1.

The date of commencement of the Indian constitution is

(a) 26TH Nov 1949 ( b) 26TH Nov 1945
( c) 26TH Jan 1950 (d) 15TH Aug 1947.
2.The source of authority of the Indian constitution is
(a) the government (b)the people of India
(c) the supreme court (d) the president
3.The word secular as used in the preamble indicates_____
(a) treating all the languages equally
(b) special treatment to hindu religion
(c) treating all the religions equally
(d) none of these.
4.The right to equality means
(a) treating all citizens equally
(b) treating government servents equally
(c) treating citizen differently (d) none of the above
5.State is authorized to make special provision for ______
(a) women and children (b) men only
(c) men and women (d) none of the above
6.State can make special provisions for the advancement of ______
(a) socially and educationally backward classes citizens
(b) economically backward classes of citizens (c) both (a) and (d)
(d) none of these.
7.The freedom of speech includes
(a) freedom of press (b) freedom of disturbing public peace
(c) freedom to create nuisance (d) none of these
8. Classification of films into `A` and `U` is
• (a) valid (b) invalid
• (c) either (a) or (b) (d) none of these
9. Freedom of assembly means right to assemble peacefully___
• (a) with arms (b) without arms
(c) with deadly weapons (d) none of these
10.Right to property is a
• (a) ordinary right (b) fundamental right
• (b) moral right (d) not a right
11. The constitution guarantees fundamental rights to ____
• (a) Both citizens and non citizens (b) citizens only
• (c) foreigners only (d) none of these
12. Ex-post facto law means ____
• (a) law imposing penalties from a previous date (b) civil
(c) law imposing penalties from a future date (d) none of these
13. Double Jeopardy means _______
• (a) no prosecution and punishment for the same offence more
than once (b)double benefit (c) there can be prosecution and
punishment for the same offence more than once (d) none of
these
14.Self – incrimination means ____
• (a) compulsion to be a witness against himself (b) voluntary
giving evidence (c) compulsion to be a witness against others
(d) none of these
15. An arrested person must be produced before magistrate with in
____ hours of his arrest
• (a) 12 (b) 24
(c)36 (d) 48
16. Right to pollution free environment includes
• (a) right to life (b) freedom of speech and expression
• (c) right to religion (d)abolition of untouchability
17.Right to education is a ______
• (a) fundamental right (b) ordinary legal right
(c) not a right (d) both (a) and (b)
18.Right to education is a ______
• (a) fundamental right (b) ordinary legal right
• (c) not a right (d) both (a) and (b)
19. Children below the age of _____ years are prohibited to be
employed in hazardous employment
• (a) 21 years (b) 14 years
• (c) 18 years (d) 30 years
20. Cultural and educational rights are also known as
• (a) minority rights (b) majority rights
• (c) both ((a) and (b) (d) none of these
21.The founding father of the Indian constitution is _____
• (a) dr. B.R. Ambedkar (b) Gandhiji
(c) pandit nehru (d) sardar valabhi patel
• l
22.Habeas corpus means
• (a) you may have the body (b) what is your authority
• (c) arrest the person (d) none of these
23. Mandamus means ______
• (a) command (b) request
• (c) permission (d) none of these
24.Writ of prohibition is issued against
• (a) inferior court (b) tribunal
• (c) both (a) and (b) (d) superior court
25.Quo- warranto means
• (a) what is your authority (b) direction
• (c) issuing warrant (d)none of these
26.Locus standi means
• (a) right to move the supreme court/high court (b) right to be
defended
• (c) local authority (d) none of these
27.The number of articles in constitution presently is _____
• (a) 368 (b) 395
• (c) 400 (d)447
28.Preamble to the Indian constitution indicates
• (a) privileges given to the scs and sts (b) the power of government to
make laws
(c) the circumstances under which the constitution can be amended (d)
the source of the Indian constitution
29.The freedom of movement under Art 19(1) (d) can be restricted in the
interested of
• (a) women (b) law and order
• (c) general public (d) none of these
30.which of the following writ is issued by the supreme court if it sends on
order to restrain a person
• from acting in an office to which he is not entitle.
• (a) habeas corpus (b) prohibition
• (c) certiorari (d) quo- warranto
31.No person can become a member of parliament unless he is educated up to
class
• (a) seventh (b) tenth
• (c) fifth (d) none of the above
32.The first general elections were held in India in
• (a) 1950- 51 (b) 1951-52
• (c) 1949-50 (d) none of these
33.voting age of citizens is changed from 18 years by constitutional
amendment
• (a) 7TH (b) 42ND
• (c) 61st (d) 55TH
34.Under the provision of – Article of the constitution, the
government abolished the practice
• Of untochability
• (a) 17 (b) 16
• (c) 20 (d) 18
35.In which one of the following states, there is no reservation for the
scs for lok – sabha
• (a) arunchal Pradesh (d) meghalaya
• (d) jammu and Kashmir (d) all of these
36.Which are the two states having common capital
• (a) jharkhand and bihar (b) panjab and haryana
• © uttaranchal and himachal (d) punjab and himachal Pradesh
37.Which part of the constitution incorporates special provisions to the
state of jammu and kashmir
• (a) XXI (b) XX
• (c) XV (d) XI
38. Who was the first chief justice of India ?
• (a) B.K. mukherjee (b) S.R. das
• (c) harlal j. Kania (d) Dec 1948
39. The work of framing the constitution of India started in Dec 1946
and completed in
• (a) Nov 1949 (b) Jan 1949
• (c) Jan 1950 (d) Dec 1948
40. Magna carta is a written document of 13TH century assuring
liberties awarded to
• (a) Indian citi (b) french citizen
• (c) British citizen (d) citizen of the world by UNO
41.How many times was the preamble of the constitution amended
• a) 3 times b) 2 times
• c) 1 times d) not amended
42.Directive principles of state policy are contained in which part of the
constitution (a) part – I (b) part –III
(c) part –IV (d) part –II
43.The underlying objective of the directive principles is to achieved
• (a) welfare state (b) police state
• (c) secular state (d) none of these
44.There is right to adequate means of livelihood guaranted to
• (a) both men and women equally (b) women only
• (c) men only (d) either men or to women
45.Equal pay for equal work is an accompaniment of
• (a) right freedom (b) right to equality
• (c) right to freedom of religion (d) right to constitutional
remedies
46.The directive principles of state policy
• (a) can be enforced in any court (b)can be enforced in highcourt
• (c) cannot be enforced in any court ( d) can be enforced only in
the supreme court
47.Directive principles of state policy are
• (a) political rights (b) social rights
• (c) constitutional rights (d) legal rights
48.Uuiform civil code means
• (a) uniform civil procedure code (b) civil law applicable to
common man
• (c) common civil law applicable to all (d) civil law applicable to
hindu women and children
• 49.Free and compulsory education for all children is provided under
Article 45 until they attain the age of
• (a) 14 years (b) 21 years
• (c) 18 years (d) 16 years
50.State should take steps to separate
• (a) judiciary from executive (b) legislature from executive
(c) judiciary from legislature (d) all the 3 organs from each others
51.Part IV (a) consists of – fundamental duty
• (a) 10 (b) 9
• (c) 11 (d) 12
52.Part IV (a) was added to the constitution the year
• (a) 1950 (b) 1972
• (c) 1978 (d) 1976
53.Which of the following is not a fundamental duty
• (a) to protect and improve natural environment (b) not to practice
corruption
• (c) to develop scientific temper (d) to abide by constitution
54.Fundamental duties in the constitution are addressed to the
• (a) politicians (b) people
• (c) workers (d) students
55.The constitution makers have borrowed the directive principles from
• (a) constitution of spain (b) constitution of U.K
• (C) Constitution of U.S.A (d) constitution of ireland
56.The parliament of India has enacted ____ for the enforcement of
Article 39(d)
(a) child lab our abolition act (b) equal remuneration act
• (c) protection of human right act (d) none of these
57. Education below the age of 14 years is inserted as a fundamental rights
by
• (a) 42ND amendment (b) 44TH amendment
• (c) 85TH amendment (d) 86TH amendment
58. To protect and improve the natural environment and wild life is one of
• (a) fundamental rights (b) notional policy
• (c) directive principles (d) none of the above
59.monuments and places and objects of national importance are
protected because India is country with
• ( a) written constitution (b) lengthiest constitution
• (c) rich cultural heritage (d) diverse culture
60.The fundamental rights and directive principle are
• (a) conflicting with each other (b) unrelated to each other
• (c) complement and supplement each other (d) none of them
61. Fundamental duty demands
• (a) to work sincerely and respect the rights of others (b) to abide
by the constitution
• (c) to prevent corruption (d) to abide by the ethical values
62.The directive principles under Article 46 considered ___ as
educationally and economically/weaker section of the society
• (a) women and children (b) disabled
• (c) scs and sts (d) none of these
•
63.Now, free legal aid and speedy trial are
• (a) only directives (b) duty of the citizens
• (c) fundamental rights (d) none of these
64. In child lab our abolition case the supreme court has held that
the children below the age
• Of ___ cannot be employed in any hazardous industry
• (a) 16 years (b) 18 years
• (c) 21 years (d) 14 years
65.The directive principles of state policy are the obligation of
• (a) central government (b) state government
• (c) central and state government (c) citizen of India
66.In child labour abolition case the supreme court has held that the
children below the age of __
• Cannot be employed in any hazardous industry
• (a) 16 years (b) 18 years
• (b) 21 years (d) 14 years
67.The directive principles of state policy do not direct the state to
Endeavour to protection
• (a) forest (b) the interest of minorities
• (c) the object of artistic interest of national importance (d) the
environment
68.To provide justice to economically disabled citizens the directive
principles of state policy
• Direct the state to provide
• (a) employment in the govt service (b)reserve seats in public
educational institution
• (c) proper economic and social security (d) none of the above
69.The directive principles of state policy direct the state to promote
• (a) cottage industry (b) technical education
• (c) women and children welfare scheme (d) protective homes
for old sick and invalid
70.Which one of the following is not a fundamental duty
• (a) to safeguard public property (b) to render national service
• (c) to uphold national sovernighty (d) to honor inter cast marriage
71. In which five year plan, we are now in 2002- 2007
• (a) 8TH (b) 9TH
• (c) 10TH (d) 11TH
72.Who is know as the first citizen of India
• (a) the president (b) prime minister
• (c) chief election commissioner (d) speaker
73.What is the term of the office of the president
• (a) 4 years (b) 5 years
• (c) 6 years (d) 2 years
74.who is the supreme commander of the defence force of India
• (a) prime minister (b) parliament
(c) chief justice (d) the president
75.What is the total strength of the rajya – sabha
• (a) 544 (b) 225
• © 250 (d) 238
76.Who has the power to declare emergency
• (a) parliament (b) president
• © prime minister (d)supreme court
77. Who can supervise and control the business of the administration
• (a) the priminister (b) cabinet
• © president (d) supreme court
78.Who can conduct and postpone the cabinet meetings
• (a) the prime minister (b) speaker
• © parliament (d) the president
79.How many houses are there in parliament
• (a)five (b) two
• © three (d) house
80.What is the maximum strength of the lok sabha
• (a) 550 (b) 425
• © 545 (d) 560
81.What is the term of the lok sabha
• (a) 2 years (b) 6 years
• © 4years (d) 5 years
81.The required age contest in the election the lok sabha is
• (a) below 25 years (b) 30 years
• © 25 years (d) 35 years
82.How many readings a bill has to cross In house to get passed
(a) two (b) four
• © five (d) three
83.Who will present the budget in the monthof march every year in the
lok- sabha
• (a) finance minister (b) prime minister
• © home minister (d) speaker
84.The minimum age prescribed for the membership of the rajya –
sabha is
• (a) 25 years (b) 30 years
• © 35 years (d) 40 years
85.The parliament consist of
• (a) two organs (b) three organs
• © four organs (d) five organs
86.Annual ststement of income and expenditure of the government
is known as
• (a) agenda (b) cataloge
• © calendar (d) budget
87.Out of 250members how many members are nominated by the
president to rajy sabha
(a) 50 (b) 12
• (c) 25 (d) 5
88.Who will act as speaker in his absence
• (a) vice president (b) defence minister
• (c) home minister (d) deputy speaker
89.Name the highest or apex court of India
(a) federal court (b) lok- adalath
• (c) supreme court (d) international court
90.How is the supremacy of the constitution safeguarded
(a) by independent and impartial judiciary (b) by the parliament
(c) by the cabinet (d) presst
91. What is the total strength of the supreme court
(a) 30 (b)twenty five judges and one chief justice together 36
(c) 35 (d) 29
92.Who does appoint the judges of the supreme court
• (a) cabinet (b) president on his own
• (c) president appoints the judges after consulting thechief justice
of India (d) president consulting prime minster
93.Who does appoint chief justice of the supreme court
• (a) by the president (b) by the priminister
• (c) by the cabinet (d) by the speaker of lok sabha
94.On what grounds the judges are removed
• (a) failed to give effective judgment b) proved
misbehaviour, incapacity
• (c) absconding from duty (d) none of these
95.Name the article, empowering the supreme court to issue writs for
the enforcement of fundamental rights
• (a) under article 32 (b) 33
• (c) 35 (d) 40
96.The governor of a state is
(a) direcly elected by the people (b) elected by the state
legislatur
(c) appointed by the president (d) appointed by the prime
minister
97.The governor power do not include
• (a) legislative powers (b) military power
• (c) pardoning power (d) emergency power
98.The governor of a state is responsible for his actions to
(a) the state legislative assembly (b) the president (c) the prime
minister (d) the chief justice of the high court
99. A high court judge retires at the age of
• (a) 65 (b) 63
• (c) 60 (d) 62
100.This is not the power of the chief minister
• (a)formation of government (b) control over minister
• (c) chief advisor to the governor (d) control over state
judiciary
101.The minimum for a person to be appointed as the governor of a state is
• (a) 35 (b) 40
• (c) 30 (d)25
102.Who among the following, can remove a chief minister from office
• (a) state legislative assembly (b)governor
• (c) president (d) supreme court of India
103.Election to a state legislature is conducted by the
• (a) state governor (b) chief minister
• (c) chief secretary of the state (d) election commission
104.Members of the council of ministers are appointed by
• (a) chief minister (b) governor
• (c) governor on the advice of the chief minister
• (d) state legislative assembly
105. The authority to dissolve a state legislative assembly is vested in the
• (a) chief minister of a state (b) speaker of the state assembly
• (c)president of India (d) state governor
106. The total members in legislative council should not be less than
• (a) 250 (b) 80
• (c) 20 (d) 40
107.The position of chief minister in council minister is
• (a) the first among equal (b) the supreme commander
(c)the virtual dictator (d) no difference at all with regard
To position and status
108.To become a judge of high court one must be a practicing
advocate of the high court for at least
• (a) 6 years (b) 10 years
• (c) 15 years (d) 5 years
109.Public interest litigation can be entertained by high court whenever
(a) the public are irresponsible(b) the public neglect the govt
interest
(c) the public interest become personal interest (d) the public
interest undermined
110.The high court has
• (a) the power of superintendence over all other lower court
(b) the power to create lower courts
• © the power to disengage the business of a lower court
• (d) the power to dissolve all
111.Judicial activism is
• (a)for the protection of the rights of the citizens
• (b) for curtailment of active organization
• (c) for curtailment of the power of the government
• (d) for follow up the court direction
112.The judges of the high court are
a) appointment by the chief minister (b) appointment by the speaker of the
vidhana sabha
(c )appointment of president of India (d) appointment of the
governor
113.Judicial review means
• (a) reviewing the laws passed by the legislature (b) examining the
action of the executive
• © scrutinizing the lower courts order (d) supervising the
implementation of The DPSP
115.To become a chief minister of a state on must have attained the age of
(a) 25 years (b) 30 years
• © 35 years (d) 40 years
116.the judges of high court are
• (a) liable to be transferred (b) not liable to be transferred
• (c) liable to be transferred once in 2 years (d) none of
117.The number of ministers including the chief minister, in a state shall not
be less than
• (a) 15 (b) 12
• (c) 10 (d) 5
118.The chief minister is answerable for his acts of omission and
commission to
• (a) The people (b) his party
(c) Legislative assembly (d) investigation
119.Who among the following holds office doing the pleasure of the
president
• (a) Governor (b) election commissioner
• (c) Prime minister (d) speaker of lok sabha
120.Who among the following is not appointed by the governor
• (a) Chief minister (b) high court judges
© Members of the state public service commission
(d) advocate general
121.Legislative council is
• (a) Dissolved after 6 years (b) Dissolved after 5 years
• (c) Dissolved after 3 years (d) not Dissolved
122.The list of scs and sts is drawn by ___
• (a) Governor (b) president
• (c) Prime minister (d) none of these
123.National commission for scs and sts shall have all the powers of a
• (a) High court (b) supreme court
• (c) Civil court (d) criminal court
124.Special provisions for scs and sts are also contained in
• (a) Part I and II of the constitution
• (b) part III and IV of the constitution
(c) Part X of the constitution
(d) part XVI of the constitution
125.The legal permissible age for marriage of a boy and girl is
• (a) 21 and 18 years (b) 16 and 18 years
• (c) 25 and 23 years (d) none of these
126.Right to education has been guaranteed to children between
the age of
• (a) 6-14 years (b) 7- 12 years
• (c) 8-10 years (d) none of these
127.The term backward class implies backwardness
• (a) Socially and educationally (b) economically
• (c) Culturally (d) none of these
128.Backward classes commission is appointed by the
• (a) Prime minister (b) president
• (c) Chief minister of all states (d) governor
129.Types of emergencies provided in the Indian constitution is
• (a) 4 (b) 5
• (c) 6 (d) 3
130.The power to declare emergency is vested in the
• (a) Prime minister (b) president
(c) Governor (d) chief minister
131.National emergency may be declared on the grounds
• (a) internal disturbance (b) political instability
• (c) war (d) national calamities
•
132.National emergency may be declared under the following
articles
• (a) 360 (b) 2
• (c) 352 (d) 375
133.National emergency can be declared when the cabinet
communicates to the president
• (a) Orally (b) in writing
• (c) (a) or (b) (d) none of these
134.Proclamation of emergency must be approved with in
• (a) 2months (b) 1 month
• (c) 6 month (d) 1 year
135.A resolution approving the proclamation must be passed by
• (a) Simple majority (b) special majority
• (c) Either (a) or (b) (d) none of these
136. Once approved, proclamation of emergency remains in force for
• (a) 1 year (b) 6 year
• (c) 6 months (d) 3 months
137.During emergency the states can be give directions by the
• (a) Supreme court (b) centre
• (c) Parliament (d) none of these
138.During emergency thre is automatic suspentin of rights guaranted under
• (a) Article 14 (b) Article 21
• (c) Article 19 (d) Article 18
139.So far national emergency has been declared times in India
• (a) Five (b) six
• (c) Three (d) one
140.State emergency can be declared when there is
• (a) War (b) failure constitutional machinery in state
• (c) Financial crisis (d) none of these
141. State emergency is also called as
• (a) President rule (b) prime minister
• (c) Governor rule (d) chief justice rule
142.President can impose state emergency when he receives a report from the
• (a) Chief minister (b) governor
• (c) Chief justice (d) attorney general
143.During state emergency the president exercise the power of the
• (a) Chief minister (b) prime mister
• (c) Governor (d) chief justice
144.Financial emergency may be declared when is
• (a) Financial instability (b) war
• (c) Internal disturbance (d) none of these
145. Declaration of financial emergency is
• (a) 6 months (b) 2 months
• (c) 3 months (d) 1 year
146.Federal constitution means a constitution in which powers are
divided between the
• (a) Centre and state (b) state only
• (c) People and states (d) none of these
•
147.The powers to superintendent, direct and control elections is
vested in the
• (a) Planning commission (b) election commission
• (c) Finance commission (d) none of these
148.election commission is____ member commission
• (a) single (b) double
• (c) multi (d four
149.The condition of the service of the election commissioners may
be determined by the
• (a) Prime minister (b) governor
• (c) President (d) chief justice of India
150.The removal of chief election commissioner may be on grounds
similar to that of
• (a) Judge of high court (b) judge of the supreme court
• (c) Attorney general of India (d) governor of a state
151.Election commissioners are appointed by the
• (a) Chief justice of India (b) Prime minister
• (c) President (d) none of these
152.Every citizen the age of ____ years is eligible to vte in an eletion
• (a) 21 years (b) 16 years
• (c) 25 years (d) 18 years
153.Seats are reserved in favor of
• (a) Scs and sts (b) aged person
• (c) Sick persons (d) disabled persons
154.No of seats to be reserved for anglo Indian community in lok sabha
is
• (a) Three (b) two
• (c )One (d) unlimited
155.constitutions are classified into
• (a) rigid (b) flexible
• (c )rigid and flexible (d) none of these
156.The method of amending rigid constitution is by
• (a) Simple majority (b) special majority
• (c )Cannot be amended (d) none of these
157. Procedure amend the constitution is contained in
• (a) Article 268 (b) Article 368
• (c ) Article 338 (d ) none of these
158.No of method of amending the constitution
• (a) Two (b) one
• (c )Three (d) four
159. 42ND amendment act came into force in
• (a) 1956 (b) 1960
• (c ) 1976 (d) 1978
160.The words added to the preamble by this amendment were
• (a) Socialist only (b) secular only
• (c )Integrity only (d) all of these
161.Which among the following were given supremacy over
fundamental rights
• (a) Fundamental duties (b) citizenship
• (c ) DPSP (d) none of these
162.Life of lokha sabha was increased from 5 to ___ years
• (a) 6 years (b) 7
• (c) 4 months (d) 10 years
163.44TH constitutional amendment act came into force in
• (a) 1972 (b) 1976
• (c ) 1978 (d) 1980
164.____ Was restored to 5 years
• (a) Life of rajya sabha (b) life of lok sabha
• (c )Life of both (d) none of these
165.Establishment of ___ was the subject matter of 74TH amendment act
• (a) Corporation (b) municipalities
• (c ) High courts (d) none of these
166.Reservation in promotion to scs and sts is permitted in
• (a) Article 16 (b) Article 15(4)
• (c ) Article 16(4) (d) none of these
167.Right to education under article 21 (a) is now a
• (a) Legal right (b) constitutional right
• (c )Fundamental right (d) none of these
168.91ST amendment act 2003 strengthens
• (a) Anti defection law (b) preventive defection law
• (c )Civil law (d) none of these
169.The total member of ministers including the prime minister should not
exceed
• (a) 10 % (b) 20%
• ©15% (d) 30%
170.Article 21 A was a gift of ___ amendment act
• (a) 81ST (b) 82ND
• (c )86TH (d) 89TH
171.Election disputes can be adjudicated only by
• (a) High court (b) criminal court
• (c )Election commission (d) civil court
172.Is it possible to separate professional ethics from personal ethics
• (a) No (b) yes
• (c )Possible to some extent (d) none of these
173.Do you agree that personal ethics is the foundation of professional
ethics
• (a) As to some extent (b) yes and no
• (c )No (d) yes
174.What does the professional ethics deal
• (a) it deals with the ethical standards accepted by the
professional
• (b) it deals with legal standards
Community
• (c )It deals with the business aspects
• (d) it deals with the official
175.What standards on which the enginees have to comply with
• (a) Legal
(b) commercial
• (c)The standards according model rules of professional conduct
provided
• (d) ethical
176.Expand the abbreviated word NSPE
• (a) National scheme for professional ethics (b) national society
for professional engg
• (c )National sector – wise programme efficiency (d) none of these
177.What are the codes provided by NSPE to apply in particular
circumstances
• (a) To avoid the conflict of interest (b) to protect
wealth
• (c )To understand the problems of engineers (d) to inspect the
agenda
178.The following are the aims of the professional ethics
• (a) Developing analytical standards (b) toleration on
agreement and ambiguity
• (c )Sense of developing ethical principles (d) recognition
of ethical issues
179.Are engineers morally responsible for causing harm intentionally
negligently for recklessly
• (a) No (b) yes
• (c )Yes to some extent (d) none of these
180. What is one of the three basic attitudes towards the
responsibilities of engineers
• (a) Minimalist (b) uncritical
acceptance of authority
• (c )Inspection (d) none of these
181.The responsibilities of engineers are divided into
• (a) Four (b) three
• (c )Two (d) five
182.What do you, mean by minimalist approach
• (a) Sticking on maximum acceptable standards (b) Sticking on
minimum acceptable standards
• (c )Sticking on full acceptable standards (d) none of these
183.What is emphasized in reasonable considerable care
– Attention to those who are at rist of being harmed and to
prevent
(a)The progress or adverse effect of harm
(b) none of these
• (c) attention to those who are not at the risk
• (d) attention on both of the above
184. Is considerable care beyond the minimalist approach
• (a) No (b) yes
• (c )No to some extent (d) yes to some extent
185. In good work views focus is given on
• (a) Concept of skillful work
• (b) concept of legal work
• ©Concept of logical work
• (d) the concept of responsibility beyond
And moral and call of duty
186.Is self –interest impediment or hindrance to responsibility
• (a) No (b) yes
• (c )Yes to some extent (d) none of these
187.Is fear impediment or hindrance to responsibility
• (a) No (b) Yes to some
extent
• (c )Yes and no (d) yes
188.What is the other hindrance to the responsibility
• (a) Self deception (b) self assessment
• (c )Self realization (d) negligence
189.Honesty is
• (a)Perfect ness (b) readyness
• (c )Truthfulness (d) surrendering to god
190.Dharma is
• (a)Sincerity (b) caste belief
• (c )What is god for the self (d) truth of justice
191.Honesty is
• (a)Not liked by all (b) liked by all but not practical
• (c )Liked in others (d) liked by one add all
192.Engineering honesty is doing
• (a)What is right for oneself (b) what is good for the society
• (c )What is good for the employer (d) what earns money quickly
192.Engineers should not indulge in
• (a)Fraudulent business (b) constructive measures
• (c )Healthy attitudes to words society (d) none of these
195.telling the truth when should not is
• (a)honesty (b) dharma of an engineer
• (c )misusing the truth (d) business principle
196.misusing the truth is
• (a)disclosing information when should not
• (b) sincerity in engineering
• (c )doing good service to the customer
• (d) upholding dignity of the profession
197.Failure to reveal the truth means
• (a)Lying (b) protecting the employer is interest
• (c )Protecting the company interest (d) none of these
198.Deliberate deception means
• (a)An engineer is deliberately deceiving the customer
• (b) An engineer is deceiving the employer
• (c )An engineer is doing the service to the society
• (d) An engineer is doing good service to both
• Employer and society
198.Withholding information is
• (a)Ommiting necessary information to the customer
• (b) committing an offence
• (c )Ommiting necessary information to the employer
• (d) committing an error of judgement
199.Corrupting the truth means
• (a)Conflict of interest (b) conflict of judgement
• (c )Conflict of service (d) none of these