Nsaa 2022

NATURAL SCIENCES D568/11
ADMISSIONS ASSESSMENT
2022 60 minutes
SECTION 1
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

Please read these instructions carefully, but do not open this question paper until you are
told that you may do so. This paper is Section 1 of 2.
A separate answer sheet is provided for this paper. Please check you have one. You also
require a soft pencil and an eraser.
Please complete the answer sheet with your candidate number, centre number, date of birth,
and name.
At the end of 60 minutes, your supervisor will collect this question paper and answer sheet
before giving out Section 2.
This paper contains four parts: A, B, C and D.
All candidates should complete Part A Mathematics.
All candidates should then complete one further part chosen from:
Part B Physics
Part C Chemistry
Part D Biology
Each part has 20 multiple-choice questions. There are no penalties for incorrect responses, only
marks for correct answers, so you should attempt all of the questions in your two parts. Each
question is worth one mark.
For each question, choose the one option you consider correct and record your choice on the
separate answer sheet. If you make a mistake, erase thoroughly and try again.
You must complete the answer sheet within the time limit.
You can use the question paper for rough working, but no extra paper is allowed. Only your
responses on the answer sheet will be marked.
Dictionaries and calculators are NOT permitted.
Please wait to be told you may begin before turning this page.
This question paper consists of 65 printed pages and 3 blank pages.
© Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2022 PV8

BLANK PAGE
2
Paper content
PART A Mathematics ............................................................................................................................. 5
PART B Physics ................................................................................................................................... 19
PART C Chemistry ............................................................................................................................... 35
PART D Biology ................................................................................................................................... 49
3
BLANK PAGE
4
PART A Mathematics
PART A Mathematics
5
PART A Mathematics
1 Which one of the following is a simplification of
2
§ 21 ·
¨ 3x z ¸
y¨ 3 ¸
¨ y ¸
© ¹
3 xz 2
A
y4
3 xz 2
B
y5
1
C 9 x 2 z2
y5
9 xz 2
D
y4
9 xz 2
E
y5
5
F 9 x 2 z2
y5
2 Triangle PQR has a right angle at Q.
1
The point T lies on QR such that QT = QR
4
PT = 6 cm
PR = 12 cm
What is the length of QT, in cm?
A 2
B 2 3
3
C 2
2
6
D 5
5
2
E 21
7
6
PART A Mathematics
3 Find the complete set of values of x that satisfy the inequality
3 1
(5 – x ) – (6 – x ) – x < 0
4 2
1
A x<
3
1
B x>
3
3
C x<
5
3
D x>
5
3
E x<
4
3
F x>
4
3
G x<
2
3
H x>
2
4 I have two fair dice, X and Y, each of which has six sides.
The faces on X are labelled 1, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
The faces on Y are labelled 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 6.
I roll the dice together and calculate my total score by adding the number rolled on X to the
number rolled on Y.
What is the probability that my total score is greater than 9?
1
A
4
1
B
6
1
C
9
5
D
12
5
E
36
7
PART A Mathematics
5 Rob keeps a record of what he earns each day.
On Monday, he earned 50% less than he earned on Sunday.

On Tuesday, he earned 20% more than he earned on Monday.
On Wednesday, he earned 30% less than he earned on Tuesday.
On Wednesday, he earned £84.
How much did Rob earn on Sunday?
A £15.12
B £35.28
C £117.60
D £200
E £210
F £300
G £1200
6 The n th term of a sequence T is ( n – 3)2, where n is a positive integer.
The n th term of another sequence V is 3 n + p, where p is a constant and n is a positive integer.
The 10th term in T is equal to twice the 5th term in V.
What is the 4th term in V?
A – 16
B 4
C 16.5
D 21.5
E 31
F 46
G 95
8
PART A Mathematics
7 Which one of the following is a simplification of
5 x 2 − 17x − 12 x 2 + x − 12
÷
25 x 2 − 9 x2 − x − 6
( x − 4)( x + 2)
A
( x − 3)( x + 4)
( x − 3)( x + 2)
B
(5 x − 3)( x + 3)
( x − 4)( x + 2)
C
(5 x − 3)( x + 4)
( x − 4)( x − 3)
D
(5 x − 3)( x − 6)
( x + 2)
E
(5 x + 3)
( x + 4)( x − 6)
F
(5 x + 3)( x + 2)
( x − 3)( x + 2)
G
(5 x + 3)( x + 3)
8 S is a list of six numbers:
1, 2, x, x + 1, x + 1, 15 where 2 x 14
The mean of S is one more than the median of S.
What is the value of x ?
A 22
3
B 32
3
C 42
3
D 52
3
E 62
3
9
PART A Mathematics
9 A rectangle PQRS has length (2 x – 1) cm and width ( x + 1) cm as shown on the diagram.
A larger rectangle is made by adding 3 cm to both the length and the width of PQRS, as shown.
The larger rectangle has an area of 360 cm2.
3 cm
Q R
( x + 1) cm
P S
(2 x – 1) cm 3 cm
[diagram not to scale]
What is the ratio of PQ to PS ?
A 1:2
B 4:7
C 5:8
D 7 : 11
E 10 : 17
F 17 : 31
10
PART A Mathematics
10 t is inversely proportional to the square of w.
t and w are positive numbers.
t = 36 when w = 2 × 10–2
What is the value of w when t = 100 ?
A 1.2 × 10– 4
B 1.2 × 10–2
C 1.44 × 10–6
D 1.44 × 10–3
10
E × 10– 4
3
10
F × 10–2
3
G 7.2 × 10–6
H 7.2 × 10–3
11
PART A Mathematics
11 PQRS is a trapezium as shown.
Q R
40 m
30°
P S
5
tan RSQ =
8
What is the length of PS, in metres?
A 45
B 65
C 80
D 120
40 3
E 25 +
3
64 3
F 40 +
3
G 25 + 40 3
H 64 + 40 3
12
PART A Mathematics
12 A cyclist rides along a track to the top of a hill then immediately turns around and descends
along the same track to her starting point.
She takes 40 minutes at an average speed of 12 km h–1 to reach the top.
Her average speed for the whole journey is 15 km h–1.
What is the average speed of her descent?
A 16 km h–1
B 18 km h–1
C 20 km h–1
D 24 km h–1
E 30 km h–1
13 A solid cylinder has radius r cm and height h cm.
A cube has side length 3 r cm.
The total surface area of the cylinder is equal to four times the total surface area of the cube.
Which of the following is an expression for h in terms of r ?
§ 18 ·
A ¨ − 2¸ r
© ʌ ¹
§ 18 ·
B ¨ − 1¸ r
© ʌ ¹
27 r
C
ʌ
§ 27 ·
D ¨ − 1¸ r
© ʌ ¹
§ 27 ·
E ¨ − 1¸ r
© 4ʌ ¹
108 r
F
ʌ
§ 108 ·
G ¨ − 1¸ r
© ʌ ¹
§ 108 1·
H ¨ − ¸r
© ʌ 2¹
13
PART A Mathematics
14 Consider the equation 2 x 2 + 4 x + c = 0, where c is a constant.
The positive difference between the roots of this equation is 10 .
What is the value of c ?
A –5
B – 4.5
C –3
D – 0.5
E 0.75
F 8
15 The variables x and y are related by the equation:
2 y3 + 1
x=5 −
1 − 2 y3
Which of the following is a rearrangement to make y the subject?
x−4
A y= 3
8 x − 48
x−6
B y= 3
8 x − 32
x−2
C y= 3
x−6
x−3
D y= 3
x−4
x−4
E y= 3
2 x − 12
x−6
F y= 3
2x − 8
14
PART A Mathematics
16 PQR is a triangle as shown.
S and T are points on the sides PQ and PR.
ST is parallel to QR.
PS = 3 cm
ST = x cm
QS = (x + 2) cm
QR = (2 x + 1) cm
3 cm
x cm
S T
(x + 2) cm
Q R
(2x + 1) cm
What is the length, in cm, of QR ?
A 2+ 5
B 2 + 13
C 5+2 7
D 5 + 2 11
E 7
F 9
15
PART A Mathematics
17 Three different numbers are chosen at random from 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
What is the probability that the three numbers form the three sides of a right-angled triangle?
1
A
15
1
B
10
3
C
10
1
D
3
2
E
5
2
F
3
4
G
5
18 P, Q and R are regular polygons.
Q has three times as many sides as P.
An interior angle of Q is 10° larger than an interior angle of P.
R has twice as many sides as Q.
How much larger is an interior angle of R than an interior angle of Q, in degrees?
A 21
2
B 5
C 62
3
D 71
2
E 10
F 15
G 16 2
3
16
PART A Mathematics
19 The point (– 1, 5) is translated to the point (3, 2) by two successive translations.

§ 3p ·
The first translation is by the vector ¨ ¸
©−4 p¹
§ q ·
The second translation is by the vector ¨ ¸
© −2q ¹
What is the value of p + q ?
A –14
B –7
C –5
D –1
E 1
F 5
G 7
H 14
20 Consider the graphs of the form
y = x2 + 2ax + a
What is the complete range of values of a for which the minimum point of the graph lies above
the x-axis?
A There are no values of a
B a<0
C 0<a<1
D –1 < a < 1
E a < –1 or a > 1
F a < 0 or a > 1
G a can take any value
17
BLANK PAGE
18
PART B Physics
PART B Physics
19
PART B Physics
21 There is a constant current in a conducting wire. A charge of 20 C passes through the wire in
1.5 minutes.
An 18 cm straight section of this wire lies in a uniform magnetic field. This section of wire is
perpendicular to the direction of the field. The magnetic field strength is 0.15 T.
What is the magnitude of the magnetic force on this section of wire?
A 0.0060 N
B 0.36 N
C 0.60 N
D 0.81 N
E 36 N
F 49 N
G 81 N
H 4900 N
22 A rider on a rollercoaster moves very quickly towards a solid wall. While moving, the rider
shouts, and hears an echo of the shout from the wall. The echo is quieter than the original
shout.
How do the amplitude and frequency of the echo heard by the rider compare to the amplitude
and frequency of the original shout?
amplitude frequency
A lower lower
B lower unchanged
C lower higher
D unchanged lower
E unchanged higher
F higher lower
G higher unchanged
H higher higher
20
PART B Physics
23 The diagram shows a system consisting of two large copper tanks of water connected to each
other by a solid cylindrical copper bar.
tank 1 tank 2
copper bar
water water
temperature T1 temperature T2
The temperature of the water in tank 1 is T1. The water in tank 2 is at a higher temperature T2.
The following four statements list changes that can be made, independently, to the system.
At all times T1 < T2.
1 increase temperature T1
2 increase temperature T2
3 increase the length of the copper bar
4 increase the diameter of the copper bar
Which two changes each independently result in an increase in the rate of conduction of
thermal energy along the copper bar?
A 1 and 2
B 1 and 3
C 1 and 4
D 2 and 3
E 2 and 4
F 3 and 4
21
PART B Physics
24 Two identical resistors are connected in parallel to a 6.0 V battery. The two resistors dissipate a
total power of 0.15 W.
One of these resistors is removed from the circuit and connected to a 12 V battery.
How much charge passes through this resistor in 6.0 minutes?
A 0.025 C
B 0.050 C
C 0.15 C
D 0.30 C
E 0.75 C
F 1.5 C
G 9.0 C
H 18 C
25 A small piece of space debris of mass 0.10 g strikes the International Space Station at a
relative speed of 15 000 m s–1.
The piece of debris comes to rest relative to the space station in a time of 0.010 s.
What is the average force exerted on the space station by the piece of debris during this time?
A 0.0010 N
B 1.0 N
C 1.5 N
D 100 N
E 150 N
F 1500 N
22
PART B Physics
26 A block of mass 6.0 kg is pushed along a rough horizontal surface by a constant force of
8.0 N. The block accelerates uniformly from rest. After 4.0 s its velocity is 2.0 m s–1.
How much work is done against resistive forces during this 4.0 s?
A 12 J
B 20 J
C 24 J
D 32 J
E 40 J
F 64 J
23
PART B Physics
27 Ultrasound is used to find a crack inside a cuboid block of metal. An ultrasound probe is held in
contact with the top surface of the metal block and perpendicular to the surface. A short pulse
of ultrasound is sent into the metal block at time t = 0 ms and reflects from both the crack and
the bottom surface of the metal block.
ultrasound probe
metal block
crack
The times between the emission of the ultrasound pulse and the return of the reflections to the
probe, and the strengths of the reflected pulses, are measured. The results are shown on the
graph.
strength of
reflected pulse
0
0 0.1 0.2 0.3
time / ms
The speed of ultrasound in the metal is 5000 m s–1.
What is the distance between the bottom surface of the metal block and the crack?
A 0.2 m
B 0.3 m
C 0.4 m
D 0.5 m
E 0.6 m
F 1.0 m
24
PART B Physics
28 Power is supplied to an electric motor at 0.800 kW.
The motor has an efficiency of 60% and is switched on for half an hour.
How much energy is wasted during this time?
A 0.160 J
B 0.240 J
C 160 J
D 240 J
E 576 J
F 864 J
G 576 000 J
H 864 000 J
29 The diagram shows a circuit that includes two ammeters and a resistor R.
The readings on the ammeters are shown.
3.0 Ω
A A 1.8 A
3.3 A
R
What is the resistance of resistor R?
A 0.40 ȍ
B 2.5 ȍ
C 3.0 ȍ
D 3.6 ȍ
E 5.5 ȍ
F 8.5 ȍ
25
PART B Physics
30 The graph shows potential difference plotted against current for a filament lamp and a resistor.
potential difference / V
10
0
0 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4
current / A
The lamp and the resistor are connected in parallel with each other to a 6.0 V power supply and
the current in the lamp, I, is recorded.
In a second circuit, the lamp and the resistor are now connected in series with each other to the
same power supply, and the current in the resistor is 0.18 A. The potential difference across the
lamp, V, is recorded.
What are the values of I in the first circuit and V in the second circuit?
I /A V /V
A 0.25 1.6
B 0.25 3.0
C 0.25 4.4
D 0.35 1.6
E 0.35 3.0
F 0.35 4.4
26
PART B Physics
31 A child is bouncing a ball of mass 0.16 kg vertically up and down on a bat. Each time the ball
hits the bat the duration of the contact is 0.20 s. The speed of the ball immediately before hitting
the bat and immediately after it loses contact with the bat is 4.0 m s–1.
What is the average contact force between the bat and the ball during each collision?
(gravitational field strength = 10 N kg–1)
A 1.6 N
B 3.2 N
C 4.8 N
D 6.4 N
E 8.0 N
32 A transverse wave on a string has a speed of 500 m s–1.
The horizontal distance between two points P and Q on the wave is 4.0 m, as shown in the
diagram.
6.0 mm
Q
P
4.0 m
At time t = 0 ms, point X on the string is at its maximum displacement of 6.0 mm above
equilibrium.
What is the displacement of point X at time t = 7.0 ms?
A 6.0 mm above equilibrium
B between 0 mm and 6.0 mm above equilibrium
C 0 mm
D between 0 mm and 6.0 mm below equilibrium
E 6.0 mm below equilibrium
27
PART B Physics
33 A neutral atom Q of a particular element contains a total of 20 particles (protons, neutrons and
electrons).
The table shows information about the number of particles and relative charges of four atoms
or ions W, X, Y and Z.
atom or ion number of particles relative charge of atom or ion

W 21 0
X 21 –1
Y 20 +1
Z 22 0
Which of these atoms or ions could be of a different isotope to Q but of the same element as
Q?
A W only
B X only
C Z only
D X and Z only
E W and Y only
F W, X and Y only
G W, Y and Z only
H X, Y and Z only
28
PART B Physics
34 Radioactive isotope X undergoes a single beta (ȕ–) decay to form the stable isotope Y.
A sample consists only of X and Y. The graph shows how the mass of Y present in the sample
varies with time. After a long time, the mass of Y in the sample becomes a constant 50 g.
60
mass of Y / g
50
40
30
20
10
0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
time / min
What is the half-life of X?
A 0.6 minutes
B 1.2 minutes
C 2.0 minutes
D 3.2 minutes
E 4.0 minutes
F 5.2 minutes
29
PART B Physics
35 A piece of metal of mass 50 g is at thermal equilibrium in a hot liquid at temperature T.
The metal is removed from the liquid and immediately placed in 100 g of water that is at 20 °C.
The water is stirred and reaches a final temperature of 26 °C.
material specific heat capacity / J kg–1 °C–1
hot liquid 2000
metal 350
water 4200
What is the temperature T of the hot liquid?
(Assume that heat transfers to or from the surroundings are negligible.)
A 38 °C
B 51 °C
C 150 °C
D 170 °C
E 480 °C
30
PART B Physics
36 A bar magnet is placed at position X close to one end of a coil and on the axis of the coil as
shown.
The graph shows how the velocity of the magnet varies as it is then moved rapidly to position Y
and back to position X.
velocity away
position X position Y
from coil
0
time
The magnetic field of the bar magnet still affects the coil when the magnet is at position Y.
Which graph represents how the induced voltage in the coil changes as the magnet moves?
A induced B induced
voltage voltage
0 time 0 time
C induced D induced
voltage voltage
0 0
time time
E induced F induced
voltage voltage
0 time 0 time
31
PART B Physics
37 A small slider of mass 30 g is at rest near the bottom of a frictionless slope and in contact with a
light uncompressed spring as shown.
spring slider
height
The spring is compressed by 5.0 cm and the slider remains in contact with it.
The spring is released and causes the slider to rise up the slope to a maximum vertical height
of 20 cm.
The slider is replaced with one of mass 20 g.
The spring is now compressed by 15 cm, and the new slider remains in contact with it.
To what maximum vertical height does this new slider rise after it is released?
(the spring obeys Hooke’s law; assume that air resistance is negligible)
A 40 cm
B 60 cm
C 90 cm
D 120 cm
E 180 cm
F 270 cm
32
PART B Physics
38 A tall, smooth cylinder contains air at atmospheric pressure of 1.00 × 105 Pa. The density of the
air in the cylinder is 1.20 kg m–3.
A heavy piston is now placed in the top of the cylinder and allowed to fall slowly downwards,
compressing the air until the piston rests in equilibrium.
The mass of the piston is 50.0 kg and its cross-sectional area is 0.0200 m2.
What is the density of the air in the cylinder when the piston rests in equilibrium?
(gravitational field strength = 10 N kg–1; assume that the air behaves as an ideal gas and that
the temperature remains constant)
A 0.960 kg m–3
B 1.20 kg m–3
C 1.25 kg m–3
D 1.28 kg m–3
E 1.50 kg m–3
F 4.80 kg m–3
39 There are two types of earthquake waves, called P-waves and S-waves.
When an earthquake occurs, both types of wave are produced at the same time and follow the
same path.
The P-waves travel outwards from the source at 5.0 km s–1 and the S-waves travel out at
3.0 km s–1.
A seismic monitoring station detects the P-waves 30 s before the S-waves.
How far have the waves travelled from the source of the earthquake to reach the seismic
monitoring station?
A 60 km
B 90 km
C 135 km
D 150 km
E 225 km
33
PART B Physics
40 A solid cuboid has a mass of 32 kg and a density of 4.0 g cm–3.
Faces 1, 2 and 3 of the cuboid have different areas.
When the cuboid rests on one of these faces on a flat horizontal surface, the pressure on the
surface due to the cuboid is 1.6 N cm–2.
When it rests on another of these faces, the pressure on the surface due to the cuboid is
0.80 N cm–2.
What is the pressure on the surface due to the cuboid when it rests on the third of these faces?
A 0.40 N cm–2
B 1.2 N cm–2
C 3.2 N cm–2
D 6.4 N cm–2
E 8.0 N cm–2
34
PART C Chemistry
PART C Chemistry
35
PART C Chemistry
41 The following pairs of 0.1 mol dm–3 solutions are mixed separately in test tubes.
1 AgNO3(aq) with NaI(aq)
2 Cl 2(aq) with NaI(aq)
3 HCl (aq) with NaOH(aq)
4 MgCl 2(aq) with NaBr(aq)
Which pair(s) of solutions, when mixed, would produce a visible chemical change?
A 1 only
B 2 only
C 3 only
D 4 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 4 only
H 3 and 4 only
36
PART C Chemistry
42 Some reactions of metal M and its compounds are shown in the following diagram.
metal oxide
heated with
MO sulfuric acid
metal sulfate solution

heated in
oxygen MSO4(aq)
metal electrolysed with

graphite electrodes
M
Which one of the following could be the identity of metal M?
A aluminium
B copper
C magnesium
D potassium
E silver
43 Consider the following properties of compound X:
melting point –114 °C

boiling point – 85 °C
conductivity as a solid poor
conductivity as a liquid poor
conductivity in aqueous solution good
Which one of the following could be the identity of compound X?
A ammonium chloride, NH4Cl
B barium chloride, BaCl 2
C hydrogen chloride, HCl
D potassium chloride, KCl
E tetrachloromethane, CCl 4
37
PART C Chemistry
44 Which of the following statements about losing electrons is/are correct?
1 During the electrolysis of a molten binary compound the ions attracted to the cathode
(negative electrode) lose electrons at that electrode.
2 Descending Group 1 of the Periodic Table from lithium to caesium, the atoms of the
elements lose electrons more easily.
3 When a substance is acting as a reducing agent it loses electrons.
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3
45 Which of the following chemical reactions is/are redox reactions?
1 Ba2+(aq) + SO42–(aq) ĺ BaSO4(s)
2 PCl 5(s) + H2O(l) ĺ POCl 3(l) + 2HCl (aq)
3 KrF2(s) ĺ Kr(g) + F2(g)
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3
38
PART C Chemistry
46 Three samples of calcium of different masses were added separately to excess dilute
hydrochloric acid and the volume of gas released, measured at room temperature and
pressure, was monitored.
One sample was powdered calcium, one was granules of calcium, and one was a solid piece of
calcium.
The results are shown on the graph.
volume of
hydrogen 360 cm3
/ cm3
240 cm3
120 cm3
0
0 time / s
What is the mass of powdered calcium used in this experiment?
(Ar value: Ca = 40. Assume that one mole of gas occupies a volume of 24 dm3 at room
temperature and pressure.)
A 0.200 g
B 0.400 g
C 0.600 g
D 1.20 g
E 8.00 g
F 16.0 g
G 24.0 g
39
PART C Chemistry
47 Concentrated aqueous solutions of three compounds are electrolysed with inert electrodes.
The constituent elements of which of the following compounds may be collected using this
process?
1 copper(II) bromide
2 hydrogen chloride
3 potassium chloride
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3
48 50 cm3 of 0.100 mol dm–3 hydrochloric acid has a pH of 1.0.
What is the pH of the mixture formed when 450 cm3 of 0.010 mol dm–3 calcium hydroxide
solution is added?
A pH = 1.0
B 1.0 < pH < 2.0
C pH = 2.0
D 2.0 < pH < 7.0
E pH = 7.0
F pH > 7.0
40
PART C Chemistry
49 Carboxylic acid X reacts with propanol in the presence of an acid catalyst to form compound Y.
Compound Y has a relative molar mass of 116.
What is the relative molar mass (Mr) of X?
(Ar values: C = 12; H = 1; O = 16)
A 45
B 46
C 55
D 56
E 59
F 60
G 73
H 74
50 Element Z is in Group 1 of the Periodic Table.
A pure sample of element Z consists of two isotopes with mass numbers 85 and 87, and has a
relative atomic mass of 85.5.
Which of the following statements is/are correct about element Z in this sample?
1 Element Z reacts with bromine to form an ionic compound with formula ZBr2.
2 Element Z forms a basic oxide.
3 More than 70% of the atoms of element Z have mass number 85.
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3
41
PART C Chemistry
51 Three mixtures (P, Q and R) of amino acids were separated using paper chromatography.
The test was repeated with the same mixtures, paper and solvent but this time the distance
travelled by the common component of the mixtures was 7.5 cm.
How far did the most mobile component of mixture Q travel in the second test?
A 6.0 cm
B 8.5 cm
C 9.0 cm
D 9.6 cm
E 10.5 cm
F 12.0 cm
42
PART C Chemistry
52 A typical sample of dry air is at room temperature and pressure. There is a total of 25.0 mol of
gas in this sample.
One of the gases in the sample, X, contributes 1.50 × 1023 separate particles to the mixture.
A second gas in the sample, Y, would, if alone, occupy a volume of 468 dm3 at room
temperature and pressure.
What are the identities of gases X and Y, and what would be the total amount of all of the
remaining gases in the sample?
(Take Avogadro’s number as 6.00 × 1023. Assume that one mole of any gas occupies a volume
of 24.0 dm3 at room temperature and pressure.)
total amount of all of the

identity of gas X identity of gas Y remaining gases in the
sample in moles
A Ar N2 5.250 mol
B O2 N2 5.250 mol
C O2 Ar 5.250 mol
D Ar O2 5.375 mol
E Ar N2 5.375 mol
F O2 N2 5.375 mol
43
PART C Chemistry
53 The atomic number of fluorine is 9.
An element X forms a fluoride with the formula XF3. Each molecule of XF3 has 32 electrons in
total.
Element X has two isotopes. One isotope has the same number of neutrons as protons and the
other isotope has a number of neutrons one greater than the number of protons.
The relative abundance of the heavier isotope is 0.80 (80%).
What is the relative atomic mass of element X?
A 5.2
B 5.8
C 10.2
D 10.8
E 14.2
F 14.8
G 16.2
H 16.8
44
PART C Chemistry
54 1 mol of compound X undergoes complete combustion to produce 144 dm3 of carbon dioxide
(measured at room temperature and pressure).
1 mol of X can also undergo an addition reaction with 1 mol of hydrogen to form a saturated
compound that has one branch.
X undergoes addition polymerisation. A section of the addition polymer containing three

repeating units has an Mr value greater than 200 but less than 300.
Which one of the following structural formulae could be that of compound X?
(Ar values: C = 12; H = 1; F = 19. Assume that one mole of any gas occupies a volume of
24 dm3 at room temperature and pressure.)
A B
C D
55 The equation shows the complete combustion of an alkane.
alkane + aO2 ĺ bCO2 + cH2O
100 cm3 of a gaseous alkane requires 650 cm3 of oxygen for complete combustion. The
volumes of both gases were measured at the same temperature and pressure.
What is the value of a + b + c ?
A 10.5
B 12
C 14
D 15.5
E 17.5
F 19
45
PART C Chemistry
56 A sample of magnesium carbonate, MgCO3, was reacted completely with 50 cm3 of

0.10 mol dm–3 hydrochloric acid, which is an excess.
The remaining hydrochloric acid was titrated with 0.20 mol dm–3 sodium hydroxide solution.
5.0 cm3 of sodium hydroxide was required for complete neutralisation.
What was the original mass of magnesium carbonate used, in mg?
(Mr value: MgCO3 = 84)
A 42 mg
B 84 mg
C 168 mg
D 210 mg
E 336 mg
F 420 mg
57 A student mixed together 30.0 cm3 of 3.0 mol dm–3 hydrochloric acid and 20.0 cm3 of
4.0 mol dm–3 aqueous ammonia in an insulated container.
The initial temperatures of both solutions were 20.0 °C.
The maximum temperature observed was 40.0 °C.
Assume that the specific heat capacity of any aqueous solution is 4.0 J g–1 °C–1 and that the
density of the reaction mixture is 1.0 g cm–3.
Using this information, what is the molar enthalpy change, in kJ mol–1, for the reaction of
hydrochloric acid and aqueous ammonia?
A – 4 kJ mol–1
B – 20 kJ mol–1
C – 25 kJ mol–1
D – 30 kJ mol–1
E – 44 kJ mol–1
F – 50 kJ mol–1
G – 75 kJ mol–1
H – 100 kJ mol–1
46
PART C Chemistry
58 An oxide of nitrogen can be prepared by the reaction of copper with hot nitric acid.
The other products of the reaction are copper(II) nitrate and water.
0.060 mol of copper reacted exactly with 40.0 cm3 of 4.00 mol dm–3 nitric acid.
What is the empirical formula of the oxide of nitrogen produced in the reaction?
A NO
B NO2
C NO3
D N2O
E N2O3
F N2O5
59 One mole of an unsaturated hydrocarbon reacts with exactly one mole of bromine to form a
6 1 8
compound that contains carbon, hydrogen and bromine by mass.
15 15 15
What is the relative molar mass (Mr) of this product?
(Ar values: C = 12; H = 1; Br = 80)
A 150
B 210
C 220
D 290
E 300
F 420
G 440
H 713
47
PART C Chemistry
60 Airbags in cars contain sodium azide (NaN3) as a primary reagent, and potassium nitrate
(KNO3) as a secondary reagent.
The sodium azide decomposes according to the following equation to form nitrogen gas, which
rapidly fills the airbag:
2NaN3 ĺ 2Na + 3N2
The sodium by-product of this first reaction then reacts with excess potassium nitrate according
to this second equation:
10Na + 2KNO3 ĺ K2O + 5Na2O + N2
Assume that both reactions go to completion.
An airbag contains 130 g of sodium azide.
What is the total volume of nitrogen gas formed in this airbag, measured at room temperature
and pressure?
(Ar values: N = 14.0; Na = 23.0. Assume that one mole of gas occupies 24.0 dm3 at room
temperature and pressure.)
A 72.0 dm3
B 76.8 dm3
C 84.0 dm3
D 89.6 dm3
E 96.0 dm3
F 112 dm3
G 120 dm3
H 140 dm3
48
PART D Biology
PART D Biology
49
PART D Biology
61 Which of the following is/are correct when a healthy human breathes in?
1 The ribcage moves up and out because air enters the lungs.
2 The volume of the thorax decreases and the thoracic pressure increases.
3 Energy is required to contract the intercostal muscles but not the diaphragm.
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3
62 Which of the following statements about the cardiovascular system in a healthy individual is/are
correct?
1 When blood flow in the capillaries is restricted, the rate of oxygen exchanged with
the tissues is reduced.
2 Oxygen exchange from the blood in the arteries into the tissues is fast due to the
high pressure of blood.
3 Capillary walls contain a small amount of smooth muscle to constrict the vessels.
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3
50
PART D Biology
63 The arrow in the diagram shows the net movement of molecule X out of a healthy mammalian
cell.
0.10 mol dm–3 0.05 mol dm–3

molecule X molecule X
cell
The maximum cell width is 10 μm. The cell membrane accounts for 0.2% of this width.
What is the width of a single cell membrane, in nm, and which process is represented by the
arrow in the diagram?
width of a single cell process represented by the

membrane / nm arrow in the diagram
A 0.01 diffusion
B 0.01 active transport
C 0.02 diffusion
D 0.02 active transport
E 10 diffusion
F 10 active transport
G 20 diffusion
H 20 active transport
64 Which one of the following comparisons is correct?
comparison
both are tissues that are
A alveoli bronchi
specialised for gas exchange
both are organs that function as
B pancreas ovary
endocrine glands
both are organs that transport liquids
C phloem xylem
from leaves to roots in plants
both are tissues that are stimulated
D sensory neurone motor neurone
by a relay neurone
both are organs that have tissues
E small intestine trachea
with cilia
51
PART D Biology
65 The graph shows the cumulative frequency for the heights of a group of 15-year-old students.
cumulative 25
frequency Key
females
20 males
15
10
0
150 160 170 180 190
height / cm
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1 The difference between the mean heights of male and female students can be found
by reading the difference in heights at a cumulative frequency of 12.5.
2 The difference in height between different males is explained by environmental
factors alone.
3 The difference in the cumulative frequency graphs for males and females could be
explained by a gene on the Y chromosome.
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3
52
PART D Biology
66 When a person touches a hot object, they rapidly pull their hand away as a result of a reflex
arc.
The diagram shows a student’s drawing of part of this reflex arc.
Which label (A-E) is correct?
electrical impulse jumps

across the gap between
the two neurones
B
sensory neurone
C
motor neurone
A
STIMULUS MUSCLE
D
hormone
E
chemical receptors
present on the membrane
53
PART D Biology
67 A cell from a healthy animal was removed. This cell contained four times the mass of DNA
when compared to a single gamete from the same animal.
Which of the following statements could be correct?
1 The cell was just about to start meiosis.
2 The cell was just about to start mitosis.
3 The cell had just started meiosis.
4 The cell had just started mitosis.
A 1 only
B 2 only
C 1 and 2 only
D 1 and 3 only
E 2 and 3 only
F 2 and 4 only
G 1, 2, 3 and 4
54
PART D Biology
68 Many different species of cichlid fish have evolved from a common ancestor. The drawing
shows some of the species that have evolved in Lake Victoria in Africa.
Haplochromis chilotes Haplochromis macrognathus

(feeds on insects) (feeds on other fish)
Astatotilapia elegans Macropleurodus bicolor

(generalised bottom feeder) (feeds on snails and other molluscs)
Which of the following statements about evolution of the cichlid fish is/are correct?
1 Different food types being available caused mutations in the DNA of the ancestral
population of fish.
2 Natural selection was possible because there were multiple alleles of the genes
affecting the traits shown in the diagram.
3 Natural selection of individuals with phenotypes best suited to different parts of the
environment took place.
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3
55
PART D Biology
69 The graph shows the number of live bacteria growing in a nutrient broth at 30 °C over 60 hours.
thousands 6.0
of live bacteria
per mm3 5.0
4.0
3.0
2.0
1.0
0.0
0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45 50 55 60
time / hours
Which statement is correct?
A If there were no limiting factors, the number of live bacteria in the population would be
directly proportional to time.
B At 40 hours, there are on average 4.6 live bacteria per mm3.
C At 60 hours, the number of bacteria dying is greater than the number being produced.
D Some of the live bacteria in the population at 60 hours could be genetically different to the
bacteria in the population at 5 hours.
E There is no limiting factor affecting the population of live bacteria over the 60 hour period.
56
PART D Biology
70 Some students collected data using a belt transect on a beach and recorded the results in a
kite diagram.
The shading represents the number of individuals present at each point along the belt transect.
The wider the shading in the vertical direction, the larger the number of individuals present. The
vertical scale is the same for all species. The six species shown were the only ones present.
Data was recorded every 5 m along the belt transect.
species W
species V
species T
species S
species R
species Q
0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45 50
distance / m
1 The sampling site with the highest number of different species is at 35 m.
2 The abundance of species T, V and W is the same.
3 At a distance of 5 m, species Q is the only species present.
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3
57
PART D Biology
71 The effect of pH on the breakdown of starch by pancreatic amylase was investigated.

Starch and pancreatic amylase solution were mixed in test tubes, each at a different pH. The
percentage of starch remaining after 5 minutes was recorded on the graph.
All other variables were kept constant.
percentage of 100
starch remaining
after 5 minutes
80
60
40
20
0
4 5 6 7 8
pH
Using these results, which of the following conclusions could be correct?
1 During the 5 minutes, there are more enzyme–product complexes formed at pH 4.5
than at pH 6.
2 The shape of the enzyme is different at pH 5 compared to the shape at pH 7.
3 The optimum pH for this enzyme is approximately pH 7 under the conditions of this
experiment.
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3
58
PART D Biology
72 The diagram summarises the homeostatic control of blood glucose concentration.
normal blood glucose concentration
fall in rise in
blood glucose blood glucose
concentration concentration
endocrine gland V
hormone W produced hormone X produced
Y target organ: liver target organ: liver Z
release of glucose uptake of glucose
normal blood glucose concentration
Which row is correct?
gland V hormone W hormone X process Y process Z

A pancreas adrenaline insulin nervous response nervous response
B pancreas glucagon insulin negative feedback negative feedback
C pancreas insulin glucagon negative feedback negative feedback
D pancreas insulin glucagon nervous response negative feedback
E pituitary adrenaline ADH negative feedback nervous response
F pituitary ADH glucagon nervous response negative feedback
G pituitary ADH insulin nervous response nervous response
H pituitary glucagon insulin negative feedback nervous response
59
PART D Biology
73 The graph shows the rate of transpiration at different temperatures for a plant in its natural
environment.
rate of transpiration 0.12

/ g m–2 s–1
0.10
0.08
0.06
0.04
0.02
0
20 22 24 26 28 30
temperature / °C
1 Stomata open when the guard cells lose water and become flaccid.
2 Between 20 °C and 27 °C, the humidity around the leaves must have decreased.
3 The air speed around the leaves could be higher at 23 °C than at 30 °C.
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3
60
PART D Biology
74 An investigation was carried out to study the effect of protease concentration on the rate of
breakdown of a protein into amino acids.
A protease solution of known concentration was diluted and used in each experiment, and all
other variables were kept constant. The table shows the results.
percentage concentration
10 20 30 40 50 60 70
of protease
rate of reaction
1.8 3.5 5.3 6.0 6.3 6.3 6.3
/ arbitrary units
Which of the following statements is/are correct about this investigation?
1 Between concentrations of 10% and 40%, the rate of reaction has increased as more
active sites are available.
2 Between concentrations of 50% and 70%, the enzyme concentration is the limiting
factor.
3 At a protease concentration of 60%, the rate of reaction will be faster if substrate
concentration is increased.
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3
61
PART D Biology
75 Different samples of the same pond plant were kept underwater and exposed to five different
colours of light at the same light intensity.
All other variables were kept constant.
The time taken for the plant to release 20 bubbles was recorded. The results are shown in the
chart.
180
time taken in seconds
for the release of 160
20 bubbles
140
120
100
80
60
40
20
0
violet blue green yellow red
colour of light
Which of the following conclusions is/are correct?
1 This pond plant photosynthesises fastest when exposed to green light.
2 When exposed to any of these colours of light, this pond plant would release only
oxygen.
3 When exposed to blue light, this pond plant produces 30 bubbles per minute.
A 1 only
B 2 only
C 3 only
D 1 and 2 only
E 1 and 3 only
F 2 and 3 only
G 1, 2 and 3
62
PART D Biology
76 The diagram shows two sets of apparatus, P and Q, at the beginning of an investigation.
P Q
meniscus
distilled glass tube

water and distilled water,
starch starch and
partially amylase
permeable
membrane
distilled water
The only difference between P and Q was the contents of the partially permeable membrane.
The membrane is not permeable to starch or amylase but is permeable to smaller molecules.
After 10 minutes:
• the position of the meniscus in P had moved up the tube,

• the position of the meniscus in Q had moved down the tube.
Which of the following statements correctly explain(s) these observations?
1 Water moved by osmosis in P and Q.
2 Amylase was a substrate for starch.
3 Maltose was diffusing across the partially permeable membrane in Q, but not in P.
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3
63
PART D Biology
77 Two flies, which were both heterozygous for a trait, mated and all their eggs were collected.
The resulting offspring grew into young adult flies.
The trait is controlled by a single gene with one dominant allele and one recessive allele.
Which of the following statements, taken independently, could be correct for the young adult fly
population?
1 If the presence of two dominant alleles for this trait stops eggs with this genotype
from hatching, the genotypic ratio within the young adult fly population would be 1 : 1.
2 If the presence of two recessive alleles for this trait produces sterile individuals, all of
the young adult fly population will have the same phenotype.
3 If the population of young adult flies is small, the phenotypic ratio would be 1 : 2 : 1.
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3
64
PART D Biology
78 The diagram shows part of the process of sperm production in a healthy human male. Only one
pair of the 23 pairs of homologous chromosomes is shown.
Key cell type
chromosome
spermatogonium
homologous pair (stem cell)
of chromosomes
primary spermatocyte
spermatids
cells mature
sperm cells
1 Gametes are produced from haploid stem cells.
2 Upon fertilisation, it is the male gamete that would determine the sex of the offspring.
3 DNA in the primary spermatocyte is copied before the spermatids are made.
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3
65
PART D Biology
79 The graph shows the effect of increasing light intensity on the net rate at which a plant releases
oxygen into the atmosphere.
net rate 3
of oxygen release
into the atmosphere
/ arbitrary units
2
0
light intensity / arbitrary units
–1
X
–2
Which of the following could explain why the net rate of oxygen release at point X is zero?
1 The light intensity is too low to produce oxygen through photosynthesis.
2 All of the stomata will be closed at this light intensity, preventing the release of
oxygen.
3 The rate of oxygen release from photosynthesis is equal to the rate of oxygen use in
respiration.
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3
66
PART D Biology
80 Two parents are heterozygous for a recessive condition that is controlled by a single autosomal
gene with one dominant and one recessive allele. They have a daughter who does not display
the condition.
This daughter has a child with a heterozygous man.
What is the probability that this child displays the condition?
(Assume no mutations.)
1
A
12
1
B
8
1
C
6
3
D
4
11
E
12
67
68
Natural Sciences Admissions Assessment – Section 1 2022 D568/11
Candidate number Centre number
Fill in the appropriate
N circle for your chosen
answer e.g.
Date of birth (DD MM YYYY)
ABCDE
First Name(s)
Use a soft pencil. If

you make a mistake,

erase thoroughly and
Surname / Family name try again.
ALL candidates must complete Part A and attempt ONE of parts B, C, and D.
Part A: Mathematics
A B CDE F A B CDE F GH
1 11
A B CDE A B CDE
2 12
A B CDE F GH A B CDE F GH
3 13
A B CDE A B CDE F
4 14
A B CDE F G A B CDE F
5 15
A B CDE F G A B CDE F
6 16
A B CDE F G A B CDE F G
7 17
A B CDE A B CDE F G
8 18
A B CDE F A B CDE F GH
9 19
A B CDE F GH A B CDE F G
10 20
21772
© Cambridge University Press & Assessment

Candidate number
N
Part B: Physics
Attempt any ONE of parts B, C, and D. N
A B CDE F GH A B CDE F A B CDE A B CDE F
21 26 31 36
A B CDE F GH A B CDE F A B CDE A B CDE F

22 27 32 37
A B CDE F A B CDE F GH A B CDE F GH A B CDE F

23 28 33 38
A B CDE F GH A B CDE F A B CDE F A B CDE

24 29 34 39
A B CDE F A B CDE F A B CDE A B CDE

25 30 35 40
Part C: Chemistry
A B CDE F GH A B CDE F G A B CDE F A B CDE F
41 46 51 56
A B CDE A B CDE F GH A B CDE F A B CDE F GH

42 47 52 57
A B CDE A B CDE F A B CDE F GH A B CDE F

43 48 53 58
A B CDE F GH A B CDE F GH A B CDE A B CDE F GH

44 49 54 59
A B CDE F GH A B CDE F GH A B CDE F A B CDE F GH

45 50 55 60
Part D: Biology
A B CDE F GH A B CDE A B CDE F GH A B CDE F GH
61 66 71 76
A B CDE F GH A B CDE F G A B CDE F GH A B CDE F GH

62 67 72 77
A B CDE F GH A B CDE F GH A B CDE F GH A B CDE F GH

63 68 73 78
A B CDE A B CDE A B CDE F GH A B CDE F GH

64 69 74 79
A B CDE F GH A B CDE F GH A B CDE F G A B CDE

65 70 75 80
21772

NATURAL SCIENCES D568/12
ADMISSIONS ASSESSMENT
2022 60 minutes
SECTION 2

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Please read these instructions carefully, but do not open this question paper until you are
told that you may do so. This paper is Section 2 of 2.
A separate answer sheet is provided for this paper. Please check you have one. You also
require a soft pencil and an eraser.
Please complete the answer sheet with your candidate number, centre number, date of birth,
and name.
This paper contains three parts: X, Y and Z.
All candidates should complete only one part chosen from:
Part X Physics
Part Y Chemistry
Part Z Biology
Each part has 20 multiple-choice questions. There are no penalties for incorrect responses, only
marks for correct answers, so you should attempt all 20 questions in your chosen part. Each
question is worth one mark.
For each question, choose the one option you consider correct and record your choice on the
separate answer sheet. If you make a mistake, erase thoroughly and try again.
You must complete the answer sheet within the time limit.
You can use the question paper for rough working, but no extra paper is allowed. Only your
responses on the answer sheet will be marked.
A Periodic Table is included.
Dictionaries and calculators are NOT permitted.
Please wait to be told you may begin before turning this page.
This question paper consists of 69 printed pages and 7 blank pages.
© Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2022 PV2

BLANK PAGE
2
Paper content
PART X Physics ..................................................................................................................................... 7
PART Y Chemistry ............................................................................................................................... 29
PART Z Biology .................................................................................................................................... 51
3
BLANK PAGE
4
1 18
H He
1 2 13 14 15 16 17 2
Li Be symbol B C N O F Ne
3 4 atomic number 5 6 7 8 9 10
Na Mg Al Si P S Cl Ar
11 12 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18
K Ca Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni Cu Zn Ga Ge As Se Br Kr
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36
Rb Sr Y Zr Nb Mo Tc Ru Rh Pd Ag Cd In Sn Sb Te I Xe
5
37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54
Cs Ba Lanthanoids Hf Ta W Re Os Ir Pt Au Hg Tl Pb Bi Po At Rn
55 56 57-71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86
Fr Ra Actinoids Rf Db Sg Bh Hs Mt Ds Rg Cn Nh Fl Mc Lv Ts Og
87 88 89-103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118
La Ce Pr Nd Pm Sm Eu Gd Tb Dy Ho Er Tm Yb Lu
Lanthanoids
57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71
Ac Th Pa U Np Pu Am Cm Bk Cf Es Fm Md No Lr
Actinoids
89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103
BLANK PAGE
6
PART X PHYSICS
PART X Physics
7
PART X PHYSICS
1 The diagram shows an object of mass 2.4 kg on a smooth horizontal surface.
36 N θ
4
A force F acts on the object at an acute angle θ to the horizontal, where tan θ = .
3
A force of 36 N acts on the object towards the right.
The object is in equilibrium.
What is the magnitude of the normal contact force exerted on the object by the surface?
A 24 N
B 27 N
C 48 N
D 51 N
E 72 N
F 75 N
8
PART X PHYSICS
2 The length of a spring when no force acts on it is L. The spring constant of the spring is
3.0 × 103 N m–1.
The spring is on the floor of an accelerating lift (elevator), and the spring supports a 30 kg
mass.
30 kg
floor of lift
The lift is accelerating downwards at 2.0 m s–2.
What is the difference between L and the length of the spring when the lift is accelerating
downwards?
(gravitational field strength = 10 N kg–1; the spring obeys Hooke’s law)
A 0 cm
B 2.0 cm
C 8.0 cm
D 10 cm
E 12 cm
9
PART X PHYSICS
3 Electrical energy is transmitted at high voltage to a remote farm using an overhead power
cable. Each of the two wires in the cable has a resistance of 2.5 Ω. The step-down transformer
in the farm has a voltage ratio of 5.0. The transformer is ideal and 100% efficient. It supplies a
power of 40 kW to a resistive load at the farm at a voltage of 250 V.
What is the rate at which electrical energy is transferred to thermal energy in the overhead
cable?
A 1.28 kW
B 2.56 kW
C 5.12 kW
D 32 kW
E 64 kW
F 128 kW
10
PART X PHYSICS
4 A wave is passing through a medium.
A particle of the medium has zero displacement from its equilibrium position at 0.12 s intervals,
and at no other times.
The wavelength of the wave is greater than 10.0 m.
Two points are 5.0 m apart along the direction of travel of the wave.
π
The phase difference between the particles at the two points at the same instant is radians.
3
What is the speed of the wave?
A 1.8 m s–1
B 3.6 m s–1
C 7.2 m s–1
D 62.5 m s–1
E 125 m s–1
F 250 m s–1
11
PART X PHYSICS
5 Three light springs, P, Q and R, are identical.
Springs P and Q are connected in series as shown. A downwards force T is applied to the
lower end.
Spring R is cut into four equal lengths, and the four pieces arranged symmetrically as shown.
The two connecting bars have negligible mass. A downwards force F is applied to the centre of
the lower bar.
The total extensions of the two systems are equal. The springs obey Hooke’s law.
Which expression gives T in terms of F ?
F
A
16
F
B
8
F
C
4
F
D
2
E 2F
F 4F
G 8F
H 16 F
12
PART X PHYSICS
6 A nylon cube resting on a horizontal surface has a volume of 64 cm3.
A force F is applied vertically downwards on the top face of the cube so that it compresses the
height by x.
The graph shows the variation of F with x.
F / N 150
100
50
0
0 0.25 0.50 0.75 1.00 1.25
x / 10 m
–6
What is the Young modulus of the nylon?
(Assume that changes in horizontal cross-sectional area are negligible.)
A 7.7 × 103 Pa
B 4.8 × 106 Pa
C 9.6 × 106 Pa
D 1.2 × 108 Pa
E 1.5 × 109 Pa
F 3.0 × 109 Pa
G 1.9 × 1012 Pa
13
PART X PHYSICS
7 Five lampposts alongside a straight road are positioned at uniform intervals of 60 m.
A motorbike travelling at a constant velocity passes the first lamppost at time t = 0 s. It passes
the fifth lamppost at t = 20 s.
A car travelling in the same direction as the motorbike is accelerating at 6.0 m s–2. At time t = 0 s
the car passes the first lamppost at a velocity of 3.0 m s–1.
At what time t does the car overtake the motorbike?
A 1.5 s
B 2.0 s
C 2.5 s
D 3.0 s
E 3.5 s
F 4.0 s
G 5.0 s
14
PART X PHYSICS
8 An electrical appliance has an input power P which is a function of time t during the first
10 seconds after it is switched on.
This function is
P = 3t 2 + 4t
where P is in watts and t is in seconds.
The appliance is switched on at time t = 0.
The appliance has a constant efficiency of 90%.
What is the energy wasted by the appliance during the period t = 2.0 s to t = 3.0 s after it is
switched on?
A 0.60 J
B 0.70 J
C 1.9 J
D 2.9 J
E 4.5 J
F 17 J
G 26 J
H 41 J
15
PART X PHYSICS
2
9 A solid cylinder is made of transparent glass of refractive index . It is surrounded by air.
3
A ray of light travelling in air hits the cylinder at the centre of one circular face at a non-zero
angle θ to the normal, and refracts as it enters the cylinder.
The ray then strikes the curved surface of the cylinder at an angle of incidence equal to the
critical angle.
What is the value of θ ?
3
A sin–1
4
1
B sin–1
3
2
C sin–1
6
3
D sin–1
2
E sin–1 1
16
PART X PHYSICS
10 An object of mass 20 kg is acted on by a force that varies in magnitude during the time interval
t = 0 s to t = 1.0 s.
The force causes the object’s displacement x to change with time t according to the
relationship
x = – t 3 – 3t 2 + 4
where x is in metres and t is in seconds.
What is the magnitude of the impulse on the object over this time interval?
A 2.8 kg m s–1
B 9.0 kg m s–1
C 55 kg m s–1
D 80 kg m s−1
E 100 kg m s–1
F 180 kg m s–1
17
PART X PHYSICS
11 Two small hard spheres of mass m and 2m are suspended side by side from light vertical
strings of length l. The more massive sphere is raised so that its string is horizontal, and then
released. It swings through 90° and strikes the smaller sphere. The two spheres stick together,
and rise to a maximum height h as shown in the diagram.
2m
h
2m m
Which expression gives the height h in terms of l ?
(Assume that air resistance is negligible.)
4l
A
27
8l
B
27
4l
C
9
2l
D
3
8l
E
9
F l
G 2l
18
PART X PHYSICS
12 Three resistance wires X, Y and Z, made from the same metal, are connected to each other
and to a circular plastic ring as shown.
X
Y
Wires X and Y each have twice the diameter of wire Z.
Wire X is 12 cm long. Wire Z is 15 cm long and is connected across a diameter of the ring.
A power supply is connected to the two corners of the triangle that lie on the diameter.
What is the value of the ratio
current in X
?
current in Z
1
A
5
7
B
20
7
C
10
5
D
7
7
E
5
10
F
7
20
G
7
H 5
19
PART X PHYSICS
13 A light rope has cross-sectional area 6.0 × 10– 8 m2 and unstretched length 0.24 m.
The rope is fixed horizontally between two supports that are 0.24 m apart.
When a 1.0 kg mass is suspended from the middle of the rope, the vertical displacement of the
middle of the rope from its original position is 0.050 m.
The rope obeys Hooke’s law. Assume that changes in cross-sectional area are negligible.
What is the Young modulus of the material from which the rope is made?
A 5.2 × 108 N m–2
B 8.0 × 108 N m–2
C 1.0 × 109 N m–2
D 1.3 × 109 N m–2
E 2.0 × 109 N m–2
F 2.6 × 109 N m–2
G 5.2 × 109 N m–2
20
PART X PHYSICS
14 The three graphs show the displacement, velocity and acceleration against time for an object
moving in a straight line.
The time axis is shown to the same scale on all three graphs.
0
0 time
0
0 time
0
0 time
Which graph represents which quantity?
graph P graph Q graph R
A acceleration displacement velocity
B acceleration velocity displacement
C displacement acceleration velocity
D displacement velocity acceleration
E velocity acceleration displacement
F velocity displacement acceleration
21
PART X PHYSICS
15 A system of light springs that does not obey Hooke’s law has an unstretched length of 2.0 m.
The extension x of the system is related to the force F applied to it by
F = px 2
where p is a constant.
A force of 2400 N increases the length of the system to 2.2 m.
How much work is done in increasing the length of the system from 3.0 m to 4.0 m?
A 1.2 kJ
B 60 kJ
C 70 kJ
D 120 kJ
E 140 kJ
F 740 kJ
22
PART X PHYSICS
16 The diagram shows a circuit that includes two batteries, each with negligible internal
resistance.
18 V
A 20 Ω
4.0 Ω
8.0 Ω 20 V
What is the reading on the ammeter?
A 0.0029 A
B 0.0071 A
C 0.063 A
D 0.083 A
E 0.50 A
F 0.65 A
G 1.2 A
H 2.0 A
23
PART X PHYSICS
17 The upper diagram shows the equilibrium positions of nine equally spaced particles in a
medium.
The lower diagram shows the positions of the same nine particles when a longitudinal wave is
travelling through the medium. The wave is shown at time t = 0, travelling to the right.
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
distance / cm
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
distance / cm
The frequency of the wave is 0.5 Hz.
Which graph represents the displacements of the particles at a later time t = 0.5 s?
(On the graphs, positive displacement values represent particle displacements to the right.)
displacement
displacement
A B
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
distance / cm distance / cm
displacement
displacement
C D
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
displacement
displacement
E F
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
displacement
displacement
G H
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
24
PART X PHYSICS
18 A power supply with constant emf and internal resistance r is connected to an external resistor.
The efficiency of the system is defined as
power dissipated by external resistor

efficiency =
total power supplied by cell
Which graph shows how the efficiency varies with the resistance of the external resistor?
A B efficiency 1
efficiency 1
0.5 0.5
0 0
0 r 0 r
resistance resistance
C efficiency 1 D efficiency 1
0.5 0.5
0 0
0 r 0 r
E efficiency 1 F efficiency 1
0.5 0.5
0 0
0 r 0 r
25
PART X PHYSICS
19 A 10 kg projectile is launched from ground level at an angle of 60° above the horizontal, with an
initial speed of 12 m s−1. The horizontal component of its velocity is to the right.
At the point during its flight when the vertical component of its velocity is zero, the projectile
splits into two pieces, P and Q, each of mass 5 kg.
Immediately after the projectile splits, piece P has velocity 14 m s−1 to the right.
What is the speed of piece Q immediately before it hits the ground?
(Assume that air resistance is negligible, and that the ground is horizontal.)
A 2 m s−1
B 31 m s−1
C 6 3 m s−1
D 4 7 m s−1
E 2 43 m s−1
F 4 13 m s−1
G 4 19 m s−1
H 2 127 m s−1
26
PART X PHYSICS
20 The density ρ of a sphere varies from its centre to its surface according to the equation
x 
ρ = ρ0  1 − 
 2R 
where x is the distance from its centre, R is its radius and ρ 0 is the density at its centre.
What is the mass of the sphere?
(the surface area of a sphere of radius x is equal to 4π x2)
3
2 πR ρ0
A
3
5 πR 3 ρ0
B
6
8 πR 3 ρ0
C
9
D πR 3 ρ0
3
29 πR ρ0
E
24
3
19 πR ρ0
F
15
4 πR 3 ρ0
G
3
H 2 πR 3 ρ0
27
BLANK PAGE
28
PART Y CHEMISTRY
PART Y Chemistry
29
PART Y CHEMISTRY
21 In this question, consider only the elements potassium, rubidium, calcium, strontium, bromine
and iodine. Assume that there are similar trends in physical properties in Periods 4 and 5 as
there are in Periods 2 and 3.
Consider the enthalpy change for the process:
X(g) + e– → X–(g)
The element for which this process is most exothermic reacts with the metal with the highest
first ionisation energy.
What is the relative molar mass (Mr) of the product from this reaction?
(Ar values: K = 39; Rb = 86; Ca = 40; Sr = 88; Br = 80; I = 127)
A 119
B 120
C 166
D 200
E 213
F 248
G 294
H 342
30
PART Y CHEMISTRY
22 The following diagram gives the mass spectra of samples of the elements gallium (Ga) and
chlorine (Cl).
Gaseous gallium chloride has a formula of GaCl 3.
The mass spectrum of gallium chloride shows peaks at different mass-to-charge ratio
(m / z value).
What is the abundance ratio of the molecular ion GaCl 3+ with the largest m / z value to the
smallest m / z value?
A 2:9
B 2 : 16
C 2 : 36
D 2 : 54
E 2 : 81
31
PART Y CHEMISTRY
23 4.00 g of bromine reacts with excess fluorine at temperatures over 150 °C to form 8.75 g of
compound X only. The molecular formula of X is the same as the empirical formula.
Using the VSEPR model, what is the smallest bond angle in compound X?
(Ar values: Br = 80; F = 19)
A 120°
B in the range 114°-119°
C 109.5°
D in the range 104°-109°
E 90°
F in the range 84°-89°
32
PART Y CHEMISTRY
24 An aqueous solution of NaCl is added to an aqueous solution containing the complex ion
Fe(H2O)63+ and an equilibrium is established:
Fe(H2O)63+(aq) + 4Cl–(aq) ⇌ FeCl 4–(aq) + 6H2O(l)
The concentration of Cl– in the equilibrium mixture is 2.0 mol dm–3.
The numerical value of the equilibrium constant, Kc, is 0.05.
The expression for Kc does not include the solvent.
What is the ratio of the concentrations [FeCl 4– ] : [Fe(H2O)63+] in the equilibrium mixture?
(All concentrations are in mol dm–3.)
A 4:5
B 5:4
C 1 : 10
D 10 : 1
E 1 : 320
F 320 : 1
33
PART Y CHEMISTRY
25 When organic compounds are treated with an alkaline aqueous solution of iodine, a yellow
precipitate is formed by those compounds that contain either of these structural fragments:
O H OH
C or C
H3 C H3C
There are 8 structurally isomeric alcohols with the molecular formula C5H12O.
Each of these alcohols was heated under reflux with excess acidified potassium
dichromate(VI).
How many of these alcohols gave a product that would form a yellow precipitate with an
alkaline aqueous solution of iodine?
A 1
B 2
C 3
D 4
E 5
F 6
G 7
34
PART Y CHEMISTRY
26 Calcium cyanamide is a compound containing calcium, carbon and nitrogen only. It contains
50% calcium by mass, and reacts with water to form ammonia and one other product that does
not contain nitrogen or hydrogen.
One mole of calcium cyanamide contains one mole of calcium.
What volume of water, in cm3, is required to react exactly with 8.0 g of calcium cyanamide?
(Ar values: H = 1; C = 12; N = 14; O = 16; Ca = 40. Density of water is 1.0 g cm–3.)
A 1.8 cm3
B 2.7 cm3
C 3.6 cm3
D 5.4 cm3
E 18 cm3
F 27 cm3
G 36 cm3
H 54 cm3
35
PART Y CHEMISTRY
27 ΔG (Gibbs free energy change), ΔH (enthalpy change) and ΔS (entropy change) are
thermodynamic quantities for a reaction linked by the equation
ΔG = ΔH – TΔS
where T = temperature measured in kelvin (K).
The graph shows how ΔG, in kJ mol–1, varies with temperature, in K, for a reaction at constant
pressure.
∆G 150
–1
/ kJ mol
100
50
0
0 100 200 300 400 500 600 700 800 900 1000
– 50
–100
–150
temperature / K
Is the reaction endothermic or exothermic, and what is the value of ΔS, in J mol–1 K–1?
(Assume that ΔH and ΔS do not vary with temperature over this range.)
the reaction is… ΔS / J mol–1 K–1

A endothermic – 0.20
B endothermic + 0.20
C endothermic –200
D endothermic +200
E exothermic – 0.20
F exothermic + 0.20
G exothermic –200
H exothermic +200
36
PART Y CHEMISTRY
28 The table gives information relating to the enthalpy change of formation of calcium chloride.
enthalpy change
/ kJ mol–1
Ca(s) → Ca(g) +190
+ –
Ca(g) → Ca (g) + e +590
+ 2+ –
Ca (g) → Ca (g) + e +1150
Cl 2(g) → 2Cl(g) +240
– –
Cl(g) + e → Cl (g) –360
2+ –
CaCl 2(s) → Ca (g) + 2Cl (g) +2240
Using the data provided, what is the enthalpy change of formation of calcium chloride?
A + 650 kJ mol–1
B – 430 kJ mol–1
C –790 kJ mol–1
D – 910 kJ mol–1
E – 980 kJ mol–1
F –1270 kJ mol–1
G –1380 kJ mol–1
H –1700 kJ mol–1
37
PART Y CHEMISTRY
29 Copper metal reacts with aqueous iron(III) ions to form aqueous iron(II) ions and aqueous
copper(II) ions.
Which of the following statements can be deduced about this reaction?
A Copper(II) ions are a stronger reducing agent than iron(II) ions.
B Copper(II) ions are a stronger oxidising agent than iron(III) ions.
C Iron(II) ions are a stronger reducing agent than copper metal.
D Copper metal is a stronger oxidising agent than iron(II) ions.
E Iron(III) ions are a stronger oxidising agent than copper(II) ions.
38
PART Y CHEMISTRY
30 Heat loss is a problem in calorimetry experiments and can lead to inaccurate results. One way
to address this problem is to carry out an experiment to find the heat capacity of the calorimeter
(for example,100 g of water in a copper can) using a reaction where the molar enthalpy change
is known.
A student burned m(ethanol) grams of ethanol (relative molar mass = Mr(ethanol)) in a burner and the
temperature of the water in the calorimeter rose by ΔT (ethanol) in °C. The molar enthalpy of
combustion of ethanol is ΔH (ethanol).
The student then burned m(propanol) grams of propanol (relative molar mass = Mr(propanol)) in the
burner using the same calorimeter and the temperature of the water rose by ΔT (propanol) in °C.
Which expression gives the molar enthalpy of combustion of propanol ΔH (propanol)?
(All other conditions for these experiments were identical.)

(ethanol) (propanol) (ethanol)
ΔT × Mr ×m
A ΔH (ethanol) × (propanol) (ethanol) (propanol)
ΔT × Mr ×m
(ethanol) (ethanol) (ethanol)
(ethanol) ΔT × Mr ×m
B ΔH × (propanol) (propanol) (propanol)
ΔT × Mr ×m
(ethanol) (ethanol) (propanol)
ΔT × Mr ×m
C ΔH (ethanol) × (propanol) (propanol) (ethanol)
ΔT × Mr ×m
(propanol) (ethanol) (ethanol)
(ethanol) ΔT × Mr ×m
D ΔH × (ethanol) (propanol) (propanol)
ΔT × Mr ×m
(propanol) (ethanol) (propanol)
ΔT × Mr ×m
E ΔH (ethanol) × (ethanol) (propanol) (ethanol)
ΔT × Mr ×m
(propanol) (propanol) (ethanol)
ΔT × Mr ×m
F ΔH (ethanol) × (ethanol) (ethanol) (propanol)
ΔT × Mr ×m
39
PART Y CHEMISTRY
31 In an experiment to investigate diffusion, four separate identical flasks containing one of

hydrogen, helium, nitrogen or neon are placed in a large cubic box filled with argon, each in a
different corner. All gases, including the argon, are at atmospheric pressure.
The temperature of the box is uniform and remains constant throughout the experiment.
Temperature is directly proportional to the average kinetic energy of the particles in a gas.
The stoppers of the flasks are removed simultaneously and the time is recorded when a fixed
proportion of each gas reaches a detector at the centre of the box.
A second experiment is carried out under the same conditions but at a higher temperature.
(Ar values: H = 1.0; He = 4.0; N = 14; Ne = 20)
Which statement is correct?
A If hydrogen is detected in t minutes, then helium will be detected in 2 t minutes.

B The kinetic energy of every gas particle in the box will be the same at the same room
temperature.
C The order in which the gases are detected at both temperatures is hydrogen, then helium,
then nitrogen, and lastly neon.
D The average speed at which a helium particle travels is 5 times the speed at which an
average neon particle travels.
E When the temperature of the box is increased, the average kinetic energy of the gases will
decrease.
40
PART Y CHEMISTRY
32 A high temperature reaction vessel requires a steady supply of an atmosphere free of oxygen,
carbon monoxide and NOx gases.
In order to achieve this, methane was burned in air to give a mixture of carbon dioxide, water
vapour and nitrogen only.
Assume that air is composed of 20% oxygen and 80% nitrogen only by volume.
What mass ratio of air to methane should be supplied to the burner?
(Ar values: H = 1; C = 12; N = 14; O = 16. Assume that one mole of any gas occupies the same
volume at a given temperature and pressure.)
A 2:1
B 2.5 : 1
C 4.5 : 1
D 5:1
E 9:1
F 18 : 1
G 20 : 1
41
PART Y CHEMISTRY
33 In preparation for the disposal of 500 cm3 of 4 mol dm–3 hydrochloric acid with a pH value of
–0.6 (minus 0.6) into a drain, the following steps were taken:
step 1 The acid was diluted with 100 dm3 water.
step 2 90 g of calcium carbonate powder was added which completely reacted.
step 3 The resulting solution was diluted with water to give a final volume of 500 dm3.
What is the final pH value of the solution?
(Mr value: CaCO3 = 100. All pH values were measured at the same temperature.)
A 2.9
B 3.4
C 3.6
D 4.4
E 4.6
F 5.4
G 6.0
H 7.0
42
PART Y CHEMISTRY
34 Lutetium (Lu) is a metallic element which forms compounds in which lutetium always has the
same oxidation state.
When 3.50 g of lutetium is heated and burned in excess oxygen, 360 cm3 of oxygen, measured
at room temperature and pressure, is needed for complete reaction to form lutetium oxide.
When 3.50 g of lutetium reacts completely with dilute sulfuric acid, hydrogen and aqueous
lutetium sulfate are produced. The salt is extracted from solution and allowed to crystallise into
a white solid.
The solid is a hydrated salt with a 1 : 1 molar ratio of water to salt.
What is the maximum mass of hydrated salt that could be made from 3.50 g of lutetium?
(Ar values: Lu = 175; S = 32; O = 16; H = 1. Assume that one mole of any gas occupies 24 dm3
at room temperature and pressure.)
A 5.42 g
B 5.78 g
C 6.38 g
D 6.56 g
E 9.26 g
F 9.62 g
G 12.76 g
H 13.12 g
43
PART Y CHEMISTRY
35 Sodium feredetate trihydrate and iron(II) sulfate can both be used to treat iron deficiency.
The formula for sodium feredetate trihydrate is:
Sodium feredetate trihydrate is used as a solution. 5.00 cm3 of this solution contains
210.5 mg of sodium feredetate trihydrate.
Iron(II) sulfate is used in tablet form. One iron tablet contains 63.0 mg of iron(II) ions.
What volume of sodium feredetate trihydrate solution would give the same mass of iron as one
iron(II) sulfate tablet?
(Ar values: H = 1.0; C = 12; N = 14; O = 16; Na = 23; Fe = 56)
A 0.450 cm3
B 2.25 cm3
C 9.81 cm3
D 10.29 cm3
E 10.93 cm3
F 11.25 cm3
44
PART Y CHEMISTRY
36 Three half-equations involved in the oxidation of ethanol to ethanoic acid are:
Cr2O72– + 14H+ + 6e– → 2Cr 3+ + 7H2O
CH3CH2OH → CH3CHO + 2e– + 2H+
CH3CHO + H2O → CH3COOH + 2e– + 2H+
A flask contains 0.345 g of ethanol. An excess of dilute sulfuric acid is added to the flask.
A separate flask contains 0.200 mol dm–3 aqueous dichromate ions, Cr2O72–.
What volume of aqueous dichromate is needed to exactly convert all the ethanol to
ethanoic acid?
(Mr value: CH3CH2OH = 46)
A 6.25 cm3
B 9.38 cm3
C 12.50 cm3
D 25.00 cm3
E 37.50 cm3
F 56.25 cm3
G 112.50 cm3
45
PART Y CHEMISTRY
37 V is a compound with empirical formula CH2. It undergoes an addition reaction with hydrogen
bromide, producing compound W.
W reacts with potassium cyanide to produce organic compound X which contains

1
approximately by mass of nitrogen.
6
W also reacts with warm aqueous sodium hydroxide to give organic compound Y.
Y reacts with hot acidified potassium dichromate(VI) to produce organic compound Z.
Z does not react with aqueous sodium carbonate, nor does it react with Tollens’ reagent.
Which of the following is a possible identity for W?
(Ar values: H = 1; C = 12; N = 14)
A 1-bromobutane
B 1-bromopentane
C 1-bromopropane
D 2-bromo-2-methylpropane
E 2-bromobutane
F 2-bromo-2-methylbutane
G 2-bromopropane
H 3-bromopentane
46
PART Y CHEMISTRY
38 A student is planning an experiment to determine the percentage of iron in a 3 g sample of the

iron ore haematite, which contains Fe2O3 as the only iron-containing species and other material
which will not react in this experiment. The sample contains approximately 50% iron by mass.
The student’s plan is:
step 1 Make a solution of Fe3+ ions by reacting iron(III) oxide with concentrated acid.
step 2 Reduce the Fe3+ ions to Fe2+ ions using a solution of tin(II) chloride.
step 3 Make up the solution containing Fe2+ to 250 cm3 by adding water.
step 4 Titrate 25 cm3 portions using potassium dichromate(VI) solution, K2Cr2O7.
The equations for the reactions occurring are:
Fe2O3 + 6H+ → 2Fe3+ + 3H2O
Sn2+ + 2Fe3+ → Sn4+ + 2Fe2+
Fe2+ → Fe3+ + e–
Cr2O72– + 14H+ + 6e– → 2Cr3+ + 7H2O
In order to obtain titre values of between 15 cm3 and 35 cm3, what concentration of potassium
dichromate(VI), in mol dm–3, should the student use?
(Ar value: Fe = 56)
A 0.02 mol dm–3
B 0.04 mol dm–3
C 0.10 mol dm–3
D 0.20 mol dm–3
E 0.50 mol dm–3
F 1.00 mol dm–3
47
PART Y CHEMISTRY
39 0.92 g of gaseous dinitrogen tetroxide, N2O4(g), is placed in a syringe with a free moving piston
at 25 °C and atmospheric pressure.
At 25 °C, gaseous dinitrogen tetroxide dissociates and forms an equilibrium mixture with
gaseous nitrogen dioxide, NO2(g), only.
At equilibrium, the total volume of gas in the syringe is 288 cm3.
What percentage of the dinitrogen tetroxide has dissociated?
(Ar values: N = 14; O = 16. Assume that, for all of the gases, one mole of gas occupies a
volume of 24 dm3 at 25 °C and atmospheric pressure.)
A 10%
B 20%
C 30%
D 40%
E 50%
F 60%
G 70%
H 80%
48
PART Y CHEMISTRY
40 Fluoride ions can be added to drinking water to improve dental health.
The recommended concentration of fluoride ions in drinking water for observable health
benefits is between 1.0 and 1.5 ppm by mass.
The concentration of fluoride ions in a full 10 million litre water storage reservoir is 0.5 ppm.
The following three compounds can be used to supply fluoride ions to water:
sodium fluoride (NaF, Mr = 42)
hexafluorosilicic acid (H2SiF6, Mr = 144)
sodium fluorosilicate (Na2SiF6, Mr = 188)
Assume that all the fluorine present in the compounds ionises in water to form fluoride ions.
Which of the following treatments can be added to increase the fluoride ion concentration to
within the recommended range?
(Ar value: F = 19. Density of water is 1 g cm–3. 1 ppm = 1 part per million = 0.0001%.)
A 6.30 kg of sodium fluoride (NaF)
B 7200 g of hexafluorosilicic acid (H2SiF6)
C 14 400 g of hexafluorosilicic acid (H2SiF6)
D 18.8 g of sodium fluorosilicate (Na2SiF6)
E 37.6 kg of sodium fluorosilicate (Na2SiF6)
49
BLANK PAGE
50
PART Z BIOLOGY
PART Z Biology
51
PART Z BIOLOGY
41 A solution containing sucrose, starch and amylase was incubated at 37 °C. After the reactions
had completed, the student divided the solution into three test tubes and carried out the
following tests:
• add biuret reagent

• add iodine solution
• add Benedict’s solution and heat
Which row shows the final colours after the tests?
add biuret reagent add iodine solution add Benedict’s solution and heat
A purple yellow-brown blue
B purple blue-black red
C purple yellow-brown red
D purple blue-black blue
E blue yellow-brown blue
F blue blue-black red
G blue yellow-brown red
H blue blue-black blue
52
PART Z BIOLOGY
42 A sample of blood was taken from a healthy human.
There were 5 × 109 red blood cells in 1 cm3 of the blood.
The ratio of the volume of red blood cells to other blood components was 2 : 3.
1 The genetic material of a mature red blood cell is contained in its nucleus.
2 The mean volume of a red blood cell is 8 × 10–8 mm3.
3 Human red blood cells have a higher surface area to volume ratio compared to a
spherical cell of the same volume.
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3
53
PART Z BIOLOGY
43 An enzyme called EcoRI is used to cut out a gene from the middle of a human chromosome.
This process produces sticky ends as shown in the diagram.
sticky end gene sticky end
T T A A
A A T T
When guanine separates from its complementary base, three hydrogen bonds are broken,
whereas two are broken when the other pair of bases separate.
the number of base-pairing hydrogen bonds broken

EcoR I is a
when this gene was cut out using EcoR I
A restriction enzyme 16
B restriction enzyme 20
C restriction enzyme 24
D ligase 16
E ligase 20
F ligase 24
54
PART Z BIOLOGY
44 A student studied the effect of different colours of light on photosynthesis by algae. Large
numbers of algal cells were trapped inside balls of a clear jelly-like substance. The average
diameter of the algal balls was 5 mm.
These balls were then placed in a test tube filled with a solution. The solution contained
substances necessary for photosynthesis by the algal cells, and had a pH of 7.8. The whole
test tube was then wrapped in a coloured filter and left in bright light for two hours. All other
factors were kept constant.
After two hours the pH of each solution was measured. The results are shown in the table.
colour of filter pH of solution after two hours

blue 8.3
green 7.5
red 8.6
colourless 9.3
black 7.1
4 3
The volume of a sphere is πr , where r is the radius.
3
1
1 The average volume of one of the algal balls is π cm3.
6
2 In only the test tubes with red, blue and colourless filters, the increase in pH can be
explained by an increase in the amount of carbon dioxide released by the algal balls.
3 Conducting these experiments at a higher temperature could increase the rate of

change in pH in all the tubes.
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3
55
PART Z BIOLOGY
45 In a test to compare the function of the human respiratory system in different individuals, they
were asked to breathe out as hard as possible for as long as possible. The volume exhaled
was recorded.
The graph shows the results obtained after carrying out this test on two males with the same
height and body mass.
7
total expired volume / litre
individual P
5
individual Q
2
0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
time / s
1 Individual P exhaled 200% more than individual Q.
2 Individual Q’s diaphragm was more domed at 7 seconds than at 2 seconds.
3 The mean rate of air flow in the first second was 233% more in individual P than in
individual Q (to the nearest whole percentage).
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3
56
PART Z BIOLOGY
46 The graph shows the mass of antibody produced by antibody-producing cells over a period of
20 hours.
total mass of 10
antibody molecules produced
per 106 antibody-producing cells 9
/ μg
8
0
0 5 10 15 20
time / hours
Assume that one antibody molecule has a mass of 2.5 × 10–19 g.
1 One antibody-producing cell produces 2 × 106 antibody molecules per hour.
2 Antibodies are produced in response to dead and living pathogens.
3 Phagocytes produce antibodies.
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3
57
PART Z BIOLOGY
47 The table identifies various values relating to microscopy.
Which row in the table is correct?
the actual diameter of an

the maximum useful the resolution limit of a adenovirus pathogen based
magnification of a light transmission electron on a 1 × 10 6 magnified
microscope microscope image with a diameter
of 20 mm
A ×150 0.2 nm 20 nm
B ×150 0.2 nm 20 µm
C ×150 200 nm 20 nm
D ×150 200 nm 200 nm
E ×1500 0.2 nm 20 nm
F ×1500 0.2 nm 200 nm
G ×1500 200 nm 20 µm
H ×1500 200 nm 200 nm
58
PART Z BIOLOGY
48 Complete ribosomes are made from one large subunit and one small subunit joined together.
The subunit names are based on their sizes as shown in the table.
size of ribosomal name of subunit name of subunit

subunit in eukaryotes in prokaryotes
small 40S 30S
large 60S 50S
In a study, scientists found that one organism made and assembled the subunits in its nucleus.
The complete ribosome was then transported to the cytoplasm.
name of the large subunit in the complete

components found in the ribosomal subunits
ribosome studied
A 50S amino acids and no nucleotide bases
B 50S adenine, cytosine, guanine, thymine
amino acids, adenine, cytosine, guanine,

C 50S
thymine
D 50S
uracil
E 60S amino acids and no nucleotide bases
F 60S adenine, cytosine, guanine, thymine

G 60S
thymine
H 60S
uracil
59
PART Z BIOLOGY
49 Some varieties of plant crops, like maize, can survive at low temperatures, such as 4 °C.
Scientists identified protein Z that they believe to be involved in the response to low
temperatures in maize.
One method of studying how plants survive at low temperatures is to investigate the levels of
ion leakage from cells damaged by the low temperatures. Higher levels of ion leakage are
associated with lower levels of survival.
The scientists measured the levels of ions leaking from cells of three varieties of maize.
variety of maize description
P normal maize plant
contains a single base pair insertion in the DNA

Q
near the start of the gene coding for protein Z
is genetically modified to produce the highest
R
levels of protein Z
Other than the changes listed in the table, the plants were genetically identical.
Ion leakage from samples of cells of each variety was measured after the plants had been kept
at 4 °C for 4 days. All other variables were kept constant.
The results of this investigation are shown in the chart.
mean ion leakage 100

from cells after 90
4 days at 4 °C 80
/ arbitrary units 70
60
50
40
30
20
10
0
variety P variety Q variety R
source of cells tested for ion leakage
60
PART Z BIOLOGY
49 Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1 The cell wall in maize cells controls the leakage of ions from the cell at 4 °C.
2 Inserting an extra base pair near the start of the gene for protein Z could change the
overall amino acid sequence of the protein.
3 The presence of protein Z in maize cells increases the chance of the maize plant
surviving at 4 °C.
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3
61
PART Z BIOLOGY
50 Some bacteria become resistant to antibiotics due to the loss of the proteins in their cell surface
membranes that the antibiotic uses to enter the cell. To overcome this problem, scientists have
developed nanomachines that can make holes in these membranes, allowing the antibiotic to
enter and destroy the bacteria.
Scientists studied the effects of these nanomachines in two antibiotic-resistant strains of

bacteria, R and S. Each culture started with 2.5 × 106 living cells. They carried out two sets of
experiments, one without the nanomachines and one with the nanomachines. The results are
shown in the chart.
All other factors were kept the same.
percentage 30
reduction
in number 25
of living cells
20 Key
without nanomachines
15
with nanomachines
10
0
R S R S
bacterial strain
1 The number of living cells of strain S in the experiment with the nanomachines is
2.25 times higher than in the experiment without the nanomachines.
2 The cells of strain S may have more proteins in their cell membranes than strain R,
which allow the antibiotic to enter their cells.
3 There would be 2 × 106 living cells of strain R at the end of the experiment with the
nanomachines.
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3
62
PART Z BIOLOGY
51 Some chemotherapy drugs interfere with the mitotic cell cycle.
The following table lists five chemotherapy drugs and their mechanisms of action.
chemotherapy drug mechanism of action

Dinaciclib prevents cells progressing beyond prophase
Doxorubicin prevents DNA repair following incorrect DNA replication
Methotrexate inhibits enzymes responsible for DNA synthesis
Vinblastine inhibits spindle fibre assembly
Wiskostatin inhibits cytokinesis
The following diagram shows a simplified version of the mitotic cell cycle.
4
G2 5
S M
6
2
G1
Which row identifies the position on the diagram where each chemotherapy drug is most likely
to act?
Dinaciclib Doxorubicin Methotrexate Vinblastine Wiskostatin

A 4 3 1 6 5
B 3 2 4 5 6
C 5 2 3 6 4
D 4 3 2 5 6
E 3 4 2 1 5
F 3 2 4 1 5
G 4 5 2 3 6
63
PART Z BIOLOGY
52 The properties of three biological membranes were investigated. It was found that:
• There is a positive correlation between the fluidity of a membrane and the rate of
simple diffusion of substance X across it.
• Cholesterol increases the fluidity of membranes at low temperatures, but decreases
their fluidity at high temperatures.
• The cell surface membrane has the highest percentage of cholesterol, and the
lysosomal membrane has the second highest percentage of cholesterol.
Which of the following sketch graphs is consistent with this information?
Key
Golgi apparatus membrane
inner mitochondrial membrane
cell surface membrane
A permeability to B permeability to
substance X substance X
temperature temperature
C permeability to D permeability to
E permeability to F permeability to
64
PART Z BIOLOGY
53 A 0.2 cm long section of xylem, with internal diameter 60 µm, was studied.
The velocity at which substances were transported through the xylem in a plant was found to
be 3.6 metres per hour in the morning. Later in the day the velocity was greater.
Which row of the table is correct?
environmental factor that

velocity of substance
internal volume of the could have resulted in
transport in the morning
xylem section / µm3 change in velocity
/ µm s–1
later in the day
A 0.001 180π increased sunlight
B 0.001 720π increased humidity
C 0.001 1 800 000π increased humidity
D 1000 180π increased wind speed
E 1000 1 800 000π increased sunlight
F 1000 7 200 000π increased humidity
G 3 600 000 720π increased wind speed
H 3 600 000 7 200 000π increased sunlight
65
PART Z BIOLOGY
54 In cold conditions mice maintain their core body temperature by increased heat production.
The graph shows the effect of environmental temperature on oxygen consumption by one
strain of mouse.
oxygen 60
consumption
/ arbitrary 50
units
40
30
20
10
0
5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40
environmental temperature / °C
Mice of the same strain have been produced with a mutation that results in a thinner and less
insulating layer of fat in their skin.
1 The homeostatic control of core body temperature only occurs in environmental

temperatures between 28 °C and 40 °C.
2 Between 12 °C and 18 °C, each 1 °C increase in temperature decreases the mean

2
oxygen consumption by 1 arbitrary units.
3
3 Between 10 °C and 20 °C, the change in oxygen consumption for the mice with the
mutation will decrease more than for the non-mutated mice.
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3
66
PART Z BIOLOGY
55 A scientist studied the aorta, a renal artery and a capillary in a healthy human.
The scientist measured the radii of two of the vessels, P and Q, and made a drawing of the
third, R.
• P: lumen radius = 2.5 × 10–3 m

• Q: lumen radius = 8000 µm
• R: at magnification ×5000, diameter of lumen in drawing = 4.5 cm
Which row identifies the three blood vessels?
vessel P vessel Q vessel R

A aorta capillary renal artery
B aorta renal artery capillary
C capillary aorta renal artery
D capillary renal artery aorta
E renal artery aorta capillary
F renal artery capillary aorta
67
PART Z BIOLOGY
56 A student investigated the effect of increasing the size of an agar (a jelly-like substance) cube
on its efficiency to absorb and distribute a blue dye.
Two agar cubes were prepared, one with side lengths of 1 cm and the other with side lengths of
3 cm. They were put in a solution of blue dye for 30 minutes.
The cubes were then removed from the dye and cut in half to measure the penetration of the
dye into the agar.
In the 3 cm cube the dye had penetrated to a depth of 0.75 cm. The cross section of this cube is
shown:
clear region of agar
agar penetrated
by blue dye
When the cube with sides of 1 cm was cut in half, all the agar had been penetrated with the
dye.
Which row is correct for this investigation?
percentage of the volume change in process(es) to describe the

of the 3 cm cube surface area : volume ratio movement of the blue dye into
penetrated by the dye as cube size increases the cube
A 12.5 increases active transport and osmosis
B 75.0 increases diffusion and osmosis
C 87.5 decreases diffusion only
D 12.5 decreases diffusion and osmosis
E 75.0 decreases diffusion only
F 87.5 increases diffusion and osmosis
G 75.0 increases active transport and osmosis
H 87.5 decreases active transport and osmosis
68
PART Z BIOLOGY
57 The graph shows the rate of removal of sodium ions from a giant axon in a squid. Between 100
and 230 minutes, a reversible inhibitor of mitochondrial activity was present.
rate of removal 2.0

of sodium ions inhibitor of
1.8 mitochondrial
from the axon
/ arbitrary units 1.6 activity present
1.4
1.2
1.0
0.8
0.6
0.4
0.2
0.0
50 100 150 200 250 300
time / minutes
1 The removal of sodium ions across the cell surface membrane of the axon is an
active process requiring ATP.
2 The concentration of sodium ions in the axon must increase after the inhibitor has
been removed.
3 In the 50 minutes before the inhibitor was added, the rate of removal of sodium ions
from the axon decreases by 4.4 × 10–3 arbitrary units per minute.
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3
69
PART Z BIOLOGY
58 The diagrams show some stages of mitosis and meiosis in a healthy human male.
1 2 3
J K
4 5
M
N
Which row identifies the correct process, the stage of that process, and label?
diagram number process stage label

J: paired homologous
A 1 mitosis prophase
chromosomes
K: nuclear membrane
B 2 meiosis metaphase 1
of sperm cell
C 3 meiosis anaphase 2 L: bivalents being separated
D 4 meiosis telophase 1 M: cleavage of cytoplasm
E 5 mitosis metaphase N: sister chromatids
70
PART Z BIOLOGY
59 The family tree shows inheritance of the alleles for one characteristic in a mammal. The gene
for this characteristic was found on a non-sex chromosome in the nucleus.
rr RR Rr Rr
1 2 3 4
What is the probability that individual 5 is homozygous for the allele R?
A 0
B 0.25
C 0.33
D 0.5
E 0.67
F 0.75
G 1
71
PART Z BIOLOGY
60 A particular functional protein consists of two smaller chains of amino acids joined together,
chain P and chain Q. A group of scientists made this protein using bacterial cells.
They created recombinant plasmid R by inserting the genes for chain P and chain Q into a
plasmid. They also inserted a gene for an antibiotic resistance protein into the plasmid so that
cells containing the recombinant plasmid could be selected using antibiotics.
A map of the recombinant plasmid is shown:
gene for antibiotic

resistance protein
1800 bases long
plasmid
R
gene for chain P
600 bases long
gene for chain Q

3300 bases long
This process is not efficient and must be carried out several times to be certain of creating
plasmid R.
Four plasmids were made and individually moved into four bacterial cells, labelled W, X, Y and
Z.
The proteins encoded by the genes in the plasmid in the bacterial cells were checked by
separating the proteins based on their mass, producing the results as shown in the following
diagram.
bacterium
W X Y Z
130
110
mass / kDa 60
20
Each band represents a protein or amino acid chain of the given mass.
Assume that one amino acid has a mass of 0.1 kDa.
72
PART Z BIOLOGY
60 Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1 W is the only bacterium with the fully functional protein.
2 The proteins/amino acid chain(s) in Y and Z are from bacteria that can each only
produce one of the parts of the functional protein.
3 The DNA ligase enzymes may not have functioned as intended when creating the
plasmid that is in bacterium X.
A none of them
B 1 only
C 2 only
D 3 only
E 1 and 2 only
F 1 and 3 only
G 2 and 3 only
H 1, 2 and 3
73
BLANK PAGE
74
BLANK PAGE
75
76
Natural Sciences Admissions Assessment – Section 2 2022 D568/12
Candidate number Centre number
Fill in the appropriate
N circle for your chosen
answer e.g.
Date of birth (DD MM YYYY)
ABCDE
First Name(s)
Use a soft pencil. If

you make a mistake,

erase thoroughly and
Surname / Family name try again.
ALL candidates must attempt ONE part only.
Part X: Physics
A B CDE F A B CDE F G A B CDE F G A B CDE F GH
1 6 11 16
A B CDE A B CDE F G A B CDE F GH A B CDE F GH

2 7 12 17
A B CDE F A B CDE F GH A B CDE F G A B CDE F

3 8 13 18
A B CDE F A B CDE A B CDE F A B CDE F GH

4 9 14 19
A B CDE F GH A B CDE F A B CDE F A B CDE F GH

5 10 15 20
6904

Candidate number
N
Part Y: Chemistry
N
A B CDE F GH A B CDE F GH A B CDE A B CDE F G
21 26 31 36
A B CDE A B CDE F GH A B CDE F G A B CDE F GH

22 27 32 37
A B CDE F A B CDE F GH A B CDE F GH A B CDE F

23 28 33 38
A B CDE F A B CDE A B CDE F GH A B CDE F GH

24 29 34 39
A B CDE F G A B CDE F A B CDE F A B CDE

25 30 35 40
Part Z: Biology
A B CDE F GH A B CDE F GH A B CDE F G A B CDE F GH
41 46 51 56

42 47 52 57
A B CDE F A B CDE F GH A B CDE F GH A B CDE

43 48 53 58
A B CDE F GH A B CDE F GH A B CDE F GH A B CDE F G

44 49 54 59

45 50 55 60
6904

NSAA 2022 Section 1 Answer Key
Question Answer key Part Question Answer key Part

Q1 E MATH Q41 E CHEM
Q2 D MATH Q42 B CHEM
Q3 D MATH Q43 C CHEM
Q4 E MATH Q44 G CHEM
Q5 D MATH Q45 D CHEM
Q6 D MATH Q46 A CHEM
Q7 C MATH Q47 E CHEM
Q8 B MATH Q48 F CHEM
Q9 B MATH Q49 H CHEM
Q10 B MATH Q50 G CHEM
Q11 G MATH Q51 C CHEM
Q12 C MATH Q52 A CHEM
Q13 G MATH Q53 D CHEM
Q14 C MATH Q54 E CHEM
Q15 E MATH Q55 D CHEM
Q16 B MATH Q56 C CHEM
Q17 E MATH Q57 F CHEM
Q18 A MATH Q58 A CHEM
Q19 D MATH Q59 E CHEM
Q20 C MATH Q60 B CHEM
Q21 A PHYS Q61 A BIOL
Q22 C PHYS Q62 B BIOL
Q23 E PHYS Q63 F BIOL
Q24 G PHYS Q64 B BIOL
Q25 E PHYS Q65 D BIOL
Q26 B PHYS Q66 E BIOL
Q27 A PHYS Q67 G BIOL
Q28 G PHYS Q68 G BIOL
Q29 B PHYS Q69 D BIOL
Q30 D PHYS Q70 F BIOL
Q31 E PHYS Q71 G BIOL
Q32 C PHYS Q72 B BIOL
Q33 G PHYS Q73 D BIOL
Q34 C PHYS Q74 F BIOL
Q35 D PHYS Q75 C BIOL
Q36 D PHYS Q76 F BIOL
Q37 F PHYS Q77 A BIOL
Q38 E PHYS Q78 G BIOL
Q40 A PHYS Q80 C BIOL
NSAA 2022 Section 2 Answer Key
Question Answer key Part Question Answer key Part

Q1 E PHYS Q41 C BIOL
Q2 C PHYS Q42 G BIOL
Q3 C PHYS Q43 A BIOL
Q5 B PHYS Q45 G BIOL
Q6 F PHYS Q46 E BIOL
Q7 D PHYS Q47 E BIOL
Q8 D PHYS Q48 H BIOL
Q9 B PHYS Q49 G BIOL
Q10 F PHYS Q50 G BIOL
Q11 C PHYS Q51 D BIOL
Q12 G PHYS Q52 D BIOL
Q13 F PHYS Q53 E BIOL
Q14 C PHYS Q54 G BIOL
Q15 E PHYS Q55 E BIOL
Q16 E PHYS Q56 C BIOL
Q17 A PHYS Q57 F BIOL
Q18 A PHYS Q58 D BIOL
Q19 D PHYS Q59 B BIOL
Q20 B PHYS Q60 H BIOL
Q21 D CHEM
Q22 E CHEM
Q23 F CHEM
Q24 A CHEM
Q25 B CHEM
Q26 D CHEM
Q27 G CHEM
Q28 C CHEM
Q29 E CHEM
Q30 F CHEM
Q31 A CHEM
Q32 F CHEM
Q33 B CHEM
Q34 D CHEM
Q35 F CHEM
Q36 D CHEM
Q37 E CHEM
Q38 A CHEM
Q39 B CHEM
Q40 B CHEM

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NATURAL SCIENCES D568/11

This paper contains four parts: A, B, C and D.

All candidates should complete Part A Mathematics.

Dictionaries and calculators are NOT permitted.

This question paper consists of 65 printed pages and 3 blank pages.

© Cambridge University Press & Assessment 2022 PV8

1 Which one of the following is a simplification of

2 Triangle PQR has a right angle at Q.

What is the length of QT, in cm?

3 Find the complete set of values of x that satisfy the inequality

The faces on X are labelled 1, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.

The faces on Y are labelled 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 6.

What is the probability that my total score is greater than 9?

5 Rob keeps a record of what he earns each day.

On Monday, he earned 50% less than he earned on Sunday.

On Wednesday, he earned £84.

How much did Rob earn on Sunday?

6 The n th term of a sequence T is ( n – 3)2, where n is a positive integer.

The n th term of another sequence V is 3 n + p, where p is a constant and n is a positive integer.

The 10th term in T is equal to twice the 5th term in V.

What is the 4th term in V?

7 Which one of the following is a simplification of

8 S is a list of six numbers:

The mean of S is one more than the median of S.

What is the value of x ?

9 A rectangle PQRS has length (2 x – 1) cm and width ( x + 1) cm as shown on the diagram.

The larger rectangle has an area of 360 cm2.

[diagram not to scale]

What is the ratio of PQ to PS ?

10 t is inversely proportional to the square of w.

t and w are positive numbers.

What is the value of w when t = 100 ?

11 PQRS is a trapezium as shown.

[diagram not to scale]

What is the length of PS, in metres?

She takes 40 minutes at an average speed of 12 km h–1 to reach the top.

Her average speed for the whole journey is 15 km h–1.

What is the average speed of her descent?

13 A solid cylinder has radius r cm and height h cm.

A cube has side length 3 r cm.

Which of the following is an expression for h in terms of r ?

14 Consider the equation 2 x 2 + 4 x + c = 0, where c is a constant.

The positive difference between the roots of this equation is 10 .

What is the value of c ?

15 The variables x and y are related by the equation:

Which of the following is a rearrangement to make y the subject?

16 PQR is a triangle as shown.

S and T are points on the sides PQ and PR.

[diagram not to scale]

What is the length, in cm, of QR ?

17 Three different numbers are chosen at random from 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.

18 P, Q and R are regular polygons.

Q has three times as many sides as P.

An interior angle of Q is 10° larger than an interior angle of P.

R has twice as many sides as Q.

How much larger is an interior angle of R than an interior angle of Q, in degrees?

19 The point (– 1, 5) is translated to the point (3, 2) by two successive translations.

20 Consider the graphs of the form

A There are no values of a