* NLE * NCLEX * CGFNS * HAAD * PROMETRICS * DHA * MIDWIFERY * LET * RAD TECH * CRIMINOLOGY * DENTISTRY * PHARMACY *

Maternal and Child Health Nursing

Prepared By: Dr. Marie Therese Pacabis
Philippine Nursing Licensure Examination
NAME:
1. Paula attends a seminar on OB emergencies. The following are identified as alert/danger signs in
pregnancy and needs to be referred immediately:
A. A pregnant woman fainting on her 16th weeks AOG common as uterus compresses vena cava
B. Maternal BP= 130/100 mhg with history of PES not immediate
C. Tender uterus with cramping and lower abdominal pain ADDRESS THE PAIN, POSSIBLE BLEEDING
D. Tender mass, uterus equivalent to age of gestation normal
DANGER SIGNS: BLEEDING/SPOTTING, SVERE HEADACHE, CRAMPING, HIGH FEVER, SEIZURES, LEAKING
BAG, ABENSE OF FETAL MOVEMENT,
2. The nurse at the PNC is assessing a pregnant client. She notes that the fundus of the uterus is
below the navel. This implies that: BELOW NAVEL: <20 WKS, NOT STILL ON AOG
A. The pregnancy is on its early stages and non-viable SYMPHYSIS PUBIS - 12 WKS
B. The pregnancy is on the second trimester NAVEL/UMBILICUS - 20 WKS
C. The pregnancy is early and viable XIPHOID PROCESS - 36 WKS
2 FINGERBREADTHS BELOW XIPHOID - TERM
D. The woman needs further monitoring
ABOVE NAVEL: LATE PREGNANCY, BELOW-EARLY
3. The woman bleeds at around 14-16 weeks AOG. The nurse would consider this possible condition
except:
1ST TRI: ABORTION, MOLAR, ECTOPIC
A. Abortion 2ND: H. MOLE
ABORTION:
-BLIGHTED OVUM (FETAL)
B. Placenta previa 3RD TRI: PLACENTA PREVIA, ABRUPTIO PLACENTA
-INFECTION, STRESS,
C. Molar pregnancy TRAUMA AND UNDERLYING
D. Ectopic pregnancy MEDICAL CONDITION
(MATERNAL)
4. A woman consults the nearest clinic in her neighborhood. She complains of bleeding and states,
she is 6 months pregnant. A certifies nurse can do all of the following except:
A. Take VS and FHB ASSESS
B. Ask her to lie down in the examining table for further assessment ASSESS
C. Fill up a referral form to the nearest BEMONC facility or hospital DON'T ATTEND TO BLEEDING PT.
D. Performs a vaginal exam to determine is the woman is in labor NO IE DURING PREGNANCY AND
DOUBLE SET UP: IE AND BLOOD TRANSFUSION WHEN BLEEDING
5. When upon assessment the nurse observes that the uterus is soft, fetus is palpable but the woman
bleeds on and off at 34 weeks AOG, she suspects:
A. Abnormal proliferation and trophoblast H. MOLE
B. Abnormal presentation of the fetus CEPHALIC (VERTEX), SHOULDER, BREECH - NOT CAUSES BLEED
C. A premature separation of the placenta ABRUPTIO - SEPARATES AT 3RD STAGE OF LABOR
D. An abnormally implanted placenta NORMALLY: UPPER ANTERIOR

6. All of the factors are causes of postpartum hemorrhage. Which of those is not labor related?
A. Operative delivery of the baby NSD: HAVE 1 BAG (500ML) OF BLOOD, CS: 3 BAGS (1500ML)
B. Multiparity and anemia of the woman G5: GRANDMULTIPARITY

COACHING WITH THE ICONS 1

 DYSTOCIA CAUSES:
1. POWER- MOST COMMON D/T HYPOTONIC
A) UTERINE - INVOLUNTARY
C. Prolonged, dystocia labor B) MUSCLES - VOLUNTARY PUSHING
D. Repeated vaginal examinations PASSAGE
PASSENGER
MAXIMUM 5 IE DURING LABOR
7. Seizures during pregnancy are very dangerous. These are the characteristic of eclampsia that a
nurse must know except: GIVE MAGNESIUM SULFATE -CNS DEPRESSANT (HYPOTENSIVE & SEDATIVE)
A. Can be cause of high maternal and prenatal mortality
B. May occur before the fetus is viable ONLY IN LATE PREGNANCY (>20 WEEKS)
C. Can be observed anytime in labor
D. Can occur immediately after birth and on to the first 24 hours postpartum.
INCOMPLETE - PLACENTAL FRAGMENTS ARE RETAINED INSIDE - DNC OR SUCTION
8. Which among these type of abortion gives a clinical sign and brownish bleeding, if negative
pregnancy test and uterine size smaller than the age of gestation?
A. Inevitable Abortion BOW RUTURED, CERVIX DILATED, BODY PARTS INSIDE - OXYTOCIN
B. Missed Abortion 2 WKS DEATH INTRAUTERINE, NO BAG, CERVIX CLOSED - OXYTOCIN
C. Threatened AbortionFETUS AND BAG INTACT, CERVIX CLOSED, GOOD PROGNOSIS - DUVADILAN
(MUSCLE RELAXANT) AND TOCOLYTICS
D. Spontaneous Abortion INVOLUNTARY
INDUCED ABORTION - VOLUNTARY (STILL ILLEGAL IN PHILIPPINES)
9. Severe preeclampsia has devastating effects on the mother and the fetus. Which is not a maternal
side effect of PES? FETAL S/E +30 (SYSTOLE), +15 DIASTOLE from pre-pregnancy bp= PIH
A. Acute Renal Failure
B. Pulmonary Edema MILD: GIVE HYDRALAZINE
C. Intrauterine Fetal DeathEFFECTS: BRAIN (CVA), EYES (TEMPORARY BLIND-REVERSE AFTER1-2 MOS),
D. HELLP Syndrome HEART (CHF), LUNGS (PULM EDEMA), LIVER (RUPTURE OF LIVER CAPSULE),
KIDNEY (RENAL FAILURE), PLACENTA (SMALL OR ABRUPTIO), BLOOD (DIC &
HELLP SYNDROME)
10. STD’s may cause infertility among women, if not treated. Which among these can cause it?
A. Syphilis and Chlamydia
B. HIV and Gonorrhea CHECK VIA VAGINAL SMEARS
C. Gonorrhea and Chlamydia INFLAMMED PELVIS, FALLOPIAN TUBES THEN SCARS
D. All of the above

11. A nurse is in the labor room instructs a mother in normal labor to do the following except:
A. Perform deep breathing excesses inhaling deeply relaxes uterine muscles = BETTER CONTRACTION
B. Assume any position she wants CONSIDERING NORMAL
C. Do bearing down efforts when contractions set in to hasten labor
D. Relax in between contractions

12. A mother is on her 4th day postpartum. She begins to exhibit discomfort and verbalize this. The
nurse suspects a possible postpartum infection. Which is a reliable index of puerperal sepsis?
A. Uterine tenderness ENC: AFTER BIRTH FOR NEWBORN and EIC: MOTHER
B. Rapid pulse rate over 90bpm 1ST STAGE: DEEP BREATHING, MOBILITY OF MOTHER (make sure BOW
intact) to shorten labor (don't lie down), give food and fluids (light carb - for
C. Fever of 2 days (38C) energy to push), have companion, effleurage, hot compress on sacrum, and
D. Increased WBC to 12,000/dl cold compress on top of head, pain meds (Meperidine/Demerol), partograph

13. Oxytocin are beneficial drugs used in labor. The nurse must be aware of the danger oxytocin use
which is: POSTPARTUM COMPLICATIONS
A. Hypotonic contraction of the uterus -endometriosis, mastitis, UTI, thrombophlebitis, repeated vaginal
B. Hypertonic contraction of the uterus examination
C. Uterine rupture fever - after delivery (infxn)
COACHING WITH THE ICONS 3rd or 4th day postpartum - mastitis (engorged) 2
High WBC - normal
 1st: Oxytocin
2nd: Methergine - straight contraction no po pre-eclamptic
3rd: Carboprost/Misoprostol - third line
D. Hypotension and shock

14. In the menstrual cycle involving the hypothalamic- pituitary- ovarian- endometrial relationship,
often called the “master gland” is the: menstruation, ovulation, fertilization, pregnancy - REP. PROCESSES
A. Hypothalamus *fertilization - removed since IVF
B. Pituitary Gland *Hormonal method
1st 3 months after mernarche - no ovulation yet
C. Ovary
Hypothalamus - GNRH - Anterior PG - FSH (estrogen) then LH (progesterone)
D. Endometrium FSH - ripen ovary - LH rupture matured ovum - low levels of hormone = SHED OFF

15. Part of the refocused antenatal care by WHO is the injection of tetanus toxoid vaccines. The
nurses knows that: TT is primarily for the baby
A. 2 Doses of TT protects the mother for 5 years
PREGNANT CAN RECEIVE COVID VAX
B. 4 Doses of TT protect the mother for 2 years -covid can't go through breastmilk
C. One dose of TTT protect the mother for 2 years -vax will protect mother and baby
D. 2 Dose of TT protect the mother for at most 3 years

16. The MDG have ended in 2015, SDG are now the basis of targets and objectives of the country to
address global concerns. By 2030, what is the target rate of MMR?
A. 52
B. 62
C. 70
D. 75 per 100,00

17. Mastitis is a common problem among BF mothers, especially the primiparas. Considered to be the
most common cause of sore the nipple is :
A. Prolonged BF One cause is also: POOR HYGIENE
-mother should take a bath regularly, not
B. Too frequent BF
every before feeding
C. Sucking in bad position poor latching/poor attachment
D. Failure to wash the nipple prior to every feeding
3 POSITIVE SIGNS: FETAL HEART RATE,
18. The earliest positive sign of pregnancy in: VISUALIZATION, FETAL MOVEMENT - BY EXAMINER
A. A positive pregnancy test at 8 weeks PROBABLE
B. An UTZ done at 6-7 weeks"PREGNANCY UTERINE 6-7, FETAL SAC NORMAL, FHR: 90"
C. FHB determination by Doppler 10-12 WEEKS
D. Fetal movement felt by the mother PROBABLE
1ST PRESUMPTIVE SIGN: AMENORRHEA
19. A recommended standard method to monitor labor comprehensively is:
A. Monitoring the regularity of the contractions DURATION - beginning to end (sec)
B. Performing vaginal exams as soon as labor commences FREQUENCY - beginning to another (min)
C. Use of partograph INTERVAL - end to beginning (min)
D. Taking the vital signs of the mother and the FHB of the fetus

20. A nurse upon interview of the pregnant woman calculates that her regular caloric intake prior to
pregnancy is 2,300kcal. She estimates that the mother’s total caloric intake now must be:
A. 2,500 If pregnant: add + 300 kcal Iron, Folic Acid - prevent neural tube
B. 2,600 If breast feeding - add +500 kcal Protein - for tissue growth
C. 2,700 WEIGHT (malnourish & PIH) Edema,
D. 3,000 Calcium HPN, and proteinuria
COACHING WITH THE ICONS -mother should drink milk 1 quart of 1st: 1lb/month 3
milk or eat legumes 2nd and 3rd: 1lb/wk
-prevents leg cramps 25-35 lbs throughout pregnany
21. A nurse intends to put up her own birthing center after being certified. Which would guide her in
the requirement needed to be licensed?
A. RA 10345 1 sacrum (backbone of pelvis), 1 coccyx (movable)
B. AO 0029-2008 Hip bones - consist of ileum (high), ischium (lower), pubis (anterior), symphysis pubic
Anterior posterior diameter Inlet: symphisis to sacrum
C. AO 0012-2012 a) Diagonal - estimate size of OB conjugate (minimum: 11.5 cm)
D. RA 9173 b) OB conjugate - smallest diameter (10cm)
c) Anatomical or true conjugate
22. When upon vaginal examination in labor, the nurse assesses the clinical spines to be prominent
and less than 9cm, there is likely a contraction of which part of the pelvis?
A. Midplane pelvis
Glynecoid - NSD
B. Outlet
anthropoid - NSD
C. Inlet android and platypyloid - CS
D. Ileum

23. The nurse performs the Leopold’s maneuver on a pregnant mother. These are her findings: small
parts on the left side of the abdomen, plain mass on the right side. What is the presumed position of
the fetus? plain mass is the back
A. ROA back is on the right side, so occiput is on the right side
B. LOA
C. LOP
D. ROT

24. What are the factors considered by the nurse to perform AMTSL? ACTIVE MANAGEMENT OF THE THIRD
STAGE OF LABOR (to shorten second
1. The baby is delivered stage of labor)
2. There is no second baby
3. The placental signs of separation are observed EXPECTANT MANAGEMENT
4. The placenta is expelled OR TRADITIONAL (NOON)
A. 1 and 2 AFTERWARDS, INJECT OXYTOCIN 1ML
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4
ovarian: FOLLICULAR (estrogen and FHS) and luteal (progesterone and LH)
25. A nurse does a health class for adolescents in a school. She talks about menstruation. These are
true except:
A. The luteal phase of the menstrual cycle is influenced by estrogen and LH. progesterone
B. Menstruation comes in predictable, regular cycle in women
C. It is assumed that every menstruation comes with ovulation, unless using a method.
D. Menstruation is directly influenced by ovarian hormones and indirectly by gonadotrophic
hormones

26. Abortion is the expulsion of the product of conception before the age of viability. Which best
describes an abortus?
A. Fetus expelled at 20 weeks and weighs 500 grams or more
B. Fetus expelled in early pregnancy and weighs 500 grams
C. Fetus expelled before 20 weeks and weighs less than 500 grams
D. Fetus expelled before 28 weeks and weighs less than 1000 grams

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27. The mother develops laceration during the birth of the baby. The nurse assess the wound and
would not suture if:
A. If is 3rd-4th degree laceration
B. Third degree laceration and the nurse is certified
C. The wound involves the cavernous and perineal muscles and she is certified to do so
D. The wound involves the fourchette and the coccygeus muscle

28. H-mole is an abnormality that may lead to trophoblastic cancer. In pregnancy, the nurse begins
to suspect H-mole when:
A. The mother suddenly gains weight
B. There is more nausea and vomiting reported by the mother
C. The uterus is rapidly increasing size, more than the expected AOG
D. The uterus is midway between the symphysis pubis and the navel at 16 weeks AOG.

29. A trained nurse performs a vaginal exam on a woman in labor at the ER. Her findings show the
cx=3cm, Diagonal conjugate is 11 cm. What would she conclude and inform the doctor?
A. The OB conjugate is 10 cm and the pelvis is adequate for NSD
B. The OB conjugate is more than adequate is adequate for NSD
C. The pelvis is contracted and NSD is not possible
D. The pelvis is borderline and assisted vaginal birth can be tried

30. Implantation is a significant event that is necessary for pregnancy to push through. Choose the
right statement on implantation:
A. It occurs from 5-7 days after fertilization
B. The blastocyst implants in the decidua basalis
C. The implantation stage of the zygote is the morula.
D. The chorionic villi of the blastocyst implants in the decidua vera

31. The nurse constantly monitors the FHR in labor. She knows fully well if the fetus is in distress
because:
A. The FHR decelerate as soon as uterine contraction begins
B. The FHR decelerated as soon as the fetus begins to move
C. The result of the NST is reactive
D. There are no late deceleration during uterine activity

32. If the nurse upon assessing the fundic height of the uterus finds it to have “dropped” 2FB below
the xiphoid, she assumes all of the following except:
A. Labor can ensue with 2 weeks
B. The uterus is smaller than the normal sized uterus
C. Engagement well follow soon after
D. A possible NSD is expected as the pelvis is presumably adequate

33. The BOW ruptures in the course of labor. Upon inspection the nurse observes a brownish color of
the AF and wrote “M” on the partograph. This means:
A. The mother must be transferred to the DR immediately for signs of uterine rupture.
B. The FHR must be taken ASAP because of impending delivery
C. The fetus is in distressed and must be delivered as soonest
D. The fetus must be furthered monitored and observed for fetal distress, asphyxia on stillbirth.
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34. Pregnancy is diabetogenic. Upon first visit at 3 months, these are the routine procedures done
except which one?
A. Palpation of abdomen
B. Blood sugar screening test with 75 grams glucose
C. Vaginal exam to assess pelvic adequacy
D. Physical assessment- cephalocaudal inspection

35.Physiologic anemia in pregnancy occurs . These are true statement except:

A. This is due to increasing blood volume
B. The usual hemoglobin level of Filipino mothers fall at 10-11 gms/dl
C. Increasing clotting factors in pregnancy aggravates anemia
D. Iron is a “must” drug supplementation

36. When will the nurse suspect preeclampsia pregnancy?

1. The blood pressure is 140/90mmhg at 22 weeks AOG
2. There is protein in the urine
3. The mother complains of not feeling well, fever and headache
4. Before 20 weeks, fainting and dizzy spells are noted
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. All

37. The nurse talks a lot about nutrition to pregnant mothers whenever they do PNC. Those are
nutrients that are much needed especially for fetal development in the first trimester:
A. Folic acid, mebendazole
B. Iron and anti-malarial drugs
C. Iodine and folic acid
D. Iron and Iodine

38. An oral glucose tolerance test is ordered on the second trimester toa pregnant client. Which is
the correct dosage?
A. 50 grams glucose in 2 hours
B. 100 grams glucose in 2 hours
C. 75 grams glucose in 2 hours
D. 75 grams glucose in 1 hour

39. The first step towards preventing maternal and neonatal complication is:
A. Following the MNCHN referral system
B. Implementing the BEMONC program during emergencies
C. Performing the 4 steps of refocused antenatal care
D. Spacing pregnancy for 3-5 years

40. A mother in labor goes to a nurse led clinic for possible admission. Upon inspection she sees the
cords protruding thru the vulva. Her first immediate action is:
A. Take the FHR and prepare for transport
B. Push the cord up to reposition
C. Deliver the baby asap to prevent fetal death
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 D. Elevate the buttocks and avoid head compressing on the cord and transport immediately

41. Dystocia is one of the major reasons for both fetus and mother to be compromised during labor.
In an ROP, the problem occurs mostly in what mechanism or cardinal movement of the fetus in labor.
A. Descent and Flexion
B. Internal Rotation
C. External rotation
D. Extension of the head

42. Risks for teenage pregnancies would be the following except:

A. Preeclampsia
B. Preterm Labor
C. Increase abdominal delivery
D. Transverse lie of the fetus

43. When the HCW insists on delivering the baby’s head during uterine contractions and asks the
mother to push harder during crowning, This usually occurs:
A. Cord prolapse
B. Precipitate delivery leading to “fall” of the baby
C. Uterine rupture
D. Lacerations of the birth canal

44. A question in MCN class was asked. How are placenta previa and abruptio placenta similar? The
best answer is both —
A. Cause severe bleeding, increasing in amount
B. Associated with hard firm fundus
C. Cause uterine bleeding leading to hemorrhage
D. May lead to eventual induction of labor to save fetal life

45. IUD is recommended as a method generally to multipara. A very common occurrence that must
be relayed by the nurse to client is:
A. She may have severe menstruation
B. She may develop severe cramps
C. She is at risk for vaginal infections
D. Tendency for the device to be spontaneously expelled

46. When a woman at 12 weeks complains of sudden, knife like pain radiating to the shoulders, the
ER nurse suspects:
A. Ectopic Pregnancy
B. H-mole
C. Abortion
D. Abruptio placenta

47. Oral contraceptive pills and implants are hormonal methods of FP. What is its action as a
method?
A. Prevents implantation
B. Suppresses estrogen and FSH in re-blood
C. Prevents fertilization to occur
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 D. Suppresses the release of gonadotropic hormones FSH and LH

48. Mastitis is commonly complaints by primiparous mothers. Choose a characteristic of this

complication.
A. It occurs in all BF mothers
B. Occurs generally when BF has been established by around 2-3 weeks post partum
C. Its causative agents are streptococcus and staphylococcus
D. Identified causes are poor nutrition and hygiene of the mother

49. A woman in labor, under the watch of the nurse, goes into 14 hours first stage. The nurses
suspects the following causes except:
A. A small pelvis; a big baby
B. Fetal abnormalities like hydrocephalus
C. The fetus may be abnormally presented
D. The estimated fetal weight is 3,000 grams

50. These are risk factors identified with placenta previa except:
A. Elderly gravida
B. Multiparity
C. Primigravida
D. History of multiple abortions

51. These are true in diabetes in pregnancy:

1. High risk factors are the obese, teenage pregnant mothers
2. Insulin is needed as soon as pregnancy commences or begins because of HCG
3. A glucose test is performed if high factors are identified, otherwise a glucose screening
test is done between 24-28 weeks AOG
4. On the screening test of 50 grams glucose, the cut off value after one hour is 140mg/dl
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4

52. These maternal conditions are associated with risk to abruptio placenta except:
A. Cigarette smoking
B. Trauma
C. Hypertension
D. G6 and above

53. Eclampsia is a major event that can lead to maternal death. The nurse must be alert at these
time for its occurrence except:
A. In pregnancy before 20 weeks AOG
B. In pregnancy after 20 weeks AOG
C. At anytime in labor
D. During the first 48 hours postpartum

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54. When will the nurse say that there is PROM?
A. Pattern the BOW ruptures at the onset of labor
B. When the BOW rupture during the transitional phase?
C. Before the onset of labor, the BOW ruptures
D. When the BOW rupture at term

55. A multigravida must be watched for prolonged labor. The common cause is:
A. Cervical dystocia
B. Hypertonic contraction of the uterus
C. Tetanic contractions of the uterus
D. Hypotonic contraction of the uterus

56.All these hormones play a large part in contracting muscles of organs like the uterus. Which one
does not?
A. Prostaglandin
B. Estrogen
C. Oxytocin
D. Relaxin

57. A woman in labor is assessed to have contractions every 10-15 minutes, that lasts for 40-45
seconds. She is in which phase of labor?
A. 1st stage of labor
B. Latent
C. Active
D. Transitional

58. Fetal assessment is a major assessment task of the nurse. When the woman is in labor, when is
the best time to take the FHR?
A. At the beginning of contraction
B. In between contractions at intervals
C. During contraction
D. Immediately after contraction

59. A woman continues to vomit beyond her 1st trimester. She is diagnosed to have hyperemesis
gravidarum and is admitted to the hospital. All these are signs manifested by the woman except
which one?
A. Fever and increased pulse rate
B. Loss of weight
C. Skin is dry and lacks turgor
D. Urine is frequent and excessive

60. A women diagnosed with multifetal pregnancy goes for PNC. This is her first visit to the clinic.
Which sign will not be true upon the nurse assessment?
A. Uterus is three finger below the xiphoid
B. There is multiplicity of fetal parts on the left and right side of the mother
C. Premature contractions occurs that may lead to preterm labor
D. Location of 2 separate FHR sites

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61. Which hormone is unique only to pregnancy and begins to be released as soon as implantation is
done?
A. HPL
B. LH and FSH
C. HCG
D. Prolactin

62. Vitamin A is teratogenic if taken in routinely and in large amounts in pregnancy. How much is
generally given?
A. 10,000 IU
B. 100,000 IU
C. 1,000 IU
D. 200,000 IU

63. These are true statements of menstruation except:

A. Occurs periodically and regularly to women of reproductive age
B. Occurs for an average of one week with moderate flow
C. Occurs monthly with an approximate amount of 100-150 ml daily
D. Ceases at approximately around 45 years onwards when reproductive process end

64. These are harmful practices that must be avoided by the practicing SBA except which one?
A. Push on the abdomen during contraction in the second stage of labor
B. Pull on the cord to deliver the placenta
C. Wait for the fluid to stop before referring to the higher level facility
D. Injecting oxytocin after the birth of the baby ruling out a second baby

65. As a certified MCN monitoring the progress of labor, she knows that uterine contractions begins
and last longest at the:
A. Fundus
B. Corpus
C. Isthmus
D. Lower uterine segment

66. The secretions produced in pregnancy are thick and sticky. These then form the “mucus plug”,
that is eventually expelled as show. These secretions are produced by:
A. Estrogen
B. HCG and HPL
C. Relaxin
D. Progesterone

67. Priscilla, G1P0 is at term. What is the estimated length of the fetus?
A. 25 cm
B. 40 cm
C. 20 cm
D. 50 cm

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68. Vaginal examination is a skill unique to the MCN. The purposes of vaginal examination are these:
1. Determine if the BOW is intact
2. To evaluate the capacity of the pelvis
3. To determine the station of the presenting part
4. To determine the size of the head and the age of fetus
A. 1,2 and 3
B. 2,3 and 4
C. 1,2 and 4
D. 4 only

69. These are true in performing vaginal exam by the MCN:

1. She should be certified to perform IE
2. She can only do IE in normal labor and pregnancy
3. There should be no antenatal bleeding prior to labor
4. The can only do this in a hospital setting
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 3 and 4

70. EIC recommends that a woman in normal labor must be given food for energy. Which type of diet
would you usually side?
A. Soft diet like soft boiled egg
B. Light carbohydrates diet like soup, fruit juice
C. Regular balanced diet
D. Water, chips and liquid diet only

71. Which among the following findings is a positive sign that the mother is now in the stage of fetal
expulsion?
A. Uterine extractions occurring every 60-90 seconds
B. Increasing bloody discharge from the vagina
C. Complete dilation of the cervix
D. Mother desire to push during contractions

72. Rosalyn just gave birth 30 minutes ago. Which would be some expected assessment finding by
the nurse?
1. A contracted fundus above the navel
2. Pulse rate is low at 60 beat per minutes
3. Lochia is moderate in amount, red in color
4. Temperate and BP are elevated due to the rigors of birth
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 4 only

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73. Contraceptive method would be one of the health instructions the MCN teaches the mother.
Which among these methods would prevent fertilization to avoid pregnancy?
1. Condoms
2. Billing’s method
3. Depo-Provera
4. IUD
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 4 only

74. A common vaginal infection caused by protozoa which gives off foul odor is:
A. Moniliasis
B. Trichomoniasis
C. Bacterial Vaginosis
D. Chlamydia

75. The privilege of an MCN to put up her own Birthing Clinic and allows her to do autonomous
practice is embodied in:
A. RA 9173
B. RA 10354
C. AO 0012-2012
D. AO 0025-2009

76. Which is not done to a woman in labor?

A. Pain medication is given early in labor
B. Food is given to provide energy as long as it is light
C. Bowel and bladder elimination is monitored
D. Breathing exercises are encourage when contractions occurs

77. The following are the finding of the nurse upon doing the Leopold’s Maneuver on Elisa- G1P0 on
her 32 weeks AOG; irregular parts on the left side, with a hard, ballotable mass on the fundus.
Identify the fetal position and presentation:
A. ROA, Cephalic presentation
B. LOA, Breech presentation
C. ROA, Breech presentation
D. LOA, Cephalic presentation

78. In fraternal or dizygotic twinning, this is not excepted:

A. Same sex, different physical characteristics
B. 2 placenta, 2 chorion, 2 amnion
C. One ovary that released one ovum
D. 2 ovaries that released 2 ova

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79. When the woman bleeds more that 24 hours after delivery, the nurse must suspects:
A. Relaxed uterus
B. Fibroid polyps
C. Retained tissue or infection
D. Cervical tear

80. When a nurse 6 months after being licensed takes several training to be more competent and
enrolls in a MA graduate course, which PQR level is she at?
A. Level 5
B. Level 6
C. Level 7
D. Level 8

81. As a nurse, Myla assesses normal newborn delivered 30 minutes prior. These are the findings.
Which will make her monitor and refer to the NB eventually?
A. Length – 46-53cm
B. CH 34-35cm; cc= 32-33cm
C. Temp: 35OC- axillary
D. R= 30-40 bpm

82. A newborn was assessed within 1 minute of life with these findings : Respiration– irregular, slow,
some flexion of extremities, bluish palms and soles, HR– 90/min. All other parameters are
considered normal. What is the APGAR Score?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
83. Which among the following statements is FALSE Re:NB screening?
A. It is mandated in the Philippines by RA 9288
B. Ideally, it should be done soon after birth for better accurate results
C. It can screen several congenital metabolic disorders that can lead to mental retardation or
even death when left untreated.
D. The blood sample can be collected by physician, trained nurse or midwife

84. A nurse handled the mother who came directly from the ER and fully dilated. The nurse knows
that the baby is premature because:
A. Baby weighs 200 grams and 37 weeks AOG
B. Baby is 36 weeks AOG and 2,400 grams in weight
C. Baby is 48 cm in length and 2.5kilos in weight
D. Baby is 37 weeks, 300 grams in weight

85. A nurse is assigned in the postpartum division of the obstetrical unit. When is puerperal sepsis
presumably diagnosed?
A. When the temperature is elevated 37.5OC after delivery
B. When the temperature is 38OC and above on 3rd-4th day postpartum
C. With re, lochia, flushed face and engorged breasts
D. Any elevation of temperature 38OC above, after 24 hours postpartum persistently

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86. The type of anesthesia used in suturing episiotomy:
A. Pudendal block
B. Local infiltration anesthesia
C. Spinal
D. Epidural

87. A woman in labor has ruptured membranes at 7cm cervix dilation. What is the priority action of
the nurse?
A. Call and refer to the physician ASAP
B. Determine the color, odor of the fluid
C. Check the heart tone immediately
D. Insert IV fluid to prevent dry labor

88. The nurse is teaching a new batch of affiliates in the orientation period. She talks about
implantation. Which part of the decidua covers the ovum and shuts it off from the rest of the uterine
cavity, eventually disappearing as the fetus increases in size?
A. Decidua basalis
B. Decidua capsularis
C. Decidua vera
D. Decidua spongiosa

89. Which change in the cardiac system is not expected in pregnancy?

A. Increase in cardiac load
B. Increase in blood cells especially WBC
C. Heart is displaced slightly to the left
D. Increase on vital signs especially BP since the heart is beating for two.

90. Presence of white vaginal discharge due to increase in estrogen is called:

A. Operculum
B. Mucus plug
C. Leukorrhea
D. Monilial infection

91. In the immediate postpartum period, the most critical assessment of the client with PIH would
be:
A. Observing sign of bleeding
B. Obtaining and monitoring the client’s vital signs
C. Evaluating the client emotional status
D. Alertness for sign of shock

92. According to Rubin, postpartum period has 3 stages when the mother is passive and dependent
1-2 days after delivery and focused on bodily concerns. She is in:
A. Taking in phase
B. Taking hold
C. Letting Go
D. Dependent and independent

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93. Episiotomy is done to enlarge the birth canal. A major advantage of mediolateral method?
A. Easy to repair
B. Less pain
C. Less bleeding
D. Less extension to the anus

94. A mother at 46 y/o has been dreaming of becoming pregnant. She has been diagnosed as having
a phantom pregnancy or pseudocyesis. Which among these will not occur?
A. Amenorrhea
B. Quickening
C. Enlarged soft uterus
D. Feeling that she is pregnant

95. In the fetal circulation, which among the temporary structures facilitates the transfer of the blood
from the heart directly to the aorta by passing the lungs?
A. Ductus venosus
B. Ductus arteriosus
C. Foramen ovale
D. Hypogastric arteries

96. Per evidence, these are the effects of properly timed cord clamping:
A. Reduces hypoglycemia and hypothermia
B. Reduces midline of RDS in the preterm
C. Reduces anemia, intracranial hemorrhage
D. Reduce anemia, hemolytic disease of the NB

97. Which is a recommended arrangement of linen and instruments when a trained BEMONC nurse
attends to delivery’s the RHU?
A. Bonnet, 2 baby’s blanket, cord clamp
B. 2 blankets, bonnet, syringe with oxytocin, cord clamp
C. 2 pairs of gloves, bonnet, cord clamp, blankets
D. Bonnet, syringe with oxytocin, 2 pairs of gloves

98. Still considered to be a major cause of neonatal death in the Philippine and beyond:
A. Congenital anomalies
B. Infections
C. Upper respiratory infections
D. Prematurity

99. The Philippines is gearing towards the implementation of UHC in the country. Philhealth, the
financial arm of this program supports primary birth facilities. This is an evidence:
A. Payment of P19,000 for CS
B. Payment of P6,500 for spontaneous delivery in the hospital
C. Payment of P8,000 for NSD in the community setting
D. Payment of P10,000 for mother-baby dyad in the hospital

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100. Which assessment finding will make the nurse allow the woman in labor to be mobile and walk
around?
A. Presentation of the fetus is cephalic
B. She is in active labor
C. The contraction are slow and irregular
D. The BOW is intact

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