NEET CBSE Molecular Basic of Inheritance MCQ QA

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12TH CBSE Molecular Basic Of Inheritance MCQ

12th Standard
Biology
Exam Time : 00:01:00 Hrs Total Marks : 1
MCQ 117 x 1 = 117
1) Jumping genes given by Barbara Mclintock are also called
(a) Transposons (b) Mutons (c) Cistrons (d) Vectors
2) Nitrogenous base sequence in one strand of DNA is ATGCTTGA, the sequence in the
complementary strand will be
(a) TAGGTAGT (b) TACGAACT (c) TACGTACT (d) TCCGAACT
3) That the mode of DNA replication is semiconservative was demonstrated by
(a) Khorana (b) Watson and Crick (c) Meselson and Stahl (d) Tayler
4) In DNA replication, leading strand replicates in
(a) 5' ------ > 3' direction continuously (b) 3'------ > 5' direction continuously
(c) 5'----- > 3' directiom discontinuosly (d) 3,------- > 5' direction discontinuously
5) Temin and Baltimore are associated with the discovery of
(a) RNA synthesis (b) Transcription (c) Reverse transcription (d) photorespiration
6) How many codons code for amino acids?
(a) 64 (b) 61 (c) 68 (d) 60
7) How many base pairs are present in DNA cut by endonuclease
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
8) In DNA, guanine and cytosine are bonded with how many hydrogen bonds?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
9) Hargobind Khorana got Nobel Prize for
(a) Gene synthesis (b) Determining genetic code (c) Producing disease resistant maize
(d) Discovery of transposons
10) "One gene-one enzyme" hypothesis state that
(a) One gene codes for one enzyme (b) One gene codes for one polypeptide
(c) One gene codes for many enzymes (d) One gene regulates all enzymes
11) Out of 64 codons how many codons do not code for any amino acid?
(a) 62 (b) 61 (c) 3 (d) 1

(a) 62 (b) 61 (c) 3 (d) 1
12) The correctly matched pair is
(a) Okazaki fragments-splicing (b) RNA polymerase-RNA primer
(c) Central dogma_codon (d) Restriction endonuclease-genetic engineering
13) Initiator (starting) codon in eukaryotes is
(a) AUG (b) AAG (c) CCU (d) GGC
14) DNA polymerase that helps in DNA replication is of
(a) Two types (b) Three types (c) Four types (d) Only one type
15) One of these is not prepared directly from DNA
(a) Another DNA (b) mRNA (c) Protein (d) rRNA
16) Nucleoside is
(a) Nitrogenous base + Sugar (b) Nitrogenous base + sugar + phospate
(c) Sugar + phosphate (d) Nitrogenous base + phosphate
17) Intrinsic flow of information means
(a) Transcription (b) Translation (c) Both of the above (d) None of the above
18) During splicing, the exons are joined and the enzyme which catalyzes this reaction is
(a) RNA ligase (b) RNA catalase (c) RNA permease (d) RNA polymerase
19) Which of the following is important for transcriptiom?
(a) DNA methylase (b) CAAT box (c) Promoter (d) DNA polymerase
20) Out of the total 64 codons, 61 codons code for 20 amino acids, this suggest
(a) Degeneracy of codons (b) Overlapping of codons (c) Redundancy of codons
(d) Ambiguous nature of codons
21) Anticodon site is located on
(a) DNA (b) tRNA (c) rRNA (d) mRNA
22) Beadle and Tatum did classical experiments on Neurospora crassa to prove
(a) One enzyme can correct one gene (b) One gene produces one enzyme
(c) Many genes produce one enzyme (d) None of these
23) During replication of a bacterial chromosome DNA synthesis starts from a replication
origin site and
(a) is facilitated by telomerase (b) moves in one direction of the site
(c) moves in bi-directional way (d) RNA primers are involved
24) During transcription, if the nucleotide sequence of the DNA strand that is being coded is
ATACG, then the nucleotide sequence in the mRNA would be
(a) TCTGG (b) UAUGC (c) UATGC (d) TATGC
25) Balbiani rings are found in
(a) Polytene chromosome (b) dicot stems (c) lambrush chromosome
(d) all chromosomes
26) A gene of operon which synthesizes a repressor protein is
(a) regulator gene (b) operator gene (c) structural gene (d) promotor gene
27) Which one of the following group of codons is called as degenerate codons?
(a) UAA, UAG and UGA (b) GUA, GUG, GCA, GCG and GAA
(c) UUC, UUG, CUU, CUC, CUA and CUG (d) UUA, UUG, CUU, CUC, CUA and CUG
(e) AAC, AAG, GAC and CGG
28) During protein synthesis in an organism at one point the process comes to a halt. Select
the group of the three codons from the following, from which any one of the three could bring
about this halt
(a) UUU, UCC, UAC (b) UUC, UUA, UAC (c) UAG, UGA, UAA (d) UUG, UCA, UCG
29) The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are
(a) Discontinuous (b) Antiparallel (c) Semiconservative (d) Parallel
30) During transcription, RNA polymerase holoenzyme binds to a gene promoter and assumes
a saddle-like structure. What is its DNA-binding sequence?
(a) AATT (b) CACC (c) TATA (d) TTAA
31) Central dogma of genetic information is modified by the discovery of
(a) Reverse transcriptase (b) DNA polymerase (c) RNA polymerase (d) Ligase
32) tRNA consisting of three unpaired bases constitute
(a) Codon (b) Anticodon (c) Clover-leaf model (d) Acceptor loop
33) The codon AUG is
(a) Ochre (b) Amber (c) Initiation codon (d) Termination codon
34) During the replication of DNA, the synthesis of DNA as lagging strand takes place in
segments, these segments are called
(a) Double helix segments (b) Satellite segments (c) Kornberg segments
(d) Okazaki segments
35) Meselson and Stahl experiment proved
(a) DNA is genetic material (b) Central dogma (c) Transformation
(d) Semi conservative DNA replication (e) Transduction
36) The haploid content of human DNA is
(a) 3.3x109bp (b) 3.3x109kbp (c) 4.6x106bp (d) 48501 bp (e) 1.65x109bp
37) The distance between the genes a,b,c,d in mapping units are
a-d=3.5; b-c=1; a-b=6;
c-d=1.5; a-c=5
Find out the sequence of arrangement of these genes
(a) acdb (b) abcd (c) adbc (d) acbd (e) adcb
38) The basic of DNA fingerprinting is
(a) The double helix (b) Errors in base sequence (c) Polymorphism in sequence
(d) DNA replication (e) DNA coiling
39) Which of the following be named for DNA produced from RNA?
(a) A-DNA (b) B-DNA (c) C-DNA (d) Z-DNA
40) In the DNA molecule
(a) The proportion of adenine in relation to thymine varies with the organism
(b) There are two strands which run antiparallel one in 5'→3' direction and other in 3'→5'
(c) The total amount of purine nucleotides and pyrimidine nucleotide is not always equal
(d) There are two strands which run parallel in the 5'→3' direction
41) Which one of the following pairs of codons is correctly matched with their function or the
signal for the particular amino acid?
(a) AUG, ACG-Start/methionine (b) UUA, UCA-Leucine (c) GUU, GCU-Alanine
(d) UAG, UGA-stop
42) The term genome denotes
(a) Haploid set of chromosomes (b) Bivalent (c) Monovalent
(d) Diploid chromosomal set
43) The number of stop codons which do not code for any amino acid is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
44) DNA sequences that code for protein are known as

(a) Intron (b) Exons (c) Control regions (d) Intervening sequences
45) During replication of DNA, Okazaki fragments are formed in the direction of
(a) 3'→5' (b) 5'→3' (c) 5'→5' (d) 3'→3'
46) mRNA directs the building of proteins through a sequence of
(a) Exons (b) Introns (c) Codons (d) Anticodons
47) The antiparallel nature of DNA refers to
(a) Its charged phosphate group
(b) The formation of hydrogen bonds between bases from opposite strands
(c) The opposite direction of the two strands
(d) The pairing of bases on one strand with bases on the other strand
48) What is not true for genetic code?
(a) It is nearly universal (b) It is degenerate (c) It is unambiguous
(d) A codon in mRNA is read in a non-contiguous fashion
49) Removal of introns and joining the exons in a defined order in a transcription unit is called

(a) Tailing (b) Transformation (c) Capping (d) Splicing
50) Whose experiments cracked the DNA and discovered unequivocally that a genetic code is a
'triplet'?
(a) Hershey and Chase (b) Nirenberg and Mathaei (c) Morgan and Sturtevant
(d) Beadle and Tatum
51) The human chromosomes with the highest and least number of genes in them are
respectively:
(a) chromosome 21 and Y (b) chromosome 1 and X (c) chromosome1 and Y
(d) chromosome X and Y
52) Who amongst the following scientists had no contribution in the development of the double
helix model for the structure of DNA?
(a) Rosalind Franklin (b) Maurice Wilkins (c) Erwin Chargaff (d) Meselson and Stahl
53) DNA is a polymer of nucleotides which are linked to each other by 3'-5' phosphodiester
bond. To prevent polymerisation of nucleotides, which of the following modifications would
you choose?
(a) (a) Replace purine with pyrimidines
(b) (b) Remove/Replace 3' OH group in deoxyribose

(c) (c) Remove/Replace 2' OH group with some other group in deoxyribose
(d) (d) Both 'b' and 'c'
54) Discontinuous synthesis of DNA occurs in one strand, because:
(a) DNA molecule being synthesised is very long
(b) DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerisation only in one direction ( 5'→3')
(c) it is a more efficient process (d) DNA ligase has to have a role
55) Which of the following stops in transcription is catalysed by RNA polymerase?
(a) Initiation (b) Elongation (c) Termination (d) All of the above
56) Control of gene expression takes place at the level of:
(a) DNA-replication (b) Transcription (c) Translation (d) None of the above
57) Regulatory proteins are the accessory proteins that interact with RNA polymerase and
affect its role in transcription. Which of the following statements is correct about regulatory
protein?
(a) They only increase expression (b) They only decrease expression
(c) They interact with RNA polymerase but do not affect the expression
(d) They can act both as activators and as repressors
58) Which was the last human chromosome to be completely sequenced:
(a) Chromosome 1 (b) Chromosome 11 (c) Chromosome 21 (d) Chromosome X
59) Which of the following are the functions of RNA?
(a) It is a carrier of genetic information from DNA to ribosomes synthesising polypeptides
(b) It carries amino acids to ribosomes (c) It is a constituent component of ribosomes
(d) All of the above
60) While analysing the DNA of an organism a total number of 5386 nucleotides were found
out of which the proportion of different bases were: Adenine=29%, Guanine=17%,
Cytosine=32%, Thymine=17%. Considering the Chargaffs rule it can be concluded that:
(a) it is a double stranded circular DNA (b) it is single stranded DNA
(c) it is a double stranded linear DNA (d) No conclusion can be drawn
61) If Meselson and Stahl's experiment is continued for four generations in bacteria, the ratio
of 15N/15N :15N/14N : 14N/14N containing DNA in the fourth generation would be:
(a) 1:1:0 (b) 1:4:0 (c) 0:1:3 (d) 0:1:7
62) If the sequence of nitrogen base of the coding strand of DNA in a transcription unit is:
5' - A T G A A T G - 3', the sequence of bases in its RNA transcript would be:
(a) 5' - A U G A A U G - 3' (b) 5' - U A C U U A C - 3' (c) 5' - C A U U C A U -3'
(d) 5' - G U A A G U A - 3'
63) The RNA polymerase holoenzyme transcribes:
(a) the promoter, structural gene and the terminators region (b) the promoter,
(c) the structural gene and the terminators regions (d) the structural gene only
64) If the base sequence of a codon in mRNA is 5' - AUG-3', the sequence of tRNA pairing with
it must be:
(a) 5' - UAC -3' (b) 5' - CAU -3' (c) 5' - AUG -3' (d) 5' - GUA -3'
65) The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its:
(a) 5' - end (b) 3' - end (c) Anti codon site (d) DHU loop
66) To initiate translation, the mRNA first binds to:
(a) The smaller ribosomal sub-unit (b) The larger ribosomal sub-unit
(c) The whole ribosomal (d) No such specificity exists
67) In E.coli, the lac operon gets switched on when:
(a) lactose is present and it binds to the repressor (b) repressor binds to operator
(c) RNA polymerase binds to the operator
(d) lactose is present and it binds to RNA plymerase
68) The one aspect which is not a salient feature of genetic code is its being
(a) specific (b) degenerate (c) ambiguous (d) universal
69) The 3' to 5' phosphodiester linkages of a polynucleotide chain join
(a) one DNA strand with other DNA strand (b) one nucleoside with other nucleoside
(c) one nucleotide with other nucleotide (d) one nitrogenous base with pentose sugar
70) The lac oparon consists of
(a) four regulatory genes only (b) one regulatory and 3 structural genes
(c) two regulatory gene and 2 structural genes
(d) three regulatory genes and three structural genes
71) DNA gyrase, the enzyme that participates in the process of DNA replication is a type of
(a) DNA-ligase (b) DNA-polymerase (c) DNA-topoisomerase (d) Reverse transcriptase
72) Which one of these statements is not correct during protein synthesis
(a) UAA codon codes for lysine (b) UGG codon codes for tryptophan
(c) Cysteine is coded by UGU and UGC codones

(d) tyrosine is coded by UAU and UAC codons
73) In genetic fingerprinting, 'the probe' refers to
(a) a radioactively labelled double stranded RNA molecule
(b) a radioactively labelled double stranded DNA molecule
(c) a radio-actively labelled single stranded DNA molecule
(d) a radioactively labelled single stranded RNA molecule
74) In a DNA molecule distance between two bases is
(a) 2 nm/20 A
˙ (b) 0.2 nm/2 A
˙ (c) 3.4 nm/34 A
˙ (d) 0.34 nm/3.4 A
˙
75) Purine posses nitrogen at
(a) 1,2,4,6 position (b) 1,3,5,7 position (c) 1,3,7,9 position (d) 1,2,6 and 8th position
76) Which one is diaminodicarboxylic amino acid?
(a) Cystine (b) Lysine (c) Crsteine (d) Aspartic acid
77) Transposons are:
(a) house keeping genes (b) jumping genes (c) transporting genes (d) stationary genes
78) How many effective codons are there for the synthesis of twenty amino acids?
(a) 64 (b) 32 (c) 60 (d) 61
79) Which of the following is structural sub-unit of DNA
(a) Protein (b) Carbohydrate (c) RNA (d) Nucleotides
80) In lac operon i gene codes for:
(a) inducer of lac operon (b) repressor of lac operon (c) hydrolysis of disaccharide
(d) permease
81) Which one of the following have dual function? It codes for methionine and acts as
initiator codon
(a) AUG (b) AUC (c) ACU (d) ACA
82) A typical nucleosome contains
(a) 100bp of DNA helix (b) 200bp of DNA helix (c) 300bp of DNA helix
(d) 400bp of DNA helix
83) Which of the following sequence will be produced as a result of transcription of the DNA
sequence - CGATTACAG
(a) GCUAAUGUC (b) CGUAAUCUG (c) GCTAATGTC (d) GCUAATCTG
84) RNA polymerase II is responsible for transcription of

(a) rRNA (b) hnRNA (c) tRNA (d) snRNA
85) Nitrogenous bases present present in DNA
(a) Adenine Guanine Cytosine, Thiamine (b) Adenine Guanine Cytosine Uracil
(c) Adenine Thiamine Uracil (d) Guanine and Uracil
86) A nucleoside differs from a nucleotide in not having
(a) sugar (b) glucose (c) Nitrogen base (d) Phosphate group
87) If the total amount of adenine and thiamine in a double stranded DNA is 45%, the amount
of guanine in this DNA will be
(a) 22.5% (b) 27.5% (c) 45% (d) 55%
88) Okazaki is known for his contribution to the understanding of
(a) transcription (b) translation (c) DNA replication (d) mutation
89) Restriction endonucleases are enzymes which
(a) Remove nucleotides from ends of DNA molecule
(b) make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule
(c) recognise a specific nucleotide sequence for binding of DNA ligase
(d) restrict the action of enzyme DNA polymerase
90) Which one of the following palindromic base sequences in DNA can be easily cut at about
the middle by some particular restriction enzyme.
(a) 5' CACGTA 3';3' CTCAGT 5' (b) 5' CGTTCG 3';3' ATGGTA 5'
(c) 5' GATATC 3';3' CTACTA 5' (d) 5' GAATTC 3';CTTAAG 5'
91) Given below is a sample of a portion of DNA strand giving the base sequence on the
opposite strands. What is so special shown in it?
5'--------GAATTC--------3'
3'--------CTTAAG--------5'
(a) replication completed (b) deletion mutation (c) start codon at the 5' end
(d) palindromic sequence of base pairs
92) The unequivocal proof of DNA as the genetic material came from the studies on a
(a) bacterium (b) fungus (c) viroid (d) bacterial virus
93) In history of biology, human genome project led to the development of
(a) biotechnology (b) biomonitoring (c) bioinformatics (d) biosystematics
94) Which one of the following is not a part of a transcription unit in DNA?
(a) The inducer (b) A terminator (c) A promoter (d) The structural gene
95) Removal of RNA polymerase III from nucleoplasm will affect the synthesis of:
(a) tRNA (b) hn RNA (c) m RNA (d) r RNA
96) PCR and Restriction Fragment Length polymorphism are the methods for:
(a) Study of enzymes (b) Genetic transformation (c) DNA sequencing
(d) Genetic fingerprinting
97) Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesized in
(a) Lysosomes (b) Nucleolus (c) Nucleoplasm (d) Ribosomes
98) If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous base sequence as ATCTG, what would be the
complementary RNA strand sequence
(a) TTAGU (b) UAGAC (c) AACTG (d) ATCGU
99) A test cross is carried out to
(a) determine the genotype of a plant at F2 (b) predict whether two traits are linked
(c) assess the number of alleles of a gene
(d) determine whether two species or varieties will breed successfully
100) What is it that forms the basis of DNA fingerprinting?
(a) The relative proportions of purines and pyrimidines in DNA
(b) The relative difference in the DNA occurrence in blood, skin and saliva
(c) The relative amount of DNA in the ridge and grooves of the fingerprints
(d) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short DNA segments
101) Which one of the following represents a palindromic sequence in DNA?
(a) 5'-GAATTC-3' (b) 5'-CCAATG-3' (c) 5'-CATTAG-3' (d) 5'-GATACC-3'

3'-CTTAAG-5' 3'-GAATCC-5' 3'-GATAAC-5' 3'-CCTAAG-5'
102) Crick, one of the discoverer of DNA double helical structure, was the man of
(a) Physics (b) Chemistry (c) Zoology (d) Botany
103) The number of codons that code different amino acids is
(a) 16 (b) 31 (c) 61 (d) 64
104) Some amino acids are coded by more than one
(a) unambiguous (b) degenerate (c) universal (d) initiator
105) Out of 64 codons, the number of codons with GGG is

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 6
106) The DNA site where DNA dependent RNA polymerase binds for transcription, is called
(a) operator (b) promotor (c) regulator (d) receptor
107) Operon model for regulation of transcription was proposed by
(a) Meselson and Stahl (b) Jacob and Monod (c) Watson and Crick
(d) Hershey and Chase
108) Eukaryotic RNA polymerase III catalyses the synthesis of
(a) mRNA (b) rRNA (c) hnRNA (d) tRNA
109) The sequence of nitrogen bases in a segment of a coding strand of DNA is

AATGCTTAGGCA. What will be the sequence of nitrogen bases in the mRNA transcribed by
it?
(a) UUA CGA AUC CGU (b) AAU GCU AAC CGA (c) AAU GCA AUC CGU
(d) AAU GCU UAG GCA
110) In the lac operon of E.coli, the i gene codes for
(a) inducer (b) repressor (c) lactase (d) β -galactosidase
111) Which of the following sets of codons contains only termination codons ?
(a) UAA, UGA, UAG (b) UAA, UUU, UGG (c) UAA, UAG, UAC (d) UUU, UCC, UGG
112) The central dogma of molecular biology (genetic information flow) was modified by the
discovery of
(a) RNA polymerase (b) DNA ligase (c) Reverse transcriptase (d) DNA polymerase
113) The fact that a purine base always paired through hydrogen bonds with a pyrimidine
base leads to, in the DNA double helix
(a) the antiparallel nature (b) the semiconservative nature
(c) uniform width throughout DNA (d) uniform length in all DNA.
114) The promoter site and the terminator site for transcription are located at
(a) 3' (downstream) end and 5' (upstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit.
(b) 5' (upstream) end and 3' (downstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit.
(c) the 5' (upstream) end. (d) the 3' (downstream) end.
115) The net electric charge on DNA and histone, is
(a) positive, negative (b) negative, positive (c) negative, negative (d) positive, positive.
116) Match the terms in Column I with those in Column II.

Column I Column II
1. Aset of three
bases on tRNA
that is
A.
complementary
Transcription
to the bases of
codon on
mRNA.
2. A unit of DNA
B. Anticodon that codes
for a polypeptide.
3. Process of
synthesis of
C. Cistron polypeptide as
dictated
by mRNA.
4. Process by which
mRNA
carries the
D. Translation
information
from nucleus to
ribosomes

(a) A - 4, B-1, C - 2, D - 3 (b) A - 1, B-4, C - 2, D - 3 (c) A - 4, B-1, C - 3, D - 2
(d) A - 3, B-1, C - 2, D - 4
117) Match the codons in Column I with the amino acids in Column II.
Column I Column II
A. UUU I. Termination
8. AUG 2. Tyrosine
C. UAA 3. Phenylalanine
D. AGU 4. Methionine
E. UAC 5. Serine

(a) A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 5, E - 2 (b) A - 2, B - 4, C - 1, D - 5, E - 3
(c) A - 1, B - 4, C - 3, D - 5, E - 2 (d) A - 3, B - 1, C - 4, D - 5, E - 2
FILL UP 10 x 1 = 10
118) If the sequence of the nitrogen bases in the coding strand of DNA is 5'- ATGAATT'-3', the
sequence of bases in the RNA transcribed by it will be _____________.
119) _____ step in transcription is catalysed by the enzyme DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.

120) Lac operon shows the control of gene expression at the _________ level, in E.coli.
121) The enzyme DNA polymerase catalyses the polymerisation of nucleotides in the _________
direction, for the lagging strand.
122) The last chromosome to be completely sequenced in the Human Genome Project (HGP) is
_________.
123) RNA polymerase II in eukaryotes catalyses the transcription of __________.
124) The presence of group in every _________ ribonucleotide makes RNA labile and reactive.
125) Meselson and Stahl experimentally proved the _____ replication of DNA.
126) During splicing in eukaryotes, the ________ are joined to from the RNA.
127) _________factor functions as the initiation factor in the transcription of prokaryotes.

TRUE OR FALSE 5x1=5
128) Polycistronic mRNA is generaUy found in eukaryotes.
(a) True (b) False
129) The process of translation of mRNA begins, when the mRNA encounters the large subunit
of ribosome.
(a) True (b) False
130) VNTR belongs to a class of satellite DNA, called microsatellite.
(a) True (b) False
131) If a double-stranded DNA contains 20% cytosine, it will have 20% guanine in it.
(a) True (b) False
132) Termination / Stop codons do not have any tRNAs
(a) True (b) False
1 MARKS 265 x 1 = 265
133) How does the flow of genetic information in HIV deviate from the 'central dogma' proposed
by francis crick?
134) Which one out of Rho factor and sigma factor, acts as initiation factor during
transcription in prokaryote?
135) Which of the two subunits of ribosome encounters an mRNA?
136) Which one out of an intron and an exon,is the reminiscent of antiquity?
137) Which one is tailed with adenylate residue between 3' end and 5'end of hnRNA?
138) Name two basic amino acids that provide positive charge to histone proteins.
139) Mention the role of codons AUG and UGA during protein synthesis.
140) Mention the contribution of genetic maps in human genome project.
141) State which human chromosome has:

(i)the maximum number of genes and
(ii)the one which has the least number of genes
142) If the base adenine constitutes 30 per cent of an isolated DNA fragment, then what is the
expected percentage of the base cytosine in it?
143) Mention any two ways in which single nucleotide polymorphism (SNPs) identified in
human genome can bring out revolutionary changes in biological and medical sciences?
144) Mention two functions of the codon,AUG.
145) Name the enzyme involved in the continuous replication of DNA strand Mention the
polarity of the template strand.
146) How does HIV differ from a bacterio-phage?
147) Name the positively charged protein around which has negatively charged DNA is
wrapped.
148) Why is hnRNA required to undergo splicing?
149) Mention the two additional processings which hnRNA needs to undergo after splicing so
as to become functional.
150) When and at what end does the 'tailing' of hnRNA take place?
151) At which ends do 'capping' and 'tailing' of hnRNA occur, respectively?
152) How is the length of DNA usuallycalculated?
153) In an experiment DNA is treated with a compound which tends to place itself amongst
the stacks of nitrogenous base pairs. As a result of this the distance between two consecutive
base pairs increases from 0.34nm to 0.44 nm. Calculate the length of DNA double helix,
which has 2 x 109bp in the presence of saturating amount of this compound.
154) What would happen if histones were to be mutated and made rich in amino acids and
glutamic acid in place of basic amino acids such as lysine and arginine?
155) In some viruses DNA is synthesised using RNA template. What term is given to such a
DNA?
156) What will be the ratio of 15N/15N :15N/14N : 14N/14N containing DNAs,if Meselson and
Stahl experiment is cotinued for four generations in the bacteria?
157) Name of the two types of nuclieic acids in living systems.
158) What is the number of base pairs in the haploid genome of humans?
159) How is nitrogenous base attached to the pentose sugar in a nucleotide?
160) Name the two types of nitrogenous bases.
161) How is a nucleotide different from a nuclioside different from a nucleoside?
162) How are the consecutive nucleotides linked together in a polynucleotide strands?
163) What forms the backbone of a polynucleotide strand of a nucleic acid?
164) Write the other chemical name for thymine.
165) Who discovered the nucleic acid DNA? What was it called then?
166) Who provided the X-ray diffraction data of DNA for the proposal of double-helix model of
DNA?
167) Who proposed the double helical model of DNA?
168) State Chargaff's base complementarity rule.
169) The two strands of DNA have antiparallel polarity.What does it mean?
170) How are the two strands of DNA held together?
171) Why does the distance between the two polynucleotide strands of DNA remain almost
constant?
172) How many base pairs are present in one full turn of DNA helix?
173) What is the base pairing pattern of DNA?
174) What is the distance between consecutive base pairs in DNA?
175) What term is given to the flow of information from RNA to DNA (instead of from DNA to
RNA) in certain viruses?
176) What is the approximate length of DNA in a typical mammalian nucleus?
177) If the length of DNA of E.coli is 1.36 mm,calculate the number of base pairs in it.
178) What is nucleoid?
179) Some proteins are positively charged while some are negatively charged.What determines
the charge of the protein?
180) Name the amino acid residues the histones are present in a nucleosome?
181) How many molecules of histones are present in a nucleosome?
182) How many (approximately) base pairs are present in a nucleosome?
183) Define transformation
184) Name one organism where RNA is the genetic material.
185) Why do RNA viruses undergo mutation and evolution faster than most of the other
viruses?
186) Write the scientific name of the plant on which taylor et al performed their experiments.

187) When does DNA replicate in the cell cycle of eukaryotes?
188) How long does the replication of human DNA take place?
189) How many base pairs are polymerised by DNA polymerase in a second?
190) Specify the direction in which DNA-polymerase synthesises the polynucleotide.
191) Mention the role of DNA polymerase other than polymerising deoxyribonucleotides during
DNA synthesis.
192) In what direction is the leading strand synthesised during DNA synthesis?
193) In what direction does discontinuous synthesis of a DNA strand take place?Why?
194) Mention the polarity of the template DNA strand on which continuous synthesis of a new
strand of DNA take place.
195) What is origin of replication?
196) What is replication fork?
197) Name the enzyme which can do proof reading during DNA synthesis in bacterial cells.
198) Why are vectors needed for replication of DNA during rDNA technology?
199) Define transcription.
200) Name the property of DNA that governs transcription.
201) Name the process in which the unwanted mRNA regions are removed and the wanted
regions are joined.
202) What is the term used for the regions of a gene which become part of mRNA and code for
the different regions of proteins?
203) What do you call a non-coding intervening nucleotide sequences in a eukaryotic gene?
204) What is meant by hnRNA?
205) Who first suggested that codons are triplets?
206) How many nucleotides will there be in three codons? How many amino acids will this
number of bases code for?
207) While an mRNA strand is being translated in the ribosome subunit, the triplets in
sequence were UAC and UAG. One of them codes for tyrosine. What is the significance of the
other? Pick out the codons and specify.
208) Give the initiation codon for protein synthesis.Name the amino acid it codes for.
209) Due to an error during transcription ATG of DNA formed UAG in mRNA. What would
happen to the polypetide chain during translation by this changed mRNA?
210) How do the tRNA molecules appear in
(i)two-dimentional and
(ii)three-dimentional view?
211) Define translation
212) What are peptide bonds?
213) Name the cellular factory responsible for synthesis of proteins.
214) When does translation start?
215) Which is the site of control of gene expression in prokaryotes?
216) The accessibility of promoter region of prokaryotic DNA is often regulated by the
interaction of a protein with a certain sequence of DNA. What name is given to such a DNA
sequence?
217) Who proposed the operon concept?
218) What function does Beta galactosidase carry out?
219) Name the inducer of lac operon in E.coli.
220) What does the gene 'a' code for in the lac operon of E.coli?
221) When was the Human Genome Project launched and when was it completed?
222) Name the branch of biology that HGP is closely associated with.
223) Name two plants whose genomes have been sequenced
224) Who developed the principle/ method of automated DNA sequencer?
225) When was the sequencing of chromosome 1 completed?
226) Name the last of the human chromosome to be sequenced.
227) What percentage of human genome codes for proteins?
228) Write the number of genes found on chromosome 1 and y-chromosome respectively of
humans.
229) Who discovered the technique of DNA fingerprinting?
230)
A structural gene has two DNA strands X and Y shown above. Identify the template strand.
231) NAme the parts 'A' and 'B' of the transcription unit given below:

232) What is the function of histones in DNA packaging?
233) The enzyme DNA polymerase on E.coli is a DNA-dependent polymerase and also has the
ability to proof-read the DNA strand being synthesised. Explain. Discuss the dual
polymerase.
234) Given below is the sequences of the coding strand of DNA in a transcription unit 3'
AATGCAGCTATTAGG -5'. write the sequence of:
a) It's complementary strand
b)The mRNA.
235) Based on your understanding of genetic code, explain the formation of any abnormal
haemoglobin molecule. what are the known consequence of such a change?
236) Sometimes cattle or even human beings give birth to their young ones that are having
extremely different sets of organs like limbs/position of eye(s) etc. comment.
237) Name the enzymes involved in DNA replication other than DNA polymerase and ligase.
Name the key function for each of them.
238) Name any three viruses which have RNA as the genetic material
239) Name the genetic material for majority of organisms,
240) List the function of RNA.
241) How many nucleotides are present in a bacteriophage Φ × 174?
242) List the number of base pair in

(i) Lambda bacteriophage
(ii) E.coli and
(iii) Haploid content of human DNA
243) Comment two chains of DNA have antiparallel polarity
244) What is the length of DNA in a typical mammalian cell?
245) If the length of E-coli DNA is 1.36 nm, how many, base pairs are present in DNA.
246) How is DNA held by some proteins of cytoplasm in E.coli?
247) What is the difference between DNAs and DNAase?
248) Suggest one evidence to prove that RNA was first genetic material.
249) Why was RNA unstable?
250) What made DNA as genetic material
251) A process of replication is completed in how much time in human?
252) What is the averge rate of polymerization
253) Name three kinds of polymerases.
254) What is splicing?
255) How does development and differentiation of embryo take place to form adult at
molecular level?
256) Expand UTR.
257) Where are URTs present in mRNA stand?
258) Write significance of UTRs.
259) Name the technique which provided valuable information on the three-dimensional model
of DNA.
260) What is the diameter of double helix of DNA?
261) Write out the amino acid sequences that would be translated when the following mRNA
molecules combine with a ribosome:
(a) A-U-G-C-A-U-A-G-A-A-G-G-C-C-U-A-U-U-G-U-A
(B) C-A-U-G-U-U-U-C-U-U-U-A-A-A-G-G-U-C-G-U-U
262) Write out the mRNA sequence that would be transcribed from the following strand of
DNA, and the amino acid sequence that would be translated when the mRNA combines with
a ribosome
T-A-C-A-A-G-T-A-C-T-T-G-T-T-T-C-T-T
263) What are helicases?
264) Name the enzyme which one can break and reseal the strand of DNA.
265) What is the role of primase?
266) What are Okazaki fragments?
267) How many bases code for one amino acid?
268) What is codon?
269) Name any two non-sense codon.
270) Define Wobble position
271) During DNA replication used for 5'-3' strand and newly formed strand 3'-5' strand?
272) Name the components 'a' and 'b' in the nucleotide with a purine, given below
273) What are the raw materials for DNA synthesis?
274) Can DNA be synthesizes in vito?
275) Name the RNA that carries information about the sequence of amino acids in a
polypeptide.
276) What is the function of tRNA?
277) Give the site of protein synthesis.
278) What is an anticodon?
279) Name three nonsense codons
280) Name the enzyme that joins the short pieces in the "lagging strand" of DNA during
replication
281) Name the amino acids which have only one codon each
282) What is a genetic code?
283) The genetic code is nonoverlapping and degenerate.It is so?
284) Is there any base triplet that codes for more than one amino acid?
285) What are the two major functions of DNA?
286) A polypeptide of 600 amino acids will be coded for by a linear sequence of how many
bases in(a) nRNA and (b) DNA?
287) Of the 64 possible code triples,how many code for amino acids and how many for stop
signals?
288) Are there any base triplets that code for amino acids and also for start signals?Name
these
289) What is proof-reading in DNA synthesis?
290) Which base triplets code for the amino acid phenylalanine?
291) What is introns?
292) The amino acid arginine has 6 mRNA codons:CGU,CGC,CGA,CGG,AGA and AGG.Give
the DNA codons for it.
293) Who proposed the operon model?
294) Name the technique used for separating DNA fragments in the laboratory
295) How is the action of exonuclease different from that of endonuclease?
296) Name two sulphur containing and two basic amino acids.
297) What are histones?
298) What is nucleosome?
299) Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon.Such a genetic code is
300) The Structural gene in prokaryotes is polycistronic
301) F.Griffith conducted experiment with bacteriophages
302) One codon codes for only one amino acid.The genetic code is
303) VNTRs is an abbrevation of
304) In which direction are the leading and lagging strands synthesized during DNA
replication?Name the enzyme responsible for this process.
305) Name the types of synthesis 'a' and 'b' occurring in the replication fork of DNA as shown
below:

306) Write the function of rRNA.
307) What conclusion was drawn from the blender experiment performed by Hershey and
Chase?
308) Give below is a schematic representation of a lac operon in the absence of an
inducer.Identify A and B in it.

309) Mention the role of the codons Aug and AUG and UGA during protein synthesis.
310) Name the transcriptionally active region of chromatin in a nucleus.
311) In a nucleus, the number of ribonucleoside triphosphates is 10 times the number of

deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates, but only deoxyribonucleotides are added during the DNA
replication. Suggest a mechanism.
312) During in vitro synthesis of DNA, a researcher used 2',3' dideoxycytidine triphosphate as
raw nucleotide in place of 2'-deoxycytidine. What would be the consequence?
313) Mention the polarity of the DNA strands A-B and C-D shown in the replicating fork given
below.

314) Give the name of the type of synthesis A and B in the replication fork of DNA as shown
below.

315) What is a cistron?
316) Where does transcription and transcription occur in bacteria and eukaryotes
respectively?
317) Give an example of a codon having dual function.
318) Mention one difference to distinguish an exon from an intron
319) Suggest a technique to a researcher who needs to separate fragments of DNA.
320) According to de-Vries what is saltation?
321) Retroviruses have no DNA. However the DNA of the infected host cell does possess viral
DNA. How is it possible?
322) Name the enzyme that transcribes hn-RNA in eukaryotes.
323) Why is RNA more reactive in comparison to DNA?
324) Name the negatively charged and positively charged components of a nucleosome
325) Write the two specific codons that a translational unit of m-RNA is flanked by one on
either sides
326) Why is it not possible for an alien DNA to become a part of a chromosome anywhere
along its length and replicate normally?
327) How is repetitive/satellite DNA separafud from bulk genomic DNA for various genetic
experiments?
328) Name the specific components and the linkage between them that form deoxyadenosine.

329) Which one of an intron and an exon is the reminiscent of antiquity?
330) Mention two applications of DNA polymorphism.
331) State a method of cellular defense which works in all eukaryotic organisms.
332) PCR requires very high temperature conditions where most of the enzymes get denatured.
How was this problem resolved in a PCR ?
333) If total number of base pair is multiplied with distance between two consecutive bases,
length of DNA comes out to be appropriate 2.2 m .How is the packaging of DNA helix done in
a tiny nucleus of dimensions of approximately 10-6 m?
334) In Griffith experiment why Streptococcus pneumoniae with smooth shiny colonies(S-
strain) is virulent in nature. Explain stepwise the Griffith’s experiment?
335) How is the transforming principle explained by this experiment?
336) How Oswald Avery, Colin Macleod and Maclyn MC Corty while determining the
biochemical nature of transforming principle in Griffith’s experiment proved that DNA is the
heredity material?
337) Harshey & Chase selected radioactive 35S ,35P and decided to include the radiation
studies in their experiments. What was the logic behind this decision?
338) How could Harshey and Chase by their experimentation proved that it was not protein
but DNA from the virus entered the Bacteria. What did they conclude from their experiment?

339) State the qualities of a genetic material? Out of DNA & RNA, which one fulfills all the
prerequisites of being a genetic material and why?
340) RNA was the first genetic material. Justify the statement?
341) Why Meselson and Stahl grow E.coli in a medium containing 15 NH4Cl for many
generation. In which medium were they transferred later on? What were their observations?
Analyse their results to prove that DNA is Semi Conservative in Nature?
342) What will happen if a cell fails to divide after DNA replication? Name the main enzyme for
the process of replication. This enzyme catalyses polymerization only in one direction that is
5’- 3’. What happens due to this during replication? What is the role of DNA ligase and origin
of replication in DNA replication?
343) Give the scientific term for the process of copying genetic message from one strand of
DNA into RNA. Only one strand of DNA is used during transcription. Why?
344) i)The DNA strand with Polarity 3’-5’ acts as a template during transcription. Why?
ii) The other strand with polarity 5’- 3’ is called coding strand. Why?
345) In Arushi Murder Case the criminals could be identified with the help of special
Biotechnological procedure. Name the technique used and where is it carried out?
346) In a Forensic Laboratory, a scientist during his research stared cutting the nucleotide
polymer with the help scissor. Name the special type of scissor used by him and also the
material that was cut.
347) It is found that in the Transcription process the DNA strand with 3' →5' is always
transcribed.Why?
348) Where are UTRs located on m RNA ? Find out the UTRs from this segment of mRNA
-5' UCG AGC AUG CCC GCG UUU UAG GAG GAA 3'
349) What is the importance of Lactose in Lac-Operon?
350) What are the different attachment sites on t RNA?
351) Expand BAC and YAC . What for they are used?
352) What will happen if both template and coding strands of a DNA segment take part in the
transcription process?
353) Mention the two events when DNA is unzipped in a cell.
354) Name the chromosomes with highest and fewest number of genes.
355) Identifythe structure given below.

356) Who proposed the nucleosome model? State the function of rRNA.
357) During DNA synthesis in bacteria, which enzyme is required?
358) What will happen if DNA replication is not followed by cell division in a eukaryotic cell?
359) All terminater codons begin with nucleotide of which base?
360) State the sequence of structural gene in lac operon.
361) Given below is a statement state whether it as true or false. If false give reason.
Sequencing of whole genome with both the coding and non-coding regions is EST.
362) Why were protein discarded from being the genetic material?
363) Who discovered DNA as genetic material?
364) Name the strand which undergoes discontinuous replication.
365) Which one is removed during splicing-introns or exons?
366) Which was the last human chromosome to be completely sequenced?
367) Mention the number:

(a) bases in the DNA of phage, φ 174
(b) base pairs in the DNA of phages (λ)
368) How many hydrogen bonds are present between the A- T and G-C pairs, respectively?
369) Why is the enzyme DNA-polymerase called DNAdependent DNA-polymerase?
370) What is hnRNA?
371) Name the two types of nucleic acids in living systems.
372) In which position is the phosphate group linked to a nucleosid? Name the linkage too.
373) Mention the carbon positions to which the nitrogenous base and the phosphate molecule
are respectively linked in the nucleotide given below:

374) Mention the position of the ribonucleotide, where the OH group is present.
375) How may base pairs would a DNA segment of length 1.36 mm have?
376) What is a nucleoid?
377) Write the role of histone proteins in packaging of DNA in eukaryotes.
378) Write the conclusion Griffitb arrived at, at the end of his experiments with Streptococcus
pneumoniae.
379) What are bacteriopbages?
380) Name the enzyme and state its property that is responsible for continuous and
discontinuous replication of the two strands of a DNA molecule.
381) What is a replication fork?
382) Mention the direction in which:

(a) the leading strand is synthesised.
(b) discontinuous synthesis of DNA occurs.
383) Name the enzyme and the direction in which it catalyses the polymerisation of
ribonucleotides.
384) A region of a coding DNA strand has the following nucleotide sequence:
-ATGC-
What shall be the nucleotide sequence in
(i) sister DNA segment, it replicates, and
(ii) m-RNA polynucleotide it transcribes?
385) Write the function of RNA polymerase II.
386) What represents the dominance of RNA world?
387) Name the enzyme that is referred to as Ochoa enzyme.
388) Name one amino acid, which is coded by only one codon.
389) What is ribozyme?
390) Given below is a schematic representation of a lac operon in the absence of an inducer.
Identify 'a' and 'b' in it.

391) Name the free-living, non-pathogenic nematode, whose genome has been sequenced.
392) Why should the DNA be cut into smaller fragments for sequencing?
393) Name the scientist who developed the method to determine the sequence of amino acids
in proteins.
394) What formed the basis for assigning the genetic and physical maps on the human
genome?
395) Name the largest of the known human gene and the number of bases it contains.
396) (a) What per cent of human genome codes for proteins?
(b) What per cent of discovered gene's functions are unknown?
397) Mention how DNA polymorphism does arise in a population?
FIND ODD ONE 4x1=4
398) UAA, UGG, UAG, UGA
399) 5S rRNA, snRNA, hnRNA, tRNA
400) Har Gobind Khorana, Marshal Nirenberg, Severo Ochoa, Alec Jeffreys.
401) Promoter, Inducer, Operator, Terminator.

ASSERTION REASON 20 x 1 = 20
402) Assertion : The uptake of DNA during transformation is an active, energy requiring
process.
Reason: Transformation occurs in only those bacteria, which possess the enzymatic
machinery involved in the active uptake and recombination.
Codes :
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false
403) Assertion: R-type of Pneumococcus is non-virulent.
Reason: R-type of Pneumococcus can be virulent by having transformation with S - type of
Pneumococcus.
Codes :
404) Assertion: Adenine and guanine are double - ring bases.
Reason: Adenine and guanine are pyrimidines.
Codes :
405) Assertion: B-DNA has a constant diameter of 20 Â.
Reason: A pyrimidine always pairs with a purine.
Codes :
406) Assertion: Sequences of bases in one polynucleotide chain of DNA can determine the
sequence of bases in the other chain.
Reason: In a DNA, amount of adenine equals that of thymine and amount of guanine equals
that of cytosine, i.e., A = T and C = G.
Codes :
407) Assertion: Z-DNA follows a zig-zag course.
Reason: Z-DNA is left handed
Codes :
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
408) Assertion: The concept of one gene-one enzyme was changed to one gene-one
polypeptide.
Reason: Each enzyme may consist of two or more different polypeptides.
Codes :
409) Assertion: Core enzyme catalyses chain elongation of RNA.
Reason: The presence of sigma factor is required for initiation of transcription.
Codes :
410) Assertion: tRNA acts as an adapter molecule.
Reason: tRNA recognizes codon sequence of mRNA during translation.
Codes :
411) Assertion: The genetic code is degenerate.
Reason: For a particular amino acid more than one codons can be used.
Codes :
412) Assertion: Same tRNA can recognise more than one codons differing only at the third
position.
Reason : The specificity of a codon is particularly determined by the first two bases
Codes :
413) Assertion: The subunits of ribosomes come together only at the time of protein
formation.
Reason: Mg2+ causes their association or dissociation.
Codes :
414) Assertion: Initiation step of protein synthesis in prokaryotes and eukaryotes has several
differences.
Reason: They both form mRNA - tRNA complex with smaller subunit of ribosome.
Codes :
415) Assertion: UAA, UAG and UGA terminate protein synthesis.
Reason: They are not recognised by tRNA.
Codes :
416) Assertion: Ribosomes attached to endoplasmic reticulum release proteins into lumen of
ER.
Reason: Such proteins are used for formation of hydrolytic enzymes or are modified.
Codes :
417) Assertion: Constitutive genes are continuously being expressed.
Reason : Constitutive genes are frequently needed for various metabolic functions.
Codes :
418) Assertion: Synthesis of tryptophan is self regulatory.
Reason: Tryptophan works both as co-repressor and through feedback inhibition.
Codes :
419) Assertion: No lac mRNA is made in the presence of glucose.
Reason: In the presence of glucose and lactose activity of lac operon is not needed.
Codes :
420) Assertion: Lactose in lac operon is promoter gene.
Reason: Lactose inactivates the repressor gene.
Codes :
421) Assertion: Regulator and operator genes are not associated with constitutive genes.
Reason: Constitutive genes need not be repressed.
Codes :
CASE STUDY 25 x 4 = 100
422)
The diagram of a nucleosome is shown above.

(i) Identify the parts labeUed a, b, c and d in it.
(ii) Name the positively-charged and negatively charged components in it.
423)
Given above is the electron micrograph (EM) picture of 'beads-on-string'.

a) What do the 'beads' represent?
(b) What do they constitute in a eukaryotic nucleus? When does its maximum condensation
occur in a ceU?
(c) What is the function of non-histone chromosomal proteins in the nucleus?
424)
The Central dogma of molecular biology is shown above.

(a) Who proposed this?
(b) Identify the processes A, Band C in the above representation.
(c) Why is it not applicable to certain viruses?
425)
A DNA replication fork is shown above. Answer the following questions based on that.
(a) Identity the polarity of the strands a - b and c-d.
(b) Name the enzyme that catalyses the process.
(c) What are the newly synthesised strands A - B and C - D known as?
426)
A DNA replication fork is shown above. Answer the following questions based on that.
(i) Why does DNA replication occur in such small forks?
(ii) What is a synthesis and b synthesis?
(iii) Mention the polarity at A and B.
427)
A complete transcription unit is given above.

(a) Identify A, B, C and D in the figure.
(b) Name the enzyme that catalyses this process.
428)
A particular stage in the transcription of a bacterium is given above. Answer the following
questions:
(a) Name the stage in the process.
(b) Identify A, B, C, D and E in the diagram.
429)
A stage in the process of transcription in a prokaryote is shown above.

(a) Name the stage in transcription.
(b) Identify A and B in the diagram.
(c) Can this process be coupled to translation ? Justify your answer.
430) Given below is a sequence of steps in the transcription in a eukaryotic cell.
(a) Fill in the blanks 1, 2, 3 and 4.

(b) Why is splicing necessary?
431)
A hypothetical mRNA with 12 codons is shown above.

(a) How many amino acids will be coded by this? Justify your answer.
(b) Mention the dual functions of the codon, AUG.
432) Read the sequence of nucleotides in the given segment of mRNA and the sequence of
amino acids in the polypeptide translated by it.
Polypeptide: Met - Phe - Met - Pro - Val - Ser.

(a) Write the sequence of nucleotides in the template strand of DNA, along with its polarity,
from which this mRNA has been transcribed.
(b) If the three bases (shown by the arrow) are deleted, what will be the amino acid sequence
in the new polypeptide chain?
(c) What does the last codon (X) of this mRNA stand for?
433) A small stretch of DNA that codes for a polypeptide is given below:
3' ... CAT CAT AGA TGAAAC ... 5'
(a) Which type of mutation could have occurred in each type resulting in the following
mistakes during replication of the above original sequence?
(b) How many amino acids will be translated in each of the above two cases?
434) Study the following carefully and explain why mutation (A) did not cause any sickle cell
anaemia inspite of change in the molecular structure of the gene which codes for
Haemoglobin, whereas a similar mutation (B) did.
(The question is based on properties of the genetic code. c = codon, a = amino acid, Hb =
Haemoglobin).

435)
Given above are four amino acyl-tRNAs with their anticodons.

(a) Name the process by which the tRNA binds to the amino acid. Which end of the tRNA is
the amino acid bound to?
(b) Find the sequence oftheir binding to the mRNA transcribed by a template strand of DNA
having the base sequence as follows:
3' TAC CGT GAC GTC 5'.
(c) Write the sequence of bases on the mRNA transcribed.
436)
Lac operon in the 'switched on' position is shown above.

(a) Identify the molecule A and the enzymes B, C and D in the diagram.
(b) When will this operon get 'switched off'?
437) Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below:
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and ribonucleic acid (RNA) are the two types of nucleic acids
found in the living systems. DNA acts as the genetic material in most of the organisms.
Although RNA also acts as a genetic material in some organisms.
(i) In which of the following organisms, RNA acts as a genetic material?
(a)
(b) Qβ (c) Tobacco (d) Both
Escherichia
Bacteriophage Mosaic viruses (b) and (c)
coli
(ii) What is the reason for the additional stability of DNA in comparison to RNA?
(a) Presence of (b) Presence of (c) Presence of OH (d) Presence of
thymine uracil group deoxyribose sugar
(iii) Which of the following criteria a molecule must fulfill to act as a genetic material?
(b) It should be stable
(a) It should be able to generate its replica.
chemically and structurally
(c) It should be able to express itself in the
(d) All of these
form of Mendelian character.
(iv) Assertion: RNA is liable and easily degradable.
Reason: The 2'-OH group present at every nucleotide in RNA is a reactive group.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and (b) Both assertion and reason are tr
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. not the correct explanation of asse
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false. (d) Both assertion and reason are fa
(v) Read the given statement and select the option that correctly fill in the blanks.
Pyrimidines present in DNA are (i) and (ii) while pyrimidines present in RNA are (iii) and (iv) .
(a) (i)-Adenine, (iii)-Guanine, (iii)- (b) (i)-Cytosine, (ii)- Thymine, (iii) -
Cytosine, (iv) Thymin Cytosine, (iv)- Uracil
(c) (i)-Cytosine, (ii) -Uracil, (iii) - (d) (i) -Cytosine, (ii)- Uracil, (iii) -
Adenine, (iv)-Guanine Cytosine, (iv)- Thymine.

In prokaryotes, DNA is circular and present in the cytoplasm but in eukaryotes, DNA is linear
and mainly confined to the nucleus. DNA or deoxyribonucleic acid is a long polymer of
nucleotides. In 1953, the first correct double helical structure of DNA was worked out by
Watson and Crick. Based on the X-ray diffraction data produced by Maurice Wilkins and
Rosalind Franklin. It is composed of three components, i.e., A phosphate group, a
deoxyribose sugar and a nitrogenous base. Different forms of DNA are B-DNA, Z-DNA, A-
DNA, C-DNA and D-DNA.
(i) Name the linkage present between the nitrogen base and pentose sugar in DNA.
(a) Phosphodiester (b) Glycosidic (c) Hydrogen (d) None
bond bond bond of these
(ii) The double helix structure of DNA was proposed by
(a) James Watson and (b) Earwin (c) Federick (d) Hershey and
Francis Crick Chargaff Griffith Chase
(iii) The double chain of B-DNA is coiled in a helical fashion. The spiral twisting of B-DNA
duplex produces
(a) right and (b) major and (c) upper and (d) linear and
left part minor grooves lower sides circular part.
(iv) Assertion: The two strands of DNA helix have uniform distance between them.
Reason: A large sized purine always paired opposite to a small sized pyrimidine.
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. reason is not the correct explanati
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false. (d) Both assertion and reason are fa
(v) Which of the following describes the structure of B-DNA?
Number of
Polynucleotide base pairs
chains per complete
turn of helix
(a) Parallel 5
(b) Anti-parallel 10
(c) Parallel 15
(d) Anti-parallel 20

DNA replication is a complex multistep process that requires enzymes, protein factors and
metal ions. DNA replication in eukaryotes occurs in the nucleus during the S-phase of the
cell cycle. It is semidiscontinuous in eukaryotes. In prokaryotes, replication takes place in the
cytoplasm. DNA replication in bacteria occurs prior to fission. Nucleoid or viral chromosome
is a single molecule of nucleic acid, it may be linear of circular. Nucleic acid in a virus is
either DNA or RNA but never both.
(i) In viral DNA, how many origin of replication are present?
(a) Single (b) Twice (c) Multiple (d) None
(ii) Select the main enzyme involved in DNA replication.
(a) DNA (b) DNA dependent (c) (d)
ligase DNA polymerase Topoisomerase Helicase
(iii) Read the given statement and select the option that correctly fill in the blanks. Enzyme (i)
acts over the Ori site and unwinds the two strands of DNA by destroying (ii) bonds.
(a) (i)- Helicase, (ii) (b) (i)- Helicase, (ii)- (c) (i)- Unwindase, (ii)- (d) (i)- Unwindase,
Glycosidic Hydrogen Phospho diester Glycosidic
(iv) DNA strand, built up of Okazaki fragments is called
(a) lagging (b) leading (c) complementary (d) parental
strand strand strand strand.
Select the incorrect statement, about DNA polymerase in eukaryotes.
(a) Polymerase α is required for (b) When the RNA primer gets removed the gap is fill
initiation of replication. DNA polymerase β in eukaryotes.
(c) Polymerase ε helps in elongation (d) Polymerase ઠ is largest and main enzyme for DNA
of lagging strand. replication in eukaryotes.

The process of copying genetic information from template strand of DNA into RNA is called
transcription. It is mediated by RNA polymerase. Transcription takes place in the nucleus of
eukaryotic cells. In transcription, only a segment of DNA and only one of the strands is
copied into RNA.
(i) What are regions of transcription unit in a DNA molecule?
(a) (b) Structural (c) (d) All of
Promoter gene Terminator these
(ii) Monocistronic structural genes are found in which organisms?
(a) (b) (c) (d)
Prokaryotes Bacteria Viruses Eukaryotes
(iii) Which enzyme helps in tailing or polyadenylation?
(a) Poly-A (b) (c) RNA (d) RNA
polymerase Exonucleases polymerase I polymerase II
(iv) Assertion: A single RNA polymerase in prokaryotes synthesis all types of RNAs.
Reason: Prokaryotic RNA polymerase has sigma (σ) factor .
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason (b) Both assertion and reason are tr
is the correct explanation of assertion. but reason is not the correct explan
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false (d) Both assertion and reason are fa
(v) Read the given list of materials.
1. RNA polymerase enzyme
2. DNA template
3. RNA primers
4. Okazaki segments
5. Four types of ribonucleotides triphosphates
6. Divalent metal ions Mg2+ as a cofactor.
Which of the above given materials are required for transcription?
(a) (1), (2), (3) (b) (1), (2), (3), (5) (c) (1), (2), (5) (d) All of
and (4) and (6) and (6) these

441) Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below :
Translation is the process of polymerisation of amino acids to form a polypeptide. The order
and sequence of amino acids are defined by the sequence bases in the mRNA. The amino
acids are joined by a bond called peptide bond. Ribosome is the site of protein synthesis.
(i) Which ion is essential for association of both units of ribosome at the time of protein
formation ?
(a) Mg2+ (b) Mn2+ (c) Cl- (d) Ca2+
(ii) During translation, how many initiation factors are required in eukaryotes for initiation
reactions?
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 9
(iii) Which part of mRNA contains untranslated regions (UTR)?
(a) 3' (b) 5' (c) Either 3' or 5' (d) Both 5' end and 3'
end end end end
(iv) Name the enzyme that helps in combining amino acid to its particular tRNA.
(a) Activating (b) Amino-acyl (c) Peptidyl (d) Both
enzyme tRNA-synthetase transferase (a) and (b)
(v) From the given list, select the translation machinery.
1. mRNA
2. Ribosomes
3. Amino acids
4. tRNAs
5. Peptidyl transferase
6. Amino acyl tRNA synthetase
7. Pyrophosphatase
(a) (1), (2), (3), (4) (b) (1), (2), (3), (4) (c) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) (d) (1), (2), (3), (4), (5),
and (6) and (5) and (6) (6) and (7)

The process of translation requires transfer of genetic information from a polymer of
nucleotides to synthesise a polymer of amino acids. The relationship between the sequence of
amino acids in a polypeptide and nucleotide sequence of DNA or mRNA is called genetic code.
George Gamow suggested that in order to code for all the 20 amino acids, code should be
made up of three nucleotides.
(i) What is a codon?
(b) A part of the tRNA mole
(a) A length of DNA which codes for a particular protein
specific amino acid is attac
(c) A part of the tRNA molecule which recognises the (d) A part of the messenger
triplet code on the messenger RNA. a sequence of bases coding
(ii) Three consecutive bases in the DNA molecule provide the code for each amino acid in a
protein molecule. What is the maximum number of different triplets that could occurs ?
(a) 16 (b) 20 (c) 24 (d) 64
(iii) Listed below are some amino acids and their corresponding mRNA triplets.
Amino acid mRNA triplet
Phenylalanine UUU
Lysine AAG
Arginine CGA
Alanine GCA
Which DNA sequence would be needed to produce the following polypeptide sequence?
Alanine- Arginine- Lysine- Phenylalanine
(a) CGT GCT TTC AAA(b) CGT GCT TTC TTT(c) CGU GCU UUC AAA(d) CGU GCU UUC TTT
(iv) Identify the non-sense codons among the following.
(a) AUG (b) GUG (c) UAA (d) UGG
(v) A polypeptide is made using synthetic mRNA molecules as shown.
Synthetic mRNA
Polypeptide produced
used
Phenylalanine-lysine-
UUUAAAUUUAAA
phenylalanine-lysine
What are the DNA codes for the amino acids phenylalanine and lysine?
Phenylalanine Lysine
(a) AAA TTT
(b) AAA UUU
(c) GGG CCC
(d) TTT GGG

Mutation explains the relationship between gene and DNA. The effects oflarge deletions and
rearrangement in a segment of DNA results in loss or gain of gene and its function. Insertion
or deletion of one or two bases changes the reading frame from the point of insertion or
deletion. A classical example of point mutation is a change of single base pair in the gene for
beta.globin chain that results in change of amino acid residue glutamate to valine and results
into a diseased condition called sickle cell anaemia.
(i) A mutation is a change produced by an alteration in the genetic mechanism and
(a) may arise (b) is always induced by (c) is never (d) is not
spontaneously the environment advantageous inherited.
(ii) The DNA code for glutamic acid is CTC or CTT. The code for valine is CAA or CAT. In
sickle cell haemoglobin, valine is present instead of glutamic acid.
Assuming a single base pair substitution has occurred, what is the mRNA code in the
affected mutant?
(a) CUU (b) GAA (c) GAG (d) GUA
(iii) A mutation involving the substitution of one nitrogenous base for another has altered the
base sequence of a DNA molecule, coding for four amino acids, as shown below.
Normal A-G-C-A- T-G-G-A- T-C-C- T
Mutant A-G-C-A-T-G-C-A-T-C-C-T
The table shows six codons and the corresponding amino acids into which each is translated.
mRNA codon Amino acid
AAG Lysine
CUA Leucine
GGA Glycine
GUA Valine
UAC Tyrosine
UCG Serine
The mutation has changed the amino acid
(a) leucine (b) lysine to (c) serine to (d) tyrosine to
to valine glycine leucine lysine.
(iv) Assertion: Insertion or deletion of three or its multiple bases, insert or delete one or
multiple codons and so one or multiple amino acids.
Reason: Reading frame remains unaltered with insertion or deletion of three or its multiple
bases.
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. reason is not the correct explanati
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false (d) Both assertion and reason are fa
(v) Part of the amino acid sequences in normal and sickle cell haemoglobin are shown.
Normal Sickle cell
haemoglobin haemoglobin
Thr- Pro-Glu-
Thr- Pro- Val-Glu
Glu
mRNA codons for these amino acids are
Glutamine (Glu) GAA GAG
Prpline (Pro) CCU CCC
Threonine (Thr) ACU ACC
Valine (Val) GUA GUG
Which transfer RNA molecule is involved in the formation of this part of the sickle cell
haemoglobin?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)

444) Read the following and answer any four questions from (i) to (v) given below :
Gene regulation is the mechanism of switching off and switching on of the genes depending
upon the requirement of cells and the state of development. Gene regulation is of two types :
negative and positive. In negative gene regulation the genes continue expressing their effect
till their activity is suppressed. Positive gene regulation is the one in which the genes remain
non -expressed unless and until they are induced to do it. Operon model is a co-ordinated
group of genes such as structural gene, operator gene, promoter gene, regulator gene which
function together and regulate a metabolic pathway as a unit, e.g., lac operon, trp operon,
ara operon, etc.
(i) Regulation of gene' expression occurs at the level of
(d)
(a) (b) (c)
all of
transcriptionprocessing/splicingtranslation
these
(ii) Inducible operon system usually occurs in A pathways. Nutrient molecules serve as B to
stimulate production of the enzymes necessary for their breakdown. Genes for inducible
operon are usually switched C and the repressor is synthesised in an D form.
A B C D
(a) anabolic corepressor on inactive
(b) anabolic inducer off active
(c) catabolic inducer off active
(d) catabolic corepressor on inactive
(iii) An mRNA molecule transcribed from the lac operon contains nucleotide sequences
complementary to
a) structural genes coding (b) the operator (c) the promotor (d) the
for the enzymes region region repressor gene.
(iv) Which statement correctly describes the control of transcription of the genes involved in
the breakdown of lactose in Escherichia coli?
(a) A repressor protein binds to the operator and the (b) A repressor protein binds to the o
genes are switched on the genes are switched off
(c) A transcription factor binds to the promoter and (d) A transcription factor binds to the
the genes are switched on. the genes are switched off.
(v) Function of catabolic activator protein in lac operon is
a) to form (b) help to bind RNA (c) code for (d) to activates lac gene when
mRNA polymerase repressor glucose is absent.

DNA fingerprinting is a technique of determining nucleotide sequences of certain areas of
DNA which are unique to each individual. Each person has a unique DNA fingerprint. Each
fingerprint is the same for every cell, tissue and organ of a person. DNA fingerprinting is the
basis of paternity testing in case of disputes.
(i) The technique developed to identify a person with the help of DNA restriction analysis is
known as
(a) DNA (b) DNA (c) (d) both (a)
profiling fingerprinting RFLP and (b).
(ii) For DNA fingerprinting, DNA is obtained from
(a) (b) hair root (c) (d) all of
blood cells semen these.
(iii) During DNA fingerprinting, the radioactive probes
(a) hybridise with DNA sample to form double
(b) degrade the DNA
stranded structure
(d) cut the DNA sample at
(c) create positive charge on DNA
various sites.
(iv) In India, DNA fingerprinting technique was developed by
(a) Dr. Lalji (b) Alec (c) Dr. (d) none of
Singh Jeffreys Khorana these
(v) Which of the following is true about DNA fingerprinting?
(b) DNA samples are loaded on aga
(a) VNTR is used as probe.
gel electrophoresis
(c) It is based on identification of nucleotide sequence
(d) All of these
present on the DNA molecule.

RNA or ribonucleic acid is a single chain polyribonucleotide which functions as carrier of
coded genetic or hereditary information from DNA to cytoplasm for taking part in protein and
enzyme synthesis. Six types of RNAs are ribosomal, transfer, messenger, genomic, small
nuclear and small cytoplasmic RNA. Out of these, rRNA, mRNA and tRNA are major classes
of RNAs that are involved in gene expression.
(i) Which one is referred to a soluble RNA?
(a) mRNA (b) tRNA (c) rRNA (d) hnRNA.
(ii) The RNA that picks up specific amino acid from amino acid pool in the cytoplasm to
ribosome during protein synthesis is
(a) rRNA (b) hnRNA (c) mRNA (d) tRNA.
(iii) Which of the following is found in both DNA and messenger RNA ?
(a) Double helix (b) (c) Sugar- (d)
structure Ribose phosphate chain Thymine
(iv) Which of the following statements regarding RNA is correct ?
(a) Messenger RNAs carries coded information (b) Ribosomal RNAs bind with tRNA to cata
for synthesis of polypeptide formation of phosphodiester bonds
(c) Genomic RNA is always single stranded. (d) Synthesis of rRNA occurs in cytoplasm
(v) In studying a virus, you find the following proportions of nitrogenous bases present:
adenine 23%, guanine 37%, cytosine 23% uracil 17%. Which of the following statement(s)
regarding this virus is/are correct?
I. It probably uses RNA as its genetic material.
II. The genetic material of this virus is probably single stranded.
III. Base pairing rules in virus in this virus include adenine: cytosine
(a) I (b) I and II (c) II and III (d) All of
only only only these

*****************************************
MCQ
117 x 1 = 117
1) (a) Transposons
2) (b) TACGAACT
3) (c) Meselson and Stahl
4) (a) 5' ------>3' direction continuously
5) (c) Reverse transcription
6) (b) 61
7) (a) 2
8) (c) 3
9) (a) Gene synthesis
10) (b) One gene codes for one polypeptide
11) (c) 3
12) (d) Restriction endonuclease-genetic engineering
13) (a) AUG
14) (d) Only one type
15) (c) Protein
16) (b) Nitrogenous base + sugar + phospate
17) (c) Both of the above
18) (a) RNA ligase
19) (c) Promoter
20) (a) Degeneracy of codons
21) (b) tRNA
22) (b) One gene produces one enzyme
23) (d) RNA primers are involved
24) (b) UAUGC
25) (a) Polytene chromosome
26) (a) regulator gene
27) (d) UUA, UUG, CUU, CUC, CUA and CUG
28) (c) UAG, UGA, UAA
29) (b) Antiparallel
30) (c) TATA
31) (a) Reverse transcriptase
32) (b) Anticodon
33) (c) Initiation codon
34) (d) Okazaki segments
35) (d) Semi conservative DNA replication
36) (a) 3.3x109bp
37) (e) adcb
38) (c) Polymorphism in sequence
39) (c) C-DNA
40) (b) There are two strands which run antiparallel one in 5' 3' direction and other in 3' 5'
→ →
41) (d) UAG, UGA-stop

42) (a) Haploid set of chromosomes
43) (c) 3
44) (b) Exons
45) (b) 5'→3'
46) (c) Codons
47) (c) The opposite direction of the two strands
48) (d) A codon in mRNA is read in a non-contiguous fashion
49) (d) Splicing
50) (b) Nirenberg and Mathaei
51) (c) chromosome1 and Y
52) (d) Meselson and Stahl
53) (b) (b) Remove/Replace 3' OH group in deoxyribose
54) (b) DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerisation only in one direction ( 5'→3')
55) (b) Elongation
56) (b) Transcription
57) (d) They can act both as activators and as repressors
58) (a) Chromosome 1
59) (d) All of the above
60) (b) it is single stranded DNA
61) (d) 0:1:7
62) (a) 5' - A U G A A U G - 3'
63) (c) the structural gene and the terminators regions
64) (b) 5' - CAU -3'
65) (b) 3' - end
66) (a) The smaller ribosomal sub-unit
67) (a) lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
68) (c) ambiguous
69) (c) one nucleotide with other nucleotide
70) (b) one regulatory and 3 structural genes
71) (c) DNA-topoisomerase
72) (a) UAA codon codes for lysine
73) (c) a radio-actively labelled single stranded DNA molecule
74) (d) 0.34 nm/3.4
˙
A
75) (c) 1,3,7,9 position

76) (a) Cystine
77) (b) jumping genes
78) (d) 61
79) (d) Nucleotides
80) (b) repressor of lac operon
81) (a) AUG
82) (b) 200bp of DNA helix
83) (a) GCUAAUGUC
84) (b) hnRNA
85) (a) Adenine Guanine Cytosine, Thiamine
86) (d) Phosphate group
87) (c) 45%
88) (c) DNA replication
89) (b) make cuts at specific positions within the DNA molecule
90) (d) 5' GAATTC 3';CTTAAG 5'
91) (d) palindromic sequence of base pairs
92) (d) bacterial virus
93) (c) bioinformatics
94) (a) The inducer
95) (a) tRNA
96) (d) Genetic fingerprinting
97) (b) Nucleolus
98) (b) UAGAC
99) (a) determine the genotype of a plant at F2
100) (d) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short DNA segments
101) (a) 5'-GAATTC-3' 3'-CTTAAG-5'
102) (a) Physics
103) (c) 61
104) (b) degenerate
105) (a) 1
106) (b) promotor
107) (b) Jacob and Monod
108) (d) tRNA
109) (d) AAU GCU UAG GCA
110) (b) repressor
111) (a) UAA, UGA, UAG
112) (c) Reverse transcriptase
113) (c) uniform width throughout DNA
114) (b) 5' (upstream) end and 3' (downstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit.
115) (b) negative, positive
116) (a) A - 4, B-1, C - 2, D - 3
117) (a) A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 5, E - 2
FILL UP 10 x 1 = 10
118) 3' AUGAAUU 5'
119) Elongation.
120) Transcription.
121) 5'⇾ 3'
122) Chromosome I
123) hnRNA.
124) 2'-OH.
125) Semiconservative .
126) Exons.
127) Sigma (σ)
TRUE OR FALSE 5x1=5
128) False
129) False
130) False
131) True
132) True
1 MARKS 265 x 1 = 265
133) HIV shows reverse transcription i.e.formation of DNA or RNA template.
134) Sigma factor
135) Small subunit
136) Introns
137) 3' end
138) Lysine and Arginine
139) AUG codes for methionine and it is the initiation codon.
140) Genetic maps are used as a starting point in the sequencing of whole genomes.
141) (i)Chromosome 1 (ii)Y-chromosome
142) 20 per cent
143) (i)By finding chromosomal locations for disease-associated sequences (ii)By tracing human
history
144) (i) AUG codes for amino acid methionine (ii) It is the initiation codon i.e initiates translation
145) DNA polymerase Template strand has 3' -> 5' polarity.
146) HIV has RNA as its genome while bacteriophage has double-atranded DNA as its genome.
147) Histone
148) Since hnRNA ha sboth exons (coding sequences) and introns (non-coding sequences) it has
to undergo splicing.
149) Capping and tailing.
150) Tailing takes place after splicing.It occures at the 3' end.
151) Capping occurs at the 5' end Tailing occures at the 3' end.
152) Length of DNA is calculated as the (i) number of nucleotides in single-stranded DNA and (ii)
number of pairs of nucleotides (base pair) in double-stranded DNA.
153) Length of DNA = 2 X 109 X 0.44 X 10-9 nm.
154) If acidic amino acids replace the basic amino acids, the histone will become negatively
charged; so it may not have a role in packaging of DNA and hence no nucleosome or chromatin
fibre will be formed.
155) Complementary DNA (cDNA)
156) 15N/15N O :15N/14N 2 : 14N/14N 14
157) Deoxyribonucleic acid and ribonucleic acid.
158) 3.3 x 109 base pairs.
159) By N-glycosidic linkage.
160) Purine bases and Pyrimidine bases.
161) A nucliotide has a phosphate along with the pentose sugar and nitrogenous base; a
nucleoside has only the pentose sugar and nitrogenous base.
162) Consecutive nucleotides are attached through 3'-5' phosphodiester linkage.
163) Pentose sugar and phosphate
164) 5' methyl uracil.
165) Frederich Meischer discovered DNA. It was called
166) James Watson and Francis Crick
167) James Watson and Francis Crick
168) For a double-stranded DNA the ratios between adenine and thymine and guanine and
cytosine are constant and equal to one.
169) It means that one of the strands of DNA has 5' -> 3' polarity and the other strand has 3' -> 5'
polarity.
170) The two strands are held together by weak hydrogen bonds.
171) The pairing of a purine base with a pyrimidine base generates approximately uniform distance
between the two strands of the helix.
172) Ten base pair.
173) A purine pairs with a pyrimidine adenine with thymine and guanine with cytosine.
174) 0.34 nm
175) Reverse transcription
176) 2.2 metres
177) 4.6 x 106 bp
178) Nucleoid is the region in prokaryotic cells where DNA is held with some positively charged
proteins.
179) The charge of the proteins depends on the abuddance of amino acid residues with charged
side chains.
180) Lysines and arginines.
181) Eight molecules.
182) 200 base pairs.
183) Transformationis is a phenomenon by which the DNA isolated from one type of cell,when
introduced into another type is able to bestow some of the properties of the former to the latter.
184) Tobacco mosaic virus.
185) The 2' OH-group in the nucleotides of RNA is a ractive group, that makes RNA labile and
easily degradable.
186) Vicia faba
187) DNA replicates in S-phase of interphase.
188) 38 minutes.
189) 2000 bp
190) 5' -> 3'
191) It removes any wrong base that is added durig synthesis of new strands.
192) 5' -> 3'
193) 5' -> 3'
194) 3' -> 5'
195) Origin of replication is the definite region of DNA,Where the replication originates.
196) Replication fork is the Y-shaped structure formed when the double-stranded DNA is
unwound up to a point during its replication.
197) DNA polymerase.
198) The vector provides the origin of replication.
199) Transcription is the process of formation of RNA from DNA.
200) Complementarity of bases.
201) Splicing.
202) Exons
203) Introns
204) The precursor of mRNA or the primary transcript trancribed by RNA polymerase II, is called
heterogenous nuclear RNA.
205) George Gamow
206) Nine bases.They code for amino acid, methionine.
207) UAG is a termination codon;the translation is terminated.
208) AUG; it codes for amino acid,methionine.
209) The translation would be terminated.
210) (i)Clover leaf-like (ii)An inverted L-shaped
211) Translation is the process of polymerisation of amino acids to form a polypeptide as dictated
by the mRNA.
212) peptide bonds are the bonds formed between the corboxyl group of one amino acid and the
amino group of the next amino acid.
213) Ribosome
214) When the small subunit of ribosome encounters the mRNA translation begins
215) Control of the rate of transcriptional initiation.
216) Operator.
217) Francois Jacob and Jaeque Monod.
218) Beta galactosidase catalyses the hygrolysis of lactose into glucose and galactose.
219) Lactose
220) Gene a codes for transacetylase.
221) HGP was launched in 1990 and it was completed in 2003.
222) Bioinformatics.
223) Rice and Arabidopsis.
224) Frederick Sanger.
225) It was completed in May 2006.
226) Chromosome 1
227) Less than 2 per cent
228) Chromosome 1-2968 genes Y-chromosome -231 genes.
229) Alec Jeffreys.
230) Y
231) DNA- ligase
232) Eight molecules of histones (paired ) join to form an octamer, on
which the negatively charged DNA becomes wrapped around to form a nucleosome: Thus very
H 2 A, H 2 B, H3 , H4
long DNA molecules can be accommodated within the nucleus. protein acts as a linker
between two adjacent nucleosomes.
H1
233) (i) The DNA polymerase catalyses the addition of nucleotides, i.e. polymerization of
nucleotides to form a DNA strand in the 5' -3' direction only (ii) In prokaryotes, It removes any
wrong base added to the DNA strand being synthesised.
234) a) 5'-TTACGTCGATAATCC-3' B) 3'-AAUGCAGCUAUAGG-5'
235) A single codon mutation from GAG to GUG at sixth position of haemoglobin - chain gene
changes the amino acid, glutamic acid to valine. change in the nucleotide type and sequence
β
results in the formation of changed haemoglobin, e.g., sickle cell anaemia. valine builds
hydrophobic bonds under the condition of oxygen stress. This causes distortion of haemoglobin
structure that is lethal in homozygous state and produces sickle cell anaemia in heterozygous
condition
236) The gene controlling organ differentiation must have undergone mutation.
237) Helicases - Unwinding of the two strands Topoisomerases - cut and reseal one of the
strands of DNA during unwinding of the two strands. Primase - Catalyses the formation of a
primer to add on the nucleotides.
238) Tabacco mosaic virus, (TMV), human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), wound tumour virus
239) DNA (Deoxyribose nucleic acid)
240) RNA act as genetic material in viruses and also functions as adapter, structural and in some
cases as a catalytic molecule
241) 5386
242) (i) 48502 bp (ii) 4.6 × 10 bp (iii) 3.3
8
bp
× 10
9
243) If one chain has 5' -3' polarity, the other chain has 3' -5' polarity
244) 9
6.6 × 10 bp × 0.34 × 10
−9
m/bb = Approximately 2.2 metres
245) 4.6 × 10 bp

8
.
246) DNA is negatively charged and is held in by positively charged protein.
247) DNAs are number of molecule of DNA and DNAase is an enzyme which digest DNA
248) RNA used to act as genetic material as well as catalyst as essential life process evolved
around RNA
249) RNA being a catalyst was reactive thus unstable.
250) As RNA was unstable, with the certain chemical modification, DNA became more stable
251) 38 Minutes
252) 2000 bp per second.
253) 1. RNA polymerase I 2. RNA polymerase II 3. RNA polymerase III
254) It is removal of introns and joining of exons in a definite manner
255) It is due to coordinated regulation of expression of set of genes..
256) UTR Untranslated region
257) URTs present in both 5' end (before start codon) and of 3' end (after stop signal).
258) They are required for efficient translation process
259) X-ray crystallography.
260) 2 nanometers
261) (a) Met-His-Arg-Arg-Pro_Ila-Val (b) His-Val-Ser-Leu-Lys_Val_Val
262) mRNA: A-U-G--U--U-C-A-U-G-A-A-C-A-A-A-G-A-A Amino acid sequence. Met-Phe-Met-
Asn-Lye-Ghi
263) Helicases are enzymes which unwind the DNA helix during replication
264) Topoisomerases are enzymes. It plays an important role in replication of DNA
265) Enzyme primase polymerises the Rna building block into primer
266) They are short DNA fragments formed on DNA strands during replication of DNA
267) Three bases code for one amino acid
268) A base triplet on mRNA chain which code for one amino acid.
269) (i) UGA (ii) UAA
270) Wobble position, Third base position on a codon is referred to as wobble position
271) 5'-3' = leading strand New strand = lagging strand
272) (a) Phosphate.
(b) Adenine.
273) Deoxyribonucleoside monophosphates

274) Yes
275) mRNA
276) To carry appropriate amino acids to mRNA codons
277) Ribosomes
278) A base triplet at the recognition end of tRNA molecule
279) UAA,UAG and UGA
280) Ligase
281) Methionine and tryptophan
282) The sequence of base triplets in DNA molecule
283) Yes
284) No
285) Replication and expression of genetic information in the form of polypeptides
286) (a) 1800, (b) 1800.
287) 61,3
288) Yes,AUG and GUG
289) Replacing the wrong bases added during replication to DNA with correct ones by
cooperation of nuclease, DNA polymerase and ligage enzyme
290) UUC,UUC.
291) Non-coding nucleotide sequences in a eukaryotic gene,not represented in mRNAs
292) GCA,GCG,GCT,GCC,TCT and TCC
293) Jacob and Monod.
294) The technique used for separating DNA fragments in the laboratory is-Agarose gel
electrophoresis
295) Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the end of DNA whereas endonucleases make cuts
at specific positions within the DNA
296) Sulphur containing amino acids:Methionine,Crsteine;Basic amino acids:Lysine,Arginine
297) Histones are a set of positively charged basic proteins associated with DNA helix
298) The complex structure consisting of negatively charged DNA wrapped around the positively
charged histone octomer(the core practile) is called nucleosome
299) degenerate code
300) True
301) False
302) nonambiguous
303) Variable number tandem repeats
304) 5'---->3',5'----->3',DNA polymerse
305) Synthesis 'a' is continuous(3'--->5') and synthesis 'b' is discontinuous(5'--->3')
306) tRNA translation, it picks up that reads the genetic code and binds to specific amino
acids.During translation, it picks up acids from the cellular pool and takes it to the site of mRNA,
where these amino acids are incorporated into the polypeptide chain.
307) The conclusion drawn was that the genetic material that is passed from virus to virus to
bacteria mentioned in transforming principle, was DNA not proteins.
308) A - Repressor protein B - Repressor bound to the operator it prevents transcription of
structural genes.
309) AUG Acts initiation codon and codes for amino termination acid methionine.UGA Acts as
stop or termination codon.
310) Enchromatin.
311) DNA polymerase enzyme is highly specific to recognise only deoxyribonucleoside
triphosphates(dNTPs). Therefore, it cannot hold ribo nucleosides.
312) Futher polymerisation would not occur, as the 3'OH on sugar is not there to add a new
nucleotide for forming ester bond.
313) A-B is 3' 5' and C-D is 5' 3'.
→ →
314) A-Continuous synthesis, B-Discontinuous synthesis

315) A segment of DNA that codes for a polypeptide.
316) In bacteria, both processes occur in cytoplasm as there is no nucleus. In eukaryotes,
transcription occurs in nucleus, while translation occurs in the cytoplasm. (i) Stacking of one
base pair over other. (ii) H-bond between nitrogenous bases.
317) AUG performs a dual function. It codes for methionine (Met) and works as an initiator codon.
318) Exon : Coded/expressed sequence of nucleotides in mRNA. Intron: Intervening sequence of
m;ucleotides not appearing inprocessed mRNA.
319) The DNA fragments can be separated by agarose agarose gel electrophoresis.
320) Single step (large) mutation.
321) RNA is the genetic material in retrovirus. This RNA forms DNA by the process of reverse
transcription with the help of the enzyms is called reversetranscriptase.
322) RNA Polymerase II.
323) 2-OH Present in RNA(in every nucleotide) make it reactive
324) Negatively charged component is DNA, positively charged component is histone octamer
325) Start codon -AUG Stop codon - UAA/UGA/UAG
326) This DNA must be linked to ori/origin of replication site to start replication.
327) Density gradient centrifugation
328) Components: Nitrogen base Adenine (Apurine) + Deoxyribose sugar. Linkage: N-Glycosidic
linkage [C - N - C]
329) The presence of introns is reminiscent of antiquity.
330) Genetic mapping & DNA-finger printing
331) RNA interference (RNA) is a biological process in which RNA molecules inhibit gene
expression or translation by neutralizing targetted mRNA molecules.
332) The use of a thermostable DNA polymerase Thermus aquaticus which remain active during
the high temperature induced denaturation of double stranded DNA.
333) Negatively charged DNA is wrapped around positively changed histone protein octamer to
form nucleosome each containing 200 bp. Nucleosomes are the reapting units of chromatin
which are packed to form chromatin fibers which are further coiled & condensed to form
chromosome.
334) S-strain have mucous coat which protect it in host body & help it to cause disease. Refer
NCERT book for details of Griffith’s experiment.
335) The conversion of non-pathogenic living R-strain into living pathogenic S-strain indicates
that some thing( transforming factors) have been passed from S- to R- strain.
336) They used DNAses, Proteases & RNAses & found that proteases & RNAses did not affect
transformation but DNAses when applied to heat killed S-strain did inhibit transformation of
living R-strain to S-strain.
337) ‘S*’ is an important constituent of protein & is not found in DNA where as ‘P*’ is an important
constituent of DNA not found in protein.
338) Explanation of the experiment & Conclusion from the experimental result.
339) Able to replicate, chemically & structurally stable, scope for mutation, able to express itself in
the form of Mendelian characters. DNA the genetic material. As –OH functional group at 2`
position of deoxy-ribose in RNA is a reactive group making RNA labile & easily degradable,
presence of Uralic instead of thiamine in RNA more ability of RNA to mutation.
340) Codes for protein synthesis, DNA is dependent on RNA for its synthesis etc.
341) To get an E coli with all its nitrogen as heavy isotope. 14 NH4Cl Observation & conclusion of
the experiment
342) Polyploidy 1. DNA dependant DNA polymerase. 2. Replication of one strand is continuous
while on the other it is discontinuous. 3. Discontinuous fragments are joined by DNA ligase
343) Transcription. If both are copied they would code for m-RNA molecules with different
sequences hence different proteins will be formed from same DNA sequence. If two strands of
m-RNA are produced simultaneously they would coil being complementary to each other.
344) i) DNA dependant RNA polymerase catalyses the polymerization in 5`- 3` direction. ii) It has
sequence same as m-RNA which contains the codes.
345) DNA finger printing –main steps. Forensic laboratory.
346) Restriction endo-nuclease, DNA.
347) As RNA polymerase can work only in 5' 3' direction.
→
348) UT‘s are present at both 5'-end (before start codon) and at3'–end (after stop codon). UCG,
AGC,GAG &GAA.
349) It induces Lac- Operon by binding with repressor protein.
350) Amino acid, anticodon, enzyme and ribosome attachment sites.
351) BAC- Bacterial artificial chromosome , YAC- Yeast artificial chromosome.
352) If both the stands take part in transcription (1) one segment of DNA Would be coding for two
different proteins which will complicate the genetic information machinery. (2)Two RNA
molecules will be produced, complementary to each other, hence form a double stranded RNA.
353) Replication and Transcription
354) Chromosome 1 and Y chromosome.
355) The structure is a nucleotide called uridylic acid.
356) Roger Kornberg proposed nucleosome model rRNA plays structural and catalytic role during
translation.
357) RNA-dependent DNA polymerase.
358) If cell division is not followed after DNA replication then replicated chromosomes (DNA)
would not be distributed to daughter nuclei. A repeated replication of DNA without any cell
division results in the accumulation of DNA inside the cell. This would increase the volume of the
cell nucleus, thereby causing cell expansion.
359) Uracil 'U'.
360) p, i, z, y, a.
361) False.ESTs are short sequence of cDNA.They are used to identify all the genes that are
expressed as RNA. The statement given here represents sequence annotation.
362) Proteins are not able to replicate itself.
363) Hershey and Chase.
364) Lagging strand (3'➝ 5').
365) Introns.
366) Chromosome-1.
367) (a) 5386 nucleotides. (b) 48502 base pairs
368) A - T - Two, G - C - Three.
369) Because it polymerises the nucleotides in a DNA template dependent manner.
370) hnRNA is the precursor of mRNA transcribed by RNA polymerasell in eukaryotes.
371) Deoxyribonucleic acid and ribonucleic acid.
372) 1. A phosphate group is linked to the 5' -OH of a nucleoside. 2. Phosphoester linkage
373) (i) Nitrogenous base at the first carbon. (ii) Phosphate at the fifth carbon.
374) The OH-group is present at the 2'-position.
375) It will have 1.36/0.34 x 10-9 bp, i.e., 4.6 x 106 bp.
376) Nucleoid is the region in prokaryotic cells where DNA is organised as large loops held by
some positively charged proteins.
377) (i) Histone proteins are positively/charged and are organized to from a unit of eight
molecules, called a histone octamer, (ii) The negatively charged Dl\!A molecule (of about 200 bp)
wraps around the histone octamer to form a nucleosome, the repeating unit of chromatin.
378) (i) Griffith concluded that the R strain/non-virulent bacteria had been transformed into
virulent form b.y. the heat-killed S strain bacteria . (ii) It must be due to transfer of a transforming
principle, i.e., genetic material from the heat-killed S strain bacteria.
379) Bacteriophages are those viruses which infect the bacteria.
380) DNA-polymerase It polymerises the nucleotides only in 5' ⇾ 3' direction.
381) Replication fork is the V-shaped structure formed when the double-stranded DNA is
unwound up to a point during its replication.
382) (a) 5' ➝ 3'. (b) 5' ➝ 3'.
383) (i) DNA-dependent RNA-polymerase. (ii) 5' ➝ 3' direction.
384) (i) T A C G (ii) A U G C
385) It transcribes hnRNA, the precursor of mRNA, in eukaryotes.
386) The process of splicing.
387) Polynucleotide phosphorylase.
388) Methionine, Tryptophan.
389) The 23S rRNA in bacteria is called ribozyme, which catalyses the peptide bond formation.
390) 'a' - Repressor 'b' - Operator.
391) Caenorhabditis elegans.
392) DNA is a giant molecule and there are technical limitations in sequencing very long segments
of DNA; hence DNA has to be cut into smaller fragments.
393) Frederick Sanger.
394) (i) Information on polymorphism of restriction endonuclease recognition sites. (ii) Some
repetitive DNA sequences, called microsatellites.
395) Dystrophin, it contains 2.4 million bases.
396) (a) Less than 2 per cent (b) About 50 per cent.
397) DNA polymorphism arises through mutations.
FIND ODD ONE 4x1=4
398) UGG
399) hnRNA
400) Alec Jeffreys.
401) Inducer.
ASSERTION REASON 20 x 1 = 20
402) (b): Transformation does not involve passive entry of DNA molecules through permeable cell
walls and membranes. It does not occur 'naturally' in all species of bacteria, only in those species
possessing the enzymatic machinery involved in the active 'uptake and recombination
processes. Even in these species, all cells in a given population are not capable of active uptake
of DNA. Only competent cells: which possess a so - called competence factor are capable of
serving as recipients in transformation.
403) (b): Transformation is the change in the genetic constitution of an organism by picking up
genes present in the environment. Pneumococcus has two strains - virulent (S) and non-virulent
(R). The virulent strain causes pneumonia. R-type bacteria form irregular or rough colonies and
did not produce any disease while the S-type bacteria cause pneumonia and then death in the
mice. Griffith injected a combination of live R-type and heat killed S-type bacteria into mice.
While some mice survived, others developed the disease of pneumonia and died. Autopsy of the
dead mice showed that they possessed both the types of bacteria in living state though the mice
had been injected with dead virulent and living non-virulent bacteria. The occurrence ofliving S-
type virulent bacteria is possible only by their formation from R-type non-virulent bacteria which
pick up the trait of virulence from dead bacteria. The phenomenon is called transformation.
404) (c): The bases of nucleic acids are of two types (i) pyrimidines and (ii) purines. Adenine and
guanine are double-ring bases called purines; cytosine, thymine and uracil are single - ring bases
called pyrimidines.
405) (a): B-DNA is a helical structure with diameter of 20 Â. If pairing occurs between two
purines, it would need too much space and if pairing occurs between two pyrimidines, it would
occupy too little space. The constancy of DNA diameter is maintained only when a pyrimidine
always pairs with a purine
406) (b): Although A = T and C = G, there is no any restriction or sequence of bases in one
polynucleotide chain. Since A is always linked to T and C to G as determined from the above
evidences, sequence of bases in one of polynucleotide should determine the sequence of bases
in the other polynucleotide of the double helix.
407) (b): Z-DNA is left-handed double helix with zig-zag back - bone, alternate purine and
pyrimidine bases, single turn of 45 Â length with 12 base pairs and a single groove. Due to a
different arrangement of molecules within Z - DNA polymer, phosphate backbone follows a zig-
zag course, while in B - DNA it is regular. In Z - DNA, sugar residues have alternating orientation
so that the repeating unit is a dinucleotide.
408) (a): In 1948, Beadle and Tatum proposed that a gene controls the synthesis of one enzyme.
But, many enzymes, as well as the haemoglobins were shown to consist of two or more different
polypeptide chains and each polypeptide was found to be the product of a separate gene.
Tryptophan synthetase of E. coli, for example, contains an - polypeptide, the product of the trp
A gene and a - polypeptide, the product of the gene. It was necessary, therefore, to change
α
the concept of one gene-one enzyme to one gene-one polypeptide.

β β
409) (b): The "core' enzyme which catalyses covalent chain extension, consists of two a -
polypeptides (each of molecular weight about 41,000), one S - polypeptide ( molecular weight
about 155,000) one S'-polypeptide (molecular weight about 165,000) and one ro-polypeptide
(molecular weight about 12,000). The "holoenzyme" contains in addition, a -polypeptide
(molecular weight about 95,000). The presence of the sigma factor is required for initiation at the
proper transcription initiation (or promoter) sites. After each RNA chain - initiation event, sigma is
released and the core enzyme catalyses chain elongation.
410) (b): t-RNA is an adaptor molecule because it adapts amino acid to bring it to protein
synthesis site in activated form and not because it recognises the codon on mRNA.
411) (a): For a particular amino acid, more than one codons can be used. This phenomenon is
described by saying that the code is degenerate. A non - degenerate code would be one where
there is one to one relationship between amino acids and the codons, so that 44 codons out of
64, will be useless or nonsense codons. However, there are no nonsense codons. The codons
which were earlier called nonsense codons are also known to mean stop signals.
412) (a): It has been shown, for instance that the same tRNA can recognise more than one codons
differing only at the third position. This pairing is not very stable and is allowed due to wobbling
in base pairing at this third position. This kind of wobbling allows economy of the number of
tRNA molecules, since several codons meant for same amino acid are recognised by same tRNA.
For instance, anticodon CGC can recognise codons GCU, GCC and GCA.
413) (b): During protein synthesis, two subunits of ribosomes associate. Mg2+ is essential for it.
Soon after the completion of protein synthesis, the subunits separate. The phenomenon is called
dissociation.
414) (b): The differences between initiation step of protein synthesis in eukaryotes and
prokaryotes are:
(i) In prokaryotes initiation factors are three - IF1, IF2 and IF3. Eukaryotes have at least ten
initiation factors - elF1, eIF2, e1F3, eIF4A, eIF4B, eIF4C, eIF4D, eIF4F, elF5 and e1F6.
(ii) In eukaryotes, formylation of methionine does not take place. In prokaryotes tRNA is charged
with formylated methionine.
(iii) The larger subunit of ribosome .combines with 40 S - mRNA - tRNAMet (in case of
prokaryotes, 30 S) complex to form intact ribosome. It requires initiation factor IF1 in prokaryotes
and factors elF1, elF4 (A, B, C) in eukaryotes.
415) (a): Synthesis of polypeptide terminates when a nonsense codon of mRNA reaches the A -
site. There are three nonsense codons - UAA, UAG and UGA. These codons are not recognised
by any of the tRNAs. Therefore, no more aminoacyl tRNA reaches the A - site. The P - site tRNA
is hydrolysed and the completed polypeptide is released in the presence of release factor. Thus
termination occurs.
416) (b): Polyribosomes attached to membranes of endoplasmic reticulum produce proteins which
either pass into their lumen or become integrated into the membranes. The proteins released
into the lumen generally reach Golgi apparatus for modifications like formation of hydrolytic
enzymes and glycosylation (addition of sugar residues). The modified proteins are packed in
vesicles for export or formation of lysosomes, cell wall enzymes, plasma membrane, etc.
417) (a): Certain gene-products, such as tRNA molecules, rRNA molecules, ribosomal proteins,
RNA polymerase components (polypeptides) and other enzymes catalysing metabolic processes
that are frequently referred to as cellular "housekeeping" functions, are essential components of
almost all living cells. Genes that specify products of this type are continually being expressed in
most cells. Such genes are said to be expressed constitutively and are frequently referred to as
constitutive genes.
418) (a): Tryptophan regulates its own active synthesis by regulating the expression of its gene
via feedback mechanism and also by acting as corepressor which attaches with repressor
proteins produced by regulator gene and blocking the promotor gene site thus blocking m-RNA
synthesis and further steps.
It is thus obvious that the synthesis of tryptophan is self regulatory, since it, when present in
plenty, work firstly by feedback inhibition, and secondly through co- repression to stop further
synthesis of tryptophan.
419) (a): The function of -galactosidase enzyme in lactose metabolism is to form glucose by
cleaving lactose. Thus if both glucose and lactose are present in the growth medium, activity of
β
lac operon is not needed, and indeed, no -galactosidase is formed until virtually all of the
glucose in the culture medium is consumed. The lack of synthesis of -galactosidase is a result
β
of lack of synthesis of lac mRNA. No lac mRNA is made in the presence of glucose, because in
β
addition of an inducer to inactivate the lac i repressor, another element (cAMP-CAP) is needed
for initiating lac mRNA synthesis, the activity of this element is regulated by the concentration of
glucose. However, the inhibitory effect of glucose on expression of lac operon is quite indirect.
420) (d): Lactose is not a promotor gene but an inducer of lac operon as it combines with
repressor protein formed by repressor or regulatory gene and not the gene itself. The inducer
joins the repressor, forming a repressor-inducer complex. This complex prevents the repressor
from binding with the operator gene of the operon. This frees the operator gene so that the RNA
polymerase can move from the promoter to the structural genes.
The structural genes are then transcribed, forming a piece of polycistronic mRNA. The latter is
transcribed by tRNA and ribosomes into enzymes.
421) (a): Regulator gene controls the operator gene in cooperation with a chemical compound
called inducer present in the cytoplasm. The regulation gene codes for and produce a protein
substance called repressor. The repressor substance combines with the operator gene to
repress its function. Therefore it is called regulator gene.
The constitutive genes keep on functioning all the time. They need not be repressed. Therefore,
the regulator and operator genes are not associated with them.
CASE STUDY 25 x 4 = 100
422) (i) a - Histone octamer
b - DNA
c - H1 histone
d - Core of histone molecules.
(ii) (a) Positively-charged component-Histone.
(b) Negatively-charged component-DNA.
423) (a) The beads represent the nuc\eosomes.
(b) (i) They constitute the repeating units of chromatin.
(ii) The chromatin fibres are condensed maximum at metaphase of cell division.
(c) Non-histone chromosomal proteins are involved in the packaging of chromatin at higher
levels.
424) (a) Francis Crick proposed this.
(b) A - Replication (of D A)
B - Transcription
C - Translation
(c) In some viruses (retroviruses), the flow of information is in reverse direction, i.e., from RNA to
DNA catalysed by enzyme, reverse transcriptase; hence, it is not applicable to these viruses.
425) (a) Strand a - b - 3' - 5'
Strand c - b - 5' - 3'
(b) DNA-dependent DNA-polymerase.
(c) (i) Strand A-8 is called leading strand.
(ii) Strand C-D is called lagging strand.
426) (i) Replication of DNA occurs in small replication forks, because DNA is such a long molecule
that the separation of the two strands along its entire length requires a very high amount of
energy.
(ii) a - Continuous synthesis.
b - Discontinuous synthesis
(iii) A - 5'
B-3'.
427) (a) A - Template strand of DNA.
B - Coding strand of DNA.
C - Promoter
D - Terminator
(b) DNA-dependent RNA-poJymerase.
428) (a) 'Termination of transcription.
(b) A - Template strand of DNA.
B - Coding strand of DNA.
C - RNA synthesised
D - RNA-polymerase
E - rho (p) factor.
429) (a) Initiation step in transcription.
(b) A - RNA polymerase.
B - Sigma ( ) factor.
(c) Yes, this process can be coupled to translation because
σ
(i) the RNA synthesised does not require any processing to become active.
(ii) both transcription and translation occur in the cytosol, as there is no distinct nucleus and
cytosol in prokaryotes.
430) (a) 1. RNA polymerase II
2. hn (RNA)
3. m (RNA)
4. Adenylate residues, 200-300.
431) (a) 11 amino acids will be coded, as the last codon is a termination codon that does not code
for any amino acid.
(b) Dual functions of AVG:
(i) It acts as the initiation codon for translation.
·(ii) It codes for the amino acid, methionine.
432) (a) 3' TAC AAA TAC GGA CAA AGA ATT 5'
(b) Met - Phe - Met - Pro - Ser.
(c) X stands for termination codon.
433) (a) (i) Point mutation.
(i) There is a single base change (substitution) in the last triplet AAC to ATe.
(ii) Point mutation
(i) A single base (c) is deleted from the second triplet; hence, the reading frame shifts from that
point, i.e., frameshift-deletion mutation.
(b) Four amino acids will be coded by each of the above two strands.
434) Mutation A
(i) The mutated codon, GAG also codes for the same amino acid, glutamic acid; hence, there is
no change in the structure of haemoglobin.
(ii) It is because genetic code is degenerate, i.e., some amino acids are coded by more than one
codon.
Mutation B
(i) The mutated codon, GUG codes for valine; hence, there is change in the structure of
haemoglobin.
(ii) It is because genetic code is unambiguous and specific, i.e., one codon codes only for a
particular amino acid.
435) (a) (i) Amino acylation or charging of tRNA.
(ii) 3' end of tRNA.
(b)a-c-b-d.
(c)5' AUG GCA CUG CAG 3'.
436) (a) A -Repressor
B -galactosidase
C-Permease
D -Transacetylase.
(b) It will get 'switched off' when
(i) the substrate/inducer lactose is not available
(ii) the energy source, glucose is available to the cells.
437) (i) (d): DNA is the genetic material in E. coli. RNA is the genetic material in Tobacco Mosaic
virus and Q bacteriophage.
(ii) (a): The presence of thymine in DNA at the place of uracil which is present in RNA provides
β
additional stability to DNA.

(iii) (d)
(iv) (a)
(v) (b): Purines present in DNA and RNA are adenine and guanine, while pyrimidines present in
DNA are cytosine and thymine and pyrimidines present in RNA are cytosine and uracil.
438) (i) (b): In DNA the nitrogenous base and a pentose sugar joins to form nucleoside with the
help of bond called glycosidic bond or N-glycosidic linkage.
(ii) (a): The correct structure of DNA was first worked out by James Watson and Francis Crick in
1953. Their double-helix model of DNA structure was based on two major investigations, i.e.,
Chargaff's rules of base i'airing and study of X-ray diffraction pattern of DNA produced by
Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin which helped Watson and Crick to design the 3-
dimensional structure of DNA.
(iii) (b): Due to spiral twisting, the B-DNA duplex comes to have two types of alternate grooves,
i.e., majo: (length 22 Â) and minor (length 12 Â).
(iv) (a)
(v) (b): The double helical chains of B-DNA are bound to each other via hydrogen bonds in an
antiparallel fashion, i.e., 5'-3' in one and 3'-5' in other. The pitch of helix per turn is 3.4 nm with
10 base pairs in each turn.
439) (i) (a) :Replication begins at a particular spot called origin of replication or ori. Bacterial and
viral DNA has a single origin of replication. It functions as a single replicating unit or replicon.
(ii) (b): A large number of enzymes are required for DNA replication. DNA-dependent DNA
polymerase is the main enzyme which takes part in combining deoxyribose nucleotides to form
new DNA strands.
(iii) (b)
(iv) (a): Lagging strand is a replicated strand of DNA which is formed in short segments called
Okazaki fragments. Its growth is discontinuous.
(v) (d): DNA Polymerase ex is the largest and main enzyme for replication in eukaryotes.
440) (i) (d)
(ii) (d): Monocistronic structural gene carries information for synthesis of one polypeptide chain.
They are mostly found in eukaryotes.
(iii) (a) : Tailing or polyadenylation is addition of a poly-A tail at 3' end of hn mRNA with the help
of poly-A polymerase. The poly-A tail contains adenate residues (about 200-300 residues).
Polyadenylation is thought to protect the 3' end from degradation by exonucleases.
(iv) (b)
(v) (c): RNA primer and Okazaki segments are not needed in transcription.
441) (i) (a) :The two subunits of ribosomes come together at the time of protein formation. This
phenomenon is called association. Mg2+ is essential for it.
(ii) (d): Eukaryotes have nine initiation factors- elf2, elf3, elfl, elf4A, elf4B, elf4C, elf4D, elf5,elf6.
(iii) (d): An mRNA molecule has some additional sequences that are not translated and are called
untranslated regions (UTR). The UTRs are present at both 5' end (before start codon) and at 3'-
end (after stop codon). They are required for efficient translation process.
(iv) (d): Amino-acyl tRNA-synthetase is also called aa-activating enzyme.
(v) (a): Enzyme peptidyl transferase is component of larger subunit of ribosome. It catalyses two
principal chemical reaction - peptide bond formation and peptide release. Enzyme
pyrophosphatase hydrolyses pyrophosphate and provides energy for driving the initial reaction
of activating amino acids.
442) (i) (d): Codon is complementary to a triplet of templet strand. It is found in mRNA. Anticodon
is complementary to a codon it occurs in tRNA.
(ii) (d) : The triplet code consists of three of the four nucleotide bases - A, C, G or T. Thus the
maximum number of codon is 43 = 64.
(iii) (b): The complementary bases of GCA-CGAAAG- UUU are CGT-GCT-TTC-AAA on the DNA
strand.
(iv) (c): AUG and GUG are initiation codon which codes for methionine and valine respectively:
UGG codes for tryptophan. UAA (ochre) is a termination codon.
(v) (a): The triplet codon of phenylalanine (UUU) ")Willbase pair with AAA in the DNA molecule
and that oflysine (AAA) will base pair with TTT.
443) (i) (a): A mutation is a change in the DNA that changes the physiological effect of the DNA
on the cell. Such phenomenon may be caused by radiation, chemical carcinogens or may occur
spontaneously.
(ii) (d): Since a single base pair substitution has caused this mutation, the original codon for
glutamic acid must have been CTT, and the mutant codon is CAT. The mRNA code for this
mutant is hence GUA, i.e., complementary to CAT.
(iii) (a): The segment coding for GAT on the normal DNA molecule has been transcribed into CUA
in the mRNA molecule, therefore the mutant DNA strand CAT will be transcribed into GUA on the
mRNA molecule. This implies a change from the amino acid leucine to valine.
(iv) (b) :
(v) (b): CAU in tRNA is the only one that can compliment the valine in the sickle cell
haemoglobin.
444) (i) (d) : Regulation of gene expression can be exerted at four levels : transcriptional level
during formation of primary transcript, processing like splicing, terminal additions or
modifications, transport of mRNAs from nucleus to the cytoplasm and translational level.
(ii) (c)
(iii) (a): Only the structural genes of an operon are transcribed into mRNA molecule. Structural
gene is a region of DNA that codes for a protein or RNA molecule that forms part of a structure
or has an enzymatic function. In the case of lac operon, the structural genes are lac Z, lac Y, lac
A which codes for -galactosidase, lac permease and -galactoside transacetylase respectively.
(iv) (b): The lac operon consists of :
β β
Promoter: binding site of RNA polymerase

Operator: binding site of the lac repressor protein
CAP Binding Site: binding site of catabolite activator protein.
3 structural genes: lac Z, lac Yand lac A.
When lac repressor protein is synthesised in its active conformation, it binds to the operator and
the operon is switched off, so there is no transcription.
(v) (d)
445) (i) (d)
(ii) (d): For DNA fingerprinting, DNA is obtained from blood, semen, hair roots, tissue samples,
nuclei of white blood cells or of spermatozoa, body secretions, etc.
(iii) (a) : In DNA fingerprinting, during hybridisation the bands are flooded with single stranded
radioactive DNA probe. This single stranded DNA probe and sample DNA hybridise to form
double stranded structure due to natural affinity.
(iv) (a): In India, DNA fingerprinting technique was developed by Dr. Lalji Singh.
(v) (d)
446) (i) (b): tRNA is also referred to as soluble RNA (sRNA) because it cannot be easily separated
even by ultra centrifugation technique.
(ii) (d): tRNA carries specific type of amino acid at CCA end to the ribosome during protein
synthesis. It places the required amino acid properly in the sequence and translates the coded
message of mRNA in terms of amino acids.
(iii) (c) : The double helix structure is only found in DNA. Ribose is only found in mRNA, DNA has
deoxyribose sugar instead. Thymine is found only in DNA, uracil replaces thymine in mRNA. Only
the sugar-phosphate backbone is found common in both.
(iv) (a): Ribosomal RNA is made in the nucleus. Ribosomal RNA binds with proteins to form large
and small ribosomal subunits which combine to form ribosomes in the cytoplasm. Genomic RNA
may be single stranded or double stranded. It is fragmented in influenza virus. Synthesis of rRNA
occur in nucleolus.
(v) (b): Uracil is present in this virus. So, RNA is the genetic material. The genetic material is not
double stranded as the percentage of guanine and cytosine are not equal. Bases do not pair in
single stranded viruses.

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Ravi Maths Tuition Centre

12TH CBSE Molecular Basic Of Inheritance MCQ

Exam Time : 00:01:00 Hrs Total Marks : 1

MCQ 117 x 1 = 117

1) Jumping genes given by Barbara Mclintock are also called

(a) Transposons (b) Mutons (c) Cistrons (d) Vectors

(a) TAGGTAGT (b) TACGAACT (c) TACGTACT (d) TCCGAACT

3) That the mode of DNA replication is semiconservative was demonstrated by

4) In DNA replication, leading strand replicates in

5) Temin and Baltimore are associated with the discovery of

6) How many codons code for amino acids?

(a) 64 (b) 61 (c) 68 (d) 60

7) How many base pairs are present in DNA cut by endonuclease

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

9) Hargobind Khorana got Nobel Prize for

(d) Discovery of transposons

10) "One gene-one enzyme" hypothesis state that

(a) 62 (b) 61 (c) 3 (d) 1

12) The correctly matched pair is

(a) Okazaki fragments-splicing (b) RNA polymerase-RNA primer

(c) Central dogma_codon (d) Restriction endonuclease-genetic engineering

13) Initiator (starting) codon in eukaryotes is

(a) AUG (b) AAG (c) CCU (d) GGC

14) DNA polymerase that helps in DNA replication is of

15) One of these is not prepared directly from DNA

(a) Another DNA (b) mRNA (c) Protein (d) rRNA

(a) Nitrogenous base + Sugar (b) Nitrogenous base + sugar + phospate

(c) Sugar + phosphate (d) Nitrogenous base + phosphate

17) Intrinsic flow of information means

19) Which of the following is important for transcriptiom?

(a) Degeneracy of codons (b) Overlapping of codons (c) Redundancy of codons

(d) Ambiguous nature of codons

21) Anticodon site is located on

(a) DNA (b) tRNA (c) rRNA (d) mRNA

(c) Many genes produce one enzyme (d) None of these

(c) moves in bi-directional way (d) RNA primers are involved

(a) TCTGG (b) UAUGC (c) UATGC (d) TATGC

25) Balbiani rings are found in

(a) Polytene chromosome (b) dicot stems (c) lambrush chromosome

(d) all chromosomes

26) A gene of operon which synthesizes a repressor protein is

(e) AAC, AAG, GAC and CGG

29) The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are

(a) Discontinuous (b) Antiparallel (c) Semiconservative (d) Parallel

(a) AATT (b) CACC (c) TATA (d) TTAA

31) Central dogma of genetic information is modified by the discovery of

32) tRNA consisting of three unpaired bases constitute

33) The codon AUG is

(d) Okazaki segments

35) Meselson and Stahl experiment proved

(a) DNA is genetic material (b) Central dogma (c) Transformation

(d) Semi conservative DNA replication (e) Transduction

36) The haploid content of human DNA is

38) The basic of DNA fingerprinting is

(d) DNA replication (e) DNA coiling

(a) A-DNA (b) B-DNA (c) C-DNA (d) Z-DNA

40) In the DNA molecule