Comprehensive Question Preview
Comprehensive Question Preview
Comprehensive Question Preview
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1.
5
2.
6
3.
7
4.
11
1.
2.
3.
4.
1.
2.
3.
4.
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13/10/2021, 12:32 Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
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1.
2.
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4.
1.
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4.
1.
2
2.
3
3.
1
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4
1.
1/3
2.
2/3
3.
4/3
4.
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13/10/2021, 12:32 Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
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1.
2.
3.
4.
1.
2.
3.
4.
1.
2.
3.
4.
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13/10/2021, 12:36 Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
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Questions Choices
1.
Causal, Time invariant,
Memoryless, Linear
2.
Causal, Time variant,
Memoryless, Linear
3.
Non-causal, Time invariant,
memory, Linear
4.
Non causal, Time variant,
memoryless, Non Linear
1.
2.
3.
4.
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13/10/2021, 12:36 Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
2.
3.
4.
1.
2.
3.
4.
1.
No, cannot contain a pole
2.
Cannot contain a single pole,
but, can contain a
poles of
multiple order
3.
Yes, if the poles are complex
4.
None of the mentioned
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13/10/2021, 12:36 Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
2.
3.
4.
1.
2.
3.
4.
1.
2.
3.
4.
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13/10/2021, 12:36 Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
2.
3.
4.
1.
2.
3.
4.
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13/10/2021, 12:39 Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
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1.
2.
3.
4.
1.
2.
3.
4.
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13/10/2021, 12:39 Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
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1.
2.
3.
4.
1.
2.
3.
4.
1.
2.
3.
4.
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13/10/2021, 12:39 Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
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1.
2.
3.
4.
1.
2.
3.
4.
1.
2.
3.
4.
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13/10/2021, 12:39 Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
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1.
2.
3.
4.
1.
2.
3.
4.
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13/10/2021, 12:44 Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
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1.
2.
3.
4.
1.
2.
3.
4.
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13/10/2021, 12:44 Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
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1.
2.
3.
4.
1.
2.
3.
4.
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13/10/2021, 12:44 Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
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2.
3.
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1.
2.
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1.
2.
3.
4.
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13/10/2021, 12:44 Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
2.
3.
4.
1.
HSPA
The most
important revolutionary step of GMS towards 2.
UMTS is W-CDMA
3.
EDGE
4.
GPRS
Decode a Huffman
encoded bit stream 1.a3a2a3a1a3a2a1a2a1
symbols is 4.a3a2a1a4a3a2a1a2a1
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13/10/2021, 12:49 Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
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1.
119.6 kbps
2.
19.6 kbps
In GSM,
the rate of voice transmission over TCH/F is
3.
90.6 kbps
4.
9.6 kbps
1.
Lightly
populated urban area
Larger
cells are more useful in 2.
Rural areas
3.
Densely populated urban areas
4.
Hilly areas
1.
0.0149
m2
2.
A
rectangular horn antenna operating at 4GHz 0.1149
m2
4.
0.4149
m2
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13/10/2021, 12:49 Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
The
number of source output
generated
2.
The average code-word length
Entropy
of a source of symbols is dependent
upon
3.
The probabilities of the source
symbol
4.
The order in which the source
outputs are
generated
1.
2
2.
3
Find
the degree of (7,4) cyclic code
3.
4
4.
7
1.
Attenuation
2.
For
avoiding ground losses, better is the surface Phase velocity
4.
Tilt angle
1.
Variable
to fixed length algorithm
2.
Fixed to variable length algorithm
Lempel-Ziv
algorithm is
3.
Fixed to fixed length algorithm
4.
Variable to variable length
algorithm
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13/10/2021, 12:49 Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
Time
2.
In which domain separation is inversely Frequency
4.
Angle
1.
a)
Large
scale propagation model
4.
Okumura model
1.
1800
kW
would be the
power radiated by an antenna? 3.
180
kW
4.
1180
kW
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13/10/2021, 12:50 Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
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1.
C2=2C1
A communication channel
with AWGN 2.
operating at a signal at a signal
to noise ratio C2=C1+B
4.
C2=C1+3B
1.
Arbitrarily small
2.
For M equally likely
messages, M>>1, if the Close to unity
Not predictable
4.
Arbitrarily large
1.
0.032 m2
2.
If a half-wave dipole
operates at 300 MHz 0.047 m2
1.
180 MHz
4.
18 GHz
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13/10/2021, 12:50 Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
β x
(λ/2)
at the same
point, is λ/2, what would be the 3.
phase difference between them?
β + (λ/2)
4.
β – (λ/2)
1.
0.7883 Ω
2.
If the radius of loop is λ/
20 in a free space 1203.17 Ω
medium, what will be the radiation resistance
of 8-turn
small circular loop?
3.
123.17 Ω
4.
223.17 Ω
1.
1
2.
If the receiver knows the
message being 0
4.
0.44
1.
Sinusoidal
2.
In which kind of waveform
is the phase Rectangular
velocity defined
3.
Square
4.
Triangular
1.
Size of the code-word
2.
Weight of the code-word
The number of non-zero
elements in the code- 3.
word is called as
Distance of the code-word
4.
Subspace of the code-word
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13/10/2021, 12:50 Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
Block length to message
length
2.
Message length to block
length
3.
Message weight to block
length
4.
None of the above
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13/10/2021, 12:56 Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
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1.
Equal to zero
2.
The second derivative of
the Entropy Greater than or equal to zero
1.
For a charge with no motion
2.
For a charge moving with
uniform
velocity with finite straight wire
4.
For a charge moving with
uniform
velocity in infinite wire
1.
alpha lessthan beta*d
2.
Which among the following
is regarded as a alpha greaterthan beta*d
4.
none of the above
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13/10/2021, 12:56 Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
Huffman
Encoding
2.
Which of the following is
reverseable and JPEG
Encoding
4.
Both a and b
1.
The
channel is noiseless
2.
There
must be exactly n symbols to
Which of the following must
be ensured encode
4.
The probabilities of the symbols
should be known
a priori
1.
No code word of an elementary
symbol is a prefix
of another
elementary symbol.
2.
Each symbol has a one-to-one
mapping with its
corresponding
Which one of the following
is not true for codeword.
Huffman coding?
3.
The symbols are encoded as a
group, rather than
encoding one
symbol at a time.
4.
Shorter code words are assigned to
more probable
symbols
1.
190°
2.
For a Hertz dipole
antenna, the half power 90°
4.
45°
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13/10/2021, 12:56 Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
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1.
Forward error correction code
2.
Backward error correction code
Turbo codes are
3.
Error detection code
4.
Hamming code
1.
The frequency of radiated wave
2.
The direction of magnetic field
vector
What determines
polarisation of antenna? 3.
The direction of magnetic field
vector
4.
The direction of electric field
vector
1.
Power transmitted by Base station
2.
MSCs
3.
Same frequency of mobile users
4.
Imperfect receiver filters
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13/10/2021, 12:58 Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
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1.
Amplitude varying channel
2.
Wideband channel
4.
Frequency varying channel
1.
Doppler spread
2.
For fast fading channel, the coherence time of
the Bandwidth
4.
Coherence bandwidth
1.
Received signal strength
2.
Transmitted power
3.
4.
Gain of receiver
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13/10/2021, 12:58 Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
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1.
8
2.
How many users or voice channels are supported 12
4.
16
1.
Blocked calls
2.
Cross talk
3.
Queuing
4.
Missed calls
1.
Gain of transmitter antenna
2.
Transmitter-Receiver (T-R)
The free space model predicts that received
signal separation
decays as a function of
3.
Power of transmitter antenna
4.
Effective aperture of the antenna
1.
Doppler spread
2.
Which leads to time dispersion and frequency Multipath delay spread
selective fading? 3.
Time dispersive parameters
4.
Frequency delay spread
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13/10/2021, 12:58 Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
Satellite
communication system
2.
Which of the following do not undergo free space Microwave line of sight radio links
propagation?
3.
Wireless
line of sight radio links
4.
Wired telephone systems
A
rectangular horn antenna operating at
4GHz has the wavelength of 0.075m and
gain of about 13dBi. What will be its required
capture area?
1.
Aperture
2.
Which
antennas are renowned as patch antennas Microstrip
4.
Lens
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13/10/2021, 13:04 Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
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Questions Choices
1.
VLR
2.
Which of the following is a high capacity
switch, BSC
4.
HLR
1.
13.275
F
2.
A parallel plate
capacitive transducer uses plates of area 300
mm2 which are
separated by 0.2 mm distance in air. Determine: 13.275
pF
3.
i) Original capacitance
of the transducer with
13.275
nF
permittivity of air as 8.85 x 10-12 F/m.
4.
1.3275
pF
1.
1.475
pF
A parallel plate
capacitive transducer uses plates of area 300 2.
mm2 which are
separated by 0.2 mm distance in air. Determine: 1.475 nF
ii) Change in
capacitance if a linear 3.
displacement reduces the distance between the 1.475
F
plates to
0.18 mm. 4.
14.75
pF
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13/10/2021, 13:04 Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
Flow meter
2.
Fuel level indicator
Hall Effect sensors are used in
3.
Both (A) and (B)
4.
None of the above
1.
Ferro magnetic
2.
Inductive proximity
sensors can be Dia magnetic
effective only when the objects are of
3.
_____ materials.
Para magnetic
4.
All of the above
1.
R-2R ladder DAC
2.
1.
0.25 g cm-3
2.
If 25 g of a liquid
occupies 20 cm3 in a 0.8 g cm-3
measuring cylinder, what is the density of the
3.
liquid?
1.25 g cm-3
4.
5 g cm-3
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13/10/2021, 13:04 Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
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1.
Zero order, first order
If a balloon is equipped
with temperature and 2.
altitude measuring instruments, then the order Both are first order
instruments
of the
temperature measuring and altitude 3.
measuring instruments are Both are zero order
instruments
4.
First order, zero order
1.
Stroboscope
2.
Motion of fast moving
systems may be timed Piezoelectric
crystal
ad studied by means of
3.
Electronic
timer
4.
Photovoltaic
cell
1.
Differential amplifier
2.
Amplifier with power supply and output Isolation amplifier
circuits
galvanically isolated are called
3.
______________
Inverting amplifier
4.
None of the mentioned
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13/10/2021, 13:05 Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
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1.
Hysteresis
2.
Difference between levels on input that causes Threshold
transition in Schmitt trigger is ___________ 3.
Cut-off value
4.
Peak value
1.
Resistor R1
2.
Resistor R2
For a particular op-amp hysteresis is governed
by
_______________ 3.
Both resistors R1 and R2
4.
Op-amp parameters
1.
Zero
2.
For an ideal op-amp, zero input results in Positive
output 3.
Negative
4.
Differential
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13/10/2021, 13:05 Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
Offset null
2.
In 741 IC, pin number 4 is represented by Positive input
__________ 3.
Negative input
4.
Negative supply
1.
Resistor R1
2.
1.
Unity gain amplifier
2.
Differential amplifier
Voltage follower is also known as ___________
3.
Comparator
4.
None of the mentioned
1.
Output of a differential amplifier
2.
Ability of an amplifier to reject
common mode
signals
What is the Common Mode Rejection Ratio?
3.
Ability of an amplifier to accept
common mode
signals
4.
None of the mentioned
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13/10/2021, 13:05 Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
Elimination of unwanted signals
2.
What is the purpose of a differential amplifier in To find difference of voltages
voltmeter? 3.
To eliminate DC components
4.
To set a certain voltage level
1.
Differential
2.
Which configuration of op-amp is used for filter Non-inverting
circuit? 3.
Inverting
4.
None of the mentioned
1.
Ladder network
2.
Successive approximation
technique
Which of the following are used in DAC?
3.
Both Ladder and successive
approximation technique
4.
None of the mentioned
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10/2/21, 12:15 AM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
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Questions Choices
1.
Op-amp with negative feedback
2.
Which of the following can act as a Op-amp with positive feedback
comparator? 3.
Op-amp without feedback
4.
None of the mentioned
1.
Low drift
2.
Low input impedance
Which of the following cannot be treated as a
requirement of the instrumentation amplifier? 3.
High linearity
4.
High CMRR
1.
Zero crossing detector
2.
Which of the following detect the presence of Differential comparator
a
voltage between two voltages? 3.
Window comparator
4.
None of the mentioned
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10/2/21, 12:15 AM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
Analog switch
2.
1.
Accuracy of conversion
2.
Which of the following is an indication by Speed of conversion
settling
time? 3.
Precision in conversion
4.
All of the mentioned
1.
Sine wave
2.
Which of the following is converted to square Triangular wave
wave
in Schmitt trigger? 3.
Pulse wave
4.
All of the mentioned
1.
Zero slew rate
2.
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10/2/21, 12:15 AM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
Ladder network
2.
Which of the following method is employed Successive approximation type
for ADC? 3.
PWM type
4.
None of the mentioned
1.
+ve Vcc
2.
Zero crossing detector has ____________ as -ve Vcc
reference voltage. 3.
0 V
4.
5 V
1.
True
2.
False
"Hot-wire anemometers" are differential 3.
pressure measurement type
of Flow sensors. Not
always true (depends upon
single or multi type)
4.
Always
true (depends upon single
or multi type)
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10/2/21, 12:16 AM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
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Questions Choices
1.
Peltier effect
2.
______________ describes current flow Thomson effect
between two junctions formed by two
different
3.
metals.
Seebeck effect
4.
None of the mentioned
1.
40 KΩ
A metal with temperature coefficient of
2.
resistance has a value 200/°C, its initial 4 KΩ
resistance is given by 40Ω. For an increase in
3.
300 °C to350 °C. What will be
the final
40 Ω
resistance value?
4.
400 Ω
1.
Only
flow velocity of the fluid
2.
Direction
of velocity of fluid
A Multi hot wire anemometer can sense 3.
Both
flow velocity and direction
of flow
4.
None
of the above
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10/2/21, 12:16 AM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
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1.
Potential and current
2.
Analogous quantities of heat flow and Current and potential
temperature in electrical are
_____________
3.
and _______________
Power and potential
4.
Current and power
1.
Double
2.
At equilibrium Lorentz forces will be Half
____________ of force due to Electric
field. 3.
Equal
4.
No proportionality
1.
Polling
2.
Ceramic materials are made piezoelectric by Fluxgate
effect
polarizing them using a process
called 3.
Polishing
and grinding
4.
Annealing
1.
Venturi
tubes
2.
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10/2/21, 12:16 AM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
Frequency shift caused by flow
2.
Amplitude
shift caused by flow
Doppler type ultrasonic sensors measure the velocity
flow through: 3.
Time
shift caused by flow
velocity
4.
None
of the above
1.
Decrease in area of plates, all
other factors constant
2.
Increase in distance between
For a material capacitance increases with plates, all other factors constant
_____________
3.
Decrease in distance between
plates, all other factors constant
4.
None of the mentioned
1.
product
of Maximum resistance
path and total capacitance of the
system
2.
product
of lowest insulation
resistance path and total
For a piezoelectric sensor, the sensor’s capacitance of the system
discharge time constant (DTC) is
generally
3.
determined by
addition
of lowest insulation
resistance path and total
capacitance of the system
4.
addition
of Maximum resistance
path and total capacitance of the
system
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10/2/21, 12:16 AM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
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1.
Can't
be measured
2.
If the absolute pressure at any place is 5 6 bar
bar, what is the gauge pressure
at that
3.
place?
4 bar
4.
1 bar
1.
Surface
area between the electrodes
2.
In a capacitive type level sensor which Distance
between the electrodes
among the following is generally
the
3.
variable quantity?
Dielectric
constant of the material
4.
None
of the above
1.
ordinary
cables/wires
2.
In a Voltage Mode, Low-Impedance low
noise cables
Piezoelectric Force Sensor, the
3.
connecting
cables must be:
No
cable connection is required at all
4.
Thick
and highly insulating cable
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10/2/21, 12:16 AM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
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1.
A beam
shaped bar which is suspended
on a pivot
2.
1.
The magnetization of
adjacent ferromagnetic layers is parallel
to each other.
2.
The magnetization of
In GMR sensors a higher Resistance is adjacent ferromagnetic layers is anti-
obtained when: parallel to each other.
3.
Independent
of the magnetization of the
ferromagnetic layers.
4.
GMR
sensors don’t show a high
resistance.
1.
external
mechanical pressure
2.
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10/2/21, 12:16 AM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
Photo voltaic cell
2.
Photo resistive cell
LDR’s are also called _______________
3.
Photo emissive cell
4.
All of the mentioned
1.
1.
Along
the flow direction
2.
In a
void space along the flow
Static pressure is measured in a Pitot tube
3.
Right
angles to the flow direction
4.
None
of the above
1.
Splitting
the laser beam
2.
Merging
the splitted laser beams
The Bragg Cell in a LDA is used for:
3.
Creates
the fringe patters
4.
None
of the above
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10/2/21, 12:16 AM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
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1.
metal and/or
metal-oxide powders
2.
inorganic
binder materials
The functional phase in Screen printing
3.
consists of:
Liquid
that suspends the inorganic
constituents
4.
No
functional phase is present
1.
Primary device
2.
Secondary transducer
Thermocouple is a ______________
3.
Tertiary transducer
4.
None of the mentioned
1.
Mutual inductance
2.
Self-inductance
What is the principle of operation of LVDT?
3.
Permanence
4.
Reluctance
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10/2/21, 12:16 AM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
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1.
Increases
2.
Decreases
What will happen for resistivity metal and 3.
semiconductor if the temperature
is increased? For metal increases and for
semiconductor decreases
4.
For metal decreases and for
semiconductor increases
1.
Decreases
2.
1.
Pitot
tube
2.
Which among the following flow sensors is a Hot
wire anemometer
differential pressure (d/p)
flowmeter? 3.
Laser
Doppler Anemometer
4.
Doppler
sensors
1.
Shear
Mode
2.
Which mode of piezo accelerometers are used Flexural
beam mode
for low gravitational (g)
acceleration
3.
applications
Compression
mode
4.
None
of the above
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10/2/21, 12:16 AM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
Shear
Mode
2.
Which mode of piezo accelerometers are used Flexural
beam mode
for testing high-g shock level
applications 3.
Compression
mode
4.
None
of the above
1.
Two photo diodes
2.
Which of the following are used to form photo Three photo diodes
transistors? 3.
Normal diodes
4.
None of the mentioned
1.
Capacitive pressure transducer
2.
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Questions Choices
1.
Encoders
2.
Which of the following is an analog Strain gauge
transducer? 3.
Digital tachometers
4.
Limit switches
1.
There
is no in-built signal
conditioning circuit
2.
Which of the following is true for a charge- They
use ordinary two-wire or
mode accelerometers? coaxial cables
3.
Both a
& b
4.
Neither
a nor b
1.
Selenium
2.
Which of the following materials can be used Silicon
as photoconductive transducer? 3.
Germanium
4.
All of the mentioned
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10/2/21, 12:16 AM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
Negative magnetostriction
materials
Which of the following materials shows an 2.
1.
Mechanical energy to magnetic
energy
2.
Mechanical energy to electrical
Which of the following represents correct energy
conversion for magnetostrictive
transducers? 3.
Magnetic energy to electrical
energy
4.
Mechanical energy to acoustic
energy
1.
Hall potential
2.
Which of the following represents the output Emf
1.
Mass
Flowmeters
2.
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10/2/21, 12:16 AM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
Piezoelectric
2.
Which sensor among the following is used in Thermocouple
a quasi-static application? 3.
Magnetostrictive
4.
Hall
effect
1.
Centrifugal
force
2.
1.
Variable
overlapping area between
the plates
2.
A
Non-linear variation between Capacitance Variable
distance between the
and displacement is observed for
Capacitive plates
type of transducers involving
3.
Variable
dielectric constant
4.
None
of the above
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Questions Choices
1.
Electrical
2.
A
piezo-electrical crystal generates voltage Mechanical
when subjected to ____ force. 3.
Gravity
4.
All of the above
1.
A
temperature sensitive transducer when 2 sec
and 1.06 sec respectively
subjected to sudden temperature change
takes 2.
3 sec
and 2.08 sec respectively
9 seconds to reach equilibrium conditions (3
time constants). Calculate
the time constant 3.
and the time taken by the transducer to read 4 sec
and 4.06 sec respectively
half of the
temperature difference. 4.
3 sec
and 4.06 sec respectively
1.
Joule
effect
2.
Thompson
effect
A
thermocouple works on which principle?
3.
Peltier
effect
4.
Seebeck
effect
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10/2/21, 12:17 AM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
1 km⁄h
2.
A car
covers a distance of 5 km in 5 mins, its 25
km⁄h
average speed is equal to 3.
60
km⁄h
4.
50
km/h
1.
4 x 10-5
A girl
with a mass of 40 kg wears heels with 2.
an area of 1 cm2 in contact with ground, 4 x 104
pressure on ground is (take earth's 3.
gravitational field strength) 4 x 105
4.
40 x
105
1.
One
piezoelectric oscillators
2.
Two
piezoelectric oscillators
A vibrating
level sensors consists of
3.
Three
piezoelectric oscillators
4.
Four
piezoelectric oscillators
1.
Potentiometer
2.
A zero
order system is the one in which output Liquid-in-glass
thermometer
changes instantaneously as the input
changes.
3.
The example of zero order system is
Accelerometer
4.
Transducer
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10/2/21, 12:17 AM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
First
order instrument
2.
Accelerometer
is an example of which order zero
order instrument
instrument? 3.
second
order instrument
4.
third
order instrument
1.
Glass
electrode
2.
Solid
state electrode
All pH
measurements are made with a
3.
Liquid
ion exchange electrode
4.
Redox
electrode
1.
6
rad⁄s
2.
Average
angular velocity of body rotating at 7
rad⁄s
angle of 30° during time interval 5
seconds
3.
will be:
8
rad⁄s
4.
10
rad⁄s
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Questions Choices
1.
Oxygen
content in a sample
2.
CO2
content in a sample
Chromatographic
analyser is used to measure
3.
the
CO
content in a sample
4.
Amount
of individual gases in a
sample
1.
higher
2.
lower
Compressions
are formed where air pressure is
3.
normal
4.
zero
1.
-4dB/cm
Consider
a 1 cm thick specimen in which the 2.
acoustic power emerging is one half of that -3.01dB/cm
entering. Determine the attenuation coefficient 3.
of the medium -3.7dB/cm
4.
-3.98dB/cm
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10/2/21, 12:17 AM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
1.58
2.
Determine
the wavelength of ultrasound
1.62
4.
1.34
1.
Pressure
measurement
2.
Flow
measurement
Dipsticks
are used for
3.
Displacement
measurement
4.
Level
measurement
1.
Light emitting diode
2.
Photo diode
Following
acts as detector in Optical sensor
3.
Transistor
4.
All of the above
1.
Vane
type anemometer
2.
Electromagnetic
flowmeter
For
measuring air flow, _______ is used
3.
Ultrasonic
flowmeter
4.
Vortex
shedding meter
1.
1
2.
For a
Strain gauge with negligible
0.5
4.
can't be calculated
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10/2/21, 12:17 AM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
Pin number 3
2.
For an
inverting amplifier positive terminal of Pin number 2
4.
Pin number 7
1.
Using
proper tube material
2.
Using
proper diameter and
Hysteresis
error in Bourdon tube can be thickness of tube
minimized by 3.
Avoiding
temperature cycling
4.
Using
it well within the designed
pressure range
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Questions Choices
1.
22 deg
2.
If the
velocities of ultrasound in soft tissue and 30 deg
bone are 1500 and 1400m/s,
respectively, the
3.
critical angle of incidence is given by
28 deg
4.
38 deg
1.
The
top of the liquid filled tank
2.
The
bottom of liquid filled tank
In
radiation methods, the detector system is
located at 3.
Middle
of the liquid filled tank
4.
Outside
a liquid filled tank
1.
all
incident energy is transmitted
2.
none
of the incident energy is
In
sound, reflection coefficient of 1 means transmitted
3.
1% of
energy is reflected
4.
1% of
energy is transmitted
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Questions Choices
1.
Bottom
of the vessel containing
the liquid
2.
Top of
the vessel containing the
In
ultrasonic level gauge, the ultrasonic source liquid
is placed at the 3.
Middle
of the vessel containing the
liquid
4.
Far
from the vessel containing the
liquid
1.
60 °C
In a
resistance thermometer, a metal wire 2.
1.
Pitot
tube
2.
Venture
tube
Local
velocity is measured by a_________
3.
Orifice
plate
4.
Nozzle
1.
Armatures
winding of machines
2.
Resistors
employed in electronic
Low
resistance measurements are used in circuits
which of the following applications?
3.
Insulation
measurement
4.
None
of the above
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10/2/21, 12:17 AM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
Displacement
2.
Mass-spring
seismic sensors measure directly Velocity
the 3.
Acceleration
4.
Shock
1.
Mercury
in rubber strain gauge was wrapped
4
1.
Oxygen
2.
Paramagnetic
analyser is used to measure Nitrogen
following gas sample in air 3.
Hydrocarbons
4.
Carbon
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Questions Choices
1.
Low
pressure is normally measure
by manometers
2.
Medium
pressure by diaphragms or
Pick
up false statement about pressure bellows
measurements: 3.
Medium
and high pressure by
Bourdon gauge
4.
Absolute
pressure by piezoelectric
crystal
1.
Copper
constantan thermocouple is
used as a
reference standard for
calibration purposes
2.
Iron-
constantan thermocouple
suffers from oxidation attack on
iron wire, if exposed
3.
Pick
up the false statement
Both
wires of chromel-alumel
thermocouples are prone to
damage by sulphurous gases
4.
Iron-
constantan thermocouple is a
stable couple resistant to both
ocxidizing and
reducing
atmosphere, but needs protection
from acidic vapours
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10/2/21, 12:17 AM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
Mho
2.
m
ohm/m
The
commonly used unit of conductivity is
3.
n
mho/cm
4.
ohm/m
1.
Cross-coupling
The
error caused in vibration measuring 2.
equipment due to non- compliance of bond Coupling
compliance
made between sensor and the surface it is 3.
mounted is called: Influence
error
4.
Subject
loading by sensor
1.
In series but 180° out of phase
either side of the
primary
2.
In parallel but 180° out of
phase
The
primary and secondary coils in an LVDT either side of the primary
are connected in which configuration? 3.
In series but 90° out of phase either
side of the
primary
4.
In parallel but 90° out of
phase
either side of the primary
1.
to
increase voltage output
2.
to
decrease temperature sensitivity
The
purpose of compensation for a
3.
thermocouple is
to
cancel unwanted voltage output
of a thermocouple
4.
used
for high-temperature circuits
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10/2/21, 12:17 AM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
0.1 N
2.
The
smallest change which can be measured
0.15 N
by the transducer of the range of 0 to
150 N
3.
force and resolution of 0.1% of full scale is
0.3 N
4.
0.35 N
1.
Thermocouple
2.
Resistance
thermometer
Thermal
expansion of a solid is employed in:
3.
Bulb
thermometer
4.
Bimetal
element
1.
1 mA
2.
To
prevent self-heating errors becoming too 5 mA
great, the current through platinum
element
3.
(100 ohm) is kept at a very small value:
20 mA
4.
50 mA
1.
0.2
mm/ Ω
To
produce a change in deflection of 1.5 mm 2.
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Questions Choices
1.
Piezoelectric
2.
Which
effect is useful in measuring rapidly Photovoltaic
varying forces? 3.
Strain
gauge
4.
Change
of capacitance
1.
pH
2.
conductivity
Which
measurement is a good guide to the
quality of water 3.
dissolved
O2 content
4.
turbidity
1.
Pressure
measurement using strain
gauge
2.
Which
of the following sensors provide Temperature
measurement using
electrical voltage as the primary output? thermocouple
3.
Gas
sensors
4.
None
of the above
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10/2/21, 12:17 AM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
platinum
electrode
2.
Which
one among the following is used as a calomel
electrode
reference electrode? 3.
glass
electrode
4.
hydrogen
electrode
1.
Thermocouple
2.
Which
temperature sensor has the highest RTD
sensitivity among the following? 3.
Thermistor
4.
Thermometer
1.
Full
Bridge configuration
2.
Which
type bridge configuration of Strain Half
Bridge configuration
gauge produces a non-linear output? 3.
Quarter
Bridge configuration
4.
None
of the above
1.
Spring
balance
2.
Which
type of device is suitable for dynamic Lever
balance
force measurement? 3.
Piezoelectric
transducer
4.
Proving
ring
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10/2/21, 12:17 AM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
Piezoelectric
sensors
2.
Which
type of sensors develops an electric Pyroelectric
sensors
charge due to thermally induced stress
upon
3.
exposure to heat energy/radiation?
Thermoelectric
sensors
4.
Photoelectric
sensors
While
going through a heap of junk in her 1.
1.
Low
Energy Adaptive
Clustering Hierarchy
2.
Low
Energy Agglomerative
Clustering Hypothesis
LEACH stands for
3.
Low
Energy Aggregate
Channel
Hypothesis
4.
Low
Energy Aggregate
Channel
Hierarchy
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Questions Choices
1.
Lower
power
2.
Which
of the following is the main Lower
Bandwidth
4.
High
power
1.
10 samples/sec
2.
If a noiseless channel
bandlimited to 5 kHz is 10000 samples/sec
100 samples/sec
4.
1000 samples/sec
1.
Second
2.
Information rate
basically gives an idea about the Minute
4.
Year
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10/9/21, 10:56 AM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
BW of FM < BW of AM; power FM >
power AM;
noise FM < noise AM
2.
BW of FM < BW of AM; power FM <
Which of the following is true about the AM and power AM;
noise FM < noise AM
FM systems?
3.
BW of FM > BW of AM; power FM <
power AM;
noise FM < noise AM
4.
BW of FM < BW of AM; power FM >
power AM;
noise FM > noise AM
1.
Both are of constant amplitude
2.
Both vary according to the shape of
the message
signal
4.
Envelope of AM varies and FM
envelope is
constant
1.
¼
2.
QPSK requires ----------------transmission
bandwidth ½
of the BPSK
3.
1/3
4.
Twice
1.
2
2.
1
3.
8
4.
4
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10/9/21, 10:56 AM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
16-PSK
2.
Which one of the following is used to detect the PSK
unknown signal
3.
QPSK
4.
DPSK
1.
140
kHz/V
A
sinusoidal 400 Hz modulating signal of 2V 2.
amplitude frequency modulates a
carrier and 110
kHz/V
4.
35
kHz/V
1.
1/2
Find
the value of Quantization noise in Watts, in a 2.
Pulse code modulation system
when a signal of 0- 1/3
4.
1/5
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Questions Choices
1.
2
2.
1
How
many carrier frequencies are used in BFSK
3.
3
4.
4
1.
PCM
2.
Step
size can be made smaller for smaller signals DPCM
4.
ADM
1.
300
2.
Suppose
we sample a signal at frequency Fs. If we 400
4.
200
1.
NRZ-
Polar
2.
Symbols
1 and 0 are represented by pulse of equal RZ-
Polar
4.
RZ-
Unipolar
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Questions Choices
1.
Doubled
2.
The
modulating frequency in frequency Halved
modulation is increased from 10 kHz to 20
kHz. The
bandwidth is 3.
Increased
by 20 kHz
4.
Increase
tremendously
1.
100
kHz
2.
The
Nyquist sampling rate for a signal band limited 10
kHz
5 kHz is
3.
2.5 kHz
4.
12.5 kHz
1.
Mid-tread
2.
The
output is zero for zero input, and the idle Mid-riser
4.
Uniform
1.
PSK
2.
The
peak amplitude of one signal level is 0; the FSK
4.
QPSK
1.
0.4
The
pulse rate in Delta modulation (DM) system is 2.
50,000 per sec. The input signal
is 5cos (5000t) + 0.5
4.
0.9
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Questions Choices
1.
1400-6000Hz
2.
400-600Hz
Typical
human voice is centred around
3.
280-3000Hz
4.
1400-1800Hz
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Questions Choices
1.
amplitude
modulation
2.
When
the modulating frequency is doubled, the
modulation index is halved, and the
modulating phase
modulation
voltage remains constant. The modulation system 3.
is
frequency
modulation
4.
none
1.
Phase
2.
In PCM, the parameter varied in accordance with Amplitude
the
amplitude of the modulating signal is
3.
Frequency
4.
None
1.
Modulation
2.
The process of converting the analog sample into Multiplexing
4.
Sampling
1.
BPSK
2.
Which modulation technique transmits at higher QPSK
data
rate
3.
16 – PSK
4.
32 – PSK
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Questions Choices
1.
10,
180kHz
An
FM station is operating at 100 MHz. Maximum 2.
frequency deviation is 75 kHz. If
the highest 5,
150kHz
4.
10,
150kHz
1.
22.5
2.
A FM signal has a carrier swing of 100 kHz when 12.5
the
modulating signal has a frequency of 8 kHz.
The modulation index is
3.
7.5
4.
15.5
1.
2500Hz
4.
5000Hz
1.
3600 samples
2.
A signal has frequency components from 300 Hz to 36000 samples
4.
36 samples
1.
320 kHz
A
carrier is frequency modulated with a sinusoidal
signal of 8 kHz, resulting in
a maximum deviation 2.
of 20 kHz. If amplitude of modulating sinusoid is 3.2
kHz
increased
by a factor 3 and its frequency is lowered 3.
to 1 kHz. The bandwidth of new
modulated signal 32
kHz
is:
4.
3200
kHz
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Questions Choices
1.
4
MHz
A 4
GHz carrier is DSB-SC modulated by a low-pass 2.
message signal with maximum
frequency of 2 8
MHz
4.
8.004
GHz
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Questions Choices
1.
166.66
2.
If
a carrier of a 100 percent modulated AM wave is 36.66
suppressed, the percentage
power saving will be:
3.
6.66
4.
66.66
1.
Zero
2.
If
the amplitude of the modulating signal applied Above
the carrier frequency
to a phase modulator is
constant, the output signal
will be
3.
The
carrier frequency
4.
Below the carrier frequency
1.
1
In
a double side-band (DSB) full carrier AM 2.
transmission system, if the modulation
index is 2
4.
3
1.
remains
the same
In
an FM system the deviation is 4 kHz where the 2.
modulating voltage is 3 V and
modulating increase
4.
be
indeterminate
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Questions Choices
1.
VSB
and VSB
2.
In
commercial TV transmission in India, picture VSB
and SSB
4.
FM
and VSB
1.
filter
system
2.
One
of the following methods cannot be used to phase
shift method
4.
balanced
modulator
1.
both
the lowest and the highest
modulation frequencies
2.
The
choice of the product RC in a simple envelope the
depth of modulation and the
detector using a diode and an RC
circuit is lowest modulation frequency
governed by
3.
the
highest modulation frequency
and the depth of modulation
4.
the
carrier frequency
1.
600
kHz
2.
The
maximum frequency deviation for the signal 160
kHz
xc(t) =
10 cos [1010 πt+10sin
2π(104t)]
3.
60
kHz
4.
100
kHz
1.
25%
2.
The
maximum power efficiency of an AM 15%
modulator is
3.
33%
4.
95%
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Questions Choices
1.
Hard limiter
2.
Two level comparator
1 bit quantizer is a
3.
Hard limiter & Two level
comparator
4.
None of the mentioned
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Questions Choices
1.
Two 90 opposing vector
2.
Antipodal signal sets are those vectors that can Two 180 opposing vector
be illustrated as
3.
Two 360 opposing vector
4.
none
1.
Narrow band interference
2.
Wide band interference
CDMA rejects
3.
Narrow & Wide band interference
4.
None of the mentioned
1.
Hard hand off
2.
Soft hand off
CDMA uses
3.
Hard & Soft hand off
4.
None of the mentioned
1.
2n-1
2.
For maximal length sequence, the sequence 2n+1
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Questions Choices
1.
Phase Coherent
2.
Phase Non Coherent
FSK reception is
3.
Phase Coherent & non coherent
4.
None of the above
1.
Step size is too small
2.
Step size is too large
4.
Both a and b are correct
1.
Slope overload distortion
2.
Granular noise
3.
Both of the mentioned
4.
None of the mentioned
1.
14
2.
If the initial pulse of 1000 is fed to shift 15
4.
17
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1.
0 is encoded as positive pulse and
1 is encoded
as negative pulse
2.
0 is encoded as no pulse and 1 is
encoded as
negative pulse
4.
0 is encoded as no pulse and 1 is
encoded as
positive or negative
pulse
1.
π/2
2.
In Binary Phase Shift Keying system, the π /4
binary
symbols 1 and 0 are represented by
carrier with phase shift of
3.
π
4.
2π
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Questions Choices
1.
One bit per sample is transmitted
2.
All the coded bits used for
In Delta modulation,
sampling are
transmitted
3.
The step size is fixed
4.
Both a and c are correct
1.
Delta modulation
2.
In digital transmission, the modulation PCM
4.
PAM
1.
No carrier
2.
In On-Off keying, the carrier signal is Half the carrier amplitude
4.
All of the above
1.
Frequency
2.
In PCM encoding, quantization level varies as Amplitude
a
function of ________
3.
Square of frequency
4.
Square of amplitude
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Questions Choices
1.
The step size remains same
2.
Step size varies according to the
values of the
input signal
3.
The quantizer has linear
characteristics
4.
Both a and c are correct
1.
Modulation
2.
Demodulation
3.
Modulation & Demodulation
4.
None of the above
1.
Mutually orthonormal and are of
unit length
2.
Mutually orthonormal and of null
Orthonormal set is a set of all vectors that are
length
3.
Both a & b
4.
None of the above
1.
1 is transmitted by a positive pulse
and 0 is
transmitted by negative
pulse
2.
1 is transmitted by a positive pulse
and 0 is
transmitted by zero volts
4.
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Questions Choices
1.
1 is transmitted by a positive pulse
and 0 is
transmitted by negative
pulse
2.
1 is transmitted by a positive pulse
Pseudo ternary signalling format is a and 0 is transmitted
by zero volts
technique
in which
3.
1 is transmitted by alternative
positive and negative pulse and 0
is transmitted by
zero volt
4.
None of the above
1.
In phase
2.
Quadrature
4.
biphase
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Questions Choices
1.
1 bit/ symbol
2.
2 bit/ symbol
3.
3 bit/ symbol
4.
4 bit/ symbol
1.
π/2
2.
π /4
QPSK system uses a phase shift of
3.
π
4.
π /8
1.
Increasing
2.
Quantization noise can be reduced by Decreasing
________
the number of levels
3.
Doubling
4.
unchanged
1.
ASK
2.
signal which has gentle shift from one PSK
frequency
level to another is called as
3.
FSK
4.
QPSK
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Questions Choices
1.
Increasing
2.
SQNR can be improved by _______ sampling Decreasing
rate.
3.
Does not depend
4.
None of the mentioned
1.
Use of same frequency channel
for same time slot
2.
Use of same frequency channel
for different time
slot
TDMA allows the user to have
3.
Use of same time slot for different
frequency
channel
4.
Use of different time slot for
different
frequency channels
1.
Different users in different time
slots
2.
Each user is assigned unique
frequency slots
3.
Each user is assigned a unique
code sequence
4.
Each signal is modulated with
frequency
modulation technique
1.
Manchester coding
2.
The binary waveform used to generate BPSK Bipolar NRZ format
signal
is encoded in
3.
Differential coding
4.
Polar NRZ format
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10/9/21, 10:59 AM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
BPSK
2.
QPSK
3.
MSK
4.
All of the above
1.
Thrice
2.
The data rate of QPSK is ___________ of Four times
BPSK.
3.
Twice
4.
Same
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Questions Choices
1.
BASK
2.
BPSK
3.
BFSK
4.
All of the above
1.
Null to null bandwidth
2.
The measure of width of the main lobe is called Half power bandwidth
as ________
3.
Normalized bandwidth
4.
Absolute bandwidth
1.
Data signaling rate
2.
The number of bits of data transmitted per Modulation rate
second is called
3.
Coding
4.
All of the above
1.
3db point
2.
The point at which the output signal power has Half power point
4.
None of the mentioned
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10/9/21, 11:00 AM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
Transmitted power
2.
Received power
3.
Efficiency
4.
None of the mentioned
1.
Higher
2.
The probability of error of QPSK is Lower
4.
Equal
1.
Modulation
2.
The process of converting the analog sample Multiplexing
into
discrete form is called
3.
Quantization
4.
Sampling
1.
Formatting
2.
The process of data conversion along with Modulation
4.
Amplifying
1.
Balance
2.
The properties used for pseudorandom Run
sequence
are
3.
Correlation
4.
All of the mentioned
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10/9/21, 11:00 AM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
Sampling, quantizing, encoding
2.
The sequence of operations in which PCM is Sampling, encoding, quantizing
done
is
3.
Quantizing, sampling, encoding
4.
None of the above
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Questions Choices
1.
PAM signal
2.
The signals which are obtained by encoding PCM signal
each
quantized signal into a digital word is
called as
3.
PPM signal
4.
DM
1.
MSK
2.
The technique that may be used to reduce the BPSK
4.
BFSK
1.
Frequency conversion
2.
Frequency mixing
3.
Frequency conversion & mixing
4.
None of the above
1.
Low rise type
2.
Mid rise type
3.
High rise type
4.
None of the mentioned
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10/9/21, 11:00 AM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
BPSK
2.
BFSK
4.
QPSK
1.
DPCM
2.
PCM
3.
delta modulation
4.
Adaptive delta modulation
1.
Direct sequence spread spectrum
2.
Frequency hopping spread
Which is better for avoiding jamming? spectrum
3.
Time hopping spread spectrum
4.
none
1.
Amplitude shift keying
2.
Frequency shift keying
3.
Unipolar format
4.
Bipolar Format
1.
Low probability of intercept
2.
Low probability of detection
4.
None of the above
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10/9/21, 11:00 AM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
200
kHz
2.
The band width of the signal is:t(103π+200
cos 400
kHz
2t108
π) =
10 cos [2t(xThe
angle modulated signal
is given by
3.
600
kHz
4.
800
kHz
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Questions Choices
1.Brain function 2.Heart function
EEG is done for the analysis of
3. Sleep analysis 4. Eye function
1.ONE 2.
TWO
The analog signals are categorized into
3.
THREE
_______
4.
FOUR
1.
High frequency
2.
Failure of heat sink in an ECG
EMG artifacts
4.
low frequency
1.
Template matching
2.
To detect the presence of QRS complex
adaptive filters
4.
LMS
filters
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10/9/21, 11:00 AM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
Butterworth
2.
Adaptive
4.
RLS filter
1.
Desired signal
2.
After the filter adapts itself, the output
Primary signal
4.
Reference signal
1. Spectral
estimation 2.
Temporal estimation 3.
Which estimation method is suitable to
Coherence estimation
identify linearity in the biological signals
4.
Frequency estimation
If an
input signal of –0.5 V were applied,
determine the output voltage. 1.
–5 V
2.
5V
3.
10 V
4.
–10 V
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Search:
Questions Choices
1.
High frequency
2.
Improper fixation of electrodes during the ECG
low frequency
acquisition leads to ___________ noise 3.
EMG artifacts
4.
Baseline
drift
1.Carotid pulse 2.
Power-line interference may be difficult to detect in
EMG
2.
EMG
4.
Cell potential
Questions Choices
1.
ECG
2.
EMG
4.
BMI
1.
Minimum, Maximum
2.
8086 can be operated in two modes:they are External, internal
4.
Data, address
1.
2
2.
4
3.
6
4.
8
Questions Choices
1.
16,8
data pins
3.
20,16
4.
20,8
1.
single layer and double layer
2.
Two types of pattern
classification multiple layer and hidden layer
3.
supervised and unsupervised
4.
parametric and supervised
1.
Which is optimal filter Weiner
1.
Autocorrelation
2.
Spectrogram
Spectral estimates derived
from the 3.
autocorrelation function are known as Corrologram
4.
Spectrum
Search:
Questions Choices
1.S1and S2 separation 2.fetus ECG extraction
Best
example for ANC filter
3.ECG filter 4. EMG filter
1. Past
output 2.Present input and past input 3.past
Infinite Impulse Response
(IIR) filters use outputs together with past inputs 4.only past
outputs
1.
comb filter
2.
notch filter
Which
filter is suitable for convolved signal
and noise 3.
homomorphic
4.
pan Tompkins
Questions Choices
1.AR 2.
MA
Which
is linear prediction model 3.
ARMA
filter when compared with the FIR filter 3.Lower sidelobes in Passband 4.
No sidelobes in stopband
1.Linear
phase 2.
No Linear phase
of I I R Digital filter is
4.non recursive method
Questions Choices
1.
The
method of mapping of differentials
2.
Which of the I I R Filter
design method is
Impulse
invariant method
antialiasing method?
3.Bilinear
transformation 4.
Matched
Z - transformation technique
Search:
Questions Choices
1.
Recursive
2.
Non Recursive
4.
Non Reversive
1.
Present and previous Inputs only
1.
More
parameters for design
2.
In the case of I I R filter
which of the following is true if
More
memory requirement
1.
Optimal filter
2.
Smoothing filter
4.
RLS filter
1.
Constant
gain in passband
Questions Choices
1.
TP
2.
AZTEC
____________algorithm
make use of translational table
3.
CORTES
4.
Huffman
1.
Notch filter
2.
low pass filter
4.
ensemble average
Search:
Questions Choices
1.
DCT
2.
A
desired frequency response has its _______ which is
DTFT
the desired unit pulse
sequence 3.
FFT
4.
IDTFT
1.
DCT
2.
IDCT
Lossy
data compression is done using
3.
Wavelet
4.
Vector quantization
Questions Choices
1.
difference between the noise signal and
the original signal
2.
difference between the reconstructed
signal and the original signal
Residual
signal means
3.
difference between the primary signal
and the original signal
4.
Original signal
1.
DCT
2.
IDCT
Which
method has the low computational burden 3.
FFT
4.
VQ
1.
Gaussian
PDF
2.
Normalised
PDF
Bell graph is an example of __________ distribution
3.
Uniform
PDF
4.
Non-
uniform PDF
Questions Choices
1.
Analog to digital conversion
2.
Digital to analog conversion
4.
Quantization
1.
NOT
2.
OR
Turning point algorithm use the ________ logical
Boolean
operators 3.
Both a and b
4.
AND
1.
of its
random property
2.
mean
is zero
4.
ACF =
Impulse signal
Questions Choices
1.
Fidelity
2.
A data reduction algorithm must also represent the
data Reproducibility
with acceptable 3.
Mean
4.
Variance
1.
High pass filter
2.
Median filter
AZTEC
post processing needs _________ filter to
remove its jagged appearance 3.
Low pass filter
4.
notch filter
Search:
Questions Choices
1.Steep 2.
Step
AZTEC
reconstruction process produces an ECG 3.
Triangle
Trapezoidal
1.DCT 2.
KLT
3.
Clustering
can be done using VQ
4.
FFT
1.
Odd part of Fourier series
2.
Even part of Fourier series
DCT
can be referred as
3.
odd part of inverse Fourier series
4.
even part of inverse Fourier series
Questions Choices
1.
Time coefficients
2.
DCT
converts an image or audio block into its phase coefficients
equivalent
3.
frequency
coefficients
4.step coefficients
1.
FCT
2.
FFT
DCTs
are known as 3.
DFT
4.
KLT
1.Wavelet 2.
IDFT
3.
Decorrelate
property significant for KLT
4.
DCT
Questions Choices
1.
Finite outputs
2.
n outputs
IIR
filter produces
3.
Infinite outputs
4.
Depends
on input
Search:
Questions Choices
1.
Higher
order interpolation
2.
Lower
order interpolation
Line
detection makes use of
3.
Zero order
interpolation
4.
Interpolation
1.
Multiply-accumulate
2.
memory access code
MAC operation
represents 3.
multiple addition code
4.
Modulated array code
Questions Choices
1.
Distortion time
2.
Short term time distortion
4.
No distortion
1.
Band pass
2.
Band reject or Band stop
Notch
filter is
3.
Low pass
4.
high pass
1. DCT 2.
FFT
3.
One
can also compute DCTs via IDCT
4.
KLT
1.Wavelet 2.
IDFT
3.
Signal
detection and estimation can be done using KLT
4.
DCT
Questions Choices
1.FFT 2.
IDCT
3.
Speech
information compression is carried out by DCT
4.
DTFT
1.
TP and AZTEC algorithms
2.
LMS and TP
The
CORTES algorithm is a hybrid of the 3.
TP and RLS
4.
AZTEC and LMS
1.
Error tolerance
2.
sampling frequency
The
data reduction algorithm’s reduction ratio
depends on the 3.
pulse width
4.
data size
Questions Choices
1.
Partially
2.
Fully
The
reconstruction process of Huffman coding
recovers the _________ original data 3.
Perfectly
4.
Half
Search:
Questions Choices
1.Perfect 2.
Partial
Vector
quantization is also called as _________ 3.
Block
quantization
4.
Serial
1.coefficients are non-symmetrical
around the center coefficient
2.coefficients are symmetry around the
What
is the condition for linear phase in FIR filters? last coefficient 3.coefficients are
symmetrical around the last coefficient
4.coefficients are symmetrical around the
center coefficient
1.
Finite
2.
What
is the duration of the unit sample response of a Infinite
digital filter?
3.
Impulse
4.Zero
Questions Choices
1.
TP
2.
AZTEC
Which
algorithm is called as lossless algorithm 3.
CORTES
4.
Huffman
1.
TP
2.
AZTEC
Which
algorithm produces better signal fidelity for the
same reduction ratio 3.
Fan
4.
CORTES
1.Wavelet 2.
IDFT
3.
Which
transform is similar to PCA KLT
4.
DCT
Questions Choices
1.
The
method of mapping of differentials
2.
Neither the Impulse response
nor the phase response Impulse
invariant method
4.
Matched
Z - transformation technique
1.
Aliasing
2.
What is the disadvantage of
impulse invariant
method one to
one mapping
3.anti
aliasing 4.
warping
1.
Approximation
of derivatives
4.
Frequency
sampling
1.
Yes
2.
This program code will
be executed continuously:
No
STAT: MOV A,
#01H 3.
JNZ STAT Not enough information
4.
Not always
Search:
Questions Choices
1.
capacitance is less and frequency of supply is less
2.
capacitance is less and frequency of supply is more
Capacitive reactance is more when
3.
capacitance is more and frequency of supply is less
4.
capacitance is more and frequency of supply is more
1.
180°
2.
The power consumed in a circuit element will be least when the
phase 90°
difference between the current and voltage is
3.
45°
4.
360°
Questions Choices
1.
average
voltage
2.
peak voltage
4.
exponential voltage
1.
a
sinusoid of the same frequency
2.
If two sinusoids
of the same frequency but of different
amplitudes and phase a sinusoid of half the original
frequency
angles are subtracted, the resultant is 3.
a sinusoid of double the frequency
4.
a sinusoid of triple the frequency
1.
Reactive power is
zero
2.
Apparent
power is zero
In a
purely inductive circuit
3.
Actual power is zero
4.
Actual power is unity
Questions Choices
1.
Apparent
power is more than the actual power
2.
Apparent
power is equal to the actual power
In any
ac circuit always
3.
Actual power is more
than the reactive power
4.
Reactive power is
more than the apparent
power
1.
150
o
2.
Two
sinusoidal currents are given by i1= 10 sin ( ωt + π/3 ) and i2
= 15 sin ( 105
o
ωt - π/4 ). Phase difference between them is 3.
135 o
4.
50
o
1.
8
2.
The magnetic
field intensity (in A/m ) at the centre of a 4
circular coil of diameter 1 metre
and carrying current of 2
3.
A is 3
4.
2
Questions Choices
1.
Coulomb's square law
2.
The total electric
flux through any closed surface Gauss's law
4.
Maxwell's second law
2.
-11.9
V
3.
10.9
V
4.
8.9
V
Search:
Questions Choices
1.
α=0, β=0
2.
α=0, β≠0
1.
terminal impedance
2.
terminal admittance
The input impedance of a λ/2 transformer is
3.
characteristics impedance
4.
Wave impedance
Questions Choices
1.
average value/r.m.s. value
2.
average value/peak value
Form Factor is
the ratio of
3.
r.m.s. value/average value
4.
r.m.s. value/2*average value
1.
both will reach their minimum values at the same instant
2.
both will reach their maximum values at the same
instant
If two sine
waves of the same frequency have a phase difference of π
radians, then 3.
when one wave reaches its
maximum value,
the other will reach its minimum value
4.
when one wave reaches its
minimum value,
the other will reach its minimum value
1.
results in more power losses in the electrical system
2.
results in low power losses in the electrical system
Poor power
factor reduces load handling capability of electrical system
3.
overloads alternators,
transformers and
distribution lines
4.
results in more voltage drop in the line
Questions Choices
1.
R/Z
2.
cosine of phase angle difference between current and
Power factor of
an electrical circuit is equal to voltage
3.
kW/kVA
4.
all options are true
1.
(R + jωL)/(G + jωC)
2.
The characteristic
impedances Z0 of a transmission line is given by, (where (R + jωL)(G + jωC)
R, L, G, C
are the unit length parameters) 3.
(R+ jωL)2 / (G +jω C)
4.
[(R+ jωL)/ (G +jω C)]1/2
1.
(Zl - 1)/ (Zl +1 )
2.
(Zl + 1)/ (Zl -1 )
The reflection
coefficient over the normalized Zl
3.
(Zs - 1)/ (Zs +1 )
4.
none of these
Questions Choices
1.
180°
2.
Travel to length λg/2 over the line corresponds to
rotation over smith chart 360°
by 3.
90°
4.
270°
1.
Determine Thevenin resistance across b-c terminals.
5 Ω
2.
3.21 Ω
3.
5.21 Ω
4.
9 Ω
Search:
Questions Choices
1.
Find the size of the delay in the following program if the 236µs
crystal
frequency is 11.0592 MHz 2.
136µs
RET---------------------------------2M/C
4.
436µs
1.
CY =1, P=0, AC=1
Show the status of CY, AC and P flags after the addition of
2.
9CH and
64H in the following instructions:
CY =1, P=1, AC=1
MOV A, #9CH
3.
ADD
A, #64H CY =0, P=0, AC=1
4.
CY =1, P=0, AC=0
1.
Indirect Mode
2.
What is the addressing mode for the following instruction: Direct Mode
MOV
R0, #40H
3.
Immediate Mode
4.
Index Mode
SETB P1.3
2.
LCALL DELAY 75%
LCALL DELAY 3.
CLR P1.3
66%
4.
LCALL DELAY
50%
SJMP
BACK
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Questions Choices
1.
2.
mesh
3.
loop and mesh
4.
independent mesh
1.
In Fig.,
Rs=25Ω & Vs=
50V. Find the maximum power
25 W
delivered to
the RL
2.
50 W
3.
250 W
4.
125 W
1.
In the
Fig., find the Thevenin’s
resistance across the terminals 6.66 Ω
A &
B. R2=R3=10Ω,
R5= R6 = 20 Ω.
2.
0 Ω
3.
15 Ω
40/3 4.
Infinite Ω
1.
In the Fig
given below the current flowing
through 4ohm Directly proportional
to 10 Ω resistor
resistor is
2.
Indirectly
proportional to 10 Ω
resistor
3.
Indirectly
proportional to square root
of 10 Ω resistor
4.
Independent of 10 Ω resistor
1.
The
equivalent resistance of the circuit in
Fig. 4 k Ω
2.
7 k Ω
3.
8 k Ω
4.
9 k Ω
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10/10/21, 3:39 PM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
10 Ω
The
value of R in Fig. 4 if V0 = 4V
2.
11 Ω
3.
12 Ω
4.
14 Ω
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Search:
Questions Choices
1.
3,4,5
Determine,No.of
meshes ,No.of nodes and No.of
2.
branches for the following circuit.
4,3,5
3.
4,5,3
4.
3,5,4
1.
1.9V
Find out
voltage across 5 ohm for the following circuit
2.
-1.9V
3.
0.9V
4.
-0.9V
1.
good dielectric
2.
If wet soil has
σ = 10-2 mho/m, εr = 15, μr Good conductor
= 1, f = 60 Hz, it
is a 3.
semi- conductor
4.
magnetic material
1.
Big Endian
2.
Little Endian
3.
Both big and little Endian
4.
Neither big nor little Endian
https://vtop.vit.ac.in/vtop/initialProcess 1/3
10/4/21, 5:49 PM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
35 register( 28 GPR and 7 SPR)
2.
37 registers(28 GPR and 9 SPR)
3.
37 registers(31 GPR and 6 SPR)
4.
35 register(30 GPR and 5 SPR)
1.
Caches
2.
Heaps
3.
General purpose register
4.
Stack
1.
ARM7DI
2.
In which of the following ARM processors virtual ARM7TDMI-S
memory is present?
3.
ARM7TDMI
4.
ARM7EJ-S
1.
Copied-registers
2.
The additional duplicate register used in ARM Banked registers
4.
Extential registers
1.
Switching between supervisor and
interrupt mode
2.
Extended storing
3.
Same as other general purpose
registers
4.
None of the mentioned
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Questions Choices
1.
16-bit instruction set
2.
32-bit instruction set
3.
64-bit instruction set
4.
8-bit instruction set
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Questions Choices
1.
8-bit CISC
2.
8-bit RISC
3.
32-bit CISC
4.
32-bit RISC
1.
Accumulator, temporary
register,
arithmetic and logic circuits
2.
Accumulator, arithmetic,
logic circuits
and five flags
4.
Accumulator, temporary
register,
arithmetic, logic circuits and five
flags
1.
Consider the following
registers:
1 ,3 and 4
2. B and C register
2.
3. D and E register
2 ,3 and 4
4. H and L register
3.
Which of these 8-bit registers of 8085 1, 2 and 3
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1.
Consider the following
statements:
(I) only
1.
(I) only
4.
(I) ,(III) & (IV)
1.
stack pointer
2.
program counter
3.
both A and B
4.
none of these
1.
To indicate to user that
the
microprocessor is working and is
ready for use.
2.
To provide proper WAIT
states when
the microprocessor is
In an intel 8085A
microprocessor, why is communicating with a slow
READY signal used?
peripheral device.
3.
To slow down a fast
peripheral
device so as to communicate at the
microprocessor’s device.
4.
None of the above.
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Questions Choices
1.
Enable the data bus to be
used as
low order address bus
2.
In intel 8085A
microprocessor ALE signal is To latch data D0-D7 from
data bus
made high to
3.
To disable data bus
4.
To achieve all the
functions listed
above
1.
S, Z, AC, P, CY
2.
Processor status word of
8085 microprocessor S, OV, AC, P, CY
4.
S, Z, AC, P, OV
1.
B and C
2.
D and E
3.
H and L
4.
W and Z
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Questions Choices
1.
the condition of result of ALU
operation
2.
The 16 bit flag of 8086
microprocessor is the condition of memory
responsible to indicate ___________.
3.
the result of addition
4.
the result of subtraction
1.
AH & AL
2.
BH & BL
3.
CH & CL
4.
DH & DL
1.
RLC
2.
Which instruction is
required to rotate the content RAL
4.
RAR
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Questions Choices
1.
Program Counter (PC)
specifies
the address of the instruction last
executed
2.
PC specifies the address of
the
Which of the following
statements for Intel 8085 is instruction being executed
correct?
3.
PC specifies the address of
the
instruction to be executed
4.
PC specifies the number of
instructions executed so far
1.
IB= β Ic
2.
IB = β + 1/ Ic
3.
IB = Ic/β
4.
IB = Ic/ β – 1
1.
6240
ohms
2.
If
the gain of a closed-loop inverting amplifier is 2.4
kilohms
4.
0.62
kilohms
1.
voltage
reference
2.
The
major difference between ground and virtual current
reference
4.
difference
reference
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Questions Choices
1.
3.00 V
2.
What
is the applied voltage for a series RLC 12.37 V
4.
34.98 V
What
is the impedance of the circuit?
1.
12.2 kΩ
2.
14.5 kΩ
3.
20.3 kΩ
4.
33.3 kΩ
1.
aids
the input signal
2.
is
proportional to output current
With
negative feedback, the returning signal
3.
opposes
the input signal
4.
is
proportional to differential
voltage gain
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Questions Choices
1.
12mA/V
2.
A transistor with β = 120
is biased to operate at 24 mA/V
4.
48 mA/V
1.
Voltage amplifier
2.
The signal to be amplified
is current signal and Current amplifier
Transconductance amplifier
4.
Transresistance amplifier
1.
of its independence of β
2.
of the positive feedback
produced
The thermal runway is
avoided in a self bias by the emitter resistor
because_________ 3.
of the negative feedback
produced
by the emitter resistor
4.
of its dependence of β
1.
k/Tq
2.
The magnitude of the
thermal voltage is given kT/q
by
3.
q/Kt
4.
Tk/q
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Questions Choices
1.
JFET
2.
Which of the
following is the fastest switching BJT
device?
3.
Triode
4.
MOSFET
1.
0.08 mA
2.
0.16 mA
3.
0.4 mA
4.
0.8 mA
1.
VR
= 156 V, Vc = 165 V, VL = 441 V
2.
VR = 178 V, Vc = 187 V, VL
= 503 V
3.
VR
= 219 V, Vc = 232 V, VL = 619 V
4.
VR
= -219 V, Vc = -232 V, VL = -619 V
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Questions Choices
1.
R/3
4.
3R/2
1.
√3
Vph Iph cosΦ
2.
The
expression to find three phase real √3
VL IL cosΦ
power is
3.
√3
VL IL sinΦ
4.
√3
VL IL CosΦ SinΦ
1.
Only open loop
2.
Two thin parallel wires are carrying current only closed loop
along
the same direction. The force
experienced by one due to other is
3.
both open and closed loop
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Questions Choices
1.TM10 and TE10
mode for Rectangular
waveguide?
3. TM11
4.TE10
1.
Norton’s resistance
across the terminals ‘a’ 2 Ohms
and ‘b’ of the circuit in Fig.
2.
4 Ohms
3.
22 Ohms
4.
12 Ohms
1.
2 Ω
Consider
a circuit,which is energised by 10V 2.
and three resistors(R1 = 2,R2 =3 and R3)
are 3 Ω
4.
5 Ω
1.
10
A
A
100μF capacitor (initially relaxed) is connected to 2.
a 10 V DC source with
internal resistance of 2 ohm. 5A
The initial current through the capacitor 3.
(immediately after the instant of connection) is
1A
4.
0.5 A
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Questions Choices
1.
132.62
Ω
2.
A
230 V 60 Hz supply is connected to a capacitor of 833.2
Ω
4.
1.2
mΩ
1.
4 W
2.
A
2Ω resistor carrying 2A
current will dissipate 5 W
power equal to
3.
8 W
4.
16 W
1.
A
2Ω resistor carrying 2A
current will dissipate 4 W
power equal to
2.
8 W
3.
16 W
4.
32 W
1.
15
W
A
60 ohm resistive load is connected to a practical 2.
voltage source of 40 V. The
source resistance can 13.33 W
be tuned between 20 ohm and 80 ohm. Calculate 3.
the maximum
power delivered by the source.
6.65 W
4.
3.5 W
1.
100
mSec
A
capacitor of 100 μF (initially relaxed) is connected 2.
to a battery of 10 V at
time t=0; The current 50 msec
through the capacitor reaches the steady state
value of 0
A in 100mS. What is the time constant of 3.
the circuit
30 msec
4.
20 msec 20 sec
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Questions Choices
1.
Low
pass filter
2.
A
filter attenuates all frequencies between 10 KHz High pass filter
4.
Band elimination filter
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Questions Choices
1.
2
2.
A
network graph contains 5 nodes and 8 branches. 3
How many number of loop it contain?
3.
4
4.
5
1.
4000
Ohm
A
potentiometer in series with a fixed resistance of 2.
value 100 Ohm is connected
to a DC voltage source 400
Ohm
4.
4 Ohm
1.
4 A
2.
A 2
Ω resistor dissipates 8 W power. What is the 3A
current through the resistor?
3.
2A
4.
1A
1.
12 Ω
2.
A delta connected system
has three resistances 92 Ω
of
value 72 Ω each. The resistance in one of the
three
arms of the equivalent
star system is
3.
108 Ω
24 ohm
4.
216 Ω
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Questions Choices
1.
A
photodiode
2.
An
acquisition geometry consisting of in-beam Sensor
strips
4.
CMOS
1.
A
photodiode
2.
An
acquisition geometry consisting of in-line Sensor
strips
4.
CMOS
1.
Feature
based
2.
Best
suited registration method for identification of Elastic
deformation based
emboli____________
3.
Intensity
based
4.
Any
of these
1.
Feature
based
2.
Best
suited registration method for identification of Elastic
deformation based
4.
Any
of these
1.
Rigid
based
2.
Best
suited registration method for identification of Elastic
deformation based
4.
Principal
axis
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Questions Choices
1.
Gaussian
Transform
2.
Dark
characteristics in an image are better solved Laplacian
Transform
using ___________
3.
Histogram
Specification
4.
Power-law
Transformation
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Questions Choices
1.
Current leads voltage in a capacitor
2.
Current leads voltage in an inductor
Find
out the wrong statement
3.
Voltage leads current in an inductor
4.
Voltage
and current are in phase in a
resistor
Find
the voltage across the 20
resistance shown in 1.
the fig. 10
V
2.
15 V
3.
20
V
4.
30
V
1.
The
current in individual branches
increase
2.
The
currents in individual branches
Five
resistors of equal value are connected in decrease
4.
The
total current drawn from the
battery decrease
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1.
s =
L – 1 + r
2.
How
is negative of an image obtained with s =
L – 1 – r
4.
s =
L + 1 - r
1.
Current
– Voltage
2.
Identify
the pair which is not a dual, from the Loop
– Node
following :
3.
Short
circuit – Open circuit
4.
Resistance
– Capacitance
1.
Connected
2.
If
A is a subset of pixels, pixels p and q are said to Continuous
be ____________ if there
exists a path between
them consisting of pixels entirely in A.
3.
Ambiguous
4.
Not
connected
1.
Connected
2.
If
A is a subset of pixels, pixels p and q are said to Continuous
be ____________ if there
exists no path between
them consisting of pixels entirely in A.
3.
Ambiguous
4.
Not
connected
not 100% sure
1.
40
Ω
2.
In
an unbalanced star load ZR = 10 Ω
ZY = j10 Ω (20
+ j10) Ω
AND ZB
= 5 Ω . ZRY in the
equivalent delta circuit is
3.
(5
+ j10/3) Ω
4.
(10
+ j30) Ω
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Questions Choices
1.
convolution
2.
In
general _____________ is the process that coorelation
4.
multiplication
1.
convolution
2.
In
general _____________ is the process that coorelation
4.
multiplication
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Questions Choices
1.
Arithmetic
and Logical operation
2.
Filtering
using a template
Name
the operation that is always done bit wise
3.
Image
enhancement
4.
Image
convolution
1.
Neither
Mean nor Median
2.
Name
the operation whose result is always Mean
Median
4.
Both
Mean and Median
1.
Low internal impedance in parallel
2.
Practical
voltage sources differ from the ideal Low internal impedance in series
4.
High internal impedance in series
1.
RTH < RL
2.
The
constraint for maximizing the power transfer RTH > RL
4.
RTH = RL
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Questions Choices
1.
0 A
2.
The
current through a series RLC circuit at 2.5
A
4.
5A
1.
32o
2.
The
impedance of a circuit is (20+j12.5) ohm. -32o
4.
0.848
(lead)
1.
Microdensitometer
2.
The
most familiar single sensor used for Image CMOS
Acquisition is
3.
Photodiode
4.
MOSFET
1.
50
V
2.
The
quality factor of a series resonant circuit is
50. It is connected to an
alternating source v= 10 70.7
V
4.
707 V
1.
127.2
V
2.
The
RMS value of an alternating waveform v= 141.4
V
200Sin(314t – 45o) is
3.
282.8
V
4.
314.4
V
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Questions Choices
1.
5.45
ohm
2.
The
thevenin impedance of a circuit is 5.47 0.44
ohm
cos(4t-85.4o) Ohms.
The value of a pure resistive
load for maximum power transfer condition is :
3.
0 Ohm
4.
5.47
ohm
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1.
Quantisation
2.
The
transition between continuous values of the Sampling
4.
Resolution
1.
Quantisation
2.
The
transition between continuous values of the Sampling
Aliasing
4.
Resolution
1.
kW
2.
VA
The
unit for Real power is
3.
KVA
4.
KWh
1.
19.97
Sin (314t – 60o )
The
voltage across a circuit branch is given by v
= 2.
282.8 Sin 314t and current through the branch is 20 Sin
(314t +60o )
given by I = 14.14
Sin (314t – 60o ) ; The 3.
impedance in the branch is
20 Sin
(314t )
4.
19.97
Sin (314t )
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1.
0.025 Joules
2.
The
voltage drop across a 5 μF capacitor is 100 V. 0.25 Joules
What is the energy stored in the
capacitor
3.
2.5 Joules
4.
25 Joules
1.
Background
subtraction
2.
To
segment a non stationary object from its Inverse
filtering
4.
Matched
filtering
1.
1 A
2.
Two
resistors R1(=10 Ohm) and R2(=5 Ohm) are 2 A
4.
3 A
1.
100
W
2.
Voltage
v = 10 Sin (314t ) and current i = 10 50 W
Sin(314t ) in a load. What is the power consumed?
3.
20
W
4.
12.5 W
1.
2.
Voltage
– current relations in different types of
3.
circuit elements are given below.
Find out the
wrong relation.
4.
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Questions Choices
1.
Step signal
2.
Ramp signal
What
is the integral of dc step signal ?
3.
Pulse signal
4.
Parabolic signal
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Questions Choices
1.
Resistances
2.
Which
of the following circuit components acts as Capacitors
4.
Capacitor and Inductors
1.
Resistances
2.
Which
of the following circuit components opposes
Capacitors
3.
Inductors
4.Switch
1.
Current
2.
Which of
the following quantities the same
in all Voltage
4.
Resistance
1.
D = εE
2.
B = μH
3.
J = σE
4.
B = μD
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Questions Choices
1.
Low pass filter
2.
All pass filter
3.
High pass filter
4.
Waveguide cant behave as filter
1.
High pass filter
2.
Low pass filter
3.
All pass filter
4.
Waveguide cant behave as filter
1.
1 to + ∞
2.
What is the range of magnitude of the reflection 0.5 to 1
0 to 1 4.
-1 to 1
1.
- ∞ to + ∞
2.
0 to 1
3.
1 to ∞
4.
-1 to 1
1.
Strip line
2.
Which of these transmission line supports Quasi- Parallel Plate waveguide
TEM
mode
3.
Microstrip line and Stripline Both
4.
Microstrip line
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Questions Choices
1.
Microstrip line
2.
Which of these transmission lines supports Quasi- Strip line
TEM
mode
3.
Microstrip line and Stripline Both
4.
Parallel Plate waveguide
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Questions Choices
1.
Left of the smith chart is open
circuit end
2.
Right of the smith chart is short
Which statement is false for Admittance Smith circuit end
chart.
3.
VSWR at centre of smith chart is 2
4.
Reflection coefficient at centre of
smith chart is 1
1.
Plank’s law
2.
-----------
states that the concentration of
a solute Beer-Lambert law
4.
Henry’s law
1.
Continuous flow
2.
------------ analyzer has the advantage of
being Centrifugal
4.
None of the above
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1.
Fleish type pneumotachometer
2.
____________ is insensitive to turbulent flow of Lily type pneumotachometer
gases.
3.
Turbine pneumotachometer
4.
Hot wire anemometer
1.
Filter
2.
_____________ of infrared gas analyzer allows Collimator
4.
Magnetic pole pieces
1.
Carbon-di-oxide
2.
_________________ gas is commonly used for Oxygen
4.
All the above
1.
PEEP
2.
A breath that has a greater volume than the PIP
preset
VT _______
3.
Tidal Volume
4.
Sigh
1.
Inverted
2.
An object nearer to a converging lens than its Same in size
4.
Smaller size
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1.
2200PSI
2.
At what pressure is the oxygen maintained at E 745PSI
tanks?
3.
1800PSI
4.
1200PSI
1.
Ac coupled
2.
EMG and EEG recorders use Chopper stabilized dc
___________________
amplifiers
3.
Carrier
4.
dc bridge
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Questions Choices
1.
Low pass filters
2.
Filters used to reject the 50Hz noise picked up
from High pass filters
power lines are called
3.
Band pass filters
4.
Notch Filters
1.
R2/R1
2.
Gain of instrumentation amplifier is calculated 1+ (2R/Rg)
using_____
3.
(1+2Rg) /R
4.
1+ (2Rg/R)
1.
Wall motion artefacts
2.
Sound induced artifact
4.
Non-linearity into the i/p o/p
calibration curve
1.
10
2.
How many electrodes are present in 10/20 11
4.
21
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1.
72 Hz
2.
If the spirometer is used for time-dependant 200 Hz
4.
80 Hz
1.
GDH
2.
In analytical instruments, ---------------- has
higher GOD
4.
GDH-FAD
1.
Schmitt trigger circuit
2.
In the pulse height analyser,
----------------------gives anti-coincidence circuit
4.
lower discriminator circuit
1.
Fulguration
2.
In which procedure, the needle-point electrodes Dessication
4.
Coagulation
1.
1:1
2.
Inspiration : Expiration ratio of a ventilator
is 2:1
4.
3:1
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Questions Choices
1.
Ovarian cysts
2.
Gall Bladder
3.
Pancreas
4.
endometriosis
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1.
Tidal Volume
2.
Largest amount of air that we can breathe in or
out in Vital capacity
4.
Residual Volume
1.
600Mbps
2.
480 Mbps
3.
580 Mbps
4.
800 Mbps
1.
O2
2.
Polarogram is used for the analysis of N2O
_____________________
3.
CO2
4.
CO
1.
1:1
2.
Proportioning systems automatically intercedes
to 1:3
4.
2:3
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1.
Glass electrode
2.
Reference electrode
3.
Combination electrode
4.
B and C
1.
Correction circuitry
2.
Since Gamma photons cannot be bent by using PMT
4.
Collimator
1.
Mitral valve closure
2.
rd
The 3 sound of a phonocardiogram
recording Aortic Valve closure
corresponds to___
3.
Pulmonary valve closure
4.
termination of ventricular filling
1.
Hook type
2.
The ____________scissor is especially useful for Micro-tip type
4.
Straight type
1.
Interference from the power line
2.
The artifact caused due to the slow
establishment of shifting of the baseline
4.
None of the above
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Questions Choices
1.
35 mg
2.
The blood leak level, for normal operation, is
set at 38 mg
4.
65 mg
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Questions Choices
1.
4.5-11M
2.
The cell counter considers__________ as the
normal 4.5-11 K
range of white blood cell in male.
3.
150-350 K
4.
15K – 150k
1.
Parallel plate
2.
The dialyzer used with portable kidney machines
is of ‐ coil type
____________ type
3.
hollow fibre type
4.
All the above
1.
Q=1
2.
The filter which has a figure of merit,
_____________ Q=5
4.
Q=20
1.
Trocar
2.
The first instrument to be inserted during a Insufflator
4.
Cannula
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10/3/21, 9:21 PM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
6 ml/hr
2.
The fluid for flushing system in a blood
pressure 300 ml/hr
4.
0.5 ml/hr
1.
250 W
2.
The maximum power delivered by a short wave 750W
4.
125W
1.
1000 Vdc
2.
The minimum breakdown voltage for a pressure 4000 Vdc
4.
10000 Vdc
1.
30-300mmHg
2.
The nominal pressure value in the arterial
system 5-15 mmHg
is____________
3.
6-25 mmHg
4.
80-120 mmHg
1.
50mW
2.
The power of He-Ne laser utilized in laser
Doppler 5mW
blood flowmeter is
3.
500mW
4.
50MW
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10/3/21, 9:21 PM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
35:1
2.
The proportioning pumps of a dialysis machine 3.5: 1
4.
1:3.5
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Questions Choices
1.
Haemostasis
2.
The tone signal derived from the counter at
250Hz, Cutting
facilitates the identification of ________________
3.
Coagulation
4.
Fulgration
1.
-Cv ΔT
2.
The total internal energy change in a bomb 0
calorimeter is
3.
ΔHc/ΔT
4.
ΔHc/-Cv
1.
Direct writing galvanometer
2.
The writing part of an EEG machine is usually inkjet recording system
_________________.
3.
Potentiometric recorder
4.
Thermal array recorder
1.
Over 13 Hz
2.
8.1- 13 Hz
3.
4.1 – 8 Hz
4.
upto 4 Hz
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10/3/21, 9:21 PM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
Natural density
2.
What is used to block light from a laser and let Color
4.
Spatial
1.
Radio frequency
2.
When the radio frequency output is applied to
the dielectric losses of capacitor
1.
Chloride
2.
Which is the majority component of dialysate Calcium
solution?
3.
Potassium
4.
Sodium
1.
Oriented on the motor point
2.
near the tendon
1.
Thallium -201
2.
Which of the following is a commonly used Technetium -99m
metastable radionuclide?
3.
Iodine -131
4.
Gallium -67
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Questions Choices
1.
Photosensitive
2.
Photoresist
3.
Light sensitive
4.
Maser
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Questions Choices
1.
Fleisch type
4.
Turbine type
1.
Cuvette
2.
lens
3.
Dialyzer
4.
Colored filters
1.
increases with every
push
2.
decreases with every
push
3.
none of the mentioned
4.
both of the mentioned
1.
10H through 1FH
2.
20H through 2FH
3.
30H through 3FH
4.
40H through 4FH
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Questions Choices
1.
1.085µs
2.0.75µs
1.385µs
4.
1.25µs
1.
1.085µs
2.
For an 8051 system of 11.0592 MHz, how long does 2.17µs
4.
3.36µs
1.
19,093
2.
If the crystal frequency is 22MHz, what will be
the 38,156
4.
9,546
1.
copy R1 to the
accumulator
2.
copy the accumulator
to R1
3.
MOV A, @ R1 will:
copy the contents
of memory whose
address is in R1 to the accumulator
4.
copy the accumulator
to the
contents of memory whose address
is in R1
1.
MOV IE, #10011110 B
2.
Show the instructions to enable the serial
interrupt, MOV IE, #10110010 B
4.
MOV IE, #10010110 B
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Questions Choices
1.
10H
2.
The correct value of TMOD to operate in Mode 1 01H
Timer 1 is:
3.
20H
4.
02H
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Questions Choices
1.
High
2.
The E pin requires what kind of plus to latch in Low
information at the data pins of the LCD.
3.
Low to high
4.
High to low
1.
32 bytes
2.
64 bytes
3.
128 bytes
4.
256 bytes
1.
32K
2.
The total external data memory that can be 64K
4.
256K
1.
3
2.
With XTAL = 11.0592MHz, find the TH1 value 12
4.
6
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10/3/21, 9:21 PM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
TE10
2.
TE11
3.
TE20
4.
TE21
1.
Temperature Doppler effect
2.
The velocity factor of a transmission line
depends skin effect
on
3.
Relative permittivity of dielectric
4.
Doppler effect
1.
Maximum
load current
2.
In an ac circuit, a
low value of KVAR compared Low
efficiency
with KW indicates
3.
High p.f
4.
Low p.f
2.
15 Ω
3.
20 Ω
4.
30 Ω
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Questions Choices
2.
3.
4.
1.0
2’s complement representation of a 16
bit number
(one sign bit and 15 2.1
magnitude bits) is FFFF. Its magnitude in 3.65535
decimal
representation is
4.32767
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Questions Choices
1.Past output
sequential circuit depend/s on ______ of 3.Present output
flip flop
4.External inouts
2.
The modulus of elasticity, or
the ability of a
circuit to
be stretched from one mode
In a counter Modulus refers to
to another
3.Aninput on a counter that is
used to set the
counter state,
such as UP/DOWN
1.
volume, surface
2.
Stokes theorem
relates ____ integral surface, line
to a
______ integral.
3.
line, surface
4.
Surface, volume
1.
1225
2.
If ADM =
3500 and ACM = 0.35, the CMRR is 10000
……….
3.
40dB
4.
50dB
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Questions Choices
The
nonlinear relation between the analog and 1.aliasing 2.warping 3.prewarping
digital frequencies is called
4.antialiasing
1.
10101
2.
10010
Convert
BCD 0001 0111 to binary.
3.
10001
4.
11000
1.
2.26 10-9 F/m
2.
The electric susceptibility of a dielectric is 4, 4.42 10-7 F/m
4.
1.26 10-3 F/m
1.
20kΩ
2.
A change in 300mV in base
emitter voltage 10kΩ
4.
60kΩ
1.
Bode Plot
2.
General representation of
the frequency Miller Plot
4.
Bandwidth Plot
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10/3/21, 9:21 PM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
20kΩ
Increase in collector
emitter voltage from 5V 2.
to 8V causes increase in collector current from 10kΩ
5mA to
5.3mA. Determine the dynamic output 3.
resistance.
50kΩ
4.
60kΩ
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Questions Choices
1.
One reactive component (L
or C)
and a resistance (R)
2.
Only capacitive component
(C)
Single-time-constant (STC)
networks are those and resistance (R)
4.
Reactive components (L, C
or
both L and C) and resistance (R)
1.
voltage multiplier
2.
The application of a CC
configured transistor level shifter
is_________
3.
Rectification
4.
impedance matching
1.
500kΩ
2.
The CC configuration has an
input 750kΩ
resistance_________
3.
600kΩ
4.
400kΩ
1.
distortion in the frequency axis
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Questions Choices
1.
Gaussian
smooth
2.
____________ is the effect caused by the use of Contouring
4.
Interpolation
1.
40 V
4.
90 V
1.
12 ms
4.
60 ns
1.
AND or OR gates
2.
A basic S-R flip-flop can be constructed by XOR or XNOR gates
4.
AND or NOR gates
1.
A bidirectional 4-bit shift register is storing
the
nibble 1101. 1101
2.
Its input is HIGH. The nibble 1011 is waiting to
0111
be entered on
3.
the serial data-input line. 0001
After three clock pulses, the shift register is 4.
storing ________
1110
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Questions Choices
1.
8
A digital system is required to amplify a binary
encoded audio signal. The user should be able to 2.
control the gain of the
amplifier from a 6
minimum to a maximum in 100 increments. The 3.
minimum number of
bits required to encode in a 7
straight binary is
4.
5
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Questions Choices
1.
F52E
2.
A hexadecimal odometer displays F 52 F. The G52F
next
reading will be
3.
F53F
4.
F53O
1.
Constantly LOW
2.
A J-K flip-flop with J = 1 and K = 1 has a 20
Constantly HIGH
4.
A 10 kHz square wave
1.
16
4.
256
1.
73.85 dB and 63.85 dB
4.
17.38 dB and 7.38 dB
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10/3/21, 9:20 PM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
each flip-flop
2.
A ripple counter’s speed is limited by the all flip-flops and gates
4.
only circuit gates
1.
Ring shift
2.
A sequence of equally spaced timing pulses may Clock
be easily generated by which type of counter
circuit?
3.
Johnson
4.
Binary
1.
Fourier transform
4.
None of the mentioned
1.
1.67 s
4.
26.67 µs
1.
Use a mask
2.
An alternate approach to median filtering is Gaussian filter
______________ 3.
Sharpening
4.
Laplacian filter
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Questions Choices
1.
16
dB
4.
55
dB
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Search:
Questions Choices
1.
Narrow range of intensity levels
2.
Which of the following make an image difficult
to Dynamic range of intensity levels
enhance?
3.
High noise
4.
1.
AND
2.
Which of the following operation(s) is/are
equivalent to OR
negative transformation?
3.
NOT
4.
All
of the mentioned
1.
AND, OR
2.
Which of the following operations are used for AND, NOT
masking?
3.
NOT, OR
4.
All of the mentioned
1.
Linear, logarithmic and inverse law
2.
Which of the following shows three basic types
of Power law, logarithmic and inverse law
4.
Linear, exponential and inverse law
Questions Choices
1.
Segmentation
2.
Which of the following step deals with tools for Representation & description
4.
Morphological processing
1.
Combinational circuits
2.
Sequential circuits
3.
Latches
4.
Flip-flops
1.
4 μs
2.
With a 200 kHz clock frequency, eight bits can
be 40 μs
4.
400 ms
1.
4.65 Ω
An amplifier has an
open-circuit voltage gain of 70 dB 2.
and an output resistanceof 1.5 kΩ. Determine the 7.80 kΩ
4.
3.65 kΩ
1.
3.2 dB
In an amplifier, the
output power is 1.5 watts at 2 kHz 2.
and 0.3 watt at 20 Hz,while the input power
is constant 4.5 dB
4.
7.2 dB
Questions Choices
1.
Non vanishing attenuation constant
2.
Constant velocity
3.
Constant real characteristic impedance
4.
all of these
Search:
Questions Choices
1.
45 V
2.
A point charge, Q = 10nC is at the origin. The
estimated 50 V
4.
-45 V
1.
18 aρmV/m
2.
An infinite length of uniform line charge has
ρl = 1.8 aρmV/m
4.
280 aρmV/m
1.
True and False
2.
Both ε0 and χe are dimensionless: The statement is False and True
________
and ______ respectively
3.
True and True
4.
False and False.
1.
40 Wb
2.
If the
flux density is 10 Wb/ m2 and the area of the coil 10 Wb
4.
1 Wb
Questions Choices
1.
A dc current in a wire:
2.
A permanent magnet
4.
The electric field linearly changing with
time.
1.
-10az V/m
2.
Plane z = 10m carries charge 20nC/m2.
The electric -18π az V/m
4.
-360π az
1.
Rate of energy flow
2.
direction of polarization
3.
electric field
4.
magnetic field.
1.
2.
4.
Questions Choices
1.
10 m
2.
The wavelength of a wave with a propagation
constant = 20 m
0.1π + j 0.2π
3.
30 m
4.
40 m
1.
Attenuation Constant
2.
What is the major factor for determining
whether a Complex permittivity
4.
Reflection Coefficient
Search:
Questions Choices
1.
A-m
2.
Coulomb
3.
Ampere
4.
A-m2
1.
B1n=B2n
2.
Which of these formulas is wrong
3.
H1=H1n + H2n
4.
1.
10 mA
2.
A network’s Norton’s
current and Thevenins resistance 7.14 mA
are 0.025A
and 200 Ω respectively, the current
through
the 500Ω load is
3.
-10 mA
4.
-7.14 mA
Questions Choices
1.
2.
3.
4.
1.AND Gate
2.NAND Gate
3.OR Gate
4.XOR Gate
Find OUT = ?
1.
Connect the decoder input select
lines
CBA to D
Which of the following best describes
how to
construct a 1-line to 8-line 2.
Connect the
decoder enable input
de-multiplexer from a 3-line to 8-line
decoder: to D
Note: CBA – inputs, D
– data line, Y – output, W - 3.Connect the decoder input data
enable
lines to Di
4.
Connect the decoder output to Di
1.
2.5 mA
A network N is to be connected to load of 500 2.
ohms. If the Thevenin’s equivalent voltage and 5 mA
Norton’s equivalent current of N are 5 Volts and
3.
10mA respectively, the
current through the load
7.5 mA
will be
4.
10 mA
Questions Choices
1.
1
2.
0
(mi)' + Mi = ?
3.
Mi
4.
mi
2.
96 W and 6.25 W
3.
9.6 W and 625 W
4.
9.6 W and 0.625 W
1.
9
2.
In a 7 segment display the segments
a,c,d,f,g are lit. the 5
decimal number displayed will be 3.
4
4.
2
Search:
Questions Choices
The following circuit shown in the
figure is 1.
Hartley Oscillator with fosc= 79.6
MHz
2.
Colpitts Oscillator with fosc= 79.6
MHz
3.
Hartley Oscillator with fosc= 159.2
MHz
4.
Colpitts Oscillator with fosc= 159.2
MHz
1.
A logical “or” is performed by
writing
“C = A || B;”
2.
‘!’ performs logical negation while
‘~’
performs bitwise negation.
Which of the following is not true about
operators?
3.
The two types
of “or” operators are
“logical” and “bitwise.”
4.
The “shift right” (>>) operator
inserts
zeros on the left end of its argument.
1.
Find the Norton’s equivalent resistance (across
A & B) of 1/3
3.
1/4
4.
3
Questions Choices
2.
HPF
3.
BPF
4.
BEF
1.
3.
4.
1.
-15ay mA/m
2.
Plane y = 0 carries a uniform current of
30az mA/m. At 15ax mA/m
(1,10,-2), the
magnetic field intensity is ______
3.
15ay mA/m
4.
-15ax mA/m
1.
18 aρmV/m
2.
An infinite length of uniform line charge has ρl = 10pC/m 1.8 aρmV/m
and it lies
along the z-axis. Determine the
electric field E
at (4, 3, 3) 3.
280 aρmV/m
4.
180 aρmV/m
Questions Choices
1.
2.
4.
1.
All rows
2.
One row at a time
3.
All columns
4.
One column at a time
1.
No
net pole
2.
net pole
3.
Two
pole
4.
simple pole
Search:
Questions Choices
1.
Both initial conditions and loading are
taken into account
2.
Initial conditions are taken into account
but the element is assumed to
be not
loaded
3.
Initial conditions are assumed to be zero
but loading is taken into
account
4.
Initial conditions are assumed to be zero
and the element is assumed to
be not
loaded
1.
Controllable
A system is said to
be_________________ if every state 2.
can be completely identified by measurements
of the Observable
4.
Controllable and observable
1.
N=M+2
2.
A transfer function has two
zeroes at infinity. Then the N=M-2
4.
N=M-2
Questions Choices
1.
Observability
2.Controllability
3.
Optimality
4.
Observability and
controllability
1.
Forward gain
2.
Loop which do not possess
any common node are said to Touching Loops
be ___________ loops.
3.
Non Touching Loops
4.
Feedback gain
1.
They apply to linear
systems
2.
The equation obtained may
or may not
be in the form of cause or effect
3.
Arrows are not important in
the graph
4.
They cannot be converted
back to block
diagram
1.
Physical variables
2.
State model representation
is possible using _________
Phase variables
3.
Canonical state variables
4.
All of the mentioned
1.
Steady state error
2.
Steady state accuracy
specified in terms of: Damping ratio
3.
The natural frequency of damping
4.
All of the mentioned
Questions Choices
1.
Overall gain of the system
2.
The relationship between an
input and output variable of a Stability
signal flow graph is given by the net gain
between the input
and output node is known as the overall______________
3.
Bandwidth
4.
speed
1.
Ear
Oximetry
2.
_____
is non-invasive method allowing the monitoring of the Pulse
Oximetry
saturation of a patient’s
hemoglobin.
3.
Skin-Reflectance
Oximetry
4.
Intravascular
Oximetry
Search:
Questions Choices
1.
Pulse
Oximeter
2.
______
is very useful for patients having respiratory or
cardiac problems because of
their simplicity of use and the Ear
Oximeter
ability to provide continuous and immediate
oxygen 3.
saturation levels. Skin
Reflactance Oximeter
4.
Intravascular
Oximeter
1.
low
pass filters
2.
___________
amplifier circulatory is employed to reduce high
pass filters
4.
notch
filters
1.
Open-loop
2.
_____________
is common engineering term and refers to Feedback
4.
Closed-loop
1.
ECG
model
2.
QRS
model
A
model of the normal QRS complex, called ___________
3.
Template
4.
Detection
model
Questions Choices
1.
Amplifiers
2.
A
pattern of electrodes on the head and the channels they Oscilloscope
are connected to are
__________
3.
Montage
4.
Wires
1.
left
2.
According
to the international 10/20 system to measure top
EEG, even number denotes which
side of the brain?
3.
bottom
4.
right
1.
Sphygmomanometer
2.
All
the following are methods of blood pressure Percutaneous method
measurement, except?
3.
Hagen-poiseuille
analysis
4.
Catheterization
1.
in the
carbon dioxide carrying capacity of
blood
2.
in the
oxygen carrying capacity of blood
Anaemia
is reduction/increase _________
3.
in the
oxygen carrying capacity of blood
4.
in the
carbon dioxide carrying capacity of
blood
Questions Choices
1.
upper
part of the heart wall between the two
atrial
2.
lower part of the heart wall above the two
atrial
Atrio
ventricular node is located at __________
3.
lower
part of the heart wall between the two
atrial
4.
upper
part of the heart wall above the two
atrial
1.
wet
2.
Before
placing the electrodes the skin should be dry
__________ 3.
hairy
4.
oily
Search:
Questions Choices
1.
Plasma,
corpuscles
2.
Blood
consists of corpuscles suspended in a fluid called Corpuscles,
plasma
4.
Cytozomes,
protoplasma
1.
low
impedance signals to high impedance
signals
2.
high
impedance signals to low impedance
signals
Buffer
amplifier converts ____________
3.
ac
impedance signals to dc impedance
signals
4.
dc
impedance signals to ac impedance
signals
1.
nano
meters
2.
micro
meters
Diameter
of erythrocytes is in the range of ___________
3.
pico
meters
4.
femto
meters
Questions Choices
1.
provoked
response
2.
Disturbance
in the EEG pattern resulting from the external ckoored
response
4.
impulse
response
1.
10
2.
EEG
machines have notch filter sharply tuned at _______ Hz 30
as to eliminate mains
frequency interference.
3.
50
4.
70
1.
forehead
2.
scalp
Electrodes
to measure EEG are placed on ________
3.
cheek
4.
ears
1.
Heart
2.
Tumor
Electroencephalogram
(EEG) is used in the diagnosis of the:
3.
Neuromuscular
diseases
4.
Brain
1.
Brain
2.
Electroencephalogram
is obtained from bioelectrical signals Heart
from the?
3.
Muscles
4.
Retina
Questions Choices
1.
Every
192 ms
2.
For
how much time period, the weighting factors are updated Every
16 ms
4.
Every
200 ms
1.
QRS
complex sensitivity
2.
Friesen
compared _______ of nine types of QRS detection Noise
sensitivity
algorithms.
3.
Motion
artifact
4.
Muscle
artifact
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Questions Choices
1.
stainless
steel
2.
copper
Generally
what is the material of needle electrodes?
3.
lead
4.
iron
1.
The
recorded representation of bioelectric
potentials generated by the activity of
the
brain (Neuronal activity.
2.
The
biopotentials generated by the muscles
How
can you define electromyogram (EMG)?
of the heart with time.
3.
The
recorded representation of bioelectric
potentials generated by the muscle
activity.
4.
The
measure of the variations in the corneal-
retinal potential.
1.
10-12
L
2.
2-3 L
How
much blood is present in an average adult?
3.
5-6 L
4.
20-25
L
Questions Choices
1.
X/32
2.
If the
height of the P wave is X, then the height of the R 32/X
wave is _____
3.
X/16
4.
32X
1.
0.15 V
In
order to detect the QRS, the detection threshold is kept as 2.
________ to prevent
the detection of T waves or baseline 0.015 mV
4.
0.00015
V
1.
Supraventricular
premature, inoperative
2.
In the
Beat Labeling, if the signal quality is not good, the Inoperative,
artifact
4.
Ventricular
ectopic, inoperative
1.
carbon
2.
Monopolar
needle electrodes are having coatings of which calcium
4.
teflon
1.
Athlete
2.
Portable
pulse oximeters are useful for ______ whose Swimmer
4.
Fisher
Questions Choices
1.
125 to
800 Hz
2.
Pure-tone
audiometers usually generate test tones in octave 125 to
8000 Hz
4.
15 to
800 Hz
1.
300–3000
Hz
2.
Speech
audiometry normally allows measurements to be 30–300
Hz
4.
3–30K
Hz
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Questions Choices
1.
120
ms, 200 ms
2.
The
area of the P wave is ______ wide and ends ______ 200
ms, 120 ms
before the R wave peak.
3.
100
ms, 215 ms
4.
215
ms, 100 ms
1.
Electroretinogram
2.
The
biopotentials generated by the muscles of the heart with Electroencephalogram
time is called?
3.
Electrocardiogram
4.
Electrooculogram
1.
Distance
between the two parallel plates
2.
The
capacitance of a passive capacitance transducer depends The
area of the two parallel plates
on the following
factors, except?
3.
Relative
dielectric constant
4.
Mass
of the two parallel plates
1.
Magnetic
blood flow measurement
2.
Coriolis
blood flow measurement
The
following are methods of blood flow measurement,
except?
3.
Ultrasonic
blood flow measurement
4.
Radiographic
blood flow measurement
Questions Choices
1.
They
are longitudinal
2.
They
are acoustic
The
following are properties of ultrasound waves as applied
in medical imaging,
except?
3.
They
are electromagnetic
4.
They
depend upon the medium through
which it propagates
1.
Strain
gauge
2.
Potentiometer
The
following are resistive passive transducers, except?
3.
Linear
variable differential transformer
(LVDT)
4.
Photodiode
The
following procedure refers a blood flow measurement
method:
1.
The dye is injected at a constant rate in the blood flow and a
Plethysmography
chamber blood flow
detector measures the dye concentration downstream.
meter
4.
Which
blood flow measurement method is described by the
Ultrasonic
blood flow meter
above procedure?
1.
Detection
of arrhythmias
2.
The
frequency of the sinusoid and the filter leakage fraction, Detection
of QRS complex
4.
Detection
of Heart-rate
Questions Choices
1.
bony
2.
The
ground electrode is usually positioned over which body hairy
structures?
3.
fleshy
4.
sweaty
1.
12 P
waves
2.
The
heart rate is computed by averaging the most recent 12 R-R
intervals
_________________
3.
12 QRS
complex
4.
12 R
waves
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Questions Choices
1.
temporal
lope
2.
temper
lobe
The
letter T in the EEG electrode placement system denotes?
3.
trace
4.
timpanic
1.
low
absorbency buffer layer with isotonic
electrolyte
2.
high
absorbency buffer layer with isotonic
The
main design feature of pregelled disposable electrodes electrolyte
4.
low
absorbency buffer layer without
isotonic electrolyte
1.
German
silver
2.
Copper
The
material used in limb surface electrode is ___________
3.
Gold
4.
Platinum
Questions Choices
1.
240
2.
The
normal red cell lasts approximately how many days before 10
it is destroyed?
3.
12
4.
120
1.
0-120 dB
2.
The
range of CMRR of Foetal electrocardiogram is 0-200
dB
______________
3.
0-150
dB
4.
0- 130
dB
1.
10 dB
to +100 dB
2.
The
signal intensity of Pure-tone audiometers ranging from –10 dB
to -100 dB
______
3.
–10 dB
to +100 dB
4.
–10 dB
to +10 dB
1.
m/mV
2.
mm/V
The
unit of sensitivity of an electrocardiograph is ________
3.
mm/mV
4.
m/V
1.
Monopolar
2.
Voltage
difference between an active electrode on the scalp Bipolar
4.
Nonpolar
Questions Choices
1.
low
contact impedance
2.
negligible
contact impedance
Welsh
cup electrodes have __________
3.
high
contact impedance
4.
zero
contact impedance
1.
Anesthesia
is never used
2.
Quick
recover, small incisions, less hospital
time, less anesthesia and less trauma.
What
are the benefits of minimally invasive surgeries?
3.
It
can be done by a nurse instead of a
doctor.
4.
The
surgery usually last 30-45 minutes.
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Questions Choices
1.
Blood
pressure
measurement
2.
Blood
Flow
What
biological measurement measurement
4.
Blood
sugar
measurement
1.
5-10 %
2.
What
is the blood percentage 20-30
%
of total body weight?
3.
2-3 %
4.
10-15
%
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1.
It is
a device used to
administer medication in
the form of mist inhaled
into the
lungs and used
for treatment of asthma,
and other pulmonary
disorders.
What
is the function of a 2.
Nebulizer as a respiratory It is
a device used to
therapy?
remove liquid or gases
by suction from the
body.
3.
It is
equipment used to
increase humidity of the
inspired air.
4.
None
of the above.
1.
7.25
2.
What
is the pH of Arterial 7.30
blood?
3.
7.35
4.
7.40
1.
7.25
to 730
2.
What
is the pH range of 7.30
to 7.35
extracellular fluid?
3.
7.35
to 7.45
4.
7.50
to 7.60
1.
0.025 to
0.05 Hz
2.
What
is the typical frequency 0.05
to 0.1 Hz
4.
70 to
140 Hz
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Questions Choices
1.
10
uV/cm
2.
What
is the typical value of 30
uV/cm
4.
70
uV/cm
1.
200 ms
What
is the value of the 2.
refractory period from the 198 ms
4.
215 ms
1.
660 nm
2.
What
is the wavelength of the 740 nm
4.
950 nm
1.
It is
the extra volume
that can be inspired.
2.
It is
the maximum
volume of the gas that
can be expelled from the
lungs by forceful
expiration after
What
is Tidal volume with maximum inspiration.
4.
It
is the volume of air
remaining in the lungs at
the end of expiratory
level.
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Questions Choices
1.
Phototransistor
2.
What
is used as a Solar
cell
photodetector in pulse
oximetry?
3.
Photodiode
4.
Photographic
plates
1.
plate
shape electrodes
When
intramuscular EMG is 2.
required to look into the surface
electrodes
4.
fine
wire electrodes
1.
nasal
2.
Where
is the reference cervical
electrode placed?
3.
forehead
4.
facial
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Questions Choices
1.
biopolar
needle
electrode
2.
Which
electrode can be used concentric
core needle
to pick up signals from electrode
4.
monopolar
needle
electrode
1.
lymphocytes
2.
Which
of the following blood leucocutes
4.
erythrocytes
1.
EOG
Which
of the following 2.
instrument is used for ECG
4.
PCG
1.
surface
electrodes
2.
Which
of the following is a needle
electrodes
4.
scalp
electrodes
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Questions Choices
1.
sino-atrial
node
2.
Which
of the following is atrio-ventricular
node
4.
bundle
of his
1.
Extremely
low input
impedance
2.
Which
of the following is the High
bias and offset
property of instrumentational currents
amplifier?
3.
Low
slew rate
4.
Very
high CMRR
1.
They
are designed to
measure bioelectric
potentials near or
within the cell.
2.
They
are designed to
penetrate the skin so
that they can record
Which
of the following biopotentials like
EEG
statements is true about signals from the brain.
Needle electrodes?
3.
They
are designed to
measure biopotentials
from the surface of the
skin.
4.
Typical
examples
include the metal
microelectrodes and
micropipette.
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Questions Choices
1.
Thermocouple
2.
Which
one of the following is Photovoltaic
not a transducer?
3.
Electrooculogram
4.
Moving
coil generator
1.
theta
rhythm
Which
rhythm is the principal 2.
component of the EEG that gamma
rhythm
4.
alpha
rhythm
1.
P wave
Which
wave detection is used 2.
to differentiate between a QRS
complex
4.
R wave
1.
45o
4.
>45o
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Questions Choices
1.
First
2.
________________ sound of Second
4.
Diastolic
1.
7
_________________ number 2.
of pumps are present in 6
conventional Heart-Lung 3.
machine.
5
4.
2
1.
Spray Coagulation
___________________ is
characterized by the
electric 2.
arcs which are intentionally Soft Coagulation
tissue.
4.
All the above
1.
Higher than
2.
A glucose measurement in Lower than
whole blood is
___________
the glucose levels in plasma.
3.
Equal to
4.
Double
1.
Lithium Iodide
2.
Lithium Vanadium
Commercially available oxide
implantable
defibrillators all 3.
utilize ___________ cells.
Lithium Iodide
vanadium oxide
4.
Lithium silver
vanadium oxide
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1.
Absence of light input
2.
thermally generated
Dark current in light detectors carriers in the diode
is caused by
_______
3.
small leakage current
4.
its imperfection
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Questions Choices
1.
13
2.
How many resistors are present in 3
an
instrumentation amplifier?
3.
7
4.
10
1.
7000V
4.
700V
1.
CCD
In an endoscope, differential 2.
measurement
between two CDS
4.
All the above
1.
Positive
4.
alternative
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Questions Choices
1.
mA
4.
None
1.
Ac coupled
2.
Light beam oscilloscope recorders Chopper stabilized
use
___________________ dc
amplifiers
3.
Carrier
4.
dc bridge
1.
Tidal volume/
Number of
respirations
2.
Minute volume refers to Tidal Volume x
_____________
Number of
respirations
3.
Tidal volume x 60
4.
None of the above
1.
Right side of the
head
2.
Odd numbers of the EEG montage Left side of the head
refer to
___________
3.
Midline electrodes
4.
Isoground
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1.
500mA fuse
2.
The considerable interference automatic selection
produced by the
microwave of control range
4.
Delay circuit
1.
100 kΩ
2.
The contact impedance shown by 50kΩ
the ECG
electrodes is of the order
of _______
3.
200kΩ
4.
above 1000kΩ
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1.
Add
4.
Merge
1.
120ms
4.
80ms
1.
30-300 mmHg
2.
The nominal pressure value in the 5-15 mmHg
pulmonary
system is
3.
6-25 mmHg
4.
80-120 mmHg
1.
10
2.
The perforations in the dialysis 100
machine have an
average diameter of
_______ Angstrom.
3.
50
4.
1000
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Questions Choices
1.
Camera
Electronics
2.
The position localization circuitry of Pulse Height
gamma
camera is part of which Analyzer
functional component?
3.
Count rate
meter
4.
Detector
1.
High gain and
Low CMRR
2.
Low gain and
The preamplifiers used in EEG must high CMRR
have
_________________
3.
High gain and
high CMRR
4.
Low gain and
low CMRR
1.
70% and 30%
pacemaker is
respectively__________________
3.
60% and 40%
4.
40% and 60%
1.
15 KHz
2.
The repetition frequency of the burst 300 Hz
in
Coagulation mode is ____
3.
15 Hz
4.
15 MHz
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Questions Choices
1.
300ml at
pressure
300mmHg
2.
600ml at
pressure
The source of fluid for flushing system 600mmhg
of BP
monitoring unit is a bag of
______
3.
600ml at
pressure
300mmHg
4.
300ml at
pressure
600mmHg
1.
512keV
2.
The value of the Gamma rays 215kev
4.
151keV
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Questions Choices
1.
fourth intercostal space
at mid-clavicular line
2.
fifth intercostal space at
V4 of unipolar chest lead is mid-clavicular line
positioned at _____
3.
same level as V3
4.
fourth intercostals space
at left sternal margin
1.
16cmx19cm
2.
What is the dimension of the 6cmx9cm
4.
4cmx6cm
1.
Ampere/volt
2.
What is the unit of Ampere/Watt
responsivity?
3.
Watt/ampere
4.
Volts/ampere
1.
Ac coupled amplifier
appears simultaneously at
both amplifier input 3.
terminals?
differential amplifier
4.
carrier amplifier
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1.
Optically isolated
4.
Push-Pull Amplifier
1.
Oscillometric
accurate method?
3.Rheographic 4.
Differential Auscultatory
1.
PIN Photodiode
2.
Which of the following is the Photovoltaic diode
fastest light
sensor?
3.
Photo transistor
4.
Avalanche photodiode
1.
Gamma radiations
cannot be detected
directly in a
scintillating
material
2.
Gamma radiations can
Which of the following be detected directly in a
statement is true
scintillating material
3.
Gamma radiations are
highly focused
4.
Gamma photon can be
bent by using lens
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1.
Flow meters
2.
Which of these does not Vaporizer mounting
belong to the Low
pressure device
system of Anaesthesia
machine
3.
Common gas outlet
4.
Oxygen failure device
1.
Creatinine
2.
Which of these has the least Raffinose
permeability
through flat
membrane of hemodialysis?
3.
Vitamin B12
4.
Urea
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1.
Broken conductors
2.
Which of these is a non- Broken Insulation
4.
Exit block
1.
Ultra-violet recorders
2.
Cathode ray
Which recorder is independent oscilloscopes
of signal
amplitude and
number of channels?
3.
potentiometric
recorders
4.
Electrostatic recorders
1.
1
2.
The 8051 has ________ 16- 2
bit counter/timers. 3.
3
4.
4
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1.
Bernoulli process
Process
in which trials are 2.
statistically independent and Bayes
process
as______.
4.
Independent
limited
process
1.
ratio of the output,
V0(t) and input Vi(t).
2.
ratio of the
derivatives of the
output and the
input.
4.
none of these
1.
2.
4.
1.
step
2.
Which of the following Exponential
signal is the example for
deterministic signal?
3.
Thermal Noise
4.
Both (a) and (b)
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1.
4.
2. The
transient response in 3.
a closed loop system decays 2 and 4
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stability of
these four
systems will be 2.
A, B, C, D
3.
B, C, A, D
4.
A, D, B, C
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respectively. 2.
100 rad/sec, 10 rad/sec
3.
10 rad/sec, 2 rad/sec
4.
100 rad/sec, 2 rad/sec
1.
s = -0.05
point
4.
s= -0.01
1.
In the Bode-plot of a unity 2
feedback control system,
2.
the value
of magnitude of
0.5
G( jw) at the phase
crossover frequency
is 0.5. 3.
The gain margin is 0.333
4.
3
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stable
2.
2. Closed-loop system is 1 and 3
unstable 3.
3. One closed-loop poles only 2
is lying on
the RHP 4.
The correct statements All
are
1.
less than zero
1.
The left and
therefore
system becomes more
stable
2.
The right and
therefore
system becomes
The addition of open
loop unstable
4.
The left and
therefore
system becomes
unstable
1.
A certain system exhibited (0.8, 0.0810)
an overshoot of 16%
when 2.
subjected to an input of (0.5,
0.02256)
2u(t) , where u (t ) is a
step input. The damping 3.
ratio and decay ratio (1.0,
0.1626)
respectively are
4.
(1.1,
0.0089)
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1.
1.
Components used have
non-linearity.
2.
Dynamic equations of
Despite the presence of the subsystems are not
negative feedback,
control known exactly.
4.
System has large
negative phase angle at
high
frequencies.
1.
1/4 of the time
constant
2.
For second order linear 1/2 of the time
system, setting time is
constant
3.
4 of the time constant
4.
2 of the time constant
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1.
Linear equation
2.
Systems with Differential Equation
memory can be
3.
characterised by
Difference Equation
4.
(b) and (c)
1.
Harmonically
related
easier to 3.
represent Sinusoidally
periodic signals?
related
4.
Exponentially
related
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1.
2.
What is the
equation of the
Fourier series 3.
coefficient of non-
periodic signal?
4.
1.
2.
Which of the
following is an 3.
invertible system
4.
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1.
2.
An LTI system is 3.
said to be causal, if
4.
1.
Real and even
4.
real and even
1.
2.
3.
4.
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1.
2.
The convolution
integral is given as
3.
4.
1.
DF
_________ flag is 2.
used in 8086 for AF
string manipulation
3.
instructions
OF
4.
PF
1.
Adaptive filters
2.
_______________ are . Optimal filters
4.
recursive
filters
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1.
highly stable
A
system with gain 2.
margin close to unity oscillatory.
or a phase margin 3.
close to zero is relatively stable
4.
unstable.
1.
A 3-phase symmetrical P
1.
Clutch
A car is running at
a constant speed 2.
of 50 km/h, Eyes
which of 3.
the following is the Needle of the
feedback element for speedometer
the
driver
4.
Steering wheel
responds to a
specific set of signals 2.Encoder
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1.
High, low
A common-emitter 2.
amplifier has ________ Low, high
4.
Low, low
A dc input
signal of –50
mV is applied to the
circuit. You would
measure ________ 1.
from the
inverting input 50 mV
to ground. 2.
1.05 V
3.
–1.05 V
4.
–50 mV
1.
smaller, higher
without feedback.
4.
higher, higher
1.
a comparator with
only one
trigger point
2.
a comparator with
hysteresis
A Schmitt trigger is
3.
a comparator with
three
trigger points
4.
a comparator without
hysteresis
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Questions Choices
1.
40
KHz
4.
99.99
Hz
1.
Timer 0
2.
An alternate function
of Timer 1
4.
Interrupt 1
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1.
15 Sin(50t )
2.
An alternating current varying sinusoidally, with a 15 Cos(314t )
frequency of 50 Hz, has an RMS value of 15 A. The
time domain representation is 3.
21.2 Cos(50t )
4.
21.2 Sin(314t )
1.
5.6
An alternating periodic waveform is sampled at equal 2.
6.75
time intervals over one period. The sampled values
are 0, 2, 4, 6, 10, 12, 10, 6, 4, 2 respectively. What is 3.
the RMS value of the waveform is 7.11
4.
6.22
1.
10 Hz and 10 MHz.
An amplifier has an open loop gain of 100 and its
upper and lower cut-off frequency of 100 Hz and 100 2.
kHz respectively. A feedback network with a feedback 1 Hz and 10 MHz.
factor of 0.99 is connected to the amplifier. The new 3.
lower and upper cut-off frequencies are at ________ 1 Hz and 100 MHz.
and ________.
4.
1 Hz and 100 MHz.
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1.
3.8 V p-p
2.
An amplifier has an output voltage of 7.6 V 3.8 Vrms
p-p at the midpoint of the frequency range.
3.
What is the output at fc?
5.4 Vrms
4.
5.4 V p-p
1.
133 Hz
2.
An amplifier has an Rin = 1.2 kΩ. The 1.33 kHz
coupling capacitor is 1µF. Determine the
3.
approximate lower cutoff frequency.
13.3 kHz
4.
133 kHz
1.
1.225 mV
An amplifier rated at 30-W output is 2.
connected to a 5Ω speaker. Calculate the input 12.25 mV
voltage for the rated output if the amplifier 3.
voltage gain is 20 dB. 122.5 mV
4.
1.225 V
1.
24.4 Ohms
2.
An inductive load draws 9A and 1 KW from a 220V, 60 12.3 Ohms
Hz AC supply. What is the value of resistance in the
3.
load?
6.3 Ohms
4.
3 Ohms
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1.
800
2.
An op-amp has an open-loop gain of 100,000 8,000
and a cutoff frequency of 40 Hz. Find the open-
loop gain at a frequency of 30 Hz. 3.
80,000
4.
100,000
1.
10 dB
2.
An op-amp has an open-loop gain of 75,000 and 6 dB
a cutoff frequency of 100 Hz. At 1 kHz the open-
loop gain is down by 3.
20 dB
4.
3 dB
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1.
2.
4.
1.
zero, zero
2.
At saturation the value of VCE is nearly ________, VCC, IC(sat)
and IC = ____ 3.
zero, I(sat)
4.
VCC, zero
1.
Vi1 = –Vi2 = 0.25 V
2.
At what input voltage level does the output voltage V i1 = –V i2 = 0.50 V
level become numerically equal to the value of the
differential gain of the amplifier? 3.
V i1 = –V i2 = 0.75 V
4.
V i1 = –Vi2 = 1.00 V
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1.
Mean
2.
Median
Best filter to remove the salt and pepper noise
3.
Combina�on of mean and median
4.
Deriva�ve based filters
1.
Even bank memory
2.
1.
1.1 V
2.
-1.1 V
3.
1V
4.
-1 V
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1.
–5.25 V
2.
2.5 V
3.
2.25 V
4.
5.25 V
1.
78.54%
2.
Calculate the efficiency of a class B amplifier for a supply 75%
voltage of VCC = 20 V with peak output voltage of VL(p) =
18 V. Assume RL = 16Ω. 3.
70.66%
4.
50%
1.
Huffman
2.
Compression method based on probability of image Vector quan�sa�on
feature 3.
DCT
4.
DST
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1.
1.186 V
2.
Consider a Class AB circuit with VCC=15V,IQ=2mA and 2.8 V
RL=100Ω.Determine VBB given IS=10-13 A. 3.
5.3 V
4.
4.2 V
1.O(1)
Consider a carry lookahead adder for adding two n-bit
integers, 2.O(log n)
1.
-1
Consider an eight-bit ripple-carry adder for computing the
2.
sum of A and B, where A and B are integers represented 2
in 2’s complement form. If the decimal value of A is one,
3.
the decimal value of B that leads to the longest latency
-2
for the sum to stabilize is _____________
4.
1
1.
Consider the following statements on a network at 1 and 3 are correct
resonance
2.
1. The impedance is maximum 1 and 2 are correct
2. The power factor of the network is unity irrespective
of the network 3.
3. The Q of the network is independent of R 2 and 3 are correct
Of these statements 4.
1 alone is correct
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1.
-2 dB, 40o
2.
2 dB, 40o
3.
2 dB, 140o
4.
-2 dB, 140o
1.
Class A output stage
2.
Class B output stage
Cross over distortion behaviour is characteristic of
3.
Class AB output stage
4.
Common base output stage
1.
First in first out
2.
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1.
Voltage feedback
2.
Current feedback
Emitter follower is a ……………….. circuit
3.
Both voltage and current feedback
4.
None of the above
1.
26.7
2.
–26.7
3.
27.7
4.
–27.7
1.
2 mA
2.
4 mA
3.
5 mA
4.
6 mA
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1.
19
2.
For a phase-shift oscillator, the gain of the amplifier 29
stage must be greater than ________. 3.
30
4.
1
1.
5
2.
6
How many 1-of-16 decoders are required for
decoding a 7-bit binary number? 3.
7
4.
8
1.
1
2.
How many RC pairs will be present in a second order 2
low pass filter? 3.
3
4.
4
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1.
600 dB
2.
If a three-stage amplifier has individual 24 dB
stage gains of 10 dB, 5 dB and 12 dB, then
3.
total gain in dB is ……….
14 dB
4.
27dB
1.
4.96
2.
125
3.
398
4.
600
1.
Mean equals the variance
2.
Mean equals the standard
If the outcomes of a discrete random deviation
variable follow a Poisson distribution, 3.
then their______. Median equals the variance
4.
Median equals the standard
deviation
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1.
des�na�on
2.
If there are two operands, the _______ mnemonic
operand appears first.
3.
source
4.
label
1.
Coprocessor is interfaced in
MAX mode
2.
Coprocessor is interfaced in
In 8086 microprocessor one of the MIN mode
following statements is not true.
3.
I/O can be interfaced in MAX /
MIN mode
4.
Supports pipelining
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1.
The sum is more than 16 bits
2.
Signed numbers go out of
their range a�er an arithme�c
In 8086 the overflow flag is set when opera�on
3.
Carry and sign flags are set
4.
During subtrac�on
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1.
Schottky
2.
In a comparator with output bounding, what type junction
of diode is used in the feedback loop? 3.
zener
4.
varactor
1.
saturated
2.
cutoff
In the voltage-divider biased npn transistor circuit,
if R1 opens, the transistor is 3.
active
4.
Reverse active
1.
resistance only
2.
In the Colpitts oscillator, the frequency is determined by inductance only
_____ 3.
capacitance only
4.
both inductance and a capacitance
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1.
In the parallel circuit of Fig.1, the value of is …….volt.
12 V
2.
-12 V
3.
0V
4.
None of the options
1.
20 Hz-20 kHz
2.
20 Hz-100 kHz
Low frequency oscillators have a frequency range of
3.
1 Hz-20 kHz
4.
50 Hz-100 kHz
1.
charge
2.
Mass, in force-voltage analogy, is analogous Current
to 3.
Inductance
4.
resistance
1.4-8 MHz
2.4-8 THz
Mention the range for C band
3.4-8 GHz
4.2-4 MHZ
1.
Reduce the overall gain
2.
Reduce bandwidth
Negative feedback in a closed loop
3.
system does not
Improve disturbance rejection
4.
Reduce sensitivity to parameter
variation
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1.
Data Generation
2.
Code conversion
One application of a digital multiplexer is to
facilitate: 3.
Parallel to serial data conversion
4.
Parity Checker
b.storing 2.
a,c,e,f,d,b
c.filtering
3.
d.hypothesis testing a,e,c,f,d,b
e.feature extraction 4.
f.pa�ern classifica�on a,c,f,e,d,b
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1.
Circular filter
2.
Chebyshev filter
1.
With no signal input
2.
With no load.
Quiescent power is the power dissipation of a transistor
3.
Under full load.
4.
Along the dc load line.
1.
Integration
2.
Simpson’s rule is the most widely used Differentiation
numerical_________ algorithm 3.
Addition
4.
Averaging
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1.
Zero
2.
State space analysis is applicable even if the initial Non-Zero
conditions are _____ 3.
Equal
4.
Not equal
1.
Acceleration
2.
Static error co- efficients are used as a measure of Velocity
the effectiveness closed loop system for specified
_________input signal 3.
Position
4.
All of the above
1.
3
2.
4
The 8051 can handle ________ interrupt sources.
3.
5
4.
6
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1.
non-inverting
1.
4 bit
2.
8 bit
The ADC0804 has ________ resolution.
3.
16 bit
4.
32 bit
1.
(5.6 – j 8.98) Ohm
2.
The admittance of a circuit is (0.05 - j 0.08) Siemens. The (5.6 + j 8.98) Ohm
impedance of the circuit is 3.
(20 – j 12.5) Ohm
4.
(20 +j 12.5) Ohm
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The circuit shown below implements a 2-input
NOR gate
using two 2-4 MUX (control signal 1 selects the
upper input).
What are the values of signals x, y and z? 1.1,0,B
2.1,0,A
3.0,1,A
4.0,1,B
1.
11010111
The contents of the accumulator after this 2.
operation 11011010
MOV A,#0BH
3.
ANL A,#2CH
00001000
will be
4.
00101000
1.
1BH
The contents of the accumulator after this 2.
operation 2BH
MOV A,#2BH
ORL A,00H 3.
will be 3BH
4.
4BH
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1.
Cardiovascular system
2.
Respiratory system
The following are the major functional physiological
systems of the body except? 3.
Electrocardiogram system
4.
Nervous system
1.
Sound waves
2.
The frequency range of 1GHz to 30 GHz are referred Microwaves
to as 3.
Mini waves
4.
None of these
1.
Stable System
2.
Unstable System
The gain margin of the system 0 dB. It represents a
3.
Condi�onally Stable System
4.
Marginally Stable System
1.
Ports 1 and 2
2.
The I/O ports that are used as address and data for Ports 1 and 3
external memory are: 3.
Ports 0 and 2
4.
Ports 0 and 3
1.BJT, FET
The input controlling variable for a ________ is 2.FET, BJT
a current level and a voltage level for a
________. 3.SCR, FET
4.BJT, SCR
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1.
The KVL equation for the Figure is: 10-2I -4I =8
2.
4I - 8 - 2I -10 =0
3.
2I+4I + 8 = -10
4.
2I + 4I =10 + 8
1.
time constant
2.
The maximum rate of change of the output maximum frequency
voltage in response to a step input voltage is the
________ of an op-amp. 3.
slew rate
4.
static discharge
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1. Fouriertransform 2. Bi linear
The most widely used approach to IIR filter
transform 3.Cosine transform
design is based on
4.Discrete Fourier transform
The need for Digital Image Processing on Medical 1.
1,2,3
Images (Pick all the most suitable ones)
1. To have better storage and safe transmission 2.
1,3,4
2. To manipulate the image for our need
3.
3. To get better understanding on disease and its 2,3,4
prognosis
4.
4. To save �me and make process automated 1,2,4
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1.
output and feedback signal
2.
The output of a feedback control system must reference and output
be a function of 3.
reference and input
4.
input and feedback signal
1.
constantly switches between two
states
2.
The output of the astable circuit ________. is LOW until a trigger is received
3.
is HIGH until a trigger is received
4.
floats until triggered
1.
Stable System
2.
Condi�onally Stable System
The Phase margin of the system 0o. It represents a
3.
Unstable System
4.
Marginally Stable System
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1.
WR
2.
The start-conversion on the ADC0804 is done by CS line
using the: 3.
INTR line
4.
V ref/2 line
1.
Rise time
2.
The time required for a pulse to change Decay time
from 10 to 90 percent of its maximum value
is called 3.
Propagation time
4.
Operating speed
1.
rises slowly
2.
The transient response, with feedback system
rises quickly
3.
decays slowly
4.decays quickly
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The value of IC in the circuit is
1.
100 mA
2.
10 mA
3.
50 mA
4.
5 mA
1.
Inversely proportional to β
2.
inversely proportional to α
The velocity of an EM wave
3.
directly proportional to β
4.
Directly proportional to α
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1.
Power consump�on in R1 will be
maximum
2.
Power consump�on in R2 will be
Three resistances R1 , R2, and R3 are in series maximum
such that R1˃R2˃R3 , Then 3.
Power consump�on in R3 will be
maximum
4.
Power consump�on in all the
resistors will be same
1.
leave circuit unchanged
2.
Open circuit the coupling and bypass
To analyze the common-emitter amplifier, what capacitors
must be done to determine the dc equivalent
circuit? 3.
Short circuit the coupling and bypass
capacitors
4.
replace VCC with ground
1.
Template matching
2.
To detect the duration of QRS complex Derivative based operators
one has to use _________________
3.
methods Pan – Tompkins
4.
RLS method
1.
Active mode
2.
Reverse active mode
Transistors are biased in -------- for class B operation
3.
Cut off
4.
saturation
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1.
200 to 100 samples/s
Turning point algorithm reduces the sampling
2.100 to 50 samples/s 3.75 to 50
frequency of an ECG signal from
samples/s 4.
100 to 75 samples/s
1.
8H
2.
Two coils with self inductance 4 H are connected in 10 H
series (aiding). The mutual inductance is 2 H. What is
the effective inductance of the series combination is 3.
12 H
4.
6H
1.
10 V
2.
Two resistors R1=30 Ohm and R2=10 Ohm are 5V
connected in series to a DC voltage source of 10 V.
What is the voltage across R2? 3.
2.5 V
4.
-5 V
1.
decrease, increase
2.
Voltage feedback connections tend to _____ the increase, decrease
output impedance. Current feedback connections
tend to _____ the output impedance. 3.
increase, increase
4.
decrease, decrease
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1.
integrator
2.
What circuit produces an output that approximates differentiator
the area under the curve of an input function? 3.
summing amplifier
4.
comparator
1.
78%
2.
56%
3.
50%
4.
44%
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1.
The differential gain times the
difference input voltage.
2.
The common-mode gain times the
common input voltage
3.
What is the difference output voltage of any The sum of the differential gain
signals applied to the input terminals? times the difference input voltage
and the common-mode gain times
the common input voltage.
4.
The difference of the differential
gain times the difference input
voltage and the common-mode gain
times the common input voltage.
1.
Pass band
2.
What is the band of frequencies where there is Transition band
maximum attenuation of the signal? 3.
Transmission band
4.
Stop band
1.
5 Hz
2.
What is the cutoff frequency of an op-amp if the 15 Hz
unity-gain frequency is 1.5 MHz and the open-
loop gain is 100,000? 3.
10 Hz
4.
20 Hz
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1.
241 Hz
2.
What is the frequency of the astable multivibrator 178 Hz
with RA = 1 kΩ, RB = 3 MΩ and C = 1nF 3.
78 Hz
4.
8 Hz
1.
to compare the output voltages to
the internal voltage divider
2.
to compare the input voltages to the
What is the function of the comparators in the 555 internal voltage divider
timer circuit? 3.
to compare the output voltages to
the external voltage divider
4.
to compare the input voltages to the
external voltage divider
1.
0V
2.
What is the level of the voltage between the input 5V
terminals of an op-amp? 3.
5 mV
4.
0.5 V
1.2
What is the minimum number of NAND gates
required 2.4
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1.
Centroid
2.
Which point on root locus specifies the Break away point
4.
Anti-break point
1.Cross correlation and coherence
Which tool can quantify the relationships
2.Auto correlation and
among pairs of biosignals
periodogram 3.Periodogram 4.PSD
1.Auto correlation 2. Cross
Which tool is used to find similarities between
correlation A 3.Spectrum
signals
4.Periodocity
1.
LOW
2.
With most monostable
multivibrators, what is +5 V
4.
HIGH
1.
Some
but not all Boolean functions of
3 variables
2.
All function of 3 variables but none of 4
Without any additional circuitry an 8:1 MUX
can be variables
used to obtain
3.
All functions of 3 variables and some but
not all of 4 variables
4.
All functions of 4 variables
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3.
-v2 - 5 + v3 = 0
4.
-v2
+ 5 - v3 = 0
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1.
EMG
2.
EEG
Which among these is not a biomedical signal
3.
ADC
4.
PCG
1.
Decoder
2.
Which digital system translates coded Encoder
characters
into a more intelligible form?
3.
Counter
4.
Multiplxer
1.
monostable
2.
Which mode of
operation is being used when a pulse stretching
4.
astable
1.
Ripple Carry Adder
2.
Which of the
following adders can add three or Carry Look Ahead Adder
4.
All the above
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Questions Choices
1.
MOV @ P1, R0
2.
Which of the
following commands will copy the MOV @ R0, P1
4.
MOV P1, R0
1.
MOV P2, R3
2.
Which of the
following commands will move the MOV R3, P2
4.
MOV R2, P3
1.
MOV TH0, #35H
2.
Which of the
following instructions will load the MOV TH0, 35H
4.
MOV T0, 35H
1.
Which of the following respectively represent I, III and II
commutative law,
Associative law and 2.
Distributive law ?
II,I and III
I. A.(B C)=(A.B).C
II. A.(B+C)=A.B+A.C
3.
III. A + B = B + A
III, II and I
CODES 4.
III, I and II
4.NOR Gates
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10/10/21, 3:49 PM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
High gain in a system
2.
Presence of dead time delay in a
Which one of the following is the most likely reason for system
large overshoot in a control system
3.
High positive correcting torque
4.
High retarding torque
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Questions Choices
What is the minimum number
of gates
required to 1.2 2.3
implement the Boolean function (AB+C) 3.4
if we have to use only 2-input NOR 4.5
gates?
1.
Gain cross-over frequency
2.
Phase cross-over frequency
What is the other name of 3 dB frequency?
3.
Corner frequency
4.
Band pass frequency
1.
R / C
2.
What is the scale
multiplier (factor) of a basic C / R
integrator?
3.
–RC
4.
–1 / RC
1.
5 V/ms
3.
2 V/ms
4.
1 V/ms
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10/10/21, 3:49 PM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
928 Hz
2.
What will be oscillator frequency, if phase shift 1 kHz
4.
895 Hz
1.
50 kHz
4.
1 MHz
1.
0.03 V
2.
What would be the computational value of feedback 0.06 V
4.
0.15 V
1.
RC
2.
When a multistage amplifier
is to Transformer
Direct
4.
None
of the above
1.
increases
2.
When the bypass
capacitor is removed from a decreases
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10/10/21, 3:49 PM Vellore Institute of Technology (VIT)
Questions Choices
1.
Output current proportional to signal
voltage
2.
Output voltage proportional to signal
Which among the following is an output provided by current
transresistance amplifier?
3.
Output voltage proportional to input
voltage
4.
Output current proportional to signal
current
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