April 2023 Diagnostics Exam

APRIL 2023 DIAGNOSTICS EXAM
ANSWER KEY
CRIMINOLOGY
A. Natural duties
1. P/Supt. Luis Navarro went to Criminal Justice College and punched Prof. Jack Robert in the stomach after
berating the professor for scolding the police official's son who is a Criminology student. P/Supt. Navarro's act
should be condemned because it is an act
A. of irregularity in the performance of duty B. of malfeasance
C. of misconduct
D. of incompetence
2. An old woman approached PO2 Cardo Dalisay asking the police officer to run after an unidentified young
man who allegedly snatched her mobile phone. PO2 Cardo Dalisay declined claiming that the man was
already a block away from them and besides the police officer alleged that he is rushing home for an urgent
matter at home. The officer's refusal to help the old woman is an example of
A. nonfeasance
B. malfeasance
C. misconduct
D. misfeasance
3. Joan submits herself to humiliation, beatings, and other forms of physical abuse, for sexual excitement.
What of type paraphilia does he possess? A. Sadism
`B. Sadomasochism
C. Masochism
D. Battered woman syndrome
4. What is this ability to go on despite the tremendous adversity?

A. Endurance
B. Patience
C. Perseverance
D. Prudence
5. A Scottish woodcutter was accused of killing a man he believed to be Prime Minister for thought that he
was persecuted by the Tories and their leader, Robert Peel, however turned out to be another person. The
court believed he was so mentally deranged that it would be inhuman to convict him since it was clear he
was
not in control of his faculties. This case became known as:
A. the Irrational Mind Rule
B. the M'naghten Rule
C. the Durham Rule
D. the Brawner Rule
6. During Local and National elections, the Commission on Election requires Ricardo "Cardo" Dalisay not to
carry firearms and other form of explosives even if he is a law enforcer unless he is on duty. If Cardo shall be
caught in the said regulation he shall be facing administrative case. What type of duty is the above
mentioned?
B. Positive duties
C. Confirmative duties
D. Negative duties
7. It is one of the parts of literature reviews that describes briefly the nature of the research problem and
explains what led the researcher to investigate the question.
A. Conclusion
B. Introduction
C. Summary/synthesis
D. Body
8. This process submits that the criminal behavior was due to the gap between the criminal and the
community. For this reason the offender must be assisted to strive hard to face the forces of the society or
community which will join upon his release from jail/prison.
A. Rehabilitation
B. Purpose of sentencing
C. Isolation of prisoners
D. Re-integration
9. What social norm provides direction for people in their dealings with one another, as a standard against
which actions are evaluated, and as a prescription or requirement that people act justly?
A. Justice
B. Conduct
C. Ethics
D. Commandment
10. Ryan Benoit conducted his study without posing any danger, embarrassment, hurt or any risk to his
research respondents. What problem has been solved in the case?
A. A research problem must be ethical B. A research Problem must be feasible
C. A research problem must be clear
D. A research problem must be relevant
11. Anton Guerrero has been bullied all through his early years because he is an introvert person, but smart
and intelligent wherein Anton excels in his academic grades and skinny. This is the manifestation of
A. Mesomorphic
B. Endomorphic
C. Dysplastic
D. Ectomorphic
12. An anti-social behaviour of the youth is a direct result of internal conflict and pre-occupation with his own
emotion and mood. Therapy and counselling is necessary to control this type of delinquency.
A. Asocial
B. Accidental
C. Social
1 | P a g e A M I C I R E V I E W C E N T E R
D. Neurotic
13. The kind of family structure that could influence a person to criminal behavior, characterized by non-
satisfaction of one or both parent from the relationship that may express feeling of frustration refers to
A. Anti-social Families
B. Disturbed Families
C. Disrupted Families
D. Inadequate Families
14. Act or omission which may not be punishable if committed by an adult, but becomes unlawful when they
are committed by a child or a person of tender year or one who is in need of supervision or assistance.
a. crime
b. status offense
c.delinquency
d. felonies
15. Which is not a qualification for the board examiners (the Chairperson and its members) under RA 11131?
A. Must be a naturalized-born Filipino citizen and a resident of the Philippines
B. Must be of good moral character, good reputation and of sound mind and body
C. Not convicted by a court of competent jurisdictions of any offense involving moral turpitude
D. Must be a graduate of Bachelor of Science in Criminology, and a holder of a Post-Graduate Degree in
Criminology or a lawyer in any reputable school recognized by CHED.
16. Those with any behavioral disorder, whether functional or organic, which is of such a degree of severity
as to require professional help or hospitalization. A. Mentally Retarded Children
B. Mentally Ill Children
C. Emotionally Handicapped Children
D. Physically Handicapped Children
17. What kind of crime victim does these people who experience the harm intensely through media publicity
as their source of information?
A. Specific Crime Victim
B. Tertiary Crime Victims
C. Primary Crime Victim
D. Secondary Crime Victim
18. This is a modern, classical school-based framework for explaining crime that includes the traditional
formal deterrence aspects and other informal factors that studies show consistently and strongly influence
behavior.
A. Rational Choice Theory
B. Drift Theory
C. Differential Association Theory
D. Moffit's Development Theory
19. P01 Victor Mangubat was born from a criminal family and he was always looking for a pleasure in life but
do not take any want risk and avoids pain. P01 Victor Mangubat is a great representation of a
_________________.
A. Rational Calculator
B. Atavistic
C. Hedonist
D. Criminaloid
20. What type of research describes a condition or a given state of affairs in terms of specified aspects or
factors?
A. Correlation research
B. Research Framework
C. Intervention research
D. Descriptive research
21. A manifestation of mental disorder through an erroneous perception without an external object of
stimulus.
A. Mania
B. Hallucination
C. Illusion
D. Delusion
22. What type of killer runs on a certain group of person as their end that they believe to unworthy people
and also for excitement?
A. Lust killer
B. Mission oriented
C. Thrill oriented
D. Serial killer
23. Julian Valerio a child who was frustrated in this particular stage will tend to become optimistic. A. Oral
stage
B. Anal stage
C. Genital stage
D. Latency stage
24. A research that is to understand or explain a prevailing situation or explain a relationship between factors
which may have already been identified in explanatory studies, and why the relationship exists.
A. Exploratory Research
B. Explanatory research
C. Keen research
D. Pure basic research
25. What may include the presence of both parents but who are irresponsible that children experience
constant quarrel in the home?
A. Reception and Study Center
B. Shelter Care Institution
C. Broken Home
D. Detention Home
26. This is characterized by cold, cruelty, social insensitivity, disregard for danger, troublesome behavior,
dislike of others, and attraction toward the unusual. A. Psychoneurosis
B. Psychosomatic
C. Psychoticism
D. Psychosis
27. One of the most obedient students in the criminology is Alex, when he started to join civic organization
and attending rallies he was influenced by his group to misbehave to the point that class disturbance occur
due to his behaviour. If you are the
dean of the school, what behavioural classification would Alex have?

A. Immoral
B. Morally Wrong
C. Amoral
D. Violence
28. The Mental Capacity of a child to understand the difference between what is right or wrong and the
consequences of his acts.
A. Intent
B. Knowledge
C. Motive
D. Discernment
29. They generally commit the most serious infractions, most often sent to a correctional institution and most
often continuous in a pattern of semi professional criminal behavior as adults.
A. Gang delinquents
B. Emotionally maladjusted deliquents
C. Environmental deinquents
D. Maladjusted delinquents
30. Ricardo "Cardo" Dalisay is a volleyball team captain that keeps the game on even if it is a 25-20 and
they're losing at the fourth set of game. The situation is referring to:
A. Denial
B. Dissociation
C. Avoidance
D. Acting out
31. What type of hostage-taker who is viewed as psychopath with a cause.When caught, many of them
rationalize their behavior by claiming to be revolutionaries who are merely seeking social justice?
A. Fanatic hostage-taker
B. Psychopathic hostage-taker
C. Criminal hostage-taker
D. Terrorist hostage
32. Marlon Aguilar is displaying an 01-4 behavior in which it could be explained and sometimes it is not
conforming with the norms that indicating that Marlon is somewhat confused. In what category of abnormal
condition Marlon belongs?
A. Long period of discomfort
B. Impaired functioning
C. Disruptive behavior
D. Bizarre behavior
33. A child who is vulnerable to and at the risk of committing criminal offenses because of personal, family
and social circumstances, which of this is an exemption to the case?
A. Being a street child
B. Being out of school
C. Being a member of a youth organization D. Being exploited economically
34. What is This theory of TRAVIS HIRSCHI states that members in society from bonds with other members
in society or institution in society such as parents, pro
social friends, churches, schools, teachers and sports team?
A. Social control Theory
B. Self-Control theory
C. Interactional Theory
D. Self-derogationTheory
35. This emphasizes that crime-ridden environs as those in which residents are uninterested in community
matters, therefore, the common sources of control in terms of family, school or church are weak and mess
up, what theory are we referring to?
A. Social disorganization theory
B. Social learning theory
C. Developmental theory
D. Cultural deviance theory
36. Mr. Dexter resorted of committing a crime because it is hard for him to achieve his material goals as he is
in the group of a lower class while Mr. Joshua comes to an easy reaching his material wants for he is in the
upper class. What theory does this represent?
A. differential association theory
B. cultural deviance theory
C. social learning theory
D. strain theory
37. Gener Guinto a minor-has been found guilty of an act committed without knowingly that the act
committed is wrong. Now he must undergo ______________.
A. intervention program
B. diversion
C. diversion program
D. counselling
38. RENATO MOICANO has this serious mental and emotional disorder that manifest a withdrawal from
reality. He feels that he has this split personality. A. Psychosis
B. Psychogenic
C. Psychosomatic
D. Psychoneurosis
39. A serious mental and emotional disorder that is a manifestation of withdrawal from reality. Some of
examples are encephalitis, intoxication, cerebral arteriosclerosis, senile brain disease, mania, dementia
praecox, or split personality.
A. Psychosomatic
B. Psychoneurosis
C. Psychosis
D. Psychogenic
40. This idea believes that becoming criminal is a discovering occurrence in which potential felons master
techniques that enables them to counterbalance conventional values and drift back and forth between
illegitimate and conventional behaviour.
A. differential reinforcement theory
B. neutralization theory
C. containment theory
D. differential association theory
41. This is the inexclusable reverential of a specific situation when there is no existing evil that are totally out
of dimensions.
A. Phobias
B. Obsessive-compulsive
C. Exposure
D. Anxiety neurosis
42. He founded Sociology and applied scientific methods in the study of society, which to him passes through
stages divided on the basis of how people try to understand it, leading them to adopt a rational scientific
understanding of the world. Comte called this the positive stage and those who followed his writings were
called,
a. August Comte
b. Positivism
c. Positivists
d. Sociologists
43. These are the rights of an accused that are derived from special laws enacted by Congress.
A. Constitutional rights
B. Statutory rights
C. Civil rights
D. Natural rights
44. It means any process or procedure used to resolve a dispute or controversy, other than by adjudication of
a presiding judge of a court or an officer of a government agency, as defined under the law, in which a
neutral third party participates to assist in the resolution of issues, which includes arbitration, mediation,
conciliation, early neutral evaluation, mini-trial, or any combination thereof.
A. Alternative Dispute Resolution System B. Arbitration
C. Arbitrator
D. Award
45. Jessa, a victim of rape, was able to identify her assailant, a neighbor, before he dies on her way to the
hospital where she was declared dead on arrival, this crime is called,
a. complex crime
b. simple crime
c) instant crime
d) situational crime
46. It will enhance a client's interpersonal relationship and it will help him/her become more aware of his/her
shortcomings/weaknesses. This will also help him/her overcome painful experiences that drove him/her to
commit a crime/ offense.
A. Rehabilitation
B. Counseling
C. Restitution
D. Community Work Service
47. In defining the research problem, what is the important thing for the researcher to present for the conduct
of the study?
A. Valid ID
B. Certificate
C. Valid justification
D. Present relevant data
48. A police officer’s frustration in the realization of his ambition and goals in life both as an officer of the law,
and as a private citizen, can push him to a life of crime, as pointed out in this particular theory.
a. Disorganization Theory
b. Culture Conflict Theory
C. Differential Association Theory
d. Strain Theory
49. What is the requirement under RA 11131 that an applicant who failed five times whether consecutive or
cumulative in the criminologist licensure examination, must satisfactorily complete before such applicant will be
allowed to take the criminologist licensure examination
A. Integrated Review
B. Remedial course
C. Review course
D. Refresher course
50. Aggregation of cases of the disease grouped in place and time that are suspected to be greater than the
number expected, even though the expected number may not be known.
A. Outbreak
B. Cluster
D. Sporadic
D. Pestilence
51. What is board criminology resolution no. Series of 1987?

A. Adapting the official seal for criminologist B. License criminologist logo
C. Criminology logo seal
D. PRC criminology logo
52. 1. Statement no. 1: Criminology explains the etiology, extent and nature of crime in society.
Statement no. 2: Criminal justice refers to the agencies of social control that handle criminal offenders.
A. Statement no. 1 is true
B. Statement no. 2 is false
C. Statement no. 1 and 2 are true
D. Statement no. 1 and 2 are false
53. This theory argues that intelligence is largely determined genetically; that ancestry determines IQ; and,
that low intelligence as demonstrated b
a. Nature Theory
b. Psychological theory
c. Strain Theory
d. Labeling theory
54. Kardo has no goal in life at all and never work for it anyway. He just maintains whatever he is doing to
just make a living.
a. Conformity
b. Innovation
c. Ritualism
d. Retreatism
e. Rebellion
55. He emphasized that a person is not born with the ability to behave violently.
a. Albert Bandura
b. Albert Hoffman
c. Albert Doderlein
d. Nota
56. Ms. RCBC, a 25-year-old mongoloid, was raped by her addict neighbor, Mr. Go. How do you classify her as
a victim?
a. an adult
b. an insane
c. a child
d. an adolescent
57. Kardo’s parents wanted him to become a policeman which he also dreams. To achieve this, he works hard
and maintain his good standing in school to pass the board exam someday. What adaptation does Kardo
applying?
a. Conformity
b. Innovation
c. Ritualism
d. Retreatism
e. Rebellion
58. A working child who is below eighteen but over fifteen years old may be allowed to work between the
hours of:
a) six to eight o’clock pm
b) seven to eight o’clock p
c) six to ten o’clock pm
d) seven to ten o’clock pm
59. Human behavior is man’s response to the interpretation of the from within the person or from his
environment.
a. stimulus
b. action
c. perception
d. inclination
60. Manny, angry at his girlfriend, boxed a nearby tree manifests what particular defense mechanism? a.
repression
b. sublimation
c. displacement
d. projection
61. Marta Kaw, a B.S. Criminology student, after tasting an unripe mango grimaced. This sensation is said to
be:
a. olfactory
b. Auditory
c. cutaneous
d. gustatory
62. This type of conflict occurs when there are two desirable but mutually exclusive goals.
a. avoidance-avoidance
b. approach-approach
c. approach-avoidance
d. multiple
63. This type of conflict when there are two courses of action, each of which has both pleasant and
unpleasant consequences.
a. avoidance-avoidance
b. approach-approach
c. approach-avoidance
d. multiple
64. Carlo Bautista, a B.S. Criminology student in the evening session, blames his poor performance in the
preliminary examination to his professor rather than his lack of preparation. This is an example of what type
of defense mechanism?
a. Reaction formation
b. displacement
c. Sublimation
d. rationalization
65. Ms. Ella, frustrated on her boyfriend when she saw the latter kissing another girl, cries. This is an example
of what defense mechanism?
a. Regression
b. suppression
c. Repression
d. displacement
66. What type of defense mechanism is manifested by Pining Garcia when he joined the fraternity, Alpha Phi
Chupapi, because of low self esteem?
a. Identification
b. projection
c. Fantasy
d. regression
67. Mr. Six Footer, an aspiring PNP applicant, turned up applying into the Armed Forces of the Philippines
when he failed in the initial height and weight measurement stage because he was under height. This is an
example of:
a. Sublimation
b. repression
c. Substitution
d. withdrawal
68. The stage of advance planning, organization and coordination and control in response to an anticipated
future crisis occurrence is called
a. Proactive Crisis Management
b. Reactive Crisis Management
c. Performance Stage
d. Reaction Phase
69. It is devoted and focused on curbing the problem on delinquency through undertaking preventive
programs, policies and activities.
A. Philippine National Police
B. Department of National Defense
C. Local Government
D. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
70. Who among the following shall primarily ensure that the status, rights and interests of children are upheld
in accordance with the Constitution and international instruments on human rights?
A. National Youth Commission
B. Kabataan Partylist
C. Commission on Human Rights
D. Sangguniang Kabataan
71. Who is the chairman of the Lupon Tagapamayapa in the Barangay Level where there is a diversion
program?
A. Punong Barangay
B. BCPC Chairman
C. LSWDO
D. PNP member
72. This document is required by the Prosecutor’s Office before it can entertain a complaint on a case covered
by the Barangay Court.
a. Certificate of Non-Settlement
b. Certificate of Non-arbitration
c. Certificate to file action
d. complaint affidavit
73. A negotiation between the defense counsel and the prosecutor, aimed at reaching an agreement whereby
the prosecutor uses discretion to obtain from the judge a lighter sentence in exchange for the defendant’s
entering a guilty plea.
a. arraignment
b. preliminary investigation
c. pre-trial
d. plea bargaining
74. The “Anti Graft and Corrupt Practices Act”. a. R.A. 8294
c. R.A. 1379
b. R.A. 7080
d. R.A. 3019
75. During trial of a criminal case, it is the prosecutor who directs the prosecution of the offense and he/she
did it on the behalf of the state. Once a case is elevated to the higher court such as Court of Appeals, who
represents the State in the prosecution of the offense?
a. Chief State Prosecutor
b. Solicitor General
c. National or provincial prosecutor
d. Judge
76. It is the authority of the court to try/hear cases for the first time to the exclusion of other courts. a.
original jurisdiction
b. exclusive jurisdiction
c. appellate jurisdiction
d. concurrent jurisdiction
77. Mr. Agapito shows non-interest, lack of confidence and skills to relate meaningfully, harmoniously and
fruitfully with the members of community. Thus, she is suffering from:
A. Social Crisis
B. Moral Crisis
C. Motivational Crisis
D. Emotional Crisis
78. A student watches TV instead of studying, saying that additional study wouldn’t do any good anyway. A.
Rationalization
B. Sublimation
C. Reaction Formation
D. Denial of Reality
79. Garry, a doctor, who because of frustrations forgets all of his past and takes an unexpected trip to other
country. He then, assumes a new identity. His name was then changed to John and become fisherman. What
do you call this Dissociative Disorder?
A. Dissociative Amnesia
B. Dissociative Dementia
C. Dissociative Fugue
D. Both A and C
80. Modifying circumstances which are those act of person is said to be in conformity with the jurisprudence
so that such person is deemed not to have transgressed the law in any form both criminal and civil liability.
A. Exempting Circumstances
B. Alternative Circumstances
C. Mitigating Circumstances
D. Justifying Circumstances
81. What do you call the research that contributes to knowledge by providing an in-depth personal experience
or understanding of something using words?
A. Experimental Research
B. Correlational Research
C. Qualitative Research
D. Quantitative Research
82. What do you call the honest policemen who are ready to cover and conceal corrupt practices of the police
department as part of camaraderie and the unwritten code of silence?
A. Meat eaters
B. Grass eaters
C. Rouges
D. Straight Shooters
83. Pat. Guarin is a law enforcement officer who has initial contact with the CICL. Within how many hours
should he turn over the CICL to the LSWDO?
A. Not later than 8 hours after apprehension B. Not later than 12 hours after apprehension C.
Within 36 hours after arrest
D. Within 24 hours after apprehension
84. The theory in which reformation is based upon, on the ground that the criminal is a sick person.
A. Classical Theory
B. Neo Classical School
C. Sociological Theory
D. Positivist Theory
85. Are those crimes committed against individuals, particularly against their chastity, but which do not
produce danger or prejudice common to other members of society. A. Public crimes
B. Felony
C. Private crimes
D. Infractions
86. Justine is taking criminology course in Sutherland University. His teacher always called him an idiot
because he is very slow during class discussion, the former decided to stop studying because he believe that
he has no potential and maybe his teacher is right. This situation best describe the theory of?
A. Differential Association Theory

B. Social Reaction Theory
C. Imitation suggestion theory
D. None of these
87. Andrew, was a second year high school, is afraid of being enclosed in a small space, room or closed
places. This phobia is refers to____________.
A. Claustrophobia
B. Hematophobia
C. Agoraphobia
D. Acrophobia
88. Marie submits herself to humiliation, beatings, and other forms of physical abuse, for sexual excitement.
What type of paraphilia does she possess?
A. Masochism
B. Martyr
C. Sadism
D. None of these
89. It means a child Incapable of committing an offense or crime_____.

A. Doli Incapox
B. Doli Incopax
C. Doli Incapax
D. Doli Inca Pas
90. PNP Chief Reyes did not make his promise to prevent crimes within 6 months.
A. Humility
B. Word of Honor
C. Humble
D. Boastful
91. A personality disorder characterized by an inability to form social relationships and can be classified as
“loners”. A. Paranoid Personality
B. Schizoid Personality
C. Dependent Personality
D. Borderline Personality
92. Dave, angry at his girlfriend, boxed a nearby tree manifests what particular defense mechanism? a.
repression
b. sublimation
c. displacement
d. projection
93. This theory reflects the way people react to a given situation based on the social influences they acquired
from other people that practically determine their behaviors. This theory likewise serves as the learning
process of
delinquent behaviors and considered as one of the most important theory in crime causation
a) Social Disorganization theory
b) Culture Conflict theory
c) Differential Association Theory
d) Social Reaction Theory
94. Ace a 3 year old boy punched her sister Camille. Both of them cried and their father Abon gives them
chocolates. This best describes ______.
a. Neutralization Theory
b. Differential Reinforcement Theory
c. Social Learning Theory
d. Differential Association Theory
95. “Manie sans delire” (madness without confusion) This was the term used by Philippe Pinel describing the
personality that is characterized by an inability to learn from experience, lack of warmth, and no sense of guilt
better known as:
a. psychotic personality
b. psychopathic personality
c. neurotic behavior
d. dementia praecox
96. This theory views crime and delinquency as a result of the frustration and anger people experience over
their inability to achieve legitimate social and financial success.
a. strain theory
b. psychological theories
c. differential association theory
d. labeling theory
97. What is the speculation explains that both conforming behavior and deviant behavior have two reinforcing
elements, the internal control system and the external control system?
a. Containment Theory
b. Conflict Theory
c. Strain Theory
d. Social Disorganization Theory
98. It is the criminal justice model which looks at individual person as naturally good and assumes that every
person is presumed innocent until proven guilty. In this model, the purpose of penalty is for reformation and
rehabilitation and it is geared towards letting some guilty person escape imprisonment than to convict an
innocent person.
a. Crime control model
b. Adversarial
c. due process model
d. inquisitorial
99. City and Municipal is the division of our correctional institution which primarily in charge of those
detention prisoner, awaiting for final judgment of their trial and serving short sentences and under the Bureau
of Jail Management and Penology. While it is true that even the Provincials Jails like the City and Municipal
Jails are under the DILG, it is subject to the control and supervision of the __________?
a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
b. Department of Justice
c. Provincial Government
d. Bureau of Correction
100. It regulates those actions that involve the rights that exist between individuals and it is also concerned
with the fair allocation of resources among diverse members of a community:
a. Fairness
b. Regulatory justice
c. Distributive justice
d. Vindictive justice
CORRECTIONAL ADMINISTRATION
1. The Chief BJMP is retiring by 2019. His successor will assume office by the time the position will be vacant.
In this instance, who will endorse the Director as the next Chief BJMP?
a) Secretary of the DILG
b) Chairman of the Civil Service Commission c) President
d) Secretary of DOJ
2. Mark Dimaano is the third higher ranking officer in command in the Bureau of Correction. What would be
his position and title in the Bureau?
a) Director General
b) Deputy Director General
c) Director
d) Correction Chief Superintendent
3. This refers to a victim-oriented approach to crime that emphasizes restitution for victims. This intervention
advocates reinstating the victim and creating constructive roles for victims in the criminal justice process,
rather than focus on the punishment of criminals.
a) Restoration
b) Reservation
c) Reformation
d) Retribution
4. Jail Officer 2 Henry Sanchez was appointed by the President as the Director of the Bureau of Corrections in
the year 2016. What year would Director Sanchez mandate end his position as the Chief of the BuCor?
a) 2021
b) 2022
c) 2023
d) 2020
5. Mrs. Delila was given an executive clemency by Chief Executive which changes her heavier sentence to a
less serious one or a longer term to a shorter term. This executive clemency refers to what?
a)Amnesty
b)Commutation
c) Pardon
d) Reprieve
6. Instaneously upon the issuance of a probation order by the court to the probationer, who among the
following is accountable to inform the probationer the penalty of such order and explain to him that failure to
comply the conditions, he shall serve the penalty imposed?
a) Director of Prison
b) Probation Administrator
c) Probation Officer
d) Judge of the Trial Court
7. During the reception of an inmate with his documents before entering the jail or prison, the committing
officer should check the body of the inmate for any birth marks or tattoos and other body marks. What
category of search should be conducted by the officer?
a) Body Search
b) Frisk Search
c) Strip Search
d) Rub Search
8. Maryann Quijano is a dentist inside the penitentiary. Based on the RA 10575, what type of corrections
Officer does she belong?
a) Admin’s Officer
b) Reformation’s Officer
c) Custodial Officer
d) Engineering’s Officers
9. All but one is the major rehabilitation program of Probation…

a) Volunteer Probation Aide Program
b) Retributive Justice
c) Therapeutic Community
d) Restorative Justice
10. Randolf Mendoza was convicted of a crime of murder and was committed to San Ramon Prison and Penal
Farm. If you are to classify Rodelio, what classification of prisoner would he be?
a) Provincial Prisoner
b) Insular Prisoner
c) Municipal Prisoner
d) City Prisoner
11. This punishment gives lesson to the offender by showing to others what would happen to them if they
violate the law. a) Atonement
b) Protection
c) Deterrence
d) Reformation
12. The investigation report of a Probation officer shall be submitted to the court not later than –
a) 40 days from the recipient of the order
b) 18 days from the recipient of the order
c) 35 days from the recipient of the order
d) 60 days from the recipient of the order
13. Following category of prisoner shall not be considered for conditional pardon EXCEPT:
a) The petitioner is eligible for parole
b) The petitioner had been sentenced to another prison within 1 year from the date of his last recommitment
to the jail.
c) The prisoner is suffering from mental illness. d) At least (2) years of the minimum sentence is convicted of
murder or parricide but not sentenced to reclusion perpetua.
14. Jail Officer Juaquin Delgado is aspiring to become the Chief BJMP in the future. At least what rank should
the said officer meet as the law requires and qualifies him to be on the highest position as the Chief BJMP?
a) Jail Senior Superintendent
b) Jail Chief Superintendent
c) Jail Superintendent
d) Jail Director
15. What is the punishment that should be provided by the state whose sanction is violated, to afford the
society or individual the opportunity of imposing upon the offender suitable punishment as might is one
justification of punishment called:
a) Deterrence
b) Incapacitation
c) retribution
d) Atonement
16. Emilio Puchunkuy was convicted for multiple crimes and his own conviction involves imprisonment so that
he will be prevented from committing similar crimes. This purpose his imprisonment is known as.
a) Reformation
b) Prevention
c) Incapacitation
d) Retribution
17. Gael Harrison Makalintal who is sentenced to serve a prison terms of over three (3) years is also known
as… a) National or Insular Prisoner
b) City Prisoner
c) Municipal Prisoner
d) Detention Prisoner
18. A central principle of the British Democratic Maxwell Jones type of TC in which the residents can freely
express their thoughts and emotions without any negative repercussions.
a. Permissiveness
b. Democracy
c. Communalism
d. Reality testing
19. The jail warden generally exercise supervision and control over all personnel in the jail unit and the
inmates in all matters related to the following EXCEPT ONE: ) Always upholds human rights and observes the
code of conduct
b) Endeavors to promote personal and professional growth of subordinates
c) Leads and enforces a high standard of discipline among his personnel
d) Acts as chairman of the inmate’s disciplinary machinery
20. What the Central Principle of the British Democratic Maxwell Jones-type TC in which there is a face-to-
face communication and free interaction to create a feeling of sharing and belonging.
a. Communalism
b. Democracy
c. Permissiveness
d. Reality Testing
21. What justification of punishment has been emphasized when Mr. Ryan a prisoner stays for good at the
correction institution whereby society in the future will be save from harm by Mr. Ryan?
a) Reformation
b) Deterrence
c) Protection
d) retribution
22. Under the rules, a parolee who violates provision of parole should be recommitted the prison to serve
the__ a) Remaining unexpired portion of his maximum sentence
b) Remaining unexpired portion of his minimum sentence
c) Quarter or 1/4 of the un served portion of his sentence d) All of the above
23. Failure to report for work detail without sufficient justification.

a) Minor offenses
b) Allowed in the jail
c) Grave offenses
d) Less grave offenses
24. Mr. Arnold has been imprisoned for almost 5 years, until then he was not given a chance to avail the good
conduct time allowance due to his negative performed in the correctional institution. If given a chance and if
he will display good behavior for three consecutive months, how many days will be deducted from his
penalty?
a) 23 days
b) 25 days
c) 69 days
d) 75 days
25. A behavior shaping tool characterized by a friendly reminder given by a Superior member and a peer to a
young member conducted in a private and formal manner. a. Talk to
b. Pull up
c. Deal with
d. Haircut
26. The ____ Program employs prisoners in various product or good-producing tasks.
A. Agricultural
B. Industrial
C. Operational
D. Administrative
27. The United Nation Standard Minimum Rules for the Treatment of Prisoners (Nelson Mandela’s rules
prescribes those penal facilities should not exceed ____ inmates.
A. 1:500
B. 1:700
C. 1:800
D. 1:1000
28. Mr. Coco, was sentenced to imprisonment on March 21, 2013. On March 25, 2013 the Judge who
promulgated the decision died. What is the effect of the Judge’s death to the service of Coco's sentence?
A. His sentence will not be binding anymore
B. He will have to serve his sentence
C. His sentence will be suspended
D. His sentenced will be reduced
29. To be a ______, one must be at least a 1st class inmate and has serve one year immediately preceding
the completion of the period specified in the following qualification: has served imprisonment with good
conduct for at least 7 years in the case of life imprisonment.
A. 1st class inmate
B. 2nd class inmate
C. 3rd class inmate
D. Colonist
30. Mr. Buboy, is a newly arrived inmate committed for the first time. He is classified as _____ among the
classification of inmates according to privileges. A. 1st class inmate
B. 2nd Class inmate
C. 3rd class inmate
D. Colonist
E. Jail Aide
31. The jail medical Officer or the jail officer designated nurse of the Health Unit will conduct a thorough
physical examination on the newly committed inmate and will note down significant bodily marks, scars,
tattoos and lesions based on the medical certificate presented by the committing officer. He or she must
ensure that his/her findings are congruent to the medical certificate presented. Any discrepancy shall warrant
further investigation by and reporting of the same to the CHR.
A. Social Case Study
B. Medical Examination
C. Dental Examination
D. Psychological Examination
32. It identifies the duties & responsibilities each member is expected to carry out in order that the goals of
the organization can be achieved.
a. TC organizational structure
b. TC job functions
c. TC hierarchical structure
d. TC functional structure
33. The word Diversification means?

A. Proper Integration of Prisoners
B. Proper Segregation of Prisoners
C. Proper Classification of Prisoners
D. Proper Treatment of Prisoners
34. Among the following factors, which would be best determine the extent to which prison functions are
subdivided:
A. Operating system
B. Adequacy of resources
C. Inmates population and size of the prison jail D. Number of prison staff
35. The primary “therapist” and “ teacher” is the , consisting of peers and staff, who as role models of
successful personal change, serve as a guides in the recovery process. a. Client himself
b. Family itself
c.Community itself
d. Resident himself
36. It focuses on free-will, self-determination, and the search for meaning, often centering on the person
rather than on the symptoms. The approach emphasizes the client’s capacity to make rational choices and to
develop to his/her maximum potential
a. client- centered therapy
b. existential therapy
c. gestalt therapy
d. cognitive approach
37. Mr. Harold, 31 years old and passers of Civil Service Professional Examination equivalent to 2nd level
eligibility, if he wants to become Correction Officer I. As a Personnel of the BUCOR is he qualified to become
Correction Officer I?
A. No, because he already reaches the maximum age B. Yes, because as long as he has eligibility
C. Yes, because the maximum age is 40
D. Yes, if he is MNSA or MBA
38. MR. X IS A LAWYER APPLIED IN BJMP. WHAT IS THE RANK?

A. Jail Officer I
B. Jail Inspector
C. Jail Officer II
D. Jail Senior Inspector
39. Who is the 2nd in command in the BJMP according to RA 9263?

A. Deputy Chief for Administration
B. Chief, Directorial Staff
C. Deputy Chief for Operation
D. Any of these
40. Which of these authorizes the release of a detainee who has undergone preventive imprisonment
equivalent to the maximum imposable sentence for the offense he is charged with?
A. Batas Pambansa 85
B. Republic Act 10159
C. Republic Act 10592
D. Republic Act 10575
41. The following are the sub-colonies of Sablayan Prison and Penal Farm. .
A. Central B. Pasugui C. Pusog D. Yapang E. Panabo F. Kapalong G. Sta Lucia H. Inagawan I. Montible J.
Central A. A-B-C-D
B. A-B-G-H
C. A-G-H-I
D. Either of these
42. It is considered as the highest income earner among the Philippine Correctional Institution. A. Iwahig
Prison and Penal Farm
B. San Ramon Prison and Penal Farm
C. Davao Prison and Penal Farm
D. Sablayan Prison and Farm
43. One of the mandatory conditions attached to the Parolee is to report at least once a month for those
residing outside Metro Manila/ or NCR to report at least twice a month for those who are residing in Metro
Manila or NCR.
A. True
B. Partially true
C. False
D. Partially False
44. Mr. Jay is a PPO. His Parolee violated a condition set forth in the Parole condition. To what office shall the
former report violation?
A. Parole and Probation Administration
B. Bureau of Corrections
C. Department of Justice
D. Board of Pardons and Parole
45. Those that have been once on Probation under the Probation Law:
A. Are qualified to apply for Probation
B. Are disqualified to apply for Probation C. May be granted for another Probation
D. Should be confined in Prison
46. Mr. Garry was convicted of a crime that carries a penalty of eight years and one day. As a Probation
Officer will you recommend him for Probation?
A. No. Because it exceed the maximum impossible penalty
B. No. Because no probation will be granted if there is no PSI
C. Yes. He can appeal for the imposable penalty as a law provided
D. Yes. Because it is the job of the Judge or trial court
47. Who among the following convicted drug pushers may place under probation?
A. John, who is a first time offender and 20 years old B. Mathew, who is a first time offender and 25 years old
C. Teodulo, who is a third time offender and 21 years old D. Ramon, who is a second time offender and 21
years old. E. None
48. Which among the following is NOT included in the Therapeutic Community Beliefs?
a. Belief in the Higher power
b. Individual must take responsibility
c. Inherent goodness of man
d. No man is an island
49. The following are some of the characteristics of standard parameters for the residents in jail camp,
EXCEPT: a. Adequate space for sleeping and habitation that
respects the individual’s personal space. b. Confidentiality is respected and practiced.
c. Absence or minimal incidence of jail violence/disturbance. d. Respect the hierarchy and chain of command.
50. How long was the duration of the pre-morning meeting? a. Fifteen minutes daily
b. One hour daily
c. Thirty minutes daily
d. Two hours daily
51. Mr. Emman, was sentenced in 2003 to a minimum prison term of three years and one day. He applied for
probation and he was granted probation in 2008. He was included in a robbery and with a prison term of less
than three years. If he applied for probation is he qualified?
A. Yes. His prison term is less than six years
B. No. His prison term is less than three years C. Yes. There is five years gap between his second offense and
the first offense.
D. No. He is second time offender, and probation shall be given once.
52. The Therapeutic Community (TC) Program represents an effective, highly structured environment with
defined boundaries, both_________ and___________. a. Social and emotional
b. Moral and ethical
c. Physical and environmental
d. Spiritual and mental
55. This TC Unwritten Philosophy means “a reward for working hard is well deserved. We get what we put
into.” a. Compensation is valid
b. b. Pride in quality
c. Personal growth before vested interest
d. To understand rather than be understood
54. If Mr. Karl violated sec. 29, of PD 968. Violation of Confidential Nature of Probation Records, with a penalty
of imprisonment ranging from six months and one day to six years and a fine ranging from hundred to six
thousand pesos shall be imposed upon any person who violates Section 17 hereof. Is he qualified for
Probation?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Maybe
D. Partially true
55. A document serves as a basis for Court’s decision to grant or deny the application for probation. A. Pre-
Sentence Investigation Report
B. Post-Sentence Investigation Report
C. Pre-Executive Clemency Investigation Report D. Pre-Parole Investigation Report
56. In Probation, the Court may also require the person placed under it to do the following except A. Pursue
vocational training program
B. Refrain from finding a means of living C. Stop from visiting houses of ill repute
D. Undergo medical, psychological and psychiatric treatment
57. The Court may grant Probation after conviction of the Trial Court. The SC grant Probation in the
impeachment case.
A. Both sentence are correct
B. The first sentence is correct and the second sentence is wrong
C. Both sentence are wrong
D. True and False
58. May a drug pusher avail probation?

A. Yes. Because it allows pusher to enter plea to lesser offense of possession of drug
paraphernalia under section 12 of RA 9165 in a case involving of shabu of not more than .99
grams of marijuana of not more than 9.9 grams.
B. No. Because it depreciate the seriousness of the offense. C. No. Because it is prohibited under RA 9165 to
avail Probation.
D. NOTA
59. In consonance with the principle of presumption of innocence, the 1987 Philippine Constitution recognizes
and guarantees the right to bail or to be released on recognizance as may be provided by law. In furtherance
of this policy, the right of persons, except those charged with crimes punishable by Death, Reclusion
Perpetua, or ________, to be released on recognizance before conviction by the RTC, irrespective of whether
the case was originally filed in or appealed to it, upon compliance with the
requirements of this Act, is hereby affirmed, recognized and guaranteed

A. Life imprisonment
B. Reclusion temporal
C. Prision mayor
D. Aresto menor
60. The accused released on recognizance shall have the following obligations. Except.
A. To appear before the proper court whenever required by the court or these Guidelines.
B. To undergo drug test, and/or drug dependency examination as may be required by the court. C. To allow
the probation officer to visit his home or his place of work
D. None of these
61. The custodian shall have the following qualifications. except

A. A person of good repute and probity.
B. A resident of the barangay where the accused resides. C. He must not be a relative of the accused within
the fourth degree of consanguinity or affinity.
D. He must belong to any of the following sectors and institutions: church, academe, social welfare, health
sector, cause-oriented groups, charitable organization/s engaged in the rehabilitation of offenders duly
accredited by the local social welfare and development officer
E. He must be a public officer
62. The grant of Release on Recognizance aims (OBJECTIVE) the following except.
A. Guarantee the appearance of the accused before any court when so required;
B. Prevent the undue incarceration of an accused who may be released after trial unless proven guilty.
C. Protect the people and the peace of the community which may be disturbed upon the temporary release of
the accused.
D. None of these
63. This is a temporary withholding of sentence (REPRIEVE), before or after judgment; as where the judge is
not satisfied with the verdict, or evidence is suspicious, or indictment is insufficient, or sometimes if it be a
small felony or any favorable circumstances appear in the criminal’s character.
A. Reprieve
B. Executive Reprieve
C. Judicial Reprieve
D. Legislative Reprieve
64. How many hours should the Court notify the Public Prosecutor upon receipt of the motion on release on
recognizance?
A. Within 24 hours from its filing
B. Within 10 days
C. Upon conviction
D. After conviction
65. He is a convicted defendant whose application for probation has been given due course by the court but
fails to report to the probation officer or cannot be located within a reasonable period of time.
A. Disobedient Petitioner
B. Uncooperative Petitioner
C. Absconding Probationer
D. Absconding Petitioner
66. Mr. Lubino arrived at Sablayan Penal Colony as his place of confinement. As for the protection of the said
prison, they stripped out and search the body and the things of the said prisoner.
A. Operation Buy Bust
B. Operation Greyhound
C. Operation Bakal
D. Operation shakedown
67. Robert was convicted to a prison term of prision correctional. Will he qualify for probation?
A. No, his sentence is more than six (6) years and one (1) day
B. Yes, his sentence is less than six (6) years and one (1) day
C. No, his sentence is six (6) years and one (1) day D. Yes, his sentence is three (3) years and one (1)
day
68. Under the rules, a parolee who violates provision of parole should be recommitted to prison to serve the
__________.
A. Remaining unexpired portion of his minimum sentence B. Quarter or 1/4 of the unserved portion of his
sentence C. Remaining unexpired portion of his maximum sentence
D. All of these
69. GUSION, a prisoner from Sablayan Prison and Penal Farm who is serving his sentence up to 20 years.
How many days be deducted in total if he already serves 6 years based on the computation of RA 10592?
A. 1,032 days
B. 1,308 days
C. 1,534 days
D. 1,638 days
70. Ms. X was convicted for the crime of infanticide. After serving her sentence she committed again the
same crime. Ms. X is a?
A. Quasi-recidivist
B. Recidivist
C. Mentally retarded person
D. Habitual delinquent
71. These are considered as minor offenses of inmates as stated in BJMP Manual Section 30, Except: A. Selling
or bartering with fellow inmate(s) those items not classified as contraband; rendering personal service to
fellow inmate(s);
B. Untidy or dirty personal appearance; littering or failing to maintain cleanliness and orderliness in his/her
quarters and/or surroundings; making frivolous or groundless complaints; taking the cudgels for or reporting
complaints on behalf of other inmates;
C. Failure to turn over any implement/article/s issued after work detail
D. Reporting late for inmate formation and inmate headcount without justifiable reasons; and willful waste of
food.
72. Mr. Cruz was convicted of the crime of murder. After 10 days from the promulgation of the sentence, he
escaped from his place of confinement. He maybe A. liable for evasion of service of sentence
B. considered as an escaped prisoner
C. not liable for evasion of service of sentence D. All of these
73. What is the place in some prisons, or a section in prisons where criminals are placed awaiting execution?
A. Death row
B. Garotine
C. Execution room
D. Galley room
74. Jose Manalo, a new detainee, has been issued a “Certification” of its preventive imprisonment because he
refused to abide by the rules imposed upon convicted prisoners. After 10 years, the court convicted him and
will suffer an imprisonment of 20 years. How many is his remaining sentence that he needs to serve
considering the deduction of his preventive imprisonment?
A. 20 years
B. 12 years
C. 11 years
D. 10 years
75. Pedro was a detainee for almost 48 months and has never been involved in any trouble, no matter how
minor. According to Article 97 of the RPC how many days for each month will be deducted from his penalty?
A. 8 days
B. 10 days
C. 5 days
D. None
76. Joshua Nicholas was sentenced to serve an imprisonment of six months, how many years would be the
duration of his probation?
A. One year
B. Two years
C. Shall not exceed two years
D. Shall not be more than six years
77. When shall the prison record and carpeta of a petitioner for executive clemency be forwarded to the
Board of Pardon and Parole (BPP)?
A. Within one (1) month from receipt of the BUCOR Director of the request made by the BPP for the prison
record and carpeta
B. At least one (1) month before the expiration of the minimum of the prisoner’s indeterminate
sentence C. Within three (3) months from receipt of the BUCOR Director of the request of the BPP for prison
record and carpeta
D. Within five (5) months from receipt of the BUCOR Director of the request of the BPP for prison record and
carpeta
78. Jerome was convicted with a penalty of 15 years of imprisonment. One day, a powerful earthquake
destroyed a prison where Jerome escaped and surrendered within 2 days after passing away of the calamity.
How many years will still remain that he will need to serve?
A. 5 years
B. 6 years
C. 9 years
D. 12 years
79. If a prisoner who is serving sentence is found in possession of dangerous drugs, can he be considered a
quasi-recidivist?
A. Yes, because he committed another crime while serving his sentence
B. Yes, because it can be the start of illicit activities in prison C. No, because what he violated is not a
Felony D. A and B
80. A parolee may work or travel abroad if he has no pending criminal case in any court. Application for travel
and work abroad shall be approved by the Administration and confirmed by the _______.
A. Administration
B. Board of Pardon and Parole
C. Regional Director
D. Parole and Probation Officer
81. For a convicted offender, probation is a form of: A. Treatment

B. Punishment
C. Incarceration
D. Enjoyment
82. During the pre-colonial times, the informal prison system in the Philippines was
A. Barbaric and institutionalized
B. Trial by ordeal
C. Tribal and community based
D. Based on the Kalantiao Code
83. As one of the conditions of Probation, how many times in a month shall the probationer report to the
probation officer?
A. Once
B. At least twice
C. More than twice
D. Four times
84. The public will be protected if the offender has been held in conditions where he cannot harm others
especially the public. Punishment is effected by placing offenders in prison so that society will be ensured
from further criminal depredations of criminals.
A. Deterrence
B. Retribution
C. Incapacitation & Protection
D. Atonement
85. The concept of probation, from the Latin word “Probare” which means ___, and has the historical roots in
the practice of judicial reprieve.
A. To make back
B. Parole D’ Honneur
C. Testing period
D. To test or to prove
86. What portion of the sentence of a petitioner must have been served to be eligible for the grant of
commutation of sentence in case of definite sentence?
A. At least one half of the maximum of his indeterminate sentence

B. At least one half of the minimum of his indeterminate sentence
C. At least one third of the minimum of his indeterminate sentence
D. At least Twenty years
87. An order of the proper court allowing the temporary release of an accused to his own recognizance or to
a custodian subject to certain conditions
A. Order of Recognizance
B. Release on Recognizance
C. Order of Arrest and Recommitment
D. Bail
88. Other form of torture similar to stocks which is v shaped yolk worn around the neck and where the
outstretched arms of the convict were tied.
A. Stocks
B. Furca
C. Guillotine
D. Quartering
89. The Panopticon is a type of prison building designed by English philosopher Jeremy Bentham in 1785. The
concept of the design was derived from the word meaning of “Pan” and “Opticon”. “Opticon’ means:
A. To allow an observer to observe
B. Without the prisoner
C. Avoids watching
D. To walk in military manner
90. It refers to prison which is used to confine slaves where they were attached to workbenches and forced to
do hard labor in the period of their imprisonment. A. Underground Cistern
B. Sing – Sing Prison
C. Ergastulum
D. Alcatraz Prison
91. Ace is 17 years old when he was convicted for the crime of theft. Can he apply for probation under P.D.
968? A. No, because his crime is theft
B. No, because he is entitled for parole
C. No, because he is convicted of a crime
D. No, because he is only 17 years old
92. What is referred to as “hustling” inside the prison? A. Doing assigned prison assignment
B. Reporting illegal activities
C. Selling illegal commodities
D. Befriending a prison guard
93. Mr. Sherwin Dela Cruz was convicted for the crime of Estafa with a penalty of 8 years of imprisonment and
he decided to appeal his case to the Court of Appeals, the Court of Appeals gave the same judgment but his
sentenced was reduced to 6 years of imprisonment and afterwards he decided to apply for probation, is he
qualified to apply for probation?
A. No, because he already chosen to appeal
B. Yes, because his sentence is a light felony
C. Yes, because the appellate court gave him a probationable judgment
D. No, because he is convicted of more than 6 years of imprisonment
94. Who has the power to grant/deny the application for parole?
A. Board of Pardons and Parole
B. Chief Executive
C. Parole and Probation Administration
D. Court
95. House bill 393 is otherwise known as: a. an act establishing parole system
b. an act establishing pardoning system in the Philippines c. an act establishing probation in the
Philippines d. an act establishing probation and parole system
96. Violates of the following special penal laws shall disqualify an offender to avail of the benefits of
presidential decree 968, EXCEPT?
a. omnibus election code
b. wage rationalization law
c. robbery
d. video gram law
97. The power of the chief executive to grant pardon is limited to the following, except?
a. pardon cannot be extended to cases of impeachment b. no pardon, parole or suspension of sentence for
the violation of a election law may be granted without favorable recommendation of the comelec
c. pardon is exercise only after conviction
d. pardon is exercise during trial
98. The following are disqualifications for parole to be granted.

I. Who escape from confinement or evaded sentence II. Those who have pending criminal case
III. Habitual delinquents
IV. Suffering from any mental disorder
V. Conviction is on appeal
a. I, II, III and V
b. II, III, IV and V
c. I, II, III and IV
d. I, II, III, IV and V
99. Director of prisons has the responsibility to forward the document to the board, ___________ before the
expiration of prisoner’s minimum sentence. a. 15 days
b. 30 days
c. 45 days
d. 60 days
100. A parolee, upon release from prison through parole shall immediately report to his/her supervising PPO
immediately upon release there from within:
a. 15 days
b. 45 days
c. at least once a month
d. 72 hours
CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION
1. Which of the following should NOT be done by the fire truck driver when crossing an intersection where
there is a traffic control?
A. Wait for the light to change
B. See the traffic stop and heed
C. Proceed only when it is safe
D. Must do a full stop
2. Circumstantial Evidence may produce conviction if the following requisites are present. Which of the
following is not included?
A. When there are more than one circumstance present B. When the combination of all circumstances is such
produce a conviction beyond reasonable doubt C. When the facts from which the inference are derived are
proven
D. When the quantum of substantiality of evidence are proven
3. A promise of hope, reward, favor and use of force or intimidation, threat or fear, and other analogous acts
make confession or admission _______, therefore_______. A. Voluntary, not admissible in court
B. Involuntary, Inadmissible in court
C. Involuntary, not admissible in court
D. Voluntary, admissible in court
4. What is the penalty imposed for possession of Dangerous Drug Paraphernalia?

A. 6 months rehabilitation
B. 6 months and 1 day to 4 years and a fine of 50 thousand pesos
C. 4 months and 1 day and a fine of 10 thousand pesos D. 6 years and 1 day to 12 years and a fine of 50 to
200 thousand pesos
5. The heat energy derived from nuclear energy by the splitting of atoms is known as:
A. Radiation
B. Ignition
C. Fusion
D. Fission
6. What do you call an informant who is considered the weakest link in the criminal chain of the gang. A.
Woman informant
B. Mercenary informant
C. False informant
D. Frightened informant
7. Prohibitive signs and restricted signs shall have_______________.

A. Green background with white and black symbols B. Red background with white symbol and black border C.
White background with black symbol and red border
D. Blue background and white symbol
8. Elements of corpus delicti are?

I. Cadaver of the dead victim or evidence of the stolen property
II. Additional evidence of a different character the same point
III. Proof of occurrence of a certain event
IV. Person’s criminal responsibility of the acts
A. I and II
B. III and IV
C. I and III
D. I, III and IV
9. What do you call an act which removes or neutralizes a fire hazard?

A. Distillation
B. Allotment
C. Ventilation
D. Abatement
10. It is the method of shadowing where the operatives are stationed at a fixed place in assumption that the
subject follows the same general route every day.
A. Combined fixed/auto surveillance
B. Fixed Surveillance
C. ABC method
D. Leap frog method
11. When marking the specific evidence such as a revolver, the same must marked on the;
A. Separately on the frame, butt, cylinder, barrel and stock
B. The chamber facing the firing pin as soon as it is opened for examination
C. A and B is correct
D. Either A and B is correct
12. The court which has jurisdiction to hear and try drug cases.
A. Special Court designated by the SC among the existing RTC
B. Heinous Crimes Court designated by the SC among the existing RTC
C. Sandiganbayan
D. Special Court designated by the SC
13. In terms of organizational structure, what is the similarity of organized crimes from the police or the
military? A. Bureaucratic
B. Autocratic
C. Democratic
D. Patrimonial
14. What is the suggested effective mixture of AFF with water to produce a foam?
A. 60% water to 40% foam
B. 94% water to 6% foam
C. 50% water to 50 foam
D. 6% water to 94% foam
15. Within what period should a police officer who has arrested a person liable for the crime of murder by
virtue of a warrant arrest turn over the arrested person to the judicial authority?
A. 12 hours
B. 18 hours
C. 36 hours
D. None
16. In the study of organized crime, a criminal group that is non-ideological and possesses no political agenda
is always motivated by__________.
A. Control
B. Profit
C. Influence
D. Power
17. The appropriate term used to describe the vitiation of freewill by threats and other methods of instilling
fear. A. Coercion
B. Threats
C. Intimidation
D. Duress
18. It is known as an illegal smuggling of alcoholic beverages:

A. Political graft
B. Alcohol legging
C. Butt legging
D. Boot legging
19. Hashish is known to be 8 to 10 times stronger than the commercial trade marijuana because
____________. A. Fruiting top of the plant cannabis sativa
B. Dried flower of marijuana
C. It is concentrated resin extracted from marijuana D. It is finest and high-grade leaves of marijuana
plant
20. If combustion gates propagated at supersonic speed, a shock front develops ahead of it to produce what?
A. Explosion
B. Conflagration
C. Big Fire
D. Detonation
21. Criminal investigation is a responsibility of the first pillar of the criminal justice system. Which among the
following is not considered a function of criminal investigation? A. Identify, collect and preserve evidence
B. Identify, locate and arrest the person who commits the crime
C. Prosecute and convict the criminal
D. Bring the offender to justice
22. What country is believed to be the origin of Mafia and Cosa Nostra?
A. Japan
B. USA
C. China
D. Italy
23. The type of search may be used when the area to be searched is approximately circular or oval. In this
search, the searchers gather at the center and simultaneously proceed toward along a radii or spoke.
A. Grid method
B. Pie method
C. Spiral method
D. Zone search
24. Which of the following is NOT a form of relevant and material information taken from regular, cultivated
or grapevine sources?
A. Physical forms
B. Written
C. Sensory
D. Material forms
25. What is the name of the operation launched by US Navy Seals that killed Osama Bin Laden?
A. Operation Merdeka
B. Operation Neptune Spear
C. Operation Exodus
D. Operation Geronimo
26. Suppose you are investigating a crime with so many suspects, which of the following can help you in
identifying the specific suspect to the crime?
A. Confession
B. Associative evidence
C. Motive
D. Circumstantial evidence
27. A person who is applying for Professional Driver’s license is required to undergo Mandatory Drug Testing.
A. True
B. Yes
C. No
D. False
28. All of the following statements are false, except: A. R.A. 9165 did not remove the distinction between
regulated and prohibited drugs
B. R.A. 9165 defined regulated drugs as dangerous drugs C. R.A. 9165 differs dangerous drugs from prohibited
drugs D. R.A. 9165 gives a single definition of dangerous drugs
29. In case there are two (2) vehicles which approach an intersection at approximately the same time, the
vehicle_________ should give the right of way. A. coming from the right
B. one which arrives first
C. coming from the left
D. coming from the center
30. The Yakuza is known as the most influential Japanese organization of criminals. This is organized into
families which adopt a relationship called:
A. Kapuki-nimu
B. Imo-Yamakuto
C. Oyabun-Kobun
D. Bakuto
31. A complainant executed this when he no longer wishes to pursue a case against an accused or defendant
in a court case. The complainant states that he/she didn’t really intend to institute the case and he/she no
longer interested in testifying or prosecuting.
a. Affidavit of witness
b. Affidavit of arrest
c. Affidavit of desistance
d. Affidavit of complaint
32. This is a statement given under oath and penalty under perjury. This states about facts and circumstances
about the arrest, the information which led to the arrest and the observation made before and after the
arrest. This is filled out by the arresting officer.
c. pcos
33. An affidavit which contains the following: the name of the accused, the designation of the offense by the
statute, the acts or omissions complained of as constituting the offense, the name of the general offended
party, the approximate time of the commission of the offense, and the place wherein the offense was
committed.
34. This is a legal and binding document of written testimony of a witness as a way for evidence to be
presented to the court. It is usually filled out by a lawyer, and then filed as part of the case.
35. Report writers are greatly expected to be in grammar and all its governing rules
a. well-groomed
b. well informed
c. well-versed
d. well-mannered
36. There are writers who write without:

a. considering
b. reconstructing
c. thinking
d. writing
37. Beat Inspection Reports are also called Before Patrol Reports.
a. True
b. False
c. Yes
d. No
38. In counting of crime incidents, only consummated, and not, statutory rapes shall be included.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. No
39. Only consummated carnapping cases are to be recorded.

a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. No
40. is the study of the interactions between organisms and their environment.
a. environment
b. ecology
c. forestry
d. demography
41. The word economy came from greek word ? a. oikos

b.eikos
d. ikos
42. means any matter found in the atmosphere other than oxygen, nitrogen, water vapor, carbon dioxide, and
the inert gases in their natural or normal concentrations, that is detrimental to health or the environment,
which includes but not limited to smoke, dust, soot, cinders, fly ash, solid particles of any kind, gases, fumes,
chemical mists, steam and radio-active substances;
a. air pollutant
b. air pollution
c. pollution
d. polluted
43. Angel throws her unsegregated garbage on a damsite because her house is near on a damsite. Basedon
the Philippine Environmental Laws, what law did she violate? a. Philippine Clean Air Act of 1999
b. Philippine Clean Water Act of 2004
c. Ecological Solid Waste Managemnt Act of 2000 d. Toxic Substance, Hazardous and Nuclear Waste Control
Act of 1990
44. What are the 3 R’s to conserve natural resources? a. Reuse, Reduce, Recycle
b. Reduce, Recycle, Reuse
c. Reuse, Recycle, Reduce
d. Reduce, Reuse, Recycle
45. Mean any emissions and fumes which are beyond internationally-accepted standards, including but not
limited to World Health Organization (WHO) guideline values; a. "Poisonous and toxic fumes
b. Pollution control device"
c. "Pollution control technology"
d. Standard of performance
46. The part where the words “MEMORANDUM FOR” is used if sends to a superior office or “MEMORANDUM
TO” if sends to a subordinate.
a. Letterhead
b. Addressee
c. Heading
d. Attention
47. The part of memorandum which contains the date, subject, thru channels and addressee.
a. Letterhead
b. Addressee
c. Heading
d. Attention
48. A man who suddenly casts sand upon the eyes of the victim and then stabs him to death is liable for what
offense? A. Parricide
B. Homicide
C. Physical Injuries
D. Murder
49. He who kills an illegitimate grandfather or an illegitimate grandson is not guilty of parricide, but of
homicide or murder.
A. The above statement is inadmissible
B. The above statement is partly correct
C. The above statement is true

D. The above statement is erroneous
50. Physical evidence which may identify the criminal by means of clues or personal properties is known as: A.
Real evidence
B. Associative Evidence
C. Tracing Evidence
D. Circumstantial Evidence
51. Mr./Ms. Future Police Officer, as a general rule, can you arrest a person without a warrant?
A. Yes, if the person arrested has escaped from prison B. Yes, by means of in flagrante delicto/caught in the
act C. Both A & B
D. No
52. Drug addicts when under the influence of drugs are menace to the community because they:
A. Feel no restraint in committing crimes. B. Ruin their life/health
C. Flagrantly immoral
D. Are violently insane
53. Terrorist group led by Abu Bakr al-Baghdadi, whose aim is to establish an Islamic state in the world.
A. Abu Sayyaf
B. ISIS
C. Jemaah Islamiyah
D. Al Qaeda
54. Injection, inhalation, ingestion or other means of dangerous drugs to the body by one person to another
is __________.
A. Administer
B. Drug use
C. Taking
D. Addict
55. The person who provides the investigation with confidential information concerning a past crime or a
projected/planned crime and does not wish to be known. A. Surveillant
B. Confidential
C. Informer
D. Confederates
56. When an accused directly acknowledges his guilt before a court of law, it is referred to as?
A. Extrajudicial Confession
B. Judicial Confession
C. Admission
D. Confession
57. What drugs are synthetic that stimulate the central nervous system and are commonly referred to as
“uppers”? A. Amphetamines
B. barbiturates
C. Naptha
D. Diazepam
58. What enforcement action consists of taking a person into custody for purpose of holding or detaining him
to answer a charge of violation before a court?
A. Traffic enforcement
B. Traffic investigation
C. Traffic patrol
D. Traffic arrest
59. B is less than three days old. He is a child of X by his paramour Y. B is killed by X to prevent his discovery
by X’s legitimate wife, Z. The crime committed by X is: A. homicide
B. infanticide
C. parricide
D. murder
60. It means "The Base', is a global militant Islamist organization founded by Osama bin Laden and Other
militants.
A. Taliban
B. Al-Qaeda
C. Buko Haram
D. Jemaah Islamiah
61. What drugs produce sensations such as distortions of time, space, sound, color and other bizarre effects?
A. opiates
B. narcotics
C. heroine
D. hallucinogens
62. The primary reason a finished sketch is made from a rough sketch is for _____________.
A. scale and proportion
B. accuracy and clarity
C. future use
D. courtroom presentation
63. A yellow or white line with a dotted white line do not mean EXCEPT
A. overtaking is extremely dangerous
B. that you cannot overtake if the solid line is on your side
C. absolutely no overtaking
D. overtaking is possible when other lane is clear of oncoming vehicle
64. These are motor vehicles owned by government offices and are used for official purposes only.
A. private
B. public utility vehicles
C. government
D. diplomat
65. Free flowing travel, stop time and acceleration or deceleration are the elements of what we call? A. time of
travel
B. vehicle travel time
C. speed
D. transportation
66. It literally mean Islamic Congregation, It is a Southeast Asian militant Islamist terrorist organization
dedicated to the establishment of a Daulah Islamiyah (regional Islamic caliphate) in Southeast Asia founded
by:
A. Abu Bakar Bashir
B. Abu Sayyaf
C. Buko Haram
D. Jemaah Islamiah
67. Under the concept of three (3) stage negotiation, negotiation must be performed through opening,
bargaining, and ____.
a. Negotiating
b. Closing
c. Goodbye Joe
d. Containing
68. This is a type of hostage-taker which is viewed as a group of psychopaths with a cause, all under the
leadership of one of the group. When caught in a criminal act, many of them rationalize their behavior by
claiming to be revolutionaries who are merely seeking social justice. This hostage-taker is known as ___.
a. Criminal Hostage-taker
b. Fanatic Hostage-taker
c. Psychotic Hostage-taker
d. Terrorist Hostage-Taker
69. Under the Eight Stage Negotiation Process if the hostage negotiator tries to understand the hostage-taker
and the negotiator also seek to hear and listen to the captor, what is the process practiced by the hostage
negotiator?
a. Preparing and Opening
b. Opening and Arguing
c. Signaling and Exploring
d. Packaging and Sustaining
70. The Dangerous Drug Board shall be composed of how many members?
A. twelve
B. seventeen
C. ten
D. four
71. What is the state arising from the repeated administration of a drug on a periodic or on a continuing
basis?
A. Habituation
B. Drug addiction
C. Drug dependence
D. Physical dependence
72. What is street name for morphine?

A. dust
B. monkey
C. lahar
D. bata
73. Considered to be one of the prime suppliers of Heroin in Asia is the so called Golden Triangle where 80%
of illicit drugs of the world originate. This lies on the borders of? a. Thailand-Laos-Burma
b. Thailand-Laos-Myanmar
c. Iran-Afghanistan-Pakistan
d. Peru-Colombia-Bolivia
74. Also known as Papaver Somniferum and considered as the mother drugs of other narcotics substance: a.
Codaine
b. Heroine
c. Opium Poppy
d. Morphine
75. The form of physical dependence, severe craving for the drug event to the point of interfering w/ the
person’s ability to function normally:
a. Tolerance
b. Addiction
c. Habituation
d. Psychological Dependence
76. Marijuana has been one of the most abuse hallucinogens in the Philippines and its control becomes difficult
according to some authorities due to the fact that:
A. It is easy to smoke it secretly
B. It is sellable in the market
C. It is easy to cultivate
D. It is in demand
77. Drugs that is commonly used by athletes having the properties of increasing stamina and/or energy. A.
Ecstasy
B. Shabu
C. MDMA
D. Anabolic Steroid
78. It is the removal of toxic substances from the body as a result of abusing drugs:
A. Cleansing process
B. Aversion treatment
C. Abstinence
D. Detoxification
79. What is the material which produces and liberates its own oxygen when heated?
A. radiation
B. oxidizing agent
C. conductor
D. vapor
80. The lowest section of an extension ladder is known as: A. heel

B. bed ladder
C. butt
D. fly ladder
81. Which of the following occur when a room is heated enough that flame sweep over the entire surface? A.
oxidation
B. back draft
C. flash over
D. combustion
82. The term describes the transfer of heat through a gas or vacuum in a similar way to that of light.
A. ignition
B. convection
C. radiation
D. conduction
83. Most malicious fires are set by individuals secretly, it is either set for revenge or self aggrandizing; or set
by psychotic fire setter, or for sexual gratification. A. group fire setter
B. arson for profit
C .fire starter
D. solitary fire setter
nervous person,
84. The primary course of action in case of a fire. A. pack up and flee
B. run for your life
C. call an ambulance
D. raise the alarm
85. What are the “right questions” to ask in arson investigator interviewee in any fire investigation? A. Ask
hypothetical questions that would put interviewee at ease
B. Ask open- ended questions that would make him relate in his own words what he saw
C. Check at all times whether questions are easy to comprehend
D. Ask close- ended questions, as they are simple, direct and answerable by yes or no
86. Except, How can identification be made on a decomposed cadaver and/or charred corpse?
A. study his bones
B. study his skull
C. study his dentures
D. study hair DNA strands
87. What is that physical evidence which linked the suspect to the crime scene or offense?
A. Associative evidence
B. Circumstantial evidence
C. Tracing evidence
D. Corpus delicti
88. The process of identification by witness of the unknown suspect mixed with innocent persons lined before
the witness.
A. Verbal description
B. Physical show- up
C. Physical line- up
D. General Photographs
89. These are information provided by the underworld characters such as prisoners or ex- convicts.
A. Regular
B. Grapevines
C. Cultivated
D. Special
90. The use of one or more electrical appliances or devices which draw or consumes electrical current beyond
the designed capacity of the existing electrical system. A. self- closing door
B. overloading
C. jumper
D. oxidizing material
91. There are three tools of the police investigator: Information, interrogation and instrumentation. Of these
three, information is deemed the most important simply because it answers the question_______.
A. “what is malicious”
B. “why did it happen”
C. was a weapon used”
D. “who did it”
where the investigators choosing propitious moments shout out a pertinent question and appears as though
they themselves are in rage?
A. Pretense
B. Bolt
C. Bluff
D. Jolt
93. During a conflagration, the smoke emitted is grayish, what does it indicate?
A. presence of nitrate
B. indicate humid substance
C. loosely packed substance such as straw and hay D. presence of phosphorus
94. Marijuana often called grass, Indian hemp or weed is a crude drug made from cannabis sativa, a plant that
contains a mind-altering ingredient. Which one is NOT an immediate effect of marijuana?
A. acute panic anxiety reaction- external fear of losing control
B. altered sense of time/ distortion
C. impaired reflexes coordination and concentration D. moderate heart beat and pulse rate
95. You are an investigator, investigating a suspected rape slaying case which was allegedly witnessed by a
certain person who volunteered to identify and testify against the perpetrator. What are the factors that you
should not consider to determine the accuracy of his identification of the suspect?
a. His ability to observe and remember the distinct appearance of the suspect
b. The prevailing conditions of visibility and observation when the crime was committed
c. His state of mind when he witnessed the commission of the crime
d. The lapse of time between the criminal event and when identification was made
96. Person who by social or professional position possesses or has access to information of continuing interest,
and who willingly provides information to the police either in response to a specific request or his own
initiative.
a. Incidental informant
b. Casual informant
c. Automatic informant
d. Recruited informant
97. Under Republic Act 7438, when does the police’ custody of suspect to a crime commence, hence the latter
is entitled to be informed of his rights under the Miranda doctrine which cannot be waived?
a. At the time of custodial investigation
b. During the actual questioning
c. During the announcement that he is under arrest d. At the moment that he is invited for
questioning
98. Application of all procedures for the search of missing persons.

a. Rogues gallery
b. Tracing
c. manhunt
d. order of battle
out what is illegible
99. Principles in homicide investigation that should be borne in mind are, mistakes of the homicide
investigator cannot be corrected and the homicide investigator should not cross the three bridges which he
burns behind him. Which of the following is not one of this so called “Burned bridge”?
a. When the dead person has been moved
b. When the dead body has been embalmed
c. When the dead body has been contaminated and the chain of custody was not properly
accounted d. When the body is burned or cremated
100. Which of the following is not an element of corpus delicti?

a. Proof of the occurrence of certain event
b. Person’s criminal responsibility for the acts
c. Additional evidence of a different character to the same point
d. Proper chain of custody
FORENSIC SCIENCE
1. Who among the following invented the hologram in 1948 which is the creation of unique photographic image
without the use of a lens?
A. Nicephore Niepce
B. Alfred Steichen
C. Theodore Jude
D. Dennis Gabor
2. What part of a camera with a central aperture which is adjustable for its size in order to regulate the amount
of light to enter the lens or optical system?
A. Diaphragm
B. Shutter
C. Shutter speed dial
D. Shutter release
3. What refers to the small rectangular opening found on top of the camera which allows the photographer to
compose and frame the shot?
A. Aperture
B. View finder
C. Shutter
D. Image sensor
4. Most of the time, a suspect will leave behind evidence known as latent print which are made up of what
substance? A. Furrows of the skin
B. Sweat and oil of the skin’s surface
C. Ridge formation
D. Ridges of the skin
5. A police investigator must know that he can freeze a moving object to help him visualize its position at any
given moment, what kind of shutter will produce the image?
A. Fast
B. Normal
C. Slow
D. General
6. Which of these refers to the art of determining the character or disposition of person by analyzing his
handwriting? A. QD Examination
B. Graphology
C. Haplography
D. Calligraphy
or what has been effaced.
A. Decipherment
B. Collation
C. Obliteration
D. Comparison
8. What was done, when one retouches or goes back over a defective portion of a writing stroke?
A. retracing
B. shading
C. pressuring
D. patching
9. What KIND of light is already existing in an indoor or outdoor setting that is NOT caused by any illumination
supplied by the photographer?
A. Split
B. Ambient
C. Steady
D. Short
10. Which is not a process of developing using the ninhydrin method?

A. immersion
B. spraying
C. dusting
D. brushing
11. The first man noted for the used of the word “Polygraph” A. Thomas Jefferson
B. Francis Galton
C. G. Gallilleo
D. Sir James Mackenzie
12. If investigators mark new evidence, the whole series of shots including all evidence shots, what MUST the
investigators do?
A. No need to re-shoot
B. Re-shoot for new evidence
C. Secure the area
D. Collect all the evidence
13. What type of a film has the longest range of sensitivity in the electromagnetic spectrum called?
A. orthochromatic film
B. blue-sensitive film
C. panchromatic film
D. infra-red film
14. What do you do with fingerprinting in case of temporary disabilities?

A. Delayed until wounded finger is cleaned up
B. Done with care so that pressure shall not be felt C. Held back until injury is healed
D. Taken three days after
15. A lens defect which enables the lens to focus both horizontal and vertical lines in a plane at the same time
A. Coma
B. Astigmatism
C. Distortion
D. Chromatic aberration
16. The determining factor of the size of an image as well as the area of coverage of a given camera lens is
the? A. focal length
B. hyper-focal distance
C. Diaphragm opening
D. Depth of field
ectile with more than
17. It is placed just to the left of the primary in the classification formula. Where whorls appear in the thumbs
following the whorl tracings sub secondary classification A. subsecondary
B. major division
C. key
D. final
18. The reducers or the developing agents.

A. Elon, Hydroquinone
B. sodium carbonate
C. sodium sulfate
D. potassium bromide
19. The need for long and continuous washing in water of a negative or finished print is to remove the
presence of___________ because its presence will result to the early fading.
A. Sodium sulfite
B. Potassium alum
C. Acetic acid
D. Hypo
20. Error in the processing step like overdevelopment could be remedied by the sued of a:
A. reducer
B. intensifier
C. dye-toning
D. stain remover
21. The rearward reaction of the firearm in relation to the forward movement of the bullet upon firing?
A. Misfire
B. recoil
C. Hangfire
D. ricochet
22. The stillness or the steadiness of the bullet in flight? A. key hole shot
B. ricochet
C. yaw
D. gyroscopic action
23. The actual pattern or curve path of the bullet in flight. A. curve
B. trajectory
C. gyroscopic action
D. drop of bullet
24. What is considered as the utmost used of photography in police work?
A. For identification
B. For preservation
C. For record purpose
D. For court presentation
25. It is the distance at which the gunner has the control of shot. Where the bullet travel straight.
A. Maximum range
B. Accurate range
C. Maximum effective range
D. Effective range
26. The size of the bullet grouping on the target? A. Terminal penetration
B. Terminal energy
C. Terminal accuracy
D. Muzzle velocity
one inch diameter?
A. small arms
B. machine gun
C. artillery
D. Cannon
28. f 20 gauge is to .615”, 28 gauge is to .550” then for a 12- gauge shotgun has an equivalent diameter of:
a. 775” or 10 Gauge
b. 729”
c. 670” or 16 Gauge
d. 410” or .410 Gauge
29. European made firearm are usually referred in millimeter in determining calibers, when you talk of 9mm you
are referring to?
a. .38 caliber
b. .22 caliber or .559 mm
c. .45 caliber or 1.143 mm
d. .30 caliber or 7.63 mm
30. In document examination when referring to contemporary documents this refers to______?
A. Document which is more than 5 years before and after. B. Document which are not more than 5 years
before and after
C. Document which are more than 30 years
D. Document which are not more than 20 years
31. It refers to the group of muscles which is responsible for the formation of the upward strokes.
A. Flexor
B. Cortex
C. Lumbrical
D. Extensor
32. Stroke where the motion of the pen precedes the beginning and continues beyond the end of a vanishing
point and are found on free natural writing and as a rule are important indication of genuineness.
A. Hiatus
B. Stem, Shank or Staff
C. Flying start and finish
D. Buckle knot
33. Which of the following is the major concern when a document is being questioned?
A. Ownership
B. Authenticity
C. Quality of paper used
D. Age
34. In questioned documents, what kind of SIGNATURE is used by a forger tried to reproduce without the
knowledge of the owner of the signature for financial gain?
A. Model
B. Actual
C. Real
D. Evidential
35. The following are the chemical examinations for semen, except:
a. Florence Test
b. Barberio’s Test
c. Kastle-Meyer Test
d. Acid-phosphatase Test
36. The word Polygraph was derived from what word? A. Poly and Graph
B. Many writings chart
C. Greek
D. Latin
37 These are mixtures of chemicals that burn very rapidly, but sub sonically meaning that they “deflagrate.”
They consist typically of fuel and an oxidizer. The black powder used in fireworks is one example of this.
a. high explosives
b. low explosives
c. bomb
d. urea nitrate
38. A Hindu book of science and health which is considered one of the earliest references on detecting
deception. A. Ayur Vida
B. Dharmasatra of Gautama
C. Vasistra of Dharmasastra
D. Legendary red book by Chaps
39. The Raid polygraph differs from the Keeler’s in the following respect except:
A. An adjustable and portable chair is employed wherein metal bellows are inserted in the chair arm rests.
B. The chair seat is directly attached to recording bellows in the machine to form closed pneumatic systems.
C. Three additional recordings are made by this method D. There is no need of using corrugated rubber
tubing.
40. Refers to any agent that neutralizes poison and its effects A. Emetics
B.Antidotes
C. Antibiotics
D. Alkaloids
41. The Raid polygraph differs from the Keeler’s in the following respect except:
A. An adjustable and portable chair is employed wherein metal bellows are inserted in the chair arm rests.
B. The chair seat is directly attached to recording bellows in the machine to form closed pneumatic systems.
C. Three additional recordings are made by this method D. There is no need of using corrugated rubber
tubing.
42. Which of the following is true about Polygraph machine? A. It is a machine that can diagnose subject
B. It is a lie detector machine
C. It is capable of interpreting and drawing conclusion. D. It is a machine that detects physiological
responses.
43. The polygraph machine should be _________ in relation to the credibility and competence of the examiner?
A. Indirectly proportion
B. Substitute to investigation
C. Supplementary to investigation
D. Directly proportion
44. States that once contact is made between two surfaces a transfer of materials will occur
a. Bertillonage principle
b. Galton’s details
c. Gross principle
d. Locard’s exchange principle
45. The best way to conduct a thorough interview is for the investigator to:
A. allow himself sufficient time for adjustment
B. permit the interviewee to give narrative statement C. be guided by a pre-arranged checklist
D. Devote adequate time for an interviewee’s evaluation.
46. An inhibition of a previous activity of an organism as a result of stimulation.
a. Response
b. Reaction
c. Stimuli
d. Fear
47. What usually set the tone or condition and creates the atmosphere during the interrogation?
A. interrogator’s behavior
B. questioning style of the interrogator
C. the type of crime involved
D. the subject’s personal history
48. What usually set the tone or condition and creates the atmosphere during the interrogation?
A. interrogator’s behavior
B. questioning style of the interrogator
C. the type of crime involved
D. the subject’s personal history
49. It refers to any outside force coming from the environment, which could excite a receptor or any of his
organs. A. Stimulus
B. Response “Reaction to stimulus”
C. Reaction “Action in mental attitude”
D. Emotion
50. It refers to an emotional response to a specific danger which appears to go beyond a person’s defensive
power. a. Response
b. Deception
c. Stimuli
d. Fear
51. An irrelevant question added before and after a relevant question?

A. Padding question
B. Relevant Question
C. Control or Comparison Question
D. None of the above
52. What is NOT included when an examiner needs to identify a particular typewriter used in questioned
document? A. Relation of the characters and the vertical and horizontal alignment
b. Size and design
c. Vertical position of the characters in relation to the line of writing
d. Brand and make
53. The normal amount of semen per ejaculation of a normal built person?
A. 1.5 to 3.5 cc
B. 2.5 to 3.5 cc
C. 3.5 to 5.5 cc
D. 3.5 to 4.5 cc
54. What is known as the reproduction of an impression made on soft surface by utilizing casting materials?
A. dry fusion
B. metallic aides
C. moulage
D. plaster of Paris
55. After the capturing of image needed for investigations, what is an important procedure the police
photographer must do?
a. To show to friends
b. To document
c. To keep
d. To show to friends
56. What kind of a solution is used in the restoration of serial numbers?

A. saturated solution of sodium bicarbonate
B. colloidal magnesium
C. etching solution
D. borax solution
57. What is the last stage in the toxicological examination? A. qualification

B. multiplication
C. quantification
D. division
58. Person who is qualified to conduct toxicological examination?

A. Physician
B. medico-legal
C. forensic examiner
D. forensic pathologist
59. It is a change of the color of the body after death when blood accumulates in the dependent portion of the
body. A. Rigor mortis
B. livor mortis
C. algor mortis
D. none of the above
60. Molecular death is a kind of death where:

a. there is loss of life of the individual cells of the body b. It is usually pronounced by the physician
c. It occurs immediately after death
d. There is a transient loss of vital functions of the body
61. The elements of violent death are the following EXCEPT one.
A. That the victim at the time the injuries were inflicted was in normal health
B. That death may be expected from physical injuries C. That death ensued within a reasonable time
D. That death ensued from a lingering illness
62. The cuticle of the animal hair is:

A. Rounded
B. serrated
C. oblong
D. circular
63. What is an unpleasant often strong emotion caused by anticipation or awareness of danger when a subject
subjected to polygraph examination?
a. Fear
b. Panic
c. Irritation
d. Nervousness
64. What is a waxy substance derived from the body fat and is caused by hydrolysis and hydrogenation of
adipose tissue? A. adipocere
B. lipo
C. saponification
D. none of these
65. Deaths due to injuries inflicted in the body by some forms of outside force.
A. violent death
B. Euthanasia
C. sudden death
D. Post-mortem caloricity
66. The following judicial executions were exercised in the Philippines except.
A. judicial hanging
B. electrocution
C. musketry
D. lethal injection
67. It is a complete and persistent cessation of vital reactions such as respiration, circulation and almost all
brain functions. A. death
B. somatic death
C. apparent death
D. molecular death
68. Which of the following is a more conclusive sign of death– A. cessation of respiration
B. cessation of heart function and circulation
C. cooling of the body
D. heating of the body
69. A muscular change characterized by the softness of the muscles and no longer responds to mechanical or
electrical stimulus due to dissolution of protein.
A. Primary flaccidity
B. stage of secondary flaccidity
C. Post mortem rigidity
D. Putrefaction
E. Decomposition
70. Maggots are seen in dead bodies particularly in warm countries within how many days from death.
A. l day
B. 2 days
C. 3 days
D. 4 days
71. Stages in blood changes where blood goes to the dependent portion of the body but not yet solidify. A. livor
mortis
B. hypostatic lividity
C. diffusion lividity
D. cadaveric spasm
72. An adult has only ____bones

A. 200
B. 202
C. 204
D. 206
73. Dissolution of the natural continuity of any tissue of the living body is called
A. fracture
B. wound
C. dislocation
D. contusion
74. The science of projectiles and firearm.

A. Ballistics
B. Forensic Ballistics
C. Modified Ballistics
D. Applied Ballistics
75. It is the measurement of the bore diameter from land to land.
A. Mean diameter
B. Gauge
C. Rifling
D. Calibre
76. It refers to the measure of the twisting of the lands and grooves or one complete turn.
A. lands and grooves
B. Bullet twisting
C. Bore diameter
D. Pitch of rifling
77. In gunshot wounds, when there is evident burning of tissues and blackening of the skin, it may be
ascertained that it is a near contact fire meaning that the distance of the body to the gun is approximately.
A. 6 inches
B. 12 inches
C. 18 inches
D. 24 inches
78. A form of ligature strangulation in which the force applied to the neck is derived from the gravitational drag
of the weight of the body?
A. hanging
B. strangulation by ligature
C. smothering
D. none of these
79. A person who is considered dead if no rate of fall of body temperature is about
A. 10 to 15°F
B. 20 to 25° F
C. 15 to 20°F
D. 25 to 30° F
80. Period of time wherein the body would be completely skeletonized under normal conditions in tropical
countries A. 1 month
B. 3 months
C. 6 months
D. 12 months
81. He stated in his book (anatomische kupfertafein nebst dazu geharigen) that although the arrangement of
the skin ridges is never duplicated in two persons, nevertheless, the similarities are closer among some
individuals. Hence, the birth of the principle of permanency of fingerprint patterns.
a. Marcello malpighi
b. Francis galton
c. Johannes purkinje
d. JCA Mayer
82. A person who commits a crime would always leave traces such as hairs, prints and other minute pieces of
evidentiary materials which may be considered as an integral part in the identification of the suspect. In case
he leaves "latent prints", he can also be traced. These prints are made through the;
a. ridges of the skin
b. furrows of the skin
c. perspiration on the opposite side of the volar skin d. perspiration on top of the finger
83. The different test to determine peripheral circulation are the following, except
a. Magnus test
b. Diaphanous test
c. Icard’s test
d. Winslow’s test
84. The following officials of the Philippine Government are authorized to conduct death investigation, except a.
Provincial and City Prosecutors
b. Judges of the RTC, MTC
c. Director of NBI
d. Public Prosecutors
85. The following statements are important in death determination. Which is not valid?
a. Civil personality of a natural person is extinguished by death
b. Civil property of a person is transmitted to the heirs, if not, to the government
c. The death of the partner is one of the causes of dissolution of partnership agreement
d. The criminal liability of a person is extinguished by death
86. Post-mortem lividity maybe due to any of the following, except:

a. hypostasis
b. autolysis
c. diffusion
d. suggillation
87. The following statements are important in death determination. Which is not valid?
a. Civil personality of a natural person is extinguished by death
b. Civil property of a person is transmitted to the heirs, if not, to the government
c. The death of the partner is one of the causes of dissolution of partnership agreement
d. The criminal liability of a person is extinguished by death
88. He pioneered in the making of a breech loading firearms and founded the great firm Smith and Wesson.
A. Horace Smith
B. Samuel Colt
C. Daniel Wesson
D. John Browning
89. It is the system used in the Philippines at present which is handled by a medico-legal officer who is a
registered physician duly qualified to practice medicine in the Philippines. a. medical jurisprudence
b. medico- legal system
c. medical evidence
d. physical evidence
90. A fixed point on a primer against which the priming mixture is compressed and thereby detonated by action
of the firing pin.
A. Vent/Flash hole
B. Paper disc
C. Anvil
D. Primer
91. A type of asphyxia death associated with the failure of the arterial blood to become normally saturated with
oxygen. a. anoxic death
b. anemic anoxic death
c. stagnant anoxic death
d. histotoxic anoxic death
92. It is any unusual pattern of sexual behavior including habitual, preference and completing need for sexual
gratification by any means except sexual intercourse which results to bodily excitement
a. virginity
b. sexual intercourse
c. prostitution
d. sexual deviation
93. Mr. Barton was caught stealing the personal belongings of Mr. Rogers particularly a pale of paint. When Mr.
Barton fled together with the stolen item, he did not noticed that there was a hole in the pale that cause a
continues dropping of the paint. These drops of paint are example of physical evidence which can be
considered as…
a. corpus delicti evidence
b. associative evidence
c. tracing evidence
d. none of these
94. A bullet covered with thick coating of a copper alloy to prevent leading is known as:
A. Plated bullet
B. Jacketed bullet
C. Metal cased bullet
D. Metal point bullet
95. If the number of gunshot wounds of entrance and exit found in the body of the victim is even, the
presumption is that no bullet is lodged in the body, but if the number of gunshot wounds entrance and exit is
odd, the presumption is that one or more bullets might have been lodged in the body. What principle is this?
a. presumption of similarity
b. odd-even rule
c. principle of infallibility
d. numbering principle
96. A victim of homicide was found lying on the floor at his own apartment. On the deductive process of the
investigation, the cause of the victim’s death is asphyxia by applying pressure to the latter’s neck while the
assailant using his arms was on the back of the victim. The statement best describes:
a. strangulation
b. burking
c. throttling
d. mugging
97. What is the principle which states that when the court has once laid down a principle of law as applied to a
certain state of facts, it will adhere to and apply to all future cases where the facts are substantially the same?
a. jurisprudence
b. stare decisis
c. criminalistics
d. forensic
98. Classification of physical injury wherein the victim Boss Watha is incapacitated for work or requires medical
attendance for more than thirty (30) days.
a. grave physical injury
b. serious physical injury
c. less serious physical injury
d. slight physical injury
99. What is the process of dissolution of tissues by the digestive action of its enzymes and bacteria that result to
softening and liquefaction of tissues are usually accompanied by the liberation of foul odor smelling gases and
change of color of tissues?
a. putrefaction
b. decomposition
c. mummification
d. maceration
100. The following are the methods of approximating the height of an individual except:
a. The distance between tips of the middle finger of both hands with the arms extended laterally and it will
approximately equal to the height
b. 2x the length of 1 arm + 12 inches from the clavicle and 1.5 inches from sternum is the height
c. Approximately 8 times the size of the head equals the height of the person
d. 5x the length of the pelvic bone is the approximate height of the person
LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION
1. Eugene Sakuragi joined the PNP in 1996. He was 29 years old then. What year can Eugene retire if he wants
to avail the mandatory retirement?
a. 2017
b. 2031
c. 2032
d. 2023
2. Dr. Dalisay is a Doctor of Philosophy; he opted to join the Philippine National Police. What would be his initial
rank upon entry?
a. P / Captain
b. P / Major
c. P / Lieutenant
d. none
3. Which of the following is a Superior Officer? A. Personnel of the Police department who have oath and who
possess the power to arrest.
B. One having supervisory responsibilities, either temporarily or permanently, over officers of
lower rank C. An officer who is in command of the department, a bureau, a division, an area or a district.
D. An officer who has the more senior rank/ higher in a team or group.
4. Josie Rizal was born on June 12, 1986, she finished a Bachelor’s degree in Tourism, She opted to join the
PNP on June 12, 2006. Does Josie Rizal meet the upgraded general qualification in age requirement as
stipulated in RA 8551?
A. Yes, the law provides
B. It depends on the amount of money she will give as entrance fee
C. No, as stipulated in our law
D. No, she needs a backer like a Congressman, Mayor or even the president
5. The policing system during the Norman period which is claimed as the forerunner of the word sheriff,
whereby England is divided into fifty five (55) military districts, each headed by a ruler in order to enhance
policing was…
A. Magna Carta
B. Tun Policing
C. Shire Reeve System
D. Frankpledge System
6. A system applied by patrol division that has been proven to be very effective patrol procedure. This is being
performed by identifying a certain area subject to a high crime rate and spends a greater part of their patrolling
time is referred to as;
A. law enforcement
B. preventive enforcement
C. selective enforcement
D. traffic enforcement
7. It is the way individuals relate to objects, events and ideas that may influence work or social relationships.
a. Personalism
b. Particularism
c. Familialism
d. Values orientation
8. There are five factors that determine character or personality traits, which is not included?
a. Openness
b. Conscientiousness
c. Covetous
d. Extraversion
e. Nueroticism
f. Agreeableness
9. A type of characters which only becomes bad when it’s over and turns a person to become unpredictable.
a. Superstitious character
b. Covetous character
c. Self-realized character
d. Anti-social character
10. This is a negative Filipino trait and attitude where they tend to push each other down to clear the way for
their own gain a. Fatalism
b. Ningas cogon
c. Procrastination
d. Crab mentality
11. This is a family group of people recognized by birth. a. Affinity

b. Consanguinity
c. Jus Soli
d. Jus Sanguinis
12. It is the ability to rely or place confidence to someone, perform a job effectively and work harder for the
benefit of the team.
a. Honesty
b. Integrity
c. trust
d. humility
13. This leadership adopt a serve-first approach and growth mindset to prioritize their organization, employees,
and community above themselves.
a. Democratic leadership
b. Autocratic Leadership
c. Laissez-faire Leadership
d. Servant leadership
14. This measure refers to the ability or set of skills needed to make good decisions, based on normative
models of decision making.
a. Competence measures
b. Style measures
c. approach measures
d. choice measures
15. It consists of motivating others to perform various tasks that will contribute to the accomplishment of goals
and objectives.
a. Planning
b. Leading
c. organizing
d. controlling
16. The following are functions of management in police service, which is not included?
a. empowerment and participative management styles b. intellectual challenges, stimulation, and
motivation c. Police managerial networks
d. Police managerial skills and competencies
e. None of them
17. What is the other term for a foreigner?

a. alien
b. citizen
c. subjects
d, monarchs
18. It is loyalty owed by a person to his state.

a. patriotism
b. devotion
c. obedience
d. allegiance
19. Conducted in-person with the intended recipients of the plan rather than an anonymous target population
of beneficiaries. Techniques include in-person conversations with a focus on mutual learning and field surveys.
a. Incremental planning
b. Transactive planning
c. Advocacy planning
d. Radical planning
20. These outline the essential precepts regulating the PNP's moral standards, attitude, and behavior.
a. Fundamental doctrines
b. Ethical doctrine
c. Functional doctrines
d. Primary doctrines
21. The termination of employment and official relations of PNP member who rendered less than 20 years of
active service in the government.
a. Retirement
b. Separation
c. Attrition
d. Legal leave
22. Aviation Security Group Strategic Plan against terrorist attacks

a. Oplan Salikop
b. Oplan Jumbo
c. LOI Pagpapala
d. Oplan Bantay Dalampasigan
23. This strategy's positive feature includes a higher sensitivity to the unforeseen and unfavorable
consequences of the plan. To what does this statement refer?
A. incremental planning
B. advocacy planning
C. transactive planning
D. radical planning
24. What strategy is it if it contains a plan for your subordinates' schedules as well as items and processes,
supposing you are the Chief of Police of a particular city?
A. operational plan
B. contingency plan
C. programmatic plan
D. strategic plan
25. These managers consider themselves to be infallible and act as their employees' representatives while
making decisions. They make decisions regarding both what must be done and how to go about doing it
a. Democratic
b. Autocratic
c. Bureaucratic
d. Laissez-Faire
26. This power demonstrates influence based on specialized abilities or knowledge since it is predicated on the
idea that wisdom comes through experience
A. Informational Power
B. Referent Power
C. Influential Power
D. Expert Power
27. The separation of Church and State shall be inviolable. Inviolable means_____
a. Prone to tarnish
b. Never to be broken, infringed, or dishonored c. Indispensable
d. Nota
28. An officer who has the more senior rank/higher in a group or team.
a) Sworn Officer
b) Commanding Officer
c) Superior Officer
d) Ranking Officer
29. The police organization can be structured to attain effective, efficient and economical police service.
Following are the organic units that form part of the components, EXCEPT: A. Operational Unit
B. Service Unit
C. Auxiliary Unit
D. Administrative Unit
30. How many percent is added for every year of active service rendered beyond 20 years?
a. 5%
b. 3%
c.10%
d. 2.5%
31. The lowest administrative penalty

a. reprimand
b. restriction
c. admonition
d. forfeiture of pay
32. Who was the first Secretary of National Defense? A. Teofilo Sison
B. Artemio Ricarte
C. Ramon Magsaysay
D. Tomas Cabili
33. The function of PCG, designed to help prevent or minimize unnecessary loss of lives and properties at sea
A. MARSAF
B. MARSEC
C. MARSAR
D. MARLEN
E. MAREP
34. All except one uses a centralized system of policing. A. Israel

B. France
C. United States
D. Philippines
35. In Japan Police Force, it is the highest rank in the system, the chief of metropolitan police department.?
A. Commissioner General
B. Superintendent General
C. Chief Superintendent
D. Corporal
36. These are residential police box in Japan is usually staffed by a single officer. It is typically located outside
of urban districts in villages and is operated by one community officer, who resides with his family in this police
facility.
A. Sokoiya
B. Chuzaisho
C. Koban
D. Kobun
37. This system uses measurement of crime control efficiency and effectiveness based on absence of crime or
low crime rate? A. continental policing
B. modern policing
C. modernization
D. colonization
38. Under the rules and function of Australian Federal Police, the AFP falls under the portfolio of:
A. Home Affairs Ministry
B. Attorney-General
C. Minister for Home Affairs
D. Minister for Justice and Customs
39. It is traditional in nature as it is based its crime control efficiency to the number of arrest and people being
put to jail for punishment.
A. continental policing
B. modern policing
C. modernization
D. colonization
40. This is a package of transnational flows of people, production, investment, information, ideas and authority.
A. Manufacturing
B. Globalization
C. Internationalization
D. Transnational
41. The Organization known simply as Interpol is the A. International Police Association
B. Association of Chief of Police
C. International Criminal Police Organization D. None of the Above
42. Police officers in England were referred to as A. Public servants

B. State servants
C. law enforcers
D. bobbies
43. In the Philippine National Police, we use the word "trainees" to refer to those newly recruited members. In
the Indonesian Police, police trainees are called
A. Kamara
B. Kama
C. Kamra
D. Karma
44. The importance of the firm or installation with reference to the national economy security
a. relative vulnerability
b. relative necessity
c. relative criticality
d. relative security
45. What security is involve in the protection of classified papers from loss, damage and compromised through
disclosures?
A. Industria
B. Warrant
C. Document
D. Physical
46. These are barbed wires placed above the vertical fence in order to increase physical protection of
establishments or installations
A. Top tower
B. Top guard
C. Cellar guard
D. Tower guard house Guard Control Station
47. Common weakness for a sentry dog when used as an animal barrier.
a. Ability to check identity
b. Keen sense of smell and hearing
c. Incorruptible
d. Loyalty
48. In security survey, who is NOT involved in crime prevention, but creates a situation that defer crime? A.
Manager
B. Investigator
C. Surveyor
D. Personnel
49. Is a visual or audible signaling device, which initiates conditions of associated circuits.
a. Alarm
b. Barrier
c. Protective Alarm
d. Annunciator
50. Term given to the requirement that the dissemination of classified matters be limited strictly to those
persons whose official duties require knowledge thereof.
a. Need to know
c. Dissemination
d. Classification
d. Tagging
51. It is an irresistible urge to steal items of trivial value. a. The need or desire
b. The criminal tendency
c. The psychological need
d. All of the above
52. Practical test or exercise of plans or any activity to test its validity, an operational readiness exercise
a. Dry run
b. Exercises
c. Drill
d. All of the above
53. Type of code system so that security personnel or any employee when forced by armed men intending to
enter an installation can five alarm by the use of certain words. a. Duress Code
b. Coded Code
c. List Code
d. Secret Code
54. One of the operative functions of the police personnel which is directly related to the study of the labor
supply of jobs, which are composed of the demands for employees in the organization to determine future
personnel requirement’s which either to increase or decrease.
a. Police recruitment
b. police personnel planning
c. police placement
d. police compensation
55. What type of PLAN is a series of preliminary decisions on framework which in turn guides subsequent
decisions that generate the nature and direction of an organization? A. Procedural
B. Operational
C. Strategic
D. Police
56. It is the formal process of choosing the organizational mission and overall objective for both the short and
long term as well as the divisional and individual objectives based on the organizational objectives.
a. Directing
b. Planning
c. Organizing
d. Managerial decision-making
57. What police plans refer to actions to be taken at designated location and under specific circumstances?
a. Management plans
b. Operating plans
c. Procedural plans
d. Tactical plans
58. They are concerned with the specific purpose and conclude when an objective is accomplished or a problem
is solved.. A Standing Plan
B. Functional Plan
C. Time Specific Plan
D. Procedural Plan
59. Developed in anticipation of problems. Although not all police problems are predictable, many are, and it is
possible for a police department to prepare a response in advance. a. Reactive plans
b. Proactive plans
c. Visionary plans
d. Operational plans
60. In SWOT analysis, “W” means: STRENGTH, WEAKNESSES, OPPORTUNITIES AND THREATS
A. Vulnerabilities
B. Threats
C. Intelligence
D. Win
61. A doctrine that provides guidance for specialized activities of the PNP in the broad field of interest such as
personnel, intelligence operation, logistics, planning etc.
A. Operational
B. Functional
C. Ethical
D. Fundamental
62.It is a vantage spot adjacent to and either side of the control point being used by a buddy foot control.
a. Patrol standby points
b. Control point
c. Visibility point
d. Choke point
63. The most common method of mapping.

a. Grid method
b. Point method
c. Zone method
d. Nota
64. The Three (3) criteria used to test the solution of a plan, whether for the police or military are feasibility,
acceptability and
A. Suitability
B. . Solvability
C. Possibility
D. Adaptability
65. The principle describing explicitly the flow of authority refers to;
A. principle of balance
B. principle of unity objective
C. scalar principle
D. unity of command
66. PMaj Alday drafted a Patrol Plan which requires the personnel to bring poncho (raincoat) especially during
rainy days. This statement implies what?
A. Flexibility
B. Contingency
C. Interoperability
D. Documenting
67. To prevent and control crimes is on of the PNP’s what? A. Mission

B. Vision
C. Principle
D. Aspiration
68. The CODE-P strategic plan of the PNP under the administration of Gen. A. Purisima, being the Chief
PNP,states that C in the acronym CODE is –
A. Control
B. Competence
C. Coordination
D. Crime prevention
69. These are work programs of the top management unit which related to the nature and extent of the
workload and the availability of resources.
A. Administrative plan
B. Operational plan
C. Tactical plan
D. OPLAN
70. What is becoming central to policing and crime reduction in 21st century?
A. Investigation
B. Surveillance
C. Crime mapping
D. Patrol
71. When the statistics show that snatching is rampant in the university belt, if you are the Chief of Police, what
will be your action?
A. Investigate
B. Observation
C. More police visibility in the area
D. Do mapping
72. What can help law enforcement agency's process of collecting and storing information in the data base? A.
Geographic System for Police
B. Geographic Information System
C. Geographic Manual for Police
D. Geographical Police System
73. It involves systematic analysis for identifying and analyzing patterns and trends in crime and disorder
a. Crime Analysis Mapping
b. Thematic Crime Mapping
c. Computer Mapping
d. GIS
74. A type of crime mapping which offers limited utility because they are difficult to keep updated, keep
accurate, make easy to read and can only display a limited amount of data – a. Mapping
b. Computer Mapping
c. Thematic Crime Mapping
d. Manual Pin Mapping
75. The GIS components are the following except: a Data Representation
b. Data features/visualization
c. Scale d. Querying
d. NOTA
76. A type of thematic map that represents each data a point with a dot and are a great wat to measure
density. A. Heat maps
b. Isoleth map
c. Dot density map
d. Graduated symbol maps
77. __________ argues that patriotism can be compatible with morality, as love for our country need not
override all other moral considerations.
a. Stephen Nathanson
b. Leo Tolstoy
c. Marcia Baron
d. George Kateb
78. __________ nationalism is a radical form of imperialism that incorporates autonomous, patriotic sentiments
with a belief in expansionism and in superiority or dominance. a. Ethnic
b. Civic
c. Expansionist
d. State
79. __________ to create a fair power-balanced multipolar world.

a. Patriotism
b. Decentralization
c. Marxism
d. Humanism
80. Nationalism may prevent people from learning new languages. This statement is true?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Maybe
d. Uncertain
81. __________ serve their country and seek to uplift it intellectually, materially and morally.
a. Patriotism
b. Cosmopolitans
c. Loyalty
d. Nationalistic
82. All of the following are members of the People’s Law Enforcement Board, EXCEPT:
A. Three (3) members chosen by the Peace and Order Council from among the respected members of the
community B. A bar member chosen by the Integrated Bar of the Philippines
C. Any barangay captain of the city/municipality concerned chosen by the association of barangay captains
D. Any member of the Sangguniang Panglunsod
83. This act shall be known as the “Flag and Heraldic Code of the Philippines.”
a. RA 8491
b. RA 8184
c. RA 8418
d. RA 8814
84. A leadership quality that ensures each subordinate is accountable for their actions by praising them when
they succeed and forcing them to admit their errors and cooperate to get better when they fail.
a. Commitment and Passion
b. Good Communicator
c. Accountability
d. Creativity and Innovation
85. “The state shall establish and maintain one police force, which shall be national in scope and civilian in
character, to be administered and controlled by the NAPOLCOM. The authority of local executives over the
police units in their respective jurisdiction shall be provided by the law
a. Sec. 6, Art XVI in the 1987 Constitution b. Sec 3, ART X in the 1935 Constitution
c. Sec 6, Art XI in the 1987 Co nstitution
d. Sec 6, Art XVIII in the 1987 Constitution
86. Which of the following strategies is not true? A. patrol officers are assigned to the New Cops on the Block B.
foot patrol places the patrol officers to greater danger than mobile patrol
C. helicopter patrol is of no use in search and rescue operation
D. the PNP does employ foot patrol
87. A global police communications system developed by the INTERPOL to exchange crucial data quickly and
securely is a cornerstone of effective international law enforcement. a. 24/7 Communication System
b. I-24/7
c. 1-7 INTERPOL System
d. 24/7 NCB’s System
88. 1. The advisable cruising speed in automobile patrol ranges from:

A. 20-25 mph
B. 20-25 kph
C. 60-80 kph
D. 50 kph
89. To determine a supervisor’s span of control, what has to be taken into consideration?
a. The number of superiors who gives him orders b. The number of superiors to whom he reports c. The
functions for which he assumes full responsibility d. The maximum number of subordinates that a
superior can effectively supervise
90. This type of plan is intended to guide PNP members on routine and field operations and some special
operations A. Extra Departmental plan
B. Tactical Plan
C. Operational Plan
D. Policy or procedural plan
91. Barbed wire fences standard wire is twisted, double strand, 12-gauge wire with 4 point barbs spaces in an
equal part. Barbed wire fencing should not be less than ___ high excluding the top guard.
a. 8 feet
b. 7 feet
c. 9 feet
d. 6 feet
92. Nicy is planning to build his house in one of the nicest subdivision in their town of Tagaytay City; he plans
to have many forms of security so that no one has an access to his property. If Nicy going to include the
quality of the building exterior of his dream house this is considered as?
a. First line of defense
b. Second line of defense
c. Third line of defense
d. All of these
93. A lock which is commonly installed in safe deposit boxes and is deemed pick proof since it is operated by
utilizing combinations of a dial.
a. None
b. Combination lock
c. Card Operated Locks
d. Disc Tumbler locks
94. Which of the following is NOT a false key? a. picklock or similar tool.
b. a duplicate key of the owner.
c. a genuine key stolen from the owner.
d. any key other than those intended by the owner.
95. The Normal weight of a safe is at least:

a. 500 lbs.
b. 1000 lbs.
c. 750 lbs.
d. 600 lbs.
96. PO1 to SPO4 shall be appointed by the regional director for regional personnel and by the PNP Chief for
national head quarters’ personnel and attested by the: A. Commission of Appointment
B. Civil Service Commission
C. National Police Commission
D. Professional Regulation Commission
97. Security guard even not in duty can effect a warrantless arrest as long it is accordance in Rules of Court a.
True
b. False
c. Partially True
d. Partially False
98. (1) A country is under obligation to admit properly documented foreigner. (2) Any person may be
extradited. a. Statement No.1 is correct
b. Statement No. 2 is wrong
c. Statement No. 1 is wrong but Statement No. 2 is correct
d. Both No.1 and 2 are wrong
99. PNP members under the waiver program but are dismissed for failure to comply with the requirements can
re apply to the PNP?
A. Maybe Yes
B. Absolutely Yes
C. Maybe No
D. Absolutely No
100. The Chief PNP had been in the service for 36 years and received a Base Pay of 25,000 pesos a month.
How much will be his Longevity Pay?
A. 5,000 pesos
B. 7,500 pesos
C. 10,000 pesos
D. 12,500 pesos
CRIMINAL LAW AND JURISPRUDENCE
1. Under our existing criminal procedure, what automatically enter a plea of not guilty if the accused refuse to
plea? a. prosecutor
b. Court
c. guardian
d. defense lawyer
2. The venue to hear criminal cases may be changed when the a. Prosecution and the accused agree
b. Complainant opted to change it
c. Trial court so ordered
d. Supreme Court so ordered
3. In criminal law, when one speak of capital offense, it connotes that an offense wherein the imposable penalty
when committed as charged is what?
a. divisible
b. indivisible
c. prision mayor
d. reclusion perpetua
4. Under R.A. 7438, custodial investigation shall include the practice of issuing an invitation to a person who is
investigated in connection with an offense he is suspected to have committed. This statement is:
a. True
b. False
c. Partially true
d. Partially false
5. Right to appeal is a:

a. Natural right
b. Constitutional right
c. Statutory right
d. Civil right
6. Can a person convicted of Bigamy still be prosecuted for concubinage?
a. No
b. Yes
c. Maybe
d. It depends
7. After all the passengers of Cebu Pacific aircraft have boarded already and exterior doors were already closed;
a passenger was shot or killed in the course of Hi- Jacking the airplane. What crime was committed?
a. Violation of Anti Hi-Jacking Law
b. Murder as the Ani Hi-Jacking Law does not apply c. Piracy
d. Qualified Piracy
8. Matt goes to a sauna parlor and finds a descendant of 2 years old, and despite that, Matt had sexual
intercourse with her, regardless of her reputation or age What crime committed?
a. qualified seduction
b. seduction
c. consented seduction
d. no crime was committed
9. This is one of the grounds on the motion to quash and anchored on the question of authority of the court to
hear and decide the case. What is this ground?
A. lack of preliminary investigation
B. lack of love
C. lack of jurisdiction
D. improper venue
10. A, with intent to kill B, shot the latter but the gun would not fire because A forgot to load his gun with
bullets. What crime was committed by A under these circumstances? A.Attempted murder
B.Frustrated murder
C. No murder
D.Impossible crime
11. Under the Rules of Court, when is the party (prosecution or defense) considered to have rested its case?
A. after the prosecution has offered its exhibits. B. as may be ordered by the court.
C. as may be agreed during pre-trial.
D. after the court has ruled on the formal offer of evidence.
12. A Moro, with four wives who are all living him, kills by poison the third wife married by him is answerable
for a. parricide
b. murder
c. homicide
d. death under exceptional circumstances
SITUATION: OSCAR is a police officer. HIPOLITO is the offender. ERIKA is a victim.
13. from the forgoing situation, suppose that HIPOLITO in the commission of the crime of murder against
ERIKA ensured that ERIKA cannot retaliate or cause harm against the former, what is the applicable modifying
circumstances?
A. Exempting
B. Aggravating
C. Alternative
D. Mitigating
14. from the forgoing situation , suppose that HIPOLITO used the presence of 4 relatives to ensure that ERIKA
cannot retaliate against HIPOLITO at the time he inflicted physical injuries against ERIKA, what is the
applicable modifying circumstances?
A. Exempting
B. Mitigating
C. alternative
D. Aggravating
15. From the foregoing circumstances, suppose that ERIKA is a woman. HIPOLITO took advantage of his
position as he is also a police officer so that she was able to have carnal knowledge against the will of ERIKA.
What is the applicable modifying circumstances?
A. Exempting
B. Mitigating
C. Aggravating
D. Alternative
16. Duterte with a revolver shot Roxas, missing him but the bullet hit Binay who is Duterte'sfather. Duterte
committed the crime of attempted homicide with parricide. What kind of a complex crime is committed?
A. Compound crime (Delito Compuesto)
B. Complex crime proper (Delito Complejo)
C. Complex crime
D. Continuing Crime (Delito Continuado)
17. Mirriam lends Poe the bolo, which was used by Poe in the Murder of Leni, Mirriam is criminally liable as?
A. principal
B. Accomplice
C. Accessory
D. Conspirator
18. A barangay chairman, without any legal except in strong suspicion that the number one police character in
their area will commit a crime, detained the high risk suspect for 10 hours. Is there a crime committed?
A. Illegal detention
B. arbitrary detention
C. Expulsion without legal ground
D. none
19. Maine give birth to a child and abandons the child in a certain place to free herself of the obligation and
duty of rearing and caring for the child because Alden left her. What crime did the Maine commit?
A. Simulation of births
B. Abandoning a minor
C. Infanticide
D. Negligence
20. An unlicensed firearm was confiscated by a Police Insp. Cardo. Instead of turning over the firearm to the
property custodian for the prosecution of the offender, Police Insp. Cardo took the said the firearm. What crime
was committed?
A. Malversation
B. Qualified theft
C. Anti-fencing law
D. Incriminatory Machination
21. In the crime of adultery, sexual intercourse need not be proved by a direct evidence:
a. False
b. True
c. Partially True
d. Partially False
22. Totoy demanded from the victim “tol pera pera lang to dahil kailangan lang. The victim refused to part with
his earnings and resisted. He even tried to get out of the taxicab but Totoy pulled him back and stabbed him.
Randy, Rot-Rot and Jon-Jon followed suit and stabbed the victim with their bladed weapons. The victim was
able to flee from the vehicle without anything being taken from him. The robbery in this case is:
a. Attempted
b. Frustrated
c. Consummated
d. None of the above
23. A killed B by stabbing B in the heart which resulted to B’s death. The witness is the wife of the victim, who
said that a day prior to the killing. A threatened B. Is there a qualifying circumstance in this case?
a. Yes, evident premeditation
b. Yes, treachery
c. Yes, abuse of superior strength
d. None
24. In connection with the preceding number, what crime was committed by A?
a. Homicide
b. Murder
c. Parricide
d. Infanticide
25. Supposing Pedro was found on the street dead with 30 stab wounds at the back. A witness said that he saw
Juan running away carrying a bladed weapon. What crime was committed by Juan?
a. Homicide
b. Murder
c. Parricide
d. Infanticide
26. If a victim parts with his money, in a sense, voluntarily then the crime is:
a. Robbery
b. Bribery
c. Grave Coercion
d. Grave Threats
27. Concealment of dishonor in killing a 3-day old child is not a mitigating circumstance in parricide.
a. True
b. False
c. Partially True
d. Partially False
28. Suppose the expelled fetus could sustain life outside the mother’s womb, the crime is:
a. Abortion
b. Infanticide
c. Murder
d. Parricide
29. Kissing a girl in public and touching her breast without lewd designs committed by a rejected suitor to cast
dishonor on the girl, what crime was committed?
a. slander
b. slander by deed
c. oral defamation
d. all of these
30. X went to the house of his fiancée of 17 years old, her parents being absent, and waiting of that
opportunity, with a renewal of his promise to marry her, he succeeded in having sexual intercourse with her.
What crime was committed?
a. seduction
b. qualified seduction
c. none of the above
d. all of these
31, If a girl, below 12 years old, agreed to the elopement, what crime was committed?
a. forcible abduction
b. kidnapping
c. illegal detention
d. coercion
32. A issued in favor of B for a debt he has incurred a month or so ago. When the check was presented for
payment, it was dishonored. What crime was committed?
a. Estafa
b. Violation of bouncing check law
c. Theft
d. All of these
33. This is the willful and corrupt assertion of falsehood under oath or affirmation, administered by authority of
law on a material matter
a. fraud
b. persons in authority
c. perjury
d. story- telling
34. In complex crime, how is the jurisdiction of court determined?

A. It is determined by the maximum and most serious penalty imposable of an offense forming
part of the complex crime.
B. It is determined by the sum total of the penalty to be imposed in an offense constituting a complex crime. C.
It is determined by the less serious penalty and shall be of the imposable interpreted that would in favor the
accused. D. All of the above
35. Cardo witnessed the commission of a crime but he refuses to testify for fear of his life despite subpoena
being served on him. Can the court punish him for contempt?
A. Yes, requires his testimony
B. No, since no person can be compelled to be a witness against another
C. Yes, since the court needs help in presenting their cases. D. No, since Cardo has a valid reason for not
testifying
36. The filing of complaint with the Punong Barangay involving cases covered by the Katarungan Pambarangay
Rules shall A. Not interrupt any prescriptive period
B. Interrupt the prescriptive period for 90 days
C. Interrupt the prescriptive period for 60 days D. Interrupt the exceeding 60 days
37. Police Insp. Cardo saw 2 suspicious looking persons at dawn; hence, he stopped them. They were carrying
bags. When they were stopped, they ran and when apprehended, an unlicensed revolver was found in the bag.
Is the search without warrant valid or void?
A. Yes, Valid as this is stop and frisk situation;
B. Yes, Probable cause is present when they acted suspiciously C. Yes, they attempted to run when order to
stop, that they are concealing something illegal
D. All of above
38. Any lawyer or members of the bar shall, at the request of the person arrested or of another acting in his
behalf, have the right to visit and confer privately with such person, in jail or any other place of custody at
A. Any hour of the working day only
B. Any hour of the day or, in urgent cases, of the night C. Any hour of Saturdays and Sundays
D. Any hour of the designated visiting day only
39. The head of the office to whom the warrant of arrest was delivered for execution shall cause the warrant to
be executed within ten (10) days from its receipts. Within ten (10) days after the expiration of the period, the
officer to whom it was assigned for execution should ---_____.
A. make a follow up investigation on the progress of the execution of the warrant
B. make a report to the judge who issued the warrant C. execute the warrant by himself
D. apply to the court for another warrant
40. Alden was arrested without warrant in room 206 of Hotel California due to the report of the owner that the
room was being used as a drug den Incidental that arrest, the arresting officers conducted a warrantless search
in another room of the hotel adjacent to Alden's room and the arresting officers obtained pieces of evidence.
The evidence gathered are considered admissible. This statement is correct
A. True
B. False
C. Maybe
D. It depends
41. Every search conducted in a house, room, or premises must be made only in the presence of ----______.
I. The lawful occupant thereof or any member of his family
II. In their absence, in the presence of two witnesses of sufficient age and discretion residing in the same
locality
III. The judge or in absence the media

A. I only
B. II only
C. II and I
D. I, II, III
42. A search warrant is issued purposely to search and seize personal property, which are
I. Subject of the offense
II. Stolen or embezzled and other proceeds, or fruits of the offense
III. Used or intended to be used as the means of committing an offense

A. I and II
B. II and III
C. I and III
D. I, II, III
43. For the purpose of their presentation in evidence, documents are either
A. public or private
B. affidavit or sworn statement
C. handwritten or type written
D. all of the above
44. Original documents is one which:

A. The contents are the subject of inquiry
B. When the subject is in two or more copies are executed at or about the same time, with identical contents
C. When an entry is repeated in the regular course of business, one being copied from another at or near the
time of the transaction.
D. all of the above
45. While on trial the prosecution offered a photograph of a Weapon (knife) used in the commission of a crime,
the defense counsel objected that the photograph offered on the ground that it was a secondary evidence thus
Best evidence rule must be applied.
A. The defense counsel was wrong the photograph presented is a primary evidence the prosecution cannot
produce the weapon as it was dangerous for the public.
B. The defense counsel was wrong the photograph was offered to prove that its was in facts the weapon used
and there place to speak of the best evidence rule.
C. The defense counsel was wrong the best evidence rule applies only to documentary evidence. D.
All of the above
46. . Maine was charged for the violation of BP 22 for issuing a worthless check. During the trial a copy of the
check was offered to prove the issuance of a worthless check. Then it was objected on the grounds that it was
secondary evidence thus, best evidence rule must be applied.
A. The defense counsel was wrong the copy of a check is regarded as original as it was issued by a public office.
B. The defense counsel was wrong the case gravamen is the issuance of a worthless check and not
to its contents.
C. The defense counsel was right the subject of inquiry is on its contents the prosecution must produce the
original. D. The defense counsel was right the original of the check must be produce it is in fact a violation of BP
22.
47. In the preceding scenario what if the copy of check was offered to prove that it was Maine who issued the
said check and it was issued with a certain amount. Then it was counsel objected the offer on the grounds that
it was secondary evidence thus, best evidence rule must be applied.
A. The defense counsel was wrong the copy of a check is regarded as original as it was issued by a public office.
B. The defense counsel was wrong the case gravamen is the issuance of a worthless check and not to its
contents. C. The defense counsel was right the subject of inquiry is on its contents, the prosecution
must produce the original.
D. The defense counsel was right the original of the check must be produce it is in fact a violation of BP 22.
48. During the trial the defense counsel wants to prove that the check was in fact issued by Maine and
presented a witness. The witness testified that he in fact saw that Maine signed the Check then it was objected
on the grounds that the check itself must be produced.
A. The defense counsel was right the testimony is with regard to the issuance of a worthless check and not to
its contents. B. The defense counsel was right the testimony was presented to prove its contents the
prosecution must produce the original. C. The defense counsel was wrong Best evidence rule does not apply to
testimonial evidence
D. The defense counsel was wrong the objection was misplaced on the grounds that the inquiry
involved the execution of the check.
49. Suppose that defense counsel wanted to prove that the check was issued on a certain date and presented a
witness. The witness testified that it was issued on December 8, 2017 then it was objected on the grounds that
the check itself must be produced.
A. The defense counsel was right the testimony is with regard to the issuance of a worthless check and not to
its contents. B. The defense counsel was right the testimony was presented to prove its contents,
the prosecution must produce the original.
C. The defense counsel was wrong Best evidence rule does not apply to testimonial evidence
D. The defense counsel was wrong the objection was misplaced on the grounds that the inquiry involved the
execution of the check.
50. Suppose that the counsel again cannot produce the original of the Check what other excuses may a counsel
invoke for not presenting the Original Document?
A. That the Check was under the control of the party whom the evidence is offered, and the latter fails to
produce it after noticing the said party.
B. When the check is consisting of numerous accounts that the check could not be examined without the great
loss of time and the fact sought to be established from the numerous check is only the general result of the
whole.
C. That the check was a public record and it is in the custody of a public officer or that the check was issued in
a public office D. All of the above
51. It refers to evidence other than the original instrument or documents itself.
A. secondary evidence
B. best evidence
C. original evidence
D. primary evidence
52. A kind of evidence which shows that a best evidence existed as to the proof of the fact is in question
A. Real Evidence
B. Secondary Evidence
C. Best Evidence
D. Res gestae
53. Secondary evidence may prove it contents except A. recital of its contents in some authentic
document B. by the handwriting of the person
C. by the testimony of the witness
D. by a copy
54. Is marital rape recognized in RA 8353?

a. No
b. Yes
c. It depends
d. False
55. The offender in misprision of treason is a principal in such crime. Thus, the penalty to be imposed is that of:
a. An accessory to the crime of treason
b. An accomplice to the crime of treason
c. A principal to the crime of treason
d. A principal to the crime of misprision of treason
56. Sedition may be committed by at least how many persons? a. 2

b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
57. If direct assault is committed and the APA suffers slight physical injury, the proper charge should be:
a. Direct Assault only
b. Direct Assault with slight physical injuries
c. Direct Assault and slight physical injuries
d. Slight Physical Injuries
58. A constructed a small house in a piece of land which he believed to be a disposable public land he had been
occupying the lot for over a year. One day, B came and claimed ownership over the land. B proceeded in
dismantling the house of A. The latter pleaded B to stop but his plea fell on deaf ears. Thereupon, A pulled B to
prevent him from further dismantling the house. In the process, B fell on the ground and suffered physical
injuries. This best illustrates:
a. Self-Defense
b. Defense of Property Rights
c. Doctrine of Self-Help
d. All of the above
59. This is a kind of aggravating circumstance which of necessity accompany the commission of the crime,
therefore not considered in increasing the penalty to be imposed. a. Generic
b. Specific
c. Inherent
d. Special
60. The mayor detained the offended party for three days because to take him to the nearest MTC required a
journey for three days by boat as there was no other means of transportation. The distance which required a
journey for three days was considered:
a. an uncontrollable fear
b. an irresistible force
c. a lawful or insuperable cause
d. an absolutory cause
69. It is a circumstance which affects the act not the actor.
61. Stages of execution do not apply to the following except: a. Offenses punished by special penal laws
b. Formal crimes
c. Crimes committed by mere agreement
d. Material crimes
62. Based on the classifications of felonies, rape, arson, theft and robbery are classified as:
a. Formal Felonies
b. Material Felonies
c. Crimes which do not admit of frustrated stage d. All of the above
63. An ex post facto law is a law which describes the following except:
a. Makes criminal an act done before the passage of the law and which was innocent when done, and punishes
such an act. b. Aggravates a crime, or makes it greater than it was when committed
c. Alters the legal rules of evidence, and authorizes conviction upon less or different testimony than the law
required at the time of the commission of an offense
d. Inflicts punishment without judicial trial, its essence being the substitution of legislative fiat for
a judicial determination of guilt.
64. Penal laws and those of public security and safety shall be obligatory upon all who live or sojourn in the
Philippine territory, subject to the principles of public international law and to treaty stipulations
a. Territorial
b. General
c. Prospective
d. All of the above
65. Man is essentially a moral creature with an absolute free will to choose between good and evil thereby
placing more stress upon the effect or result of the felonious act than upon the man, the criminal himself.
a. Classical Theory
b. Positivist Theory
c. Eclectic Theory
d. Protective Theory
66. If cooperation of the accused consists in performing an act necessary in the execution of the crime
committed, he is a: a. Principal by inducement
b. Principal by indispensable cooperation
c. Accomplice
d. Principal by direct participation
67. If the cooperation is not indispensable, the offender is: a. An accessory

b. An accomplice
c. A principal by indispensable cooperation
d. A principal by inducement
68. Who are criminally liable for grave and less grave felonies? I. Principal
II. Accomplice
III. Accessory
a. I and II
b. I, II and III
c. I only
d. Any of the above
a. Exempting circumstance
b. Justifying circumstance
c. Extenuating circumstance
d. Alternative Circumstance
70. For the act to be punishable in this act of falsification of document, there must be a manifestation that some
prejudice or damage to a third party had been caused or intended to be caused.
a. falsification of commercial document
b. falsification of private document
c. falsification of public document
d. falsification of official document
71. A grandson who kills his illegitimate grandfather is guilty of a. homicide

b. parricide
c. murder
d. euthanasia
Situation - A is convicted for homicide and was sentenced to suffer an imprisonment from 14 years and 1 day to
17 years. While serving his sentence he was alleged to escape from his cell.
72. If the offender is the custodian of the convicted person what crime was committed?
a. infidelity in the custody of prisoners

b. evasion of service
c. delivering prisoners from jail
d. all of these
73. If the offender is not the custodian at the time of the escape of said prisoner. What crime was committed?
a. evasion of service of sentence
b. delivery of prisoner from jail
c. no criminal liability
d. all of these
74. What is liability of the convicted prisoner serving his sentence?

b. delivery of prisoner from jail
d. all of these
75. Any person who, by direct provision of the law, election of appointment by competent authority, shall take
part in the performance of public function in the government or in any of its branches public duties shall be
deemed to be a
a. private individual
b. public officer
c. none of these
d. all of these
76. It is committed by a public officer in charge of the collection of taxes, licenses, fees and etc.by demanding
an amount different or larger than that due by the government: failing to issue a receipt as provided by
receiving payment objects different from that provided by law
a. illegal exaction
b. estafa
c. maturation
d. none of these
77. A who is the private complainant in a murder case pending before a regional trial court, gave too the
presiding judge a Christmas gift. Consisting of big basket of assorted goods and fruits as well as expensive
imported wines, the judge accepted the gift knowing it came from A. what crime or crimes committed?
a. direct bribery
b. indirect bribery
c. qualified bribery
d. none of these
78. A government casher did not bother to put public fund in the public vault but just left in the drawer of his
table, which has no lock. What crime was committed?
a. technical malversation
b. malversation
d. all of the above
79. A party to a case approached the court’s stenographer and proposed the idea of altering the transcript of
stenographic notes. The court stenographer agreed and he demanded P3,000.00 even before the stenographer
could alter his notes. What crime was committed?
a. direct bribery
b. qualified bribery
c. indirect bribery
d. all of these
80. While manning the traffic lights at the intersection of Espana and Washington St. Patrolman X ordered Y to
stop his taxi, threatened to arrest him and confiscate his driver license for allegedly over speeding and reckless
driving. Familiar with the dirty ways of some traffic policeman, Y pulled out his wallet, picked up his driver’s
license with the hidden P200.00 inside the same and handed it to patrolman X thereafter, the patrolman
returned to Y his license and allow him to go. What crime did patrolman X commit?
a. indirect bribery
b. direct bribery
c. robbery extortion
d. corruption of public official
Situation Under Art. 156 delivering prisoners from jail, it is possible that three persons are involved. They are
stranger, the custodian of the prisoner and the prisoner. In the case, there are three crimes committed.
81. If the offender is the custodian, the crime committed is ________?
a. Infidelity in the custody of the prisoners b. No criminal liability
c. Evasion of service
d. None of the above
82. If the offender is stranger even if he is a public officer, the crime committed is?
b. delivering prisoner form jail
c. all of the above
d. none of these
83. If the prisoner who escaped is a convict, the crime committed is?
a. Infidelity in the custody of the prisoners
b. Delivering prisoners from jail
c. Evasion of service of sentence
d. None of these
84. However, if the prisoner is not a convict but a detention prisoner, what is his criminal liability?
a. No criminal liability
d. None of these
85. But if the detention prisoner conspires with the one letting his escape said is liable for _______ as principal
by indispensable cooperation.
a. No criminal liability
d. None of these
86. This crime is committed by a public officer, whenever there is pending before him matter in which a woman
is interested of with respect thereto. He is required to submit a report to or consult with a superior, and he
solicits or makes an indecent or immoral advance upon said woman.
a. acts of lasciviousness
b. abuses against chastity
c. coercion
d. unjust vexation
87. X is the head of a family. Living with them in the house is a cousin of his wife, a virgin under 18 years old
but over 12 years. X had sexual intercourse with the cousin of her wife. What crime was committed?
a. seduction
b. qualified seduction
c. seduction with consent
d. all of the above
88. Under Art.122, Revived Penal Code, the crime of piracy is committed by:
a. Non-member of the complement of the vessel and non- passenger of the vessel
b. Crew members of the vessel
c. All of the above
d. None of these
89. A, B, C and D murdered Pedro in the forest. E, who was an innocent passerby in the forest, accidentally saw
what A, B, C and D had done. A, B, C and D also saw E, and they pointed their guns against E, and forced E to
burn the cadaver of Pedro. Is E criminally liable as an accessory for burning the cadaver of Pedro?
a. No, he acted under the impulse of uncontrollable fear of an equal or greater injury.
b. No, he acted under the compulsion of irresistible force. c. Yes, he acted in conspiracy with the accused.
d. Yes, he had the opportunity to escape.
90. A police officer testifying before the court is allowed to refer to his/her memorandum respecting a matter of
________.
A. question of law
B. fact recorded by his superior
C. opinion of an expert
D. fact he recorded a long time ago
91. A is accused of a crime while B was the witness for the prosecution. Before the trial begins, A and B got
married. Here,
a. B is still qualified to testify against A
b. B is no longer qualified to testify against A
c. B is no longer qualified to testify against A because of the marital disqualification rule
d. B is no longer qualified to testify against A because of the marital disqualification rule, unless A
gives his consent
92. In relation to the preceding question, assume that Attorney X's stenographer or secretary, or anyone of his
employees in his law office was able to overhear the confession made by Y to Attorney X. May anyone of this
employee go to court where the parricide case is pending and testify against Y regarding the admission made
by Y to attorney X?
a. No, because of the lawyer-client privilege
b. Yes, so long as client Y, consents; if he does not, then no. c. As a general rule, no, unless Attorney X gives his
consent. d.No, as a general rule, unless both Attorney X and client Y give their respective consents.
93. What is the Rule in the Evaluation of evidence where the evidence in a criminal case is evenly balanced so
that the constitutional scale is tilted in favor of the accused? A. Balancing Rule
B. Equipoise Rule
C. Presumption of innocence
D. Exclusionary Rule
94. Which of the following are public documents?
1.The written Officials acts, or records of the official acts of the sovereign authority, official bodies and
tribunals, and public officers
II. Documents executed by private persons and acknowledge before a notary public
III. Public records, Kept in the Philippines, of private documents required by law to be entered therein
A. I, II, III
B. I, III
C. I, II
D. II, III
95. In order to determine the veracity of the testimony of the witness against him. The accused has the right
to______
A. Testify on his own behalf

B. Secure the presence of his witnesses in court C. Has the testimony of the witnesses against him D. Cross
examine and confront the witnesses against him
96. The legal officer who presides over the courtroom and directs and controls the trial. A man of learning who
spends tirelessly weary hours after midnight acquainting himself with the great body of traditions and the
learning of the law:
a. Clerk of Court
b. Presiding Judge
c. Stenographer
d. Officer in charge
97. was applying for a Philippine passport. She has been “Tago ng Tago” in Japan for so long. B agreed to issue
a new passport after having sexual intercourse with B in the latter’s house. Is B criminally liable to our criminal
law?
A. No, Japan criminal law is not applicable to him B. Yes, the crime committed is in relation to his official
function
C. No, the crime was committed in Japan
D. None of these
98. X is an accused in a criminal case for consummated murder. X tried to settle the case with the family of the
offended party. X's act of settling the case is ____.
a. an offer of compromise and implied admission of guilt
b. an offer of compromise and is not an implied admission of guilt
c. a quasi-confession of guilt
d. an offer to settle the case to buy peace
99. The father of X admitted on television that his son is a robber. This statement of the father against his son
is not admissible against the son because of ___.
a. res inter alios acta rule
b. dying declarations
c. res inter alios acta rule # 2
d. common reputation
100. A crime was committed in Makati, but the prosecutor filed the case in Muntinlupa. Later, when the
prosecutor realized the mistake, he filed the case in Makati and withdrew the Muntinlupa case. The accused
objects on the ground that there is double jeopardy. Is there double jeopardy?
a. Yes, the case had already been filed before a court. b. No, if the Muntinlupa court had no jurisdiction,
the accused was in no danger of being placed in jeopardy. c. Yes, since the case is already filed in court
and this is the mistake of the prosecutor.
d. No, because not all the elements of double jeopardy are present.
3

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APRIL 2023 DIAGNOSTICS EXAM

4. What is this ability to go on despite the tremendous adversity?

dean of the school, what behavioural classification would Alex have?

51. What is board criminology resolution no. Series of 1987?

A. Differential Association Theory

89. It means a child Incapable of committing an offense or crime_____.

9. All but one is the major rehabilitation program of Probation…

23. Failure to report for work detail without sufficient justification.

33. The word Diversification means?

38. MR. X IS A LAWYER APPLIED IN BJMP. WHAT IS THE RANK?

39. Who is the 2nd in command in the BJMP according to RA 9263?

58. May a drug pusher avail probation?

requirements of this Act, is hereby affirmed, recognized and guaranteed

61. The custodian shall have the following qualifications. except

81. For a convicted offender, probation is a form of: A. Treatment

A. At least one half of the maximum of his indeterminate sentence

98. The following are disqualifications for parole to be granted.

CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION

4. What is the penalty imposed for possession of Dangerous Drug Paraphernalia?

7. Prohibitive signs and restricted signs shall have_______________.

8. Elements of corpus delicti are?

9. What do you call an act which removes or neutralizes a fire hazard?

18. It is known as an illegal smuggling of alcoholic beverages:

36. There are writers who write without:

39. Only consummated carnapping cases are to be recorded.

41. The word economy came from greek word ? a. oikos

C. The above statement is true

72. What is street name for morphine?

80. The lowest section of an extension ladder is known as: A. heel

98. Application of all procedures for the search of missing persons.

100. Which of the following is not an element of corpus delicti?

10. Which is not a process of developing using the ninhydrin method?

14. What do you do with fingerprinting in case of temporary disabilities?

18. The reducers or the developing agents.

51. An irrelevant question added before and after a relevant question?

56. What kind of a solution is used in the restoration of serial numbers?

57. What is the last stage in the toxicological examination? A. qualification

58. Person who is qualified to conduct toxicological examination?

60. Molecular death is a kind of death where:

62. The cuticle of the animal hair is:

72. An adult has only ____bones

74. The science of projectiles and firearm.

86. Post-mortem lividity maybe due to any of the following, except:

LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION

11. This is a family group of people recognized by birth. a. Affinity

17. What is the other term for a foreigner?

18. It is loyalty owed by a person to his state.

22. Aviation Security Group Strategic Plan against terrorist attacks

31. The lowest administrative penalty

34. All except one uses a centralized system of policing. A. Israel

42. Police officers in England were referred to as A. Public servants

63. The most common method of mapping.

67. To prevent and control crimes is on of the PNP’s what? A. Mission

79. __________ to create a fair power-balanced multipolar world.

D. Any member of the Sangguniang Panglunsod

88. 1. The advisable cruising speed in automobile patrol ranges from:

95. The Normal weight of a safe is at least:

CRIMINAL LAW AND JURISPRUDENCE

5. Right to appeal is a:

SITUATION: OSCAR is a police officer. HIPOLITO is the offender. ERIKA is a victim.