post partum haemorrhage
C. Antepartum haemorrhage
D. Late/Secondary HPP
E. HPP et causa retained placenta
An 18-year-old unmarried woman with complaints of never having menstruation, mammae,

armpit and pubic hair appear normal. Height 150 cm with normal BMI
87. The woman's complaint falls within the definition below;
A. Secondary amenorrhea
B. Primary amenorrhea
C. Oligomenorrhea
D. Amenorrhea
E. Hypomenorrhea
88. The woman complains of cyclic pain every month, the possibility of the correct diagnosis in
this woman is;
A. Ovarian disorders
B. Chromosomal abnormalities
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FAKULTAS KEDOKTERAN
C. Imperforate hymen
D. uterine abnormalities
E Turner's syndrome
A 26-year-old G2P2001 woman at 40 weeks and 2 days is seen in clinic for prenatal care. She is
experiencing occasional contractions and has a sense of pressure in her vagina, but does not feel
like she is in labor (as she experienced in her first delivery). Her first child was born at 41 weeks
following an induction, resulting in a normal spontaneous vaginal delivery. She is interested in
an induction for this pregnancy as well. You perform a cervical examination and discuss options
with her.
89. Which of the following cervical examinations is the most favorable for induction of labor?
A. Cervix closed, posterior, firm with 0% effacement
B. Cervix soft, midposition, 3 cm dilated, 50% effaced with −2 station
C. Cervix soft,anterior,4 cm dilated, 80% effaced with −1 station
D. Cervix medium, posterior, consistence, 2 cm dilated, 30% effaced
E. Cervix soft, midposition, 3 cm dilated, 50% effaced with −3 station
90. For women undergoing induction of labor with a Bishop score of 5 or less, which of the
following is a commonly used first step?
A. Nonstress test
B. Oxytocin drip
2
C. Cervical application of prostaglandinE
D. Cesarean section
E. Attempts at induction should be avoided at a Bishop score of less than 5
91. Which of the following is not a contraindication to use of prostaglandins in labor

induction?
A. Maternal asthma
B. Nonreassuring fetal testing
C. A prior cesarean section
D. Maternal glaucoma
E. Maternal SLE
92. Once the patient is in active labor and 6 cm dilated, you notice that on two subsequent
examinations she is failing to make progress. Which of the following would be
appropriate for evaluating the adequacy of contractions?
A. Fetal scalp electrode
B. Intrauterine pressure catheter
C. Abdominal ultrasound
D. Speculum examination
E. Serum oxytocin levels
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FAKULTAS KEDOKTERAN
A 26-year-old G1P0 woman presents for a prenatal visit at 34 weeks’ gestation. She complains
of some mild nausea and vomiting over the past 3 days. She has no headache and no visual
changes. Her BP is 142/83 mm Hg. On examination, she has +1 lower extremity pitting edema,
and +3 reflexes bilaterally with four beats of clonus. A urinalysis dip has +1 protein.
93. Which of the following questions would be helpful?
A. Do you have double vision?
B. Do you have pain radiating down your legs?
C. Are you constipated?
D. Do you have pain in your right upper abdomen?
E. Do you have ringing in your ears?
94. Which of the following laboratory tests would NOT be helpful at this point?
A. Platelets
B. WBC
C. Liverfunctiontests(LFTs)
D. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
E. Obstetric ultrasound
95. The laboratory test results come back with elevated LFTs, low platelets, a normal hematocrit
(Hct), and an elevated LDH. What is her diagnosis?
A. Preeclampsia
B. Eclampsia
C. Chronic hypertension
D. HELLP syndrome
E. GH
96. The next step in her management is:

A. Schedule a follow-up appointment in 1 week
B. Start oral nifedipine
C. IV hydralazine
D. induction of labor
E. immediate cesarean delivery
A 28-year-old G2P1001 woman at 39 and 4/7 weeks’ GA presents to labor and delivery. Her
contractions started 10 hours ago and now have increased in frequency to every 5 minutes. She
reports a spontaneous gush of fluid, which was clear, just before the contractions started. She has
continued to leak clear fluid and denies any vaginal bleeding. Her vital signs are significant for
maternal heart rate of 110 beats per minute. You put her on the monitor and note the fetal heart
rate to be in the 170s and reactive. You perform a sterile speculum examination and confirm
rupture of membranes (ROM) and note the fluid is cloudy with a foul odor. An abdominal
examination confirms cephalic presentation but is notable for mild uterine tenderness.
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FAKULTAS KEDOKTERAN
97. What additional information would help you confirm the diagnosis?
A. Maternal fever greater than 39°C
B. Decreased maternal WBC
C. Decreasedamnioticfluid
D. Blood cultures e. Urineculture
98. You diagnose her with chorioamnionitis/Triple I and admit her for IV antibiotics and
augmentation of her labor. What is the most common causative organism(s)?
A. Listeria monocytogenes
B. Gardnerella vaginosis
C. Polymicrobial infection of rectovaginal organisms
D. Group B streptococcus (GBS).
E. Enterococcus
99. Which of the following is one of the recommended antibiotic regimens?

A. IV penicillin
B. IV vancomycin
C. IV ceftriaxone
D. IV ampicillin and gentamicin
E. IV clindamycin
100. Which of the following is not a chorioamnionitis/Triple I?

A. Endomyometritis
B. Maternal sepsis
C. Postpartum hemorrhage
D. Neonatal pneumonia
E. Pyelonephritis
== 0 ==

SOAL UJIAN MCQ Jan 2022

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KEMENTERIAN PENDIDIKAN, KEBUDAYAAN,

RISET, DAN TEKNOLOGI

SOAL UJIAN MCQ

2. Which of the following is an example of an indirect maternal death?

4. A patient presents at 22 weeks’ gestation with spontaneous rupture of membranes and

5. Most infant deaths occur in which of the following groups?

6. The labia minora is invested by which of the following structures?

12. Which combination of structures provides support for fecal continence?

B. External anal sphincter and levator ani muscle

18. Which of the following is accurate regarding the midpelvis?

C. Is marked by the interspinous diameter

20. Which structure arises from the urogenital sinus?

22. Where is fetal antimüllerian hormone produced?

23. Which complication is associated with Turner syndrome?

25. A woman with Mayer-Rokitansky-Küster-Hauser syndrome presents to your

C (William ed 25 no soal 3-14) hal 15

30. When is this patient most likely to present?

A. In utero with polyhydramnios

31. Which of the following is the most common uterine anomaly?

D. Ovary and glans penis

B. 30–40 weeks’ gestation

40. When are maternal iron stores used in pregnancy?

C. Inspiratory capacity rises by 5–10%.

44. Which of the following hepatic enzymes is increased in normal pregnancy?

45. Your patient with previous diagnosis of pituitary microadenoma presents at 15

46. Which statement accurately reflects placental growth hormone secretion in

47. Which of the following is true regarding the pituitary gland?

48. A 31-year-old G2P1 woman at 39 weeks’gestation complains of painful uter- ine

C. Fetal scalp pH monitoring

54. A 23-year-old G1P0 woman at 38 weeks’gestation delivered a 7 lb 4 oz baby boy

57. A 30-year-old woman is noted to be in active labor at 40 weeks’ gestation. Delivery of

59. A 26-year-oldG2P1001woman underwent a normalvaginal delivery.A viable 7 lb 4 oz

68.Which of the following is true regarding COVID-19 in pregnancy?

75. An 18-year-old adolescent female is noted to have a marginal placenta previa on an

vaginal delivery complaining of fever, nausea/vomiting, abdominal pain, and increased

81. Management of labor in the above patient is very dependent on?

82.. What is the appropriate tocolytic therapy for this patient?

86.. Bleeding in the above case is also called;

An 18-year-old unmarried woman with complaints of never having menstruation, mammae,

91. Which of the following is not a contraindication to use of prostaglandins in labor

96. The next step in her management is:

99. Which of the following is one of the recommended antibiotic regimens?

100. Which of the following is not a chorioamnionitis/Triple I?

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