Pathophysiology Practice Questions With Answers: A. B. C. D. E

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Pathophysiology Practice Questions With Answers
Questions and Answers
• 1. What is a deviation from the normal state of health or from a state of wellness?
o A. Functional impairment
o B. Debilitated state
o C. Dysfunction
o D. Disease
o E. Infirmity
• 2. An objective indication of disease that is obvious to an observer is referred to as a:

o A. Suffering
o B. Sign
o C. Syndrome
o D. Symptom
o E. Stupor
• 3. A subjective indication of disease that is not obvious to an observer is referred to as a:

o A. Suffering
o B. Sign
o C. Syndrome
o D. Symptom
o E. Stupor
• 4. A rash is an example of a:
o A. Suffering
o B. Sign
o C. Syndrome
o D. Symptom
o E. Stupor
• 5. Patient-reported perceptions such as pain, nausea, and chills are known as:
o A. Suffering
o B. Signs
o C. Syndromes
o D. Symptoms
o E. Stupors
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• 6. A collection of signs and symptoms that usually occur together in response to a certain
condition is referred to as a:
o A. Illness
o B. Symptomatic
o C. Synarthrosis
o D. Syndrome
o E. Pathogen
• 7. What is a term that is used to refer to the clinical evidence or effects of the disease?
o A. Manifestations
o B. Indications
o C. Causal factors
o D. Outward appearance
o E. Diagnosis
• 8. Which of the following is an example of a local manifestation.

o A. Fever
o B. Lethargy
o C. Redness
o D. General body aches
• 9. Which of the following is an example of a symptom.

o A. Pain
o B. Lethargy
o C. Nausea
o D. Chills
o E. All of the above
• 10. Which of the following is NOT an example of a sign.

o A. Rash
o B. Bruise
o C. Altered vitals
o D. Drainage
o E. Tingling sensation
• 11. A disease that arises from the activity (treatment, procedures or errors) of a physician is
known as:
o A. Adverse event
o B. Idiopathic
o C. Iatrogenic
o D. Malpractice
o E. Psychogenic
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• 12. A designation assigned to a disease of unknown cause:

o A. Idiopathic
o B. Enigmatic
o C. Illusory illness
o D. Indeterminate origin
o E. Mysterious origin
• 13. Tendencies that promote the development of disease are referred to as:
o A. Risk factors
o B. Causal factors
o C. Underlying disease threats
o D. Infectious agents
o E. Stressors
• 14. Which of the following are considered to be risk factors:

o A. Age
o B. Sex
o C. Occupation
o D. Dietary deficiencies
o E. All of the above
• 15. A disease that originates or is produced within the body is known as:
o A. Indigenous
o B. Ergogenic
o C. Exogenous
o D. Endogenous
o E. Emergent
• 16. A disease that originates or is produced outside the body is called:

o A. Indigenous
o B. Exergonic
o C. Exogenous
o D. Endogenous
o E. Endergonic
• 17. Genetics is an example of which of the following causal factors:

o A. Indigenous
o B. Exergonic
o C. Exogenous
o D. Endogenous
o E. Endergonic
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• 18. Carcinogens are an example of which of the following causal factors:

o A. Indigenous
o B. Exergonic
o C. Exogenous
o D. Endogenous
o E. Endergonic
• 19. What are the structures in the nucleus of a cell that store genetic information?
o A. Centrosome
o B. Chromesomes
o C. Cytoplasm
o D. Genotype
o E. Mitochondria
• 20. How many pairs of chromosomes are present in each cell in the human body?
o A. 2
o B. 4
o C. 46
o D. 23
o E. 92
• 21. A hereditary unit consisting of a sequence of DNA that contains information on protein
synthesis is called:
o A. Chromosome
o B. Gene
o C. Nucleotide
o D. Genome
o E. Lysosome
• 22. What is the term that is used to identify a factor that triggers an acute episode?
o A. Precipitating factor
o B. Stress-inducing factor
o C. Contributing factor
o D. Determining factor
o E. Causal factor
• 23. What is the term that applies to situations in which the disease progression is gradual with
only vague or mild signs?
o A. Acute
o B. Chronic
o C. Insidious
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o D. Invasive
o E. Terminal
• 24. What is the development of disease or the sequence of events that leads to a disease
process?
o A. Etiology
o B. Disease Intensity
o C. Pathogenesis
o D. Pathophysiology
o E. Pathology
• 25. Tell the name of a disease that develops gradually and stays for a long period of time.
o A. Chronic
o B. Acute
o C. Infectious
o D. Communicable
o E. Idiopathic
Cardiovascular Pathophysiology MCQs

• 1. Which of the following conditions cause aneurysms?

o A. Atherosclerotic plaque formation
o B. Trauma
o C. Low blood pressure
o D. Congenital abnormalities in media of arterial wall
o E. Smoking
o F. Infection
• 2. Which of the following are diagnostic tools used for finding aneurysms?
o A. Ultrasound
o B. Angiography
o C. NI
o D. MRI
o E. EKG
o F. CT
• 3. Which of the following diagnostic tools are used to confirm the presence of thrombi?
o A. Doppler untrasonography
o B. MRI
o C. Angiography
o D. CT
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• 4. Which of the following are used as a treatment for thrombi?

o A. Heparin
o B. Beta blockers
o C. Warfain
o D. Thrombolytics
• 5. Which of the following tests detect silent ischemia and angina?

o A. Intravascular ultrasound
o B. Coronary angiography
o C. Holter monitor
• 6. Which of the following are used as treatments of pericarditis?

o A. Colcihine
o B. Anti-inflammatory drugs
o C. Calcium Channel Blockers
o D. Nitrate
o E. Beta-Blockers
• 7. Blood pressure that is sustained systolic greater that 140mmHg and diastolic that is below
90 is associated with CV and cerebrovascular events, and is referred to as which of the
following terms?
o A. Prehypertentsion
o B. Isolated systolic hypertension
o C. Secondary hypertension
o D. Primary hypertension
• 8. Blood Pressure that is rapidly progressive with diastolic above 140 mmHg can cause cerebral
edema/loss of function, which of the following terms best describes this type of BP?
o A. Prehypertension
o B. Isolated hypertension
o C. Malignant hypertension
o D. Secondary hypertension
• 9. Outpouching or localized dilation of a vessel wall or cardiac chamber is best known as which
of the following terms?
o A. Thrombus
o B. Aneurysm
o C. Embolism
o D. None of the above
o E. None of the above
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• 10. A middle-aged female comes to the doctor with complaints of a sudden painful, pulsating
mass in the midline of her abdomen...upon further assessment, the presence of bruit is
confirmed. Which of the following conditions is consistent with the findings?
o A. Aneurysm "Circle of Willis"
o B. Abdominal aorta aneurysm
o C. Abdominal aorta thrombus
• 11. Which of the following disorders would cause signs of intracranial pressure, such as
decreased levels of consciousness, bradycardia, widened pulse pressure, small, sluggish
pupils?
o A. Aneurysm- Circle of Willis
o B. Aneurysm-femoral poplitieal artery
o C. Thrombus in Cerebral artery
• 12. Aneurysms with symptoms of ischemia are probably located in which of the following
areas?
o A. Abdominal Aorta
o B. Thoracic Aorta
o C. Femoral and Popliteal Artery
o D. None of them
• 13. A 23-year-old male comes to the doctor complaining of the tenderness of in his arm Upon
assessment the nurse observes skin ulcerations, redness, thick and shiny skin, and thickened
and malformed nails. Which of the following conditions is consistent with her findings?
o A. Thromboangilitis (Buerger Disease)
o B. Raynaud's phenomenon
o C. Raynaud's disease
• 14. Which of the following is a more common peripheral vascular disease usually associated
with scleroderma or another connective tissue disease? Numbness, tingling of digits relieved
by warmth, associated with white, blue, and red colors. Thickened fingertips and nails.
o A. Thromboangilitis (Beurger's Disease
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• 15. Which of the following terms refers to soft deposits of intra-arterial fat and fibrin in the
vessel walls that hardens over time?
o A. Arteriosclerosis
o B. Atherosclerosis
o C. Atherosclerotic disease
o D. Arteriosclero Byfunction
• 16. Which of the following tests shows the location and degree of coronary artery stenosis and
condition of the artery beyond the narrowing?
o C. Holter Monitor
o D. All of them
• 17. Which of the following tests evaluated damaged heart muscle and if there is adequate blood
supply?
o A. Coronary Angiography
o B. EKG
o C. Holter Monitor
• 18. Which of the following terms best describes an atherosclerotic disease of the arteries that
perfuse the limbs, especially in the lower extremities?
o A. Atherosclerosis
o B. Arteriosclerosis
o C. Peripheral Artery Disease
• 19. A diabetic patient comes to the doctor complaining about sever pain in his legs brought on
by ambulation. The nurse suspects which of the following conditions?
o B. Peripheral Artery Disease
o C. Arteriosclerosis
o D. Myocardial Ischemia
• 20. Which of the following is a condition in which the blood supply to the heart muscles is
completely or partially blocked due to atherosclerosis that develops in the arteries that encircle
the heart, narrowing the arteries, and blocking blood flow?
o A. Peripheral Artery Disease
o B. Myocardial Ischemia
o C. Coronary Artery Disease
o D. Prinzmental Angina
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• 21. Which of the following terms refers to abnormal concentrations of serum lipoproteins such
as lipids, phospholipids, cholesterol, and triglycerides bound to carrier proteins?
o A. Dyslipidemia
o B. Lipoprotemia
o C. Phospholipidemia
• 22. Which of the following terms describes angina that is substernal chest discomfort: elephant
sitting on my chest: often shown with a clenched fist placed over the left sternal
border? Accompanied by pallor, diaphoresis, dyspnea, nausea, and vomiting?
o A. Stable Angina
o B. Prinzmental Angina
o C. Silent Ischemia
• 23. A woman comes to the doctor with complaints of fatigue, dyspnea, and a feeling of unease.
Upon further assessment, the nurse finds left ventricular gallop and S3, what are these findings
consistent with?
o A. Stable Angina
o B. Silent Ischemia
o C. Prinzmental Angina
o D. Pregnancy
• 24. General transient ST-segment depression and T wave inversion are characteristic signs of
which of the following?
o A. Atheroscerotic plaque
o B. Angina
o C. Ischemia
o D. Antilipemics
• 25. Which of the following medications dilates arteries and veins to reduce myocardial oxygen
demands?
o A. Betq-Blockers
o B. Nitrates
o C. Antilipemics
o D. Aspirin
Pathophysiology: Asthma MCQs

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• 1. Which of the following are risk factors for the development of asthma?
o A. High exposure to airborne allergens
o B. Exposure to tobacco smoke
o C. High birthweight
o D. Genetic factors
• 2. Susceptibility for asthma is primarily determined in adulthood (around 20-25 years of age)
o A. True
o B. False
• 3. What are some adult onset risk factors for the development of asthma?
o A. Occupational exposure to irritants
o B. Alcohol consumption
o C. Smoking
o D. Obesity
o E. Hormonal influences
o F. Exposure to pollutants and infectious agents
• 4. Asthma is characterized by chest tightness, wheezing, sputum production, cough and airway
hyperresponsiveness. What other factor is also a characteristic?
o A. Irreversible lower airway constriction
o B. Persistent symptoms
o C. Reversible lower airway constriction
o D. Symptoms the same for every person with asthma
• 5. Which definition best suits the term "inflammation" in relation to asthma?

o A. Inflammation is caused by infectious agents in asthma, and is mediated by antiproteases
o B. Inflammation is associated with airway remodelling in asthma. Inflammation is triggered by a
stimulus, and causes epithelial injury, among other things
o C. Inflammation is caused by airway remodelling in asthma.
o D. Mast cells can help to reduce inflammation by releasing histamine and preventing further lung
damage
• 6. There are two phases in extrinsic asthma, the _______________ and ______________ phases
• 7. Which of the following are characteristics of extrinsic asthma?

o A. Airway hyperresponsiveness
o B. IgE hypersensitivity mediation
o C. Exercise mediation
o D. Allergy mediation
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• 8. Which of the following are characteristics of intrinsic asthma?

o A. Exercise is a trigger
o B. Cold air is a trigger
o C. Allergy mediated
o D. Hormonal changes are triggers
• 9. Airway remodelling is a major player in the pathology of asthma.

o A. True
o B. False
• 10. Which statement is false regarding airway remodelling?

o A. There is an increase in goblet cells and mucus production
o B. Thickened smooth muscle cells, with hyperplasia and hypertrophy
o C. Decreased collagen deposition in airways
o D. Increased vascularity in the airway wall
• 11. Airway remodelling can be seen in young children with asthma

o A. True
o B. False
• 12. Which of the following statements is false regarding the early phase of extrinsic asthma?
o A. It occurs within 10-20 minutes of triggering stimuli exposure
o B. The allergen binds to IgE receptors on surface of airways, and activates mast cells
o C. Decreased mucus secretion, leading to less airway protection, occurs
o D. Increased vascular permeability and bronchoconstriction occur
• 13. Which of the following is false regarding the late phase of an extrinsic asthma event?
o A. Occurs within 4-8 hours of trigger and may persist for days/weeks
o B. Inflammatory mediators cause recruitment of WBCs, such as neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils
and lymphocytes
o C. Macrophages are activated
o D. Decreased airway responsiveness occurs
• 14. Which inflammatory mediators are released when mast cells degranulate and after
degranulation?
o A. Histamine
o B. Leukotrienes
o C. Prostaglandin D2
o D. Chemotactic chemokines
o E. Dopamine
o F. Antiproteases
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o G. TNFa
• 15. What are some symptoms that client's with asthma may encounter?
o A. Dyspnea/SOB
o B. Chest tightness
o C. Cough
o D. Quiet breathing
o E. Wheezing
• 16. During an asthma attack, air becomes trapped with impaired function, and _______________
ensues. Alveolar ______________ occurs due to increasing interpleural and alveolar gas pressure.
_________________ is triggered. ___________/perfusion mismatch occurs. First alkalosis occurs
due to decreased _________ concentration in the blood, but the resulting hypoventilation
eventually causes ______________. Respiratory failure can result.
• 17. Which of the following are clinical SIGNS of asthma?

o A. Shortness of breath
o B. Wheezing heard on auscultation
o C. Vital signs such as tachypnea, decreased 02 sats
o D. Chest tightness
o E. Increased work of breathing observed
o F. In ability to maintain conversation with healthcare provider
• 18. During the initial stage of an asthma attack, respiratory ______________ occurs in the blood.
After a period of time without enough 02, the respiratory ____________ occurs.
• 19. What are some things that may be seen on a chest x-ray of someone with asthma?
o A. Under inflation of the lower lobes
o B. Enlarged heart
o C. Hyperinflation
o D. Increase or decrease flattening in the hemidiaphragms
• 20. Which of the following is false about lung spirometry tests?

o A. They are used in initial diagnosis and to evaluate treatment
o B. Their red zone is less then 90% of the expected value
o C. They are used with bronchial provocation tests
o D. They evaluate the function of the lungs
• 21. Which of the following are long term pharamocotherapy for asthma?
o A. Anticholinergics
o B. Systemic corticosteroids
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o C. Mast cell stabilizers
o D. Inhaled corticoid steroids
• 22. Which of the following are shorting acting pharmacotherapy for asthma?
o A. Short broncodilaters
o B. Monoclonal antibody therapy
o C. Anticholinergics
o D. Systemic corticosteroids
Pathophysiology of Respiratory Disease MCQs

• 1. Which of the following is not a function of the respiratory system?

o A. Bring oxygen in
o B. Decrease temperature of air
o C. Move gas wastes out
o D. Works along with cardiovascular system
• 2. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for proper ventilation?

o A. Intact chest wall
o B. Intact diaphragm
o C. Intact lung tissue
o D. Intact cilia
• 3. During inhalation, the diaphragm drops, and the ribs will expand.
o A. True
o B. False
• 4. Residual volume is the maximum amount of air that can be moved in and out of the lungs.
o A. True
o B. False
• 5. The controls of respiratory functions reside in which of the following?

o A. Brain
o B. Pituitary gland
o C. Lungs
o D. Upper respiratory tract
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• 6. As CO2, the "designated driver" of the blood, rises SLOWLY, the chemoreceptors will not have
the ability to recognize the problem as quickly. So receptors in peripheral parts of the body
begin to take over. These "secondary drivers" are known as?
o A. Histamine drivers
o B. Oxygen drivers
o C. RBC drivers
o D. Leukotriene drivers
• 7. Where is the location of gas exchange?

o A. Lungs
o B. Diaphragm
o C. Alveoli
o D. Goblet cells
• 8. Which alteration is effected if the A-C interface is affected, by stretching or damage?

o A. Air flow
o B. Gas exchange
o C. Blood flow
• 9. Which of the following is NOT a cause of alteration in air flow?

o A. Breathing patterns
o B. Chest wall injury
o C. Parachymal injury
o D. Inflammation
o E. None of the above
o F. All of the above
• 10. What type of disorder is Cystic Fibrosis?

o A. Genetic
o B. Acquired
o C. Immunocompromised
o D. Hypersensitivity
• 11. Cystic fibrosis causes obstruction in the bronchioles and small bronchi due to the
abnormally thick mucous secretions.
o A. True
o B. False
• 12. Lung cancer is the leading cause of cancer death in the United States. Which of the
following is the primary causative agent for lung cancer?
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o A. Air pollution
o B. Chemical exposure
o C. Recurrent infection
o D. Cigarette smoking
• 13. In order to maintain effective breathing patterns, one must have an adequate gas exchange
for metabolic processes.
o A. True
o B. False
• 14. Which of the following is NOT an effect of pneumonia?

o A. Decrease in air flow
o B. Increase in respirations
o C. Increase in A-C membrane width
o D. Decrease in gas exchange
• 15. Which disorder causes symptoms of fatty stools, salty skin, and frequent respiratory
infections?
o A. Cystic fibrosis
o B. Asthma
o C. Emphysema
o D. Respiratory distress syndrome
• 16. Which disease involves the symptoms of hemoptysis, pleural effusion, chest pain, and
anemia?
o A. Chest wall injury
o B. Pulmonary embolism
o C. Lung cancer
o D. Respiratory distress syndrome
• 17. Choose 2 of the following factors that are involved in the pathway of asthma.
o A. Pulmonary HTN from blocked circulation
o B. Release of interleukins, histamine, leukotrienes
o C. Airway edema from increased mucous productions
• 18. What is the causative agent of polycythemia and pulmonary hypertension?

o A. Airway obstruction
o B. Surfactant secretion
o C. Pulmonary edema
o D. Chronic hypoxemia
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• 19. What 2 alterations are manifested by emphysema?

o A. Obstructive problems
o B. Blood flow problems
o C. Gas exchange problems
o D. Air flow problems
• 20. Which disease is characterized by too much fluid in the interstitial space?
o A. Pulmonary HTN
o B. Chronic bronchitis
o C. Pulmonary edema
o D. Pneumothorax
• 21. Which disease is characterized by a decreased oxygen level leading to chronic hypoxemia,
stretching of the A-C membrane causing a decrease in gas exchange, and air trapping in the
thoracic cavity?
o A. Emphysema
o B. Pulmonary embolus
o C. Pneumonia
o D. Tuberculosis
• 22. In a pt with emphysema, a nurse may observe a 'barrel chest." What causes this physical
abnormality?
o A. Too much fluid trapped in the lungs
o B. Airway swelling and increased mucous production
o C. Increased pressure in the vascular space from pulmonary HTN
o D. Too much air trapped in the thoracic cavity
• 23. A patient comes in complaining of chronic mucous production and respiratory irritation. The
symptoms you observe are a productive cough and cyanosis of the skin. Which disease
possibly explains these manifestations?
o A. Chronic bronchitis
o B. Respiratory distress syndrome
o C. Cor pulmonale
o D. Cystic fibrosis
• 24. Pulmonary hypertension causes a rise in blood pressure readings.

o A. True
o B. False
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• 25. A patient comes in with pulmonary hypertension and heart failure from block circulation.
Shortly after, the patient has an MI. Which disorder could possibly explain this situation?
o A. Flail chest
o B. Hemothorax
o C. Aspiration
o D. Pulmonary embolus
Pathophysiology of Inflammation MCQs

• 1. What are the 5 cardinal signs of Inflammation?

o A. Caliente, rubarbo, tamar, dola, functioner
o B. Caliente, rubor, tumor, dola, functioner
o C. Calor, rubor, tumor, dolor, functio laesa
o D. Calor, rubarbo, tamar, dolor, functio laesa
• 2. Inflammation can occur in dead tissue?

o A. True
o B. False
• 3. Changes in blood flow represent the body's first response to injury.

o A. True
o B. False
• 4. What is the first response of arterioles to injury?

o A. Vasoconstriction
o B. Vasodilation
o C. Redness
o D. Edema
o E. Hyperemia
• 5. Stacking of erythrocytes (RBCs) are known as what?

o A. Margination
o B. Pavementing
o C. Forming Rolexes
o D. Rouleaux Formation
• 6. What is the name of the phenomenon where WBC's marginate and become attached to the
edge of the endothelium?
o A. Cementing
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o B. Pavementing
o C. Margination
o D. Adhesion
• 7. On microscopic examination, the finding of Rouleaux Formation of RBC's means that there is
inflammation.
o A. True
o B. False
• 8. Margination of neutrophils is the first cellular change of inflammation.

o A. True
o B. False
• 9. Active movement of PMN's along a concentration gradient is known as what?

o A. Passive diffusion
o B. Chemotaxis
o C. Facilitated diffusion
o D. Chemotactic diffusion
• 10. What does the term opsonization mean?

o A. To make tasty
o B. To make optimal
o C. To make foreign
o D. To make attractive
• 11. A PMN encounters and recognizes a bacterium as foreign by the pseudopods extending
from the surface of the PMN.
o A. True
o B. False
• 12. How does the PMN recognize and attach to the foreign bacteria?
o A. Hcg or complement (C3)
o B. Immunoglobulins (IgG-A4) or complement (C4)
o C. Immunoglobulins (IgG-Fc) or complement (C3)
o D. Hcg or complement (C4)
• 13. Immunoglobulins (IgG-Fc) and complement (C3) both act as opsonins.

o A. True
o B. False
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• 14. The process by which the cytoplasm of the PMN surrounds the bacteria and encloses it into
an invagination of the cell membrane is known as what?
o A. Phagolysosome
o B. Phagolysis
o C. Phagolum
o D. Phagocytosis
o E. Phagophobia
• 15. Inside the phagocytic vacuole, the bacteria is killed by bacteriocidal substances released
from the nucleus of the PMN.
o A. True
o B. False
• 16. Dead and dying PMN's admixed with tissue debris form a viscous yellow fluid called what?
o A. Xanthochromia
o B. Pus
o C. Xanthelasma
• 17. What are the different types of inflammation?

o A. Serious, fiber, purulent, ulcerative, chronic and granulomatous
o B. Serous, fibrinous, purulent, ulcerative, pseudomembranous, chronic and granulomatous
o C. Serous, purulent, ulcerative, pseudomembranous and chronic
o D. Serious, fibrionous, pseudomembranous, chronic, and granulomatous
• 18. Select 2 examples of serous inflammation?

o A. The skin vesicles caused by Herpes virus
o B. Acute bacterial meningitis
o C. Bread and butter pericarditis
o D. Blisters from second degree skin burns
• 19. Serous inflammation is considered to be the most severe form of inflammation.

o A. True
o B. False
• 20. The serous fluid is readily resorbed without consequences if the cause is eliminated.
o A. True
o B. False
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• 21. What is an example of fibrinous inflammation?

o A. Serous pleural effusion
o B. Bread and butter pericarditis
o C. Acute bacterial meningitis
o D. Tuberculoma
• 22. Fibrinous inflammation is seen in many bacterial infections, such as Strep throat or
pneumonia.
o A. True
o B. False
• 23. Inflammation is typically caused by pus-forming bacteria such as ________ and __________.
o A. Psuedomonas Aeruginosa and Staph
o B. E. Coli and Streptococcus
o C. Staph and Stenotrophomonas
o D. Staph and Streptococcus
• 24. A localized collection of pus within an organ or tissue is called an Abscess.

o A. True
o B. False
• 25. Tuberculoma (TB Abscess) is a type of purulent inflammation.

o A. True
o B. False
CVS, GI And Respiratory Pathophysiology MCQs

• 1. About the coronary arteries that ascend from the ascending aorta, left coronary branches to :
o A. Posterior interventicular and cicumflex
o B. Posterior interventicular and marginal
o C. Anterior interventicular and marginal
o D. Anterior interventicular and circumflex
• 2. One of the following is not related to Type 2 in DM :

o A. Relative deficiency of insulin
o B. Nonketonic hyperglycemia with stress
o C. Obese represents 80% in this type
o D. Most common in juvenile onest
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• 3. In the Diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease , one of the following is correct :

o A. In barium meal study, gastric ulcer biopsy advise r/o malignancy
o B. In OGD, duodenal ulcer shows trifolite
o C. In OGD, duodenal ulcer biopsy done to r/o H.pylori
o D. In barium meal study, duodenal ulcer appears as niche in lesser curvature due to ulcer crater
• 4. One of the following disease represents a reduced intestinal surface with regard to causes of
Malabsorption disease :
o A. Tropical sprue
o B. Lactose intolerance
o C. Croh'n disease
o D. Pancreatic insufficiency
• 5. In laboratory assessment in the Cirrhosis, one of the following is incorrect:

o A. Alkaline phosphotase increase
o B. Serum protein decrease
o C. Hematocrit decrease
o D. Serum creatinine decrease
• 6. Physical symptoms of psychotogical origins is :

o A. Arrhythmia
o B. Hypochondriasis
o C. Thyroid disease
o D. Hyperlipedimia
• 7. One of the following is incorrect about Metabolic syndrome :

o A. Hypotension
o B. Low HDL
o C. Elevated triglyceride levels
o D. Impaired fasting glucose
• 8. About the drugs that used in treatment of peptic ulcer disease, one of the following drugs
considered a prostaglandin analogue:
o A. Tums
o B. Cimetioline
o C. Lansoprazole
o D. Misoprostol
• 9. Which of the following bacteria causes a thyroid fever :

o A. Y entrocolitis
o B. Salmonella
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o C. C-jejuni
o D. Shigella
• 10. Elevated Jugular Venous pressure is :

o A. Ankle edema
o B. Pleural effusion
o C. Kussmauls's sign
o D. Ascites
• 11. In DKA-treatment (diabetic keto acidosis), we need :

o A. Volume replacement
o B. Insulin
o C. Magnesium
o D. All of the above
• 12. One of the following is not true about H.pylori :

o A. Found most commonly in deeper portions of the mucus gel coating gastric mucusa
o B. Its genes products causing epithelial cell injury
o C. Inhibits gastric acid and increase PH
o D. Several H.pylori are immunogenic
• 13. One of the following drugs is not Antivirals regard to Hepatits drugs :
o A. Oral ribavirin
o B. Lamivundine
o C. Adefovir dipivoxil
o D. Epivir-HBV
• 14. A weakening of an artery wall , that creates a bulge or distention of the artery :
o A. Aneurysm
o B. Eclampsia toxemia
o C. Pheochromocytoma
o D. Adrenal gland abnormalities
• 15. One of the most potent vasoconstrictors known and it is an octapeptides ( 8 amino acids ) :
o A. Aldosteron
o B. Renin
o C. ADH
o D. Angiotemsin ||
• 16. Regard to principals mechanisms of diarrhea , the Exudative mechanism include :
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o A. Excessive osmotic forces
o B. Output of purulent and bloody stool
o C. Voluminous stool and defective absorption
o D. Isotonic tp plazma
• 17. Regard to Portal Systemic Encephalopathy (hepatic coma) , the incorrect one is :
o A. Acute disease
o B. Reversible with early intervention
o C. Causes impaired thinking
o D. Caused by Decrease ammonia levels
• 18. In compensented shock, one of the following is peripheral effects :

o A. Increase cardiac output
o B. Shunting of blood to main core organs
o C. Decrease blood flow to the hypothalamus
o D. ACTH
• 19. Main explanatory reasons for Berserk movement in fibrillation :

o A. Decrease velocity and increase refractory period
o B. Decrease velocity and decrease refractory period
o C. Increase velocity and decrease refractory period
o D. Increase velocity and increase refractory period
• 20. Regard to alpha stimulatory in G protein coupled receptor , the correct one is :
o A. Alpha work on protein kinase A
o B. Protein kinase A converts ATP to CAMP
o C. Enzyme adenine cyclise converts ATP to CAMP
o D. No adenine cyclise
• 21. One of the following is incorrect about trans pulmonary pressure :

o A. More trans pulmonary pressure , less volume of air inside the lungs
o B. Becomes a zero at death
o C. Difference between a intra alveolar and intra pleural pressure
o D. Becomes zero in Pneumothorax
• 22. One of the following is like coffee ground vomit :

o A. Chronic cough
o B. Hematemesis
o C. Acute cough
o D. Hemoptysis
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• 23. One of the following diseases usually represents a high V/Q ratio in pulmonary test :
o A. Acute pulmonary edema
o B. Asthma
o C. COPD
o D. Chronic bronchitis
• 24. In acute asthma attack , One of the following is not major event :
o A. Bronchiolar constriction
o B. Inflammatory swelling
o C. Mucus hepersecretion
o D. Hyperinflation of alveoli
• 25. Acts as a bronchodilator, and cause relaxation of smooth muscle by acts as Ca antagonist :
o A. SABA
o B. Ventilation
o C. MgSO4
o D. LABA
Pathophysiology Reproductive System MCQS

• 1. All of the following women would be considered at high risk of developing breast cancer
except...
o A. Whose grandmother had breast cancer
o B. Who has 7 children
o C. Who started her period at 9 years of age
o D. Whose first pregnancy was at 42 years old
• 2. Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases have been linked to the development of
cervical cancer?
o A. Syphillis
o B. Human papillomavirus
o C. Herpes simplex 2
o D. Chlamydia
o E. Gonorrhea
• 3. Which of the following factors predispose a woman to the development of endometrial

cancer?
o A. Fibroids
o B. Irregular menstral periods
o C. Increased estrogen levels
o D. Exposure to sexually transmitted infections
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• 4. Which of the following apply to benign prostatic hyperplasia?

o A. Positive psa (prostatic specific antigen) test
o B. It is a benign growth that might become malignant
o C. The gland becomes small, nodular, and firm.
o D. Complaints of hesitancy and decreased urinary stream
• 5. Which statement about the testes is TRUE?

o A. Each testis contains the ductus deferens.
o B. The testes are suspended by the spermatic cord.
o C. Each testis has its own scrotal sac and seminal vesicle.
o D. The testes must be kept at a temperature slightly above body temperature.
• 6. Which statement about spermatogenesis is TRUE?

o A. The complete process takes about 28 days.
o B. Maturation of sperm takes place in the seminal vesicles.
o C. It is controlled by FSH and testosterone.
o D. The process is initiated after each ejaculation.
• 7. Which of the following may result from cryptorchidism?

o A. Infertility
o B. Testicular cancer
o C. Both A and B
o D. Neither A or B
• 8. Which term refers to excessive fluid collecting between the layers of the tunica vaginalis?
o A. Varicocele
o B. Hypospadias
o C. Spermatocele
o D. Hydrocele
• 9. Which of the following are common early significant signs of acute prostatitis?
o A. A hard nodule in the gland and pelvic pain
o B. Soft, tender, enlarged gland and dysuria
o C. Hesitancy and increased urinary output
o D. Mild fever, vomiting, and leucopenia
• 10. Which of the following applies to benign prostatic hypertrophy?

o A. The tumor usually becomes malignant in time
o B. The gland becomes small, nodular, and firm
o C. Manifestations include hesitancy, dribbling, and frequency
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o D. Lower abdominal or pelvic pain develops
• 11. Why does frequency occur with benign prostatic hypertrophy?

o A. Increased volume of dilute urine
o B. Irritation of the bladder and urethra
o C. Impaired micturitaion reflex
o D. Incomplete emptying of the bladder
• 12. Which of the following is the common first site for metastasis from prostatic cancer?
o A. Bone
o B. Lungs
o C. Liver
o D. Testes
• 13. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of leukorrhea during the reproductive years?
o A. It is clear or whiteish
o B. It has a pH of 4 to 5
o C. It does not contain any cells
o D. It contains mucus
• 14. Which of the following applies to the corpus luteum?

o A. It forms a mature ovarian follicle
o B. It secretes hCG
o C. It secretes estrogen and progesterone during the last half of the menstrual cycle.
o D. It produces gonadotropins for the next cycle.
• 15. Why does severe pain occur with each menstrual cycle in endometriosis?
o A. Obstruction in the fallopian tubes
o B. Inflammation around ectopic endometrial tissue
o C. Hormonal imbalance causing uterine contractions
o D. Fibrous tissue responding to hormonal changes
• 16. With pelvic inflammatory disease, why does infection spread easily into the peritoneal
cavity?
o A. The fallopian tubes are obstructed, and purulent exudate cannot drain into the uterus.
o B. The uterus is perforated because of infection, allowing bacteria to leak out.
o C. Most of the primary infections do not respond to antimicrobial drugs.
o D. Microbes are highly virulent
• 17. Which of the following is a common complication of leiomyomas?
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o A. Development of malignancy
o B. Irregular menstral cycles
o C. Interference with ovulation
o D. Abnormal bleeding such as menorrhagia
• 18. Which of the following refers to fibrocystic breast disease?

o A. Progressive development of fluid-filled cysts and fibrous tissue
o B. Proliferation of atypical cells with high risk of malignancy
o C. Benign tumors that develop after menopause
o D. Any tissue changes other than the normal response to hormonal changes
• 19. Which of the following applies to carcinoma of the breast?

o A. It presents as a tender, painful, firm nodule.
o B. Tumor cells may demonstrate estrogen receptors on the membrane.
o C. Occasionally, a genetic factor may have a small role in tumor development.
o D. The tumor is invasive but does not metastasize until very late.
• 20. Which is considered to be the stage of carcinoma in situ in cervical cancer?

o A. The invasive stage
o B. The stage of mild dysplasia
o C. The time before it can be detected by a Pap test
o D. Noninvasive severe dysplaisa
• 21. What is a major predisposing factor to cervical cancer?

o A. High estrogen levels
o B. Familial incidence
o C. Infection with HPV
o D. Early age of onset for menstral cycles
• 22. What is a significant early sign of endometrial carcinoma?

o A. A positive Pap test
o B. Minor vaginal bleeding or spotting
o C. Infection resistance to treatment
o D. Painful intercourse
• 23. Which is/are sexually transmitted infection(s) usually considered asymptomatic in women?
o A. Chlamydia
o B. Gonorrhea
o C. Syphilis
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• 24. Which of the following frequently causes PID and subsequent infertility?
o A. Chlamydia
o B. Genital warts
o C. Trichomoniasis
o D. Herpes simplex
• 25. Which of the following causes inflammation of the vagina with a copious yellow discharge
and foul odor?
o A. Candidiasis
o B. Trichomoniasis
o C. Syphilis
o D. Gonorrhea
Digestive System Pathophysiology MCQs

• 1. What causes elevated serum levels of AST and ALT during the preicteric stage of hepatitis?
o A. Systemic effects of viral infection
o B. Obstruction of bile ducts and malabsorption
o C. Necrosis of liver cells
o D. Ammonia toxicity
• 2. What is the likely effect of long-term exposure to a hepatotoxin?

o A. Full recovery to normal tissue after the toxic material is removed
o B. Acute onset of vomiting, steatorrhea, and jaundice
o C. Continued mild inflammation of the liver without permanent damage
o D. Gradual irreversible damage to the liver and cirrhosis
• 3. What indicates the presence of third-stage alcohol hepatitis?

o A. Below normal blood levels of AST and ALT
o B. ULQ tenderness and dull pain
o C. A small, firm, nodular liver and portal hypertension
o D. Accumulation of fat in the hepatocytes and hepatomegaly
• 4. A primary factor causing encephalopathy with cirrhosis is the elevated:

o A. Serum urea
o B. Conjugated bilirubin
o C. Serum ammonia
o D. Serum pH
• 5. In patients with cirrhosis, serum ammonia may increase when:
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o A. Ingesting excessive lipids
o B. Bleeding occurs in the digestive tract
o C. An increase in unconguated bilirubin occurs in the serum
o D. Less bile is produced
• 6. What is the primary cause of esophageal varices?

o A. Portal hypertension
o B. Alcohol irritating the mucosa
o C. Failure to inactivate estrogen
o D. Poor nutritional status
• 7. What is the primary cause of increased bleeding tendencies associated with cirrhosis?
o A. Anemia and leukopenia
o B. Jaundice and pruritus
o C. Recurrent infections
o D. Deficit of vitamin K and prothrombin
• 8. Which factors contribute to ascites in patients with cirrhosis?

o A. Increased aldosterone and deficit of albumin
o B. Severe anemia and increase serum bilirubin
o C. Hypoalemia and increased serum ammonia
o D. Hyperproteinemia and persistent hypotension
• 9. Which of the following is a major cause of primary hepatocellular cancer?

o A. Metastic tumors
o B. Acute hepatitis
o C. Long term exposure to certain chemicals
o D. Chronic cholelithiasis
• 10. What causes massive inflammation and necrosis in acute pancreatitis?

o A. Formation of multiple thrombi and ischemia
o B. Infection by intestinal
o C. Immune complex reaction
o D. Activation and spread of proteolytic enzymes
• 11. How does chemical peritonitis and shock frequently result from acute pancreatitis?
o A. Inflammation and increased vascular permeability of the peritoneum affect fluid balance
o B. Erosions in the intestinal wall causes release of bacteria
o C. Fat necrosis and hypocalcemia develop
o D. Secretions from the pancreas and intestine become more acidic
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• 12. Malnutrition may develop in children with celiac disease because of:
o A. Damage to the intestinal villi
o B. Obstruction in the pancreatic ducts
o C. Acidosis preventing activation of digestive enzymes
o D. Insufficient bile for absorption
• 13. Which of the following best describes steatorrhea?

o A. A light gray colored stool
o B. A tarry black stool
o C. Bulky, fatty, foul-smelling stools
o D. Watery stools with mucus and blood
• 14. What is the dietary requirement for a child with celiac disease?
o A. Low sodium, high fat
o B. High carbohydrate, low protein
o C. High calorie with vitamin supplements
o D. Gluten-free
• 15. What are the typical changes occurring with Crohn's disease?
o A. Degeneration and flattening of the villi in the small intestine
o B. Multiple herniations of the mucosa through weak areas of the muscularis
o C. A continuous area of mucosal inflammation and ulceration in the rectum and colon
o D. Inflamed areas of the wall of the ileum alternating with thick fibrotic or normal areas
• 16. Stools that are more liquid and contain mucus, frank blood, and pus are typical of:
o A. Diverticulitis
o B. Ulcerative colitis
o C. Chron's disease
o D. Celiac disease
• 17. How may a fistula form with Crohn's disease?

o A. Lack of peristalsis leading to dilated areas of intestine
o B. Fibrosis and thickening of the wall causing obstruction
o C. Erosion of the mucosa causing bleeding
o D. Recurrent inflammation, necrosis, and fibrosis forming a connection between intestinal loops
• 18. How does iron-deficiency anemia frequently develop with ulcerative colitis?
o A. Loss of surface area for absorption in the ileum
o B. Bone marrow depression by toxic wastes
o C. Chronic blood loss in stools
o D. Insufficient hydrochloric acid for iron absorption
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• 19. What is the cause of inflammatory bowel disease?

o A. Physical and emotional stress
o B. An autoimmune reaction
o C. A combination of recessive genes
o D. Idiopathic
• 20. What pain is typical of diverticulitis?

o A. Lower left quadrant
o B. Lower right quadrant
o C. Sharp, colicky, periumbilical
o D. Lower abdominal pain, radiating into the groin
• 21. What usually initiates acute appendicitis?

o A. Infection in the appendix
o B. An episode of severe diarrhea
o C. Obstruction of the lumen in the appendix
o D. Eating a low-fiber diet
• 22. With acute appendicitis, localized pain and tenderness in the lower right quadrant results
from:
o A. Increased peristalsis in the adjacent colon
o B. Inflammation and stretching of the appendiceal wall
o C. Increased gas and fluid inside the appendix
o D. Local inflammation of the parietal peritoneum
• 23. How does localized peritonitis develop from acute appendicitis before rupture?
o A. The (m)omentum walls off the inflamed area.
o B. Intestinal bacteria escape through the necrotic appendiceal wall
o C. The obstructing object inside the appendix perforates the wall
o D. Bacteria escape into the circulating blood
• 24. What is a typical early sign of cancer in the ascending colon?

o A. Change in shape of the stool
o B. Bleeding with defecation
o C. Mild but persisitant pain in the lower left quadrant
o D. Occult blood in the stool
• 25. To which site does colon cancer usually first metastasize?

o A. Lungs
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o B. Stomach
o C. Liver
o D. Spleen
Pathophysiology Digestive System MCQs

• 1. What does the term hemoptysis refer to?

o A. Thick, dark red sputum associated with pneumococcal infection
o B. Reddish-brown granular blood found in vomitus
o C. Bright red streaks of blood in frothy sputum
o D. Bloody exudate in the pleural cavity
• 2. Which of the following cells in the gastric mucosa produce intrinsic factor and hydrochloric
acid?
o A. Parietal cells
o B. Chief cells
o C. Mucosal
o D. Gastrin cells
• 3. In the liver, amino acids are used to produce complex molecules by means of
o A. Glycogenesis
o B. Anabolic processes
o C. Catabolic processes
o D. Autodigestion
• 4. Which of the following is the primary site for absorption of nutrients?

o A. Stomach
o B. Duodenum
o C. Ileum
o D. Ascending colon
• 5. When highly acidic chyme enters the duodenum, which hormone stimulates the release of
pancreatic secretions that contains very high bicarbonate ion content?
o A. Gastrin
o B. Secretin
o C. Cholecystokinin
o D. Histamine
• 6. Which of the following breaks protein down into peptides?

o A. Amylase
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o B. Peptidase
o C. Lactase
o D. Trypsin
• 7. In which structure is oxygenated blood (arterial) mixed with unoxygenated blood (venous) so
as to support the functions of the structure?
o A. Pancreas
o B. Liver
o C. Small intestine
o D. Spleen
• 8. Which of the following stimulates increased peristalsis and secretions in the digestive tract?
o A. Sympathetic nervous system
o B. Vagus nerve
o C. Increased saliva
o D. Absense of food in the system
• 9. Which of the following is contained in pancreatic exocrine secretions?

o A. Bicarbonate ion
o B. Hydrochloric acid
o C. Activated digestive enzyme
o D. Insulin
• 10. An alkaline environment is required in the duodenum to:

o A. Activate pepsinogen
o B. Activate intestinal and pancreatic enzymes
o C. Activate bile salts
o D. Produce mucus
• 11. Which of the following processes is likely to occur in the body immediately after a meal?
o A. Lypolysis
o B. Ketogenesis
o C. Gluconeogenesis
o D. Glycogenesis
• 12. What does the term gluconeogenesis refer to?

o A. Breakdown of glycogen to produce glucose
o B. Coversion of excess glucose into glycogen for storage
o C. Formation of glucose from protein and fat
o D. Breakdown of glucose into carbon dioxide and water
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• 13. Normally, proteins or amino acids are required to produce all of the following EXCEPT:
o A. Peptide hormones
o B. Clotting factors and antibodies
o C. Cellular energy
o D. Hemoglobin
• 14. Which of the following statements applies to bile salts?

o A. They give feces the characteristic brown color
o B. They are enzymes used to break down fats into free fatty acids
o C. They emulsify lipids and lipid soluble vitamins
o D. They are excreted in the feces
• 15. The visceral peritoneum

o A. Lines the abdominal wall
o B. Hangs from the stomach over the loops of the small intestine
o C. Forms the outer covering of the stomach and intestines
o D. Covers the kidney and bladder
o E. Contains many pain receptors
• 16. The early stage of vomiting causes

o A. Metabolic alkalosis
o B. Metabolic acidosis
o C. Increased respirations
o D. Increased excretion of hydrogen ions
• 17. Prolonged vomiting cause a state of acidosis due to:

o A. Catabolism of proteins and lipids
o B. Continued loss of gastric secretions
o C. Loss of pancreatic enzymes
o D. Retention of sodium ions and water
• 18. What is the first change in arterial blood gases with diarrhea?
o A. Increased bicarbonate ion
o B. Decreased bicarbonate ion
o C. Increased carbonic acid
o D. Increased serum pH
• 19. Dehydration causes acidosis because of increased:

o A. Ketones produced
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o B. CO2 retained in the lungs and kidneys
o C. Hypovolemia and lactic acid production
o D. Metabolic rate
• 20. Which of the following applies to the act of swallowing?

o A. Requires coordination of cranial nerves V, IX, X, and XII
o B. Is entirely voluntary
o C. Is controlled by a center in the hypothalamus
o D. Does not effect respiration
• 21. What does the defecation reflex require?

o A. Stimulation by the sympathetic nervous system
o B. Contraction of the internal anal sphincter
o C. Coordination through the sacral spinal cord
o D. Voluntary contraction of the abdominal muscles
• 22. What is the definition of achalasia?

o A. A herniation of the gastric mucosa through a segment of weakened muscle
o B. Recurrent reflux of chyme into the esophagus
o C. Absence of a connection between the esophagus to the stomach
o D. Lack of a nerve plexus to relax the lower esophageal sphincter
• 23. What does esophageal atresia cause?

o A. Direct passage of saliva and food from the mouth into the trachea
o B. Repeated reflex of gastric secretions into the esophagus
o C. No fluid or food entering the stomach
o D. Gastric distention and cramps
• 24. Which of the following applies to the cleft palate?

o A. The mandibular processes do not fuse
o B. The hard and soft palates do not fuse during the first trimester of pregnancy
o C. Exposure to enviromental factors in the last trimester causes the defect
o D. Speech and eating are not affected
• 25. Oral candidiasis is considered to

o A. Be a common bacterial infection in infants and young children
o B. Cause painful ulcerations in the mucosa and tongue
o C. Cause white patches in the mucosa that cannot be scratched off
o D. Be an opportunistic fungal infection of the mouth
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Renal Pathophysiology MCQs

• 1. The answer/s (is/are) correct regarding Polyuria:

o A. Polyuria mean = The urine output is more than the output in case of Oliguria But is less than the
output in case of Anuria.
o B. Polyuria take place With diuretics Drugs but the antidiuretics does not lead to Polyuria
o C. Hypoglycinemia is cause of Polyuria
o D. Excess fluid intake is one of the sign of Polyuria
o E. All answers are correct
• 2. All of the above is NOT correct regarding Haematuria EXCEPT:

o A. Haematuria = presence of blood in urine regardless of their quantity(Number of RBSs)
o B. Drugs such as Rifampicin lead to Haematuria
o C. During menstrual cycle mixing of RBCs with urine and lead to Haematuria this is abnormal
o D. The Bleeding is cause to it and Dipstick test can detect Frank Bleeding through strips
o E. UTI can lead to Haematuria
• 3. The answer/s (is/are) correct regarding NEPHROTIC SYNDROME:

o A. Nephrotic syndrome = Nonspecific disease of the glomerulus in which we have state of polyuria
o B. About Characteristics of it : Serum albumin is more than 3 grams/100 ml
o C. About Characteristics of it : Proteinuria more than 3.5 mg/24hours.
o D. About Causes of it : Edema One of cause leading to it.
o E. About Causes of it : GN One of cause leading to it.
o F. All answer is correct
• 4. All of the above is Signs and manifestations of Glomerulonephritis (GN) , EXCEPT:

o A. Proteinuria
o B. Hematuria
o C. Reduced renal volume
o D. Na+ retention
o E. Hypotension
• 5. ONE of it is not correct MATCHING :

o A. Inflammation of glomeruli >>>>>>>>>>> Glomerulonephritis
o B. The antibody - Antigen complexes are deposited in the glomeruli >>>>>>>>>>> Glomerulonephritis
o C. It is the most common cause of acute renal failure >>>>>>>>>>> Acute tubular necrosis ATN
o D. It is irreversible >>>>>>>>>>> Acute tubular necrosis ATN
o E. No answer is correct
• 6. About Clinical features of established ARF:

o A. Electrolyte disturbances such as Hypokalemia
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o B. Abnormalities of urine volume such as Hematuria
o C. Electrolyte disturbances such asHypocalcemia
o D. Blood chemistry abnormalities such as low plasma urea and creatinine concentrations.
o E. Electrolyte disturbances such as Hypophosphatemia
• 7. About Clinical Features of CRF:

o A. Early stage of CRF is often Appear without symptoms
o B. Nocturia may be an early symptom and it is due o loss of concentration ability of the kidneys
o C. Patient with CRF may present with complaints which are not renal in origin like breathlessness or
tiredness
o D. In late stage of CRF, the patient looks ill and anemic
o E. All answer is correct
• 8. All of the above lead to Hypertension with patient of CRF, EXCEPT :

o A. Conditions like renal artery stenosis reduce renal blood flow
o B. Chronic glomerulonephritis causes thickening of glomerular capillary membrane
o C. Conditions that increase aldosterone secretion will lead to increased tubular Na+ absorption
o D. Conditions that increase renin secretion leads to formation of angiotensin II
• 9. If water and food are not restricted in complete CRF, One of the following occur:
o A. Low K+ and PO43- plasma concentration.
o B. Pulmonary edema
o C. Low HCO3 plasma concentration
o D. Metabolic alkalosis
• 10. One Of this definition is true:

o A. Neuropathy of CRF :Is due to a combination of poor nutrition, hyperthyroidism, vitamin D deficiency
and electrolytes disturbances
o B. Myopathy of CRF : Is due to demyelination of nerve fibers (the longer fibers being involved at earlier
stage)
o C. Acute tubular necrosis ATN: It is irreversible; partial necrosis of the cells, shedding of the cells and
reconstruction of other cells.
o D. Haematuria : The presence more than 1-3 WBSc in the urine
o E. NO answer is correct
• 11. Neuropathy of CRF lead to:

o A. Parasthesia
o B. Foot drop
o C. Delayed gastric emptying
o D. Diarrhea
o E. Postural hypotension
o F. All answer is correct
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• 12. About the Bone abnormalities of CRF:

o A. Osteomalacia==reduction in bone mass
o B. Osteoporosis==failure of bone mineralization
o C. Osteosclerosis==failure of bone mineralization
o D. Osteomalacia==increased bone density
o E. Osteoporosis==reduction in bone mass
• 13. Anemia of CRF may be caused by:

o A. Increase in erythropoietin production
o B. Inhibition in erythropoiesis by erythropoietin on bone marrow
o C. Decrease in blood loss due to increased capillary fragility and poor platelets function
o D. Reduction in dietary intake and absorption of iron and other substances needed for erythropoiesis
o E. All answer is correct
• 14. About Chronic Renal failure (CRF):

o A. An irreversible deterioration in renal function resulted from irreversible loss of small number of
functioning nephrons
o B. In most cases, serious symptoms do not occur until the no. of functioning nephrons decreased
below 60% - 40 % of normal.
o C. When functioning nephron decrease with age to 20-30% of normal it is not indicates to CRF
o D. Azotemia take place in the body
• 15. The most common cause of ARF is:

o A. ATN
o B. GN
o C. Heart failure
o D. Hypotension
o E. Hypertension
• 16. One of this is most indication of ARF:

o A. Plasma creatinine more than 200 µmole/liter
o B. Urea More than mmol/L 6.5-2.5
o C. K+ More than 3.5-5 mmol/L
o D. Heart failure
o E. All answer Except ** Heart failure **
• 17. One of this IS NOT indicate of ARF:

o A. Creatininuria
o B. Hyperkalemia
o C. Uremia
o D. Azotemia
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• 18. All of the above is Clinical features of nephrotic syndrome , EXCEPT:

o A. Hypercoagulability
o B. Hypergammaglobulinemia
o C. Hypercholesterolemia
o D. Hyperlipidemia
o E. Hyperproteinuria
• 19. About The causes of nephrotic syndrome , ONE of this is correct:

o A. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis == bad prognosis, ending with end-stage renal failure
o B. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis == Usually affecting children
o C. Minimal change disease===Usually affecting old aged people
o D. Minimal change disease=== excellent prognosis , patients of this disease they are not respond to
corticosteroids
o E. 2 answer is correct
• 20. Choice correct Matching:

o A. Drugs such as Senna === make red urine
o B. Proteinuria of low MW proteins=== more than 2mg/day indicates significant glomerular disease
o C. Orthostatic proteinuria===proteinuria occurs only during the night
o D. Frank Bleeding === when you see blood in urine through the microscope
o E. Dropsy=== accumulation of fluid all over the body
Pathophysiology MCQs
• 1. A skin rash is an example of ______.

o A. Sign
o B. Lab result
o C. Symptom
o D. Syndrome
• 2. The cause of a disease is known as its _____.

o A. Pathogenesis
o B. Sequela
o C. Complication
o D. Etiology
• 3. A steady-state maintained within the body is called:

o A. Homeostasis
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o B. Disequilibrium
o C. Disease
o D. Pathology
• 4.Signs described by the patient may be perceived by the physician.

o A. True
o B. False
• 5. If the cause of a disease is not known, it is said to be ______
• 1. The disordered physiological processes associated with disease or injury.

o A. Pathophysiology
o B. Traumatic brain injury
o C. Post traumatic stress disorder
o D. Human anatomy
• 2. When the heart is unable to pump sufficiently to maintain blood flow to meet the metabolic
demands of the body
o A. Coronary artery disease
o B. Cardiac failure
o C. Respiratory failure
o D. Ejection fraction
• 3. Coronary arteries provide blood to the heart, if someone is diagnosed with Coronary Artery
Disease it most likely means
o A. Blood flow to the heart is being prevented
o B. Laminar blood flow will occur
o C. Transitional blood flow will occur
• 4. High blood pressure is known as

o A. HBN
o B. HTN
o C. HBP
• 5. A disease or problem with the heart/circulation, not knowing how it occurred.
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o A. Hypertension
o B. Idiopathic dilated cardiomyopathy
o C. Acute ischemia
• 6. What are causes of cardiac failure/etiology

o A. Coronary
o B. Hypertension, ischemia
o C. Idiopathic dilated cardiomyopahty
• 7. What are causes of cardiac failure/etiology

o A. Valvular disease
o B. Arrythmias
o C. Mycardial infarction
• 8. Deposits creating problems with the opening and closing of valves leads to
o A. Myocardial infarction
o B. Arrhythmias
o C. Valvular disease
• 9. When there is an irregular or abnormal heart rhythm of EKG

o A. Cardiac arrest
o B. Arrhythmias
o C. Myocardial infarction
• 10. Decrease in blood flow/perfusion/hemodynamics

o A. Ischemia
o B. Thrombus
o C. Cardiac output
• 11. Blood clotting

o A. Plaque
o B. Thrombus
o C. Ischemia
o D. Myocarditis
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• 12. Build up in the arteries

o A. Plaque
o B. Cardiac output
o C. Ischemia
• 13. P= Atrial ContractionQ =R = VENTRICULAR CONTRACTIONS = T = Ventricular relaxation

o A. Arrhythmias
o B. Myocarditis
o D. Ischemia
• 14. Causes of ischemia

o A. Thrombus
o B. Plaque
o C. Cardiac output and vasoconstriction
• 15. Causes of dilated cardiomyopathy

o A. Toxins, infections
o B. Viral diseases
o C. Autoimmune responses
• 16. Infection of the heart muscles causing inflammation and decreasing cardiac output,
ejection fraction and blood pressure
o A. Myocardial infarction
o B. Myocarditis
• 17. Causes of Left Ventricular After Load

o A. Hypertension
o C. Aortic stenosis
• 18. When this occurs it causes back up pressure in the right atrium (happens in the lungs)
o A. Hypertension
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• 19. Increases the right ventricle

o A. Hypertension
• 20. After load occurs on the

o A. Right ventricle
o B. Left ventricle
o C. Sternum
• 21. Right heart failure occurs when a decrease occurs in

o A. The left ventricle
o B. Pre load and after load
o C. Hypertension
• 22. Stiffening or decrease of an opening

o A. Pulmonary embolism
o B. Stenosis
o C. Hypertension
• 23. Cause left ventricular after load

o A. Aortic stenosis
o B. Hypertension
o C. Pulmonary embolism
o D. Ischemia
• 1. Blood Pressure that is rapidly progressive with diastolic above 140 mmHg can cause cerebral
edema/loss of function, which of the following terms best describes this type of BP
o A. Prehypertension
o B. Isolated hypertension
o C. Malignant hypertension
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• 2. Which of the following conditions refers to decrease in both systolic and diastolic BP on
standing; Accompanied by dizziness, blurred or loss of vision, or syncope?
o A. Otrthostatic Postural Hypotension
o B. Chronic Hypotension
o C. Idiopathic Hypotension
• 3. Outpouching or localized dilation of a vessel wall or cardiac chamber is best known as which
of the following terms?
o A. Thrombus
o B. Aneurysm
o C. Embolism
• 4. Which of the following conditions cause aneurysms?

o A. Atherosclerotic plaque formation
o B. Trauma
o C. Low blood pressure
o D. Congenital abnormalities in media of arterial wall
o E. Smoking
o F. Infection
• 5. Which of the following are diagnostic tools used for finding aneurysms
o A. Ultrasound
o B. Angiography
o C. NI
o D. MRI
o E. EKG
o F. CT
• 6. A middle aged female comes to the doctor with complaints of a sudden painful, pulsating
mass in the midline of her abdomen...upon further assessment, the presence of bruit is
confirmed...which of the following conditions is consistent with the findings?
o A. Aneurysm "Circle of Willis"
o B. Abdominal aorta aneurysm
o C. Abdominal aorta thrombus
• 7. Which of the following disorders would cause signs of intracranial pressure, such as
decreased levels of consciousness, bradycardia, widened pulse pressure, small, sluggish
pupils?
o A. Aneurysm- Circle of Willis
o B. Aneurysm-femoral poplitieal artery
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o C. Thrombus in Cerebral artery
• 8. Aneurysms with symptoms of ischemia are probably located in which of the following areas?
o A. Abdominal Aorta
o B. Thoracic Aorta
o C. Femoral and Popliteal Artery
• 9. Which of the following diagnostic tools are used to confirm presence of thrombi?
o A. Doppler untrasonography
o B. MRI
o C. Angiography
o D. CT
• 10. A 23 year old male comes to the doctor complaining of tenderness of in his arm Upon
assessment the nurse observes skin ulcerations, redness, thick and shiny skin, and thickened
and malformed nails. Which of the following conditions is consistent with her findings?
o A. Thromboangilitis (Buerger Disease)
• 11. Which of the following is a more common peripheral vascular disease usually associated
with scleroderma or other connective tissue disease? Numbness, tingling of digits relieved by
warmth, associated with white, blue, and red colors. Thickened fingertips and nails.
o A. Thromboangilitis (Beurger's Disease
• 12. Which of the following are used as treatment for thrombi?

o A. Heparin
o B. Beta blockers
o C. Warfain
o D. Thrombolytics
• 13. Which of the following terms refers to soft deposits of intra-arterial fat and fibrin in the
vessel walls that hardens over time?
o A. Arteriosclerosis
o C. Atherosclerotic disease
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• 14. Which of the following tests shows the location and degree of coronary artery stenosis and
condition of the artery beyond the narrowing?
o C. Holter Monitor
• 15. Which of the following tests detects silent ischemia and angina?
o C. Holter monitor
• 16. Which of the following tests evaluated damaged heart muscle and if there is adequate blood
supply?
o A. Coronary Angiography
o B. EKG
o C. Holter Monitor
• 17. Which of the following terms best describes an atheroscerotic disease of the arteries that
perfuse the limbs, especially in the lower extremities?
• 18. A diabetic patient comes to the doctor complaining about sever pain in his legs brought on
by ambulation. The nurse suspects which of the following conditions?
o B. Peripheral Artery Disease
• 19. Which of the following is a condition in which the blood supply to the heart musecles is
completely or partially blocked due to atherosclerosis that develpos in the arteries that encircle
the heart, narrowing the arteries, and blocking blood flow?
o C. Coronary Artery Disease
• 20. Which of the following terms refers to abnormal concentrations of serum lipoprotens such
as lipids, phospholipids, cholesterol, and triglycerides bound to carrier proteins?
o A. Dyslipidemia
o B. Lipoprotemia
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o C. Phospholipidemia
• 21. Which of the following conditions refers to the imbalance between coronary blood supply
and myocardial demand?
o A. Coronary Artery Disease
o C. Myocardial Infarction
• 22. Which of the following is the most common reason for myocardial ischemia?
o A. Coronary Spasms
o B. Hypotension
o C. Atherosclerotic plaques
• 23. Which of the following conditions can cause myocardial infarction?

o A. Coronary spasm
o B. Hypertension
o C. Hypotension
o D. Anemia
o E. Arrhythmias
• 24. Which of the following terms describes angina that is substernal chest discomfort: elephant
sitting on my chest: often shown with a clenched fist placed over the left sternal
border? Accompanied with pallor, diaphoresis, dyspnea, nausea and vomiting?
o A. Stable Angina
o C. Silent Ischemia
• 25. Which of the following terms best describes chest pain from transient ischemia that occurs
unpredictably and often at rest? The pain is from vasospasm in one or more coronary arteries
with or without atherosclerosis and ST elevation is seen upon evaluation.
o A. Stable Angina
o C. Silent ischemia
• 1. Interferes with delivery of oxygen and glucose as well as the removal of metabolic wastes
o A. Hypoxic
o B. Ischemic
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o C. Excitotoxic
o D. Increased intracranial volume and pressure
o E. Brain herniation
o F. Cerebral edema
o G. Hydrocephalus
• 2. Decreased oxygen levels in all brain tissue

o A. Hypoxic
o B. Ischemic
o C. Excitotoxic
o F. Cerebral edema
o G. Hydrocephalus
• 3. Excessive activity of the excitatory neurotransmitters and their receptor-mediated effects

o A. Hypoxic
o B. Ischemic
o C. Excitotoxic
o F. Cerebral edema
o G. Hydrocephalus
• 4. Increase in intercranial tissue causing an increase in intracranial pressure

o A. Hypoxic
o B. Ischemic
o C. Excitotoxic
o F. Cerebral edema
o G. Hydrocephalus
• 5. Displacement of brain tissue under the falx cerebri or through the tentorial notch or incisura
of the tentorium cerebelli
o A. Hypoxic
o B. Ischemic
o C. Excitotoxic
o F. Cerebral edema
o G. Hydrocephalus
• 6. Swelling of the brain
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o A. Hypoxic
o B. Ischemic
o C. Excitotoxic
o F. Cerebral edema
o G. Hydrocephalus
• 7. An abnormal increase in cerebrospinal fluid volume in any part or all of the ventricular system
o A. Hypoxic
o B. Ischemic
o C. Excitotoxic
o F. Cerebral edema
o G. Hydrocephalus
• 8. Generalized depressant effect on the brain

o A. Hypoxic
o B. Ischemic
o C. Excitotoxic
o F. Cerebral edema
o G. Hydrocephalus
• 9. Can be focal or global, with only one part of the brain being underperfused or all of the brain
being compromised
o A. Hypoxic
o B. Ischemic
o C. Excitotoxic
o F. Cerebral edema
o G. Hydrocephalus
• 10. Neuronal cell injury and death

o A. Hypoxic
o B. Ischemic
o C. Excitotoxic
o F. Cerebral edema
o G. Hydrocephalus
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• 11. Tissue perfusion becomes inadequate, cellular hypoxia results, and neuronal death can
occur.
o A. Hypoxic
o B. Ischemic
o C. Excitotoxic
o F. Cerebral edema
o G. Hydrocephalus
• 12. Clouding of consciousness, bilaterally small pupils (approx 2 mm in diameter) with a full
range of constriction, and motor responses to pain that are purposeful or semipurposeful
(localizing) and often asymmetric
o A. Hypoxic
o B. Ischemic
o C. Excitotoxic
o F. Cerebral edema
o G. Hydrocephalus
• 13. Depends on the brain's compensatory mechanisms and the extent of the swelling
o A. Hypoxic
o B. Ischemic
o C. Excitotoxic
o F. Cerebral edema
o G. Hydrocephalus
• 14. Cerebral hemispheres become enlarged, and the ventricular system beyond the point of
obstruction is dilated. The sulci on the surface of the brain become effaced and shallow, and
the white matter is reduced in volume
o A. Hypoxic
o B. Ischemic
o C. Excitotoxic
o F. Cerebral edema
o G. Hydrocephalus
• 15. Global and focal brain injuries manifest differently. What is almost always a manifestation
of a global brain injury?
o A. Altered level of consciousness
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o B. Change in behavior
o C. Respiratory instability
o D. Loss of eye movement reflexes
• 16. Several types of brain injuries can occur. What are the primary (or direct) brain injuries?
Check all that apply
o A. Focal lesions of laceration
o B. Contusion
o C. Hypoxic
o D. Diffuse axonal
o E. Hemorrhage
• 17. You are the PA caring for a 31-year-old trauma victim admitted to the neurologic intensive
care unit (ICU). During your initial assessment, you find that the patient is flexing arms, wrists,
and fingers. There is abduction of the upper extremities with internal rotation and plantar
flexion of the lower extremities. How would you describe this in your notes?
o A. Decerebrate posturing
o B. Decorticate posturing
o C. Extensor posturing
o D. Diencephalon posturing
• 18. Brain death is the term used when irreversible loss of function of the entire brain occurs. A
clinical examination must be done and repeated at least 6 hours later with the same findings
for brain death to be declared. What is not assessed in the clinical examination for brain death?
o A. Blink reflex
o B. Responsiveness
o C. Electrocardiographic (ECG) findings
o D. Respiratory effort
• 19. The regulation of cerebral blood flow is accomplished through both autoregulation and local
regulation. This allows for the brain to meet its metabolic needs. What is the low parameter for
blood pressure before cerebral blood flow becomes severely compromised?
o A. 30 mm Hg
o B. 40 mm Hg
o C. 50 mm Hg
o D. 60 mm Hg
• 20. Much as with brain death, there are criteria for the diagnosis of a persistent vegetative state,
and the criteria have to have lasted for more than 1 month. What are the criteria for the
diagnosis of persistent vegetative state? Check all that apply
o A. Bowel and bladder incontinence
o B. Ability to open eyes
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o C. Lack of language comprehension
o D. Lack of sufficient hypothalamic function to maintain life
o E. Variable preserved cranial nerve reflexes
• 21. Intracranial aneurysms that rupture cause subarachnoid hemorrhage in the patient. How is
the diagnosis of intracranial aneurysms and subarachnoid hemorrhage made?
o A. Lumbar puncture
o B. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
o C. Loss of cranial nerve reflexes
o D. Venography
• 22. When the suspected diagnosis is bacterial meningitis, what assessment technique can
assist in determining the presence of meningeal irritation?
o A. Kernig sign and chadwick sign
o B. Brudzinski sign and kernig sign
o C. Brudzinski sign and chadwick sign
o D. Chvostek sign and guedel sign
• 23. Manifestations of brain tumors are focal disturbances in brain function and increased
intracranial pressure (ICP). What causes the focal disturbances manifested by brain tumors?
o A. Tumor infiltration and increased blood pressure
o B. Brain compression and decreased ICP
o C. Brain edema and disturbances in blood flow
o D. Tumor infiltration and decreased ICP
• 24. No identifiable cause can be determined

o A. Unprovoked
o B. Complex partial seizures
o C. Generalized onset
o D. Absence seizures
o E. Atonic
o F. Tonic-clonic
• 25. Begins in a localized area of the brain but may progress rapidly to involve both hemispheres
o A. Unprovoked
o B. Complex partial seizures
o C. Generalized onset
o D. Absence seizures
o E. Atonic
o F. Tonic-clonic
Pathophysiology Sleep MCQs

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• 1. One of the stages of sleep is the rapid eye movement, or REM, stage. What is it that the brain
cannot do during REM sleep?
o A. Acquire new sensory information
o B. Regulate blood pressure
o C. Replay previous memories
o D. Arouse auditory and visual systems
• 2. What hormone does the pineal gland synthesize and release under the direct control of the
suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)?
o A. Growth hormone
o B. Melatonin
o C. Cortisol
o D. Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)
• 3. The multiple sleep latency test (MSLT) is a diagnostic sleep study used to evaluate daytime
sleepiness. What result of an MSLT woudl be considered abnormal?
o A. 10 minutes
o B. 12 minutes
o C. 4 minutes
o D. 5 minutes
• 4. Restless leg syndrome (RLS) is a disorder that has its peak onset in middle age. Diagnosis of
RLS is based on a history of what?
o A. Compelling urge to rest legs
o B. Motor relaxation
o C. Symptoms that are worse in the afternoon
o D. Symptoms that become worse at rest
• 5. Sudden loss of synchrony between a traveler's intrinsic circadian clock and the local time of
the flight's destination
o A. Jet lag
o B. Change in sleep phase disorder
o C. Shift work sleep disorder
o D. Non-24-hour sleep-wake syndrome
o E. Insomnia
o F. Narcolepsy
• 6. Advanced or delayed sleep phase syndrome

o A. Jet lag
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o E. Insomnia
o F. Narcolepsy
• 7. Clash between shift demands for wakefulness as part of the work environment and the sleep
setting of the worker's intrinsic circadian clock
o A. Jet lag
o E. Insomnia
o F. Narcolepsy
• 8. A lack of synchronization between the internal sleep-wake rhythm and the external 24-hour
day
o A. Jet lag
o E. Insomnia
o F. Narcolepsy
• 9. Sleep that is chronically nonrestorative or poor in quality

o A. Jet lag
o E. Insomnia
o F. Narcolepsy
• 10. A syndrome characterized by abnormal sleep tendencies, including excessive daytime

sleepiness, disturbed nocturnal sleep, and manifestations related to REM sleep, such as
cataplexy, hypnagogic hallucinations, and sleep paralysis.
o A. Jet lag
o E. Insomnia
o F. Narcolepsy
• 11. Sleepwalking can occur in both adults and children. Typically, what does someone who is
sleepwalking do?
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o A. Refuse to respond to communication efforts of other people
o B. Go outside
o C. Appear alert
o D. Fix something to eat
• 12. The onset of sleep terrors is usually between the ages of 2 and 4 years. What are the
manifestations of sleep terrors? Check all that apply
o A. Dilated pupils
o B. Rapid breathing
o C. Tachycardia
o D. Screams on awakening
o E. Refuses to go to sleep in own bed
• 13. The prevalence of sleep disorders increases with age. Medication use is one reason for this.
What medication can have a stimulating effect that interferes with sleep?
o A. Vasoconstrictors
o B. Antihypertensives
o C. Beta blockers
o D. Vasodilators
• 14. In what disease is often seen more frequent periods of nighttime awakening and daytime
sleeping?
o A. Parkinson disease
o B. Huntington disease
o C. Alzheimer disease
o D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
• 15. Actigraphy can be used to diagnose sleep disturbances. The actigraph is worn on the wrist
and is used most commonly with what?
o A. Sleep diary
o B. CPAP
o C. Video tapes of sleep
o D. Trial pharmacologic substances
• 16. Pathways between each sensory area of the thalamus and the cortex
o A. Thalamocortical loop
o B. Narcolepsy
o C. Periodic Breathing
o D. Confusional arousals
o E. Alpha rhythm
o F. Actigraphy
o G. Dreams
o H. Sleep apnea
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o I. Entrainment
o J. Beta Rhythm
• 17. A sudden recurrent uncontrollable compulsion to sleep

o B. Narcolepsy
o E. Alpha rhythm
o F. Actigraphy
o G. Dreams
o H. Sleep apnea
o I. Entrainment
o J. Beta Rhythm
• 18. Differential patterns of breathing associated with non-REM sleep

o B. Narcolepsy
o E. Alpha rhythm
o F. Actigraphy
o G. Dreams
o H. Sleep apnea
o I. Entrainment
o J. Beta Rhythm
• 19. Marked confusion, slow and inappropriate responses to questions, and nonpurposeful
activities.
o B. Narcolepsy
o E. Alpha rhythm
o F. Actigraphy
o G. Dreams
o H. Sleep apnea
o I. Entrainment
o J. Beta Rhythm
• 20. EEG pattern that occurs when a person is awake with eyes closed
o B. Narcolepsy
o E. Alpha rhythm
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o F. Actigraphy
o G. Dreams
o H. Sleep apnea
o I. Entrainment
o J. Beta Rhythm
• 21. Measures muscle motion

o B. Narcolepsy
o E. Alpha rhythm
o F. Actigraphy
o G. Dreams
o H. Sleep apnea
o I. Entrainment
o J. Beta Rhythm
• 22. Recollections of mental activity that occurred during sleep

o B. Narcolepsy
o E. Alpha rhythm
o F. Actigraphy
o G. Dreams
o H. Sleep apnea
o I. Entrainment
o J. Beta Rhythm
• 23. Interrupted sleep caused by disordered breathing

o B. Narcolepsy
o E. Alpha rhythm
o F. Actigraphy
o G. Dreams
o H. Sleep apnea
o I. Entrainment
o J. Beta Rhythm
• 24. Daily resetting of the circadian clock

o B. Narcolepsy
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o E. Alpha rhythm
o F. Actigraphy
o G. Dreams
o H. Sleep apnea
o I. Entrainment
o J. Beta Rhythm
• 25. EEG pattern that occurs when a persons eyes are open
o B. Narcolepsy
o E. Alpha rhythm
o F. Actigraphy
o G. Dreams
o H. Sleep apnea
o I. Entrainment
o J. Beta Rhythm
Pathophysiology GI MCQs Part 1

• 1. Difficulty passing food into the stomach

o A. Achalasia
o B. Esophageal atresia
o C. Odynophagia
o D. Gastroesophageal reflux
o E. Dysphagia
o F. Barrett esophagus
o G. Tracheoesophageal fistulae
o H. Mallory Weiss syndrome
o I. Perforation
o J. Helicobacter pylori
• 2. Swallowing is painful
o A. Achalasia
o C. Odynophagia
o E. Dysphagia
o I. Perforation
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• 3. Backward movement of gastric contents into the esophagus

o A. Achalasia
o C. Odynophagia
o E. Dysphagia
o I. Perforation
• 4. Difficulty in swallowing
o A. Achalasia
o C. Odynophagia
o E. Dysphagia
o I. Perforation
• 5. Squamous mucosa that lines the esophagus gradually is replaced by columnar epithelium
o A. Achalasia
o C. Odynophagia
o E. Dysphagia
o I. Perforation
• 6. Esophagus is connected to the trachea

o A. Achalasia
o C. Odynophagia
o E. Dysphagia
o I. Perforation
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• 7. Tears in the esophagus at the esophagogastric junction

o A. Achalasia
o C. Odynophagia
o E. Dysphagia
o I. Perforation
• 8. Ulcer erodes through all layers of the stomach

o A. Achalasia
o C. Odynophagia
o E. Dysphagia
o I. Perforation
• 9. Most common cause of chronic gastritis in the United States

o A. Achalasia
o C. Odynophagia
o E. Dysphagia
o I. Perforation
• 10. Tubelike passages that form connections between different sites in the gastrointestinal
tract.
o A. Fistulas
o B. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
o C. Amebiasis
o D. Osmotic diarrhea
o E. Hypergastrinemia
o F. Steatorrheic
o G. Cobblestone appearance
o H. Penetration
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o I. Adenomatous polyps
o J. Rotavirus
• 11. Gastrin-secreting tumor

o A. Fistulas
o C. Amebiasis
o F. Steatorrheic
o H. Penetration
o J. Rotavirus
• 12. Infection by Entamoeba histolytica

o A. Fistulas
o C. Amebiasis
o F. Steatorrheic
o H. Penetration
o J. Rotavirus
• 13. Water is pulled into the bowel by the hyperosmotic nature of its contents
o A. Fistulas
o C. Amebiasis
o F. Steatorrheic
o H. Penetration
o J. Rotavirus
• 14. Presence of an excess of gastrin in the blood

o A. Fistulas
o C. Amebiasis
o F. Steatorrheic
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o H. Penetration
o J. Rotavirus
• 15. Stools contain excess fat

o A. Fistulas
o C. Amebiasis
o F. Steatorrheic
o H. Penetration
o J. Rotavirus
• 16. Hallmark symptom of Chrohn disease

o A. Fistulas
o C. Amebiasis
o F. Steatorrheic
o H. Penetration
o J. Rotavirus
• 17. Ulcer crater erodes into adjacent organs

o A. Fistulas
o C. Amebiasis
o F. Steatorrheic
o H. Penetration
o J. Rotavirus
• 18. Benign neoplasms that arise from the mucosal epithelium of the intestine
o A. Fistulas
o C. Amebiasis
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o F. Steatorrheic
o H. Penetration
o J. Rotavirus
• 19. Causes diarrhea in children

o A. Fistulas
o C. Amebiasis
o F. Steatorrheic
o H. Penetration
o J. Rotavirus
• 20. Esophageal atresia (EA) is the most common congenital anomaly of the esophagus and is
incompatible with life. The majority of children born with EA also have tracheoesophageal
fistulae. What are the signs and symptoms of EA in a newborn?
o A. Cyanosis and respiratory distress
o B. Poor feeding and tire easily
o C. Episodes of choking and coughing
o D. Poor feeding and low blood sugar
• 21. Hiatal hernias can cause severe pain if the hernia is large. Gastroesophageal reflux is a
common comorbidity of hiatal hernia, and when this occurs, what might the hernia do?
o A. Increase esophageal acid clearance
o B. Retard esophageal acid clearance
o C. Decrease esophageal acid clearance
o D. Accelerate esophageal acid clearance
• 22. Infants and children commonly have gastroesophageal reflux. Often it is asymptomatic and
resolves on its own. What are the signs and symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux in infants
with severe disease?
o A. Consolable crying and early satiety
o B. Delayed satiety and sleeping after feeding
o C. Tilting of the head to one side and arching of the back
o D. Inconsolable crying and delayed satiety
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• 23. The stomach secretes acid to begin the digestive process on the food that we eat. The
gastric mucosal barrier works to prevent acids secreted by the stomach from actually
damaging the wall of the stomach. What are the factors that make up the gastric mucosal
barrier? Mark all that apply.
o A. Impermeable epithelial cell surface covering
o B. Mechanisms for selective transport of bicarbonate and potassium ions
o C. Characteristics of gastric mucus
o D. Cell coverings that act as antacids
o E. Mechanisms for selective transport of hydrogen and bicarbonate ions
• 24. Helicobacter pylori gastritis has a prevalence in more than 50% of American adults older than
50 years and is believed to be caused by a previous infection when the patient was younger.
What can chronic gastritis caused by H. pylori cause?
o A. Decreased risk of gastric adenocarcinoma
o B. Decreased risk of low-grade B-cell gastric lymphoma
o C. Duodenal ulcer
o D. Gastric atrophy
• 25. A 39-year-old Caucasian woman presents at the clinic with complaints of epigastric pain
that is cramplike, rhythmic, and just below the xiphoid. She states that it wakes her up around 1
AM and that she is not sleeping well because of it. She further states that this is her third
painful episode in the past year. THe nurse suspects the patient has a peptic ulcer and expects
to receive what orders from the physician?
o A. Schedule patient for a complete metabolic panel and a complete blood count
o B. Schedule patient for a laprascopic examination
o C. Schedule patient for a swallow study
o D. Schedule patient for a lower gastrointestinal study
Pathophysiology GI MCQs Part 2

• 1. Chewing of food
o A. Amylase
o B. Mastication
o C. Mesentery
o D. Interstitial cells of Cajal
o E. Peritoneum
o F. Submucosal plexus
o G. Haustrations
o H. Chyme
o I. Myenteric plexus
o J. Secretin
• 2. Breaks down starch
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o A. Amylase
o B. Mastication
o C. Mesentery
o E. Peritoneum
o G. Haustrations
o H. Chyme
o J. Secretin
• 3. Blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatic vessels that supply the intestinal wall
o A. Amylase
o B. Mastication
o C. Mesentery
o E. Peritoneum
o G. Haustrations
o H. Chyme
o J. Secretin
• 4. Generate slow waves of electrical activity

o A. Amylase
o B. Mastication
o C. Mesentery
o E. Peritoneum
o G. Haustrations
o H. Chyme
o J. Secretin
• 5. Largest serous membrane in the body

o A. Amylase
o B. Mastication
o C. Mesentery
o E. Peritoneum
o G. Haustrations
o H. Chyme
o J. Secretin
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• 6. Controls function of each segment of intestinal tract

o A. Amylase
o B. Mastication
o C. Mesentery
o E. Peritoneum
o G. Haustrations
o H. Chyme
o J. Secretin
• 7. Segmental mixing movements of the large intestine

o A. Amylase
o B. Mastication
o C. Mesentery
o E. Peritoneum
o G. Haustrations
o H. Chyme
o J. Secretin
• 8. Result of chemical breakdown of proteins in stomach

o A. Amylase
o B. Mastication
o C. Mesentery
o E. Peritoneum
o G. Haustrations
o H. Chyme
o J. Secretin
• 9. Responsible for motility along the length of the gut

o A. Amylase
o B. Mastication
o C. Mesentery
o E. Peritoneum
o G. Haustrations
o H. Chyme
o J. Secretin
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• 10. Inhibits gastric acid secretion

o A. Amylase
o B. Mastication
o C. Mesentery
o E. Peritoneum
o G. Haustrations
o H. Chyme
o J. Secretin
• 11. The circular layer of smooth muscle that lies between the stomach and the small intestine is
called what?
o A. Pyloric sphincter
o B. Cardiac sphincter
o C. Antrum
o D. Cardiac orifice
• 12. Where in the gastrointestinal tract is food digested and absorbed?

o A. Colon and ileum
o B. Jejunum and ileum
o C. Stomach and jejunum
o D. Jejunum and colon
• 13. Some smooth muscle cells in the gastrointestinal tract serve as pacemakers. They display
rhythmic spontaneous oscillations in membrane potentials. What are these called?
o A. Peristalsis
o B. Intestinal spasms
o C. Slow waves
o D. Rapid contractility
• 14. Defecation is controlled by both an internal and an external sphincter. What nerve controls
the external sphincter?
o A. Vagus nerve
o B. Femoral nerve
o C. Phrenic nerve
o D. Pudendal nerve
• 15. The stomach secretes two important hormones in the gastrointestinal tract. One is gastrin.
What is the second hormone secreted by the stomach?
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o A. Ghrelin
o B. Secretin
o C. Incretin
o D. Cholecystokinin
• 16. Saliva has more that one function. What are the functions of saliva? Mark all that apply.
o A. Protection
o B. Lubrication
o C. Antibacterial
o D. Initiate digestion of starches
o E. Initiate digestion of protein
• 17. The colon is home to between 300 and 500 different species of bacteria. What is their main
metabolic function?
o A. Digestion of insoluble fiber
o B. Fermentation of undigestible dietary residue
o C. Compaction of metabolic waste prior to leaving the body
o D. Absorption of calcium
• 18. Absorption is a major function of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. How is absorption
accomplished in the GI tract?
o A. Osmosis and diffusion
o B. Active transport and osmosis
o C. Active transport and diffusion
o D. Diffusion and inactive transport
• 19. Nausea and vomiting can be side effects of many drugs as well as physiologic disturbances
within the body. What is a common cause of nausea?
o A. Distention of the stomach
o B. Distention of the cecum
o C. Distention of the jejunum
o D. Distention of the duodenum
• 20. Several neurotransmitters have been identified with nausea and vomiting. In this capacity,
they act as neuromediators. What neuromediator is believed to be involved in the nausea and
vomiting that accompanies chemotherapy?
o A. Serotonin
o B. Dopamine
o C. Acetylcholine receptors
o D. Opioid receptors
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• 21. The major physiologic function of the gastrointestinal system is to digest food and absorb
nutrients into the bloodstream.
o A. True
o B. False
• 22. The upper esophageal sphincter, the ____________, consists of a circular layer of striated
muscle.
o A. Pharyngoesophageal sphincter
o B. Gastroesophageal sphincter
o C. Stomach
o D. Jejunum
• 23. The lower esophageal sphincter, the ____________, lies just above the area where the
esophagus joins the stomach.
o C. Stomach
o D. Jejunum
• 24. The _______ lies in the left side of the abdomen and serves as a food storage reservoir during
the early stages of digestion.
o C. Stomach
o D. Jejunum
• 25. The small intestine, which forms the middle portion of the digestive tract, consists of three
subdivisions: the __________, __________, and ___________.
o A. Stomach
o B. Duodenum
o C. Jejunum
o D. Ileum
o E. Ilium
o F. Colon
Pathophysiology (Neuro) MCQs

• 1. Sense position and movement of the body

o A. Special somatic afferent neurons
o B. General somatic afferent neurons
o C. General visceral afferent neurons
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o D. First-order neurons
o E. Second-order neurons
o F. Third-order neurons
o G. Dorsal root ganglion neurons
o H. Trigeminal sensory neurons
• 2. Sensations such as pain, touch, and temperature

• 3. Transmit sensory information from the periphery to the CNS

• 4. Sense fullness and discomfort

• 5. Communicate with various reflex networks and sensory pathways in the spinal cord and
travel directly to the thalamus
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• 6. Relay information from the thalamus to the cerebral cortex

• 7. Transmits all somatosensory information from the limbs and trunk

• 8. Somatosensory information from the face and cranial structures

• 9. Identifies the size and shape of objects and their movement across the skin, temperature
sensation, sense of movement of the limbs and joints of the body, and nociception, or pain
o A. Discriminative touch
o B. Sensory unit
o C. Type A fibers
o D. Type A-alpha and A-delta fibers
o E. Type B fibers
o F. Dermatome
o G. Discriminative pathway
o H. Stereognosis
o I. Anterolateral pathway
o J. Free nerve endings
o K. Nociceptors
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• 10. The cell body of the dorsal root ganglion neuron, its peripheral branch (which innervates a
small area of periphery), and its central axon (which projects to the CNS)
o B. Sensory unit
o C. Type A fibers
o E. Type B fibers
o F. Dermatome
o H. Stereognosis
o K. Nociceptors
• 11. Convey cutaneous pressure and touch sensation, cold sensation, mechanical pain, and heat
pain
o B. Sensory unit
o C. Type A fibers
o E. Type B fibers
o F. Dermatome
o H. Stereognosis
o K. Nociceptors
• 12. Transmit information about muscle length and tendon stretch

o B. Sensory unit
o C. Type A fibers
o E. Type B fibers
o F. Dermatome
o H. Stereognosis
o K. Nociceptors
• 13. Transmit information from cutaneous and subcutaneous mechanoreceptors

o B. Sensory unit
o C. Type A fibers
o E. Type B fibers
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o F. Dermatome
o H. Stereognosis
o K. Nociceptors
• 14. The region of the body wall that is supplied by a single pair of dorsal root ganglia
o B. Sensory unit
o C. Type A fibers
o E. Type B fibers
o F. Dermatome
o H. Stereognosis
o K. Nociceptors
• 15. Carry the information from the spinal cord to the thalamic level of sensation and relay
precise information regarding spatial orientation
o B. Sensory unit
o C. Type A fibers
o E. Type B fibers
o F. Dermatome
o H. Stereognosis
o K. Nociceptors
• 16. The sense of shape and size of an object in the absence of visualization
o B. Sensory unit
o C. Type A fibers
o E. Type B fibers
o F. Dermatome
o H. Stereognosis
o K. Nociceptors
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• 17. Stimulate autonomic nervous system responses, such as a rise in heart rate and blood
pressure, dilation of the pupils, and the pale, moist skin that results from the constriction of the
cutaneous blood vessels and activation of the sweat glands.
o B. Sensory unit
o C. Type A fibers
o E. Type B fibers
o F. Dermatome
o H. Stereognosis
o K. Nociceptors
• 18. Detect touch and pressure

o B. Sensory unit
o C. Type A fibers
o E. Type B fibers
o F. Dermatome
o H. Stereognosis
o K. Nociceptors
• 19. Sensory receptors that are activated by noxious insults to peripheral tissues
o B. Sensory unit
o C. Type A fibers
o E. Type B fibers
o F. Dermatome
o H. Stereognosis
o K. Nociceptors
• 20. A neurologic assessment of the somatosensory function of the body is often necessary for
diagnostic information. How is this assessment done?
o A. Testing the integrity of spinal segmental nerves
o B. Testing the integrity of cranial nerves
o C. Testing the integrity of peripheral nerves
o D. Testing the integrity of the CNS
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• 21. When testing nociceptive stimuli to elicit a withdrawal reflex in the body, what stimuli are
commonly used?
o A. Weak electrical current
o B. Pressure from a sharp object
o C. Skin temperature damp cotton ball
o D. Water heated to 5 degrees Celsius above skin temperature
• 22. One of the neurotransmitters between the nociceptive neurons and the dorsal horn neurons
is a major excitatory neurotransmitter. What is this neurotransmitter?
o A. Norepinephrine
o B. Substance P
o C. Glutamate
o D. Dopamine
• 23. Which tract in the spinal cord conducts the diffuse, dull, aching sensations that are
associated with chronic and visceral pain?
o A. Multisynaptic tract
o B. Neospinothalamic tract
o C. Anterolateral tract
o D.Paleospinothalamic tract
• 24. Type of pain experienced from a sprained ankle

o A. Deep somatic pain
o B. Cutaneous pain
o C. Visceral pain
o D. Referred pain
o E. Guarding
o F. Acute pain
o G. Chronic pain
• 25. A sharp pain with a burning quality that may be abrupt or slow in onset
o A. Deep somatic pain
o B. Cutaneous pain
o C. Visceral pain
o D. Referred pain
o E. Guarding
o F. Acute pain
o G. Chronic pain
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• 1. What is the physiological cause of shock in the human body?

o A. Hypertension
o B. Hypoglycemia
o C. Inadequate tissue perfusion
o D. Tachycardia caused by events you experienced
• 2. The two types of shock are____________ and ______________.
• 3. How do you treat shock?

o A. Nitroglycerin
o B. Determine cause, take corrective action
o C. As directed by Dr.
• 4. What is caused by a fatty streak that caused endothelial injury, and hypoxia in arteries?
• 5. What blood pressure classification would 120/80 be catagorized in?

o A. Normal
o B. Pre-hypertensive
o C. Hypertensive 3
o D. Optimal
• 6. What is the blood pressure classification with the range of 130-139/85-89?

o A. Hypertensive 1
o B. Pre-hypertensive
o C. Normal
• 7. If your blood pressure is 145/95 it falls in the classification of ____________.
• 8. The average age of diagnosis of HTN is __.
• 9. Two of the risk factors for atherosclerosis are __________ and ___________.
• 10. What are the two top risk factors for HTN?
• 11. What are the three biggest dangers for aneurysms?
• 12. What is the diastolic sign minimum for malignant HTN?
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• 13. What are the three types of Angina?
• 14. Abnormal heart rythm.
• 15. Heart failure is when your heart is unable to adequately perfuse the tissues.
o A. True
o B. False
• 16. What are the two types of congestive heart failure?
• 17. What sided heart failure causes fluid buildup in the body?
• 18. Where does fluid buildup when left sided heart failure is occuring?
• 19. What type of shock is it when the cardiac output is not sufficient to perfuse the tissues
causing hypotension?
• 20. What two factors are used when classifying congenital heart disease?
• 21. In what direction does an acyanotic defect shunt the blood?
• 22. Congenital heart disease is a major cause of death in infants.

o A. True
o B. False
• 23. What is an atrial septal defect? Which way does it shunt the blood? Is it cyanotic or
acyanotic?
• 24. A murmur is one sign of an atrial septal defect.

o A. True
o B. False
• 25. Is CHF more associated with cyanotic defects or acyanotic defects?

o A. Cyanotic
o B. Acyanotic
o C. Neither
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Pathophysiology-Cellular and Humoral Immune

Response
• 1. Phagocytes consist of: 1. Granulocytes 2. Antigens 3. Macrophage 4. Dendritc Cell

o A. 1, 2
o B. 1, 3, 4
o C. 1, 2, 3, 4
o D. 3, 4
• 2. Phagocytes engulf bacteria, viruses and dead or injured cells.

o A. True
o B. False
• 3. All Immune Cells originate in:

o A. Thymus
o B. Spleen
o C. Bone Marrow
o D. Blood Cells
• 4. Immune cells mature in ___________ _________ or the ___________.
• 5. The antigens representing "self" are present on an individual's cell membrane.

o A. True
o B. False
• 6. MHC stands for:

o A. Medial heart contusion
o B. Minor histogram complex
o C. Massive hernia complications
o D. Major histocompatibility complex
• 7. MHC is located on ___________________ 6.
• 8. MHC molecules:
1. have an essential role in the activation and regulation of the immune response.
2. have an essential role in intercellular communications.
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3. are useful in detecting changes in cell membranes altered by viruses or cancerous

changes.
4. alert the immune system when they detect changes in cell membranes altered by
viruses or cancerous changes.
o A. 1,4
o B. 2,3,4
o C. 3,4,1
o D. 1,2,3,4
o E. 1,2,3
• 9. It is unlikely that two indivuduals would ever have identical antigens. (Unless you were an
identical twin)
o A. True
o B. False
• 10. T Lymphocytes arise from __________ _______________.
• 11. T Lymphocytes mature in the __________________.
• 12. Plasma cells develop from:
0. mast cells and release histamine.

1. T cells and destroy virus infectected cells.
2. helper T cells and remember antigens for later use.
3. B cell and secrete specific antibodies.
o A. 1,2
o B. 2
o C. 3,4
o D. 4
• 13. Chemotactic ___________ attract phygocytes to area of inflammation
• 14. ___________________ are a group of lipids, with varying effects. Some cause inflammation,
vasodialation and increased permeability, and pain.
• 15. Natural killer lymphocystes:
0. destroy self cells.

1. destroy foreign cells.
2. destroy virus infected cells.
3. destroy cancer cells.
o A. 1,2
o B. 2,3,4
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o C. 3,4
o D. 4,1,3
• 16. The three types of T cells are:

o A. Helper T cells
o B. Mast T cells
o C. Cytotoxic T cells
o D. Supressor T cells
• 17. Helper T cells:

o A. Detect infection and get the other cells of the immune system ready to do battle.
o B. Tell B cells to produce antibodies
o C. Attack virus-infected cells.
o D. A and B
o E. B and C
o F. A, B and C
• 18. Cytotoxic T cells:

o A. Attack virus-infected cells.
o B. Tell B cells to produce antibodies.
o C. Alert the immune system when a antigen is detected.
• 19. __________________ T cells tell the immune system when the battle with the infectious
pathogens is over and to stop fighting
• 20. What are the stages of infectious disease? (choose all that apply)
o A. The peak (clinical) stage (the disease reaches its highest point of development, severe aches, chills,
vomiting, etc.)
o B. The incubation stage (silent stage-- the pathogen has gained entry into the host and starts
replicating)
o C. The recovery stage (symptoms have all but completely vanished; pathogen has been mostly
eliminated)
o D. The prodromal stage (itchy, runny nose, dry eyes, etc.)
Multiple Choice Questions over Pathophysiology

• 1. The study of the characteristic, cause, and effects of disease.
• 2. Pertaining to an infection acquired in a hospital or other medical care facility at least 72

hours after admission.
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• 3. Characterized by sudden onset a short duration, With marked intensity or sharpness.
• 4. Study of all factors that cause a disease.
• 5. Developing gradually and persisting for a long peroid, often for the remainder of a person's
lifetime.
• 6. Name the organs and tissues of the immune system.
• 7. Which is NOT a hereditaty disease.

o A. Sickle-cell anemia
o B. Shingles
o C. PKU
o D. Color blindness
• 8. Vitiligo is a condition that affects which of the following systems?

o A. Digestive
o B. Integumentary
o C. Endocrine
o D. Respiratory
Renal Pathophysiology Inflammatory Processes 1

• 1. _________________ ________________ is a life threatening condition of renal parenchyma with

gas formation in tissue or collecting system.
• 2. Emphysematous pyelonephritis is found most commonly in ____________ or

___________________ patients.
• 3. Emphysematous pyelonephritis- This process is usually _____________, and acquired the same
way as a _________.
• 4. Emphysematous pyelonephritis- This disease does not respond to ____________ treatment

because it is associated with renal ____________. The kidneys become ____________ as the
disease process spreads. Therefore, a _____________ is usually needed as treatment before tehre
is further spread.
• 5. Emphysematous pyelonephritis- clinically
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o A. Fever
o B. Flank Pain
o C. Dehydration
o D. Acidosis
o E. Electrolyte imbalance
• 6. Emphysematous pyelonephritis sono appearance: _______ forming bacteria causes ________

__________. ___________ foci due to intrarenal gas. Located in renal _____________ or ____________.
• 7. ____________ _____________: a collection of small abscesses. The abscesses are usually

caused by the hematogenous or the ascending route of __________ ___________.
• 8. Renal abscess- clinically:

o A. Fever
o B. Chills
o C. Leukocytosis
o D. Flank pain
• 9. Renal abscess- sono appearance:

o A. Complex renal mass
o B. Gas forming bacteria causes dirty shadowing
o C. Located in renal parenchyma and sinus
• 10. Fungal balls (______________) is a fungal infection that can result from ______________ seeding
or ascend from the _____________. Circulation in the blood allows seeds to _____________.
• 11. _______________ is the most common cause of renal fungal disease.
• 12. ______________: systemic fungal infection occurring most often in immuno-compromised

patients.
• 13. Fungal balls sono appearance-

o A. Large, irregular, *echogenic, * non-shadowing masses within the collecting system
o B. May also have sludge in the pyramids that is mobile
o C. Candidiasis
Renal Pathophysiology Inflammatory Processes 2

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• 1. Acute pyelonephritis is acute inflammation of the ________________ renal tissue and an acute
bacterial inflammation of the renal _________, __________, and ___________. Basically, an
inflammation of the _________ kidney.
• 2. The most common cause of a kidney infection is ___________ of __________. (_____________

___________)
• 3. 90% of kidney infections occur from a ________________ reflux (UTI)
• 4. Acute Pyelonephritis Imaging studies are usually _____________ because the diagnosis is
determined clinically by the patient's _____________.
• 5. Acute pyelonephritis Clinically:

o A. Usually a female disposition (90%)
o B. Inflammatory process (fever, pain, leukocytosis)
o C. Flank and back pain
o D. Frequent and urgent urination (polyuria, dysuria)
• 6. ______________ is inflammation of the kidney whereas _____________ is pus in the collecting

system of the kidney.
• 7. Acute Pyelonephritis- Sono appearance

o A. Commonly unilateral but can be bilateral
o B. Commonly bilateral but can be unilateral
o C. Left side affected more often
o D. Right side affected more often
o E. Normal appearing kidneys
o F. Can be focal or diffuse
o G. Focal only
o H. Increase in size
o I. Areas of increased echogenicity
o J. Areas of decreased echogenicity
o K. Absence of perfusion
o L. Loss of corticomedullary distinction
o M. Compression of renal parenchyma
o N. Compression of renal sinus
• 8. Acute "itis"- ________ kidneys, ____________ parenchyma.
• 9. Severe "itis"- lose appearance of sinus __________, __________ flow and bacteria, _________
___________ form in pyramids.
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• 10. ___________ __________- Acute focal bacterial nephritis is a pyelonephritis that is localized
within the parenchyma and does not include the calyces. It is a focal lobar infection.
• 11. Acute focal bacterial nephritis- Sono appearance Similar to an __________, _____________
wedge-shaped area, occurs most commonly at the ________________ ______________
______________.
• 12. _________ _________ _________ is interstitial nephritis resulting from ongoing or recurring
urinary tract infections. Occurs from multiple or recurrent renal infections.
• 13. Chronic atrophic nephritis is a ___________ and __________ disease that causes ___________
and eventual renal ____________. It accounts for approximately ____(#)% of all renal failure
cases.
• 14. Chronic Pyelonephritis- clinically:

o A. Chronic, recurrent infections
o B. Nocturia
o C. Proteinurea
o D. **50% are due to compromised renal function
o E. ** HTN further contributes to the disease process
• 15. Chronic Pyelonephritis- Sono appearance

o A. Small echogenic kidneys
o B. Enlarged, hypoechoic kidneys
o C. Unilateral or bilateral focal areas of cortical thinning and increased echogenicity
o D. Poorly visualized borders because surrounded by perinephric fat
o E. Increased echogenicity due to scarring (pelvis, parenchyma, and calyces)
• 16. ________________ pyelonephritis is a rare type of ***severe pyelonephritis.
• 17. Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis is characterized by replacement of normal

parenchyma with ______________ _____________ and ___________ ____________.
• 18. Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis can be secondary to acute multiple ___________ that

were not responsive to _____________.
• 19. Xanthogranulomatous Pyelonephritis- 70% of patients have renal ___________, especially

__________ ___________ which results in renal obstruction.
• 20. Huge stones that take up the whole collecting system are called ____________.
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• 21. Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis: Any obstruction that is not relieved for a long time
causes hydronephrosis which becomes __________, forms ___________ and leads to a __________
condition. (_______________->________________->_________________->________________
_________________)
• 22. Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis- Clinically: Prevalent in ____________ and

______________. Similar to acute pyelonephritis but may have ___________ __________ or palpable
mass (from _____________).
• 23. Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis- sono appearance __________ is the modality of choice

becaseu the patient has probably been misdiagnosed many times before. May have renal
____________ from recurrent acute infections. May have parenchymal ____________ or
______________, possible _____________ ______________.
• 1. A patient has symptoms of dizziness, palor, and weakness. On blood examination the RBCs
are pale and small (microcytic). The patients diet mainly is composed of tea and toast. Which
type of anemia is most likely present?
o A. Iron deficinecy
o B. Vitamin C deficiency
o C. Folic acid
o D. Vitmain B12 def
• 2. Most of the human blood is composed of:

o A. RBCs
o B. PLT
o C. WBCs
o D. Plasma
• 3. A patient diet is mainly composed of overcooked vegetables, bread, and lean meats. This
patient is likely to have _________ deficiency anemia.
o A. Folic acid
o B. Vitamin B12
o C. Vitamin E
o D. None of these
• 4. This is the actual carrier of oxygen found within a protein structure.

o A. Hemoglobin
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o B. Heme
o C. Plasma clotting protein
o D. None of these
• 5. The average lifespan of RBCs is:

o A. 10 days
o B. 120 days
o C. 90 days
o D. 1 year
• 6. Why do alveoli not collapse together?

o A. Mucus
o B. WBCs
o C. Collagen only
o D. Surfactant
• 7. Which of the following is not a lower respiratory disease?

o A. Pneumonia
o B. Tracheitis
o C. Bronchitis
o D. Pharyngitis
• 8. Rhinitis involves the __________.

o A. Lower Respiratory tract
o B. Bronchioles
o C. Alveoli
o D. Upper Respiratory tract
• 9. Which of the following is not a COPD?

o A. Bronchitis
o B. Asthma
o C. Emphysema
o D. Pleursy
• 10. Which small structures help clean the respiratory tube lining in the lower airways?
o A. Villi
o B. Cilia
o C. Hairs
o D. All of these
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• 11. What structure is commonly called the windpipe?

o A. Bronchiole
o B. Bronchi
o C. Trachea
o D. Tertiary bronchiole
• 12. Where in the respiratory tract do asthmatic spasms occur?

o A. Trachea
o B. Larynx
o C. Pharynx
o D. Bronchioles
• 13. COPD includes which of the follwing

o A. Asthma
o B. Bronchitis
o C. Emphysema
o D. None of these
o E. All of these
• 14. Pneumonia is caused by __________.

o A. Bacteria
o B. Viruses
o C. None of these
• 15. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia can lead to ____________anemia

o A. Microcytic anemia
o B. Megaloblastic
o C. Hypochromic only
o D. None of these
• 16. Which X-linked recessive bleeding disorder primarily affects males?

o A. Von willebrands
o B. Hemophilia
o C. ITP
o D. None of these
• 17. Which disease results in defects in platelet adhesion?

o A. Von Willebrand's disease
o B. Hemophilia A
o C. Thrombocytosis
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o D. Penia
• 18. The function of __________ is to defend tissues against bacterial and fungal infections
o A. Eosinophils
o B. Basophils
o C. Neutrophils
o D. All of these
• 19. Which cell produces histamine

o A. Basophils
o B. Neutrophils
o C. Lymphocytes
o D. Monocytes
• 20. Immune suppression from cancer chemotherapy and suppression of cellular proliferation in
the bone marrow, resulting in an increased susceptibility for infection, is a common etiology of
what blood disease?
o A. Neutropenia
o B. Neutrocytosis
o C. Von willebrands
o D. None of these
• 21. Folic acid anemia usually has neurologic symptoms

o A. True
o B. False
• 22. Iron deficiency anemia is of a macrocytic type

o A. True
o B. False
• 23. Hypochromic RBCs means pale cells

o A. True
o B. False
• 24. COPD is rarely caused by smoking

o A. True
o B. False
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• 25. The Pathophysiology of emphysema involves destruction of the alveoli wall and the alveoli
fuse to form a large are sac
o A. True
o B. False
• 1. Which involves the transfer of gases between air-filled spaces in the lungs and blood?
o A. Respiration
o B. Ventilation
o C. Diffusion
o D. Perfusion
• 2. The conducting airways span from

o A. The oropharynx to the alveoli
o B. The nasopharynx to the bronchioles
o C. The nasopharynx to the alveoli
o D. The oropharynx to the bronchioles
• 3. ___ refers to how stiff the lungs are.

o A. Elasticity
o B. Recoil
o C. Compliance
o D. Fibrisis
• 4. In a "normal" patient,the percentage of air left behind in dead spaces after expiration is __ %.
o A. 70
o B. 50
o C. 30
o D. 10
• 5. A low V/Q ratio could possibly indicate:

o A. A restrictive disease
o B. An obstructive disease
o C. Interstitial lung disease
o D. Asthma
• 6. PO2 refers to
o A. The oxygen bound to hemoglobin in the blood
o B. The oxygen in a dissolved state in the plasma
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o C. The oxygen in bicarbonate
o D. The oxygen bound to carbon in CO2
• 7. Which means there is normal perfusion and little or no ventilation?

o A. Dead space unit
o B. Silent unit
o C. Shunt
o D. Obstructive lung disease
• 8. During a fever, more oxygen is

o A. Dissolved in the plasma
o B. Bound to hemoglobin
o C. Made available to tissues
o D. Exhaled
• 9. The most carbon dioxide in the body is transported in the blood as

o A. CO2 dissolved in plasma
o B. Carbaminohemoglobin
o C. Bicarbonate
o D. Carbon monoxide
• 10. Normal pulmonary blood pressure is

o A. 120/80
o B. 100/60
o C. 75/45
o D. 50/20
o E. 25/10
• 11. ___ provides oxygenated blood from systemic curculation to meet the lung's metabolic
needs.
o A. Pulmonary circulation
o B. Bronchial circulation
o C. The superior vena cava
o D. The aorta
• 12. ___ provides the gas exchange function.

o A. Pulmonary circulation
o B. Bronchial circulation
o C. The superior vena cava
o D. The aorta
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• 13. Which is not a morphologic pulmonary assessment tool?

o A. Radiology
o B. Biopsy
o C. Blood gas analysis
o D. Bronchoscopy
• 14. Which of these measures of ventilation involve breathing at rest?

o A. Expiratory reserve volume
o B. Residual volume
o C. Forced vital capacity
o D. Inspiratory reserve volume
• 15. Which diseases would have normal FVC and FEV1?

o A. COPD
o B. Pneumoconioses
o C. Asthma
o D. Sarcoidosis
• 16. Which would decrease diffusion capacity?

o A. COPD
o B. Asthma
o C. Thinning of the aveolocapillary membrane
o D. Loss of alveoli
• 17. Normal SaO2 is

o A. 35-45 mmHg
o B. 80-100 mmHg
o C. 97%
o D. 7.35-7.45
o E. 22 - 26 mEq/L
• 18. Pleural effusion refers to

o A. Fluid collected in the lungs
o B. Fluid collected in the pleural space
o C. Fluid collected in a fistula in the pleural space
o D. Fluid collected in the pulmonary circulation
• 19. Which does not have a preexisting pulmonary disease?

o A. Secondary pneumothorax
o B. Primary pneumothorax
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o C. Cor pulmonale
o D. ARDS
• 20. This may be hereditary or acquired and is caused by airway obstruction, lung compression,
or loss of surfactant.
o A. Bronchiectasis
o B. Pneumoconioses
o C. Atelectasis
o D. Spontaneous pneumothorax
• 21. Bronchoconstriction
o A. Takes place in the larger airways
o B. Takes place in the smaller airways
o C. Involves the parasympathetic nervous system
o D. Involves the sympathetic nervous system
o E. Involves histamine
• 22.
Which of the following is not an obstructive pulmonary disease?
o A. Pneumoconioses
o B. Sarcoidosis
o C. Bronchiectasis
o D. Cystic fibrosis
o E. Chronic bronchitis
• 23. According to the hygiene hypothesis, asthma

o A. Results from over production of TH1 cells since Th2 cells were not made in response to childhood
illness
o B. Is caused by IgM antibodies responding to harmless substances instead of microbes
o C. Results from overproduction of TH2 cells since TH1 cells weren't produced to fight the microbes of
childhood illness
o D. Is caused by IgE antibodies responding to harmless substances instead of to helminths
o E. Is caused by an overabundance of IgE, T1 cells, and IgG
• 24. Which of the following are bronchospastic triggers of asthma?

o A. GERD
o B. Dust mites
o C. Cold air
o D. Viruses
o E. Pollen
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• 25. The late phase response of asthma

o A. Is caused by the release of chemical mediators from the mast cells
o B. Includes epithelial edema and injury
o C. May last for weeks
o D. Refers to when histamine attaches to receptor sites on smooth muscle and causes swelling
o E. Leads to shortness of breath and wheezing
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Pathophysiology Practice Questions With Answers

Questions and Answers

• 2. An objective indication of disease that is obvious to an observer is referred to as a:

• 3. A subjective indication of disease that is not obvious to an observer is referred to as a:

• 8. Which of the following is an example of a local manifestation.

• 9. Which of the following is an example of a symptom.

• 10. Which of the following is NOT an example of a sign.

• 12. A designation assigned to a disease of unknown cause:

• 14. Which of the following are considered to be risk factors:

• 16. A disease that originates or is produced outside the body is called:

• 17. Genetics is an example of which of the following causal factors:

• 18. Carcinogens are an example of which of the following causal factors:

Cardiovascular Pathophysiology MCQs

• 1. Which of the following conditions cause aneurysms?

• 4. Which of the following are used as a treatment for thrombi?

• 5. Which of the following tests detect silent ischemia and angina?

• 6. Which of the following are used as treatments of pericarditis?

Pathophysiology: Asthma MCQs

• 5. Which definition best suits the term "inflammation" in relation to asthma?

• 7. Which of the following are characteristics of extrinsic asthma?

• 8. Which of the following are characteristics of intrinsic asthma?

• 9. Airway remodelling is a major player in the pathology of asthma.

• 10. Which statement is false regarding airway remodelling?

• 11. Airway remodelling can be seen in young children with asthma

• 17. Which of the following are clinical SIGNS of asthma?

• 20. Which of the following is false about lung spirometry tests?

Pathophysiology of Respiratory Disease MCQs

• 1. Which of the following is not a function of the respiratory system?

• 2. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for proper ventilation?

• 5. The controls of respiratory functions reside in which of the following?

• 7. Where is the location of gas exchange?

• 8. Which alteration is effected if the A-C interface is affected, by stretching or damage?

• 9. Which of the following is NOT a cause of alteration in air flow?

• 10. What type of disorder is Cystic Fibrosis?

• 14. Which of the following is NOT an effect of pneumonia?

• 18. What is the causative agent of polycythemia and pulmonary hypertension?

• 19. What 2 alterations are manifested by emphysema?

• 24. Pulmonary hypertension causes a rise in blood pressure readings.

Pathophysiology of Inflammation MCQs

• 1. What are the 5 cardinal signs of Inflammation?

• 2. Inflammation can occur in dead tissue?

• 3. Changes in blood flow represent the body's first response to injury.

• 4. What is the first response of arterioles to injury?

• 5. Stacking of erythrocytes (RBCs) are known as what?

• 8. Margination of neutrophils is the first cellular change of inflammation.

• 9. Active movement of PMN's along a concentration gradient is known as what?

• 10. What does the term opsonization mean?

• 13. Immunoglobulins (IgG-Fc) and complement (C3) both act as opsonins.

• 17. What are the different types of inflammation?

• 18. Select 2 examples of serous inflammation?

• 19. Serous inflammation is considered to be the most severe form of inflammation.

• 21. What is an example of fibrinous inflammation?

• 24. A localized collection of pus within an organ or tissue is called an Abscess.

• 25. Tuberculoma (TB Abscess) is a type of purulent inflammation.

CVS, GI And Respiratory Pathophysiology MCQs

• 2. One of the following is not related to Type 2 in DM :

• 3. In the Diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease , one of the following is correct :

• 5. In laboratory assessment in the Cirrhosis, one of the following is incorrect: