Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part

differs from that of the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. laughed B. sacrificed C. cooked D. explained
Question 2. A. meat B. bean C. sweat D. meaning

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the
other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. support B. slogan C. icon D. motto
Question 4. A. dominate B. disagree C. disrespect D. interfere

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
Question 5. Nobody called me yesterday, ...................?
A. didn't it B. do they C. didn't they D. did they
Question 6.This house ———————- in 1970 by my grandfather.
A. built B. was built C. was build D. has built
Question 7. What do you know .......... him?
A. on B. about C. with D. for
Question 8. The more I tried my best to help her, ..........she became.
A. less lazy B. the lazier C. the more lazy D. lazier
Question 9. She has just bought .
A. an interesting French old painting B. an old interesting French painting
C. a French interesting old painting D. an interesting old French painting
Question 10. When the boss walked into the office, his secretary ________.
A.has been typing B.was typing C. is typing D. had typed
Question 11. She got the job the fact that she had very little experience.
A. although B. because of C. despite D. because
Question 12. ________ to help, we will have finished the work.
A. By the time John comes B. Since John comes
C. When John comes D. Until John comes
Question 13: the distance was too far and the time was short, we decided to fly there instead of
going there by train.
A. To discover B. Discovered C. To have discovered D. Discovering
Question 14: She was pleased that things were going on _______.
A. satisfied B. satisfactorily C. satisfying D. satisfaction
Question 15. I was late for work because my alarm clock did not _______ .
A. turn off B. put off C. send off D. go off
Question 16: Peter______ a better understanding of Algebra than we do.
A. makes B. has C. takes D. gives
Question 17: The sight of his pale face brought ________ to me how ill he really was.
A. place B. house C. life D. home

Question 18. Ihe children had to___________in the principal’s office after they took part in a
fight.
A. hit the right notes B. beat around the bush
C. play second fiddle D. face the music
Question 19: In the formal interview, it is essential to maintain good eye with the interviewers.
A. contact B. touch C. link D. connection

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in
meaning to the un- derlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: The factory is fined for discharging dangerous chemicals into the river.
A. releasing B. increasing C. decreasing D. keeping
Question 21: The new college is intended to improve the life chances of children in the inner
city.
A. productions B. communities C. opportunities D. questions
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in
meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: Children brought up in a caring environment tend to grow more sympathetic
towards others.
A. loving B. dishonest C. healthy D. hateful

Question 23: It’s quite disappointing that some people still turn a blind eye to acts of injustice
they witness in the street.
A. take no notice of B. have no feeling for
C. show respect for D. pay attention to

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes
each of the fol- lowing exchanges.
Question 24: Janet wants to invite Susan to go to the cinema.
- Janet: “Do you feel like going to the cinema this evening?” - Susan: “______.”
A. I don’t agree, I’m afraid B. You’re welcome
C. That would be great D. I feel very bored
Question 25: - Baker: “In my opinion, women often drive more carefully than men.”
- Barbara: “ __________.”
A. Never mind B. What nonsense C. Absolutely D. Yes, please

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Urban development is having a direct impact on the weather in (26) ______ cities worldwide. It
has been noticed that the difference in temperature is usually greater at night and the
phenomenon occurs in both winter and summer. Experts agree that this is due to urban
development, when open green spaces are replaced with asphalt roads and tall brick or concrete
buildings. These materials retain heat generated by the Sun and release it through the night. In
Atlanta, in the US, this has even led to thunderstorms (27) _______occur in the morning rather
than, as is more common, in the afternoon.
Large cities around the world are adopting strategies to combat this issue, (28)_______ it is not
uncommon to find plants growing on top of roofs or down the walls of large buildings. In
Singapore, the government has (29)________to transform it into a "city within a garden" and, in
2006, they held an international competition calling for entries to develop a master plan to help
bring this about. One outcome was the creation of 18 “Supertrees” – metal constructions
resembling very tall trees. Each one is a vertical freestanding garden and is (30)_________to
exotic plants and ferns. They also contain solar panels used to light the trees at night and also
containers to collect rainwater, making them truly self-sufficient.
Question26: A.one B.many C.each D.much
Question27: A.which B.where C.what D.when
Question28: A.however B.for C.otherwise D.and
Question29: A.committed B.pledged C.confessed D.required
Question30: A.land B.house C.place D.home

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Edward Patrick Eagan was born on April 26th 1897 in Denver, Colorado, and his father died in a
railroad accident when Eagan was only one year old. He and his four brothers were raised by his
mother, who earned a small income from teaching foreign languages.
Inspired by Frank Marriwell, the hero of a series of popular novels for boys, Eagan pursued an
education for himself and an interest in boxing. He attended the University of Denver for a year
before serving in the U.S. army as an artillery lieutenant during World War I. After the war, he
entered Yale University and while studying there, won the US national amateur heavyweight
boxing title. He graduated from Yale in 1921, attended Harvard Law School, and received a
Rhodes scholarship to the University of Oxford where he received his A.M. in 1928.
While studying at Oxford, Eagan became the first American to win the British amateur boxing
championship. Eagan won his first gold medal as a light heavyweight boxer at the 1920 Olympic
Games in Antwerp, Belgium. Eagan also fought at the 1924 Olympics in Paris as a heavyweight
but failed to get a medal. Though he had taken up the sport just three weeks before the
competition, he managed to win a second gold medal as a member of four-man bobsled team at
the 1932 Olympics in Lake Placid, New York. Thus, he became the only athlete to win gold
medals at both the Summer and Winter Olympics.
(Adapted from "Peteson's Master TOEFL Reading Skills)
Question 31:What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Eagan's life shows that a man can be an athlete and a well-educated person.
B. Eagan's life shows that military experiences make athletes great.
C. Eagan's life shows how a wealthy student can achieve as much as a poor one.
D. Eagan's life shows how easy it is to win two gold medals in different Olympic sports.
Question 32: According to the passage, who was Frank Merriwell?
A. A teacher at Yale B. A student at Oxford
C. A fictional character D. A bobsledder at the Olympics
Question 33: The word "Inspired" in paragraph 2 in CLOSEST in meaning to ______.
A. stopped B. challenged C. calmed D. stimulated
Question 34: According to the passage, Eagan won all of the following EXCEPT ______.
A. British amateur boxing championship
B. U.S. national amateur heavyweight boxing title
C. Heavyweight boxing, Olympic gold medal
D. Light heavyweight boxing, Olympic gold medal
Question 35: The word "the competition" in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. sport B. 1932 Olympics C. gold medals D. Summer Olympics

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
It is estimated that by 2050 more than two-thirds of the world's population will live in cities, up
from about 54 percent today. While the many benefits of organized and efficient cities are well
understood, we need to recognize that this rapid, often unplanned urbanization brings risks of
profound social instability, risks to critical infrastructure, potential water crises and the potential
for devastating spread of disease. These risks can only be further exacerbated as this
unprecedented transition from rural to urban areas continues.
How effectively these risks can be addressed will increasingly be determined by how well cities
are governed. The increased concentration of people, physical assets, infrastructure and
economic activities mean that the risks materializing at the city level will have far greater
potential to disrupt society than ever before.
Urbanization is by no means bad by itself. It brings important benefits for economic, cultural and
societal development. Well managed cities are both efficient and effective, enabling economies
of scale and network effects while reducing the impact on the climate of transportation. As such,
an urban model can make economic activity more environmentally-friendly. Further, the
proximity and diversity of people can spark innovation and create employment as exchanging
ideas breeds new ideas.
But these utopian concepts are threatened by some of the factors driving rapid urbanization. For
example, one of the main factors is rural-urban migration, driven by the prospect of greater
employment opportunities and the hope of a better life in cities. But rapidly increasing
population density can create severe problems, especially if planning efforts are not sufficient to
cope with the influx of new inhabitants. The result may, in extreme cases, be widespread
poverty. Estimates suggest that 40% of the world's urban expansion is taking place in slums,
exacerbating socio-economic disparities and creating unsanitary conditions that facilitate the
spread of disease.
The Global Risks 2015 Report looks at four areas that face particularly daunting challenges in
the face of rapid and unplanned urbanization: infrastructure, health, climate change, and social
instability. In each of these areas we find new risks that can best be managed or, in some cases,
transferred through the mechanism of insurance.
Question 36: The word “that” in paragraph 4 refers to __________.
A. urban expansion B. socio-economic disparities
C. disease D. unsanitary conditions
Question 37:According to paragraph 3, what is one of the advantages of urbanization?
A. It minimizes risks for economic, cultural and societal development.
B. It makes water supply system both efficient and effective.
C. Weather and climate in the city will be much improved.
D. People may come up with new ideas for innovation.
Question 38:Which statement is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Urbanization brings important benefits for development as well.
B. 54% of the world's population will live in cities by 2050.
C. Risks cannot be addressed effectively no matter how well cities are governed.
D. Rapidly increasing population density can help solve poverty.
Question 39: The word "addressed" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. aimed at B. dealt with C. added to D. agreed on
Question 40: What can be inferred from the passage?
A. Poverty may be a foregone conclusion of unplanned urbanization.
B. Diseases are caused by people migrating to cities.
C. Urbanization can solve the problem of environmental pollution in cities.
D. The increasing number of people in cities can create more employment.
Question 41: Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A. The Risks of Rapid Urbanization in Developing Countries
B. Infrastructure and Economic Activities in Cities
C. The Global Risks 2015 Report on Developing Urban Areas
D. Rapid Urbanization Put Cities in Jeopardy
Question 42: The word “spark” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. need B. start C. encourage D. design

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 43: The passengers, tired after a very long trip, was relaxing in every available seat in
A B C D
the airport lobby.
Question 44: He didn’t meet her even one time since they said good bye together .
A B C D
Question 45: He was so exhausted that he felt asleep at his desk.
A B C D

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions
Question 46: She began to play the piano three years ago.
A. She has played the piano since three years.
B. She has played the piano for three years
C. She doesn’t play the piano now.
D. She stops playing the piano now.
Question 47: "Don't forget to submit your assignments by Thursday," said the teacher to the
students.
A. The teacher reminded the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
B. The teacher allowed the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
C. The teacher ordered the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
D. The teacher encouraged the students to submit their assignments by Thursday.
Question 48: It’s very likely that the company will accept his application.
A. The company needs accept his application.
B. The company might accept his application.
C. The company must accept his application.
D. The company should accept his application.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions
Question 49: Marie didn’t turn up at John’s birthday party. I feel so sorry for that.
A. If only Marie turn up at John’s birthday party.
B. I wish Marie had turned up at Johns birthday party.
C. I wished Marie wouldn’t turn up at John’s birthday party.
D. It’s a shame Marie had turned up at John’s birthday party.
Question 50: The government does not know what to do with household rubbish in large cities.
A. Little does the government know what to do with household rubbish in large cities.
B. It is unknown what to do with household rubbish in large cities by the government.
C. Rarely the government knows what to do with household rubbish in large cities.
D. Hardly any government knows what to do with household rubbish in large cities.