CRJ 200 Oral Test Bank

162 Questions

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Questions and Answers

1. Who is responsible to ensure a preflight inspection is accomplished?

A. First Officer
B. Captain (PIC)
C. Flight Attendant
2. There are two types of "Preflight Inspections" a "Detailed Inspection", and a "General
Inspection", when is a detailed inspection required?
A. Prior to the first flight of the day
B. After significant maintenance has been performed
C. Anytime the aircraft's condition is in question
D. When the flight attendant tells you to
3. What does an item with an asterisk (*) next to it indicate on the "Preflight Inspection"?
(http://www.proprofs.com/discuss/q/111359/what-does-item-with-asterisk-next-indicate-the-
preflight-ins)
Discuss (http://www.proprofs.com/discuss/q/111359/what-does-item-with-asterisk-next-indicate-the-preflight-ins)
 A. An item that must be checked during the aircraft security search as directed by the FOM
B. An item that is extra special
4. Before the first flight of the day: galley, ceiling, and sidewall lights must be illuminated bright
for how long? ______ minutes to sufficiently charge the floors track photoluminescent
lighting.
5. Before conducting the "APU FIRE TEST" during the flight deck safety check, what must
you ensure?
A. There is no APU FIRE FAIL caution message
B. There is a APU FIRE FAIL caution message
C. The airplane is parked at an odd gate number
6. What is the minimum voltage required on the APU and Main batteries prior to starting the
APU? ____ volts
7. At ____ % RPM the APU starter normally cuts out during the APU Start.
8. When does the APU Green "AVAIL" indication light illuminate?
A. 99% + 4 seconds
B. 95% + 4 seconds
C. 95% + 5 seconds
D. 99% + 5 seconds
9. What does the APU Green "AVAIL" light mean?
A. APU is available for AC Power
B. APU is available for Bleed air extraction
C. APU is single and wants an date
10. After the APU is started, how long must you wait before applying bleed air loads? ______
minutes, except when the APU is used for emergencies or abnormal conditions
11. How long does it take for the AHRS to initialize in the MAG mode?
A. 30 to 70 seconds
B. 45 seconds to 10 minutes
C. Up to 11 minutes
12. How long can it take for AHRS alignment in the DG mode?
A. Up to 11 minutes
B. 30 to 70 seconds
C. 5 minutes
13. What is the primary purpose of the Flight Deck Safety Check?
A. To get the apu fire tested?
B. To apply electrical power to the aircraft
C. To have something to do when you get to the plane in the morning
14. When is a Flight Deck Inspection required
A. Aircraft's First Flight of the Day
B. Crew/Aircraft Change
C. Aircraft status is in question
15. What does the " * " next to items mean on the Flight Deck Inspection Check?
A. First Officer Duties
B. First Flight of the Day Items
C. Optional items on the checklist
16. What precautions must be taken prior to turning hydraulic pump 3A on during the Flight
Deck Safety Check?
A. Make sure you clean the switch with an alcohol wipe
B. Ask a mechanic to use the switch
C. Confirm the Nose wheel area is clear or the Nose Door Closed
17. How quickly must AC electrical power be established after the Battery Master switch has
been turned on? ______ minutes, to prevent EICAS overheating
18. What documents are required to be checked and ensured to be on board the aircraft?
A. AML
B. QRH
C. MEL
D. CDL / DDL
E. Speed Cards
F. Airworthiness Certificate
G. Registration
H. Radio Station License
I. Cell Phone
J. US today
19. When should the Before Start Check be accomplished? Approximately ____ minutes prior
to departure.
20. Reference the Cleared to Start Check response to "PAPERS.............ON BOARD." What
papers must be onboard?
A. Manual Load Manifest (FT451) as required
B. Dispatch flight release / flight plan
C. Customs Clearance
D. Personal Logbook
E. Personal Schedule
21. When checking the Fuel Check Valve, what is the procedure if you do not get the R FUEL
LO PRESS caution message after 20 seconds?(you have not attempted starting the right
engine yet)
A. Stop the Left Engine and call maintenance
B. We never should get a R FUEL LO PRESS caution message
C. Initiate the right engine start
22. If you do not get a R FUEL LO PRESS caution message during the right engine start, you
should discontinue the Right Engine Start and contact maintenance.
A. True
B. False
23. When can the Wing Anti-ice Test be completed?
A. Only once both engines are running
B. Anytime after the Before Start Check
24. During the After Start Check, when can the APR Test be completed?
A. Only when both engines are running
B. Only when the first officer can dance on one leg
25. When conducting the APR TEST, what indications should be observed?
A. APR ICON illuminates on both N1 gauges
B. N1 gauges turn amber
C. APR TEST 1 OK (APR TEST 2 OK) advisory message
D. ITT gauges turn red
26. Referencing the After Start Check response to "Electrics....Checked" What is required to
be checked?
A. All Buses powered
B. Loads, voltages, frequencies within normal ranges
C. Flow Lines green
D. Hydraulic pumps on
E. No abnormal messages displayed
27. When conducting the Single Engine Taxi Procedures, when should the second engine be
started?
A. Number 2 for takeoff, 1 minute prior to takeoff
B. Number 4 for takeoff, at least 2 minutes prior to takeoff
C. Number 1 for takeoff, less than 1 minute prior to takeof
28. Who does the Second Engine Start Checklist?
A. First Officer
B. Captain
29. During the APU shutdown, the APU RPM must be below _____ % RPM before selecting
the APU PWR FUEL switch light to OFF.
30. The minimum fuel for takeoff is?
A. BURN + RESV
B. BURN + ALT + RESV
C. BURN + ALT + RESV + CONT
D. BURN + ALT + RESV + TAXI
E. BURN + ALT + RESV + TANKER
31. When are the recognition and ice lights required to be ON?Recognition and ice lights are
required for all operations conducted below _________ ft, as long as their use does not
create a distraction to the flight crew
32. When are the boxed items on the CLIMB CHECK completed?The boxed items are
performed upon reaching ________ ft, or cruise altitude if lower
33. When completing the After Landing Checklist, what flap setting are we required to leave in
 if the approach was made in icing conditions, or if the runway was covered in snow or
slush?_______ degrees
34. When is it required to start the APU during the Approach Check?
A. On a really cold day because we don't want to be cold
B. If icing conditions are expected
C. To make the company spend more money on APU usage
35. How long after engine shutdown is complete, do we do the engine oil check?_____
minutes to ____ hours after engine shutdown(enter it as "___ / ____") we are limited to
what answers we can check
36. What is the purpose of the Exit Checklist?
A. To remove electrical power from the aircraft
B. To leave the aircraft powered and unattended for short periods of time.
37. What is the purpose of the Termination Check?
A. To remove electrical power from the aircraft
B. To leave the aircraft powered and unattended for short periods of time.
38. Perform a terminating check if the plane will be unattended in excess of _____ hour (s)
39. Perform a Exit Check if the plane will be unattended between ____ minutes and 1 hour.
40. What are the required certificates to operate as PIC?
A. ATP with Type Rating
B. Airplane Multi-Engine Land Class Rating
C. First Class Medical
D. Company Issued Photo Id
E. FCC License
F. Valid Passport
G. Bachelors Degree
41. What are the required certificates to operate as SIC?
A. Commercial Pilots + SIC Type Rating
B. Instrument Rating
C. Airplane Multi-engine Land Class Rating
D. Second Class Medical
E. Company Issued Photo ID
F. FCC License
G. Valid Passport
42. By what day must you turn in your medical certificate to the chief pilots office?
43. How many days is a Temporary Airman Certificate Valid?
44. How many days after your address changes must you notify the FAA?
45. No crewmember is allowed to consume alcohol, including beer and wine within how many
hours prior to duty? (Non-Training Events)
46. No crewmember is allowed to consume alcohol, including beer and wine within how many
hours prior to duty? (Training Events)
47. Crewmembers are not allowed to take Viagra within how many hours prior to flying?
48. After donating blood or a transfusion, how long is a Crewmember restricted from flying?
________ Hours
49. Crewmembers are strongly recommended to refrain from scuba diving within how many
hours of any scheduled flight duty?______ hrs
50. A Pinnacle crewmember may engage in commercial flying outside of Pinnacle.
A. True
B. False
51. How many hours can a Crewmember be scheduled to fly between required rest periods?
52. How many hours can a Crewmember be scheduled in seven (7) consecutive day?
53. How many hours can a crewmember be scheduled in a calendar month?
54. How many hours can a crewmember be scheduled in a calendar year?
55. What is the maximum duty time a crewmember is allowed to work?
56. What is the minimum required rest for a crewmember that has exceeded a fifteen (15) hour
duty period?
57. How many hours must a pilot fly, for consolidation of knowledge, upon completing their
initial proficiency check or type rating if new to an aircraft type? _____ hrs line operations
within 120 days.
58. A high minimums captain must increase the visibility to commence the approach?
59. A high minimums captain must increase the ceiling to commence a approach, what is the
amount in ft to increase by?
60. Can a High Minimum Captain conduct a CAT II approach?
A. Yes
B. No
61. What are the landing requirements for Flight Crewmembers?
A. 3 Takeoffs and Landings within the last 90 days
B. 3 Takeoffs and Landings during day / 3 Takeoffs and Landings during night
C. No requirements to maintain currency
62. When a SIC has less than 100 hours of flight time in revenue operations for the company
as second-in-command in the type airplane being flow, and the PIC is not a check airman,
the PIC must make all takeoffs and landings under what conditions?
A. Prevailing visibility in the latest wx report for the airport is at or below 3/4 mile
B. RVR at or below 4000 ft
C. Runway to be used has water, slush, or similar conditions that may adversely affect aircraft
performance
D. Braking Action less than "GOOD"
E. Crosswind is greater than 15 kts
F. Windshear is reported in the vicinity of the airport
G. Any other conditions the PIC deems appropriate
H. LAHSO
I. Looks funny
63. When is the Fasten Seatbelt sign required to be "ON"?
A. Taxiing
 B. Takeoff / Landing
C. Turbulent Air Conditions
64. What is the minimum rate of climb must you be able to maintain before reporting it to ATC?
_____ fpm
65. What does the term Minimum Fuel mean?
A. Oh snap, we be outta fuel!
B. The existing fuel supply is sufficient to complete the flight without undue delays
C. The existing fuel supply is sufficient to complete the flight and fly in the pattern for 2 hours
D. There is no such thing as minimum fuel
66. Illuminated hand wands are required for marshalling the aircraft at night.
A. True
B. False
67. What is the maximum Fuel on Board can be over the RELEASE FUEL and not require an
amendment to the release?_____ lbs
68. What airports in our system route manuals are authorized for use as an alternate?
A. Any airport in the US
B. Any airport in the System Route manual that is not indicated with a Not Authorized (NA)
C. I don't dang well need an alternate! Stop bugging me fool
69. How do we determine whether we need an "Alternate" at a non-Cat II airport?
A. +/- 1 hour from ETA the forecast is less than 2 miles visibility and 3000 overcast
B. +/- 2 hour from ETA the forecast is less than 1 mile visibility and 3000 overcast
C. +/- 1 hour from ETA the forecast is less than 3 miles visibility and 2000 overcast
D. Captain / Dispatcher determines or requests one
E. Braking Action reports is poor or nil
F. Braking Action is not GOOD
G. X-Wind component is greater than 20 kts
H. X-Wind component is greater than 25 kts
I. Headwind is greater than 10 kts
J. Never need an alternate
70. When do we need a Takeoff Alternate?
A. Whenever the weather at the departure airport allows you to return given the current wx, airplane
status, and crew qualifications
B. Departure airport is forecast to be less than 3 miles visibility and 2000 overcast
C. Does not meet the C-55 requirements
71. What are the requirements for a takeoff alternate?
A. Must be more than 1 hour from the departing airport at normal cruising speed and one engine inop
B. Must be less than 1 hour from the departing airport at normal cruising speed and one engine inop
C. Must be less than 1 hour from the departing airport at normal cruising speed with both engines
running
72. Unless an emergency exists what is the lowest reported braking action report we are
 allowed to land with?
A. GOOD
B. FAIR
C. POOR - FAIR
D. FAIR - GOOD
E. POOR
F. NIL
73. What are the different types of hydroplanning?
A. Dynamic
B. Viscous
C. Reverted Rubber
D. Rubber on da pavement
74. What are the primary sources of electrical power?
A. Two Engines
B. APU driven Generators
C. Pedal Power!
D. Rubbing your feet on the carpeted floor really quick and touching metal
75. The normal source of DC power is the Transformer Rectifier Units (TRUs), how many does
the CRJ have?
76. How many batteries are installed? (not counting the emergency lights battery)
77. The APU and Main Battery are what type of battery?
78. What are the individual components that make up an IDG?
A. Starter
B. 35-kVA AC generator
C. 30-kVA AC generator
D. Constant speed drive
E. Variable speed drive
F. Hydraulic pump
79. Under what conditions should an IDG automatically disconnect from the engine?
A. Over temperature
B. Over torque
C. Over Current
80. Under what conditions will a GCU remove its associated IDG/Generator from the bus
system?
A. Under voltage
B. Over voltage
C. Under current
D. Over frequency
E. Under frequency
 F. Generator or bus overcurrent
81. How can an IDG be manually disconnected from its engine?
A. Move the Generator to OFF/RESET
B. Pressing the IDG DISC switch
82. Once disconnected, can the IDG be reconnected in flight?
A. Yes
B. No
83. What does a green AVAIL light illuminated on the AC external switchlight indicate?
A. The ramper is available for a date tonight
B. Power is connected and is of correct phase, voltage, and frequency
C. Power is connected and is of correct voltage and amperage
84. If the AC ESS XFER switchlight is illuminated or pressed which bus is powering the AC
ESS bus? (Just enter the number or name, do not enter AC or BUS in the answer)
85. When will power to the AC Essential Bus automatically switch from AC Bus 1 to AC Bus 2?
A. When AC Bus 2 is not powered
B. When DC Battery Bus isn't powered
C. When AC Bus 1 is not powered
86. Is it normal for the AC Essential Bus switchlight to be illuminated while on battery power
only, such as when at the gate prior to APU start?
A. Yes
B. No
87. Is it normal for the AC Essential Bus switchlight to be illuminated while on battery power
only, such as when at the gate prior to APU start? In this scenario is the AC Essential Bus
being powered?
A. Yes
B. No
88. What does the FAIL light illuminated in an AUTO XFER switchlight along with the amber
EICAS AUTO XFER FAIL indicate?
A. A bus fault or generator overcurrent condition
B. A bus fault or generator overfrequency condition
C. A big ole problem
89. What is the power source priority for AC Bus 1?Enter it as IDG or APU or Ext PwrSo it
should look like: "IDG, IDG, IDG, IDG" (not the actual answer)
90. What is the power source priority for AC Bus 2?Enter it as IDG or APU or Ext PwrSo it
should look like: "IDG, IDG, IDG, IDG" (not the actual answer)
91. How can AUTO XFER be manually inhibited?
A. By pushing the AUTO XFER switchlight
B. By turning the APU off
C. Asking the FA what to do
92. Which DC BUS TIE will not operate automatically?
A. DC TIE 1
 B. DC ESSENTIAL TIE
C. DC TIE 2
93. What does a white closed light illuminated on the DC BUS TIE 1 or 2 switchlights indicate?
A. The DC BUS has been automatically tied to the Service TRU
B. The DC BUS has been automatically tied to the Essential TRU
94. When a DC BUS TIE is closed why is the DC Utility Bus shed?
A. To ensure the Service TRU is not overloaded
B. To ensure the utility bus is powered
C. To ensure that you are ensured
95. What areas are protected by the fire and overheat detection system?
A. Engines
B. Jetpipe
C. Pylon
D. APU
E. Main landing gear
F. Cargo
G. Bathroom
96. What are the benefits of the dual detection loop system? (FIRE)
A. Redundancy
B. Disptachability
C. More maintenance required
97. How many Firex bottles are provided for engine fire extinguishing?
98. How many Firex bottles are provided for APU fire extinguishing?
99. When will APU fire extinguishing activate automatically?
A. In the air + 5 seconds
B. On the ground in the event of APU fire + 5 seconds
C. On the ground in the event of APU fire + 5 minutes
100. What does the WARN position of the TEST toggle switch simulate? (FIRE)
A. A good feeling inside
B. A fire or overheat condition
C. A "false fire" condition or a loop short
101. What does the FAIL position of the TEST toggle switch simulate? (FIRE)
A. A good feeling inside
B. A fire or overheat condition
C. A "false fire" condition or a loop short
102. What powers the fuel system ejector pumps (transfer, scavenger, main)?
A. Gravity Flow
B. Pressure Flow
C. Motive Flow
103. What does selecting either of the boost pumps switch lights ON cause?
A. Arms both pumps, and if a low fuel pressure is detected, both pumps turn on
B. Arms both pumps, and if a low fuel pressure is detected, one pump turns on
104. When is automatic fuel transfer initiated (wing tank to wing tank)?______ lbs
105. How is fuel heated?
A. Space heater
B. Engine oil to fuel heat exchangers
C. Jet exhaust
106. On the ground, if low pressure is detected in the left engine fuel feed line, which boost
pump ON light will illuminate?
A. Both, if either is selected on
B. Left BOOST PUMP
C. Right BOOST PUMP
107. In flight, if low pressure is detected in the left engine feed line, which boost pump ON light
will illuminate?
A. The boost pump not detecting the low pressure
B. The boost pump detecting low pressure will activate itself and the cross-side boost pump if
selected
C. Right BOOST PUMP
D. Left Boost Pump
108. How is fuel transferred from the center tank to the wing tanks?
A. Motive flow (scavenger ejectors)
B. Motive flow (main ejectors)
C. Motive flow (transfer ejectors)
D. Fuel pumps
109. An amber FUEL BALANCE caution message is displayed when the fuel imbalance
reaches ________ lbs.
110. Where is the bulk fuel tempature displayed?
A. Fuel Synoptic page
B. EICAS primary page
C. EICAS status page
111. Where is the engine fuel feed temperature displayed?
A. Fuel Synoptic page
B. EICAS primary page
C. EICAS status page
112. Can fuel be transferred from the center tank to the wing tanks with the engines shutdown?
A. Yes
B. No
113. Are the fuel check valves that are checked during the first flight of the day checks
depicted on the FUEL synoptic page?
 A. Yes
B. No
114. What does 10th stage bleed air supply?
A. Engine Starting
B. Wing anti-ice system
C. Air conditioning
D. Pressurization
E. Thrust Reversers
F. Avionics cooling
115. What does 14th stage bleed air supply?
A. Engine Starting
B. Wing anti-ice system
C. Air conditioning
D. Pressurization
E. Thrust Reversers
F. Avionics cooling
116. Describe the function of the TEST position of the DUCT MONITOR SELECTOR switch.
A. Simulates an overheat in both the 10th and 14th stage manifolds + the wing anti-ice duct
B. Simulates an overheat in the 10th stage manifolds
C. Simulates an overheat in the 14th stage manifolds
117. Describe the function of the LOOP A/B positions.
A. Tests the individual loops of the 10th stage leak detection system for shorts or failure
B. Tests the individual loops of the 14th stage leak detection system for shorts or failure
C. Tests the individual loops of the 1st stage leak detection system for shorts or failure
118. What does a red DUCT FAIL in the 10th or 14th stage switchlight indicate?
A. A leak (duct failure) in the associated duct section
B. A funny smell in the associated duct section
C. A overheat in the associated duct section
119. What does the amber FAIL light in the LCV switchlight indicate?
A. The APU LCV is stuck in the closed position when commanded opened by the interlock protection
or pilot
B. The APU LCV is stuck in the open position when commanded closed by the interlock protection or
pilot
120. Will the APU LCV open when the left 10th stage bleed switchlight is OPEN with the left
engine running?
A. Yes
B. No
121. Will the APU LCV open if the right 10th stage bleed switchlight is pressed OPEN with the
ISOL valve CLOSED?
A. Yes
 B. No
122. What is the primary function of the APU?
A. Engine starting
B. Bleed air
C. AC Electrical Power
123. What is the secondary function of the APU?
A. Engine starting
B. Bleed air
C. AC Electrical Power
124. What DC voltage is required to start the APU from battery power?______ volts
125. How is the APU fuel feed SOV opened?
A. When the APU PWR FUEL switchlight is pressed in (on) and the BITE test is completed
B. When the APU PWR FUEL switchlight is pressed out (off) and the BITE test is completed
C. When i tell it too
126. Under what conditions will the APU SOV close automatically?
A. Automatically with a fire detected
B. PWR FUEL switch pressed
C. APU FIRE PUSH switch pressed
D. When the Left Engine Shuts down
127. What does the amber PUMP FAIL light illuminated in the APU PWR FUEL switchlight
indicate?
A. Crossflow / APU pump has failed
B. Left BOOST pump has failed
C. The bleed air extractor pump has failed
128. What does the amber SOV FAIL light illuminated in the APU PWR FUEL switchlight
indicate?
A. The APU LCV SOV failed
B. APU Fuel Feed SOV failed
C. APU Start motor has failed
129. What does the white START light illuminated in the APU PWR FUEL switchlight indicate?
A. APU Start motor is engaged
B. APU is available for bleed air extraction
C. The crossflow / APU pump has failed
130. What does the green AVAIL light illuminating in the APU PWR FUEL switchlight indicate?
A. The APU is single and ready for a date
B. APU is ready for AC Electrical Load
C. APU is ready for bleed air extraction
131. During APU start, at what RPM should the white status APU START and the START light
in the START/STOP switchlight go out?
132. What does amber - - - - to the right of the APU DOOR status indicate (on the status
page)?
A. The APU door fell off
B. APU door position is unknown
C. The door indicator has broke, hit it a couple of times and it should work
133. If the APU is being used for air conditioning, what are the proper bleed switch positions?
A. L & R 10th SOVs Open
B. L & R 10th SOV Closed
C. APU LCV CLOSED
D. APU LCV Open
E. 10th ISOL Open
F. 10th ISOL Closed
134. Is AC electrical power required for engine starting?
A. Yes
B. No
135. When starting with DC power only, which engine is started first?
A. Right
B. Left
C. Can't start an engine with only DC power
136. Above what RPM may the starter not be engaged?_______ %
137. Under what conditions will both ignition systems be activated regardless of switch
position?
A. Stall Warning
B. Engine Start
C. Dual Engine Flameout Restart
D. CONT IGNITION switchlight selected on
138. How are the primary flight controls actuated?
A. Hydraulic power
B. Mechanical Actuated
C. Pulleys
139. The rudder system is powered by which hydraulic system?
A. System 1
B. System 2
C. System 3
140. Which of the hydraulic systems have engine driven pumps as well as electric pumps?
A. System 1
B. System 2
C. System 3
141. How many hydraulic systems are on the CRJ?
142. What does the AUTO position on the HYD 1, 2, and 3B do?
A. Causes B pumps to operate when their respective bus is powered
B. Causes B pumps to operate when their respective bus is powered, the associated gen is
operating, and the flaps are out of 0
143. Do the B pumps activate automatically after an engine shutdown?
A. Yes
B. No
144. What happens to ACMP 2B is the left engine fails?
A. It is load shed
B. It turns on and runs
C. Nothing happens to 2B, but 1B is load shed
145. Which ACMP runs continuously during normal operations?
(http://www.proprofs.com/discuss/q/163029/which-acmp-runs-continuously-during-normal-
operations)
Discuss (http://www.proprofs.com/discuss/q/163029/which-acmp-runs-continuously-during-normal-operations)

A. 1B
B. 2B
C. 3A
D. 3B
146. With both IDGs operating and pumps 1B/2B selected to the AUTO position, when will the
pumps operate?
A. Always
B. Flaps out of 0
C. Gear down
147. Which hydraulic pump automatically operates from the ADG bus during ADG
deployment?
A. 1B
B. 2B
C. 3B
D. 3A
148. How does the crew know there is adequate hydraulic fluid and quantity?
A. Fuel synoptic page and verifying lines are green
B. Hydraulic synoptic page and verifying the fluid qty is green
C. EICAS primary page tells you
149. What is the normal/ usual hydraulic quantities?
A. Red
B. Amber
C. Green
150. If the left engine fails or is shut down, which hydraulic pumps will NOT be available?
(http://www.proprofs.com/discuss/q/200184/the-left-engine-fails-shut-down-which-hydraulic-
 pumps-will-n)
Discuss (http://www.proprofs.com/discuss/q/200184/the-left-engine-fails-shut-down-which-hydraulic-pumps-will-n)

A. 1A
B. 1B
C. 3A
D. 3B
E. 2B
F. 2A
151. Can the APU generator power hydraulic pump 1B and 2B?
A. Yes
B. Only with WOW and the pumps ON
C. Yes if the pumps are selected ON
152. What does the EICAS caution message "ELT ON" mean?
A. ELT is transmitting
B. The system meant to ask you for a BLT
153. How is cabin pressurization maintained?
A. Regulating the amount of air leaked through the outflow valves
B. Adding more or less air using the PACKs
C. Cabin isn't pressurized
154. What does the LND ELEV knob on the pressurization control panel do?
A. Sets the elevation of the departing airport
B. Sets the landing elevation on the status page
155. What happens when EMER DEPR switchlight is pressed in (ON)?
A. Cabin Pressure control opens the outflow valves to full open and climbs the cabin to 14,250 ft +/-
750ft
B. Pressure controller drives the outflow valves to full close, climbing the cabin to 14,250 +/-750
C. Causes the passenger masks to drop immediately
156. What does pressing the PRESS CONTROL switchlight twice do?
A. Allows you to manually control the pressurization
B. Switches Pressure Controls
C. Nothing
157. Flying at FL200, the EMER DEPRESS switchlight is pressed, what pressure altitude
should the cabin reach?
A. 14,000ft
B. 14,250 ft
C. 14,250 +/- 750ft
158. Where is the unpressurized takeoff procedure found?
A. CFM
B. FOM
 C. Systems Manual
D. QRH
159. Where is the unpressurized landing procedure found?
A. CFM
B. FOM
C. Systems Manual
D. QRH
160. What is the maximum cabin pressure differential for opening the main cabin door?
A. 100 ft
B. Must be completely depressurized
C. -10 ft
161. What does the FAN position of the CARGO switch provide?
A. Recirculated cabin exhaust air to the cargo compartment
B. Recirculated cabin exhaust air mixed with fresh air warmed by a thermal heater to the cargo bay
C. Turns on a fan in the cargo bin to keep the rampers cool, doesn't do anything airborne
162. What does the COND AIR position of the CARGO switch provide?
A. Recirculated cabin exhaust air to the cargo compartment
B. Recirculated cabin exhaust air mixed with fresh air warmed by a thermal heater to the cargo bay
C. Turns on a fan in the cargo bin to keep the rampers cool, doesn't do anything airborne

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