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Physics
1. A radioactive nucleus undergoes spontaneous

decay in the sequence

Atomic number of element X. The possible decay (a) C/2 (b) 3C/2
particles in the sequence are: (c) 3C (d) 2C
(a) 6. In a potentiometer circuit a cell of EMF 1.5 V gives
(b) balance point at 36 cm length of wire. If another cell
(c) cell, then at what length
(d) of the wire, the balance point occurs?
2. Polar molecules are the molecules: (a) 64 cm
(a) Acquire a dipole moment only when magnetic (b) 62 cm
(c) 60 cm
(b) Having a permanent electric dipole moment. (d) 21.6 cm
(c) Having zero dipole moment. 7.
(d) escape velocity from the surface of another planet
charges having a radius, four times that of Earth and same
3. The effective resistance of a parallel connection that mass density is:
consists of four wires of equal length, equal area of (a) 3 v
cross-section and same material is 0.25 . What will (b) 4 v
be the effective resistance if they are connected in (c) v
series? (d) 2 v
(a) 1 8. A cup of coffee cools from 90°C to 80°C in t minutes,
(b) 4 when the room temperature is 20°C. The time taken
(c) 0.25 by a similar cup of coffee to cool from 80°C to 60°C at
(d) 0.5 a room temperature same at 20°C is
4. Column-I gives certain physical terms associated (a)
conductor. (b)
Column-II gives some mathematical relations
involving electrical quantities. (c)
Match Column-I and Column-II with ap aropriate (d)
relations.
9.
Column I Column II ac source of voltage V, given by V = V0 sin t The
(A) Drift Velocity displacement current between the plates of the
(P)
capacitor, would then be given by:
(B) Electrical Resistivity (Q) ne (a)
(C) Relaxation Period (R) (b)
(D) Current Density (S) (c)
(d)
(a) A-R, B-P, C-S, D-Q 10. A small block slides down on a smooth inclined plane,
(b) A-R, B-Q, C-S, D-P starting from rest at time t = 0.
(c) A-R, B-S, C-P, D-Q Let Sn be the distance travelled by the block in the
(d) A-R, B-S, C-Q, D-P interval t = n 1 to t = n,
5. The equivalent capacitance of the combination Then, the ratio is:
(a)

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(b) 16. Two charged spherical conductors of radius R1 and R2

are connected by a Wire. Then the ratio of surface
(c) charge densities of the sphere is:
(d)
(a)
11. If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are chosen
as the fundamental physical quantities. Find the (b)
dimensions of energy. (c)
(a) [F] [A] [T-1]
(b) [F] [A-1] [T] (d)
(C) [F] [A] [T]
(d) [F] [A] [T2]
17. focal length 20 cm and a concave
12. For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in X -
direction, which one of the following combinations kept along the same
a parallel
gives the
beam of light falling
(E) and magnetic eld (B) respectively>
(a)
(a) 50 (b) 30
(b)
(c) 25 (d) 15
(c)
18.
(d)
of 5 A as shown. An electron is moving with a speed
of 105 m/s parallel to the conductor. The
13. A spring is stretched by 5 cm by a force 10N. The time perpendicular distance between the electron and the
period of the oscillations when a mass of 2 kg is conductor is 20 cm at an instant. Calculate the
suspended by it is: magnitude of the force experienced by the electron at
(a) 3.14 s the instant.
(b) 0.628 s
(c) 0.0628 s
(d) 6.28 s
14. A particle is released from height S from the surface
of the Earth. At a certain height its kinetic energy is
three times its potential energy. The height from the
surface of earth and the speed of the particle at that
instant are respectively
(a) 4 X 10-20 N
(a) (b) 8 × 10-20 N
(c) 4 × 10-20 N
(b) (d) 8 X 10-20 N
(c) 19. If E and G respectively denote energy and
gravitational constant, then E/G has dimensions of:
(d) (a) [M][L°][T°]
(b) [M2][L-2][T-1]
15. A lens of large focal length and large aperture is best
(C) [llL-1][T°]
suited as an objective of an astronomical telescope
(d) [M][L-1][T-1]
since:
(a) A large aperture contributes to the quality and 20. The velocity of a small ball of mass M and density d,
visibility of the images with glycerin
(b) A large area of the objective ensures better light becomes constant after some time. If the density of
gathering power glycerin is , then the viscous force acting on the ball
(c) A large aperture provides a better resolution will be:
(d) All of the above
(a) Mg (b) 2 Mg

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(c) (d) Mg (b) 1015

(c) 1018
21. The electron concentration in an n-type (d) 1017
semiconductor is the same as hole concentration in a
25. Water falls from a height of 60 m at the rate of 15 kg/s
p- (electric) is
to operate a turbine. The losses due to frictional force
applied across each of them.
are 10% of the input energy. How much power is
Compare the currents in them.
(a) Current in n-type > current in p-type generated by the turbine? (g = 10 m/s2)
(a) 12 .3 kW (b) 7.0 kW
-type, current will only
(c) 10.2 kW (d) 8.1 kW
-type
(c) Current in n-type = current in p-type 26. An electromagnetic wave of
(d) Current in p-type > current in n-type on a photosensitive surface of negligible work
22. photoelectron emitted from
the surface has de-Broglie wavelength , then:
uniformly distributed across its cross - section. The
(a)
axis of the cable is (b)
represented by
(c)
(d)

(a) 27. Match Column-I and Column-II and choose the

correct match from the given choices.

Column I Column II
(b) (A) Root means square speed of (P)
gas molecules
(B) Pressure exerted by ideal gas
(Q)
(c) Average kinetic energy of a (R)
(c) molecule
(D) Total internal energy of 1 mole (S)
of a diatomic gas

(d) (a) A-Q, B-P, C-S, D-R

(b) A-R, B-Q, C-P, D-S
23. A screw gauge gives the following readings when (c) A-R, B-P, C-S, D-Q
used to measure the diameter of a wire Main scale (d) A-Q, B-R, C-S, D-P

reading: 0 mm Circular scale reading: 52 divisions 28. A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two
Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100 fragments each of mass number 120, the binding
divisions on the circular scale. The diameter of the energy per nucleon of unfragmented nuclei is 7.6 MeV
wire from the above data is: while that of fragments is 8.5 MeV. The total gain in
(a) 0.26 cm
the Binding Energy in the process is:
(b) 0.052 cm (a) 804 MeV
(0) 0.52 cm (b) 216 MeV
(d) 0.026 cm (c) 0.9 MeV
24. The number of photons per second on an average (d) 9.4 MeV
emitted by the source of monochromatic light of 29. A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform
wavelength 600 nm, when it delivers the power of 3.3 plates. If the distance
× 10-3 watt will be: (h = 6.6 × 10-34Js)
(a) 1016

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stored in the capacitor is: (80 = (a)
permittivity of free space)
(b)
(a)
(c)
(b)
(d)
(c)
(d) 34. An inductor of inductance L, a capacitor of
are
30. Find the value of angle of emergence from the prism. connected in series to an ac source of potential
Refractive index of the glass is
Potential difference across L, C and R is 40 V, 10V and
40V, respectively. The amplitude of
through LCR series circuit is l/E. The impedance of
the circuit is

(a) 45° (b) 90°

(c) 60° (d) 30°
31.
which direction will it move?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d)
35. A body is executing simple harmonic motion with
frequency of its potential energy is:
(a) 3n
(b) 4n
(a) Towards the left as its potential energy will (c) n
decrease (d) 2n
(b) Towards the right as its potential energy will 36.
increase corresponding to a 900 sector is removed. The
(c) Towards the left as its potential energy will moment of inertia of the remaining part of the ring
increase about an axis passing through the center of the ring
(d) Towards the right as its potential energy will
decrease
32. Consider the following Statements (A) and (B) and (a) (b)
identify the correct answer. (c) (d)
A. A Zener diode is connected in reverse bias, when
used as a voltage regulator. 37. A series LCR circuit containing 5.0 H inductor, 80 F
B. The potential barrier of p - n junction lies between capacitor and 40 resistor is connected to 230 V
0.1 V to 0.3 V. variable frequency ac source. The angular
(a) (A) is correct (B) is incorrect. frequencies of the source at which power transferred
(b) (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct. to the circuit is half the power at the resonant angular
(c) (A) and (B) both are correct. frequency are likely to be:
(d) (A) and (B) both are incorrect. (a) 46 rad/s and 54 rad/s
33. A half-life of a radioactive nuclide is 100 hours. The (b) 42 rad/s and 58 rad/s
(c) 25 rad/s and 75 rad/s
fraction of original activity that will remain after 150
(d) 50 rad/s and 25 rad/s
hours would be:

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38. A uniform conducting wire of length 12a and
carrying coil
in the shape of.

The magnetic dipole moments of the coil in each case (a) 1/6 kg
respectively are: (b) 1/12 kg
(a) 3 Ia2 and 4 Ia2 (c) 1/2 kg
(b) 4 Ia2 and 3 Ia2 (d) 1/3 kg
(c) Ia2 and 3 Ia2
44. A ball of mass 0.15 kg is dropped from a height 10 m,
(d) 3 Ia2 and Ia2
strikes the ground and rebounds to the same height.
39. A step-down transformer connected to ac mains The magnitude of impulse imparted to the ball is (g =
supply of 220 V is made to operate at 11 V, 44 W lamp. 10 m/s2) nearly:
Ignoring power losses in the transformer, what is the (a) 21 kg m/s
current in the primary circuit? (b) 1.4 kg m/s
(a) 2A (b) 4A (c) 0 kg m/s
(c) 0.2A (d) 0.4A (d) 4.2 kg m/s
40. Twenty-seven drops of same size are charged at 220 45. A particle moving in a circle of radius R with a
V each. They combine to form a bigger drop. Calculate uniform speed takes a time T to complete one
the potential of the bigger drop. revolution. I this particle were projected with the
(a) 1520 V same horizontal, the
(b) 1980 V maximum height attained by it equals 4R. The angle
(c) 660 V of projection, , is then given by:
(d) 1320 V
(a)
41. Two conducting circular loops of radii R 1 and R2 are
placed in the same plane with their centers (b)
coinciding. If R1 >> R2, the mutual inductance M
between them will be directly proportional to: (c)
(a) (b)
(d)
(c) (d)
46. For the given circuit, the input digital signals are
42. e
applied at the terminals A, B and C.
(k < 1) from the surface of the earth. What would be the output at the terminal y?
(Ve = escape velocity)
The maximum height above the surface reached by
the particle is:
(a)
(b)

(c)

(d)
43. A uniform rod of length 200 cm and mass 500 g is
balanced on a wedge placed at 40 cm mark. A mass of
2 kg is suspended from the rod at 20 cm and another
suspended from the rod at 160

such that the rod is in equilibrium. (g = 10 m/s2)

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(a)

(b)
(c) (a)
(b)
(d)
(c)
47. In the product
(d)
For q = 1 and
What will be the complete expression for ? 50. A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a
(a) convex lens of focal length 30 cm.
(b) If a plane mirror were put perpendicular to the
(c) principal axis of the lens and at a distance of 40 cm
(d)
of:
48. A car starts from rest and accelerates at 5 m/s2. At t =
4s, a ball is dropped out of a window by a person
sitting in the car. What is the velocity and acceleration
of the ball at t = 6s? (Take g = 10 m/s2)
(a)
(a) 30cm from the plane mirror, it would be a Virtual
(b) image.
(c) (b) 20 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a Virtual
(d) 20m /s, 0 image.
49. Three resistors having resistance r1, r2, and r3 are (c) 20 cm from the lens, it would be a real image.
connected as shown in the given circuit. (d) 30 cm from the lens, it would be a real image
The ratio i3/i1 of currents in terms of resistances used
in the circuit is:
Chemistry
51. BF3 is planar and electron deficient compound. 54. The pKb of dimethylamine and pKa of acetic acid are
Hybridization and number of electrons around the 3.27 and 4.77 respectively at T(K).
central atom, respectively are The correct option for the pH of dimethyl ammonium
(a) Sp2 and 6 acetate solution is:
(b) sp3 and 8 (a) 7.75
(c) Sp3 and 4 (b) 6.25
(d) Sp3 and 6 (c) 8.50
52. Which of the following reactions is the metal (d) 5.50
displacement reaction? Choose the right option. 55. The structure of beryllium chloride in solid state and
(a) Fe+2HCl vapour phase, are:
(b) 2Pb(NO3)2 (a) Dimer and Linear, respectively
(b) Chain in both
(c) 2KClO3 2KCl+3O2
(c) Chain and dimer, respectively
(d) Cr2O3+2Al Al2O3+2Cr (d) Linear in both

53. The compound which shows metamerism is 56. Zr (Z = 40) and Hf (Z = 72) have similar atomic and
(a) C3H6O ionic radii because of:
(b) C4H10O (a) Lanthanoid contraction
(c) C5H12 (b) Having similar chemical properties
(d) C3H8O (c) Belonging to same group
(d) Diagonal relationship

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57. A particular station of All India Radio, New Delhi,
broadcasts on a frequency of 1,368 KHz (kilohertz).
The wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation (b)
emitted by the transmitter is:
[Speed of light, c = 3 × 108 ms-1] (c)
(a) 2192 m
(b) 21.92 cm
(c) 219.3 m
(d)
(d) 219.2 m
58. An organic compound contains 78% (by wt.) carbon
and remaining percentage of hydrogen. The right 64. The correct option for the number of body centred
option for the empirical formula of this compound is: unit cells in all 14 types of Bravais lattice unit cells is:
[Atomic wt. Of C is 12, H is 1] (a) 2
(a) CH3 (b) 3
(b) CH4 (c) 7
(c) CH (d) 5

(d) CH2 65. Which one of the following polymers is Prepared by
59. Ethylenediaminetetraacetate (EDTA) ion is addition polymerisation?
(a) (a) Novolac
(b) (b) Dacron
(c) O (c) Teflon
donor atoms (d) Nylon-66

(d) Unidentate ligand
66. What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound
60. Among the following alkaline earth metal halides, one formed in the following chemical reaction?
which is covalent and soluble in organic solvents is:
(a) Magnesium chloride Acetone
(b) Beryllium chloride
(a) pentan-3-ol
(c) Calcium chloride
(b) 2-methyl butan-2-ol
(d) Strontium chloride
(c) 2-methylpropan-2-ol
61. (d) pentan-Z-ol

(a) Starch solution 67. Match List I with List-II
(b) Urea Solution List-I List-II
(c) NaCI solution (a) PCl5 (i) Square pyramidal
(d) Glucose Solution (b) SF6 (ii) Trigonal planar
62. The molar conductance of NaCl. HCI and CH3COONa (c) BrF5 (iii) Octahedral
at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and 91.0 S cm2 (d) BF3 (iv) Trigonal bipyramidal
mol'1 respectively. The molar conductance of (a) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
CH3COOH at infinite dilution is. (b) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Choose the right option for your answer. (c) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(a) 698.28 S cm2 mol-1 (d) (a) (ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(b) 540.48 S cm2 mol-1 68. The incorrect statement among the following is:
(c) 201.28 S cm2 mol-1 (a) Lanthanoids are good conductor5 of heat and
(d) 390.71 S cm2 mol-1 electricity
63. The correct structure of 2,6 Dimethyl-dec-4-ene (b) Actinoids are highly reactive metals, especially
when finely divided.
(a) (c) Actinoid contraction is greater for element to
element than Lanthanoid contraction
(d) Most of the trivalent Lanthanoid ions are
colorless in the solid state.

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69. Dihedral angle of least stable conformer of ethane is (b) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
(a) 60° (c) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(b) 0° (d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) 120°
(d) 180° 74. Given below are two statements:
70. Choose the correct option for graphical Statement I: Aspirin and Paracetamol belong to the
graph of class of narcotic analgesics.
pressure vs. Volume of a gas at different temperature. Statement II: Morphine and Heroin are non narcotic
analgesics. In the light of the above statements,
choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
(a) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(b) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
(a) (c) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

75. Which one among the following is the correct option
for right relationship between Cp and CV for one mole
of ideal gas?
(b) (a) CP = RCV
(b) CV = RCP
(c) CP + CV = R
(d) CP V=R

(c) 76. The maximum temperature that can be achieved in

blast furnace is:
(a) Upto 1900 K
(b) Upto 5000 K
(c) Upto 1200 K
(d) (d) Upto 2200 K

71. The correct sequence of - 77. For a reaction A B, enthalpy of reaction is -4.2 kJ
is mol-1 and enthalpy of activation is 9.6 kJ mol-l. The
(a) CH3 F < CH3 CI > CH3 Br > CH3 I correct potential energy profile for the reaction is
(b) CH3 CI > CH3 F > CH3 Br > CH3 I shown in option
(c) CH3 F < CH3 CI < CH3 Br < CH3 I
(d) CH3 F > CH3 Cl > CH3 Br > CH3 I
72. Tritium, a radioactive isotope of hydrogen, emits
which of the following particles?
(a) Gamma ( )
(b) Neutron (n)
(c) Beta
(a)
(d) alpha
73. Statement I:
Acid strength increases in the order given as HF<<
HF<<HCI << HBr <<HI.
Statement II:
As the size of the elements F, Cl, Br, I increases down
the group, the bond strength of HF, HCI,
(b)
HBr and HI decreases and so the acid strength
increases.
(a) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.

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(b) Noble gases have large positive values of electron
gain enthalpy
(c) Noble gases are sparingly soluble in water
(d) Noble gases have very high melting and boiling
points
83. The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation
(c) reaction of 2-Bromopentane is pent-2-ene. This
product formation is based on?
(a) Hofmann Rule
(b) Huckel's Rule

84.
(d) reagent to give a solid which dissolves in alkali.
78. Which one of the following methods can be used to
(a)
obtain highly pure metal which is liquid at room
temperature?
(a) Distillation (b)
(b) Zone refining
(c) Electrolysis
(c)
(d) Chromatography
79. The RBC deficiency is deficiency disease of (d)
(a) Vitamin B1
85. The following solutions were prepared by dissolving
(b) Vitamin B2
10 g glucose (C5H12O6) in 250 ml of water (P1) 10 g of
(c) Vitamin B12
urea (CH4N2O) in 250 ml of water (P2) and 10 g of
(d) Vitamin B6
sucrose (C12H12011) in 250 ml of water (P3). The
right option for the decreasing order of osmotic
80. The major product of the following chemical reaction
pressure of these solutions is.
is:
(a) P2 > P3 > P1
(b) P3 > P1 > P2
(c) P2 > P1 > P3
(d) P1 > P2 > P3
(a) 86. Match List I with List II

(b) List -I List-II
(a) 2SO2(g)+O2(g) (i) Acid rain
2SO3(g)
(c)
(b) HOCl(g) OH+Cl (ii) Smog
(c) CaCO3+H2SO4 CaSO4 (iii)Ozone depletion
(d)
+H2O+CO2
81. Right option for the number of tetrahedral and
(d) NO2(g) NO(g) + O(g) (iv) Tropospheric
octahedral voids in hexagonal primitive unit cell are pollution
(a) 2, 1 (b) 12, 6
(c) 8, 4 (d) 6, 12 Choose the correct answer from the options given
82. Noble gases are named because of their inertness below:
towards reactivity. Identify an incorrect statement (a) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
about them. (b) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(a) Noble gases have weak dispersion forces (c) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

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(d) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
87.
chemical reaction is
(b)

(c)
(a)

(b) (d)

90. Choose the correct option for the total pressure (in
(c) atm.) in a mixture of 4 g O2 and 2 g H2 confined in a
total volume of one litre at 0° C is:
(a) 25.18
(d) (b) 26.02
88. Match List I with List II (c) 2.518
(d) 2.602
91. The correct option for the value of vapour pressure of
a solution at 45°C with benzene to octane in molar
ratio 3 : 2 is:
[At 45°C vapour pressure of benzene is 280 mm Hg
and that of octane is 420 mm Hg. Assume Ideal gas]
(a) 336 mm of Hg
(b) 350 mm of Hg
(c) 160 mm of Hg
(c) 168 mm of Hg
92. Which of the following molecules is non polar in
nature?
(a) SbCl5
(b) NO2
(c) POCI3
(d) CH2O
Choose the correct answer form the options given
below. 93.
(a) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii) reaction is:
(b) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(c) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c) (ii), (d)-(iii)
(d) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
89. The product formed in the following chemical
reaction is
(a) HI
(b)CuCN/KCN
(c) H2O
(d) CH3CH2OH
94. Match List I with List II

(a) List-I List-II

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(a) [Fe(CN)6]-3 (i) 5.92 BM (c) 1.75 × 10-4 mol L-1
(b) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (ii) 0 BM (d) 2.50 × 10-4 mol L-1

(c) [Fe(CN)6]4- (iii) 4.90 BM 98. The slope of Arrhenius Plot (In k v/s 1/T) of first
(d) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (iv) 1.73 BM order reaction is 5 × 103 K. The value of Ea of the
reaction is. Choose the correct option for your
Choose the correct answer from the options given answer.
below. [Given R = 8.314 JK-1 mol-1]
(a) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii) (a) 166 kJ mol-1
(b) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c) (ii), (d)-(iii) (b) -83 kJ mol-1
(c) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) (c) 41.5 kJ mol-1
(d) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) (d) 83.0 kJ mol-1
95. From the following pairs of ions which one is not an
iso electronic pair? 99. CH3CH2COO-Na+ CH3CH3 + Na2CO3.
(a) Mn2+, Fe3+ Consider the above reaction and identify the missing
(b) Fe2+, Mn2+ reagent/chemical
(c) O2-', F- (a) CaO
(b) DIBAL-H
96. For irreversible expansion of an ideal gas under (c) B2H5
isothermal condition, the correct option is: (d) Red Phosphorus
(a) 100. In which one of the following arrangements the given
(b) sequence is not strictly according to the properties
(c) indicated against it?
(d) (a) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 : Increasing acidic
97. The molar conductivity of 0.007 M acetic acid is 20 S character
cm2 mol-1. What is the dissociation constant of acetic (b) CO2 < SiO 2 < SnO2 < PbO2 : Increasing oxidizing
acid? Choose the correct option. power
= 350 S cm2 mol-1 (c) HF < HCI < HBr < HI : Increasing acidic strength
= 50 S cm2 mol-1 (d) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te : Increasing pKa values
(a) 1.75 × 10-5 mol L-1
(b) 2.50 × 10-5 mol L-1

Biology

101. During the purification process for recombinant DNA (a) The perinuclear space forms a barrier between
technology, addition of chilled ethanol precipitates the materials present inside the nucleus and that
out: of the cytoplasm
(a) Histones (b) Nuclear pores act as passages for proteins and
(b) Polysaccharides RNA molecules in both directions between
(c) RNA nucleus and cytoplasm
(d) DNA (c) Mature sieve tube elements possess a
102. A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is conspicuous nucleus and usual cytoplasmic
(a) 7-nucleate and 7 celled organelles
(b) 8 nucleate and 8 celled (d) Microbodies are present both in plant and animal
(c) 8 nucleate and 7 celled cells
(d) 7 nucleate and 8 celled 104. The plant hormone used to destroy weeds in a field is
103. Which of the following is an incorrect statement? (a) 2, 4-D
(b) IBA
(c) IAA

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(d) NAA (b) Blue-Green Algae
105. Match list I with list II. (c) Green Algae
(d) Brown Algae
List-I List-II 111. Diadelphous stamens are found in:
(a) Cells with active (i) Vascular (a) Pea
cell division Tissues (b) China rose and citrus
capacity (c) China rose
(b) Tissue having all (ii) Meristematic (d) Citrus
cells similar in tissues 112. Which of the following statements is not correct?
structure and (a) Pyramid of energy is always upright
function (b) Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem is
(c) Tissue having (iii) Sclereids upright
different type of (c) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.
cells (d) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright

(d) Dead cells with (iv) Simple Tissue
highly thickened 113. Which of the following are not secondary metabolites
walls and narrow in plants?
lumen (a) Vinblastin, curcumin
(b) Rubber, gums
(a) (a)- (i); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iii);(d) - (iv) (c) Morphine, codeine
(b) (a)- (iii); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iv);(d) - (i) (d) Amino acids, glucose
(c) (a)- (ii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (i);(d) - (iii) 114. Gemmae are present in:
(d) (a)- (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (ii);(d) - (i) (a) Some Gymnosperms
(b) Some Liverworts
106. Which of the following is not an application of PCR (c) Mosses
(Polymerase Chain Reaction) (d) Pteridophytes

(a) Purification of isolated protein 115. When the centromere is situated in the middle of two
(b) Detection of gene mutation equal arms of chromosomes, the chromosome is
(c) Molecular diagnosis referred as:
(d) Gene amplification (a) Sub metacentric
107. Which of the following is a correct sequence of steps (b) Acrocentric
in a PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) ? (c) Metacentric
(a) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing (d) Telocentric
(b) Annealing, Denaturation, Extension 116. The factor that leads to Founder effect in a population
(c) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension is:
(d) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing (a) Mutation
108. When gene targetting involving gene amplification is (b) Genetic drift
attempted in an individual's tissue to treat disease, it (c) Natural selection
is known as: (d) Genetic recombination

(a) Molecular diagnosis 117. Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia produce two
(b) Safety testing kinds of spores. Such plants are known as:
(c) Biopiracy (a) Homosporous
(d) Gene therapy (b) Heterosporous
109. Mutations in plant cells can be induced by: (c) Homosorus
(a) Gamma rays (d) Heterosorus
(b) Zeatin 118. In the equation GPP R = NPP R represents
(c) Kinetin (a) Environment factor
(d) Infrared rays (b) Respiration losses
110. Which of the following algae produce Carrageen? (c) Radiant energy
(a) Red Algae (d) Retardation factor

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119. Which of the following plants is monoecious? (d) Punch square
(a) Marchantia polymorpha 126. Plants follow different pathways in response to
(b) Cycas circinalis environment or phases of life to form different kinds
(c) Carica papaya of structures. This ability is called
(d) Chara (a) Plasticity
120. The amount of nutrients such as carbon, nitrogen, (b) Maturity
phosphorus and calcium (c) Elasticity
(a) Standing state (d) Flexibility
(b) Standing crop 127. Amensalism can be represented as:
(c) Climax (a) Species A (-) ; Species B (-)
(d) Climax community (b) Species A (+) ,- Species B (0)
121. The term used for transfer of pollen grains from (c) Species A (-) ; Species B (0)
anthers of one plant to stigma of a different plant (d) Species A (+);Species B (+)

which, during pollination, brings genetically different 128. Match list I with list II.
types of pollen grains to stigma, is:
(a) Chasmogamy
(b) Cleistogamy
(c) Xenogamy
(d) Geitonogamy
122. Match list I with list II. (a) (a)- (iii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (i);(d) - (ii)
(b) (a)- (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (ii);(d) - (i)
List-I List-II (c) (a)- (iii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (ii);(d) - (i)
(a) Lenticels (i) Phellogen (d) (a)- (ii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv);(d) - (iii)

(b) Cork cambium (ii) Suberin 129. Inspite of interspecific competition in nature, which
deposition mechanism the competing species might have
(c) Secondary cortex (iii) Exchange of gases evolved for their survival?
(d) Cork (iv) Phelloderm (a) Mutualism
(a) (a)- (ii); (b) - (iii); (c) - (iv);(d) - (i) (b) Predation
(b) (a)- (iv); (b) - (ii); (c) - (i);(d) - (iii) (c) Resource partitioning
(c) (a)- (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (iii);(d) - (ii) (d) Competitive release
(d) (a)- (iii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv);(d) - (ii) 130. Which of the following algae contains mannitol as
reserve food material?
123. DNA strands on a gel stained with ethidium bromide (a) Volvox
when viewed under UV radiation, appear as: (b) Ulothrix
(a) Dark red bands (c) Ectocarpus
(b) Bright blue bands (d) Gracilaria
(c) Yellow bands
(d) Bright orange bands 131. The site of perception of light in plants during
124. Which of the following stages of meiosis involves photoperiodism is:
division of centromere? (a) Axillary bud
(a) Anaphase II (b) Leaf
(b) Telophase II (c) Shoot apex
(c) Metaphase | (d) Stem

(d) Metaphase II 132. The first stable product of CO2 fixation in sorghum is:
125. The production of gametes by the parents, formation (a) Succinic acid
of zygotes, the F1 and F2 plants can be understood (b) Phosphoglyceric acid
from a diagram called (c) Pyruvic acid
(a) Punnett square (d) Oxaloacetic acid
(b) Net square 133. Match List I with List II
(c) Bullet square

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List-I List-II (d) Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP
(a) Cristae (i) Primary con striction in reductase
chromosome 137. Select the correct pair.
(b) Thylakoide (ii) Disc shaped sacs in (a) Cells of medullary rays that form part of cambial
Golgi apparatus ring Interfascicular cambium
(c) Centromere (iii) lnfoldings in (b) Loose parenchyma cells rupturing the epidermis
mitochondria and forming a lens shaped opening in bark
(d) Cisternae (iv) Flattened membranous Spongy parenchyma
sacs in stroma of (c) Large colorless empty cells in the epidermis of
plastids grass leaves Subsidiary cells
Options: (d) In dicot leaves, vascular bundles are surrounded
(a) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)- (i), (d)-(ii) by large thick walled cells Conjunctive tissue
(b) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)- (iv), (d)-(i) 138. Identify the correct statement.
(c) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)- (ii), (d)-(i) (a) The coding strand in a transcription unit is copied
(d) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)- (iii), (d)-(ii) to an mRNA
134. Complete the flow chart on central dogma. (b) Split gene arrangement is characteristic of
prokaryotes
Options: (c) In capping, methyl guanosine triphosphate is
(a) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c) -
Translation; (d)-Protein (d) RNA polymerase binds with Rho factor to
(b) (a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation; (c)- terminate the process of transcription in
Replication; (d)-Protein bacteria.
(c) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c) -
Transduction; (d)-Protein 139. Match List I with List II
(d) (a)-Translation; (b)-Replication; (c) -
Transcription; (d)-Transduction List-I List-II
(a) S phase (i) Proteins are
135. Match List I with List II synthesized
(b) G2 phase (ii) Inactive phase
List-I List-II
(c) Quiescent (iii) Interval between
(a) Cohesion (i) More attraction in liquid stage mitosis and initiation of
phase DNA replication
(b) Adhesion (ii) Mutual attraction
(d) G1 phase (iv) DNA replication
among water molecules
Options:
(c) Surface (iii) Water loss in liquid (a) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)- (ii), (d)-(iii)
tension phase (b) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)- (iii), (d)-(i)
(d) Guttation (iv) Attraction towards (C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)- (i), (d)-(iv)
polar surfaces (d) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)- (iii), (d)-(i)

Choose the correct answer from the options given 140. Match list I with list II.
below.
(a) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)- (iv), (d)-(ii) List-I List-II
(b) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)- (iv), (d)-(iii) (a) Nitrococcus (i) Denitrification
(c) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)- (i), (d)-(iii) (b) Rhizobium (ii) Conversion of ammonia
(d) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)- (ii), (d)-(i) to nitrite
136. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (c) Thiobacillus (iii) Conversion of nitrite to
(a) Grana lamellae have both PS | and PS II nitrate
(b) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I (d) Nitrobacter (iv) Conversion of
and PS II. atmospheric nitrogen to
(c) Both ATP and NADPH + H+ are synthesized ammonia
during non-cyclic photophosphorylation.
Options:

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(a) (a)- (iii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv);(d) - (ii) (b) Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric
(b) (a)- (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (ii);(d) - (i) nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath cells
(c) (a)- (ii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (i);(d) - (iii) (c) Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy.
(d) (a)- (i); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iii);(d) - (iv) (d) Fusion of protoplasms between two motile or
non-motile gametes is called plasmogamy
141. Match list I with list II. 146. Now a days it is possible to detect the mutated gene
causing cancer by allowing radioactive probe to
hybridise its complementary DNA in a clone of cells,
followed by its detection using autoradiography
because :
(a) mutated gene does not appear on a Photographic
film as the probe has no complementarity with it
(b) mutated gene does not appear on Photographic
Options: film as the probe has complementarity with it
(a) (a) (ii); (b) - (iii); (C) - (iv);(d) - (i) (c) mutated gene partially appears on a
(b) (a)- (iv); (b) - (ii); (C) - (i);(d) - (iii) photographic film
(c) (a)- (iii); (b) - (iv); (C) - (ii);(d) - (i) (d) mutated gene completely and clearly appears on
(d) (a)- (i); (b) - (ii); (C) - (iii);(d) - (iv) a photographic film.
142. Match list I with list II. 147. Plasmid pBR322 has Psl restriction enzyme site
within gene ampR that confers ampicillin resistance.
List-I List-II If this enzyme is used for inserting a gene for -
(a) Protein (i) C . C double bonds galactoside production and the recombinant plasmid
(b) Unsaturated (ii) Phosphodiester is inserted in a E.coli strain
fatty acid bonds (a) it will lead to lysis of host cell.
(c) Nucleic acid (iii) Glycosidic bonds (b) it will be able to produce a novel protein with
(d) Polysaccharide (iv) Peptide bonds dual ability
Options: (c) it will not be able to confer ampicillin resistance
(a) (a)- (ii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv);(d) - (iii) to the host cell
(b) (a)- (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (i);(d) - (ii) (d) the transformed cells will have the ability to
(c) (a)- (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (ii);(d) - (iii) resist ampicillin as well as produce
(d) (a)- (i); (b) - (iv); (c) - (iii);(d) - (ii) galactoside

143. Which of the following statements is incorrect? 148. In some members of which of the following pairs of
(a) ATP is synthesized through complex V families, pollen grains retain their viability for
(b) Oxidation reduction reactions produce proton months after release ?
gradient in respiration. (a) Poaceae ; Solanaceae
(c) During aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is (b) Rosaceae ; Leguminosae
limited to the terminal stage (c) Poaceae ; Rosaceae
(d) In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule (d) Poaceae; Leguminosae

of NADH + H+ gives rise to 2 ATP 149. What is the role of RNA polymerase III in the process
molecules, and one FADH2 gives rise to 3 ATP of transcription in eukaryotes?
molecules (a) Transcribes precursor of mRNA
144. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences (b) Transcribes only snRNAs
in some specific regions in DNA sequence, called as: (c) Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
(a) Single nucleotides (d) Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA
(b) Polymorphic DNA 150. In the exponential growth equation Nt = N0ert, e
(c) Satellite DNA represents:
(d) Repetitive DNA (a) The base of natural logarithms
145. Which of the following statements is correct? (b) The base of geometric logarithms
(a) Organisms that depend on living plants are called (c) The base of number logarithms
saprophytes (d) The base of exponential logarithms

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151. Read the following statements. (b) (a) and (d) only
(a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths. (c) (b) and (d) only
(b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate (d) (b) and (c) only
animals.
(c) Round worms have organ system level of body 156. Match list I with list II.
organization.
(d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in
digestion.
(e) Water vascular system is characteristic of
Echinoderms. Options:
Choose the correct answer from the options given (a) (a) (ii): (b) - (iv); (c) - (iii);(d) - (i)
below. (b) (a) (iii): (b) - (i); (c) - (iv):(d) - (ii)
(a) (a), (cl) and (e) are correct (c) (a)- (iv); (b) - (ii); (c) - (i);(d) - (iii)
(b) (b), (c) and (e) are correct (d) (a)- (i): (b) - (iii); (C) - (ii);(d) - (iv)
(c) (c), (d) and (e) are correct
157. Which of the following RNAs is not required for the
(d) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
synthesis of protein?
152. Match list I with list II.
(a) rRNA (b) siRNA
(c) mRNA (d) tRNA
158. Identify the incorrect pair.
(a) Lectins - Concanavalin A
(b) Drugs - Ricin
(c) Alkaloids - Codeine
(a) (a)- (iii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (ii); (d) - (i) (d) Toxin - Abrin
(b) (a)- (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (ii); (d) - (iii) 159. A specific recognition sequence identified by
(c) (a)- (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (i); (d) - (ii) endonucleases to make cuts at specific positions
(d) (a)- (iii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (i); (d) - (ii) within the DNA is:
153. Which of the following statements wrongly (a) Palindromic Nucleotide sequences
represents the nature of smooth muscle? (b) Poly(A) tail sequences
(a) Communication among the cells is performed by (c) Degenerate primer sequence
intercalated discs (d) Okazaki sequences
(b) These muscles are present in the wall of blood 160. Which of the following is not an objective of
vessels Biofortification in crops ?
(c) These muscle have no striations (a) Improve vitamin content
(d) They are involuntary muscles (b) Improve micronutrient and mineral content
154. The centriole undergoes duplication during: (c) Improve protein content
(a) Metaphase (d) Improve resistance to diseases
(b) G2 phase 161. Chronic auto immune disorder affecting
(c) S-phase neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue,
(d) Prophase weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle is called
155. With regard to insulin choose correct options. as:
(a) Myasthenia gravis (b) Gout
(a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.
(c) Arthritis (d) Muscular dystrophy
(b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has
162. Which one of the following belongs to the family
C-peptide.
Muscidae?
(c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide.
(a) Cockroach
(d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are (b) House fly
interconnected by disulphide bridges (c) Fire fly
Choose the correct answer from the options given (d) Grasshopper
below.
(a) (a), (c) and (d) only

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163. The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of oxygen (O2) and (a) Using sterile needles ; (b) Transfusion of blood
carbon dioxide. (CO2) at alveoli (the site of diffusion) from infected person ; (c) Infected mother to foetus ;
are: (d) Kissing ; (e) Inheritance
(a) pO2 = 95 and pCO2 = 40 Choose the correct answer from the options below:
(b) pO2 = 159 and pCO2 = 0.3 (a) (b) and (c) only
(c) pO2 = 104 and pCO2 = 40 (b) (a) and (c) only
(d) pO2 = 40 and pCO2 = 45 (c) (a), (b) and (c) only
164. During the process of gene amplification using PCR, if (d) (b), (c) and (d) only
very high temperature is not maintained in the 171. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in each cell.
beginning, then which of the following steps of PCR During interphase of Mitosis if the number of
will be affected first? chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, what would be the
(a) Denaturation number of chromosomes after S phase?
(b) Ligation (a) 4 (b) 32
(c) Annealing (c) 8 (d) 16

(d) Extension 172. If Adenine makes 30% of the DNA molecule, what will
165. Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of be the percentage of Thymine, Guanine and Cytosine
inactive fibrinogens to fibrins? in it?
(a) Epinephrine (a) T : 30; G : 20; C : 20
(b) Thrombokinase (b) T : 20; G : 25; C : 25
(c) Thrombin (c) T : 20; G : 30; C : 20
(d) Renin (d) T : 20; G : 20; C : 30

166. The organelles that are included in the 173. Which one of the following organisms bears hollow
endomembrane system are and pneumatic long bones?
(a) Golgi complex, Mitochondria; Ribosomes and (a) Macropus
Lysosomes (b) Ornithorhynchus
(b) Golgi complex, Endoplasmic reticulum, (c) Neophron
Mitochondria and Lysosomes (d) Hemidactylus

(c) Endoplasmic reticulum, Mitochondria,
Ribosomes and Lysosomes 174.
(d) Endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi complex, catalyse Initiation. Elongation and Termination in the
Lysosomes and Vacuoles process of transcription in prokaryotes?
(a) DNA Ligase
167. Which one of the following is an example of Hormone (b) DNase
releasing IUD? (c) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(a) Cu 7 (d) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(b) Multiload 375
(c) CuT 175. Match the following:
(d) LNG 20
168. Succus entericus is referred to as:
(a) Gastric juice

(b) Chyme
(c) Pancreatic juice
(a) (a)- (ii); (b) - (iii); (c) - (iv);(d) - (i)
(d) Intestinal juice (b) (a)- (i); (b) - (iv); (c) - (iii);(d) - (ii)
169. Select the favorable conditions required for the (c) (a)- (ii); (b) - (iii); (c) - (i);(d) - (iv)
formation of oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli. (d) (a)- (iv); (b)- (i); (c) - (iii);(d) - (ii)
(a) High pO2, high pCO2, less H+, higher temperature 176. Which stage of meiotic prophase shows
(b) Low pO2, low pCO2, more H+, higher temperature terminalisation of chiasmata as its distinctive
(c) High pO2, low pCO2, less H+, lower temperature feature?
(d) Low pO2, high pCO2, more H+, higher temperature (a) Diakinesis
(b) Pachytene
170. Veneral diseases can spread through:
(c) Leptotene

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(d) Zygotene (d) Lactobacillus (iv) Butyric Acid
177. Dobson units are used to measure thickness of:
(a) Ozone Options:
(b) Troposphere (a) (a) (ii): (b) - (iii): (c) - (i);(d) - (iv)
(c) CFCs (b) (a)- (iv); (b) - (ii): (c) - (i):(d) - (iii)
(d) Stratosphere (c) (a)- (iii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv):(d) - (ii)
(d) (a)- (i): (b) - (ii); (c) - (iii);(d) - (iv)
178. Sphincter of oddi is present at:
184. Receptors for sperm binding in mammals are present
(a) Gastro-oesophageal junction
on
(b) Junction of jejunum and duodenum
(a) Perivitelline space
(c) Ileo-caecal junction
(b) Zona pellucida
(d) Junction of hepato-pancreatic duct and
(c) Corona radiata
duodenum
(d) Vitelline membrane
179. In a cross between a male and female, both
185. For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis
heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia gene, what
and understanding its pathophysiology is very
percentage of the progeny will be diseased?
important. Which of the following molecular
(a) 25%
diagnostic techniques is very useful for early
(b) 100%
detection?
(c) 50%
(a) ELISA Technique
(d) 75%
(b) Hybridization Technique
180. (c) Western Blotting Technique
(d) Southern Blotting Technique
(a) Presence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, on 186.
RBCs
and phenylalanine.
(b) Absence of antibodies, anti-A and anti-B, in
plasma the amino acid lysine.
(c) Absence of antigens A and B on the surface of (a) Statement I is correct but statement II is false
RBCs (b) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true
(d) Absence of antigens A and B in plasma (c) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
181. Which of the following characteristics is incorrect (d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
with respect to cockroach ?
187. Match list I with list II.
(a) In females, 7th-9th sterna together form a genital
pouch
List-I List-II
(b)10th abdominal segment in both sexes, bears a
(a) Scapula (i) Cartilaginous joints
pair of anal cerci
(b) Cranium (ii) Flat bones
(c) A ring of gastric caeca is present at the junction of
midgut and hind gut (c) Sternum (iii) Fibrous joints
(d)Hypopharynx lies within the cavity enclosed by (d) Vertebral (iv) Triangular flat bone
the mouth parts. column

182. Erythropoietin hormone which stimulates R.B.C. Options:

formation is produced by (a) (a)- (iv); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iii);(d) - (i)
(a) The cells of bone marrow (b) (a)- (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (ii);(d) - (i)
(b) Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney (c) (a)- (i); (b) - (iii); (c) - (ii);(d) - (iv)
(c) Alpha cells of pancreas (d) (a)- (ii); (b) - (iii); (c) - (iv);(d) - (i)
(d) The cells of rostral adenohypophysis

188. Which of the following is not a step in Multiple

183. Match list I with list II. Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET) ?
(a) Cow is fertilized by artificial insemination
List-I List-II (b) Fertilized eggs are transferred to surrogate
(a) Aspergillus niger (i) Acetic Acid mothers at 8-32 cell stage
(b) Acetobacter aceti (ii) Lactic Acid
(c) Clostridium butylicum (iii) Citric Acid

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(c) Cow is administered hormone having LH like (a) (a)- (i); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iv);(d) - (iii)
activity for super ovulation (b) (a)- (ii); (b) - (iii); (c) - (i);(d) - (iv)
(d) Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a time (c) (a)- (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (iii);(d) - (ii)
189. Which of the following secretes the hormone, relaxin, (d) (a)- (iii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (i);(d) - (ii)
during the later phase of pregnancy? 194. During the muscular contraction which of the
(a) Foetus following events occur?
(b) Uterus zone disappears
(c) Graafian follicle
(d) Corpus luteum
(d) Myosine hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP and
190. Which one Of the following statements about Pi.
Histones is wrong ?
(e) Z-lines attached to actins are pulled inwards.
(a) Histones are rich in amino acids - Lysine and
Choose the correct answer from the options given
Arginine
below.
(b) Histones carry positive charge in the side chain.
Options:
(c) Histones are organized to form a unit of 8 (a) (b),(c),(d),(e) only
molecules.
(b) (b),(d),(e),(a) only
(d) The pH of histones is slightly acidic
(c) (a),(c),(d),(e) only
191. Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop (d) (a),(b),(c),(d) only
the leakage of the substances across a tissue and 195. Assertion (A): A person goes to high altitude and
facilitation of communication with neighbouring cells experiences 'altitude sickness' with symptoms like
via rapid transfer of ions and molecules breathing difficulty and heart palpitations.
(a) Adhering junctions and Tight junctions, Reason (R): Due to low atmospheric pressure at high
respectively altitude, the body does not get sufficient oxygen.
(b)Adhering junctions and Gap junctions, In the light of the above statements, choose the
respectively correct answer from the options given below
(c) Gap junctions and Adhering junctions, Options:
respectively (a) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) Tight junctions and Gap junctions, respectively (b)(A) is false but (R) is true
192. Following are the statements with reference to (c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
'lipids'. explanation of (A)
(a) Lipids having only single bonds are called (d)Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
unsaturated fatty acids. explanation of (A)

(b) Lecithin is a phospholipid 196. Match list I with list II.
(c) Trihydroxy propane is glycerol.
(d) Palmitic acid has 20 carbon atoms including List-I List-II
carboxyl carbon (a) Adaptive (i) Selection of
(e) Arachidonic acid has 16 carbon atoms radiation resistant varieties
Choose the correct answer from the options given due to excessive use
below of herbicides and
(a) (b) and (c) only pesticides
(b) (b) and (e) only (b) Convergent (ii) Bones of forelimbs
(c) (a) and (b) only evolution in Man and Whale
(d) (c) and (d) only (c) Divergent (iii) Wings of butterfly
193. Match list I with list II. evolution and birds
(d) Evolution by (iv) Darwin Finches
anthropogenic

Options:
(a) (a)- (ii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iv);(d) - (iii)
Options: (b) (a)- (i); (b) - (iv); (c) - (iii);(d) - (ii)

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(c) (a)- (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (ii);(d) - (i)
(d) (a)- (iii); (b) - (ii); (c) - (i);(d) - (iv) 199. Match list I with list II
197. Following are the statements about prostomium of
earthworm.
(a) It serves as a covering for mouth
(b) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which it can
crawl

(c) It is one of the sensory structures Options:
(d) It is the first body segment (a) (a)- (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (ii);(d) - (iii)
Choose the correct answer from the options given (b) (a)- (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (ii;(d) - (i)
below (c) (a)- (iv); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iii);(d) - (i)
(d) (a)- (iv); (b) - (i); (c) - (iii);(d) - (ii)
(a) (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct
200. Which of these is not an important component of
(b) (b), (c) are correct
initiation of parturition in humans?
(c) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(d) (a), (b) and (d) are correct (a) Release of Oxytocin
(b) Release of Prolactin
198. The Adenosine deaminase deficiency results into: (c) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio
(a) Digestive disorder (d) Synthesis of prostaglandins
(b)
(c) Dysfunction of Immune system

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SOLUTIONS
1. (a) 43. (b) 85. (c)

2. (b) 86. (c)
3. (b) 44. (d) 87. (c)
4. (c) 45. (b) 88. (b)
5. (d) 46. (c)
89 (b)
6. (c) 47. (d) 90. (a)
7. (b) 48. (b)
91. (a)
8. (d) 49. (d)
92. (a)
50. (b)
9. (c) 93. (d)
51. (a)
10. (d)
52. (d) 94. (b)
11. (d) 53. (b)
12. (d) 95. (b)
54. (a)
96. (a)
13. (b) 55. (c)
14. (b) 56. (a) 97. (a)
57. (c) 98. (c)
15. (d) 99. (a)
58. (a)
16. (d) 100. (d)
59. (c)
17. (d) 101. (d)
60. (b)
18. (b)
61. (a) 102. (c)
18. (c)
62. (d) 103. (c)
20. (c)
63. (c) 104. (a)
21. (a)
22. (a) 64. (b) 105. (c)
23. (b) 63. (c) 106. (a)
66. (b) 107. (c)
24. (a)
67. (c) 108. (d)
25. (d)
68. (d) 109. (a)
26. (a)
69. (b) 110. (a)
27. (a) 70. (b)
28. (b) 111. (a)
71. (d)
29. (a) 112. (d)
72. (c)
113. (d)
30. (c) 73. (c)
114. (b)
31. (d) 74. (d)
115. (c)
32. (c) 75. (d)
33. (d) 116. (b)
76. (d)
34. (b) 117. (b)
77. (d)
35. (d) 118. (b)
36. (c) 78. (a)
119. (d)
37. (a) 79. (c)
120. (a)
38. (c) 80. (c) 121. (c)
39 (c) 81. (b)
40. (b) 122. (d)
82. (d)
41. (b) 123. (d)
83. (c)
42. (b) 84. (a) 124. (a)

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125. (a) 150. (a) 176. (a)
126. (a) 151. (b) 177. (a)
127. (c) 152. (a) 178. (d)
128. (d) 153. (a) 179. (a)
129. (c) 154. (c) 180. (b)
130. (c) 155. (a) 181. (c)
131. (b) 156. (d) 182. (b)
132. (d) 157. (b) 183. (c)
133. (a) 158. (b) 184. (b)
134. (a) 159. (a) 185. (a)
135. (c) 160. (d) 186. (b)
136. (b) 161. (a) 187. (b)
137. (a) 162. (b) 188. (c)
138. (d) 163. (c) 189 (d)
190. (d)
139 (a) 164. (a)
191. (d)
140. (c) 165. (c)
192. (a)
141. (c) 166. (d)
193. (d)
142. (c) 167. (d)

168. (d) 194. (c)

143. (d)
169. (c) 195. (c)
144. (d)
170. (a) or (d) 196. (c)
145. (d)
171. (c) 197. (c)
146. (a)
172. (a) 198. (c)
147. (c)
173. (c) 199. (a)
148. (b)
149. (d) 174. (d) 200. (b)
175. (a)

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