Prime 16

Prime Mock 16 (CLAT) 2024
English Language
Directions for questions 1 to 30: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that
follow.
Passage – 1
There's a hardening view in Washington that China seeks to supplant the United States as the leading
world power and remake the international system in its illiberal image.
China has of course fed these fears by building up its military, pressing disputed territorial claims,
partnering with a revanchist Russia and with its own rhetoric. President Xi Jinping of China has vowed
to thwart what he views as U.S.-led efforts to "contain, encircle and suppress" China, and has said
"capitalism will inevitably perish and socialism will inevitably triumph."
But such ideological proclamations are in part motivated by insecurity - most Communist states have
collapsed, and the Chinese leadership fears being next - and are meant more to instill domestic
confidence and loyalty to the party than to reflect actual policy or fixed beliefs.
Ideology in China is itself malleable, rather than a rigid cage that determines policy and has been
continually tweaked to justify the maintenance of one-party rule through decades of great change.
Under Mao, for instance, capitalists were persecuted as "counterrevolutionaries." But under President
Jiang Zemin the Chinese Communist Party abandoned a core Marxist belief in 2001 by accepting
private entrepreneurs as party members. China's economy today is more capitalist than Marxist and
highly dependent on access to world markets.
Assessments of China based on cherry-picked phrases from party propaganda overlook the frequent
gap between rhetoric and reality. In 2018, for example, China cracked down on Marxist student
groups and labor organizers, possibly because - as the labor scholar and sociologist Eli Friedman has
noted - the young activists embodied "the Marxist principles the C.C.P. has long since abandoned
practice." Likewise, Beijing has for years emphasized the sanctity of national sovereignty and
noninterference in a country's domestic affairs, yet has provided diplomatic cover for Russia's invasion
of Ukraine.
Leading Chinese intellectuals openly acknowledge the difficulty of reconciling what China says with
what it does. "Even we don't believe much of what we say," the Chinese economist Yao Yang, who is
known for his pragmatic views, has said. "Our goal is not to defeat liberalism, but instead to say that
what we have can be as good as what you have." Jiang Shigong, a legal scholar and apologist for Mr.
Xi's political philosophy, has written that "'Socialism' is not ossified dogma, but instead an open
concept awaiting exploration and definition."
Mr. Xi and the C.C.P. apparently see the United States as trying to keep China perpetually
subordinate and vulnerable, opposing whatever China does or advocates in an international system
that Beijing believes favors the United States and developed democracies. But, at a minimum, China
seems more intent on modifying aspects of a system under which it has prospered - making it safer
for autocracy - rather than replacing it.
Mr. Xi often couches this effort in his political slogans like the "China dream" and a "shared future for
humankind." But there is continuing debate in China over what these visions really mean and what
costs and risks China should accept in seeking global leadership. China's overseas development
largess, for example, is limited by the imperative of addressing its own persistent development needs
at home, research by the scholar Min Ye has shown. Same for other key Chinese strategies for
widening its influence: Its efforts to internationalize the renminbi and reduce dollar dominance are
constrained by the tight grip it keeps on the currency's value, as well as other capital controls. These
policies help stabilize its economy and prevent capital flight, but they limit the renminbi's global
appeal.
Q 1. 30630558 According to the passage, why does China's leadership make ideological
proclamations?
a) To reflect fixed beliefs and shape actual policy b)

To instill domestic confidence and loyalty to the
party
c) d) To establish China as the leading world power
To justify containment efforts against the United
States
Q 2. 30630558 Based on the information provided in the last paragraph, which of the following
statements can be inferred about China's approach to global leadership?
a) China's overseas development largess is unconstrained by domestic development needs.
b) China's efforts to internationalize the renminbi are hindered by the currency's instability.
c) China's desire for global leadership outweighs its commitment to domestic stability.
d) China's approach to global leadership is influenced by cost-benefit considerations.
Q 3. 30630558 Which of the following is a suitable title for the passage?
a) China's Rigid Ideology and Fixed Beliefs b) China's Quest for Global Dominance
c) d) The Inevitable Triumph of Socialism in China

The Complexity of China's Ideology and Actions
Q 4. 30630558 According to the passage, which of the following statements about China's economy
is true?
a) b)
China's economy is primarily based on Marxist China's economy is more capitalist than Marxist.
principles. c)
China's economy is heavily reliant on domestic
consumption.
d)
China's economy is unaffected by access to world
markets.
Q 5. 30630558 In the passage, the term "revanchist" (paragraph 2) most likely means:
a) Revolutionary b) Reactionary c) Revisionist d) Retaliatory
follow.
Passage – 2
India is experiencing rapid urbanisation. Therefore, it is important to understand the pattern of this
growth and its effect on the population. Urban India is undergoing a major transformation with an
inward net movement of people for better livelihood opportunities. Around 590 million people would
live in the cities by 2030. While cities constitute about 3 per cent of the land in the country, they
generate 70 per cent of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and contribute substantially to economic
growth and opportunities. There is a robust relationship between the index of cities' liveability and the
country's GDP per capita suggesting that long-term growth is only feasible if the city attributes in
terms of providing equitable access to basic services, residences, and improved economic
management are woven seamlessly through digital service delivery platforms.
Cities in Maharashtra and other states continue to grapple with challenges and pressures relating to
basic infrastructure, air pollution, deficient infrastructure, social inequities, large informal sector
(involving women and children), frequent mobility and migration, with increased vulnerabilities to
disasters and climate change. These challenges emanate from poor urban planning.
This leads us to question existing models and the need to reimagine urban governance models. Cities
require a holistic solution to problems instead of a piecemeal approach by individual departments.
A review of the strategies adopted by urbanised nations across the globe suggests they have invested
in strategic thinking and investment, including private sector participation, and integrated, and
coordinated actions across agencies. This can be possible with the strong role played by the political
leadership - who have been the backbone of this change.
It is in this context that Maharashtra has conceptualised and initiated the Aspirational Cities
Programme (ACP) modelled on the lines of the Aspirational Districts initiative of Niti Aayog. The ACP
is based on three priority areas that will define the city's growth paradigm: Integration of inclusive
urban development that involves all development sectors thus bringing an integrated approach to
urban programming; adoption of scientific data methods for assessing and monitoring outcomes of
both state and central schemes; enhancing the voice and participation of citizens in civic affairs
through physical and digital means.
Q 6. 30630558 Why does the author mention air pollution in the passage?
a) b) To show the effects of flawed urbanization.

To show the environmental catastrophe India is c) To show the aspiration of rural migrants.
facing.
d)
To show the frequent flow of population into a city.
Q 7. 30630558 What according to the author should be fundamentally understood regarding

urbanization, as mentioned in the first line of the passage?
a) The reasons behind rural people migrating into cities.
b) The reasons behind why living conditions of cities dictate a nation's economic growth.
c) The reasons behind urban expansion and its consequences on citizens.
d) The reasons behind deterioration of living conditions in urbanized places.
Q 8. 30630558 Which of the following approaches to urban planning will the author approve of?
a) A comprehensive all-encompassing approach.

b) Demarcating individual departments to handle individual aspects of urban planning.
c) Integrating a private-public partnership model.
d) Ensuring that citizens contribute to a city's betterment physically and digitally.
Q 9. 30630558 Why has the ACP adopted a scientific data method to tackle rapid urbanisation?
a) To prioritise the observation of government scheme implementation.
b) To prioritise emphasising citizens' voices.

c) To prioritise the participation of private players.
d) To prioritise the successes of NGOs.
Q 10. 30630558 What does the word 'grapple' as used in the passage, mean?
a) Swing b) Sway c) Struggle d) Levitate

follow.
Passage – 3
Uzbekistan President Shavkat Mirziyoyev won overwhelming voter approval (90%) in Sunday's
referendum to rewrite the Constitution, which the 65-year-old leader claims would not only improve
governance and quality of life in the former Soviet republic but could also allow him to extend his rule
beyond his current term. Mr. Mirziyoyev, a former loyal Prime Minister of dictator Islam Karimov, has
gradually opened up the country for social and economic reforms ever since becoming the President
in 2016 after his boss's death. He cracked down on forced labour in cotton fields, released political
prisoners, relaxed media censorship and promoted women's rights, while his policies aimed at
encouraging entrepreneurship and attracting foreign investments are transforming what was once a
closed economy to becoming the fastest growing in Central Asia. The new charter, which describes
Uzbekistan as "sovereign, democratic, legal, social and secular", promises a new media code and
criminalises domestic abuse. It promises to ban the death penalty, guarantees prisoner rights and
offers better social protection, including housing to lower income people.
But it would also reset the President's terms to zero, allowing him to contest in two more elections
under the new Constitution, which has increased the presidential term from five years to seven. Mr.
Mirziyoyev is currently serving his second five-year term, which would expire in 2026. Two more
seven-year terms would mean that he could remain in power until 2040, the year he would turn 82.
The Election Commission had made detailed arrangements to showcase the voting process as free
and fair. International journalists and monitors were invited, allowed to visit polling stations and speak
to voters and officials on the day of voting. But still, everyone knew what the results would be as there
was no campaign against the President's proposals. While the big media houses were largely aligned
with the government, social media activists and press freedom advocates were under pressure not to
campaign against the reforms. The Organization for Security and Co-operation in Europe, which had
sent election observers, stated the voting was not truly representative. Yet, Mr. Mirziyoyev's reign is
markedly different from that of his dictatorial predecessor. Mr. Mirziyoyev's social and economic
reforms, while making sure that his political powers are not threatened, are not enough. If he is
serious about his promise of building a new Uzbekistan, he should also launch political reforms,
respecting the right to dissent and allowing the opposition to operate free from fear of government
pressure and intimidation.
Q 11. 30630558 Which of the following summarizes the main idea of the passage?
a)
President Shavkat Mirziyoyev's overwhelming voter approval in the referendum allows him to extend
his rule and implement constitutional changes in Uzbekistan.
b)
Uzbekistan's transformation under President Shavkat Mirziyoyev's leadership includes social and
economic reforms, but political reforms are necessary for true progress.
c)
The referendum in Uzbekistan was conducted in a transparent and fair manner, allowing President
Shavkat Mirziyoyev to consolidate his power and implement constitutional amendments.
d)
The Organization for Security and Co-operation in Europe criticized the voting process in Uzbekistan,
highlighting the need for political reforms and greater opposition freedom.
Q 12. 30630558 "But still, everyone knew what the results would be as there was no campaign
against the President's proposals. While the big media houses were largely aligned with the
government, social media activists and press freedom advocates were under pressure not to
campaign against the reforms." Based on the information provided, what can be inferred about the
political climate surrounding the referendum in Uzbekistan?
a) The media landscape in Uzbekistan is diverse and allows for open debate on political issues.
b)
Social media activists and press freedom advocates faced restrictions in campaigning against the
President's proposals.
c) The opposition in Uzbekistan actively campaigned against the President's proposals.

d) The referendum in Uzbekistan was conducted in a transparent and fair manner.
Q 13. 30630558 According to the given passage, what can be said about President Shavkat
Mirziyoyev's abilities?
a) President Mirziyoyev possesses exceptional diplomatic skills and international recognition.
b) President Mirziyoyev has successfully implemented social and economic reforms in Uzbekistan.
c)
President Mirziyoyev has faced significant opposition and criticism for his policies and consolidation of
power.
d)
President Mirziyoyev's leadership has been characterized by a lack of transparency and fair
governance.
Q 14. 30630558 In the passage, the term "sovereign" means all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Head of state b) Subsidiary c) Unrestrained d) Effective
Q 15. 30630558 Which of the following can be inferred from the last few lines of the passage?
a)
The Organization for Security and Co-operation in Europe praised the voting process in Uzbekistan as
free and fair.
b) President Shavkat Mirziyoyev's reign has been similar to that of his dictatorial predecessor.
c)
Political reforms are necessary in order to fulfill President Mirziyoyev's promise of building a new
Uzbekistan.
d)
The new Constitution will provide stronger protections for prisoner rights and lower-income individuals
follow.
Passage – 4
On the flip side, the users of Bing's conversational AI tool, have been complaining about how Sydney
has been lying and insulting them. One would imagine that the users, as is expected of neoliberal
consumers, would want to hold the makers of the (Large Language Models) LLM system to account
and ask for a refund. But we see users thoroughly entertained in the process. Don't believe me? A
prominent US-based news organisation, focused on technology, reports: "Microsoft's Bing is an
emotionally manipulative liar, and people love it!" Our knowledge of the Chatbot's virtuality does not
restrain us from engaging with it as if it were a real person or testing its intelligence as if we were
competing with another human. Even so, the lack of physicality of the LLMs seems to lend them a
greater depth of feeling.
Users paradoxically seem to want more of the entertainment that the machine is providing as opposed
to wanting a more respectable channel of communication - thus, disturbing the existing frames of
policy interventions that marry the accuracy of information provided by algorithmic design to user
safety. Users enjoy the personality brought out in response to their provocations and questioning.
They enjoy the system reflecting its inhumanity and find the proof of its inhumanness terrifyingly
reflected through its near-accurate imitation of humans. An algorithm that abuses - what could be
more human than that?
For humans to believe in the power of artificial intelligence, they must learn to believe in it despite its
own limits with all its factual inaccuracies, inconsistencies and blurriness. It is only when our human
subjectivity is inscribed to ChatGPT - with our own gaze by catching its glitches and mistakes - that
the system comes to life. We welcome being insulted by Sydney if it helps us see the lengths of its
imagination which mediates our own relation with it. In fact, the limits of AI form the contours of our
consciousness, retrospectively. We know the system cannot outsmart us, yet, we want to battle it out
with our wits to better its capacity to fight us. Positivised by our sense of surprise, panic, and anxiety;
the algorithmic intelligence engenders an ecosystem where the demand for ChatGPT's raw emotions
becomes a site for enjoyment for its users. The dual persistence of pleasure and empty shock is part
of the experience of ChatGPT. The more real the chat between the user and the chatbot is, the more
unreal it gets. We derive a surplus of enjoyment from testing the capacity of the chatbot and are
perennially in awe of our failure to apprehend its reaction.
Q 16. 30630558 Why does the author mention neoliberal consumerism in the passage?
a) To show the urge to hold companies responsible for faulty usage of products.
b) To show the change in consumerism with respect to AI.
c) To show how consumers are manipulated by companies.
d) To show the process of seeking refund in a neoliberal world.
Q 17. 30630558 ".Users enjoy the personality brought out in response to their provocations and
questioning." - - in elaboration of this sentence, which of these options follows?
a) A machine's apparent inhuman imitation of humanity is entertaining for users.
b) The users find it amusing that without teaching a machine insult they can be provocative.
c) By trying to be human through abusiveness, the machine shows the problem with AI development.
d) Users equate the AI's provocations with that of an infant learning insult without understanding.
Q 18. 30630558 In fact, the limits of AI form the contours of our consciousness, retrospectively.
Which of the following is the most convincing conclusion from this statement?
a) Incomplete AI machines show us how our brain works.
b) By failing to be human, the AI teaches us the value of humanity.
c) AI is limited because it cannot imitate our consciousness.
d) The restrictions of AI show us the intricacies of our mind.
Q 19. 30630558 "AI" is the acronym for:
a) b) c) Artificial Intelligence. d) Artifice Intelligence.

Augmented Intelligence. Artisanal Intelligence.
Q 20. 30630558 What does the last sentence of the passage imply?
a) Inability to gauge AI's reactions is amusing to us.
b) AI's mastery of escaping understanding makes it an enjoyable game for users.
c) Users of AI revel at the complexity of the tool.
d) AI users enjoy the fact that they cannot understand what a product owned by them is about to do.
follow.
Passage – 5
Housing societies and animal feeders welcome the Centre's guidelines to allot dedicated places and
time to feed stray animals.
On March 10 this year, the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying notified the Animal
Birth Control Rules, which put the onus on the Resident Welfare Associations (RWA) and Apartment
Owners Associations (AOA) to ensure a feeding spot and time for residents to give food to animals.
The Rules read, "The feeding spots shall be far from children play areas, entry and exit points,
staircases, and should be in an area which is the least frequented by children and senior citizens.
RWAs or AOAs should designate feeding times depending on the movement of children and senior
citizens."
"The designated feeder shall ensure that there is no littering at the feeding location. Designated
feeders are allowed to volunteer to help vaccinate the dogs, and to assist the animal birth control
programme by helping catch and release the animals," the Rules stated.
Many housing societies at Bhakti Park in Wadala and Sindhi Society in Chembur have started putting
out notices in buildings stating the place and time for feeders in their buildings. The decision was
taken after consulting the residents of the building.
Sashikala, 51, a resident at Kharghar is happy and said, "This legitimises the rights of non-human
creatures, especially stray dogs but I anticipate there will be some sort of backlash because not all
people who are in positions of power in housing societies, are compassionate."
Rajitta Hemwaani, member of the Animal Welfare Board, hailed the decision and said, "Having a
designated place and time is a good idea and needs to be communicated to all the residents of the
said society and area. It is a positive step in the right direction."
Christina Lobo, who runs a non-governmental organisation, said residents feeding strays still need to
be careful about not doing it in larger numbers and taking care that this activity does not bother
people.
She said, "It is a fabulous decision but one must ensure that feeding is done in an isolated area where
a large group of dogs do not intimidate those passing by or living there. What's harmless to you may
be traumatic to others."
Advocate Sunil Prakash said, "The Rules seem to be wholesome and now the ball is in the court of
housing societies. It is made clear that where RWAs and AOAs do not step up, the Brihanmumbai
Municipal Corporation will do the needful."
Q 21. 30630558 Which of the following titles is the most suitable for the given passage?
a) Guidelines for Feeding Stray Animals in Housing Societies

b) The Ministry of Fisheries' Animal Birth Control Rules
c) Challenges Faced by Animal Feeders in Housing Societies
d) Responsibilities of Resident Welfare Associations and Apartment Owners Associations
Q 22. 30630558 What can be inferred from the statement of Advocate Sunil Prakash?
a)
The Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying is responsible for implementing the
guidelines for feeding stray animals.
b)
The Brihanmumbai Municipal Corporation will enforce the guidelines for feeding stray animals if
Resident Welfare Associations and Apartment Owners Associations fail to do so.
c)
The Animal Birth Control Rules prioritize the well-being and control of stray animals in housing
societies.
d)
The Animal Welfare Board supports the guidelines for feeding stray animals and encourages their
communication to all residents.
Q 23. 30630558 Which of the following inferences is false according to the given passage?
a)
The Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying has issued guidelines for feeding stray
animals in housing societies.
b)
Resident Welfare Associations and Apartment Owners Associations are responsible for designating
feeding spots and times for stray animals.
c)
Housing societies in Bhakti Park and Sindhi Society have started implementing the guidelines for
feeding stray animals.
d)
The Animal Welfare Board supports the decision to have designated places and times for feeding
stray animals.
Q 24. 30630558 What does the word "wholesome" mean as used in the passage?
a) b) c) d)
Satisfying and nutritious Beneficial and Comprehensive and Genuine and authentic
advantageous complete
Q 25. 30630558 Which of the following summarizes the main idea of the passage?
a)
Housing societies and animal feeders are required to follow guidelines for feeding stray animals to
ensure their well-being and minimize inconvenience to residents.
b)
The Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying has issued rules to regulate animal birth
control and the responsibilities of Resident Welfare Associations and Apartment Owners Associations.
c)
Residents of housing societies are expressing concerns about the designated places and times for
feeding stray animals and anticipate backlash from those in power.
d)
The Brihanmumbai Municipal Corporation will take action if Resident Welfare Associations and
Apartment Owners Associations fail to comply with the guidelines for feeding stray animals.
follow.
Passage – 6
Much to my surprise and horror, nobody is talking about the process of surrogacy per se. The politics
around surrogacy and its commercialization, at least the way the latter happens in India, is highly
contested. The legal binding around the organized practice of surrogacy is exceptionally thin and the
surrogacy (regulation) bill, 2016 is lying with Parliament.
Having worked with a leading non-governmental organization for a couple of years, I was immersed in
the world of surrogacy in Gujarat for a substantial period of time. This offered me a glimpse into the
plight of the surrogate mothers before, during and after the birthing process. Commercial surrogacy in
India needs immediate legal attention. In the absence of legal bindings, women renting their wombs
not only suffer from adverse social consequences but also face economic and livelihood challenges
that worsen their material conditions.
India is one of the few countries in the world that allows commercial surrogacy in the form of
gestational surrogacy. There are several loopholes in the legal binding of the system that render the
entire process problematic for surrogate mothers. This also means that there is an organized system
that meets the demand-supply chain of women as wombs and run profit-making businesses. These
businesses often operate as part of the informal economy with little accountability from different
stakeholders.
Anand, Surat and Jamnagar constitute the principal centres of the business and are mushrooming
with clinics that 'match' surrogate mothers and commissioning parents. The clinics, however, stay out
of the legal relationship between surrogates and parents. Because the surrogate mothers are almost
always from poor backgrounds, their need for money is stronger while their legal rights are fewer.
Some commissioning parents have the luxury of choosing to have a child through surrogacy but acute
poverty and the denial of basic needs seldom leave surrogate mothers with the choice to opt for a
less-exploitative arrangement. The discourse of choice is thus banal for it is dismissive of the reality of
choice being severely conditional. The commissioning parents care and pay for the care of the woman
renting her womb only till the baby is born. Most women who go for surrogacy insist on anonymity as
a result of the social stigma attached to the quasi-pregnant status. The husbands of surrogates are
often uncomfortable with their wives' 'occupation'. Women have been abandoned by their husbands
and their families upon returning to their villages after delivering the baby. The Brahmanical notion of
profanity of a woman's body once her womb houses another man's child is dismissive of scientific
reasoning. Women renting their wombs for money are, therefore, severely stigmatized.
Q 26. 30630558 Why did the author mention "Brahmin" in the passage?
a) To show the social reality of women in India.
b) To show the importance of religion in surrogacy.

c) To show the societal reality binding surrogate mothers in India.
d) To show the patriarchal conditions imposed upon surrogate mothers.
Q 27. 30630558 Which of the following applies to surrogacy clinics in Gujarat?
a) They act as brokers between families and prospective surrogates.
b) They act as legal binders between families and prospective surrogates.
c) They act as financial regulators for prospective surrogate mothers.
d) They act as owners of prospective surrogate mothers.
Q 28. 30630558 All the words below are related in meaning, except:
a) Business b) Gestation c) Economic d) Commercial
Q 29. 30630558 What does 'profanity' as used in the passage mean?
a) Illogical b) Vehemence c) Irreverent d) Notorious
Q 30. 30630558 Which of the following categories best describes this piece of writing?
a) Newspaper article b) c) d) Fiction writing

Gender studies essay Anthropological essay
Current Affairs Including General Knowledge
Passage – 1
External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar hosted a gala reception for the foreign ministers of Russia,
China, Pakistan and other member nations of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO), marking
the beginning of a two-day conclave of the grouping. The main deliberations of the SCO Council of
Foreign Ministers took place.
The reception at the sea-side [1] was attended by Chinese Foreign Minister Qin Gang, Russia's
Sergey Lavrov and Pakistan's [2], Uzbekistan's Bakhtiyor Saidov and SCO Secretary-General Zhang
Ming.
India hosted the SCO conclave amid the escalating confrontation between Russia and the West over
the war in Ukraine and concerns over China's expansionist behaviour. The overall situation in
Afghanistan including apprehensions that the country may turn into a breeding ground for terrorism
under the Taliban rule as well as the fast-evolving regional security situation is expected to figure
prominently during the deliberations
India is emerging as a key player among the SCO countries though China and Russia are seen as the
major drivers of the grouping that is increasingly seen as an "alternative" to NATO. India is hosting the
SCO conclave when its ties with China are under severe strain in view of the lingering border row in
eastern Ladakh.
Q 31. 30630558 What is the name of the resort where the reception for the SCO foreign ministers
took place redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) b) c) Burj Al Arab in Dubai d)

Taj Exotica Resort in The Ritz-Carlton in Atlantis The Palm in
Benaulim Paris Dubai
Q 32. 30630558 What is the name of the Pakistan Minister of Foreign Affairs whose name has been
redacted with [2] in the passage above?
a) Shahbaz Sharif b) c) d) Hina Rabbani Khar

Bilawal Bhutto Zardari Shah Mahmood Qureshi
Q 33. 30630558 What is the theme of India's Chairmanship of SCO in 2023?
a) 'SCO-2030: A Vision for Shared Development' b) 'SCO-2023: A Secure Future'
c) 'SCO-2023: Building Bridges' d) 'SECURE-SCO'
Q 34. 30630558 When was the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) founded?

a) 2001 b) 2005 c) 2017 d) 2021
Q 35. 30630558 Why is the overall situation in Afghanistan figured prominently during the SCO
Council of Foreign Ministers' deliberations in 2023?
a) Because Afghanistan is a permanent member of the SCO

b) Because India and Pakistan became permanent members in 2017
c)
Because of concerns that Afghanistan may become a breeding ground for terrorism under the Taliban
rule
d) Because of concerns over China's expansionist behaviour
Q 36. 30630558 What is the purpose of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) conclave
hosted by India?
a) To discuss economic cooperation in the Eurasian region

b) To discuss security-related issues in the Eurasian region
c) To discuss concerns over China's expansionist behaviour
d) To discuss the war in Ukraine and the West's confrontation with Russia
Q 37. 30630558 What was the purpose of the meeting of the SCO Council of National Coordinators
held from 29 April to 3 May 2023 in Panaji?
a) To discuss the SCO's economic activities
b)
To prepare for the SCO Heads of State Council and the SCO Heads of Government Council meetings
c) To discuss regional security issues
d) To elect a new chairman for the SCO Council
Passage – 2
Defence Minister [1] inaugurated a first-of-its-kind Indian Air Force (IAF) Heritage Centre in [2]. The
minister said it is a testament to the courage and dedication of all those who served in the force and a
reminder of their invaluable contributions in protecting the nation. He further said this initiative will help
in preserving the rich heritage of the IAF and also inspire the youth to join the armed forces.
The centre has been set up under a memorandum of understanding between the Union Territory of [2]
and the IAF which was signed last year. Punjab Governor and [2] Administrator Banwarilal Purohit, Air
Chief Marshal V R Chaudhari, and Member of Parliament from [2] Kirron Kher were present on the
occasion. On this occasion, Defence Minister [1] sat in one of the MiG-21 aircraft on display at the
centre. He also sat in a flying simulator. Besides, Air Force Kanpur 1 which was made by [3] in 1958,
has also been positioned. The centre also depicts the role of the Indian Air Force during various wars
including 1947, 1948,1965, and 1971 besides the Kargil Conflict and the Balakot Air Strikes.
Q 38. 30630558 Who inaugurated the first-of-its-kind Indian Air Force Heritage Centre whose name
has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) Piyush Goel b) Rajnath Singh c) Banwarilal Purohit d) V R Chaudhari
Q 39. 30630558 What is the name of the Indian city where the IAF Heritage Centre has been
inaugurated which has been redacted with [2] in the passage above?
a) Mumbai b) Chandigarh c) Kolkata d) Bangalore
Q 40. 30630558 The memorandum of understanding to set up the Indian Air Force Heritage Centre
was signed between the __________ and the Indian Air Force.
a) b) Indian Air Force c) d) Punjab Governor

Union Ministry of Union Territory of
Defence Chandigarh
Q 41. 30630558 Which of the following aircraft is not on display at the Indian Air Force Heritage
Centre?
a) b) MiG 21 single-seat fighter

Hindustan Piston Trainer-32 primary flying trainer c) GNAT aircraft (Sabre Slayer)
aircraft
d) Sukhoi Su-30MKI
Q 42. 30630558 What is the aim of setting up the Indian Air Force Heritage Centre?
a) b)
To preserve the rich heritage of the Indian Air To provide training to the Indian Air Force
Force personnel
c) d)
To manufacture new aircraft for the Indian Air To increase the budget allocation for the Indian
Force Air Force
Q 43. 30630558 Who among the following made Air Force Kanpur 1 whose name has been redacted
with [3] in the passage above??
a) Air Vice Marshal Harjinder Singh b) Wing Commander Abhinandan Varthaman
c) Air Chief Marshal RKS Bhadauria d) Squadron Leader Shivangi Singh
Q 44. 30630558 What is the theme of the IAF Heritage Centre?
a) b) Inspiring the Youth c) Protecting the Nation d) Rich Heritage of IAF
Courage and Dedication
Passage – 3
Manipur has been restive since February when the BJP-led government launched an eviction drive
seen as targeting a specific tribal group. The drive led to protests but not on the scale of the one on
May 3 triggered by the Manipur High Court's direction to the State to pursue a 10-year-old
recommendation to grant Scheduled Tribe (ST) status to the non-tribal [1] community.
Geography has a lot to do with Manipur's problems. The State is like a football stadium with the
Imphal Valley representing the playfield at the centre and the surrounding hills the galleries. Four
highways, two of them lifelines for the State, are the valley's access points to the world beyond. The
valley, which comprises about 10% of Manipur's landmass, is dominated by the non-tribal [1] who
account for more than [2] % of the population of the State and yields 40 of the State's 60 MLAs. The
hills comprising [3] % of the geographical area are inhabited by more than 35% recognised tribes but
send only 20 MLAs to the Assembly. While a majority of the [1] are Hindus followed by Muslims, the
33 recognised tribes, broadly classified into 'Any Naga tribes' and 'Any Kuki tribes' are largely
Christians.
Q 45. 30630558 What is the name of the community redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) Angami tribes b) Konyak tribes c) Bhutia d) Meitei community
Q 46. 30630558 What was the trigger for the recent protests in Manipur?
a) An eviction drive launched by the government
b) A court order to grant ST status to the [1] community
c) A dispute over territorial boundaries with neighbouring states

d) A political crisis within the ruling party
Q 47. 30630558 What percentage of Manipur's population does the non-tribal [1] comprise which has
been redacted with [2] in the passage above?
a) 10% b) 35% c) 64% d) 90%
Q 48. 30630558 Which of the following statements is/are true?
a) State government starts recommendation for inclusion of the tribes in the list of ST.
b)
After the recommendation of the state govt, Tribal Affairs Ministry reviews and sends them to the
Registrar General of India, Under the Home Ministry for approval.
c)
After approval, it is sent to the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes and then sent to the
Cabinet for a final decision.
d) All of the above

Q 49. 30630558 What percentage of Manipur's geographical area is comprised of hills which has
been redacted with [3] in the passage above?
a) 50% b) 75% c) 90% d) 100%
Q 50. 30630558 Why are tribal groups against ST status for [1] in the passage above?
a) The [1] have a demographic and political advantage and are also more academically advanced.
b)
ST status to the [1] would lead to loss of job opportunities and allow them to acquire land in the hills
and push the tribals out.
c)
The language of the [1] people is included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution and many of
them have access to benefits associated with the SC, OBC or EWS status.
d) All of the above
Q 51. 30630558 What is the name of the current Chief Minister of Manipur?
a) N. Biren Singh b) O. Ibobi Singh c) Okram Joy Singh d) Lal Thanhawla
Passage – 4
India has been able to secure a favourable outcome at the WTO after many years, despite a strong
global campaign against our farmers & fishermen, said Union Minister of Commerce & Industry,
Consumer Affairs and Food & Public Distribution and Textiles, Shri [1], after conclusion of the WTO
12th Ministerial Conference in [2]. Terming the just concluded MC12 as an "outcome oriented"
success, [1] said the Indian delegation, guided constantly by the Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi,
has been 100 percent successful in portraying before the world the priority issues for India and the
developing world.
[1] said the Indian delegation leveraged India's strong relationship with the world, which the Prime
Minister Shri Narendra Modi has nurtured over the last few years. "Few countries attempted to create
false campaign, initially, that India is obstinate due to which no progress is being made. The real
situation has emerged before us all, the issues raised by India, on which Prime Minister had asked us
to focus upon, now the whole world acknowledges that was the correct agenda and ultimately India
played a vital role in arriving at all solutions," Shri [1] told a press conference in [2].
Admitting that India and the Developing countries accepted certain compromising decisions when the
WTO was established 30 years ago and during the Uruguay Round of negotiations, [1] said India
today bats on the front foot rather than being fearful on various issues be it Environment, Startups,
MSMEs or gender equality. This is a result of the confidence of New India. India is able to build
consensus & get a Win-Win outcome for the world, he said.
Q 52. 30630558 What is the WTO 12th Ministerial Conference?
a)
A meeting of the World Trade Organization's member countries to discuss global trade issues and
policies.
b) A conference focused on promoting sustainable development in developing countries.
c) A gathering of the world's largest exporters to discuss trade agreements.
d) A meeting of top global leaders to discuss international economic policies.
Q 53. 30630558 What was the outcome of the WTO 12th Ministerial Conference for India?
a) India was able to secure a favorable outcome for its farmers and fishermen.
b) India was unsuccessful in its negotiations with other member countries.
c) India did not participate in the conference.
d) India was able to secure favorable trade agreements with several member countries.
Q 54. 30630558 Recently, the World Trade Organization's 12th Ministerial Conference was held [2],
which of the following cities has been redacted with [2] in the passage above?
a) Geneva b) Paris c) Tokyo d) Durban
Q 55. 30630558 How many member countries does the WTO have?
a) 157 b) 164 c) 171 d) 178
Q 56. 30630558 Who among the following led the Indian delegation at the WTO 12th Ministerial
Conference whose name has been recated with [1] in the passage above?
a) Rajnath Singh b) Piyush Goyal c) Ram Nath Kovind d) S. Jaishankar
Q 57. 30630558 At the WTO 12th Ministerial Conference, Members agreed to a binding decision to
exempt food purchased by the____________, from any export restrictions.
a) Ukraine b) India
c) UN's World Food Programme (WFP) d) All of the above
Q 58. 30630558 Which of the following is/are the major outcomes of 12th Ministerial Conference
Meeting?
a)
All the members agreed to continue the moratorium on custom duties on electronic transmission (ET)
until the subsequent Ministerial Conference or until March 31, 2024, depending on whichever comes
first.
b)
WTO members agreed to temporarily waive intellectual property patents on Covid-19 vaccines without
the consent of the patent holder for 5 years so that they can more easily manufacture them
domestically.
c)
There would be no limitation on subsidies granted or maintained by developing or least-developed
countries for fishing within their exclusive economic zones (EEZ).
d) All of the above
Passage – 5
"Everything Everywhere All at Once" dominated the Oscars on Sunday night, winning seven awards,
including best picture, best actress, best director, best editing, best supporting actor, best supporting
actress and best original screenplay. "Everything Everywhere" had 11 nominations, heading into the
night a big favorite. Throughout awards season, the movie, a major touchstone for Asian
representation in U.S. cinema, snared wins for acting, directing and best picture from various groups.
Directors Daniel Kwan and Daniel Scheinert took home the directing prize. Michelle Yeoh won best
actress, making her the first Asian star to take the award. Kwan and Scheinert won best original
screenplay. "Everything Everywhere All at Once" was not nominated for best actor, a category that for
the first time since 1935 features five actors who have never been nominated before. Brendan Fraser
won for "The Whale."
Ke Huy Quan won best supporting actor for his role in "Everything Everywhere," and Jamie Lee
Curtis, who's been a film icon since the 1978 horror classic "Halloween," scored an upset win. This
year's ceremony marked the first time that four Asian actors competed across multiple acting
categories.
Yeoh, 60, is the first Asian-identifying woman nominated for best actress. This distinction has been
made because, technically, Merle Oberon, who was of mixed British and South Asian descent, was
the first in 1935, earning a nomination for her work on the film "The Dark Angel," but she concealed
her heritage out of fear of discrimination in Hollywood at the time.
Q 59. 30630558 Who was awarded an Honorary Oscar for Lifetime Achievement at the 64th
Academy Awards?
a) Bhanu Athaiya b) Satyajit Ray c) Rosul Pookutty d) Gulzar
Q 60. 30630558 What is the name of the song from the movie RRR that won the Best Original Song
award at the 95th Academy Awards?
a) Jai Bheem b) The Tiger c) Naatu Naatu d) The National Anthem

Q 61. 30630558 What was the name of the documentary that won the Best Documentary Short
award at the 95th Academy Awards?
a) The Elephant Riders b) c) d)

The Elephant The Elephant Keepers The Elephant Trainers
Whisperers
Q 62. 30630558 Who was the first Indian to win an Academy Award for "Best Costume Design" for
the film Gandhi in 1982?
a) Rana Ranbir b) Bhanu Athaiya c) Rosul Pookutty d) Jagdeep Sidhu
Q 63. 30630558 Who among the following Indian musicians won two Academy Awards for his work in
Slumdog Millionaire?
a) Bhanu Athaiya b) Rosul Pookutty c) AR Rahman d) MM Keeravani
Q 64. 30630558 Who among the following shared the Oscar for Best Original Song for writing the
lyrics of "Jai Ho" in Slumdog Millionaire?
a) Raghavendra b) Sukumar Sen c) Rahul Ranjan d) Gulzar
Q 65. 30630558 Who won the Best Sound Mixing Oscar for the film Slumdog Millionaire?
a) Rajdeep Ranawat b) Kiran Uttam Ghosh c) Rosul Pookutty d) Jayanti Reddy
Legal Reasoning
Directions for questions 66 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and
no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.
Disclaimer
All names and facts mentioned are hypothetical and are being used for educational purposes. Any
resemblance with any person, institution or situation is purely coincidental and unintentional.
Passage – 1
Justice Manoj Kumar Ohri of the High Court of Delhi, while dealing with the Petition that challenged
the Order passed by the Family Court which rejected the maintenance Petition filed by the Petitioner
under Section 125 Criminal Procedure Code 1973. The High Court held that, in absence of
documentary evidence on record showing that the wife has been earning she is entitled to be
maintained by the husband.
In the case of Anita vs Amit, which was before the Delhi High Court, the Petitioner in this matter stated
that the Family Court wrongly came to the conclusion that Petitioner's testimony in absence of any
documentary evidence was unreliable. It erred in not recording a finding with respect to the income of
the Respondent-husband and the maintenance sought by the Petitioner. On the contrary, the
Respondent submitted that the Petitioner had passed the Central Teacher Eligibility Test (CTET) exam
and was capable of earning. Further, it stated that the Petitioner was more qualified than the
Respondent and could maintain herself.
However, the Court relying upon the decision rendered in the case of Shalija v. Khobbana (2018)
where the Hon'ble Supreme Court held that 'capable of earning' is not a sufficient reason to deny a
wife her maintenance. Merely because the wife is capable of earning is not sufficient reason to deny
the maintenance under Section 125 CrPC.
In the present case the Bench noted that the Petitioner had specifically averred that she had no
source of income and was totally dependent on her father. It further noted that the Respondent-
husband being employed had sufficient means to maintain her. Thus, the expression "unable to
maintain herself" does not mean that the wife must be absolutely destitute before she can apply for
maintenance under Section 125 of CrPC.
The Court further stated that it is settled by judicial precedents that the provisions of Section 125 of
CrPC are for the welfare of the neglected wives, children and parents and that provisions should be
construed liberally. Therefore, in view of the above, the Delhi High Court held that impugned order of
the Family Court was to be set aside and remanded the matter to the Family Court for fresh
consideration.
Q 66. 30630558 According to the passage select the statement that can be most plausibly inferred
from the case mentioned in the passage:
a) The inability to maintain oneself should be construed in absolute sense.
b) The inability to maintain oneself should not be a ground to apply for maintenance.
c) Absolute destitution is the only ground for a plea of maintenance.
d) The plea for maintenance should be entertained on reasonable grounds than on absolute grounds.
Q 67. 30630558 Which of the following fact is true with respect to the context of the passage?
a) The Family court held that the capacity to earn is not a ground for rejecting plea of maintenance.
b) The High court held that the capacity to earn is not a ground for rejecting plea of maintenance.
c)
The Supreme Court held that the capacity to earn is not a ground for rejecting plea of maintenance.
d) None of the courts held that the capacity to earn is not a ground for rejecting plea of maintenance.
Q 68. 30630558 What was the primary contention of the respondent in the incumbent case for the
denial of maintenance to the petitioner?
a) It was contended that the petitioner lacks the capacity to main herself.
b) It was contended that the petitioner is qualified enough to main herself.
c) It was contended that the petitioner is dependent on her father.
d) It was contended that the respondent is less qualified than the petitioner.
Q 69. 30630558 Akira was a geography professor in the university and earned well enough to
maintain herself. She was married to Anuj who was a businessman. Akira filed for divorce from Anuj
and asked for maintenance from Anuj as she didn't want to compromise on her lifestyle after the
divorce. Due a slump in economy, Anuj was not doing well in his business and he denied to pay
maintenance. Akira filed a plea for maintenance. Will she succeed?
a) She would succeed as she wanted to continue with her lifestyle.

b) She would succeed as she had a valid ground for asking for maintenance.
c) She would not succeed as she was earning enough to maintain herself.
d) She would not succeed as Anuj's business was on a downhill due to poor economy.
Q 70. 30630558 Sheetal was a doctor who gave her practice in order to support and look after her
family as her husband, Aman was a professional cricketer and had to often travel. Both of them
decided to get a divorce and Anuj denied to pay any maintenance to Sheetal after the divorce. Sheetal
filed for a plea of maintenance. Will she succeed?
a) She would succeed.

b) She would not succeed as she was a doctor.
c) She would not succeed as she was capable enough for earning a living for herself.
d) Both (b) and (c).
Disclaimer
Passage – 2
Doctrine of frustration means those cases where the performance of contract has become impossible
to perform due to any unavoidable reason or condition. Under the doctrine of frustration, a promisor is
relieved of any liability under a contractual agreement, in the event of a breach of contract, where a
party to the agreement is prevented from, or unable to, perform his obligations under the agreement,
due to some event which occurs, and which was outside of their sphere of control.
Force majeure is present in common law as the doctrine of frustration of contract. This doctrine says
that a contract will be frustrated if its fundamental purpose is destroyed. If this happens then the
parties to the contract will be discharged from their obligations to perform the contract. Force majeure
is some event which is unforeseen and unstoppable and which renders the performance of the
contract impossible. The doctrine of frustration says that a contract's performance will be rendered
impossible because of some intervening or supervening event after the contract has been made. A lot
of people while entering into contracts incorporate these force majeure clauses to be relieved from
performance of all or part of their obligations.
The doctrine of frustration of contract law was initially defined by two points, namely:
1. The doctrine was to be permitted where it was raised as a defense to the non performing party due
to impossibility to perform as per the agreement; and
2. The parties were entitled to insert provisions as a contingency measure to provide for the
occurrence of the same.
The object of the doctrine of frustration is to find a satisfactory way of allocating the risk of
supervening events. The doctrine does not prevent the parties from making their own provision for this
purpose. They can expressly provide that the risk shall be borne by one of them, not by the other, or
they can apportion it or deal with it in any other way they like or let it lie where it falls. To invoke the aid
of frustration, the party who wants to establish that the contract has become frustrated, has to
establish that the performance of the Contract has become impossible, the impossibility is not on
account of some event which the promisor could not prevent or anticipate and that the impossibility is
not self-induced by the promisor or due to his negligence.
Q 71. 30630558 According to the passage select the statement that can be most plausibly inferred
from the case mentioned in the passage:
a) The doctrine of frustration and force majeure are distinct concepts.

b) The doctrine of frustration and force majeure have a common source of origin.
c) The doctrine of frustration and force majeureen shrine the same principle.
d) The doctrine of frustration and force majeure are mutually exclusive.
Q 72. 30630558 Which of the following fact is true with respect to thedoctrine of frustration under
contract law?
a) Doctrine of frustration is a common law principle.
b) Doctrine of frustration applies strictly to natural disasters.

c) Doctrine of frustration applies strictly to manmade causes.
d) Doctrine of frustration reliefs the defaulter from his liabilities and obligations.
Q 73. 30630558 How can a person invoke the aid of frustration to his benefit on the breach of
contract?
a) By the occurrence of an event which was out the defaulter's control sphere.
b) By incorporating force majeure clauses in the contract, itself and its happening.
c) By aiding in the process of creation of a cause which renders a contract impossible.
d) Both (a) and (b).
Q 74. 30630558 A entered into a contract with B to supply him 50 kgs of rice on the 1st day of every
month. Due to the outbreak of the COVID-19 epidemic, A was not able to procure the supply of rice
and thereby failed to honor the contract. Can A take the defense of force majeure?
a) A can take the defense as such an event was out of the control of the parties.
b) A cannot take the defense as such an event was not out of the control of the parties.
c) A cannot take the defense as he should have stocked his reserves in case of an emergency.
Q 75. 30630558 A entered into a contract with B to supply him 50 kgs of rice on the 1st day of every
month. Due to an unprecedented rise in the demand of rice, A was only able to supply 25kgs of rice. B
sued A for the breach of contract. Can A take the defense of force majeure?
a) A can take the defense as such an event was out of the control of the parties.
b) A cannot take the defense as such an event was not out of the control of the parties.
c) A cannot take the defense as he should have stocked his reserves in case of an emergency.
Disclaimer
Passage – 3
There is no specific legal definition of 'hate speech'. Provisions in law, specifically the Indian Penal
Code (IPC), criminalise speeches, writings, actions, signs and representations that foment violence
and spread disharmony between communities and groups and these are understood to refer to 'hate
speech'. The Law Commission of India, in its 267th Report, says: "Hate speech generally is an
incitement to hatred primarily against a group of persons defined in terms of race, ethnicity, gender,
sexual orientation and religious belief. Thus, hate speech is any word written or spoken, signs, visible
representations within the hearing or sight of a person with the intention to cause fear or alarm, or
incitement to violence."
In general, hate speech is considered a limitation on free speech that seeks to prevent or bar speech
that exposes a person or a group or section of society to hate, violence, ridicule or indignity. Under
Section 153A of IPC, 'promotion of enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, race, place
of birth, residence and language, and doing acts prejudicial to maintenance of harmony', is an offence
punishable with three years' imprisonment. It attracts a five-year term if committed in a place of
worship, or an assembly engaged in religious worship or religious ceremonies.
Q 76. 30630558 Mr. X, is a Class XII Accounts teacher. While addressing the class, he says, "Boys!
focus on your career and do not get into romantic relationships with girls. At this age you have
tremendous energy and channelize it towards your career and later when you are settled you should
get an appropriate girl for marriage." Decide.
a) Mr. X has made a hate speech. b) Mr. X has not made a hate speech.
c) d) Mr. X should give similar advise to girls also.
Mr. X has discriminated students based on
gender.
Q 77. 30630558 'X' is a local in Andaman Islands. He says, "These Hindi speaking people come to
our land, relish the picturesque sights, eat delicious food and later leave our land without paying any
royalty to us. They don't know our language or culture. This is disrespectful to us. We will force them
to pay obeisance to us by bowing their heads before every local person in our Island." Decide.
a)
This is hate-speech based upon the Law Commission's 267th Report and not Section 153A of Indian
Penal Code.
b) This is hate-speech based upon Section 153A of IP(c)
c) This is not hate-speech as there is no incitement to violence.
d) This is not hate-speech as locals deserve respect.
Q 78. 30630558 'Z' is the leader of a culturally conservative outfit. He addresses students of Delhi
University saying, "Marriage is a sacrament meant for producing a progeny. Some people who are
mentally ill say they are attracted to same-sex persons. They must be boycotted from colleges and if
don't mend their ways must be socially ostracized.". Decide.
a) b) 'Z' must be publicly shamed.
'Z' made comments appropriate to the Indian c) 'Z' is guilty of hate-speech.
society.
d) 'Z' is not guilty of hate-speech.
Q 79. 30630558 'Y' is a popular leader in Raipur. While speaking to his followers, he says, "Most of
these non-Raipur people have set up shacks on almost all road in Raipur. This city should give
precedence to locals. So, my dear friends, wherever you find a shack run by non-local, ransack it".
Decide.
a) 'Y' has made a hate-speech.
b) 'Y' has not made a hate-speech.
c)
India is a quasi-federal country and every person has right to do business in any part he/she wishes.
d) Locals must be given precedence over non-locals.
Q 80. 30630558 'Richie Rich' is a hard-core religious preacher. On one such religious congregation
he says, "People of 'x' community are not fit to live in India. India belongs only to 'y' community and so
all people who practice 'x' faith must either convert to 'y' faith or leave the country". Decide.
a)
'Richie Rich' is not liable for making a hate-speech as no one in todays world takes such speeches
seriously.
b)
'Richie Rich' is not liable for making a hate-speech as his comments would not lead a reasonable man
to violence.
c) 'Richie Rich' is liable for making a hate-speech as he is from 'y' community.
d)
'Richie Rich' is liable for making a hate-speech as he is causing fear and hatred toward the members
of 'x' community.
Disclaimer
Passage – 4
The government on Sunday released a draft national policy for air sports in the country that will
require entities providing these services and their equipment to be registered, as well as be liable for
penalties. The policy proposes a two-tier governance structure for air sports in the country, which will
include an apex governing body called the Air Sports Federation of India (ASFI) and associations for
each air sport. It will cover activities like aerobatics, aeromodelling, amateur-built and experimental
aircraft, ballooning, drones, gliding, hang gliding, paragliding, microlighting, paramotoring, skydiving,
and vintage aircraft.
The ASFI will be an autonomous body under the Ministry of Civil Aviation and will represent India at
the Lausanne headquartered Fédération Aéronaautique Internationale (FAI) and other global
platforms related to air sports. It will provide governance over various aspects of air sports, including
regulation, certification, competitions, awards and penalties, etc. Each air sports association will lay
down its safety standards for equipment, infrastructure, personnel and training, and specify the
disciplinary actions to be taken in case of non-compliance. Inability to do so may lead to penal action
by the ASFI.
All persons and entities providing air sports services will be required to register as members of the
respective air sports associations. Key equipment used will also have to be registered. The draft
policy also aims to promote domestic design, development and manufacturing of air sports equipment
under the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan; waive import duty on equipment for a few years; as well as
request the GST Council to consider rationalising the GST rate on air sports equipment to 5% or less.
Note - Answer presuming the Draft National Sports Air Policy has become law.
Q 81. 30630558 Tarun Enterprises organized a mini-drone air fight competition. Teams from across
the nation participated. The mini-drones had different types of weapons like fire, pellets, water-canon,
etc. to cause maximum damage to the opposite team's drone. Decide.
a) This is a mini-drone competition and safety standards need not be followed.
b) The safety standards relating to drones have to be followed by all the teams participating.
c) Minor sports events do not need an oversight agency.

d) Drones are not covered under the Draft National Air Sports Policy
Q 82. 30630558 Shivani went to Manali for paragliding. A local shepherd, Kamal, was offering the
paragliding service for Rs. 2500 which was one-third the market price. There was no infrastructure in
place to ensure the paraglider's safety. Decide.
a)
No action can be taken against Kamal as he is offering the paragliding services at a much lower price.
b)
No action can be taken against Kamal as paragliding does not come within the Draft National Air
Sports Policy.
c) Kamal is liable for penal action.
d) Kamal is liable under Section 300 of IPC for endangering the life of paragliders.
Q 83. 30630558 Divyang went to Sikkim for sky diving along with his sister Isha. The trained
personnel were on leave and therefore, in order to not lose out on profits, the sky diving service
owner, Karan, recruited some locals and instructed them briefly about safety standards. Decide.
a) Karan is liable for penal action as the personnel were not properly trained.
b) Karan is liable for penal action as he belongs to private sector.

c)
Karan is not liable for penal action as it is a common practice to recruit locals when the trained
personnel take leave.
d) Karan is not liable as Divyang and his sister Isha have filled the 'No Objection Form'.
Q 84. 30630558 Akshay went to Hyderabad Flying Club (HFC) to learn 'microlighting'. HFC had
shifted to new premises and the construction work was in progress. Certain safety measures like road
inspection, aircraft maintenance, new personnel safety gear, etc. were either not procured or in
process. HFC started operation on the new premises ignoring the above concerns. Decide.
a) HFC is not liable for action.
b) HFC is liable for action.

c) HFC is shifting and therefore, certain relaxations can be given to it.
d) HFC has to bribe officials to get scot-free.
Q 85. 30630558 The Municipal Corporation of Bhopal added a new sport 'Paramotoring' in its list of
adventure sports activities in the city. It allows the user to get a bird's eye view of the city. Decide.
a) All the major equipments related to paramotoring have to be registered.
b) All the personnel associated with the operation of the sport have to be registered.
c) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
d) Neither (a) nor (b) is correct.
Disclaimer
Passage – 5
The Supreme Court held that once it is established that fraud or any wrongful act was perpetrated by
an employee of a post office during the course of their employment, the post office would be
vicariously liable for the wrongful act of such employee. The Apex Court clarified that the post office is
entitled to proceed against the concerned officer, but the same would not absolve them from their
liability.
"Employees, as individuals, are capable of being dishonest and committing acts of fraud or wrongs
themselves or in collusion with others. Such acts of bank/post office employees, when done during
their course of employment, are binding on the bank/post office at the instance of the person who is
damnified by the fraud and wrongful acts of the officers of the bank/post office. Such acts of bank/post
office employees being within their course of employment will give a right to the appellants to legally
proceed for injury, as this is their only remedy against the post office. Thus, the post office, like a bank,
can and is entitled to proceed against the officers for the loss caused due to the fraud etc., but this
would not absolve them from their liability if the employee involved was acting in the course of his
employment and duties", the Supreme Court held.
Article 300 of the Constitution is as under: Clause (1) of Article 300 of the Constitution provides first,
that the Government of India may sue or be sued by the name of the Union of India and the
Government of a State may sue or be sued by the name of the State; secondly, that the Government
of India or the Government of a State may sue or be sued in relation to their respective affairs in the
like cases as the Dominion of India and the corresponding Provinces or the corresponding Indian
States might have sued or be sued, "if this Constitution had not been enacted", and thirdly, that the
second mentioned rule shall be subject to any provisions which may be made by an Act of Parliament
or of the Legislature of such State, enacted by virtue of powers conferred by the Constitution.
Contributory negligence, in law, behaviour that contributes to one's own injury or loss and fails to meet
the standard of prudence that one should observe for one's own good. Contributory negligence of the
plaintiff is frequently pleaded in defense to a charge of negligence. Contributory negligence should be
distinguished from several other doctrines often applied in negligence cases: assumption of risk,
which relieves the defendant of an obligation of due care toward the plaintiff when the latter voluntarily
exposes himself to certain dangers; last clear chance, which allows the plaintiff to recover even
though contributorily negligent-if the defendant had the last clear chance to avoid the mishap.
Q 86. 30630558 Ameer was arrested by police personnel without providing a reasonable excuse and
without a warrant. He was detained in the custody for 35 days and also not presented before the
Judicial magistrate. When enquired, the personnel took the defence of pandemic for not presenting
before a magistrate. Later the detention was held illegal. Decide?
a) Police personnel will be liable for the illegal detention of Ameer.

b) Police cannot be liable as delays were caused due to pandemic.
c) Police cannot be liable as they are the sovereign authorities.
d) Police cannot be made liable for an act done during their employment.
Q 87. 30630558 Vimal was a professional driver having 15-year of driving experience and used to
travel India. Once during his tour, he met with an accident which caused him grievous injury as
Kamal's car knocked his car negligently. Kamal took the defense that Vimal could have been saved
from the injuries if he put on his seatbelt which he avoided as it made him uncomfortable during
driving. Decide?
a) Kamal will be solely liable as he had the last opportunity to save Vimal.
b) Vimal will also be liable as it is a case of contributory negligence.
c) Vimal will solely be liable as it was his negligence that caused the accident.
d) No one will be liable as both of them were part of the accident.
Q 88. 30630558 Due to pandemic, all post services were put to a halt for 4 months and when these
services were again continued, all the post offices were flooded with pending posts. After not receiving
the document worth 1 crore, Durjo filed a complaint against Raju who dishonestly misplaced the
documents during pandemic. Decide?
a) The post office will not be liable as it was shut down on government orders.
b) The post office will be liable as the documents were dishonestly misplaced by Raju.
c) The post office cannot be made liable for the actions of its employees.
d)
The post office cannot be liable as the damage did not take place during the course of employment.
Q 89. 30630558 Karol, an Army officer was driving a military truck and, on his way back to the check-
post he caused serious injury to a local resident due to his negligent driving. Decide whether he will
be liable?
a) Karol will not be liable as Army officers are immune from their negligent act.
b) Karol will be liable for the act committed by him.

c) Karol will not be liable as the negligent driving did not cause the death of the resident.
d) Karol will not be liable because of contributory negligence.
Q 90. 30630558 Decide which situation correctly describes liability of state and contributory
negligence?
I. X met with an accident by Y causing him serious injury. Y took the defense that as one headlight of
X's car was not working properly, he believed his car to be a 2-wheeler vehicle.
II. X who was a railway employee was accused of the offence of rape by Y who was a foreigner and
was unknown to Indian railway functions.
a) I- Contributory negligence, II- Liability of State b) I- Liability of State, II- Contributory negligence.
c) Both Contributory negligence d) Both Liability of State
Disclaimer
Passage – 6
Recently, the President of India has decided to commute the death sentence of an accused (convicted
over the assassination of then Punjab Chief Minister) as a humanitarian gesture ahead of the 550th
birth anniversary celebrations of the founder of Sikhism, Guru Nanak Dev Ji. Article 72 of the
Constitution empowers the President to grant pardons to persons who have been tried and convicted
of any offence in all cases where the: Punishment or sentence for an offence against a Union Law;
Punishment or sentence is by a court-martial (military court), and Punishment is a Death sentence.
Article 72 empowers the President the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of
punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence.
Pardon means removing both the sentence and the conviction and completely absolves the convict
from all sentences, punishments, and disqualifications. Commutation denotes the substitution of one
form of punishment with a lighter form of punishment. Remission implies reducing the period of the
sentence without changing its character. Respite denotes awarding a lesser sentence in place of one
originally awarded due to some special fact, such as the physical disability of a convict or the
pregnancy of a woman offender. Reprieve implies a stay of the execution of a sentence (especially
that of death) for a temporary period. Its purpose is to enable the convict to have time to seek pardon
or commutation from the President.
Article 161 mentions the Pardoning Power of the Governor. When a convict has committed an offence
against state law, the concerned punishment can be granted the pardon, reprieve, respite and
remission by the Governor of the state. Similar to the Pardoning Power of the President, the
pardoning power of the Governor grants the following: Pardon, Respite, Remission, Reprieve and
Commute. Previously, the governor cannot pardon the death sentence, which only the Indian
President can do. But recently on 3rd August 2021, the Supreme Court held that the Governor of a
State can pardon prisoners, including death row ones, even before they have served a minimum of 14
years of a prison sentence.
The scope of the pardoning power of the President under Article 72 is wider than the pardoning power
of the Governor under Article 161 which differs in the following two ways:
• The power of the President to grant pardon extends in cases where the punishment or sentence is
by a Court Martial but Article 161 does not provide any such power to the Governor.
• The pardoning powers of the President are granted for the cases where the convict has committed
an offence against a Union law but the pardoning powers of Governor are granted for the cases where
the convict has committed an offence against a state law.
Q 91. 30630558 Radim was convicted for selling poisonous liquor in the state of Bihar where the
State legislature had banned the sale, purchase and consumption of alcohol. The liquor caused the
death of many people and therefore he was sentenced to death. During the time he was serving his
sentence, the Governor of the state pardoned him. Decide whether the act of the Governor can be
challenged?
a) Yes, as Governor does not have the power to pardon in case of a death sentence.
b) No, as the people whose death was caused were equally liable.
c) Yes, as the Governor can only commute the sentence.
d) No, as the Governor acted on the power vested upon him.
Q 92. 30630558 Shayama was accused of the offence of assassination of an ex-MLA of Uttar

Pradesh and while his trial was going on he got the information that he will be convicted and will be
sentenced to death. After attaining this information, he wrote a letter to the President to commute his
death sentence before the final judgment has been passed. Decide whether he will be successful
considering the case given above?
a) Yes, as the President has given the power to commute the sentence.
b) No, as Shayama was not convicted yet and judgment was not passed.
c) No, as the accused must file an appeal in the HC or SC before writing to President.
d) Yes, as Shayama will be convicted with the death sentence.
Q 93. 30630558 Kiani was sentenced to rigorous imprisonment of 7 years for making explosives at a
larger amount. When the appeal for his conviction was dismissed by SC, he wrote to the President to
exercise the power of respite as the left part of his body was paralysed due to continuing to be in
contact with explosives. Decide?
a) The President can respite his sentence as the case includes physical disability.
b) The President cannot exercise his power as the appeal was dismissed by SC.
c) The president can respite but only for the time till his medical disability is treated.
d) The President cannot respite as the punishment provided was not a death sentence.
Q 94. 30630558 The Governor of the state of West Bengal exercised his power under Article 161 and
pardoned the sentence of rigorous imprisonment provided by the Court Martial. Decide the
constitutionality of the exercise of power?
a) Constitutionally valid as the Governor has the power to pardon.

b) Invalid as the sentence was provided by the Court Martial.
c) Valid as the matter related to the violation of the State law.
d) Invalid as the case is related to the subjects provided in the Union list.
Q 95. 30630558 Choose the correct form of power exercised by the President under Article 72? I. X
was sentenced to rigorous imprisonment of 5 years but it was reduced to 2 years by the President.
II. X was convicted and sentenced to life imprisonment but later the President under Article 72
changed the punishment to imprisonment for 6 years.
III. X, Y and Z were sentenced to death in case of dacoity but the president put a halt to the execution
for a period of 2 years.
a) I- Pardon, II- Commutation, III- Remission b) I- Remission, II- Commutation, III- Respite
c) I- Remission, II- Commutation, III-Reprieve d) I- Commutation, II- Pardon, III- Reprieve
Disclaimer
Passage – 7
The Indian Penal Code provides some general defences under chapter four that exonerate criminal
liability which based on the premise that though the person committed the offence, he cannot be held
liable. This is because at the time of commission of offence, person was justified of his/her acts, or
there was absence of mens rea. However, it is not all acts that are to be punished. There are certain
defences provided under the ambit of Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860 from Sections 76 to 106. Some
exceptions such as mistake of fact, accident and necessity are available when person was mistaken
to existence of some facts and act done without criminal intention. However, as per Section 105 of
Indian Evidence Act, 1872, the burden of proof regarding existence of a situation of general defences
lies on the accused
Mistake of fact arises when accused misunderstood some fact that negates an element of crime. This
legal weapon can be used, where accused succeeds to prove that he/she was mistaken to the
existence of some facts or ignorant of the existence of such facts. It is a condition that such mistake
must pertain to fact not law. Section 76 and 79 of IPC contains the provision of mistake of fact. Such
mistake must be reasonable and must be of fact and not of law. The legal maxim,
"ignorantiafactiexcusatiignorantia juris non excusat" which means ignorance of fact is an excuse, but
ignorance of law is no excuse. So, a basic requirement to get protected under the sphere of this
defence, is that mistake must be of fact.
Section 76: Act done by a person bound, or by mistake of fact believing himself bound, by law.
Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is, or who by reason of a mistake of fact and not
by reason of a mistake of law in good faith believes himself to be, bound by law to do it.
Section 79: Act done by a person justified, or by mistake of fact believing himself justified, by law.
Nothing is an offence which is done by any person who is justified by law, or who by reason of a
mistake of fact and not by reason of a mistake of law in good faith, believes himself to be justified by
law, in doing it.
Thus, it is cleared that an act will not be an offence, if it is committed in a bonafide manner by a
person who by mistake of fact believes himself to be bound by law or who is bound by law. Such
belief must be a mistake of fact not law and that should be exercised in good faith.
Q 96. 30630558 A, B, C and D, went to a trekking and hunting trip and stayed in camps, close to a
forest. During night time, D leaves his tent and is wandering around in the area when he is shot dead
by A, who thought that the figure moving around in the dark was a wolf. Decide whether A is liable for
committing D's murder.
a) A is liable because D died due to A's act of shooting.
b) A is liable because A knew that D was also present in the area.
c) A is not liable because D contributed to the negligence.
d) A is not liable because A thought that he was shooting a wolf.
Q 97. 30630558 A unlawfully kidnaps and marries B's daughter, who is only 16 years old. It was later
found that A had bona fide reasons to believe that the girl was older than 18 years. Decide whether A
can be held liable for abduction of B's daughter.
a) A is not liable because he did not intend to marry an underage girl.
b) A is not liable because he abducted the girlunder a bona fide mistake of fact.
c) Both (a) and (b).

d) A is liable because he did not abduct the girl under a bona fide mistake of fact.
Q 98. 30630558 A lives in the same society as B and on a certain day, sees a person named Z
leaving B's house in the middle of the night, when B was out on a business trip. When B returns, he
reports a robbery of his house. A, on listening to this, informs the authorities that Z had committed the
robbery which results in Z's arrest. Later, it is found that Z was not responsible for the robbery. Decide
A's liabilities.
a) A is not liable because A has not committed any offence.
b) A is not liable because A had reasonable belief to report Z to the authorities.
c) A is liable because he purposefully reported Z.
d) A is liable because A's statement hurt the reputation of Z and lead to Z's arrest.
Q 99. 30630558 A sees his neighbor's daughter, B, standing on the higher end of the embankment of
a river, and with the belief that she is about to jump and commit suicide, goes to save her. He
forcefully pulls her down the embankment. It turns out that B was merely enjoying the view from the
embankment and sues A for molestation. Decide A's liabilities.
a) A is not liable because he acted only to save B.
b) A is liable because he had not right to act forcefully with B.
c) A is liable because B was not going to commit suicide.
Q 100. 30630558 A married B, under the impression that the Hindu law had been amended to
incorporate the right to practice polygamy. A's first wife sues him for bigamy. Decide A's liability.
a) A is liable because he married B when he was already married.
b) A is liable because the law punishes the act of bigamy.

c) Both (a) and (b).
d) A is not liable because he was under the impression that the law allowed polygamy.
Disclaimer
Passage – 8
Defence of necessity applies, when a person in order to prevent a greater harm from taking place,
commits a crime or a criminal act during an emergency situation, wherein accused can escape
criminal liability because his/her act was justified as he/she had the intention to prevent a situation
which would cause a greater harm as compared to the criminal act committed by him or her.
Section 81: Act likely to cause harm, but done without criminal intent, and to prevent other harm.
Nothing is an offence merely by reason of its being done with the knowledge that is likely to cause
harm, if it be done without any criminal intention to cause harm, and in good faith for the purpose of
preventing or avoiding other harm to person or property.
An act of accused in order to prevent greater harm without any criminal intention falls under the ambit
of necessity. Such act must be done in good faith in order to prevent the happening of great harm.
The question of motive is of no importance, where positive evidence does exist in the favor of
accused. However, it is important that the accused did not contribute to the act or caused the threat of
the act as they are a catalyst or a part of the reason the act took place.
In Gopal Naidu v. Emperor (1923) ILR 46 Bom 605, the police officials were guilty of the offence of
wrongful confinement for disarming and restraining a drunken man carrying a revolver in his hand.
Though the offence of public nuisance was a non- cognizable offence without a warrant, it was held
that they can plead justification under this defence. In this case the Madras High Court held that the
person or property to be protected may be person or property of the accused himself or of others. The
word harm in this section means 'physical injury.'
In R v. Dudley and Stephens (1884) 14 QBD 273 DC, in this case three adults and one minor were
cast adrift in a ship following a shipwreck without food and water. Their food ran out 7 days before the
storm and they had no water for 5 days. Dudley suggested to sacrifice the minor boy as he was too
weak to which Brook refused. On the 20th day Dudley and Stephens without the consent of Brooks
killed the boy as he was close to death and had no family. All three fed on the boy and were rescued
four days later. In this case defence of necessity was not held valid and they were convicted for
murder as killing another person for one's own benefit cannot be defended by using this principal.
The general defences enshrined under IPC are of paramount importance in establishing the
parameters of criminal offences. Criminal liability makes a person liable for the acts which are
prohibited by law. Indian Penal Code took cognizance of fact that all acts are not to be punished. The
acts devoid of mens rea are exempted from criminal liability.
Q 101. 30630558 The doctor A, while treating B came across some complications in the surgery
which required A to amputate B's left leg immediately. A could not acquire the consent of B or his
family and amputated B's left leg to save his life. B sued A for medical negligence and malpractice.
Decide A's liability.
a) A is not liable because the amputation was necessary.

b) A is not liable because A had the implied consent of B and his family.
c) A is liable because B's consent was not received before amputation.

Q 102. 30630558 The doctor A, while performing a surgery, due to inadvertence, had to amputate the
left leg of the patient B. The amputation had to be done immediately and therefore, A could not
acquire the consent of B and/or his family. B sued A for medical negligence and malpractice. Decide
A's liability.
a) A is not liable because the amputation was necessary.
b) A is not liable because B's survival was more important.
c) A is liable because the amputation had to be done due to A's mistake.
Q 103. 30630558 A fire started in the forest, and to prevent it from spreading, A cleaned a 20ft. thick
strip of trees and plantations belonging to B, in B's absence. However, this did not stop the fire, and
the remaining of B's plantation also got ruined due to the fire. B sued A for the damages caused.
Decide A's liability.
a) A is not liable because A cleaned the strip to prevent the spreading of fire.
b) A is liable because his act was miscalculated and did not fulfil its purpose.
c) A is liable because his act caused all of B's plantation to be ruined.
Q 104. 30630558 A was driving his car at the speed of 120kmph on the road, when suddenly a child
ran to the middle of the road, and to avoid hurting the child, A swerved his car to the left, hitting into
another car parked on the roadside, belonging to B. B's car got entirely smashed. B, who saw the
entire incident, sued A for damages. Decide A's liability.
a) A is not liable because A did it to save the child.
b) A is liable because A was driving too fast.
c) A is liable because A knew that taking a left would result in him bumping into B's car.
Q 105. 30630558 A, being a poor man, could not afford any food to eat and had been hungry for 4
days in a row. In fear of death by hunger, A entered the first house he saw on the street, which
belonged to B, and without the knowledge of the owners, took some food from their house and left.
On finding out about A's conducts, B sued A for trespassing and theft. Decide A's liability.
a) A is not liable because without the food, A would have died.
b) A is not liable because he was not being able to get any food by any other method.
c) A is liable because A entered the property took the food without B's permission.
d) A is liable because A would not have died of hunger and his actions were thus unreasonable.
Logical Reasoning
Direction for questions 106 to 135: Read the following passages and answer the questions that
follow.
Passage – 1
The poem is about Russian soldiers who died fighting in Ukraine; but the Russian State, in denial
about the war itself, ignores their fate. They are trapped between life and death: their coffins become
tormented marriage-beds for the women betrothed to them. The latter's revulsion at the ravaged
corpses mingles with cherished memories of past companionship: they can neither embrace the dead
nor bury them. They are both brides and widows.
The poem horrifically binds the living to the dead; but the dead, of course, do not feel the horror. It is
the living who must cohabit with the disfigured bodies. Beyond the physical revulsion, it outrages their
souls to accept a lie as the basic truth of their existence.
Countless people live out such lies in loveless relationships, of which the marriage coffin is a
traumatizing symbol. But this poem looks beyond the personal to the political. By sending those men
to their deaths, the State has betrayed its people. The men are dead, and the women trapped in a
galling travesty of life, a spectral charade of exploded values: patriotism and sacrifice, familial and
societal bonding, narratives of the nation. War has transformed these life-giving ideals into a regimen
of lies.
Reports suggest that the common Russian is imperfectly informed about happenings in Ukraine.
Many accept the government's narrative, at least outwardly; some challenge it and suffer for their
protest. But whichever side they take, they are bound by the terms of that narrative as enforced by an
all-powerful State. The tattered rhetoric of nationalism grotesquely decks a discredited ideal,
pernicious for both Russia and its adversaries.
But war is not the only ploy by which the State betrays its citizens. War merely lays open the decay
and deceit latent in a great deal of social existence. Whether or not battling others, virtually every
nation is at war with itself, corrupting and subverting the principles from which it claims authority. At
times, the conflict erupts with particular violence. Shocked citizens find themselves embracing the
dead relics of what should have been the vitalizing force of their lives. Yet they cannot let them go, for
that would destroy all hope of order and revival. It is the only resort they have.
Q 106. 30630558 Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?
a) The existence of Russian soldiers is that of someone caught between life and death.
b) Russian soldiers are caught in a war of lies.
c) The Russian state is manipulating the soldiers into fighting a war.
d) Russian soldiers leave their wives as soon as war beckons them.
Q 107. 30630558 Based on the author's arguments, which of the following, if true, exposes the
wrongdoing of the Russian state?
a) The Russian state has made the personal lives of Russian soldiers into a public spectacle.
b) The Russian state has placed the people in a condition of a make belief reality.
c) It has twisted life-affirming principles into a propaganda of falsehood.

d) It has eroded a positive sense of authority from the citizen's mind.
Q 108. 30630558 Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author's arguments?
a)
Healthy misinformation during wartime from the State protects the citizens from descending into
chaos.
b)
Rhetorical statements from the State during difficult times makes the citizens exist in a state of
devastation.
c) The misinformation spread by the State is reflective of social malaise.
d) Lies sanctioned by the State are reflective of nations in war with itself.
Q 109. 30630558 Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author's arguments?
a) The war is based on protecting life-affirming ideals which help in creating a nation.
b) The war exposed social issues by showing the way the State treats its citizens.
c)
The State is concerned with the everyday welfare of citizens when it decides upon sending soldiers to
war.
d) Soldiers sent to war by the State are idealized figures of nationalism.
Q 110. 30630558 Based on the author's arguments, which of the following must necessarily be true?
a) War is another proof of society's patriarchal expectations on women.
b) For the leftovers of war, life and its values descend into a farce.
c) Both are true.

d) Both are false.
Q 111. 30630558 Which of the following is the author most likely to disagree with?
a) A nation's negative conditions get exposed when it moves away from its everyday functioning.
b) A nation is in a perpetual state of conflict.
c) Personal anguish of a citizen can never reflect the political crisis of a nation.
d) Forces that uphold life are corrupted in times of conflict.
follow.
Passage – 2
Not all marriages are happy, and not all divorces are unhappy. For those who want to opt out of a bad
marriage, Monday's Supreme Court ruling on divorce will be seen as a good move. Leaning on the
"guiding spirit" of Article 142(1) of the Constitution to do "complete justice" in any "cause or matter", a
Constitution Bench said it could use this extraordinary discretionary power to grant divorce by mutual
consent to couples trapped in bitter marriages. It also aims to spare couples the "agony and misery" of
waiting six to 18 months for a local court to annul it, as stipulated under Section 13B of the Hindu
Marriage Act, 1955. The Bench, headed by Justice Sanjay Kishan Kaul, observed that the law of
divorce, built predominantly on assigning fault, fails to serve broken marriages. It pointed out that if a
marriage is wrecked beyond hope, public interest lies in recognising this fact, not upholding a 'married'
status regardless. The Court said it could use Article 142 to quash pending criminal or legal
proceedings, be it over domestic violence or dowry, against the man or woman. Continuing in this
strain, the Bench said the Supreme Court could grant divorce on the grounds of an "irretrievable
breakdown of marriage" if the "separation is inevitable and the damage is irreparable". Under the
Hindu Marriage Act, irretrievable breakdown of marriage is not yet a ground for divorce.
In its judgment, there was a word of caution that the grant of divorce would not be a "matter of right,
but a discretion which is to be exercised with great care… keeping in mind that 'complete justice' is
done to both parties." Several factors would be considered by the Supreme Court before invoking
Article 142 in matrimonial cases, including duration of marriage, period of litigation, the time the
couple has stayed apart, the nature of pending cases, and attempts at reconciliation. The Court will
have to be satisfied that the mutual agreement to divorce was not under coercion. In India, while
divorcees have doubled in number over the past two decades, the incidence of divorce is still at 1.1%,
with those in urban areas making up the largest proportion. But the divorce numbers do not tell the
whole story; there are many women, particularly among the poor, who are abandoned or deserted.
Census 2011 revealed that the population which is "separated" is almost triple the divorced number. In
a country which is largely poor, where gender discrimination is rife and many women are still not
financially independent, the Court's stress on "care and caution" and not to rush into a quick divorce
must be welcomed. After all, marriage equality is not a reality for all.
Q 112. 30630558 What is the main purpose of the Supreme Court ruling discussed in the passage?
a) To grant divorce by mutual consent to couples in bitter marriages
b) To ensure couples do not have to wait for long periods to annul their marriages
c) To recognize the irretrievable breakdown of marriages as a ground for divorce
d) To quash pending criminal or legal proceedings related to domestic violence or dowry
Q 113. 30630558 Which of the following is the safest inference to make?
a)
The Supreme Court's ruling on divorce will lessen the need for couples to provide evidence of fault in
order to obtain a divorce.
b) The Supreme Court's ruling on divorce will lead to an increase in the overall divorce rates in India.
c)
The Supreme Court's ruling on divorce will only benefit couples who are currently involved in bitter
marriages.
d)
The Supreme Court's ruling on divorce will make the traditional fault-based divorce system obsolete.
Q 114. 30630558 Which of the following strengthens the SC judgement in the passage?
a)
The Supreme Court's ruling on divorce has received overwhelming support from various women's
rights organizations.
b)
The Supreme Court's ruling on divorce aligns with the existing provisions of the Hindu Marriage Act,
1955.
c)
The Supreme Court's ruling on divorce has been criticized by several conservative groups for
undermining the sanctity of marriage.
d)
The Supreme Court's ruling on divorce is applicable only to couples who have been married for less
than five years.
Q 115. 30630558 "In its judgment, there was a word of caution that the grant of divorce would not be
a "matter of right, but a discretion which is to be exercised with great care… keeping in mind that
'complete justice' is done to both parties."
Based on the statement, which of the following conclusions can be drawn about the grant of divorce
according to the judgment?
a) The grant of divorce is a guaranteed right for all individuals seeking it.
b) The grant of divorce should be approached with caution and exercised with care.
c) The grant of divorce is solely based on the discretion of the Supreme Court judges.
d) The grant of divorce prioritizes the interests of one party over the other.
Q 116. 30630558 Based on the passage, what is the most appropriate course of action to address
the issues mentioned?
a) Implement stricter laws to make divorce a matter of right for all individuals.
b) Encourage couples to seek reconciliation before proceeding with divorce.

c)
Amend the Hindu Marriage Act to include "irretrievable breakdown of marriage" as a ground for
divorce.
d) Expedite the process of granting divorce by mutual consent to reduce the waiting period.
Q 117. 30630558 Based on the last sentence of the passage, which of the following can be inferred?
a) Marriage equality has been achieved in all countries.
b) Gender discrimination is prevalent in societies where marriage equality is not a reality.
c) Financial independence is a common characteristic among divorced women.

d) The passage focuses on the legal aspects of divorce rather than social and economic factors.
follow.
Passage – 3
Sanna Marin, one of Finland's most popular politicians, has been praised for helping her country
navigate through the COVID-19 pandemic and for her decisive response to Russia's Ukraine invasion.
Her personal approval rating remains at 64% (69% among women). Yet, the centre-left-green coalition
she was leading was voted out of power on Sunday in an election that was largely dominated by
economic issues. In the final results, the conservative National Coalition emerged as the largest party
with 20.8% vote share, while Ms. Marin's Social Democrats ended up third (19.9%), after the anti-
immigrant, populist Finns Party (20.1%). In Finland's proportional representation system, the Social
Democratic Party was expected to improve its tally to 43 seats from 40 in 2019, but Ms. Marin's
coalition partners, including the Centre Party, the Left Alliance and the Green League suffered major
setbacks. Petteri Orpo, leader of the National Coalition, would be given the first chance to form the
government. But the National Coalition, which is projected to have 48 seats, should show the support
of at least 101 legislators in the 200-member Parliament to form the next government.
When Ms. Marin, 37, became Prime Minister in 2019, heading a coalition of five women-led parties,
she was one of Europe's youngest leaders. Her predecessor, Antti Rinne, a former trade unionist, was
in office for only six months. Sceptics doubted Ms. Marin's ability to keep the coalition together; her
term was also rocked by the pandemic and the Ukraine invasion. But she made difficult decisions
without losing the confidence of her allies. She stepped up borrowing and expanded social spending
and investments to cushion an economy that was battered by the pandemic. For Finland, Russia's
2022 invasion of Ukraine brought back grim memories of the 'Winter War', the 1939 Soviet invasion of
Finland. Even though Finland lost territories, the country remained neutral throughout the Cold War.
But the Ukraine war changed the strategic calculus of its leaders and Ms. Marin rallied public opinion
on NATO membership. Yet, the economic costs of the Ukraine war partly led to her downfall. Amid
surging inflation and high borrowing, Mr. Orpo attacked Ms. Marin's handling of the economy, while
the Populist Finns slammed the country's immigration rules. The economic uncertainties, which were
accentuated by the war, allowed both parties to make gains. Mr. Orpo, a seasoned politician, will now
have to decide whether he should go with the Social Democrats or the populists. Either way, he will
find it hard to find a balance between parties with different ideas while tackling defence and economic
challenges.
Q 118. 30630558 What is a possible implication of the outcome of the Finnish parliamentary election
of 2023, as discussed in the passage?
a) The National Coalition's victory could lead to a shift towards more right-wing policies in Finland.
b) Sanna Marin's popularity is most likely to decline severely after the defeat of her political coalition.
c) The economic impact of the Ukraine invasion is not a significant factor in the election outcome.
d) The incoming government is likely to continue with the same coalition partners as Sanna Marin.
Q 119. 30630558 Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about Sanna Marin's term
as Prime Minister of Finland?
a)
She was able to maintain her coalition despite the challenges posed by the COVID-19 pandemic and
Russia's invasion of Ukraine.
b)
Her popularity and effective leadership were not enough to prevent the defeat of her coalition in the
2023 parliamentary election.
c)
Marin's focus on social spending and investments helped Finland weather the economic impact of the
pandemic.
d)
She was successful in persuading the Finnish public to support NATO membership in the aftermath of
the Ukraine invasion.
Q 120. 30630558 Which of the following options best strengthens the argument made by the author
in the passage?
a)
Sanna Marin's personal approval ratings took a small hit after her party lost the election, though she is
still well-liked by most.
b)
Petteri Orpo, the leader of the National Coalition, is unlikely to have any trouble proving his party's
majority in the parliament.
c)
The economic uncertainties, accentuated by the war, allowed both the National coalition and the
populist Finn party to make gains in the elections.
d)
Sanna Marin's decisive response to Russia's Ukraine invasion brought back grim memories of the
'Winter War' for the public.
Q 121. 30630558 Which of the following external pieces of evidence would weaken the author's
argument about Sanna Marin's popularity and leadership during the COVID-19 pandemic and
Russia's invasion of Ukraine?
a)
A recent survey showing a significant increase in public approval ratings for Sanna Marin among
women voters.
b)
A study indicating that economic issues were the primary concern of Finnish voters in the 2023
parliamentary election.
c)
An interview with a prominent Finnish economist who praises Sanna Marin's handling of the economy
during the pandemic.
d)
A news report suggesting that Sanna Marin's response to the Ukraine invasion was criticized by NATO
leaders.
Q 122. 30630558 Which of the following would be a valid inference from the passage?
a)
Sanna Marin's declining popularity proved to be the main reason for the Social Democrats' loss in the
Finnish parliamentary election of 2023.
b)
The National Coalition emerging victorious in the Finnish parliamentary election of 2023 is no cause
for celebration as its political future remains volatile.
c)
Economic uncertainties and concerns over immigration played a significant role in the outcome of the
Finnish parliamentary election of 2023.
d)
Petteri Orpo, by virtue of being a seasoned politician, will easily find a balance between parties with
different ideas on tackling economic challenges.
Q 123. 30630558 What is a necessary assumption for the author's argument in the passage to hold?
a) Finland's economic issues were the sole reason for the defeat of Ms. Marin's coalition.
b) Ms. Marin's handling of the pandemic and the Ukraine invasion did not contribute to her downfall.
c) Mr. Orpo will successfully form a government with either the Social Democrats or the populists.
d)
The economic uncertainties caused by the war were significant enough to impact the election results.
follow.
Passage – 4
"We Are Displaced: My Journey and stories from Refugee Girls Around the world is a substantial
souvenir from one of the world's most prominent young activists and the youngest ever Nobel Prize
Laureate, Malala Yousfzai, known for fighting for girls' right to education in impoverished countries that
have experienced ghastly war atrocities and human rights violations. She truly represents the mores
and standards of what the 18th century British protofeminist; Mary Wollstonecraft calls 'A vindication
of the rights of women'. She came into the public spotlight around 2013, surviving a bullet to the head
when the Taliban decided to retaliate her activism. Her unflagging support for the education of girls
(which nearly cost her life) is evident throughout. She also vividly describes the horror of seeing
schools reduced to rubble as a result of bombings, an experience that both politicized her and forced
her family into exile in England. In chapter 2, she expresses it piercingly; "I was eleven when the
Taliban started bombing girls' schools throughout the Swat Valley. The attacks happened at night, so
at least no one was hurt, but imagine arriving at school in the morning to find it a pile of rubble. It felt
beyond cruel". The author devotes only about a quarter of the book to her own story; the remainder is
a collection of oral histories from displaced women and girls from countries ranging from Yemen to
Colombia to the Democratic Republic of Congo. Each refugee's tale of survival is equal parts
devastating and inspiring, and the narrators do not shy away from the complex, contradictory
experiences of fleeing a homeland. The narratives are filled with emotionally specific descriptive
details that render each voice powerful and unique. In the prologue, Yousafzai specifically states that
her purpose is to transform refugees from nameless, faceless statistics into who they really are:
humans whose identities are more than just their displaced status.
Q 124. 30630558 In the light of the passage, it can be understood that:
a) Malala has been an activist for the past 3-4 years.
b) Malala became an activist after she was attacked by the Taliban.

c) Malala made peace with the Taliban after she was shot by the latter.
d) Malala's observations in her book are not restricted to a single country.

Q 125. 30630558 The author of the passage will most likely agree with which one of the following
options?
a) It is safe to assume that the Taliban is a regressive organization.
b) It is safe to assume that the Taliban is a progressive organization.
c) It is safe to assume that the Taliban hates children of Afghanistan and other countries.
d) It is safe to assume that the Taliban believes in killing girl students.
Q 126. 30630558 In the light of the passage, it can be inferred that Yousafzai aims to:
a) Help the refugees start their own ventures. b) Start living with the refugees.
c) Improve the lot of the refugees. d) Help the refugees financially.
Q 127. 30630558 In the light of the passage, what is common between Mary Wollstonecraft and
Malala Yousfzai?
a) Mary Wollstonecraft inspired Malala Yousfzai.

b) Both stand for the rights of women.
c) Mary Wollstonecraft supported the condition of Afghan refugees like Malala.
d) Mary Wollstonecraft joined politics like Malala.
Q 128. 30630558 The given passage is most likely a/an:
a) An anthology b) A book review c) A newspaper report d) A research paper
Q 129. 30630558 From the passage, it can be understood that:
a) The experiences of the displaced women are exactly the same across the globe.
b) Displaced women have been affected the most in Asia.

c) Patriarchy is the foremost reason why today's women suffer the most.
d) The experiences of the displaced women are distinct and not same.
follow.
Passage – 5
In Indian culture since very early periods, women as a group have been dominated by men and their
status has been low in the family and society. That was because of illiteracy, financial dependence
and patriarchy. The customs like polygamy, Purdah system were the prominent ones. It was only
when India achieved independence that things began to change slowly and steadily. Only in Post-
colonial India, education of girls started being considered important and necessary but somehow its
importance is linked with the better chances in matrimonial market. Education can provide not only
good jobs, but also good marriages. This is the strategy which works with Indian mind even in present
times. However, for a woman in Regency England marriage was the need of hour. The same situation
was prevalent in India at the time of independence. But one important aspect which deserves to be
mentioned is the trend of arranged marriages in India for the simple reason that it fits the framework of
social structure. The Indian system of arranged marriages is a broad concept. Marriage in India has
been closely related to caste hierarchy and caste endogamy has remained a critical point in arranged
marriages. While arranging marriage, the role of family cannot be denied. Even in present times the
practice seen in most of the Indian families is to put the matrimonial advertisement in some leading
newspapers where lot of emphasis is given on specific attributes of a prospective alliance. Financial
status is an integral part of arranged marriages in India. Courtship (even in present times also) too
plays a crucial role where men and women are given an opportunity to understand each other.
Q 130. 30630558 In the light of the passage, it can be inferred that:
a) The condition of girls in India deteriorated after 1947.
b) The condition of girls improved in India after 1947.
c) The condition of girls remained the same after India attained independence.
d) Post-independence, Indian girls became socially aware and so, their condition improved.
Q 131. 30630558 Out of the following options, which one can be defined as one of the characteristics
of arranged marriages in India?
a) Arranged marriages take place outside the community as well.
b) Arranged marriages do not care about caste hierarchies.

c) Marriages in India have a close connection with caste rankings.
d) Family plays a secondary role in arranged marriages.
Q 132. 30630558 Out of the following options, which one is a correct inference about the education of
girls in India?
a) A good education only provides a decent job to a girl.

b) Governments provide incentives to girls pursuing higher education.
c) Girls do not want to pursue education in today's times.
d) Education of girls is directly proportional to the prospects of a good marriage.
Q 133. 30630558 Out of the following options, which one can be inferred to be appropriately
representing the central subject of the given passage?
a) b) Marriages in post-colonial India

A social study of Indian women through the lens c) Condition of women in India
of matrimony
d) Women and arranged marriages in India
Q 134. 30630558 How does the author define patriarchy in the passage?
a) Patriarchy has vanished in today's India.

b) Patriarchy is responsible for the upliftment of women.
c) Patriarchy is responsible for the subaltern position of women in society.
d) Patriarchy has been the most important reason why women have remained subjugated.
Q 135. 30630558 The author of the passage would most likely agree with which of the following
statements?
a) Courtship has been frowned upon by parents in arranged marriages.
b) Courtship is hardly seen in negotiation marriages.
c) A wealthy groom is always educated and therefore, sought after.

d) A wealthy groom is sought after in Indian marriages.
Quantitative Techniques
Directions for questions 136 to 140: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.
At the Krishna Nagar General Post Office there are five postmen - L, M, N, P and R - who apart from
delivery are also involved in sorting letters based on the pin code. On an average there are 6000
letters to be sorted during a week. Working alone, M can complete the sorting in 20 hours and
together M and N can do it in 12 hours. L is 25% less efficient than M whereas P takes 60% of the
time taken by L to do the same work. Working alone, R can complete the sorting in the same time as
N and P together.
Q 136. 30630558 How many hours will R and P together take to complete the sorting?
a) 8 hours b) 7.5 hours c) 10 hours d) 6 hours
Q 137. 30630558 On a normal working day, the postmen sort letters for 3 hours and then go out for
delivery of letters. How many letters can N sort in 2 days if he follows his normal routine?
a) 2400 b) 1200 c) 900 d) 1800
Q 138. 30630558 If M and R start working together, then what percentage of the work will be left after
6 hours of sorting?
a) 10% b) 20% c) 12% d) 15%
Q 139. 30630558 If all five postmen work together, then approximately how many hours will they take
to complete sorting all the letters?
a) 3 hours 45 minutes b) 4 hours 20 minutes c) 3 hours 27 minutes d) 2 hours 55 minutes
Q 140. 30630558 If everyday each of the five postmen work alone for one and a half hours each
alternatively starting with L followed by M, N, P and R, then what portion of the work will remain after
the second day?
a) 11% b) 17% c) 15% d) 13%
below.
Out of the 15,000 candidates eligible for an Officer's post in a Public Sector Bank, 450 candidates
have prior experience of working in Public Sector Banks in rural areas only. 25% of the total number of
candidates have prior experience of working in Public Sector Banks in urban areas only. 12% of the
total number of candidates have prior experience of working in Private Sector Banks in urban areas
only. 2% of the total number of candidates have prior experience of working in Private Sector Banks in
rural areas only. 3,600 candidates have worked in Public Sector Banks in both urban and rural areas.
15% of the total number of candidates have worked in both Public and Private Sector Banks in urban
areas only. 600 candidates have worked in both Public and Private Sector Banks in rural areas only.
The remaining candidates have no prior experience of working in the Banking industry.
Q 141. 30630558 How many candidates have no prior experience of working in banking industry?
a) 1850 b) 2050 c) 2450 d) 2250
Q 142. 30630558 What is the respective ratio of the number of candidates who have the experience
of working in private sector banks in rural areas only to those who have the experience of working in
private sector banks in urban areas only?
a) 1 : 6 b) 1 : 3 c) 1 : 4 d) 6 : 1
Q 143. 30630558 How many candidates have prior experience of working in Public Sector Banks
either in urban areas or rural areas or both?
a) 12,450 b) 10,650 c) 8,400 d) 10,050
Q 144. 30630558 The candidates who have no prior experience of working in the banking industry
are what percent of the candidates who have worked in Public Sector Banks either in urban areas or
rural areas or both?
a) 20.5% b) 18.15% c) 20.23% d) 21.13%
Q 145. 30630558 What is the total number of candidates who have worked in Private Sector Banks in
urban areas?
a) 1,800 b) 2,250 c) 4,050 d) 3,600

below.
The table given below represents the fuel consumption data of a fleet of trucks in a logistics company
over the course of a year.
Q 146. 30630558 If average fuel consumption per truck per month is defined as the total fuel
consumed divided by the total number of trucks by the number of months, then what is the average
fuel consumption per truck per month for the first quarter of the year?
a) 125 L b) 85 L c) 100 L d) 105 L
Q 147. 30630558 From among the given options, during which month was the fuel consumption per
truck the lowest?
a) October b) September c) February d) April
Q 148. 30630558 If fuel efficiency is defined as the total distance traveled by the total fuel consumed,
then what was the fuel efficiency (in km/L) of the fleet in July?
a) 10 b) 15 c) 12 d) 9.5
Q 149. 30630558 Calculate the total fuel cost for the year if the price of fuel is Rs. 96 per liter.
a) Rs. 1,64,16,000 b) Rs.1,65,22,000 c) Rs.1,71,04,000 d) Rs.1,64,56,000
Q 150. 30630558 What is the ratio of the total distance traveled per liter of fuel in August and
November?
a) 2 : 3 b) 1 : 2 c) 2 : 1 d) 1 : 1

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Prime Mock 16 (CLAT) 2024

a) To reflect fixed beliefs and shape actual policy b)

a) China's overseas development largess is unconstrained by domestic development needs.

d) China's approach to global leadership is influenced by cost-benefit considerations.

Q 3. 30630558 Which of the following is a suitable title for the passage?

c) d) The Inevitable Triumph of Socialism in China

a) Revolutionary b) Reactionary c) Revisionist d) Retaliatory

a) b) To show the effects of flawed urbanization.

Q 7. 30630558 What according to the author should be fundamentally understood regarding

a) The reasons behind rural people migrating into cities.

c) The reasons behind urban expansion and its consequences on citizens.

d) The reasons behind deterioration of living conditions in urbanized places.

a) A comprehensive all-encompassing approach.

c) Integrating a private-public partnership model.

d) Ensuring that citizens contribute to a city's betterment physically and digitally.

a) To prioritise the observation of government scheme implementation.

b) To prioritise emphasising citizens' voices.

d) To prioritise the successes of NGOs.

a) Swing b) Sway c) Struggle d) Levitate

c) The opposition in Uzbekistan actively campaigned against the President's proposals.

a) President Mirziyoyev possesses exceptional diplomatic skills and international recognition.

a) Head of state b) Subsidiary c) Unrestrained d) Effective

b) To show the change in consumerism with respect to AI.

c) To show how consumers are manipulated by companies.

d) To show the process of seeking refund in a neoliberal world.

a) A machine's apparent inhuman imitation of humanity is entertaining for users.

a) Incomplete AI machines show us how our brain works.

b) By failing to be human, the AI teaches us the value of humanity.

c) AI is limited because it cannot imitate our consciousness.

d) The restrictions of AI show us the intricacies of our mind.

Q 19. 30630558 "AI" is the acronym for:

a) b) c) Artificial Intelligence. d) Artifice Intelligence.

Q 20. 30630558 What does the last sentence of the passage imply?

a) Inability to gauge AI's reactions is amusing to us.

b) AI's mastery of escaping understanding makes it an enjoyable game for users.

c) Users of AI revel at the complexity of the tool.

a) Guidelines for Feeding Stray Animals in Housing Societies

c) Challenges Faced by Animal Feeders in Housing Societies

d) Responsibilities of Resident Welfare Associations and Apartment Owners Associations

a) To show the social reality of women in India.

b) To show the importance of religion in surrogacy.

d) To show the patriarchal conditions imposed upon surrogate mothers.

Q 27. 30630558 Which of the following applies to surrogacy clinics in Gujarat?

a) They act as brokers between families and prospective surrogates.

b) They act as legal binders between families and prospective surrogates.

c) They act as financial regulators for prospective surrogate mothers.

d) They act as owners of prospective surrogate mothers.

Q 28. 30630558 All the words below are related in meaning, except:

a) Business b) Gestation c) Economic d) Commercial

Q 29. 30630558 What does 'profanity' as used in the passage mean?

a) Illogical b) Vehemence c) Irreverent d) Notorious

a) Newspaper article b) c) d) Fiction writing

a) b) c) Burj Al Arab in Dubai d)

a) Shahbaz Sharif b) c) d) Hina Rabbani Khar

Q 33. 30630558 What is the theme of India's Chairmanship of SCO in 2023?

a) 'SCO-2030: A Vision for Shared Development' b) 'SCO-2023: A Secure Future'

c) 'SCO-2023: Building Bridges' d) 'SECURE-SCO'

Q 34. 30630558 When was the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) founded?

a) Because Afghanistan is a permanent member of the SCO