G10 History MT1 ASM 2
G10 History MT1 ASM 2
G10 History MT1 ASM 2
General Instructions:
i. Question paper comprises six sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37 questions in the question paper. All
questions are compulsory.
ii. Section A – Questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
iii. Section B – Questions 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each. The answer to each
question should not exceed 40 words.
iv. Section C – Questions 25 to 29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. The answer to each
question should not exceed 60 words.
v. Section D – Questions 30 to 33 are Long Answer Type Questions, carrying 5 marks each. The answer to each
question should not exceed 120 words.
vi. Section E – Questions 34 to 36 are Case-based Questions with three sub-questions each. These are of 4 marks
each.
vii. Section F – Question 37 is Map-based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b from
Geography (3 marks).
viii. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions has to be attempted.
ix. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.
Note to the teachers: All text in brackets and italics, along with the images, is meant to provide
additional information to help understand the answers. Please do not evaluate the answers based
on this.
SECTION - A
MCQs (1 × 20 = 20)
Answer:
C. Germania
Solution/Explanation:
(In the 19th century, many artists invented female allegories to represent their nations. Germania
was one such female allegory that represented the German nation. In visual representations,
Germania wears a crown of oak leaves, as the German oak stands for heroism. In 1860, the artist
Lorenz Clasen painted the given image of Germania, where she is wearing a crown of oak leaves
and holding a sword and a shield. Hence option C is the correct answer.)
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for the correct answer.
3) Arrange the following events in the chronological order of their occurrence: (1 mark)
I. First World War II. Fall of Napoleon
III. Unification of Italy IV. Unification of Germany
A. IV, III, II & I B. II, III, IV & I C. I, III, IV & II D. IV, III, I & I
Answer:
B. II, III, IV & I
Solution/Explanation:
(The important events that took place in Europe between 1815 and 1914 are listed below:
• 1815 − The fall of Napoleon and the emergence of a new conservatism (point II)
4) There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per
the codes provided below: (1 mark)
Assertion (A): The Bretton Woods system of fixed exchange rates collapsed after the 1960s.
Reason (R): From the 1960s, the rising cost of the United States' overseas involvement
weakened its finances and competitive strength.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
Answer:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
Solution/Explanation:
(In the 1960s, the Bretton Woods system declined as this system of fixed exchange rates
collapsed. It happened as follows:
• The US was engaged in many foreign interventions. As the cost of overseas involvement
rose, US finances and competitive strength weakened.
• As this continued, the US dollar failed to maintain its value in relation to gold. For the
system of fixed exchange rates to work effectively, it was important for the US dollar to
consistently maintain its value in relation to gold.
As a result, the Bretton Woods system collapsed. Hence, option A is the correct answer as both
the assertion and the reason are true, and the reason provides the correct explanation of the
assertion.)
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for the correct answer.
Crops Features
LIST I LIST II
LIST I LIST II
These roads received an impetus under the Pradhan
A. Rural roads
Mantri Grameen Sadak Yojna.
10) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding communal politics? (1 mark)
A. It promotes religious diversity in a country.
B. It ignores religious differences among people.
C. It is based on the idea that all religions are equal.
D. It often suppresses many voices in order to make one religion superior.
Answer:
D. It often suppresses many voices in order to make one religion superior.
Solution/Explanation:
(Religion causes social division when it is seen as the basis of a nation. Communal politics is the
use of religion in politics. It uses state power to establish the superiority of one religion over
others. The basic ideas of communal politics are as follows:
• Communal politics is based on the belief that people belonging to one religion form a
community. Thus, it does not support religious diversity. Hence, option A is not true.
11) Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the caste system practised in India?
(1 mark)
A. It is not linked to the economic status of an individual in India.
B. It is neither hereditary nor is it sanctioned by any ritual in India.
C. It is based on the exclusion of and discrimination of the ‘outcaste’ groups.
D. It has strengthened in India due to economic development and urbanisation.
Answer:
C. It is based on the exclusion of and discrimination of the ‘outcaste’ groups.
Solution/Explanation:
(Unlike gender and religion-based divisions, caste-based division is unique to India. The caste
system places castes in a hierarchy. The so-called ‘upper castes’ are placed at the top of the
ladder, while the so-called ‘lower castes’ are placed at the bottom. Some of its characteristics are
given below:
• The Indian caste system was based on the exclusion of and discrimination of the
‘outcaste’ group. Hence, option C is the correct answer.
• Indian caste system continues to be closely linked to economic status. Hence, option A is
also not true.
• Caste system in India is a hereditary occupational division and is sanctioned by rituals.
Hence, option B is not true.
• The Indian caste system has undergone great changes. The old notions of caste hierarchy
are breaking down due to economic development, urbanisation, literacy growth, and
education. Hence, option D is not true.)
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for the correct answer.
15) Read the following table about the estimated number of Indian workers in the organised
and unorganised sectors and select the appropriate option from the following. (1 mark)
WORKERS IN DIFFERENT SECTORS (IN MILLIONS)
Sector Organised Unorganised Total
Primary 1 231 232
Secondary 41 74 115
Tertiary 40 88 128
Total 82 393 475
Total in Percentage 17 83 100
(Source: http:/mospi.gov.in.)
Based on the table given above, which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. Tertiary sector workers are found only in the organised sector.
B. The organised sector employs the largest number of workers.
C. The secondary sector employs the largest number of workers.
D. Primary sector workers are mostly found in the unorganised sector
Answer:
D. Primary sector workers are mostly found in the unorganised sector.
Solution/Explanation:
(The following conclusions can be drawn from the provided data:
16) Find the odd one out from the following options: (1 mark)
A. Grains, cattle, copper coins
B. Gold coins, silver coins, copper coins
C. Paper notes, cheques, demand drafts
D. Moneylenders, cooperative societies, commercial banks
Answer:
D. Moneylenders, cooperative societies, commercial banks
Solution/Explanation:
(While options A, B and C all can be classified as mediums of exchange, Option D includes
sources of credit.
Hence, option D is the odd one out.)
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for the correct answer.
17) Read the information given below and select the correct option. (1 mark)
Megan has taken a loan of Rs 10 lakh from a bank to buy a house. The loan has an annual
interest rate of 8% and will be repaid in monthly instalments over 15 years. Before the bank
agreed to give Megan the loan, she had to submit documents proving her employment
history, salary, and official papers of new house.
The interest rate, documentation requirements, and mode of repayment are all referred to
as ___________.
A. collateral B. debt trap
C. terms of credit D. double coincidence of wants
18) Which of the following organisations establishes rules regarding international trade and
aims to liberalise it? (1 mark)
A. World Bank B. United Nations (UN)
C. World Trade Organisation (WTO) D. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
Answer:
C. World Trade Organisation (WTO)
Solution/Explanation:
(The World Trade Organisation (WTO) is an international organisation whose aim is to liberalise
international trade. WTO was established at the initiative of developed countries to establish
rules for international trade and ensure that these rules are followed. The World Trade
Organisation currently has 164 member countries. Hence, option C is the correct answer.)
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for the correct answer.
19) In 1991, the Indian government removed barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment.
What was this process called? (1 mark)
A. Privatisation B. Socialisation C. Globalisation D. Liberalisation
Answer: D. Liberalisation
Solution/Explanation:
(In India, significant policy changes were implemented beginning around 1991. The government
decided that it was time for Indian producers to compete with producers worldwide. The Indian
government believed that competition would improve the performance of domestic producers by
forcing them to improve their quality. As a result, many barriers to foreign trade and
investment have been removed. This process is called liberalisation.)
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for the correct answer.
SECTION - B
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (2 × 4 = 8)
21) Analyse the problems associated with manuscripts in 15th-century Europe. (2 marks)
Answer:
The problems associated with handwritten manuscripts because of which they could not
meet the ever-increasing demand for books in 15th-century Europe were as follows:
(i) Copying these manuscripts was a highly expensive, laborious, and time-consuming
business.
(ii) Manuscripts were fragile, awkward to handle, and needed careful handling.
(iii) Reading the manuscripts was not easy as they were written in different styles.
Teacher Instruction:
Accept any two relevant reasons. Give 1 mark for each reason.
23) ‘Manufacturing sector is considered the backbone of development in any country.’ Justify the
statement by giving suitable arguments. (2 marks)
Answer:
The development of a country is often associated with the growth of its manufacturing
sector. The manufacturing sector is considered the backbone of development in any country
due to the following reasons:
(i) Modernises agriculture: It helps modernise agriculture by providing facilities such as
irrigation pumps, fertilisers, and pesticides.
(ii) Creates jobs: It creates jobs in the secondary and tertiary sectors, thereby reducing the
excessive dependence on agriculture.
(iii) Reduces poverty: It helps in reducing poverty in the country by generating
employment for the people.
(iv) Reduces regional disparity: It helps in reducing regional disparities as setting up
industries in underdeveloped areas generates employment for the people of these
regions.
24) Suggest any two measures that the Government of India can take to make globalisation
fairer. (2 marks)
Answer:
Fair globalisation refers to the idea that the benefits of globalisation must be shared by
everyone equally. The government can take the following measures to make globalisation
fairer:
(i) It can ensure that labour laws are properly implemented and that workers' rights
are safeguarded.
SECTION - C
SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS (3 × 5 = 15)
25) Examine the difficulties that early Indian entrepreneurs faced because of colonial rule in
India. (3 marks)
Answer:
When India was colonised, many restrictions were imposed on Indian entrepreneurs. Early
Indian entrepreneurs faced the following difficulties because of the colonial rule:
(i) Colonial laws imposed trade restrictions on Indian entrepreneurs: Indian
industrialists were stopped from trading in manufactured goods like cotton fabrics.
They were only free to trade in raw materials. This was done to ensure that machine-
made Indian textiles did not pose a threat to Manchester goods.
(ii) European companies controlled a large sector of Indian industries: Until the First
World War, three main European Managing Agencies — Bird Heiglers & Co., Andrew
Yule, and Jardine Skinner & Co. — controlled a large sector of Indian industries. They
set up joint-stock companies. Indian industrialists could invest in these joint-stock
companies, but they had no say in their financial decisions.
(iii) Indian industrialists were not a part of the chambers of commerce: European
industrialists had their chambers of commerce. Indians were not allowed to join these
associations.
(iv) Indian industrialists were barred from entering certain industries: European
industrialists were interested in tea and coffee plantations and mining as these
products were popular as exports.
Teacher Instruction:
Accept any three relevant difficulties. Give 1 mark for each difficulty.
OR
26) How did the French revolutionaries create a sense of collective identity among the French
people? (3 marks)
Answer:
One major impact of the French Revolution was that it helped create a sense of collective
identity among the French people. The French revolutionaries created a sense of collective
identity among the people by adopting the following measures:
(i) They promoted ideas of the la patrie (the fatherland) and le citoyen (the citizen),
which emphasised the concept of a united community with equal rights granted by a
constitution.
(ii) They replaced the royal standard with a new tricolour flag.
(iii) They established a centralised administrative system which made uniform laws for
all.
(iv) Regional dialects were discouraged, and French (as it was used in Paris) was adopted
as the common language.
(v) Internal customs duties and dues were abolished, and a uniform system of weights
and measures was adopted.
27) Differentiate between conventional and non-conventional sources of energy with examples.
(3 marks)
Answer:
Based on the extent and status of their use, the sources of energy can be classified into two
categories — conventional and non-conventional. The differences between the conventional
and non-conventional sources of energy are as follows:
Basis Conventional Sources of Non-Conventional Sources of
Energy Energy
(i) Renewability These sources of energy are These sources of energy are
mainly non-renewable and usually renewable and are
are thus present in a limited continuously replenished by
quantity in nature. natural processes.
(ii) Usage These sources of energy have These sources of energy have
been in use for many years, been put to use more recently
and we have the technical and are not being used to their
know-how to use them. full potential.
(iii) Environmental The use of these sources of The use of these sources of
Impact energy tends to cause energy does not pollute the
pollution and harm the environment.
environment.
Examples Firewood, Coal, Natural gas, Nuclear energy, Wind energy,
Cow dung, Petroleum Tidal energy, Solar energy,
Biogas, Geothermal energy
Teacher Instruction:
Accept any two relevant differences. Give 1 mark for each difference. Accept relevant examples.
Give one mark for examples.
28) ‘In modern democracies, power-sharing arrangements can take many forms.’ Examine the
statement. (3 marks)
Answer:
In modern democracies, power-sharing arrangements can take many forms. The following
are some of the most common forms of power sharing:
29) ‘Money cannot buy all the goods and services one needs to live well.’ Justify this statement
with examples. (3 marks)
Answer:
Money in our pockets cannot buy all the goods and services we need to live well. This
statement can be proved with the help of the following examples:
(i) Money cannot give us a pollution-free environment.
(ii) It cannot ensure unadulterated medicines to the people.
(iii) It cannot protect us from infectious diseases.
Teacher Instruction:
Accept any three relevant examples. Give 1 mark for each example.
SECTION - D
LONG ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS (5 × 4 = 20)
30) Highlight important economic, social, and political conditions created by the First World War
that led to the growth of nationalism in India. (5 marks)
Answer:
The economic, social, and political conditions that led to the growth of nationalism in India
are as follows:
Economic factors
32) Describe five provisions of the Constitutional Amendment of 1992 that strengthened the
third tier of democracy in India. (5 marks)
Answer:
The following provisions of the Constitutional Amendment of 1992 strengthened the third
tier of democracy:
(i) Regular elections: The Amendment Act of 1992 made it constitutionally mandatory to
hold regular elections for local government bodies.
(ii) Compulsory reservations for marginalised groups: The Amendment Act of 1992
made the reservation of seats compulsory for the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes
and Other Backward Classes in the elected bodies and the executive heads of these
institutions.
(iii) Compulsory reservations for women: It mandated that at least one-third of all
positions are reserved for women.
(iv) Independent state election commission: It created an independent institution called
the State Election Commission in each state to conduct panchayat and municipal
elections.
(v) Shared power and revenue resources: The act made it mandatory for the State
governments to share some powers and revenue with local government bodies.
Teacher Instruction:
Accept any five relevant provisions. Give 1 mark for each point.
OR
Describe any five key features of federalism in India. (5 marks)
Answer:
The following are the key features of federalism:
(i) The government is divided into two or more levels or tiers. The most common levels
of government are the federal government, the state government, and the local
government.
(ii) Each tier has its own jurisdiction. They work together to ensure that all citizens of the
country are properly governed.
(iii) The Constitution specifies the jurisdiction of each tier. As a result, the Constitution
guarantees the existence and authority of each tier of government.
33) Define the tertiary sector of an economy. Discuss any four reasons for the growing
importance of the tertiary sector in India. (5 marks)
Answer:
The tertiary sector includes activities that generate services and those activities that
support primary and secondary activities. For example, postal services, transportation,
trading, and professional services such as those of doctors and teachers.
The tertiary sector has recently emerged as India's largest sector. The following are the
major reasons for its growing importance in India:
(i) Need for basic services: Several services such as hospitals, educational institutions,
post and telegraph services, police stations, courts, village administrative offices,
municipal corporations, defence, transport, banks, and insurance companies are
considered basic services.
(ii) Demand for more services: As information and communication technology has grown
in importance and utility, there has been an increase in the number of new services
based on it. The demand for these services has been rapidly increasing.
(iii) Demand for advanced services: With an increase in income levels, more services like
hospitality, tourism, shopping, private hospitals, private schools, and professional
training are being demanded by people.
(iv) Development of agriculture and industry: Agriculture and industry development
lead to the development of services such as transportation, trade, and storage. In
recent years, as the primary and secondary sectors have grown, so has the demand for
services that support the primary and secondary sectors.
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for stating the correct meaning. Accept any four relevant reasons. Give 1 mark for
each reason.
Describe the primary sector and four ways in which employment can be generated in rural
areas in India. (5 marks)
Answer:
Primary sector activities include the direct use or extraction of natural resources such
as land, water, plants, and minerals. For example, fishing, forestry, agriculture, mining,
and quarrying.
The primary sector, or the agricultural sector, is largely rural. The following steps can thus be
taken to increase employment in this sector:
(i) Providing irrigation facilities to farmers by constructing dams and canals so that
they can also grow crops during the dry season.
(ii) Providing agricultural credit at low interest rates to buy good quality seeds and
fertilisers to ensure a good yield.
(iii) Providing storage facilities, such as cold storage for vegetables, so that farmers can
store their crops.
(iv) Providing transportation facilities, such as constructing roads, so that farmers can
sell their crops in nearby towns.
(v) Promoting and locating industries and services in rural areas where a large number
of people may be employed.
(vi) Establishing primary product processing industries such as potato, sweet potato,
rice, wheat, tomato, and fruits that can be sold in outside markets.
Teacher Instruction:
Accept any four relevant ways to generate employment in rural areas. Give 1 mark for stating the
correct meaning of the primary sector and 1 mark for each way.
SECTION - E
CASE-BASED QUESTIONS (4 × 3 = 12)
34) Read the given extract and answer the following questions. (4 marks)
Dams were traditionally constructed to impound rivers and rainwater for later use in
irrigating agricultural fields. Dams are now built not only for irrigation but also for electricity
generation, residential and industrial water supply, flood control, recreation, inland
navigation, and fish breeding. As a result, dams are now referred to as multi-purpose
projects in which the various uses of the impounded water are integrated with one another.
For example, in the Sutlej-Beas River basin, water from the Bhakra-Nangal project is used for
both hydropower generation and irrigation.
36) Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow. (4 marks)
Sunita, a small farmer, grew peanuts on her three acres of land. She borrowed money from
a moneylender to cover cultivation costs, hoping her harvest would help repay the loan.
Pests attacked the crop halfway through the season, causing it to fail. Sunita sprayed her
crops with costly pesticides, but it made little difference. She could not repay the
moneylender, and the debt increased over a year. This year, Sunita took a new loan from the
same moneylender for cultivation. The crops are normal this year. However, the earnings
are insufficient to cover the old loan. She is caught in debt. She will have to sell a portion of
the property to pay off the debt.
(Sourced and adapted from Board recommended textbook.)
(a) What type of source of credit did Sunita opt for? (1 mark)
Answer:
Sunita opted for the informal source of credit as she borrowed from a moneylender.
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for the correct answer.
(b) Why did Sunita need credit? (1 mark)
Answer:
Sunita needed credit to meet her cultivation expenses and buy expensive pesticides
for her fields.
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for the correct answer.
(c) Analyse any two reasons that made Sunita’s situation risky. (2 marks)
Answer:
Sunita’s situation was very risky because of the following factors:
(i) Moneylenders charge a very high interest rate, and the collateral’s value is
generally higher than the loan amount.
SECTION − F
MAP SKILL BASED QUESTION (2 + 3 = 5)
37 (a) Two places, A and B have been marked on the given political map of India. Identify them
and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them. (2 marks)
(A) The place where the Jallianwala Bagh incident took place. - Amritsar
(B) The National Congress Session where the Non-Cooperation Programme was
adopted in December 1920. - Nagpur Session
37 (b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any THREE of the following with
suitable symbols. (3 marks)
(A) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam - Telangana
(B) Tarapur Nuclear Power Plant - Maharashtra
(C) Noida Software Technology Park - Uttar Pradesh
(D) Kandla Port – Gujarat
Teacher Instruction:
Give 1 mark for each correct location and identification for both the map questions.