Post Basic Bachelor of Sciences

I G N O U in Nursing [B.Sc. N. (PB)]

Assignments
2023
2nd Year
(Revised Courses BNS 206, 207 & 208)

School of Health Sciences

Indira Gandhi National Open University
Maidan Garhi, New Delhi-110 068
Dear Student,
As explained in the Programme Guide, there are five assignments in total and all these assignments are
compulsory. Please note that you are required to score 50% marks in each assignment separately. The
assignments carry a weightage of 30% marks towards the final evaluation in theory component and
submission of related assignments is a prerequisite for appearing in theory term-end examination for
respective courses. The subject area of assignments and its last date of submission are mentioned below:
Last Date of Course Code Blocks Involved Assignment Code
Submission
31st July, 2023 BNS-206 1&2 BNS-206/TMA-1
BNS-207 1&2 BNS-207/TMA-1
BNS-208 1&2 BNS-208/TMA-1
31st August, 2023 BNS-206 3,4&5 BNS-206/TMA-2
BNS-207 3&4 BNS-207/TMA-2
BNS-208 3&4 BNS-208/TMA-2

Please take note of the following points before writing your assignments:
 Use only foolscap size paper for writing your responses. Only handwritten assignments will be
accepted. Typed or printed copies of assignments will not be accepted.
 Tie all the pages after numbering them carefully.
 Write the question number with each answer.
 All the questions are compulsory.
 Every assignment will be evaluated out of a full mark of 100. Weightage is indicated in parenthesis
against each question.
Suggestions for writing an assignment:
Read the assignments carefully. Scan through the whole material of the course, answers may be linked
within the blocks/units. Draw a rough outline of your answer in your own words. Support your answer
from your clinical/community experience. Make a logical order. Then write your answer neatly and
submit. Give illustrations and tables wherever necessary. You may keep a xerox copy of the answer
sheets for future reference.
Do not copy from print material.
Answer each assignment in separate sheets. On the first page of the assignment response sheet, write the
course code, course title, assignment code, name of your programme study centre (PSC) and date of
submission. Your Enrollment No. Name and Full address should be mentioned in the top right comer of
the first page. The first page of your response sheet should look like the format given below:
Course Code Enrollment No.
Course Title Name
Assignment Code Address
PSC
Date of Submission

Please submit the assignments to the Programme In-charge of the Programme Study Centre allotted
to you.

2
 MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING (BNS-206)
Assignment -1 (Block 1, 2) (Tutor Marked)

Programme Code: B.Sc. N (PB)

Course Code: BNS 206
Assignment Code: BNS 206/TMA-1/2023
Maximum Marks: 100
Last date of Submission: July 31, 2023

This assignment has three parts – Part A, B, and C

Note:
Part A consists of two long questions. Each question carries 15 marks
Part B consists of six short questions. Each question carries 10 marks
Part C consists of four objective type questions. Each question carries 2 ½ marks.

Part – A
1. a) Define Shock.
b) Discuss its various types highlighting their clinical manifestations, diagnosis and
management in detail
(2+13= 15)
2. a) Define Cardiomyopathy and list its types.
b) Enumerate the diagnostic tests to detect Dilated Cardiomyopathy.
c) Describe the treatment and nursing care of a patient suffering from Dilated
Cardiomyopathy.
(2+3+2+4+4 =15)
Part – B
3. a) Define acidosis and alkalosis.
b) Discuss the various types of acid- base imbalances studied by you.
(1+1+8=10)
4. a) List the different types of Post-operative complications.
b) Describe any two delayed post-operative complications..
(5+2 ½ +2 ½ =10)
5. a) Define Peptic Ulcer.
b) Explain its pathophysiology and clinical manifestations. .
c) Discuss the Nursing care plan of a patient with peptic ulcer. (2+3+5=10)

6. a) Explain the Pathophysiology of Emphysema.

b) Describe the Medical and Nursing Management of patient with Emphysema.
(3+2+5=10)
7. Discuss the detailed assessment of a patient with Gastrointestinal problems. (10)

8. a) List the objectives of Disaster Nursing.

3
 b) Describe the Principles and legal aspects of Disaster Nursing.
(2+8=10)
Part –C
9. Place a tick mark (√) against the most appropriate answer given under each statement
(5x ½ =2 ½)

a. Approach enabling the nurse to cluster assessment data for identifying potential
problems is called:
i) Problem Based Approach
ii) Holistic Approach
iii) Bio-Medical Approach
iv) Clinical Pathways
b. All the following can be used as a graft for Coronary Artery Bypass Graft except:
i) Internal Mammary Artery
ii) Radial Artery
iii) Saphenous Vein
iv) Renal Vein
c. The following article in the emergency kit helps only in assessment of the patient :
i) Pen
ii) Bandage
iii) Antiemetic medicines
iv) Scissors
d. One of the following is attributed to stress:
i) Peptic ulcer
ii) Intestinal obstruction
iii) Ulcerative colitis
iv) Hernia
e. “PQRST” is an approach used to gather subjective data about:
i) Shock
ii) Allergy
iii) Pain
iv) Hyperthermia
10. Match the statements given in column A with items given in column B: (5x ½ =2 ½)

Column A Column B
a) Restricted Lung disease i) Passive immunity
b) Immunization ii) Complete Rescuer Exhaustion
c) ABG iii) Used in thrombosis
d) Termination of CPR iv) Embolism
e) Streptokinase v) Pulmonary fibrosis
vi) Active immunity
vii) Bronchitis

4
11. Fill in the blanks: (5x ½ =2 ½)

a. The use of High-energy physics and computer techniques to study lung functions occurs
in _______________________.
b. Frostbite is the freezing of _________ when temperature is below 32 degree Fahrenheit.
c. The first cells to arrive at the spot of injury are _______________
d.___________________ is the drug of choice to treat angina attacks.
e. ____________ care units offer day care facilities for treating patients without admission.

12. Place a tick mark (√) against “T’ if you consider the statement as true and “F” if you
consider the statement as false. (5 x ½ = 2 ½)

a. MUGA scanning is utilized for gastrointestinal problems. (T/F)

b. ICU is essential for providing one to one care. (T/F)
c. Ismelin is a peripheral vasodilator used in severe hypertension. (T/F)
d. Guanethidine sulphate is a peripheral vasodilator drug. (T/F)
e. Respiratory failure occurs when vital capacity is less than 15 ml/kg. (T/F)

5
 MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING (BNS-206)
Assignment -2 (Block 3, 4 and 5) (Tutor Marked)
Programme Code: B.Sc. N (PB)
Course Code: BNS 206
Assignment Code: BNS 206/TMA-2/2023
Maximum Marks: 100
Last date of Submission: August 31, 2023
This assignment has three parts – Part A, B, and C
Note:
Part A consists of two long questions. Each question carries 15 marks
Part B consists of six short questions. Each question carries 10 marks
Part C consists of four objective type questions. Each question carries 2 ½ marks.
Part – A
1. a) Discuss the causes and pathophysiology of Chronic kidney disease.
b) Describe the medical and nursing management of these patients.
(3+3+4+5= 15)
2. a) Define Parkinson’s disease.
b) Discuss its causes and pathophysiology.
c) Describe the management of this patient in detail.
(2+6+7 =15)
Part – B

3. a) Define Osteoarthritis. Write its pathophysiology.

b) Describe the management and nursing interventions for patients with
Osteoarthritis.
(1+3+4+2=10)
4. a) List the signs and symptoms of Colorectal cancer.
b ) Explain the management and nursing care for a patient with diagnosis of colorectal
cancer. (3+7=10)

5. a) Enumerate the various bacterial infections of the skin.

b) Discuss the management of any three of such infections in detail.
(4+6=10)
6. a) Define Retinal detachment. List its causes and symptoms.
b) Discuss its management (1+4+5=10)

7. a) Define Adenoiditis.
b) Discuss its causes, clinical manifestations and management. (2+3+5=10)

8. Describe the various structural and functional changes that occur in Elderly. (10)

6
 Part –C

9. Place a tick mark (√) against the most appropriate answer given under each statement
(5x ½ =2 ½)
a) Creatinine clearance test is most commonly used for:
i) Assess GFR
ii) Find the pH
iii) Assess the urea level
iv) Scan the kidney

b) Direct testing in endocrinal disorders includes all except:

i) Immuno radiometric assays (IRMAs)
ii) Radioimmunoassay (RIA)
iii) 24-hour urine testing.
iv) Calcium measurements

c) Glomerular Filtration Rate of 20-40 % of Normal occurs during which stage of

Chronic Kidney Disease:
i) Renal Impairment
ii) Renal Insufficiency
iii) Renal Failure
iv) Uremia

d) “ABCR” is an acronym used for drugs to treat:

i) Myasthenia gravis
ii) GB syndrome
iii) Multiple sclerosis
iv) Tissue Wall Inflammation

e) The characteristic signs and symptoms shown by a person with Hyperthyroidism are
termed as:
i) Thyrotoxicosis
ii) Exophthalmos
iii) Grave’s Disease
iv) Thyroid Storm

10. Match the statements given in column A with items given in column B: (5x ½ =2 ½)

Column A Column B
a. First step in chemical carcinogenesis i) UV light
b. Wood’s lamp ii) Initiation
c. Jaeger’s chart iii) Vitiligo
d. Hypo pigmentation iv) Asses near vision
7
e. German Measles v) Assess distant vision
vi) Congenital cataract

11. Fill in the blanks: (5x ½ =2 ½)

a) The time period for which the dialysate is left in the peritoneal dialysis is
________________ .
b) Presence of Rheumatoid Factor (RF) in serum is identified by _________________
c) One of the major problem with Anti-seizure drug is _________________
d) __________________ serve as the fulcrum of the lever served by bones.
e) Large number of ANA’s are characteristic of ____________________

12. Place a tick mark (√) against “T’ if you consider the statement as true and “F” if you
consider the statement as false. (5 x ½ = 2 ½)

a) Adduction is allowed after Total Hip replacement. (T/F)

b) Echart is used to asses the visual acuity of illiterates. (T/F)
c) Peripheral catheter used for chemotherapy has a long term use. (T/F)
d) Brachytherapy for cancer of cervix involves insertion of Radioisotope in sealed
applicators for time period of 24-72 hours. (T/F)
e) Breast self examination should be done regularly after the age of 30 years. (T/F)

8
 PAEDIATRIC NURSING (BNS-207)
Assignment – 1 (Block 1 & 2) (Tutor Marked)
Programme Code: B.Sc. N. (PB)
Course Code: BNS 207
Assignment Code: BNS 207/ TMA-1/2023
Maximum Marks – 100
Last date of submission: July 31st, 2023
Note:
This Assignment has three parts i.e. Part A, B and C
Part A consist of two long answer questions. Each question carries 15 marks.
Part B consist of six short answer questions. Each question carries 10 marks.
Part C consist of four objective type questions. Each question carries 2½ marks.

Part-A

1) a) Explain the factors affecting growth and development

b) Discuss the importance of studying growth and development.
c) Write in detail about the four aspects of development. (5+5+5=15)

2) a) Explain Triaging of a sick new born with the help of a flow diagram.
b) Explain the concept of triaging.
c) Describe the steps of triage. (2+6+7=15)

Part-B
3) a) Differentiate between the following:
i) Live birth and new born
ii) Neonatal and Perinatal period
iii) Preterm and small for date baby

b) List the conditions which demand resuscitation alert.

c) Describe steps of neonatal resuscitation at birth with the help of a diagram

d) Prepare an Apgar scoring chart for a baby. whose delivery has been attended by you
during your clinical experience. (3+1+5+1=10)

4) a) Define preventive pediatrics

b) Explain concept of behavior change communication
c) Describe process of behavior change communication (2+3+5=10)

9
5) a) Define low birth weight baby
b) Describe nursing care of a low birth weight baby (2+8=10)

6) a) Define Kangaroo Mother Care (KMC) and lists the purposes of KMC
b) Describe advantages and procedure of kangaroo mother care (5+5=10)

7) a) List the common neonatal emergencies

b) Describe nursing management of any two of neonatal emergencies (3+7=10)

8) a) Explain respiratory distress syndrome in detail

b) Describe management of a baby with respiratory distress syndrome (2+8=10)

Part – C
9) Place a tick mark () against the most appropriate answer given under each statement
(½×5=2½)

1) Posterior fontanell closes by

a) 2 months
b) 4-5 months
c) 18 months
d) 7 months

2) Normal Head circumference at birth is

a) 33 cm
b) 34 cm
c) 30 cm
d) 28 cm

3) State of physical and emotional ill treatment below 18 years is

a) Child neglect
b) Child abuse
c) Drug abuse
d) Mental abuse

4) Early neonatal sepsis occurs in

a) First 72 hours
b) First 24 hours
c) After 48 hours
d) After 36 hours

5) Breath holding spells are seen at the age of

a) 6 months
b) 2 months
c) 8 months
10
 d) None of the above

10) Fill in the blanks: (5x ½ = 2½)

a) Greenish black sticky stool passed by a new born in first few days after birth is called as
…………………
b) Perterm babies can develop ……………… due to poor Glomerular Filtration Rate
c) National Sample Survey (NSS) is one of the sources of ……………..
d) Average age of eruption of central incisors is ……………..
e) In Pica there is habitual ingestion of ……………..
11) Match the statement given in Column ‘A’ with the term given in column ‘B’
(5x½ =2½)
Column A Column B
a) Premature i. < 35.50C
i) Hypothermia ii. Sorting of patients as per priority
j) RKSK iii. January, 2014
k) Triage iv. Less than 40 weeks
l) Head circumference v. Less than 37 weeks
vi. 33-35 cms
vii. 30-33 Cms

12) Place a tick mark (against “T” if you consider the statement as true and “F” if you
consider the statement as false.
(5x½ =2½)
a) Sucking reflex is developed after 24 hours in normal new born. (T/F)
b) Phocomelia is the absence of proximal portion of a limb or limbs. (T/F)
c) Injury of fifth and sixth cervical spinal nerve indicates facial palsy. (T/F)
d) Indian red cross society is an international agency. (T/F)
e) Birth, death and marriage are vital events. (T/F)

11
 PAEDIATRIC NURSING (BNS-207)
Assignment – 2 (Block 3 & 4) (Tutor Marked)
Programme Code: B.Sc. N (PB)
Course Code: BNS 207
Assignment Code: BNS 207/ TMA-2/2023
Maximum Marks – 100
Last date of submission: July 31st, 2023
Note:
This Assignment has three parts i.e. Part A, B and C
Part A consist of two long answer questions. Each question carries 15 marks.
Part B consist of six short answer questions. Each question carries 10 marks.
Part C consist of four objective type questions. Each question carries 2½ marks.

Part-A
1) a) Define Leukemia.
b) Describe the types of leukemia
c) Differentiate between thalassemia and hemophilia.
d) Describe the nursing problems and nursing intervention of a child with Leukemia based
on nursing process. (2+3+3+7=15)

2) Mohit, a 5 year old child has come to outpatient department with complain of pain in the
right eye. Examination of the eye revealed redness, inflammation and watery discharge:

a) List various inflammatory conditions of eye

b) Describe the inflammatory conditions of eye that Mohit is likely to have.
c) Discuss clinical features and nursing management of any three inflammatory
conditions. (2+5+8=15)

3) a) Define Nephrotic syndrome.

b) Describe patho- physiology of Nephrotic Syndrome.
c) Discuss the nursing management of child with Nephrotic Syndrome based on nursing
process.
(1+3+6=10)
Part-B
4) Explain the nursing management of a child with Hydrocephalus. (10)

5) Describe nursing care of a hospitalized child. (10)

6) a) Define Pneumonia
b) List the clinical features of Pneumonia.
c) Describe Nursing management of a child with Pneumonia.
(2+3+5=10)
7) a) Define cleft lip and cleft palate.
b) Describe clinical features of cleft lip and cleft palate.
12
 c) Explain the pre and post operative management of a child with cleft lip. (2+3+5=10)

8) Meenu has been admitted to paediatric Medical Ward with anaemia, Mongoloid slant and
protruding maxilla. She has been diagnosed as a patient with thalasemia.

a) Write signs and symptoms that Meenu is likely to present.

b) Describe the nursing care you will give to Meenu. (5+5=10)
Part – C
9) Place a tick mark () against the most appropriate answer given under each statement
(½×5=2½)
a) The characteristic symptom of intussusception is:
i) Necrosis of involved segment of intestine
ii) Passage of current jelly stool
iii) Fever and prostration
iv) Nausea and vomiting

b) The vitamin C deficiency results in :

i) Defect in the collagen synthesis
ii) Increase in collagen synthesis
iii) bone marrow desperation and kidney failure
iv) defective formation of long bones

c) Second most common cause of burns in children is:

i) Contact injury
ii) Scald injury
iii) Flame injury
iv) Radiation injury

d) Congenital dysplasia of the limb is caused by abnormal development of:

i) Head of the femur, acetabulum, surrounding capsule and soft tissue
ii) Head of tabia and fibula
iii) acetabulum and soft tissues
iv) shaft of femur and acetabulum

e) Vital function of the liver are all except;

i) Synthesis of insulin
ii) Metabolic function
iii) Storage of bile
v) Maintaining fluid and electrolyte balance

10) Fill in the blanks: (½×5=2½)

a. All India league for maternity and child welfare was established in

13
 ………………………
b. A disease of skin produced by burrowing action of parasite mite in the epidermia is
....................................................
c. Water logging of the head literally means ...............................
d. A congenital anomaly in which the urethral opening is situated on the ventral surface
of the penis is called ...................................................
e. Blood glucose level of less than 54 mg/dl in first 72 hours is suggestive of
…………… in newborns

11) Match the statement given in column ‘A’ with the term given in column ‘B’
(5×½=2½)
Column A Column B
a) Koplik’s spot i) Enureies
b) Blood in the stool ii) Measles
c) Deficient secretion of growth hormones iii) Hypo-pituitarism
d) Abnormal development of red blood cells iv) Dysentry
e) Drooping of the upper eyelid v) Hydrocephalus
vi) Megaloblastic Anemia
vii) Strabismus
viii) Aplastic Anemia

12) Place a tick mark (√) against “T” if you consider the statement as true and “F” if you
consider the statement as false. (5×½=2½)

a) Naloxone is the antidote of Opiates. (T/F)

b) The exact cause of Acute Rheumatic Fever is unknown. (T/F)
c) Some dehydration indicates that skin pinch goes back very slowly (T/F)
d) External cardiac massage is indicated if heart rate fails to rise above 80/minutes. (T/F)
e) Maturity onset diabetes of youth is caused by secretory defect of Insulin. (T/F)

14
 MENTAL HEALTH NURSING

Assignment – 1 (Block 1 & 2) Tutor Marked

Programme Code: B.Sc. N (PB)

Course Code: BNS 208
Assignment Code: BNS 208/TMA-1/2023
Maximum Marks–100
Last date of Submission: July 31st2023

Note:
This Assignment has three parts – Part A, B and C
Part A consist of two long answer questions. Each question carries 15 marks.
Part B consist of six short answer questions. Each question carries 10 marks.
Part C consist of four objective type questions. Each question carries 2 ½ marks.

Part - A
Q.1 Explain Principals of Psychiatric Nursing. Support your answer with examples (15)

Q.2 (a) Explain mania depression Types of mania depression (7+8=15)

(b) Discuss nursing management of patient mania and depression

Part - B
Q.3 Describe history of Psychiatry including significant period via flow chart (10)

Q.4 Explain Integration of Psychiatric Nursing in General Nursing Curriculum and

its scope (10)

Q.5 Discuss various Models of Normalcy and Abnormalcy (10)

Q.6 (a) Explain characteristics of Mentally Healthy individual (5)

(b) Discuss Misconceptions about Mental Illness. (5)

Q.7 Discuss Nurses role in providing Psychotherapies to Schizophrenic patient. (10)

Q.8 (a) Define Organic Brain Disorders (OBD) (1+4+5=10)

(b) Explain causes of Delirium and Dementia
(c) Nursing interventions of client with OBD.

15
 Part - C
Q.9 Place a tick mark (√) against the most appropriate answer given under each
statement.
(1/2 X 5=2.5)
a) SMCR model is application for
i) Communications
ii) Principles
iii) Objections
iv) Evaluations

b) All the following are therapeutic communication techniques except

i) Observing
ii) Listening
iii) Focusing
iv) Patronizing

c) One of the following Characteristic feature of schizophrenic is:

i) Delusion
ii) Stereo typed
iii) Hallucination
iv) Depersonalization

d) Integrated approach is most suitable for preventing relapse in:

i) Schizophrenia
ii) Anxiety
iii) Neurosis
iv) Substance use disorders

e) A major factor in causing Korsakoff Syndrome occurs due to deficiency of:

i) Vitamin A
ii) Vitamin D
iii) Thiamine
iv) Iron

Q.10 Fill in the blanks: (1/2 X 5=2.5)

1) Constructive drives, constitutes a basic energy of life called ___________.
2) __________ mediates between the demand of the ID and relatives of external world.
3) Catalepsy and wary flexibility are commonly seen in ____________________.
4) When words, phrase or sentences are repeated it is called ________________.
5) Repetition of rhythmic words is called _________________.

16
Q.11 Match the following: (1/2 X 5=2.5)

Column A
Column B
a) Libido
i) Sigmud Freud
b) Super Ego
ii) Touch with reality
c) Psycho- analytical Model
iii) anything pleasurable from eating to creativity.
d) Psychosis
iv) Inner control system to cope with uninhibited desires of the
Id.
e) Dysthymia
v) Pull away from loved ones
vi) Physical complaints but normal laboratory findings
vii) A very mild mental illness.

Q. 12 Place a tick mark (√) ‘T’ if you consider the statement as True and ‘F’ if you
consider it as false. (1/2 X 5=2.5)

1) Mental illness once acquired is lifelong. (T/F)

2) According to medical model organic pathology is definite cause of mental disorders.(T/F)
3) Placing blame for own difficulties upon others is known as repression. (T/F)
4) Misinterpretation of sensory impressions is illusion. (T/F)
5) Objective of Social relationship is to help the patient to overcome the problem. (T/F)

17
 MENTAL HEALTH NURSING
Assignment – 2 (Block 3 & 4) Tutor Marked

Programme Code: B.Sc. N (PB)

Course Code: BNS 208
Assignment Code: BNS 208/TMA-2/2023
Maximum Marks–100
Last date of Submission: 31st August, 2023
Note:

This Assignment has three parts – Part A, B and C

Part A consist of two long answer questions. Each question carries 15 marks.
Part B consist of six short answer questions. Each question carries 10 marks.
Part C consist of four objective type questions. Each question carries 2 ½ marks.

Part - A
Q.1 a) Define Anxiety and explain development of Anxiety. (1+2+5+2+5=15)
b) Discuss level of Anxiety and manifestation of Anxiety.
c) Explain causes of Anxiety.
d) Describe Nursing management of a patient suffering with Anxiety

Q.2 a) Define Postpartum Psychosis (PPP) (2+6+7=15)

b) Explain signs and symptoms of Postpartum Psychosis
c) Describe medical management of Postpartum Psychiatric disorders.

Part - B
Q.3 Describe Psychotic disorders of Children. (10)

Q.4 Explain Body Image Distortions among Adolescence (10)

Q.5 Discuss Nursing management of Postpartum psychiatric disorders (10)

Q6. a) Explain physical aspects of Aging (5+5=10)

b) Discuss Nursing management of Elderly individual

Q.7 a) Explain legal aspects of Psychiatric nursing. (5+5=10)

b) Discuss Mental Health Care Act 2017

Q.8 Explain role of Nurse in Legal Psychiatry (10)

18
 Part - C
Q 9 Place a tick mark (√) against the most appropriate answer given under each statement.
(1/2 X 5=2.5)
a) Age of onset / or conversion disorder is usually
i) 10-15 years
ii) 15-20 years
iii) Late adulthood
iv) Young Elderly

b) All the following behavior therapy useful in treating OCD except:

i) Classical psycho analysis
ii) Systematic desensitization
iii) Flooding
iv) Thought stopping

c) All the following drugs are effective in treatment of PTSD except:

i) Amitryptiline
ii) Imipramine
iii) Dilantine
iv) Benzodiazepine

d) All the following are examples of Psycho somatic disorders except:

i) Asthma
ii) Irritable Bowel Syndrome
iii) Peptic Ulcer
iv) stroke

e) Products of cannabis includes:

i) Cigar, Bidis, Hukka
ii) Bhang, Ganja, Charas
iii) Hypnotics and Sedatives.
iv) Opium, Morphine, Heroin

Q.10 Fill in the Blanks (1/2 X 5=2.5)

1) Client should learn how to control anxiety by doing ___________.

2) Neurotransmitter influential in causing OCD is ___________.
3) Eye Symptom of intoxication due to Narcotics and Opiates is __________________.
4) Persistence of day and night wetting after the age of five years is ______________.
5) One of the most widely used medications for treating bipolar disorder is __________

19
Q.11 Match the following: (1/2 X 5=2.5)

Column A Column B
a) PTSD i) Tab. Disulfiram
b) Anticonvulsant medication ii) Substance use Rehabilitation.
c) Alcohol de addiction iii) Night mares of the events are common.
d) Self Help Group iv) Language is defective or absent due to injury
Injury of cerebral cortex
e) Aphasia v) Carbamazepine
vi) Muscular incoordination
vii) Difficulty in Swallowing

Q. 12 Place a tick mark (√) ‘T’ if you consider the statement as True and ‘F’ if you
consider it as false. (1/2 X 5=2.5)

a) Mild anxiety serves as a motivational force by making one alert physically and mentally. (T/F)
b) Involuntary micturition is normal by the age of 3-5 years. (T/F)
c) Insomnia and sleep walking are chronic disturbances of sleep patterns. (T/F)
d) In Autism, puberty can be the turning point for either improvement or further deterioration (T/F)
e) Mental retardation is classified on the bases of growth and development. (T/F)

20