At 9401
At 9401
At 9401
Manila
References:
Standards Application
1. Philippine Standards on Auditing (PSAs) • Audit of historical financial information
2. Philippine Standards on Review • Review of historical financial information
Engagements (PSREs)
3. Philippine Standards on Assurance • Assurance engagements dealing with
Engagements (PSAEs) subject matters other than historical
financial information
4. Philippine Standards on Related • Compilation engagements
Services (PSRSs) • Engagements to apply agreed-upon
procedures to information
• Other related services engagements as
specified by the AASC
1. PSAs, PSREs, PSAEs and PSRSs are collectively referred to as the AASC’s Engagement
Standards.
2. Philippine Standards on Quality Management (PSQM) are to be applied for all services falling
under the AASC’s engagement standards.
3. Philippine Standards are applicable to engagements in the Public Sector.
1. The Framework does not itself establish standards or provide procedural requirements for the
performance of assurance engagements.
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CPAR - MANILA AT-9401
2. In addition to the Framework and PSAs, PSREs and PSAEs, practitioners who perform
assurance engagements are governed by:
• the Philippine Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants; and
• Philippine Standards on Quality Management (PSQM).
ASSURANCE ENGAGEMENTS
The following are non-assurance engagements and therefore are not covered by the
Framework:
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CPAR - MANILA AT-9401
AUDIT ENGAGEMENTS
Types of audits
In compliance with the syllabus in Auditing of the Licensure Examination for CPAs in the
Philippines, the following are the types of audit.
2. As to types of auditor
• External audit
• Internal audit
• Government audit
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SUMMARY
Nature of service Audit Review Agreed-upon Procedures Compilation
Level of assurance High, but not absolute Moderate assurance No assurance No assurance
provided assurance
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1. The main objective of the _____________________ is to adopt the standards and practice
statements issued by the ________________ to attain uniformity of the local GAAS with
international standards.
A. IFAC; IAASB
B. PICPA; IAASB
C. AASC; IFAC
D. AASC; IAASB
2. The Auditing and Assurance Standards Council (AASC) was created by the _________ upon
the recommendation of the Board of Accountancy to assist the BOA in the establishment and
promulgation of auditing standards in the Philippines.
A. Professional Regulation Commission (PRC)
B. Commission on Audit (COA)
C. Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC)
D. IFAC
7. Which of the following engagements are covered by the Framework for Assurance
Engagements?
A. Consulting and agreed-upon procedures engagements
B. Agreed-upon procedures engagements and Financial statement audits.
C. Compliance audits and financial statement audits.
D. Preparation of tax returns and consulting engagements.
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10. CPAs in public practice who perform assurance engagements are governed by the following,
except
A. Philippine Standards on Related Services
B. Philippine Framework for Assurance Engagements
C. Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants in the Philippines
D. Philippine Standards on Quality Management
11. The ____________ are issued by the AASC to provide interpretive guidance and practical
assistance to auditors in the implementation of PSAs and to promote good practice.
A. PSRS
B. PAEPS
C. PAPN
D. PREPS
13. A proposed assurance engagement can be accepted when the practitioner’s preliminary
knowledge about the engagement circumstances indicates that relevant ethical requirements
will be satisfied and
I. The subject matter of the engagement is appropriate.
II. The criteria to be used are suitable and are available to the intended users.
III. The practitioner has access to sufficient appropriate evidence to support the conclusion.
IV. The conclusion is to be contained in a written report.
V. There is a rational purpose for the engagement.
A. I, II, and III only
B. I, II, IV, and V only
C. I, II, III, and IV only
D. I, II, III, IV, and V
15. Which of the following describes how the objective of a review of financial statements differs
from the objective of a compilation engagement?
A. The primary objective of a review engagement is to test the completeness of the financial
statements prepared, but a compilation tests for reasonableness.
B. The primary objective of a review engagement is to provide positive assurance that the
financial statements are fairly presented, but a compilation provides no such assurance.
C. In a review engagement, accountants provide limited assurance, but a compilation
expresses no assurance.
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16. The following statements relate to the performance of an assurance engagement other than
an audit or review of historical financial information covered by PSAs and PSREs. Which is
incorrect?
A. Those persons who are to perform the engagement should collectively possess the
necessary professional competence.
B. The practitioner should consider materiality and assurance engagement risk when
planning and performing an assurance engagement.
C. The assurance report should be in writing and should contain a clear expression of the
practitioner’s conclusion about the subject matter information.
D. The practitioner is precluded from using the work of persons from other professional
disciplines.
18. In an assurance engagement, the responsible party and the intended users
A. Should be from different entities.
B. Should be from the same entity.
C. May be from the same entity or different entities.
D. Are both responsible for determining the nature, timing and extent of the procedures to
be performed.
22. Which of the following statements is true concerning evidence in an assurance engagement?
A. Sufficiency is the measure of the quantity of evidence.
B. Appropriateness is the measure of the quality of evidence, that is, its reliability and
persuasiveness.
C. The reliability of evidence is influenced not by its nature but by its source.
D. Obtaining more evidence may compensate for its poor quality.
24. The criteria against which the subject matter of the assurance engagement is to be evaluated
or measured should possess which of the following characteristics?
Relevant Concise Neutral
A. Yes No Yes
B. No Yes No
C. Yes No No
D. No Yes Yes
25. Criteria that are embodied in laws or regulations, or issued by authorized or recognized bodies
of experts that follow a transparent due process are called
A. Suitable criteria
B. Established criteria
C. Specifically developed criteria
D. General criteria
28. Reducing assurance engagement risk to zero is very rarely attainable or cost beneficial as a
result of the following factors, except
A. The use of selective testing.
B. The fact that much of the evidence available to the practitioner is persuasive rather than
conclusive.
C. The practitioner may not have the required assurance knowledge and skills to gather and
evaluate evidence.
D. The use of judgment in gathering and evaluating evidence and forming conclusions based
on that evidence.
29. In some assurance engagements, the evaluation or measurement of the subject matter is
performed by the responsible party, and the subject matter information is in the form of an
assertion by the responsible party that is made available to intended users. These
engagements are called
A. Direct reporting engagements
B. Assertion-based engagements
C. Non-assurance engagements
D. Recurring engagements
30. What type of assurance engagement is involved when the practitioner expresses a positive
form of conclusion?
A. Limited assurance engagement.
B. Positive assurance engagement.
C. Reasonable assurance engagement.
D. Negative assurance engagement.
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“Based on our work described in this report, nothing has come to our attention that causes
us to believe that internal control is not effective in all material respects, based on ABC
criteria.”
34. Which of the following best describes the concept of audit risk?
A. The risk of the auditor being sued because of association with an audit client.
B. The risk that the auditor will provide an unmodified opinion on financial statements that
are, in fact, materially misstated.
C. The overall risk that a material misstatement exists in the financial statements.
D. The risk that auditors use audit procedures that are inappropriate.
35. The overall objectives of the auditor in conducting an audit of financial statements are
I. To obtain reasonable assurance about whether the financial statements as a whole
are free from material misstatement, whether caused by fraud or error.
II. To report on the financial statements.
III. To obtain conclusive rather than persuasive evidence.
IV. To detect all misstatements, whether due to fraud or error.
A. I and II only
B. II and IV only
C. I, II, and III only
D. I, II, III, and IV
36. The auditor is required to comply with all PSAs relevant to the audit of an entity’s financial
statements. A PSA is relevant to the audit when
I. The PSA is in effect.
II. The circumstances addressed by the PSA exist.
A. I only
B. II only
C. Either I or II
D. Both I and II
37. Independent auditors of financial statements perform audits that reduce and control
A. The business risks faced by investors.
B. Quality reviews performed by other CPA firms.
C. The information risk faced by investors.
D. The complexity of financial statements.
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38. The auditor is required to maintain professional skepticism throughout the audit. Which of
the following statements concerning professional skepticism is false?
A. A belief that management and those charged with governance are honest and have
integrity relieves the auditor of the need to maintain professional skepticism.
B. Maintaining professional skepticism throughout the audit reduces the risk of using
inappropriate assumptions in determining the nature, timing, and extent of the audit
procedures and evaluating the results thereof.
C. Professional skepticism is necessary to the critical assessment of audit evidence.
D. Professional skepticism is an attitude that includes questioning contradictory audit
evidence obtained.
39. Operational audits generally have been conducted by internal and COA auditors, but may be
performed by certified public accountants. A primary purpose of an operational audit is to
provide
A. A measure of management performance in meeting organizational goals.
B. The results of internal examinations of financial and accounting matters to a company’s
top-level management.
C. Aid to the independent auditor, who is conducting the examination of the financial
statements.
D. A means of assurance that internal accounting controls are functioning as planned.
42. Which of the following terms best describe the audit of a taxpayer’s return by a BIR auditor?
A. Operational audit
B. Compliance audit
C. Internal audit
D. Government audit
43. Governmental auditing often extends beyond examinations leading to the expression of
opinion on the fairness of financial presentation and includes audits of efficiency, economy,
effectiveness, and also
A. Accuracy.
B. Evaluation.
C. Compliance.
D. Internal control.
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46. In general, internal auditors’ independence will be greatest when they report directly to the
A. Financial vice-president.
B. Corporate stockholders.
C. Corporate controller.
D. Audit committee of the board of directors.
47. Internal auditors review the adequacy of the company’s internal control system primarily to
A. Help determine the nature, timing, and extent of tests necessary to achieve audit
objectives.
B. Determine whether the internal control system provides reasonable assurance that the
company’s objectives and goals are met efficiently and economically.
C. Ensure that material weaknesses in the system of internal control are corrected.
D. Determine whether the internal control system ensures that financial statements are fairly
presented.
49. Which of the following attributes is more closely associated with attestation services
performed by a CPA firm than with other lines of professional work?
A. Competence.
B. Integrity.
C. Keeping informed on current professional developments.
D. Independence.
50. Which of the following procedures is not included in a review engagement of an entity?
A. Inquiries of management
B. Inquiries regarding significant events subsequent to the balance sheet date
C. Any procedures designed to identify relationships among data that appear to be unusual
D. A study and evaluation of internal control
51. May a practitioner accept an engagement to compile or review the financial statements of an
entity if the practitioner is unfamiliar with the specialized industry accounting principles, but
plans to obtain the required level of knowledge before compiling or reviewing the financial
statements?
Compilation Review
A. Yes No
B. No Yes
C. Yes Yes
D. No No
53. A summary of findings rather than assurance is most likely to be included in a/an
A. Agreed-upon procedures report.
B. Compilation report.
C. Examination report.
D. Review report.
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54. An engagement to perform agreed-upon procedures may involve the auditor in performing
certain procedures concerning
I. Individual items of financial data.
II. A single financial statement.
III. A complete set of financial statements.
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II, and III
56. The risk associated with a company's survival and profitability is referred to as:
A. Business Risk
B. Information Risk
C. Detection Risk
D. Control Risk
58. After an audit, the financial statements are the responsibility of the _______________.
A. independent auditor
B. management of the reporting entity
C. engagement partner
D. audit firm
59. Whenever a CPA is brought in to examine financial statements with hopes of adding credibility,
that engagement is known as a/an ___________.
A. audit
B. attestation
C. review
D. compilation
60. A CPA performed the following engagements in February of Year 3. Which is considered an
attestation engagement?
A. Audit of Year 2 financial statements
B. Examination of Year 4’s prospective financial statements
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
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