RAY A.

GAPUZ REVIEW SYSTEM

SAMPLE NLE-Type QUESTIONS
OB – PRETEST
By Ray A. Gapuz
Author, ‘NCLEX RN in a Flash’ published by Jones and Bartlett, USA
Author, ‘The ABC of Passing the NCLEX RN’ published by Mosby-Elsevier

YOUTUBE CHANNEL: GAPUZ MENTORS

NAME: ___________________________________ DATE:_______________

PROFESSOR: _____________________________

1. The client asks the nurse “What do men do if they want to be sterilized?” The nurse should respond that a
commonly used procedure involves clamping or cutting the:
a. epididymis.
b. seminal vesicles.
c. ejaculatory duct.
d. ductus deferens.

2. Which of the following urinary symptoms does the pregnant woman most frequently experience during the
first trimester?
a. Dysuria
b. Frequency
c. Incontinence
d. Burning

3. Heartburn and flatulence, common in the second trimester, are most likely the result of which of the
following?
a. Increased plasma HCG levels
b. Decreased intestinal motility
c. Decreased gastric acidity
d. Elevated estrogen levels

4. On which of the following areas would the nurse expect to observe chloasma?
a. Breast, areola, and nipples
b. Chest, neck, arms, and legs
c. Abdomen, breast, and thighs
d. Cheeks, forehead, and nose

5. One of the class participants asks several questions about becoming pregnant. She says “How do sperm
ever manage to reach the ovum?” The nurse’s best response is that “Sperm are propelled in the female
primarily by:
a. cilia in the female reproductive tract.”
b. movement of the sperm’s tail-like portion.”
c. peristalsis-like contractions in the cervix and uterus.”
d. gravity and the force generated by ejaculation.”

6. One of the participants says that her sister-in-law is unable to become pregnant. The nurse explains that one
reason for the diagnosis of infertility in a female is:
a. absence of an ovary.
b. dilated hymenal ring.
c. blocked fallopian tubes.
d. obstructed Bartholin’s gland duct.

7. After learning about fertilization, one of the participants asks where it occurs in the body. The nurse responds
correctly that fertilization of the ovum normally occurs in the:
a. ovary.
b. uterus.
c. corpus luteum.
d. fallopian tube.
 Situation: A couple is having their check-up and is receiving teaching from the nurse about Conception
and Mentruation
8. Mr. and Mrs. Cullen arrive at the clinic for their first pre natal visit. Mr. Cullen tells the nurse that the
women in his family usually have girl babies first and wonders why some women always have girls. The
nurse correct response is
a. “The sex of the baby is determined by the sperm.”
b. “Some women are just more fertile with females.”
c. “Nature determines whether the baby will be a girl or a boy.”
d. “The sex of the baby is determined by the egg.”

9. The hormone responsible for the development of the ovum during the menstrual cycle is?
a. Estrogen
b. Progesterone
c. Follicle Stimulating hormone (FSH)
d. Luteneizing hormone (LH)

10. Which part of the fallopian tube is the site for sterilization?
a. Infundibulum
b. Ampulla
c. Isthmus
d. Insterstitial

11. . During which of the following phase of the menstrual cycle is it ideal for implantation of a fertilized egg
to occur?
a. Ischemic phase
b. Menstrual phase
c. Proliferative phase
d. Secretory phase

12. Variation on the length of menstrual cycle is due to variations in the number of days in which of the
following phase?
a. Proliferative phase
b. Luteal phase
c. Ischemic phase
d. Secretory phase

Situation: Lina, a 21-year-old client visits the obstetrician’s office because she “thinks I might be
pregnant.” She has missed one menstrual period.

13. Lina tells the nurse that she wants to find out if she is pregnant. A radioimmunoassay test is performed.
The nurse instructs the client that this pregnancy test is:
a. highly accurate within 7 days after conception.
b. identical to a home pregnancy test.
c. a positive sign of pregnancy.
d. based on an antigen-antibody reaction.

14. After instructing Lina about the radioimmunoassay test, the nurse knows that the client understands the
instructions when she says which hormone is used for this test?
a. Estrogen.
b. Luteinizing hormone.
c. Follicle-stimulating hormone.
d. Human chorionic gonadotrophin.

15. Lina reports that she has had urinary frequency, breast tenderness, and occasional nausea. The nurse
determines that the client may be experiencing signs of pregnancy considered:
a. presumptive.
b. probable.
c. positive.
d. pervasive.

16. In a client’s 10th week of pregnancy, the presumptive signs of pregnancy that might be assessed by the
nurse include:
a. Fatigue, abdominal enlargement, and c. Nausea and vomiting, urinary frequency,
HCG in her urine and amenorrhea
b. Abdominal enlargement, urinary d. Breast changes, abdominal enlargement,
frequency, and amenorrhea and urinary frequency
 17. A pregnant client is experiencing nausea and vomiting. The nurse is aware that this discomfort:
a. Is always present in early pregnancy c. Is a common response to an unwanted
pregnancy
b. Will disappear when lightening occurs d. May be related to the HCG (human
chorionic gonadotropin) level

18. A client who is pregnant returns for her second prenatal visit. She asks why she has to urinate so often.
The nurse tells her that urinary frequency in the first trimester is:
a. Caused by the baby’s head descending c. A result of the mother’ kidneys filtering
into the uterus more waste products because of the
growing fetus
b. Influenced by the enlarging uterus, which d. Mostly a psychologic phenomenon that
is still contained in the pelvis. results from knowing that the pregnancy
has occurred

19. A client at 10 weeks gestation tells the nurse that she voids often, without dysuria, and would like to
know what to do. The nurse is aware that this client will have to:
a. Decrease her fluid intake during the day. c. Maintain increased fluid intake during the
day.
b. Contact her physician as soon as d. Try to resist the urge to void as long as
possible. possible.

20. A primigravida complains of morning sickness. The nurse should plan to teach her to:
a. Increase fluid intake c. Eat three small meals a day
b. Increase calcium in her diet d. Avoid long periods without food

21. A pregnant client has a serum blood test for elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP). The nurse is aware that
this test is done to detect the presence of:
a. Cystic fibrosis c. Down syndrome
b. Phenylketonuria d. Neural tube defects

22. A client in her 16th week of pregnancy is scheduled for ultrasonography. When preparing the client for
the procedure, the nurse informs her that for this test it will be necessary to:
a. Have an enema the night before the c. Fast for 12 hours to minimize the
examination possibility of vomiting
b. Monitor closely afterward for signs of d. Drink at least 1 liter of water 1 to 2 hours
precipitate labor before the test and avoid urinating during
that time

23. The nurse understands that when a contraction stress test is interpreted as negative it means:
a. The test should be repeated in 24 hours c. Immediate delivery should be considered
because examination results indicate because there are no fetal heart
hyperstimulation acceleration with fetal movement
b. The fetus at this time is likely to tolerate d. A trial induction should be started
the stress of contractions but the test because fetal heart rate acceleration with
should be repeated weekly movement is indicative of a false result

24. Nursing care for a pregnant client who is to have an oxytocin challenge test should include:
a. Having the client empty her bladder. c. Keeping the client on nothing by mouth.
b. Placing the client in a supine position. d. Preparing the client for insertion of
internal monitors.

25. At 38 weeks gestation an amniocentesis is done to determine fetal maturity. The proper L/S ratio for lung
maturity is:

a. 1:1 c. 2:1
b. 1:2 d. 1.5:1

26. A healthy 6-month pregnant client asks the nurse, “How often can I have sex?” The most appropriate
response is:
a. “Once a week if there is no bleeding or c. “It is recommended you abstain until after
pain.” you deliver.”
b. “Once a month if there is no bleeding or d. “As often as you desire as long as there
pain.” are no complications.”

27. A pregnant client asks the nurse about the purpose of the placenta. The nurse responds most
appropriately by telling the client that the placenta:
 a. Cushions and protects the fetus c. Prevents antibodies and viruses from
passing to the fetus
b. Maintains the body temperature of the d. Provides an exchange of nutrients and
fetus waste products between the mother and
fetus

28. A pregnant client asks the nurse about how the umbilical cord provides circulation to the baby. The nurse
responds that the umbilical cord has:
a. One artery and two veins c. Two arteries and two veins
b. One artery and one vein d. Two arteries and one vein

29. A nurse is reviewing the record of a client who has just been told that her pregnancy test is positive. The
physician has documented the presence of Goodell’s sign. The nurse determines that this sign is
indicative of:
a. A softening of the cervix c. The presence of human chorionic
gonadotropin (HCG)
b. The presence of fetal movement d. A soft, blowing sound that corresponds to
the maternal pulse during auscultation of
the uterus

30. A pregnant client states that she “waddles” when she walks. The nurse’s explanation is based on which of
the following as the cause?
a. The large size of the newborn
b. Pressure on the pelvic muscles
c. Relaxation of the pelvic joints
d. Excessive weight gain

31.Which of the following represents the average amount of weight gained during pregnancy?
a. 12 to 22 lb
b. 15 to 25 lb
c. 24 to 30 lb
d. 25 to 40 lb

Situation: Mrs. Swan G2P1 1001, comes out of the labor and delivery room and reports ruptured amniotic
membranes and contractions that occur every 3 minutes lasting 50-60 seconds. The fetus is in LOA position

32. The nurse’s first action should be to:

a. Check the FHR

b. Call the physician
c. Check the vaginal discharge with nitrazine paper
d. Admit Mrs. Swan to the delivery area

33. When asked to describe the amniotic fluid, Mrs. Swan states that it is “brown-tinged”. This indicates that:

a. The fetus had infection

b. At some point, the fetus experienced oxygen deprivation
c. The fetus is in distress and should be delivered immediately
d. The fetus is not experiencing any undue stress

34. The nurse established an IV line, and then connects Swan to an electronic fetal monitor. The fetal
monitoring strip shows FHR deceleration occurring about 30 sec after each contraction begins; the FHR
returns to baseline after the contraction is over. This type of deceleration is caused by:

a. Fetal head compression

b. Umbilical cord compression
c. Utero-placental insufficiency
d. Cardiac anomalies

35. With this type of deceleration, the nurse’s first action should be to:

a. Do nothing, this is a normal occurrence

b. Call the physician
c. Position the patient on her left side
d. Continue monitoring the FHR