Eyelids, conjunctiva, cornea & sclera

1. Distichiasis is:
a. Misdirected eyelashes
b. Accessory layer of eyelashes
c. Downward drooping of upper lid
d. Outward protrusion of lower lid

2. Band shaped keratopathy is commonly caused by deposition of:

a. Magnesium salt
b. Calcium salt
c. Ferrous salt
d. Copper salt

3. Irrespective of the etiology of a corneal ulcer, the drug always

indicated is:
a. Corticosteroids
b. Cycloplegics
c. Antibiotics
d. Antifungals

4. Dense scar of cornea with incarceration of iris is known as:

a. Leucoma adherence
b. Dense leucoma
c. Ciliary staphyloma
d. Iris bombe

5. The treatment of photo-ophthalmia is:

a. Atropine
b. Steroids
c. Dark glasses
d. Patching and reassurance

6. Corneal sensations are lost in:

a. herpes simplex
b. Conjunctivitis
c. Fungal infections
d. Marginal keratitis

7. The color of fluorescein staining in corneal ulcer is:

a. Yellow
b. Blue
c. Green
d. Royal blue

8. Phylecten is due to:

a. Endogenous allergy
b. Exogenous allergy
c. Degeneration
d. None of the above

9. A recurrent bilateral conjunctivitis occurring with the onset of hot

weather in young boys with symptoms of burning, itching, and
lacrimation with large flat topped cobble stone papillae raised areas in
the palpebral conjunctiva is:
A. Trachoma
B. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
C. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
D. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis

10. Which of the following organism can penetrate intact corneal

epithelium?
A. Strept pyogenes
B. Staph aureus
C. Pseudomonas pyocyanaea
D. Corynebacterium diphtheriae

11. A 12 years old boy receiving long term treatment for spring catarrh,
developed defective vision in both eyes. The likely cause is;
a. Posterior subcapsular cataract
b. Retinopathy of prematurity
c. Optic neuritis
d. Vitreous hemorrhage

12. A young child suffering from fever and sore throat began to
complain of lacrimation. On examination, follicles were found in the
lower palpebral conjunctiva with tender preauricular lymph nodes. The
most probable diagnosis is:
a. Trachoma
b. Staphylococal conjunctivitis
c. Adenoviral conjunctivitis
d. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
13. Bandage of the eye is contraindicated in:
a. Corneal abrasion
b. Bacterial corneal ulcer
c. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
d. After glaucoma surgery

14. Ten years old boy complains of itching. On examination, there are
mucoid nodules with smooth rounded surface on the limbus, and
mucous white ropy mucopurulent conjunctivitis discharge. He most
probably suffers from:
a. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
b. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
c. Bulbar spring catarrh
d. Purulent conjunctivitis

15. In viral epidemic kerato-conjunctlvitis characteristically there is:

a. Copious purulent discharge
b. Copious muco-purulent discharge
c. Excessive watery lacrimation
d. Mucoid ropy white discharge

16. Corneal Herbert's rosettes are found in:

a. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
b. Phlyctenular keratoconjunctivitis
c. Active trachoma
d. Spring catarrh
17. A patient complains of maceration of skin of the lids and
conjunctiva redness at the inner and outer canthi. Conjunctival swab is
expected to show:
a. Slaphylococcus aureus.
b. Streptococcus viridans.
c. Streptococcus pneumonae
d. Morax- Axenfield diplobacilli

18. Tranta's spots are noticed in cases of:

a. Active trachoma
b. Bulbar spring catarrh
c. Conical phlycten
d. vitamin A deficiency.

19. A painful, tender, non itchy localized redness of the conjunctiva can
be due to:
a. Bulbar spring catarrh.
b. Episcleritis.
c. Vascular pterygium.
d. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis.

20. In trachoma the patient is infectious when there is:

a. Arlt's line
b. Herbert's pits
c. Post-trachomatous concretions.
d. Follicles and papillae in the palpebral conjunctiva.
21. A female patient 18 years old, who is contact lens wearer since two
years, is complaining of redness, lacrimation and foreign body sensation
of both eyes. On examination, visual acuity was 6/6 with
negative fluorescein test. The expected diagnosis can be:
a. Acute anterior uveitis.
b. Giant papillary conjunctivitis.
c. Bacterial corneal ulcer.
d. Acute congestive glaucoma

22. Fifth nerve palsy could cause:

a. Ptosis
b. Proptosis
c. Neurotrophic keratitis
d. Lagophthalmos

23. Topical steroids are contraindicated in a case of bacterial corneal

ulcer for fear of:
a. Secondary glaucoma,
b. Cortical cataract.
c. Corneal perforation,
d. Secondary viral infection.

24. The sure diagnostic sign of corneal ulcer is

a. Ciliary injection
b. Blepharospasm
c. Miosis
d. Positive fluorescein test.

25. The effective treatment of dendretic ulcer of the cornea is:

a. Surface anesthesia
b. Local corticosteroids
c. Systemic corticosteroids
d. Acyclovir ointment,

26. Herpes simplex keratitis is characterized by:

a. Presence of pus in the anterior chamber,
b. No tendency to recurrence
c. Corneal hyposthesia.
d. Tendency to perforation.

27. Bacteria, which can attack normal corneal epithelium:

a. Neisseria gonorrhea.
b. Staphylococcal epidermidis.
c. Moraxella lacunata.
d. Staphylococcal aureus.

28. Advanced keratoconus is least to be corrected when treated by:

a. Hard contact Lens,
b. Rigid gas permeable contact Lens,
c. Spectacles.
d. Keratoplasty.
29. Trantas nodules are seen in:
a. Blepharoconjuctivitis
b. Vernal conjunctivitis
c. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
d. Herpetic keratitis

30. Organisms causing angular conjunctivitis are:

a. Moraxella Axenfield bacilli
b. Pneumococci
c. Gonococci
d. Adenovirus

31. Chalazion is a chronic inflammatory granuloma of

a. Meibomian gland
b. Zies's gland
c. Sweat gland
d. Wolfring’s gland

32. Ophthalmia neonatorum is prevented by:

a. 1% Silver nitrate
b. Penicillin drops
c. Normal saline drops
d. Frequent eye washes

33. Cornea is thinned in:

a. Keratoconus
b. Fuch's dystrophy
c. Bulbous lesion
d. All of the above

34. Distichiasis is:

a. An extra row of lashes
b. Central fusion of eye brow
c. Suturing of lashes
d. Absence of lashes
e. White lashes

35. Dendritic ulcer causing virus:

a. Herpes simplex
b. Herpes zoster
c. Cytomegalovirus
d. Adenovirus
e. Poxvirus

36. Treatment of choice in angular conjunctivitis is:

a. Penicillin
b. Dexamethasone
c. Sulphacetamide
d. Zinc oxide

37. Herbert's pits are seen in:

a. Trachoma
b. Herpetic conjunctivitis
c. Ophthalmia neonatorum
d. Spring catarrh
e. Phlyctenular ulcer

38. The H.P. inclusion bodies in trachoma are:

a. Intra-nuclear
b. Intra-cytoplasmic
c. Both
d. None of the above

39. Symptoms of corneal ulcer are following except:

a. Mucopurulent discharge
b. Pain in the eye
c. Redness of the eye
d. Watering

40. Hordeolum externum is a suppurative inflammation of:

a. Zeis' gland
b. Meibomian gland
c. Moll's gland
d. Gland of Krause
e. Gland Wolfring

41. Intense itching is the most common symptom of:

a. Trachoma
b. Blephritis
c. Phlyctenular conjuctivitis
d. Spring catarrh
42. Which of the following is not a source of nutrients to cornea?
a. Air
b. Aqueous humour
c. Perilimbal capillaries
d. Vitreous humour

43. Treatment of phlyctenular conjunctivitis is:

a. Systemic Anti-TB drugs
b. Systemic steroids
c. Topical acyclovir
d. Topical steroids

44. Blood vessels in a trachomatous pannus lie:

a. Beneath the Descemet's membrane.
b. In the substantia propria.
c. Between Bowman's membrane & substantia propria.
d. Between Bowman's membrane & Epithelium.

45. Dendritic ulcer is due to:

a. Herpes simplex
b. Fungal infection
c. Syphilis
d. Phlycten

46. Not causing ophthalmia neonatorum:

a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Adenovirus
c. TRIC
d. Gonococcus

47. The dendritic corneal ulcer is typical of:

a. Varicella-Zoster infection
b. Herpes simplex infection
c. Pseudomonas infection
d. Aspergillus infection

48. In vernal catarrh, the characteristic cells are:

a. Macrophage
b. Eosinophils
c. Neutrophils
d. Epitheloid cells

49. Cobblestone appearance of conjunctiva is seen with:

a. Trachoma
b. Spring catarrh
c. Purulent conjunctivitis
d. Angular conjunctivitis

50. In which of the following conditions in small ulcers the bleed are
seen, on removing the yellow crusts on the lid margin:
a. Squamous blepharitis
b. Ulcerative blepharitis
c. Parasitic blepharitis
d. Hordeolum internum
e. All of the above

51. In which of the following conditions, severe itching of the eye with
ropy discharge in a 1 0 years old boy with symptoms aggravating in
summer season is most likely present:
a. Trachoma
b. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
c. Acute conjunctivitis
d. Blepharitis

52. Epidemic conjunctivitis is caused by:

a. Adenovirus
b. Herpes virus
c. EB virus
d. Papilloma virus

53. The commonest organism responsible for corneal ulcer is:

a. Staphylococci
b. Pneumococci
c. Pseudomonas
d. Candida

54. The commonest cause of hypopyon corneal ulcer is:

a. Moraxella
b. Gonococcus
c. Pneumococcus
d. Staphylococcus
e. C. diphtheria

55. Irrespective of the etiology of a corneal ulcer, the drug always

indicated is:
a. Corticosteroid
b. Atropine
c. Antibiotics
d. Antifungal

56. Vossius ring is seen in:

a. Cornea
b. Retina
c. Lens
d. Anterior chamber

57. In case of central dense leucoma 5 mm, treatment of choice is:

a. Penetrating keratoplasty
b. Lamellar keratoplasty
c. Tattooing
d. Enucleation

58. Dense scar of cornea with incarceration of iris known as:

a. Leucoma adherent
b. Leucoma non adherent
c. Ciliary staphyloma
d. Iris Bombe
e. Occlusion pupillae
59. Adhesion of iris margin anteriorly is known as:
a. Intercalary staphyloma
b. Anterior synychia
c. Posterior staphyloma
d. Iris Bombe

60. Intercalary staphyloma is a type of:

a. Equatorial staphyloma
b. Posterior staphyloma
c. Ciliary staphyloma
d. Anterior staphyloma

61. Cornea is supplied by nerve fibers derived from:

a. Trochlear nerve
b. Optic nerve
c. Trigeminal nerve
d. Oculomotor nerve

62. Ciliary Congestion is not seen in:

a. Herpetic keratitis
b. Bacterial ulcer
c. Chronic iridocyclitis
d. Catarrhal conjunctivitis
e. Acute iridocyclitis

63. Not true about herpes keratitis:

a. Steroids accelerates recovery
b. Present in trigeminal ganglia
c. Recurrent
d. Usually unilateral

64. Leucokoria is seen in:

a. Glaucoma
b. Cataract
c. Retinitis pigmentosa
d. Acute dacryocystitis

65. Most of the thickness of cornea is formed by:

a. Epithelial layer
b. Substantia propria
c. Descemet's membrane
d. Endothelium

66. Corneal ulceration is caused by injury to the —— cranial nerve

a. Third
b. Fifth
c. Sixth
d. Fourth

67. Dendritic ulcer is due to:

a. Herpes simplex
b. Fungal infection
c. Syphilis
d. Phlyctena
68. Herpetic corneal ulcer is diagnosed by:
a. Geimsa stain
b. EL1SA
c. Cell culture/PCR
d. Rose Bengal stain

69. Most common viral infection of the cornea is:

a. Herpes simplex
b. Herpes zoster
c. Adenovirus
d. Molluscum contagiosum

70. A 30 years old male presents with a history of injury to the eye with
a leaf 5 days ago and pain, photophobia and redness of the eye for 2
days. What would be the most likely pathology?
a. Anterior uveitis
b. Conjunctivitis
c. Fungal corneal ulcer
d. Corneal laceration

71. Lagophthalmos occurs as a result of paralysis of:

a. 6th cranial nerve
b. 5th cranial nerve
c. Levator palpebrae-superioris
d. 7th cranial nerve

72. Hordeolum externum is inflammation of:

a. Zeis gland
b. Tarsus
c. Meibomian gland
d. Lacrimal gland

73. Chalazion is the infection of:

a. Meibomian glands
b. Conjunctiva
c. Cornea
d. Uvea

74. Ptosis and mydriasis are seen in:

a. Facial palsy
b. Peripheral neuritis
c. Oculomotor palsy
d. Sympathetic palsy

Answers

1-b 2-b 3-b 4-a 5-d 6-a

7-c 8-a 9-d 10-d 11-a 12-c
13-c 14-c 15-c 16-c 17-d 18-b
19-b 20-d 21-b 22-c 23-c 24-d
25-d 26-c 27-a 28-c 29-b 30-a
31-a 32-a 33-a 34-a 35-a 36-d
37-a 38-b 39-a 40-a 41-d 42-d
43-d 44-d 45-a 46-b 47-b 48-b
49-b 50-b 51-b 52-a 53-b 54-c
55-b 56-c 57-a 58-a 59-b 60-c
61-c 62-d 63-a 64-b 65-b 66-b
67-a 68-d 69-a 70-c 71-d 72-a
73-a 74-c
Lacrimal System
1. In DCR, the opening is made at:
a. Superior meatus
b. Middle meatus
c. Inferior meatus

2. Schirmer’s test is used for diagnosing:

a. Dry eye
b. Infective keratitis
c. Watering eyes
d. Used in Horner’s syndrome

3. All are seen in Horner’s syndrome except:

a. Miosis
b. Ptosis
c. Anhydrosis
d. Exophthalmos

4. 3 months old infant with watering lacrimal sac on pressing causes

regurgitation of mucopus material. What is the appropriate treatment?
a. Dacryocystorhinostomy
b. Probing
c. Probing with syringing
d. Massage with antibiotics up to age of 6 months
e. Dacryocystectomy
Answers

1-b 2- a 3-d 4-d

Orbit
1. Most common cause of adult unilateral proptosis
a. Thyroid orbitopathy
b. Metastasis
c. Lymphoma
d. Meningioma

2. Evisceration is:
a. Excision of the entire eyeball
b. Excision of all the inner contents of the eyeball including the uveal tissue
c. Photocoagulation of the retina
d. Removal of orbit contents

3. Lagophthalmos can occur in all of the following except;

a. 7lb cranial nerve paralysis
b. 5lh cranial nerve paralysis
c. Thyrotoxic exophthalmos
d. Symblepharon

4. Ultrasonography is helpful in confirming the diagnosis of:

a. Thyroid ophthalmopathy
b. Retinitis pigmentosa
c. Subluxated clear crystalline lens
d. Central retinal vein occlusion

5. The most important symptom differentiating orbital cellulitis from

panophthalmitis is:
a. Vision
b. Pain
c. Redness
d. Swelling

6. Axial proptosis can be due to either of these except:

a. Optic nerve glioma.
b. Lacrimal gland tumour.
c. Orbital cellulitis,
d. Thyrotoxicosis.

7. A patient complains of severe ocular pain in the right eye and

headache. The patient is drowsy, feverish with right proptosis, lid and
conjunctival edema, mastoid edema and bilateral papilledema. The
diagnosis is:
a. Endophthalmitis
b. Panophthalmitis
c. Orbital cellulitis
d. Cavernous sinus thrombosis

8. The commonest cause of bilateral proptosis is:

a. Orbital cellulitis.
b. Dysthyroid ophthalmopathy.
c. Orbital emphysema.
d. Cavernous sinus thrombosis,

9. The most common cause of unilateral proptosis in adult is;

a. lacrimal gland tumours
b. orbital cellulitis
c. panophthalmitis
d. thyroid diseases

10. Proptosis is present in the following condition except:

a. Homer's syndrome
b. Orbital cellulitis
c. Thyroid ophthalmopathy
d. Cavernous sinus thrombosis

11. The commonest cause of bilateral proptosis is:

a. Orbital cellulitis
b. Dysthyroid ophthalmology
c. Orbital emphysema
d. Cavernous sinus thrombosis

12. The commonest cause of unilateral exophthalmos is:

a. Thyroid eye disease
b. Lacrimal gland tumour
c. Orbital cellulitis
d. Cavernous sinus thrombosis

Answers

1-a 2-b 3-b 4-a 5-a 6-b

7-d 8-b 9-d 10-a 11-b 12-a
Uvea

1. All of the following are part of uvea except:

a. Pars plicata
b. Pars plana
c. Choroid
d. Schwalbe’s line

2. One of the earliest features of anterior uveitis includes:

a. Keratic precipitates
b. Hypopyon
c. Posterior synechiae
d. Aqueous flare

3. In anterior uveitis the pupil is generally:

a. of normal size
b. Constricted
c. Dilated

4. Koeppe’s nodules are found in:

a. Cornea
b. Sclera
c. Iris
d. Conjunctiva

5. Aqueous humour is formed by:

a. Epithelium of ciliary body
b. Posterior surface of iris
c. Lens
d. Pars plana

6. Secondary glaucoma due to acute attack of iridocyclitis can be

managed by the following except;
a. Corticosteroids
b. Beta-blockers
c. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
d. Miotics

7. Aqueous humor is secreted by:

a. Circulus iridis minor
b. Ciliary muscle
c. Ciliary processes
d. Iris crypts

8. The differential diagnosis of acute iridocyclitis includes the following

conditions except:
a. Corneal ulcer
b. Open angle glaucoma
c. Acute conjunctivitis
d. Angle closure glaucoma

9. A middle aged female with recurrent joint pain gave past history of
recurrent attacks of pain, redness and dropped vision in one eye.
Recently she complained of similar attack. The most important
diagnostic sign of activity is:
a. Festooned pupil
b. Aqueous flare and cells
c. Pigmented KPs
d. Patches of iris atrophy

10. Marcus Gunn Pupil indicates disease of:

a. Lens
b. Sclera
c. Retina
d. Optic nerve

11. The most diagnostic sign of anterior uveitis is:

a. Aqueous flare
b. Keratic precipitates
c. Constriction of pupil
d. Raised intra-ocular tension

12. Amaurotic cat's eye reflex is seen in:

a. Papilloedema
b. Retinoblastoma
c. Papillitis
d. Retinitis

13. Of the following which is the shortest acting mydriatic:

a. Tropicamide
b. Homatropine
c. Cyclopentolate
d. Atropine

14. ‘D’ shaped pupil is seen in:

a. Iridocyclitis
b. Iridodialysis
c. Glaucoma
d. Dislocation of lens

15. Uveitis is characterized by all except:

a. Mucopurulent discharge
b. Small pupils
c. Moderate pain
d. Marked tenderness

16. Small pupils are seen in:

a. Argyll Robertson pupil
b. Adie pupil
c. IIIrd nerve palsy
d. Mydriatic drops instillation

17. During accommodation all the following changes occur except:

a. Pupil contracts
b. Anterior chamber shallows
c. Lens becomes thinner
d. Anterior and posterior surface of the lens become convex
e. Lens sinks down

18. Features of iritis include all of the following, except:

a. Small pupil
b. Normal pupillary reaction
c. Ciliary congestion
d. Aqueous flare
e. Loss of iris pattern

19. Commonest cause of vitreous haemorrhage in a young adult is:

a. Diabetes
b. Trauma
c. Periphlebitis reuinac
d. Central retinal vein occlusion

20. All of the following statements about the treatment of acute anterior
uveitis are true except:
a. Mydriasis is important
b. Steroids should be avoided
c. It is usually not necessary to admit the patient to the hospital
d. Investigations for systemic disease are often negative

21. The earliest feature of anterior uveitis includes:

a. Keratic precipitates
b. Hypopyon
c. Posterior synechiae
d. Aqueous flare

22. Dilated pupil is seen in all of the following except:

a. Pontine hemorrhage
b. Optic trophy
c. Acute glaucoma
d. Papillitis

23. Drug of choice for Acute Iridocylitis is

a. Acetazolamide
b. Atropine
c. Antibiotics
d. Aspirin

24. Iridodialysis is:

a. Iris is broken from ciliary body
b. Hole in iris
c. Tremulousness of iris
d. All of the above

25. Atropine sulphate 1% drop or ointment must be used to apically in:

a. Acute conjunctivitis
b. Chronic conjunctivitis
c. Iritis
d. Acute congestive glaucoma

26. Commonest cause of posterior staphyloma is:

a. Glaucoma
b. Retinal detachment
c. Iridocyclitis
d. High myopia

27. The following is a part of uvea except:

a. Bowman's membrane
b. Iris
c. Ciliary body
d. Choroid
Answers
1-d 2-d 3-b 4-c 5-a 6- d
7-c 8-b 9-b 10-d 11-b 12-b
13-a 14-b 15-a 16-a 17-c 18-b
19-b 20-b 21-d 22-a 23-b 24-a
25-c 26-d 27-a
Lens
1. Which laser is used for capsulotomy?
a. Diode laser
b. Carbon dioxide laser
c. Excimer laser
d. Yag laser

2. Unilateral aphakia is likely to be corrected by any of thee ffollowing

except:
a. Anterior chamber intraocular lens
b. Posterior chamber intraocular lens
c. Contact tens
d. Glasses

3. Phakolytic glaucoma is best treated by:

a. Fistulizing operation
b. Cataract extraction
c. Cyclo-destructive procedure
d. Miotics and Beta blockers

4. Lens induced glaucoma least occur in:

a. Intumescent cataract.
b. Anterior lens dislocation,
c. Posterior subcapsular cataract
d. Posterior lens dislocation
5. After 48 hours of a cataract extraction operation, a patient
complained of ocular pain and visual loss. On examination, this eye
looked red with ciliary injection, corneal oedema and absent red reflex.
The first suspicion must be:
a. Secondary glaucoma.
b. Anterior uveitis.
c. Bacterial endophthalmitis.
d. Acute conjunctivitis

6. Treatment of choice in Aphakia is:

a. Spectacles
b. Contact lens
c. Anterior chamber 1OL
d. Posterior chamber 1OL

7. The etiology of complicated cataract all, except:

a. Disciform keratitis
b. Iridocyclitis
c. Retinitis pigmentosa
d. Retinal detachment

8. Cylindrical lenses are used in:

a. Astigmatism
b. Myopia
c. Hypermetropia
d. Presbyopia
9. Exact site where intraocular lens is commonly fitted:
a. Capsular ligament
b. Endosulcus
c. Ciliary supported
D. Capsular bag

10. Earliest visual rehabilitation occurs with:

a. Phacoemulsification
b. 1CCE+1OL
c. ECCE+1OL
d. 1CCE alone or laser

Answers
1- d 2- d 3-b 4-c 5-c
6-d 7-a 8-a 9-d 10-a
Glaucoma
1. Pneumato-tonometer is a type of:
a. Goniolens
b. Tonometer
c. Perimeter
d. Tonography

2. When there is intumescene of the lens causing glaucoma?

a. Trephining should be done
b. Paracentesis is indicated
c. Lens should be extracted
d. Glaucoma should be treated medically only

3. All the following associated OAG include all the following except:
a. Roenne’s nasal step
b. Enlarged blind spot
c. General depression of isopters
d. Loss of central fields
e. Tubular vision

4. The treatment of choice for the other eye in angle closure glaucoma
is:
a. Surgical peripheral iridectomy
b. Yag laser iridotomy
c. Trabeculotomy
d. Trabeculectomy
5. Topical atropine is contraindicated in:
a. Retinoscopy in children
b. Iridocyclitis
c. Corneal ulcer
d. Primary angle closure glaucoma

6. The following type of glaucoma is improved with mydriatics:

a. Primary open angle glaucoma.
b. Infantile glaucoma.
c. Phacolytic glaucoma.
d. Pupillary block glaucoma.

7. A newly born, presented with big hazy cornea and photophobia.

His management begins with:
a. Electrophysiological study of the retina,
b. Syringing of naso-lacrimal duct.
c. Fluorescein stain to the cornea.
d. Measuring his ocular tension.

8. Total unilateral blindness (no PL) is a feature of:

a. Corneal ulcer
b. Mature senile cataract
c. Absolute glaucoma
d. Macular degeneration

9. When visual deterioration in a glaucomatous patient reaches no PL

the diagnosis is:
a. Acute congestive glaucoma
b. Chronic congestive glaucoma
c. Chrome open angle glaucoma
d. Absolute glaucoma

10. In acute angle closure glaucoma the pupil is:

a. Rounded, irreactive and dilated
b. Pin point constricted
c. Oval, vertically dilated
d. Normal sized, reactive

11. Which of the following conditions need immediate hospitalization?

a. Central retinal vein occlusion
b. Open angle glaucoma
c. Denderitic ulcer
d. Acute angle closure glaucoma

12. Glaucoma field changes included all the following except:

a. Arcuate scotoma.
b. Hemianopia
c. Enlarged blind spot
d. Centrocecal scotoma.

13. In case of buphthalmos we usually find:

a. shallow anterior chamber
b. Large Hazy cornea > 13mm.
c. Leukocoria
d. Occlusio pupille

14. 100 days glaucoma is seen in:

a. Central retinal artery occlusion
b. Central retinal vein occlusion
c. Neovascular glaucoma
d. Steroid induced glaucoma

15. Neovascular glaucoma follows:

a. Thrombosis of central retinal vein
b. Acute congestive glaucoma
c. Staphlococcal infection
d. Diabetes mellitus
e. Inference of aqueous drainage by Schlemm's canal mechanism.

16. Early features of chronic simple glaucoma include all except:

a. Mild headache
b. Acute onset
c. Frequent change of persbyopic glasses
d. Blurred vision
e. Clear cornea

17. When there is intumescence of the lens causing glaucoma:

a. Trephining should be done
b. Paracentesis is indicated
c. Lens should be extracted
d. Glaucoma should be treated medically
18. Increased ocular pressure in Buphthalmos causes all of the following
except:
a. Stretching of sclera
b. Corneal vascularization
c. Corneal curvature prominence
d. Rupture of Descemet's membrane

19. Treatment of choice for fellow eye in angle closure glaucoma is:
a. Timolol
b. Pilocarpine
c. Yag Laser iridectomy
d. Surgical iridectomy

20. In chronic simple glaucoma, the most common earliest field defect
is:
a. Arcuate field defect
b. Baring of blind spot
c. Bjerrum scotoma
d. Siedel's sign

21. In early glaucomatous cupping, disc is:

a. Round
b. Oval vertically
c. Oval horizontally
d. Pinpoint
22. In a patient with acute glaucoma the prophylactic treatment for
other eye is:
a. Peripheral iridectomy
b. Schele's operation
c. Anterior sclerotomy
d. Iridenclesisis

23. All the following anatomical changes will predispose to primary

angle closure glaucoma except:
a. Small cornea
b. Flat cornea
c. Anterior chamber shallow
d. Short axial length of eye ball

24. You have been referred a case of open angle glaucoma. Which of the
following would be an important point in diagnosing the case?
a. Shallow anterior chamber
b. Optic disc cupping
c. Narrow angle
d. visual acuity and refractive error

25. Which one of the following drugs is contraindicated in the treatment

of primary glaucoma?
a. Pilocarpine
b. Homatropine
c. Acetazolamide
d. Timolol
Answers

1- b 2- c 3- d 4- b 5-d
6-d 7-d 8-c 9-d 10-c
11-d 12-b 13-b 14-b 15-a
16-b 17-c 18-b 19-c 20-b
21-b 22-a 23-b 24-b 25-b
Retina
1. Number of layers in neurosensory retina is:
a. 9
b. 10
c. 11
d. 12

2. In retinal detachment, fluid accumulates between:

a. Layers of outer plexiform layer and inner nuclear layer.
b. Neurosensory retina and layer of retinal pigment epithelium
c. Nerve fiber layer and rest of retina.
d. Between the retinal pigment epithelium and Bruch’s membrane.
e

3. 100 days glaucoma is seen in:

a. CRAO
b. BRAO
c. CRVO
d. BRVO

4. A young patient with sudden painless loss of vision, with systolic

murmur and ocular examination reveals a cherry red spot with clear
AC, the likely diagnosis is:
a. CRAO
b. CRVO
c. DM
d. BRVO
5. Triad of retinitis pigmentosa includes:
a. Waxy disc pallor
b. Arteriolar attenuation
c. Macular hypopigmentation
d. Bone specule pigmentation

6. Retinitis pigmentosa most commonly presents as:

a. Night blindness
b. Diplopia
c. Scotoma
d. Bitemporal hemianopia

7. In CRAO, a cherry red spot is due to:

a. Hemorrhage at macula
b. Increased choroidal perfusion
c. Increase in retinal perfusion at macula
d. The contrast between pale retina and reddish choroids

8. The most common primarily intraocular malignancy in adults is:

a. Retinoblastoma
b. Choroidal melanoma
c. Squamous cell carcinoma of conjunctiva
d. Iris nevus

9. Which of the following is ideal for evaluating macular functions in a

patient whose vision is only hand movement (HM)?
a. Color perception
b, Confrontation test
c. Light projection
d, Light perception

10. Night blindness is caused by:

a. Central retinal vein occlusion
b. Dystrophies of retinal rods
c. Dystrophies of the retinal cones
d. Retinal detachment

11. A patient of old standing diabetes mellitus noticed sudden muscae

volitanes. On examination, the red reflex was dim, with no details of
fundus could be seen. He might have:
a. Non proliferative diabetic retinopathy
b. Cystoid macular edema
c. Vitreous hemorrhage
d. Central retinal vein occlusion

12. Occlusion of the lower nasal branch of the central retinal artery
results in one of the following filed defects:
a. Lower nasal sector filed defect
b. Upper nasal sector filed defect
c. Upper temporal filed defect
d. Lower temporal sector filed defect

13. Which of the following is true of Diabetic retinopathy?

a. Always associated with hypertension
b. Seen only in uncontrolled diabetes
c. Incidence increases with duration of disease
d. Determines prognosis of the disease

14. Enlargement of blind spot is a sign of:

a. Avulsion of Optic nerve
b. Papillitis
c. Papilledema
d. Retinal detachment

15. Commotio retinae is seen in:

a. Concussion injury
b. Papilloedema
c. Central vein thrombosis
d. Central artery thrombosis

16. Simple retinal detachment is usually due to:

a. Tumour
b. Choroidal haemorrhage
c. Exudative retinitis
d. None of the above

17. Cherry red macula is seen in:

a. Acute Congestive glaucoma
b. Uveitis
c. Central retinal artery occlusion
d. Central retinal vein occlusion

18. Which is not found in papilloedema?

a. Blurred vision
b. Blurred margins of disc
c. Cupping of disc
d. None

19. Retinal change specific in proliferative diabetic retinopathy is:

a. Microaneurysm
b. Soft cotton wool exudates
c. A-V shunt
d. Neovascularization

20. Commonest lesion which hinders vision in diabetic retinopathy is:

a. Macular oedema
b. Microaneurysm
c. Retinal hemorrhage
d. Retinal detachment

21. Which of the following not found in diabetic retinopathy on fundus

examination:
a. Microaneurysms
b. Retinal hemorrhages
c. Arteriolar dilatation
d. Neovascularisation
Answers
1-a 2-b 3-c 4-a
5-c 6-a 7-d 8-b
9- a 10-b 11-c 12-c
13-c 14-c 15-a 16-d
17-c 18-c 19-d 20-a
21-c
Optic Nerve

1. Primary optic atrophy results from:

a. Retinal disease
b. Chronic glaucoma
c. Papilledema
d. Neurological disease

2. Retro-bulbar optic neuritis is characterized by:

a. Marked swelling of the optic disc.
b. Impaired direct light reflex in the affected eye
c. Impaired consensual light reflex in the affected eye
d. Normal visual acuity

3. The type of optic atrophy that follows retro-bulbar neuritis is:

a. Secondary optic atrophy
b. Connective optic atrophy
c. Glaucomatous optic atrophy
d. Primary optic atrophy

4. A male patient 30 years old with visual acuity of 6/6 in both eyes.
Twelve hours ago he presented with drop of vision of the left eye. On
examination, visual acuity was 6/6 in the right eye and 6/60 in the left
ef optic disc.
eye. Fundus examination showed blurred edges of the left
The most probable diagnosis is:
a. Raised intra cranial pressure
b. Raised ocular tension
c. Central retinal artery occlusion
d. Optic neuritis

5. The type of optic atrophy that following retrobulbar neuritis is:

a. Secondary optic atrophy
b. Consecutive optic atrophy
c. Glaucomatous optic atrophy
d. Primary optic atrophy

6. Injury to optic tract produces:

a. Homonymous hemianopia
b. Bitemporal hemianopia
c. Binasal hemianopia
d. Sparing of macular vision

7. All of the following statements regarding the oculomotor nerve are

true except:
a. It accommodates the eve
b. It raises the upper eyelid
c. It innervates lateral rectus
d. It constricts the pupil

8. Blurring of disc margin is found in:

a. Papillitis
b. Retrobulbar neuritis
c. Tobacco amblyopia
c. all of the above
9. In optic neuritis the best investigation to be done include:
a. Gold perimetry
b. Keratoscopy
c. Ophthalmoscopy
d. Ophthalmodynamometry

10. Elevation of the disc margin is seen in:

a. Optic atrophy
b. Papillitis
c. Papilloedema
d. None of the above

11. Optic disc diameter is:

a. 1 mm
b. 1.5 mm
c. 2 mm
d. 3 mm

12. Optic nerve function is best studied by:

a. Ophthalmoscope
b. Retinoscope
c. Perimetry
d. Goniometry

13. In optic neuritis, following are seen except:

a. Headache and vomiting
b. Pain on movement of eye
c. Sudden loss of vision
d. Afferent of pupillary reflex lost

14. A 25 year old lady suddenly develops unilateral loss of vision

decreasing from 6/6 to 4/60 with ill-sustained reaction of the pupil. She
complains of slight headache and some pain in the orbit when looking
upward. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Acute frontal sinusitis
b. Acute iritis
c. Brain tumour
d. Retrobulbar neuritis
e. Acute congestive glaucoma

15. The test that would aid most in the diagnosis of the previous case is:
a. X-ray of the orbit
b. Visual field determination
c. Tonometry
d. Exophthalmometry
e. Gonioscopy

16. A boy presents two weeks after an injury to his left eye. He
complains of bilateral pain and watering from right. What is the
probable diagnosis?
a. Endophthalmitis
b. Optic neuritis
c. Sympathetic irritation
d. Sympathetic ophthalmitis
17. All are seen in 3rd nerve palsy except:
a. Ptosis
b. Diplopia
c. Miosis
d. Outwards eye deviation

18. Homonymous hemianopia is due to lesion at:

a. Optic tract
b. Optic nerve
c. Optic chiasma
d. Retina
e. Occipital cortex

Answers
1- d 2- b 3- a 4- d 5- d
6-a 7-c 8-a 9-a 10-c
11-b 12-c 13-a 14-d 15-b
16-d 17-c 18-a
Neuro-ophthalmology
1. Optic nerve axon emerges from:
a. Ganglion cells
b. Rods and cones
c. Amacrine cells
d. Inner nuclear layer

2. Papilloedema has all the following characteristic except:

a. Marked loss of vision
b. Blurring of disc margins
c. Hyperemia of disc
d. Field defect

3. Homonymous hemianopia is the result of a lesion in:

a. Optic chiasma
b. Retina
c. optic tract
d. Optic nerve

4. Mydriasis is present in all the following except:

a. Third nerve lesion
b. Pontine haemorrhage
c. Datura poisoning
d. Fourth stage of anesthesia

5. Miosis is present in all the following except:

a. Third nerve lesion
b. Horner's syndrome
c. Morphine poisoning
d. Argyl Robertson's pupil

6. The following cranial nerves are responsible for ocular motility

except:
a. Third nerve
b. Fourth nerve
c, Fifth nerve
d. Sixth nerve

7. In complete third nerve paralysis the direction of the affected eye in

the primary position is:
a. Inward
b. Outward
c. Outward and up
d. Outward and down

8. A patient 60 year old, diabetic for 20 years. He suffered acutely of

drooping of the right eyelid. On manual elevation of the lid he sees
double vision. What is your diagnosis?
a. Diabetic sixth nerve palsy
b. Oculomotor nerve palsy
c. Trochlear nerve palsy
d. Abducent nerve palsy
9. An area of reduced or absent vision within an intact visual field is
called:
a. Scotoma
b. Homonymous hemianopia
c. Heteronymous hemianopia
d. Altitudinal hemianopia

10. Which of the following pupils is dilated?

a. Pupil in Horner's syndrome
b. Adies pupil
c. Argyl Robertson pupil
d. Pupil in open angle glaucoma, with a C/D of 0.3.

11. D-shaped pupil occurs in:

a. Iridocyclitis
b. Iridodenesis
c. Cyclodialsis
d. Iridodialysis
Answers
1. a 2. a 3-c 4-b 5-a
6-c 7-d 8-b 9-a 10-b
11-d
Strabismus
1. All the following are extraocular muscle of eye except:
a. Superior rectus
b. Ciliary muscle
c. Inferior oblique
d. Superior oblique

2. The action of superior rectus is:

a. Elevation, intorsion, abduction
b. Elevation, intorsion, adduction
c. Elevation, extorsion, adduction
d. Elevation, extorsion, abduction.

3. The action of inferior oblique is:

a. Depression, extorsion, abduction
b. Depression, extorsion, adduction
c. Elevation, extorsion, adduction
d. Elevation, extorsion, abduction

4. The only extraocular muscle which does not arise from the apex of
the orbit is:
a. Superior rectus
b. Superior oblique
c. Inferior oblique
d. Inferior rectus

5. In paralytic squint:
a. Primary deviation > Secondary deviation
b. Primary deviation < Secondary deviation
c. Primary deviation = Secondary deviation
d. None of the above

6. In concomitant squint:
a. Primary deviation > Secondary deviation
b. Primary deviation < Secondary deviation
c. Primary deviation = Secondary deviation
d. None of the above

7. In paralytic squint, the difference between primary and secondary

deviation in the gaze of direction of the paralytic muscle:
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains the same

8. In grades of binocular vision; grade 2 is:

a. Simultaneous macular vision
b. Fusion
c. Stereopsis

9. The best treatment for amblyopia is:

a. Orthoptic exercises
b. occlusion
c. Surgery
d. Best treat after age 10 years
Answers

1-b 2-b 3-d 4-c

5-b 6-c 7-a 8-b
9-b
 

 


1. Flat anterior chamber may result due to:
a. Occlusion by pupil by exudates
b. Seclusio pupillae
c. Leakage after cataract operation
d. Acute congestive glaucoma
e. Any of the above

2. Shallow anterior chamber is seen in:

a. High myopia
b. Aphakia
c. High hypermetropia
d. All of the above conditions

3. Angle of anterior chamber is studied with:

a. Indirect ophthalmoscopy
b. Gonioscopy
c. Retinopathy
d. Amblyoscope

4. Dilator pupillae is supplied by:

a. Postganglionic sympathetic from cervical plexus
b. Preganglionic sympathetic from cervical plexus
c. III Nerve
d. Postganglionic sympathetic fibers form V nerve.
Answers
1-e 2-c 3- b 4- a
Miscellaneous

1. Frequent change of presbyopic glasses is an early symptom of:

a. Closed angle glaucoma
b. Open angle glaucoma
c. Senile cataract
d. Vernal catarrh

2. Chronic use of steroids may lead to:

a. Iris atrophy
b. Glaucoma
c. Corneal opacity
d. Retinopathy

3. Sudden loss of unilateral vision and pain on movement is seen in:

a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Retrobulbar neuritis
c. Hypertension
d. IIIrd nerve palsy

4. The commonest intra-ocular tumour in children is:

a. Malignant melanoma
b. Retinoblastoma
c. Teratoid medulloepithelioma
d. Diktyoma

5. Hyphema is blood in the:

a. Ant. Chamber
b. Post. Chamber
c. Cornea
d. Conjunctiva

6. Herbert’s pits are seen on the:

a. Lid margin
b. Palpebral conjunctiva
c. Arlt's line
d. Limbus

7. Biconvex lens is used in all, except:

a. Aphakia
b. Presbyopia
c. Astigmatism
d. Hypermetropia

8. Most important complication of traumatic hyphema is:

a. Iridocyclitis
b. Iridodialysis
c. Blood staining of cornea
d.Siderosis bulbi

9. What is Tylosis?
a. Hypertrophy and dropping of eye lid
b. Inversion of eye lid
c. Senile eversion of eye lid
d. Distortion of cilia

10. Which of the following is not seen in blunt trauma to eye?

a. Hyphema
b. Iridiodialysis
c. Retinal haemorrhage
d. Double perforation

11. Fleischer ring is found in:

a. Keratoconus
b. Chalcosis
c. Argyrosis
d. Buphthalmos
e. None of the above

12. Intercalary staphyloma occurs at:

a. Area extending up to 8 mm from limbus
b. Limbus
c. Posterior pole of eye
d. Region of sclera which are perforated by vortex vein
e. Equatorial region

13. Blow out fracture of orbit commonly produces:

a. Deviation of septum
b. Retinal haemorrhage
c. Fracture of nasal bones
d. Fracture of floor of orbit
14. Following are avascular except:
a. Cornea
b. Sclera
c. Vitreous
d. Lens

15. A one-month old baby is brought with complaints of photophobia

and watering. Clinical examination shows normal tear passages and
clear but large cornea. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Congenital dacryocystitis
b. Interstitial keratitis
c. Keratoconus
d. Buphthalmos

16. Blindness in Vit. A deficiency is due to:

a. Corneal involvement
b. Retinopathy
c. Conjunctival scarring
d. Uveitis

17. Mydriatics drugs are the following except:

a. Tropicamide
b. Cyclopentolate
c. Homatropine
d. Pilocarpine

18. Flashing of light is an earliest sign of:

a. Cataract
b. Glaucoma
c. Retinal detachment
d. Corneal opacity

19. In non-proliferation diabetes, most common cause of blindness:

a. Sub retinal Haemorrhage
b. Macular edema
c. Retinal detachment
d. Vitreous haemorrhage

20. Fixed dilated pupil is seen in:

a. Oculomotor palsy
b. Trochlear palsy
c. Abducent palsy
d. None

21. Arlt's line is seen in:

a. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
c. Ocular pemphigoid
d. Trachoma

22. A two months old child presents with epiphora and regurgitation.
The most probable diagnosis:
a. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
b. Buphthalmos
c. Congenital dacryocystitis
d. Encysted mucocele

23. Horner's syndrome is characterized by all of the following except:

a. Miosis
b. Enophthalmos
c. Ptosis
d. Cycloplegia

24. Posterior staphyloma is associated with:

a. Pathological myopia
b. Retinoblastoma
c. Acid injury
d. Sympathetic ophthalmia

25. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis is caused by:

a. Hypersensitivity to exogenous antigen
b. Mechanical injury
c. Hypersensitivity to endogenous antigen
d. Extended wear contact lenses
e. Mixed infections

26. Distichiasis is:

a. An extra row of lashes present behind the greyline
b. Dropping of the upper eye lid below the normal position
c. Semilunar fold of skin covering the medial canthus
d. Increased distance between the inner canthi
e. Irregular shaped defects of lid margin.
27. Which of the following is true regarding Herpes Zoster
Ophthalmicus:
a. The condition is essentially bilateral.
b. Dendritic ulcer is the main presentation.
c. Periocular skin affection is always present
d. Usually a painless condition
e. Corneal melting is a usual finding.

28. Which of the pathogens can produce corneal infections in the

presence of an intact epithelium
a. Staphylococcus
b. N. Gonorrhea
c. N. Meningitides
d. Streptococcus
e. Pneumococcus
29. In accommodative esotropia:
a. Surgery is the rule in its treatment
b. High myopia is usually present.
c. Astigmantism is usually present.
d. Due to excessive accommodation.
e. usually associated with amblyopia

30. Dense scar of cornea with incarceration of iris is known as:

a. Leucoma non adherent
b. Ciliary staphyloma
c. Iris bombe
d. Symbleparon
e. Leucoma adherent

31. Corneal sensations are lost in:

a. Conjunctivitis
b. Marginal keratitis
c. Herpetic keratitis
d. Fungal keratitis
e. Pannus siccus

32. The colour of flourescein staining in corneal ulcer is;

a. Yellow
b. Blue
c. Green
d. Royal blue
e. red

33.Arlt's line is present in:

a. Upper palpebral conjunctiva
b. Lower palpebral conjunctiva
c. Bulbar conjunctiva
d. Limbus
e. Lid margin

34. The most common complication of lagophthalmos is:

a. Purulent conjunctivitis
b. Exposure keratitis
c. Entropion
d. trichiasis
e. Chronic simple glaucoma

35. Main muscle responsible for lid elevation:

a. muller's muscle
b. Superior rectus muscle
c. Occipitofrontalis muscle
d. Superior oblique muscle
e. Levator palpebrae superioris muscle

36. Fundus changes in background diabetic retinopathy include:

a. Cotton wool spots
b. Intraretinal microvascular abnormalities (IRMAs)
c. Neovessels in the retina
d. Retinitis proliferans
e. Microaneurysms

37. Management of acute central retinal artery occlusion includes the

following except:
a. Ocular massage
b. Anterior chamber paracentesis
c. Intravenous acetozolamide
d. Miotics
e. Inhalation of carbogen

38. Treatment of choice for angular conjunctivitis is:

a. Vaso constrictors
b. Mast cell strabilizers
c. Zinc preparations
d. Large doses of Vitamin A
e. Antiviral drugs

39. Patient 60 year old, diabetic for 20 years. He suffered acutely of

dropping of the right eyelid. On manual elevation of the lid he sees
double vision. What is your diagnosis?
a. Trigeminal nerve neuropathy.
b. Trochlear nerve palsy.
c. Abducent nerve palsy.
d. Oculomotor nerve palsy.
e. Facial nerve palsy
40. Pupillary nerve fibers pass through the optic tract to:
a. The optic chiasma
b. The optic radiation.
c. The lateral genicualte body.
d. The pretectal nuclei.
e. The occipital cortex

41. Systemic hypertension can predispose to the following ocular

problem:
a. Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment
b. Muscca volitans
c. Retinal vein occlusion
d. Retinal vasculitis
e. Melanoma of the choroid

42. Pregnant lady at 27 week gestation developed marked elevation of

her blood pressure and proteinuria then developed marked diminution
of vision. It is mostly due to:
a. Central retinal vein occlusion
b. Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment
c. Central retinal artery occlusion
d. Exudative retinal detachment
e. Tractional retinal detachment

43. Consecutive optic atrophy is secondary to

a. papilloedema
b. papillitis
c. diseases of retina and choroid
d. glaucoma
e. Iridocyclitis

44. Chronic dacryocystitis increases the risk of:

a. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
b. Vernal conjunctivitis
c. Pneumococcal corneal ulcer
d. Dendritic corneal ulcer
e. Diphtheretic conjunctivitis

45. Corneal Herbert's rosettes are found in:

a. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
b. Phlyctenular keratoconjunctivitis
c. Active trachoma
d. Spring catarrh
e. Angular Blapharo conjunctivitis

46. In acute angle closure glaucoma the pupil is :

a. rounded, irreactive and dilated
b. Pin point constricted
c. Vertically oval, dilated, irreactive
d. Normal sized, reactive
e. D shaped pupil

47. Patient received a tennis ball hit to his eye which used to have 6/6
vision. External eye examination showed no abnormalities vision is
H.M. and red reflex is normal. Possible diagnosis is:
a. comotio retinae
b. traumatic cataract
c. vitreous hemorrhage
d. secondary glaucoma
e. Subconjunctival Heamorrhage.

48. The commonest cause of diminution of vision in a school-aged child

is:
a) Soft cataract
b) Infantile glaucoma
c) Errors of refraction
d) Corneal dystrophy
e) Retinal detachment
49. Cobble stone papillae are pathognomonic of
a. trachoma
b. Inclusion conjunctivitis
c. Vernal conjunctivitis
d. Adenoviral conjunctivitis
e. Diphtheretic conjunctivitis

50. A scan biometry is used to calculate the power of the intraocular

lens by measuring:
a. Corneal curvature
b. Refractive index
c. Depth of the anterior chamber
d. Axial length of the eye
e. Power of the cornea

51. The sure diagnostic sign of corneal ulcer

a. Ciliary injection
b. Blepharospasm
c. Miosis
d. positive fluorescein test
e. photophobia
52. Early stages of papilledema cause:
a. arcuate scotoma
b. Enlargement of the blind spot
c. ring- shaped scotoma
d. Siedle scotoma
e. Homonymous hemianopia

53. Cylindrical lenses are Prescribed for

a. Myopia
b. Hypermetropia
c. Astigmatism
d. Athenopia
e. Cataract

54. Temporal crescent is seen typically in

a. Astigmatism
b. Hypermetropia
c. Myopia
d. squint
e. Athenopia

55. Simple myopic astigmatism means

a. One meridian is myopic and the other is emmetropic
b. Both meridian are myopic
c. One meridian is hypermetropic and the other emmetropic
d. Both meridian are hypermetropic
e. Both meridian are emmetropic

56. Ptosis in Horner's syndrome, is due to paralysis of:

a. Riolan's muscle
b. Horner's muscle
c. Muller's muscle
d. The levator palpebral muscle
e. Orbicularis oculi muscle

57. Blow out fracture Most commonly affect

a. The inferior wall of the orbit
b. The medial wall of the orbit
c. The lateral wall of the orbit
d. The roof of the orbit
e. The orbital apex

58. Vossius ring is iris pigments deposited on

a. Posterior surface of the cornea
b. Anterior surface of the lens
c. Angle of the anterior chamber
d. Posterior surface of the lens
e. Anterior surface of the cornea

59. The sure sign of scleral rupture is

a. Shallow anterior chamber
b. Decreased visual acuity
c. Prolapsed intraocular contents
d. Hypotony
e. Hyphema

60. A male patient was complaining of continuous redness of both eyes,

foreign body sensation, and frequent loss of lashes. On examination, the
lid margins were hyperemic, and the lashes were matted with yellow
crusts, which left painful ulcers on trying to remove. The most reliable
diagnosis is :
a. Squamous blepharitis.
b. Cicatricial entopion.
c. Spastic entropion.
d. Ulcerative blepharitis.
e. Viral Conjunctivitis
61. Which of the following is most likely to have a disastrous visual
outcome if not treated immediately?
a. Conjunctivitis
b. Subconjunctival hemorrhage
c. Angle closure glaucoma
d. Iritis
e. Photophthalmia.

62. Ciliary congestion is most marked at the

a. Sclera
b. Fornix
c. Bulbar conjunctiva
d. Limbus
e. Iris

63. Bandage of the eye is contraindicated in:

a. Corneal abrasion
b. Bacterial corneal ulcer
c. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
d. After glaucoma surgery
e. After cataract surgery

64. Superior oblique muscle is supplied by:-

a. Oculomtor nerve
b. Abducens nerve
c. Trochlear nerve
d. Fascial nerve
e. Trigeminal nerve

65. A patient with recent rhegmatogenous retinal detachment is

presented with:
a. Photophobia
b. Amaurosis fugax
c. Photopsia
d. Neuralgic pain
e. Red eye

66. The most characteristic in prodromal stage of acute congestive

glaucoma:
a. Coloured haloes
b. Marked ciliary injection
c. Persistent elevation of intraocular pressure
d. Profuse lacrimation
e. Profound loss of visual acuity
67. Ten years old boy complains of itching. On examination, there are
mucoid nodules with smooth rounded surface on the limbus, and
mucous white ropy discharge. He most probably suffers from:
a. Phlyctenular conjunctivitis
b. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
c. Bulbar spring catarrh
d. Purulent conjunctivitis
e. Viral conjunctivitis

68. Which of the following is used for evaluating macular functions in a

patient whose vision is only hand movement:
a. Color perception
b. Confrontation test
c. Light projection
d. Light perception
e. Ultrasonography

69. Version movements are:

a. Binocular movements in the same direction.
b. Binocular movements in the opposite direction
c. Controlled by shirrington's low
d. Controlled by oculomotor nuclei
e. Monocular movement in a given direction

70. Cataract surgery should not be done in the presence of:

a. Corneal nebula
b. Herbert's pits
c. Arcus senilis
d. Chronic dacryocystitis
e. Arlt's line

71. Rubeosis iridis is seen in:

a. Central retinal artery occlusion
b. Central retinal vein occlusion
c. Acute iridocyclitis
d. Corneal ulcer
e. Mucopurulent conjunctivitis

72. Diminished vision in daylight is seen in:

a. Central cataract
b. Peripheral cataract
c. Peripheral corneal opacity
d. Peripheral retinal degenerations
e. Retinitis pigmentosa

73. One of the following signs disappear with medical treatment:

a. Pannus siccus
b. Tranta's spots
c. Arlt's line
d. Arcus senilis
e. Pterygium

74. Primary open angle glaucoma is not treated by:

a. Pilocarpine
b. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
c. Beta blockers
d. Atropine
e. Subscleral trabeculectomy

75. A 3 year old child presents with a convergent squint dating for one
year. The first step management is:
a. Proper refraction
b. Surgical correction
c. Training on the synoptophore
d. Prism prescription
e. Examination with Hess screen

76. The primary treatment of dacryocystitis in infant, should be:

a. Syringing
b. Antibiotics and massage
c. Dacryocystectomy
d. Dacryocystorhinostomy
e. Antibiotics and steroid

77. Fifth nerve palsy could cause:

a. Ptosis
b. Proptosis
c. Neurotrophic Keratitis
d. Lagophthalmos
e. Keratoconus.
78. The earliest feature of anterior uveitis includes:
a. Keratic precipitates
b. Hypopyon
c. Posterior synechiae
d. Aqueous flare
e. Peripheral anterior synechiae

79. Accommodation is maximum in

a. Adulthood
b. Childhood
c. Middle age
d. Old age
e. Women

80. Lens induced glaucoma least occur in:

a. Intumescent cataract
b. Anterior lens dislocation
c. Posterior subcapsular cataract
d. Posterior lens dislocation
e. Hypermature cataract

81. Occlusion therapy:

a. To occlude the amblyopic eye.
b. Is mandatory in alternating squint.
c. Is effective at any age
d. Is effective in apparent squint.
e. One week for each year of patient age is the maximum period for full time
occlusion

COLUMN ONE COLUMN TWO

82. Orbital excentration a. Excision of the eye ball
83. Evisceration means b. Evacuation of the content of the
eyeball.
c. Retraction of the globe into the
orbit.
d. Non specific inflammation of the
orbital tissue.
ee. Orbital periosteum and orbital
contents,
o lids and conjunctiva are
removed.

COLUMN ONE COLUMN TWO

84. Trichiasis a. Permanent absence of eye lashes
85. Poliosis b.
b More than 4 lashes rubbing
against the cornea
86. Orbital cellulitis c. Whitening of the lashes.
d. Acute suppurative inflammation
off orbital soft tissue.
e. Lid margin is turned outwards.

COLUMN ONE COLUMN TWO

87. Dermatochalasis a.. Chronic inflammation of lid
margin
88. Blepharitis b. Acute suppurative inflammation
of zeis gland and lash follicle
89. Hordeolum internum c. Incomplete closure of palpebral
fissure
dd. Acute suppurative inflammation
off meibomian
m gland.
e. Redundancy of upper eye lid skin
in old
o age.
COLUMN ONE COLUMN TWO
a. Gonococci
90. True membranous b.. Ko
Koch week's bacillus.
conjunctivitis is caused by
91. The commonest causee of c. Morax Axenfield bacillus.
Mucopurulent conjunctivitis
d. C
Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
e. Chlamydia trachomatis.

92. IOP as measured by indentation is recorded as:

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Answers
1-b 2-b 3-b 4-b 5-a 6-d
7-c 8-c 9-a 10-d 11-a 12-b
13-d 14-b 15-d 16-a 17-d 18-c
19-b 20-a 21-d 22-c 23-d 24-a
25-c 26-a 27-c 28-b 29-d 30-e
31-c 32-c 33-a 34-b 35-e 36-e
37-d 38-c 39-d 40-d 41-c 42-d
43-c 44-c 45-c 46-c 47-a 48-c
49-c 50-d 51-d 52-b 53-c 54-c
55-a 56-c 57-a 58-b 59-c 60-d
61-c 62-d 63-c 64-c 65-c 66-a
67-c 68-a 69-a 70-d 71-b 72-a
73-b 74-d 75-a 76-b 77-c 78-d
79-b 80-c 81-e 82-e 83-b 84-b
85-c 86-d 87-e 88-a 89-d 90-d
91-b 92-a 93-b 94-d 95-c 96-b
97-b 98-c 99-b 100-a 101-c 102-a
103-c 104-c 105-b 106-c 107-a 108-b
109-b 110-b 111-a 112-c 113-b 114-c
115-c 116-b 117-d 118-a 119-b 120-b
121-d 122-c 123-a 124-a 125-b 126-a
127-c 128-c 129-b 130-b 131-b 132-a
133-d 134-c 135-b 136-d 137-c 138-b
139-c 140-b 141-c 142-d 143-b 144-b
145-b 146-d 147-c