Medina College – Ozamiz City D.

A reaction that requires instrumentation to read

College of Medical Technology
9. Antibodies to antigens in which of the following blood
REVIEW GUIDE IN IS-BB groups are known for showing dosage?
A. I C. Kidd
I. Choose the best answer. Shade E if the answer is not in
B. P D. Lutheran
the given choices.
II. DO NOT CHEAT.
10. Which of the following drugs has been associated wutg
complement activation and rapid intravascular
1. Which of the following can be attributed to the clonal
hemolysis?
selection theory?
A. Penicillins C. Methyldopa
A. Plasma cells make generalized antibody
B. Quinidine D. Cephalosporins
B. B cells are preprogrammed for specific antibody
synthesis
11. Why is complement not activated with anti-Rh (D)
C. Proteins can alter their shape to conform to antigen
antibodies?
D. Cell receptors break off and become circulating
A. Rh antigens stimulate little antibody production
antibody
B. Rh antigens are too far apart on red blood cells.
C. Rh antibodies are not capable of fixing complement
2. All of the following are true of IgM except that it.
D. DAF protects red blood cells from buildup of
A. Can cross the placenta
antibody
B. Fixes complement
C. Has a J chain
12. The classical complement pathway is activated by
D. Is a primary response antibody
A. Most viruses
B. Antigen-antibody complexes
3. If the results of serum protein electrophoresis show a
C. Fungal cell walls
significant decrease in the gamma band, which of the
D. AOTA
following is a likely possibility?
13. Which antibody is best at agglutination and
A. Normal response to active infection
complement fixation?
B. Multiple myeloma
A. IgA C. IgD
C. Immunodeficiency disorder
B. IgG D. IgM
D. Monoclonal gammopathy
14. Adjuvants act by which of the following methods?
A. Complex to antigen to increase its size
4. Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ?
B. Prevent rapid escape from the tissues
A. Lymph node C. Thymus
C. Increase processing of antigens
B. Spleen D. MALT
D. AOTA
5. Which receptor on T cells is responsible for resetting
15. How are the Rh antigens inherited?
with sheep red blood cells?
A. Autosomal recessive alleles
A. CD2 C. CD4
B. Sex-linked genes
B. CD3 D. CD8
C. Codominant allels
D. X-linked
6. Which condition would result in HDN?
A. Buildup of IgE on mother’s cells
16. Rh antibodies are primarily of which immunoglobulin
B. Sensitization of cytotoxic T cells
class?
C. Exposure to antigen found on both mother and baby
A. IgA C. IgG
red cells
B. IgM D. IgD
D. Prior exposure to foreign red cell antigen

17. Polyspecific AHG reagent contains:

7. Which of the following is associated with anaphylaxis?
A. Anti-IgG
A. Buildup of IgE on mast cells
B. Anti-IgG and anti-IgM
B. Activation of complement
C. Anti-IgG and anti-C3d
C. Increase in cytotoxic T cells
D. Anti-C3d
D. Large amount of circulating IgG
18. A principle of the antiglobulin test is:
A. IgG and C3d are required for RBC sensitization
8. Which of the following best describes agglutinations?
B. Human globulin is eluted from RBCs during saline
A. A combination of soluble antigen with soluble
washings
antibody
C. Injection of human globulin into an animal
B. A combination of particulate antigen with soluble
engenders passive immunity
antibody
C. A reaction that produces no visible end point
19. The major immunoglobulin class(es) of anti-B in a group B. 10C D. 37C
A individual is (are): 31. Rhesus antibodies are
A. IgM C. IgM and IgG A. Complement dependent
B. IgG D. IgM and IgA B. igG and IgM mixtures
C. Destroyed by enzyme reactions
20. Functional assay to test the classical pathway using the D. Reactive at 37C
hemolytic titration assay 32. Replacement of plasma proteins in burn patients is
A. CH50 Assay C. AOTA managed by giving
B. AH50 Hemolytic Assay D. NOTA A. Cryoprecipitate C. Packed RBC
B. Fresh frozen plasma D. Album
21. The two ions needed for properdin to take effect 33. An antibody that acts stronger against homozygous
A. Ca and PO4 C. Ca and Mg positive cells exhibits
B. Ca and Mn D. Mg and PO4 A. Dosage effect
B. Rouleaux-like formation
22. Incompatible blood transfusion reactions are which C. Opsonin Effect
type of hpesensitivity reactions? D. Precipitation
A. Type I C. Type III 34. Which of the following antigens is not a blood group
B. Type II D. Type IV system?
A. Doa C. JMH
23. What ABH substance(s) would be found in the saliva of B. Vel D. Kx
a group B secretor? 35. What type of blood should be given in an emergency
A. H C. H and B transfusion when there is no time to type the
B. H and A D. H, A, and B recipient’s sample?
A. O negative, whole blood
24. You are working on a specimen in the laboratory that B. O positive, whole blood
you believe to be a Bombay phenotype. Which of the C. O positive, packed cells
following reactions would you expect to see? D. O negative, packed cells
A. Patient’s cells + Ulex europaeus = No agglutination
B. Patient’s cells + Ulex europaeus = Agglutination
C. Patient’s serum + group O donor RBCs = no
agglutination
D. Patient’s serum + A1 and B cells = no agglutination
25. Rh antibodies have been associated with which of the
following clinical conditions?
A. Erythroblastosis fetalis
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Hemophilia A
D. Stomatocytosis
26. Which is not true of a hapten
A. Protein in nature
B. Low molecular weight
C. Antigenic
D. Not able to mount immune response
27. Where does T cells acquire its specificity?
A. Spleen C. Thymus
B. Liver D. Lymph node

28. A kind of antigen involved in major organ transplant

from one person to another is
A. Xenograft C. Heterophile
B. Allograft D. Autograft
29. The presence of platelet specific antibodies would
cause:
A. Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction
B. Transfusion related acute lung injury
C. Post transfusion purpura
D. Immediate hemolytic transfusion reaction
30. IgG antibodies react best at
A. 4C C. 26C