Test Exam CDMP - Studyexam 3 Marzo 2022

Questions & Answers PDF P-1
Dama
DMF-1220 Exam
Data Management Fundamentals
https://www.study4exam.com
Product Questions: 486

Version: 4.0
Question: 1
The most informal enterprise data model is the most detailed data architecture design document.
A.TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 2
The goal of data architecture is to:
A. Serve as a platform to enable data governance and management

B. Bridge between business strategy and technology execution
C. Provide the organisation with clear system of the architecture
D. Make the integration between data management and data analytics possible
Answer: B
Question: 3
Data architects facilitate alignment between [1] and [2]
A. [1] Business and [2] IT

B. [1] Technology and [2] Data
C. [1] Governance and [2] Management
D. [1] Strategy and [2] Execution
Answer: A
Question: 4
A goal of data architecture is to identify data storage and processing requirements.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 5
The deliverables in the data architecture context diagram include:
A. Data flows
B. Enterprise data
C. Implementation roadmap
D. Data Value Chains
E. None of the above
F. All of the above
Answer: F
Question: 6
The purpose of enterprise application architecture is to describe the structure and functionality of
applications in an enterprise.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 7
The dependencies of enterprise technology architecture are that it acts on specified data according
to business requirements.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 8
The roles associated with enterprise data architecture are data architect, data modellers and data
stewards.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 9
The Zachman Framweork’s communication interrogative columns provides guidance on defining

enterprise architecture. Please select answer(s) that is(are) coupled correctly:
A. What -> The inventory Column

B. What -> The entity column
C. When -> The timing column
C. Why -> The motivation column
D. Who -> The responsibility column
E. How -> The process column
Answer: A, C, D, E, F
Question: 10
What model is the highest level model within the enterprise data model?
A. Logical model
B. Physical model
C. Conceptual model
D. Subject Area model
Answer: C
Question: 11
For each subject area logical model: Decrease detail by adding attributes and less-significant entities
and relationships.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 12
Data flows map and document relationships between data and:
A. Locations where local differences occur

B. Situations where local differences occur
C. Network segments
D. Applications within a business process
F. All of the above
Answer: A, C, D
Question: 13
Enterprise data architecture usually include the following work streams:
A. Strategy
B. Governance
C. Organization
D. Results
E. Working methods
F. All of the above
Answer: A, C, D
Question: 14
A roadmap for enterprise data architecture describes the architecture’s 3 to 5-year development
path. The roadmap should be guided by a data management maturity assessment.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 15
Enterprise data architecture project-related activities include:
A. Define maturity assessment

B. Define scope
C. Design
D. Implement
F. All of the above
Answer: B, C, D
Question: 16
The process of building architectural activities into projects also differ between methodologies. They
include:
A. Waterfall methods
B. Incremental methods
C. Kanban method
D. Agile iterative method
E. Duck and dive method
F. Pump and dump method
Answer: A, C, D
Question: 17
Data modelling tools and model repositories are necessary for managing the enterprise data model
in all levels.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 18
Characteristics that minimise distractions and maximise useful information include, but not limited
to, consistent object attributes
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 19
A deliverable in the data modelling and design context diagram is the logical data model.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 20
Inputs in the data modelling and design context diagram include:
A. Data standards
B. Data sets
C. Data Management Architecture
D. Systems Architecture
E. Data architecture
F. Enterprise taxonomy
Answer: A, B, E, F
Question: 21
Data models comprise and contain metadata essential to data consumers.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 22
Data models are critical to effective management of dat

a. They:
A. Provide a common vocabulary around data
B. Capture and document explicit knowledge about an organization’s data and systems
C. Serve as a primary communication tool during projects
D. Provide the starting point for customizations, integration or even replacement of an application
E. Provide the organisation with clear system of the architecture
F. Make the integration between data management and data analytics possible
Answer: A, B, C, D
Question: 23
Confirming and documenting understanding of different perspectives facilitate:
A. Formalization
B. Normalization
C. Scope definition
D. Knowledge retention/documentation
Answer: A, C, D
Question: 24
Data modelling is most infrequently performed in the context of systems and maintenance efforts,
known as SDLC.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 25
SDLC stands for:
A. System development leverage cycle

B. System design lifecycle
C. System and design long cycle
D. System development lifecycle
Answer: D
Question: 26
Category information is one of the types of data that can be modelled.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 27
Business activity information is one of the types of data that can be modelled.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 28
Examples of the ‘Who’ entity category include: employee; patient; player; and suspect.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 29
Examples of the ‘What’ entity category include the following nouns:
A. Product
B. Service
C. Time
D. Sales amount
E. Payment quantity
F. All of the above
Answer: A, B
Question: 30
High quality data definition exhibit three characteristics:
A. Clearness
B. Clarity
C. Accuracy
D. Completeness
Answer: B, C, D
Question: 31
The number of entities in a relationship is the arity of the relationship. The most common are:
A. Unary
B. Binary
C. Trinary
D. Ternary
Answer: A, B, D
Question: 32
What type of key is used in physical and sometimes logical relational data modelling schemes to
represent a relationship?
A. Primary key
B. Foreign key
C. Network key
D. Applications key
E. Door key
F. All of the above
Answer: B
Question: 33
Please select valid modelling schemes or notations
Questions & Answers PDF
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A. NoSQL
B. Dimensional
C. Relational
D. Object-orientated
E. Fact-based
F. Matrix-based
Answer: A, B, C, D, E
Question: 34
Domains can be identified in different ways including: data type; data format; list; range; and rule-
based.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 35
Snowflaking is the term given to normalizing the flat, single-table, dimensional structure in a star
schema into the respective component hierarchical or network structures.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 36
Class operations can be:
A. General: Hidden
B. Public: Externally visible
C. Internally visible: Visible to children objects
D. Private: Hidden
Answer: B, C, D
Question: 37
The data-vault is an object-orientated, time-based and uniquely linked set of normalized tables that
support one or more functional areas of business.
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A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 38
Time-based patterns are used when data values must be associated in chronological order and with
specific time values.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 39
Please select the correct definition of Data Management from the options below.
A. Data Management is the strict control of all plans, policies, programs and practices that enable the
business strategy to be successfully executed.
B. Data Management is the development, execution and supervision of plans, policies, programs and
practices that deliver, control, protect and enhance the value of data and information assets
throughout their lifecycles.
C. Data Management is the development, execution and supervision of plans, policies, programs and
practices that deliver, control, protect and enhance the value of data assets throughout their
lifecycles.
D. Data Management is the development, execution and supervision of plans, policies, programs and
practices that deliver, control, protect and enhance the value of information assets throughout their
lifecycles.
Answer: B
Question: 40
Data Management Professionals only work with the technical aspects related to data.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 41
Differentiating between data and information. Please select the correct answers based on the
sentence below: Here is a marketing report for the last month [1]. It is based on data from our data
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warehouse [2]. Next month these results [3] will be used to generate our month-over-month
performance measure [4].
A. [1] Information, [2] Information, [3] Data, [4] Information

B. [1] Data, [2] Information, [3] Data, [4] Data
C. [1] Data, [2] Data, [3] Data, [4] Information
D. [1] Information, [2] Data, [3] Data, [4] Information
Answer: D
Question: 42
Please select the answers that correctly describes the set of principles that recognizes salient
features of data management and guide data management practice.
A. Data is an asset with unique properties.

B. It takes Metadata to manage data.
C. The most important part of data management is security.
D. Data management is lifecycle management.
E. Effective data management requires leadership commitment.
F. Efficient data management requires a team of IT professionals only.
Answer: A, B, C, D
Question: 43
Value is the difference between the cost of a thing and the benefit derived from that thing.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 44
Please select the correct general cost and benefit categories that can be applied consistently within
an organization.
A. Cost of erasing data from servers

B. Cost of improving data
C. What the data could be sold for
D. Benefit of higher quality data
E. Cost of replacing data if it were lost
F. What competitors would pay for data
Answer: B, C, D, F
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Question: 45
Please select the answers that correctly describes where the costs of poor quality data comes from.
A. Scrap and rework

B. Organizational conflict
C. High job satisfaction
D. High productivity
E. Reputational costs
F. Compliance costs
Answer: A, B, E, F
Question: 46
Reduced risk is a benefit of high quality data.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 47
The better an organization understands the lifecycle and lineage of its data, the better able it will be
to manage its dat
a. Please select correct implication of the focus of data management on the data lifecycle.
A. Data Quality must be managed throughout the data lifecycle
B. Data Security must only be managed at the start of the data lifecycle
C. Metadata Quality is the most important part of the management process
D. Data Management efforts should focus on the most critical data last
Answer: A
Question: 48
Information gaps represent enterprise liabilities with potentially profound impacts on operational
effectiveness and profitability.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
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Question: 49
Data handling ethics are concerned with how to procure, store, manage, use and dispose of data in
ways that are aligned with ethical principles.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 50
The ethics of data handling are complex, but is centred on several core concepts. Please select the
correct answers.
A. Impact on machines
B. Impact on people
C. Potential for data management
D. Potential for misuse
E. Economic value of ethics
F. Economics value of data
Answer: B, D, F
Question: 51
Within the Data Handling Ethics Context Diagram a key deliverable is the Ethical Data Handling
Strategy.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 52
The Belmont principles that may be adapted for Information Management disciplines, include:
A. Respect for Persons

B. Respect for Machines
C. Beneficence
D. Criminality
E. Justice
Answer: A, C, D
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Question: 53
Please select the correct principles of the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) of the EU.
A. Purpose Limitation
B. Data Minimisation
C. Accuracy
D. Storage Limitation
E. Accountability
F. All of the above
Answer: F
Question: 54
Misleading visualisations could be an example where a base level of truthfulness and transparency
are not adhered to.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 55
Bias refers to an inclination of outlook. Please select the types of data bias:
A. Data collection for pre-defined results

B. Hunch and search
C. Positive reinforcement
D. Context and Emotion
E. Biased use of data collected
F. Biased sampling methodology
Answer: A, B, E, F
Question: 56
If data is not integrated with care it presents risk for unethical data handling. These ethical risks
intersect with fundamental problems in data management including: Limited knowledge of data’s
origin and lineage; Data of poor quality; Unreliable Metadata; and Documentation of error
remediation.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
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Answer: B
Question: 57
Obfuscating or redacting data is the practice of making information anonymous ot removing

sensitive information. Risks are present in the following instances:
A. Data storage
B. Data marketing
C. Data aggregation
D. Data marking
E. Data masking
F. Data integration
Answer: C, D, E
Question: 58
Improving an organization’s ethical behaviour requires an informal Organizational Change

Management (OCM) process.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 59
The purpose of data governance is to ensure that data is managed properly, according to policies and
best practices. Data governance is focused on how decisions are made about data and how people
and processes are expected to behave in relation to data.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 60
The scope and focus of any data governance program depend on organizational needs, but most
programs include:
A. Strategy
B. Policy
C. Data Management Projects
D. Compliance
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E. Oversight
F. All of the above
Answer: F
Question: 61
A goal of data governance is to enable an organisation to manage its data as a liability.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 62
Drivers for data governance most often focus on reducing risk or improving processes. Please select
the elements that relate to the reduction in risk:
A. Specific risk management

B. General risk management
C. Data ethics
D. Data security
E. Publicity
F. Privacy
Answer: B, D, F
Question: 63
Drivers for data governance most often focus on reducing risk or improving processes. Please select
the elements that relate to the improvement of processes:
A. Regulatory compliance
B. Data quality improvements
C. Metadata management
D. Efficiency in development projects
E. Vendor management
F. All of the above
Answer: F
Question: 64
Data governance and IT governance are the same thing.
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A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 65
Select three correct attributes a data governance programme must be:
A. Embedded
B. Flexible
C. Measures
D. Rigid
E. Independent responsibility
F. Sustainable
Answer: A, C, F
Question: 66
Governance ensures data is managed, but is not include the actual act of managing data.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 67
Data governance can be understood in terms of political governance. It includes the following three
function types:
A. Legislative-like functions
B. Judicial-like functions
C. Ethical-like functions
D. Executive functions
E. Data-like functions
F. Morality-like functions
Answer: A, B, D
Question: 68
The Data Governance Council (DGC) manages data governance initiatives, issues, and escalations.
A. TRUE
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B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 69
Data Governance Office (DGO) focuses on enterprise-level data definitions and data management
standards across all DAMA-DMBOK knowledge areas. Consists of coordinating data management
roles.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 70
Three data governance operating models types include:
A. Centralized
B. Decentralized
C. Feathered
D. Federated
E. Replicated
F. Duplicated
Answer: A, D, E
Question: 71
Data stewardship is the least common label to describe accountability and responsibility for data and
processes to ensure effective control and use of data assets.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 72
Please select the correct types of data stewards:
A. Executive Data Steward

B. Chief Data Steward
C. Enterprise Data Steward
D. Business Data Steward
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E. A Data Seller
F. All of the above
Answer: A, B, C, D
Question: 73
Data asset valuation is the process of understanding and calculating the economic value of data to an
organisation. Value comes when the economic benefit of using data outweighs the costs of acquiring
and storing it, as
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 74
Some ways to measure value of data include:
A. Replacement cost
B. Market value
C. Selling Data
D. Risk cost
E. Identified opportunities
F. All of the above
Answer: F
Question: 75
Please select the correct General Accepted Information Principles:
A. Asset Principle
B. Audit Principle
C. Due Diligence Principle
D. Going Concern Principle
E. Ethical Principle
F. All of the above
Answer: A, C, B, D
Question: 76
Data governance program must contribute to the organization by identifying and delivering on
specific benefits.
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A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 77
Part of alignment includes developing organizational touchpoints for data governance work. Some
examples of touchpoints include: Procurement and Contracts; Budget and Funding; Regulatory
Compliance; and the SDLC framework.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 78
A data governance strategy defines the scope and approach to governance efforts. Deliverables
include:
A. Charter
B. Operating framework and accountabilities
C. Implementation roadmap
D. Plan for operational success
E. All of the above
F. None of the above
Answer: E
Question: 79
Architecture is the fundamental organization of a system, embodied in its components, their

relationships to each other and the environment and the principles governing its design and
evolution.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 80
Enterprise Architecture domains include:
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A. Business Architecture
B. Data Architecture
E. Application Architecture
F. Technology Architecture
Answer: A, B, E, F
Question: 81
The flow of data in a data integration solution does not have to be designed and documented.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 82
Preparation and pre-processing of historical data needed in a predictive model may be performed in
nightly batch processes or in near real-time.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 83
Developing complex event processing solutions require:
A. Preparation of historical data and pre-population of a predictive model

B. Integration testing for subsequent logging requirements
C. Processing of real-time data stream to fully populate a predictive model and identify meaningful
events
D. Executing the triggered action in response to the prediction
E. All of the above
Answer: A, C, D
Question: 84
Data Storage and Operations: The design, implementation and support of stored data to maximize its
value.
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A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 85
Inputs in the data storage and operations context diagram include:
A. Data requirements
B. Service level agreements
E. Data architecture
F. Data models
Answer: A, B, E, F
Question: 86
Companies do not rely on their information systems to run their operations.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 87
The goals of data storage and operations include:
A. Managing performance of data assets

B. Capture and document explicit knowledge about an organization’s data and systems
C. Managing the availability of data throughout the data lifecycle
E. Managing the performance of data transactions
Answer: A, C, E
Question: 88
Please select correct term for the following sentence: Any collection of stored data regardless of
structure or content. Some large databases refer to instances and schema.
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A. Schema
B. Database
C. Node
D. Instance
Answer: B
Question: 89
A node is a group of computers hosting either processing or data as part of a distributed database.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 90
SLA Stands for:
A. Service Level Agreement

B. System Lifecycle Audit
C. System Latitude Audit
D. Service Lifecycle Audit
Answer: A
Question: 91
The database administrator (DBA) is the most established and the most widely adopted data
professional role.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 92
DBAs exclusively perform all the activities of data storage and operations.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
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Question: 93
An application DBA leads the review and administration of procedural database objects.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 94
Please select the types of DBA specializations:
A. Data
B. Application
C. Innovation
D. Development
E. Procedural
F. All of the above
Answer: B, D, E
Question: 95
Please select the two classifications of database types:
A. Centralized
B. Generic
C. Distributed
D. MapReduce
Answer: A, C
Question: 96
There are numerous methods of implementing databases on the cloud. The most common are:
A. Virtual machine image

B. Distributed machine image
C. DAAS
D. Managed database hosting on the cloud
Answer: A, C, D
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Question: 97
The CAP theorem asserts that the distributed system cannot comply with all the parts of the ACID. A
distributed system must instead trade-off between the following properties:
A. Consistency
B. Utilization
C. Availability
D. System development
E. Partition tolerance
F. All of the above
Answer: A, C, E
Question: 98
The acronym BASE is made up of:
A. Basically available
B. Basically not available
C. Software state
D. Soft state
E. Eventual consistency
F. Everything considered
Answer: A, D, E
Question: 99
The CAP theorem states that at most two of the three properties: consistency, availability and
partition tolerance can exist in any shared data system.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 100
SSD is the abbreviation for Solid State Dimension.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
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Question: 101
Test environments serve many uses:
A. Quality Assurance Testing (QA)

B. Integration Testing
C. User Acceptance Testing (UAT)
D. Performance Testing
E. All of the above
Answer: E
Question: 102
A sandbox environment can either be a sub-set of the production system, walled off from production
processing or a completely separate environment.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 103
A sandbox is an alternate environment that allows write-only connections to production data and can
be managed by the administrator.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 104
Data security includes the planning, development and execution of security policies and procedures
to provide authentication, authorisation, access and auditing of data and information assets.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 105
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The goals of data security practices is to protect information assets in alignment with privacy and
confidentiality regulations, contractual agreements and business requirements. These requirements
come from:
A. Stakeholders
B. Government regulations
C. Proprietary business concerns
D. Legitimate access needs
E. Contractual obligations
Question: 106
A deliverable in the data security context diagram is the data security architecture.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 107
The goals of data security include:

B. Enable appropriate access to enterprise data assets
D. Understand and comply with all relevant regulations and policies for privacy and confidentiality
F. Ensure that the privacy and confidentiality needs of all stakeholders are enforced and audited
Answer: B, D, F
Question: 108
What are the primary drivers of data security activities?
A. Risk reduction
B. Risk alleviation
C. Business growth
D. Business compliance
Answer: B, C
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Question: 109
Data security issues, breaches and unwarranted restrictions on employee access to data cannot
directly impact operational success.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 110
Vulnerability is defined as:
A. a patch in a system that allows it to be successfully unpatched and compromised.

B. being highly data risk rated
C. a strength in a system that allows external stakeholders to view data records.
D. a weakness or defect in a system that allows it to be successfully attacked and compromised.
Answer: D
Question: 111
Risk classifications describe the sensitivity of the data and the likelihood that it might be sought after
for malicious purposes.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 112
Data integrity is the state of being partitioned – protected from being whole.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 113
The four A’s in security processes include:
A. Audit
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B. Authentication
C. Access
D. Authorization
E. Aliment
F. Applicable
Answer: A, B, C, D
Question: 114
There are several methods for masking data:
A. Substitution
B. Temporal variance
C. Temporal stagnation
D. Value stagnation
E. Value variance
F. All of the above
Answer: A, B, E
Question: 115
Please select the two concepts that drive security restrictions:
A. Regulation
B. Regression
C. Confidence level
D. Confidentiality level
Answer: A, D
Question: 116
Device security standards include:
A. Access policies regarding connections using mobile devices

B. Awareness of security vulnerabilities
C. Installation of malware software
D. Storage of data on fixed devices
Answer: A, B
Question: 117
Confidentiality classification schemas might include two or more of the five confidentiality
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classification levels. Three correct classifications levels are:
A. Consistency
B. Internal use only
C. Restricted confidential
E. Confidential
Answer: A, C, E
Question: 118
Malware types include:
A. Trojan horse
B. Worm
C. Weasel
D. Virus
E. Adware
F. Camware
Answer: A, B, D, E
Question: 119
Malware refers to any infectious software created to damage, change or improperly access a
computer or network.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 120
Instant Messaging (IM) allows a user to message each other in real-time.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 121
Different levels of policy are required to govern behavior to enterprise security. For example:
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A. Data security policy

B. Business Security Policy
C. IT security policy
D. Enterprise security policy
E. All of the above
Answer: A, C, D
Question: 122
The IT security policy provides categories for individual application, database roles, user groups and
information sensitivity.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 123
Data access control can be organized at an individual level or group level, depending on the need.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 124
Data Integration and Interoperability (DII) describes processes related to the movement and
consolidation of data within and between data stores, applications and organizations.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 125
Data Integration and Interoperability is dependent on these other areas of data management:
A. Metadata
B. Data architecture
C. Data governance
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C. Data security
D. Data modelling and design
E. Data storage and operations
Question: 126
The need to manage data movement efficiently is a primary driver for Data Integration and
Interoperability.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 127
The goals of Data Integration and Interoperability include:
A. Provide data securely, with regulatory compliance, in the format and timeframe needed.
B. Lower cost and complexity of managing solutions by developing shared models and interfaces.
E. Identify meaningful events and automatically trigger alerts and actions.
F. Support business intelligence, analytics, master data management and operational efficiency
efforts.
Answer: A, B, E F
Question: 128
One of the deliverables in the Data Integration and Interoperability context diagram is:
A. Data Integration and Interoperability Strategy

B. Data hogging
C. Data access agreements
D. Data security plan
Answer: C
Question: 129
ETL is the basic process which is central to all areas in Data Integration and Interoperability. It is an
abbreviation for extract, transition and load.
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A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 130
On example of a transformation process in ETL is:
A. Re-ordering
B. Recording
C. Duping
D. Servicing
Answer: A
Question: 131
The load step of ETL is physically storing or presenting the results of the transformation in the target
system.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 132
A synonym for transformation in ETL is mapping. Mapping is the process of developing the lookup
matrix from source to target structures, but not the result of the process.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 133
Change Data Capture is a method of reducing bandwidth by filtering to include only data that has
been changed within a defined timeframe.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
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Question: 134
There are three techniques for data-based change data capture, namely:
A. The source system populates specific data elements.

B. Application automated interfaces
C. The source system processes copy data that has changed into a separate object as part of the
transaction, which is then used for the extract process.
D. The source systems send binary code through ASCI that makes the process rapid.
E. The source system processes add to a simple list of objects and identifiers when changing data,
which is then used to control selection of data extraction.
Answer: A, C, E
Question: 135
Latency can be:
A. Batch
B. Event-driven
C. Distributed
D. Real-time synchronous
Answer: A, C, D
Question: 136
Examples of interaction models include:
A. Hub-and-spoke
B. Publish - subscribe
C. Point-to-point
D. Wheel-and-spike
Answer: A, B, C
Question: 137
As an often-overlooked aspects of basic data movement architecture, Process controls include:
A. Consistency logging
B. Exception logs
C. Database activity logs
D. Alerts
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E. Exception logs
F. All of the above
Answer: B, C, D, E
Question: 138
Use business rules to support Data Integration and Interoperability at various points, to:
A. Direct the flow of data in the organization

B. Monitor the organization’s operational data
C. Software alerts when events are triggered
D. Direct when to automatically trigger events and alerts
E. Consistency in allocation event resources
Answer: A, B, D
Question: 139
Real-time data integration is usually triggered by batch processing, such as historic data.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 140
Integration of ETL data flows will usually be developed within tools specialised to manage those
flows in a proprietary way.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 141
E-discovery is the process of finding electronic records that might serve as evidence in a legal action.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
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Question: 142
Deliverables in the document and content management context diagram include:
A. Metadata and reference data

B. Policy and procedure
C. Data governance
D. Content and records management strategy
E. Audit trail and log
F. Data storage and operations
Answer: B, C, D, E
Question: 143
Document and content management is defined as planning, implementation and control activities
for storage management of data and information found in any form or medium.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 144
The goals of implementing best practices around document and content management include:
A. Ensuring effective and efficient retrieval and use of data and information in unstructured formats
B. Ensuring integration capabilities between structured and unstructured data
C. Complying with legal obligations and customer expectations
D. Enduring integration competencies between semi-structured systems
Answer: A, B, C
Question: 145
Please select correct term for the following sentence: An organization shall assign a senior executive
to appropriate individuals, adopt policies and processes to guide staff and ensure program audibility.
A. Principle of integrity
B. Principle of availability
C. Principle of retention
D. Principle of accountability
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Answer: D
Question: 146
Content refers to the data and information inside a file, document or website.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 147
ECM is an abbreviation for:
A. Enterprise compliance management

B. Enterprise compliance manager
C. Enterprise component management
D. Enterprise content management
Answer: D
Question: 148
Content management includes the systems for organizing information resources so that they can
specially be stored.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 149
Content needs to be modular, structured, reusable and device and platform independent.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 150
A controlled vocabulary is a defined list of explicitly allowed terms used to index, categorize, tag, sort
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and retrieve content through browsing and searching.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 151
Taxonomies can have different structures, including:
A. Polyhierarchy
B. Application
C. Facet taxonomy
D. Network taxonomy
E. Flat taxonomy
F. All of the above
Answer: A, C, D, E
Question: 152
Well prepared records have characteristics such as:
A. Context
B. Content
C. Compliance
D. Timeliness
Answer: A, B, D
Question: 153
Information architecture is the process of creating structure for a body of information or content. It
includes the following components:
A. Navigation maps
B. User flows
C. Use cases
D. Controlled technologies
Answer: A, B, C
Question: 154
Most document programs have policies related to:
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A. Scope and compliance audits

B. Proper destruction of records
C. Proper construction of records
D. Identification and protection of vital records
E. Partition tolerance
F. All of the above
Answer: A, B, D
Question: 155
ANSI standard 859 has three levels of control of data, based on the criticality of the data and the
perceived harm that would occur if data were corrupt or otherwise unavailable, including:
A. Basic
B. Formal
C. Informal
D. Custody
E. Revision
Answer: B, D, E
Question: 156
A content strategy should end with an inventory of current state and a gap assessment.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 157
Record management starts with a vague definition of what constitutes a record.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 158
Some document management systems have a module that may support different types of workflows
such as:
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A. Quality Assurance Testing (QA)

B. Manual workflows that indicate where the user send the document
C. User Acceptance Testing (UAT)
D. Dynamic rules that allow for different workflows based on content
E. All of the above
Answer: B, D
Question: 159
An image processing system captures, transforms and manages images of paper and electronic
documents.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 160
OCR is the abbreviation for Optical Character Recognition.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 161
Reference and Master data definition: Managing shared data to meet organizational goals, reduce
risks associated with data redundancy, ensure higher quality, and reduce the costs of data
integration.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 162
The most common drivers for initiating a Mater Data Management Program are:
A. Metadata insecurity
B. Managing data quality
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C. Reducing risk
D. Managing the costs of data integration
E. Meeting organizational data requirements
F. Reducing latency
Answer: B, C, D,E
Question: 163
A goal of reference and master data is to provide authoritative source of reconciled and quality-
assessed master and reference data.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 164
Reference and Master Data Management follow these guiding principles:
A. Quality
B. Stewardship
C. Authority
D. Ownership
E. Exclusivity
F. Inclusivity
Answer: A, B, C, D
Question: 165
Master data is an aggregation of:
A. Transaction Structure Data

B. Database Structure Data
C. Reference Data
D. Enterprise Structure Data
Answer: A, C, D
Question: 166
Reference data management entails the preventative maintenance of undefined domain values,
definitions and the relationship within and across domain values.
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A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 167
SOR Stands for:
A. Service of Record
B. System of Record
C. System on Record
D. Service over Record
Answer: B
Question: 168
A System of Reference is an authoritative system where data consumers can obtain reliable data to
support transactions and analysis, even if the information did not originate in the system reference.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 169
A ‘Golden Record’ means that it is always a 100% complete and accurate representation of all
entities within the organization.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 170
Master data management includes several basic steps, which include: Develop rules for accurately
matching and merging entity instances.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
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Question: 171
Through similarity analysis, slight variation in data can be recognized and data values can be
consolidated. Two basic approaches, which can be used together, are:
A. Realistic
B. Opportunistic
C. Deterministic
D. Probabilistic
E. Procedural
F. All of the above
Answer: C, D
Question: 172
Two risks with the Matching process are:
A. False positives
B. False Certainties
C. False Negatives
D. False Uncertainties
Answer: A, C
Question: 173
Consistent input data reduces the chance of errors in associating records. Preparation processes
include:
A. Standardization
B. Enrichment
C Validation
D. Database management
Answer: A, B, C
Question: 174
Match rules for different scenarios require different workflows, including:
A. Consistency rules
B. Duplicate identification match rules
C. Match-merge rules
D. Match-split rules
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E. Match-link rules
F. All of the above
Answer: B, C, E
Question: 175
There are three basic approaches to implementing a Master Data hub environment, including:
A. Transaction hub
B. Distributed hub
C. Registry
D. Consolidated approach
E. Eventual consistency
F. Transparent hub
Answer: A, C, D
Question: 176
A Global ID is the MDM solution-assigned and maintained unique identifier attached to reconciled
records.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 177
Customer relationship management systems manage Master Data about customers.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 178
Key processing steps for MDM include:
A. Data model management

B. Data acquisition
C. Data validation, standardization and enrichment
D. Entity resolution
E. Data sharing and stewardship
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Answer: A, B, C,D , E
Question: 179
In matching, false positives are three references that do not represent the same entity are linked
with a single identifier.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 180
Product Master data can only focus on an organization’s internal product and services.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 181
Business requirements is an input in the Data Warehouse and Business Intelligence context diagram.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 182
Primary deliverables of the Data Warehouse and Business Intelligence context diagram include:
A. Data Products
B. Data Stewardship
C. Governance Activities
D. Release Plan
E. Load Tuning Activities
F. BI Activity Monitoring
Answer: A, C, D, E, F
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Question: 183
A goal of Data warehouse and business intelligence is to support and enable ineffective business
analysis and decision making by knowledge workers.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 184
The implementation of a Data Warehouse should follow these guiding principles:

B. Focus on the business goals
D. Start with the end in mind
F. Collaborate
Answer: B, D, F
Question: 185
While the focus of data quality improvement efforts is often on the prevention of errors, data quality
can also be improved through some forms of data processing.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 186
The difference between warehouses and operational systems do not include the following element:
A. Time variant
B. Database
C. Subject-orientated
D. Historical
Answer: C
Question: 187
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Data warehousing describes the operational extract, cleaning, transformation, control and load
processes that maintain the data in a data warehouse.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 188
CIF stands for:
A. Company Information Factory

B. Corporate Information Floor
C. Corporate Information Factories
D. Corporate Information Factory
Answer: D
Question: 189
The data in Data warehouses and marts differ. Data is organized by subject rather than function
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 190
An Operational Data Mart is a data mart focused on tactical decision support.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 191
Operational reports are outputs from the data stewards.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
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Answer: B
Question: 192
The Data Warehouse encompasses all components in the data staging and data presentation areas,
including:
A. Data Access Tool

B. Application Tool
C. Operational source systems
D. Data staging area
E. Data presentation area
F. All of the above
Answer: A, C, D, E
Question: 193
The Data Warehouse has a set of storage areas, including:
A. Staging areas
B. Data marts
C. Cubes
D. Kubernetes
Answer: A, B, C
Question: 194
The impact of the changes from new volatile data must be isolated from the bulk of the historical,
non-volatile DW dat
a. There are three main approaches, including:
A. Streaming
B. Messaging
C. DAAS
D. Trickle Feeds
Answer: A, B, D
Question: 195
Typically, DW/BI have three concurrent development tracks:
A. Data mart
B. Business Intelligence tools
C. Data
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E. Techonology
Answer: B,C, E
Question: 196
Business Intelligence tool types include:
A. Technology reporting
B. Operational reporting
C. Descriptive, self-service analytics
D. Operations performance management (OPM)
E. Business performance management (BPM)
F. Predictive, self-service analytics
Answer: B, C, E
Question: 197
An implemented warehouse and its customer facing BI tool is a data product.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 198
Release management is critical to batch development processes that grows new capabilities.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 199
Three classic implementation approaches that support Online Analytical Processing include:
A. QOLAP
B. ROLAP
C. OLAP2
D. HOLAP
E. MOLAP
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Answer: B, D, E
Question: 200
Self-service is a fundamental delivery channel in the BI portfolio.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 201
A data dictionary is necessary to support the use of a DW.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 202
With reliable Metadata an organization does not know what data it has, what the data represents
and how it moves through the systems, who has access to it, or what it means for the data to be of
high quality.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 203
Deliverables in the Metadata Management context diagram include:
A. Metadata Strategy
B. Metadata Standards
C. Data Lineage
D. Metadata Architecture
E. Metadata design
F. Data storage and operations
Answer: A, B, C, D
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Question: 204
Poorly managed Metadata leads to, among other, redundant data and data management processes.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 205
The goals of Metadata management include:

B. Ensure metadata quality, consistency, currency and security
D. Provide standard ways to make metadata accessible to metadata consumers
F. Establish or enforce the use of technical Metadata standards to enable data exchange
Answer: B, D, F
Question: 206
Metadata is described using a different set of categories, not including:
A. Descriptive metadata
B. Database metadata
C. Structural metadata
D. Administrative metadata
Answer: B
Question: 207
Business metadata focuses largely on the content and condition of the data and includes details
related to data governance.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 208
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Operational Metadata describes details of the processing and accessing of dat

a. Which one is not an example:
A. Error logs
B. Schedule anomalies
C. Purge criteria
D. Failure logs
Answer: D
Question: 209
Technical Metadata provides data about the technical data, the systems that store data, and the
processes that move between systems.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 210
Metadata is essential to the management of unstructured data as it id to the management of

structured data.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 211
The minority of operational metadata is generated as data is processed.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 212
The business glossary application is structured to meet the functional requirements of the three core
audiences:
A. Data users
B. Application users
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C. Innovation users
D. Business users
E. Data stewards
F. Technical users
Answer: D, E, F
Question: 213
Examples of business metadata include:
A. Data models
B. Data quality rules
C. Data usage notes
D. Data Standards
Answer: A, B, C, D
Question: 214
Examples of technical metadata include:
A. Access permission
B. Recovery and backup rules
C. Colum properties
D. Data subject properties
Answer: A, B, C, D
Question: 215
The business glossary should capture business terms attributes such as:
A. Lineage
B. Utilization
C. Common misunderstanding in terms
E. Algorithms to supporting definitions
F. All of the above
Answer: A, C, E
Question: 216
The acronym CMDB stands for:
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A. Customization management tools or databases

B. Classic management technologies or databases
C. Cached management technologies or databases
D. Configuration management tools or databases
E. Cached management tools or databases
F. Classic monitoring technologies or databases
Answer: D
Question: 217
CMDB provide the capability to manage and maintain Metdata specifically related to the IT assets,
the relationships among them, and contractual details of the assets.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 218
SOA stand for Service Orchestrated Architecture
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 219
All metadata management solutions include architectural layers including:
A. Metadata Quality Assurance Testing

B. Metadata integration
C. Metadata usage
D. Metadata delivery
E. Metadata control and management
Answer: B, C, D, E
Question: 220
An advantage of a centralized repository include: High availability since it is independent of the

source systems.
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A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 221
A limitation of the centralized approach include: Maintenance of a decentralized repository is costly.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 222
Effective data management involves a set of complex, interrelated processes that enable an
organisation to use its data to achieve strategic goals.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 223
Deliverables in the data quality context diagram include:
A. DQM Procedures
C. Data governance
D. DQ Policies and guidelines
E. Analyses from data profiling
F. Data quality Service Level Agreements
Answer: A, D, E, F
Question: 224
The term data quality refers to only the characteristics associated with high quality data.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
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Question: 225
Data can be assessed based on whether it is required by:
A. Regulatory reporting
B. Capturing policy
C. Ongoing operations
E. Business policy
Answer: A, C, E
Question: 226
Please select the incorrect item that does not represent a dimension in the Data Values category in
Data Quality for the Information age.
A. Currency
B. Timeliness
C. Consistency
D. Completeness
Answer: B
Question: 227
The accuracy dimension of data quality refers to the degree that data correctly respresents ‘real-life’
entities.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 228
What ISO standard defines characteristics that can be tested by any organisation in the data supply
chain to objectively determine conformance of the data to this ISO standard.
A. ISO 9000
B. ISO 7000
C. ISO 8000
D. ISO 9001
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Answer: C
Question: 229
The accuracy dimension has to do with the precision of data values.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 230
Data Integrity includes ideas associated with completeness, accuracy, and consistency.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 231
Validity, as a dimension of data quality, refers to whether data values are consistent with a defined
domain of values.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 232
Dimensions of data quality include:
A. Validity
B. Privacy
C. Innovation
D. Accessibility
E. Currency
F. All of the above
Answer: A, B, D, E
Question: 233
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ISO 8000 will describe the structure and the organization of data quality management, including:
A. Data Quality Availability

B. Data Quality Planning
C. Data Quality Control
D. Data Quality Assurance
E. Data Quality Improvement
Answer: B, C, D, E
Question: 234
Some common data quality business rule types are:
A. Definitional conformance
B. Format compliance
C. Range conformance
D. Mapping conformance
Answer: A, B, C, D
Question: 235
The Shewhart chart contains the following elements:
A. Plan
B. Utilization
C. Do
D. Check
E. Act
F. All of the above
Answer: A, C, D, E
Question: 236
Issues caused by data entry processes include:
A. Training issues
B. List entry replacement
C. Software issues
D. Soft state issues
E. Change to business processes
F. Inconsistent business process execution
Answer: A, B, E, F
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Question: 237
Data quality issues only emerge at initial stages of the data lifecycle.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 238
Field overloading: Unnecessary data duplication is often a result of poor data management.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 239
Data profiling examples include:
A. Counts of null
B. Max/Min value
C. Max/Min length
D. Frequency distribution
E. Data type and format
Question: 240
Data profiling also includes cross-column analysis, which can identify overlapping or duplicate
columns and expose embedded value dependencies.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 241
Volume refers to the amount of dat
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a. Big Data often has thousands of entities or elements in billions of records.

A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 242
The list of V’s include:
A. Volatility
B. Volume
C. Veracity
D. Viscosity
E. Variety
F. Validity
Question: 243
Veracity refers to how difficult the data is to use or to integrate.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 244
Different storage volumes include:
A. Gigabyte
B. Petabyte
C. Perabyte
D. Exabyte
E. Tetrabyte
F. Terabyte
Answer: A, B, C, D, F
Question: 245
Please select the answer that does not represent a machine learning algorithm:
A. Reinforcement learning
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B. Supervised learning
C. Artificial learning
D. Unsupervised learning
Answer: C
Question: 246
Machine learning explores the construction and study of learning algorithms.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 247
Please select the answer that best fits the following description: Contains only real-time data.
A. Batch layer
B. Speed layer
C. Serving layer
D. Real-time layer
Answer: B
Question: 248
SBA is an abbreviation for service-based architecture.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 249
Data mining is a sub-field of supervised learning where users attempt to model data elements and
predict future outcomes through the evaluation of probability estimates.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
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Question: 250
Media monitoring and text analysis are automated methods for retrieving insights from large
unstructured or semi-structured data, such as transaction data, social media, blogs, and web news
sites.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 251
Data and text mining use a range of techniques, including:
A. Profiling
B. Application reduction
C. Association
D. Data reduction
E. Clustering
F. All of the above
Answer: A, C, D, E
Question: 252
The first two steps in the data science process are:
A. Define Big Data data strategy & Business Need(s)

B. Choose Data Sources
B. Develop Data Science Hypotheses and Mehods
C. Acquire & Ingest Data source(s)
Answer: A, B
Question: 253
Input in the Big Data and data science context diagram include:
A. IT standards
B. Data sources
C. Business strategy & goals
C. Database standards
Answer: A, B, C
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Question: 254
Data science involves the iterative inclusion of data sources into models that develop insights. Dat
science depends on:
A. Consistency
B. Rich data sources
C. Information alignment and analysis
D. Information delivery
E. Presentation of findings and data insights
F. All of the above
Answer: B, C, D, E
Question: 255
The language used in file-based solutions is called MapReduce. This language has three main steps:
A. Map
B. Shuffle
C. Free
D. Terminate
E. Integrate
F. Reduce
Answer: A, B, F
Question: 256
MPP is an abbreviation for Major Parallel Processing.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 257
Traditional tool sin data visualtization have both a data and a graphical component. Advanced
visualization and discovery tools use in-memory architecture to allow users to interact with the data.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
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Question: 258
Analytics models are associated with different depths of analysis, including:
A. Quality testing
B. Explanatory modeling
C. Descriptive modeling
D. Performance modeling
E. All of the above
Answer: B, C
Question: 259
Modeling Bid data is a non-technical challenge but critical if an organization that want to describe
and govern its data.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 260
Business people must be fully engaged in order to realize benefits from the advanced analytics.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 261
CMA is an abbreviation for Capability Maturity Assessment.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 262
Organizations conduct capability maturity assessments for a number of reasons, including:
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A. Organizational change
B. Data management issues
C. Regulation
D. Data governance
E. Data modeling
F. New technology
Answer: A, B, C, D, F
Question: 263
A Data Management Maturity Assessment (DMMA) can be used to evaluate data management
overall, or it can be used to focus on a single Knowledge Area or even a single process.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 264
Deliverables in the data management maturity assessment context diagram include:
A. Maturity baseline
B. Roadmap
C. Executive briefings
D. Recommendations
E. Risk assessment
F. Ratings and ranks
Answer: A, B, C, D, E,
F
Question: 265
The primary goal of data management capability assessment is to evaluate the current state of
critical data management activities in order to plan for improvement.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 266
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Decentralized informality can be made more formal through a documented series of connections and
accountabilities via a RACI matrix.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 267
Data management organizational constructs include the following type of model.
A. Network operating model

B. Decentralized operating model
C. Centralized operating model
D. Federation operating model
E. Hybrid operating model
F. Integrated operating model
Answer: A, B, C, E
Question: 268
Factors that have shown to play a key role in the success in the success of effective data management
organizations does not include:
A. Clear vision
B. Orientation and training
C. Leadership alignment
D. IT sponsorship
Answer: D
Question: 269
Communication should start later in the process as too many inputs will distort the vision.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 270
Disciplines within the enterprise architecture practice does not include:
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A. Technology architecture
B. Application architecture
C. Information architecture
Service Architecture
D. Business architecture
Answer: C
Question: 271
Data quality management is a key capability of a data management practice and organization.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 272
Data modeller: responsible for fata model version control an change control
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 273
Data architect: A senior analyst responsible for data architecture and data integration.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 274
The neutral zone is one of the phases in the Bridges’ transition phases.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 275
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Data management professionals who understand formal change management will be more
successful in bringing about changes that will help their organizations get more value from their dat
a. To do so, it is important to understand:
A. The triggers for effective change
C. How people experience changes
D. Data security
E. The barriers to change
F. Why change fails
Answer: A, C, E, F
Question: 276
Change only requires change agents in special circumstances, especially when there is little to no
adoption.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 277
Please select the transition phases in Bridges’ Transition process:
A. The neutral zone

B. The new beginning
C. The ending
D. The transition
E. The translation
F. The game
Answer: A, B, D
Question: 278
As part of its transformation, the organization must identify and respond to different kinds of
roadblocks. Please select the answer that is not a roadblock:
A. Active resistance
B. Psychological
C. Systematic
D. Structural
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Answer: C
Question: 279
In an information management context, the short-term wins and goals often arise from the
resolution of an identified problem.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 280
The second stage of Kotter’s eight stage process is:
A. Developing a vision and a strategy

B. Establishing a sense of urgency
C. Creating short term wins
D. Creating the guiding coalition
Answer: D
Question: 281
To push up the urgency level requires adding of the sources of complacency or increasing of their
impact.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 282
Bold means doing something that might cause short term pain, not just something that looks good in
a marketing email.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 283
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An effective team is based on two simple foundations: trust and a common goal.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 284
When selecting a DMM framework one should consider of it is repeatable.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 285
The IBM Data Governance Council model is organized around four key categories. Select the answer
that is not a category.
A. Outcomes
B. System Lifecycles
C. Enablers
D. Core disciplines
E. Supporting disciplines
Answer: B
Question: 286
A communication plan includes an engagement model for stakeholders, the type of information to
be shared, and the schedule for sharing information.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 287
Oversight for the DMMA process belongs to the Data Quality team.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
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Answer: B
Question: 288
DMMA ratings represent a snapshot of the organization’s capability level.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 289
A critical step in data management organization design is identifying the best-fit operating model for
the organization.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 290
RACI is an acronym that is made up of the following terms.
A. Control
B. Responsible
C. Accountable
D. Informed
E. Reliable
F. Consulted
Answer: B, C, D, F
Question: 291
In the Data Warehousing and Business Intelligence Context Diagram, a primary deliverable is the DW
and BI Architecture.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 292
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Examples of business processes when constructing data flow diagrams include:
A. Order Management
B. Marketing & Sales
C. Sales order
D. Invoicing
E. Product Development
F. Customer
Answer: A, B, D, E
Question: 293
Select the areas to consider when constructing an organization’s operating model:
A. Cultural Factors
B. Business model
C. Impact of the regulation
D. None of the above
E. Value of the data to the organisation
F. All of the above
Answer: D
Question: 294
Data lineage is useful to the development of the data governance strategy.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 295
There are several reasons to denormalize dat

a. The first is to improve performance by:
A. Creating smaller copies of fata to reduce costly run-time calculations and/or table scans of large
tables.
B. None of the above
C. Pre-calculating and sorting costly data calculations to avoid runt-time system resource
competition.
D. Making tables more readable when no foreign key exists
E. Combining data from multiple other tables in advance to avoid costly run-time joins
F. All of the above
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Answer: A, C, E
Question: 296
Valuation information, as an example of data enrichment, is for asset valuation, inventory and sale.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 297
Effective data management involves a set of complex, interrelated processes that disable an
organization to use its data to achieve strategic goals.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: A
Question: 298
In gathering requirements for DW/BI projects, begin with the data goals and strategies first.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 299
Temporal aspects usually include:
A. Valid time
B. Transmitting time
C. Transaction time
D. Value time
Answer: A, C
Question: 300
Hierarchical database model is the newest database model
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A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 301
Normalisation is the process of applying rules in order to organise business complexity into stable
data structures.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 302
Security Risks include elements that can compromise a network and/or database.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 303
JSON is an open, lightweight standard format for data interchange.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 304
Data quality rules and standards are a critical form of Metadat

a. Ti be effective they need to be managed as Metadata. Rules include:
A. None of the above
B. Tied to business impact
C. Document consistency
D. Accessible to all data customers
E. Hierarchical consistency
F. Confirmed by SMEs
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Answer: B, C, D, F
Question: 305
Poorly managed metadata leads to:
A. Row-orientated metadata
B. Graph metadata issues
C. Redundant data and data management processes
D. Doubt about the reliability of metadata and data
E. Redundant master data
F. Document inefficiencies
Answer: C, D
Question: 306
The Data Warehouse (DW) is a combination of three primary components: An integrated decision
support database, related software programs and business intelligence reports.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: A
Question: 307
Within projects, conceptual data modelling and logical data modelling are part of requirements
planning and analysis activities, while physical data modelling is a design activity.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 308
A dimensional physical data model is usually a star schema, meaning there is one structure for each
dimension.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
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Question: 309
Data Warehouse describes the operational extract, cleansing, transformation, control and load
processes that maintain the data in a data warehouse.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 310
A Metadata repository contains information about the data in an organization, including:
A. Hierarchical
B. Data structure
C. Warped
D. Business rules for managing data
E. Content
Answer: B, D, E
Question: 311
ANSI 859 recommends taking into account the following criteria when determining which control
level applies to a data asset:
A. Need to reuse the asset or earlier versions of the assets

B. Consequences of change to the enterprise or project
C. Cost of providing and updating the asset
D. Project impact, if change will have significant cost or schedule consequences
Answer: A, B, C, D
Question: 312
Inputs in the data quality context diagram include:
A. Data stores
B. Data lakes
C. Business requirements
D. Data quality expectations
Answer: A, C, D
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Question: 313
An input in the Metadata management context diagram does not include:
A. Business requirements
B. Business metadata
C. Technical metadata
D. Metadata standards
E. Process Metadata
Answer: D
Question: 314
Big data primarily refers specifically to the volume of the data.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 315
Accomplish repository scanning in two distinct approaches, including:
A. Semi- proprietary integration

B. Proprietary interface
C. Semi-proprietary interface
D. Proprietary integration
Answer: B, C
Question: 316
A change management program supporting formal data governance should focus communication on:
Obtaining buy-in from all stakeholders
A. Implementing data management training

B. Monitoring the resistance
C. Promoting the value of data assets
D. Addressing all queries
E. Implementing new metric and KPIs
Answer: A, C, E
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Question: 317
XML is the abbreviation for standard mark-up language.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: A
Question: 318
Issue management is the process for identifying, quantifying, prioritizing and resolving data
governance related issues, including:
A. Contracts
B. Authority
C. Compliance
D. All of the above
E. Conflicts
F. Data Efficiency
Answer: A, B, C, E
Question: 319
When assessing security risks it is required to evaluate each system for the following:
A. The current security protections in place

B. The requirements to protect the data
C. None of the above
D. All of the above
E. The complexity of the data stored or in transit
F. The sensitivity of the data stored or in transit
Answer: A, B, F
Question: 320
A general principle for managing metadata includes Responsibility.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: A
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Question: 321
Possible application coupling designs include:
A. Relaxed coupling
B. Loose coupling
C. Value coupling
D. Tight coupling
Answer: B, D
Question: 322
In Resource Description Framework (RDF) terminology, a triple store is composed of a subject that
denotes a resource, the predicate that expresses a relationship between the subject and the object,
and the object itself.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 323
Location Master Data includes business party addresses and business party location, as well as
facility addresses for locations owned by organizations.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 324
Data parsing is the process of analysing data using pre-determined rules to define its content or
value.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 325
Layers of data governance are often part of the solution. This means determining where
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accountability should reside for stewardship activities and who the owners of the data are.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 326
Data flows map and document relationships between data and locations where global differences
occur.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 327
Uniqueness, as a dimension of data quality, states no entity exists more than once within the data
set.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 328
The biggest business driver for developing organizational capabilities around Big Data and Data
Science is the desire to find and act on business opportunities that may be discovered through data
sets generated through a diversified range of processes.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 329
The four main types of NoSQL databases are:
A. Document
B. Row-orientated
C. Graph
D. Strategic
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E. Key-value
F. Column-orientated
Answer: A, C, E, F
Question: 330
Business rules describe why business should operate internally, in order to be successful and
compliant with the outside world.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: A
Question: 331
Different types of product Master Data solutions include:
A. People Lifecycle Product Management (PLPM)

B. Product data in Manufacturing Execution Systems (MES)
D. Product Data in Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP)
E. Product Lifecycle Management (PLM)
Answer: B, D, E
Question: 332
Elements that point to differences between warehouses and operational systems include:
A. Historical
B. Data security standards
C. Subject-orientated
C. Non-volatile
D. Data quality
E. Integrated
Answer: A, C, D, E
Question: 333
The deliverables of the data modelling process include:
A. Lineage
B. Definitions
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C. Issues and outstanding questions

D. Assessments
E. Diagram
E. Roadmap
Answer: A, B, C, E
Question: 334
Data Governance is at the centre if the data management activities, since governance is required for
consistency within and balance between functions.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 335
An advantage of a centralized repository include: Quick metadata retrieval, since the repository and
the query reside together.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 336
SOA stands for:
A. Service orchestrated architecture

B. Service orientated access
C. Service orientated architecture
D. Service overall architecture
Answer: C
Question: 337
One common KPI of e-discovery is cost reduction.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
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Answer: B
Question: 338
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: A
Question: 339
Technical metadata describes details of the processing and accessing of data.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: A
Question: 340
Data professionals involved in Business Intelligence, analytics and Data Science are often responsible
for data that describes: who people are; what people do; where people live; and how people are
treated. The data can be misused and counteract the principles underlying data ethics.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 341
Data security internal audits ensure data security and regulatory compliance policies are followed
should be conducted regularly and consistently.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 342
Controlling data availability requires management of user entitlements and of structures that
technically control access based on entitlements.
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A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 343
Data governance requires control mechanisms and procedures for, but not limited to, assignment
and tracking of action items.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 344
Measuring the effects of change management on in five key areas including: Awareness of the need
to change; Desire to participate and support the change; Knowledge about how to change; Ability to
implement new skills and behaviors; and Reinforcement to keep the change in place.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 345
Managing business party Master Data poses these unique challenges:
A. Difficulties in unique dimensions

B. Difficulties in unique identification
C. Reference data anomaly detection
D. The number of data sources and the differences between them
Answer: B, C, D
Question: 346
Metrics tied to Reference and Master Data Quality include:
A. Addressing all queries

B. Data steward coverage
C. Implementing data management training
D. Data sharing volume and usage
E. Data ingestion and consumption
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F. Service level agreements
Answer: B, D, E, F
Question: 347
Databases are categorized in three general ways:
A. Warped
B. Non-relational
C. Relational
D. Accessible
F. Hierarchical
Answer: B, C, F
Question: 348
It is unwise to implement data quality checks to ensure that the copies of the attributes are correctly
stored.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 349
The warehouse has a set of storage areas, including:
A. Staging area
B. Data marts
C. Consistent object attributes
D. Operational data store (ODS)
E. Cubes
F. Central warehouse
Answer: A, B, D, E , F
Question: 350
Corporate Information Factory (CIF) components include:
A. Data marts
B. Objectives
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C. Operational Reports
D. Reduction of risk
E. Staging Area
F. Contributions to business objectives
Answer: A, C, E
Question: 351
Metadata is described using three sets od categories, including:
A. Structural Metadata
B. Descriptive Metadata
C. Generic Metadata
D. Administrative metadata
E. Conceptual Metadata
Answer: A, B, D
Question: 352
Metadata management solutions include architectural layers including:
A. Metadata control and management

B. Metadata Marketing
C. Metadata usage
D. Metadata integration
E. Metadata Sales
F. Metadata delivery
Answer: A, C, D, F
Question: 353
Resource Description Framework (RDF), a common framework used to describe information about
any Web resource, is a standard model for data interchange in the Web.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 354
Enterprise data architecture influences the scope boundaries of project and system releases. An
example of influence is data replication control.
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A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 355
Coupling describes the degree to which two systems are intertwined.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 356
Wat data architecture designs represent should be clearly documented. Examples include:
A. Priority
B. Retirement
C. Preferred
D. All of the above
E. Current
F. Emerging
Answer: B, C, D, F
Question: 357
When constructing models and diagrams during formalisation of data architecture there are certain
characteristics that minimise distractions and maximize useful information. Characteristics include:
A. Linear symmetry
B. A match between all diagram objects and the legend
C. A clear and consistent legend
D. A consistent line across display methods
E. Consistent object attributes
F. A clear and consistent line direction
F
Question: 358
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In the Abate Information Triangle the past moves through the following echelons befor it comes
insight:
A. Data
B. Information
C. Transactions
D. Knowledge
E. Big data
F. Time
Answer: A, B, D
Question: 359
Quality Assurance Testing (QA) is used to test functionality against requirements.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 360
Please select the 3 visuals that depict DAMA’s Data Management Framework.
A. The DAMA Octagon

B. The Knowledge Area Context Diagram
C. The Data Quality Function Context Diagram
D. The DAMA Wheel
E. The Environmental Factors hexagon
Answer: B, D, E
Question: 361
There are three basic approaches to implementing a Master Data hub environment, including:
A. Compliance hub
B. Transaction hub
C. Consolidated hub
D. Emotions hub
E. Location hub
F. Registry
Answer: B, C, F
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Question: 362
Development of goals, principles and policies derived from the data governance strategy will not
guide the organization into the desired future state.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: A
Question: 363
Examples of concepts that can be standardized within the data architecture knowledge area include:
A. Enterprise data models

B. System naming conventions
D. Data security standards
E. Data quality rules
F. Tool standards
Answer: A, B, F
Question: 364
Data governance requires control mechanisms and procedures for, but not limited to, identifying,
capturing, logging and updating actions.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: A
Question: 365
ISO 8000 will describe the structure and organization of data quality management, including:
A. Data Quality Assurance

C. Data Quality Planning
D. Data Quality Audit
E. Data Quality Control
F. Data Quality Improvement
Answer: A, C, E, F
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Question: 366
Sample value metrics for a data governance program include:
A. Reduction of risk
B. Improved efficiency in operations
C. Effectiveness of education
D. Achievements of goals and objectives
E. Contributions to business objectives
F. Effectiveness of communication
Answer: A, B, E
Question: 367
The implementation of a Data Warehouse should follow guiding principles, including:
A. Data Efficiency
B. One size does not fit all
C. Contracts
D. Focus on the business goals
E. Start with the end in mind
F. Collaborate
Answer: B, D, E, F
Question: 368
To mitigate risks, implement a network-based audit appliance, which can address most of the
weaknesses associated with the native audit tools. This kind of appliance has the following benefits:
A. Granular transaction tracking

B. High performance
C. Transaction time
D. Separation of duties
Answer: A, B, D
Question: 369
SPARC published their three-schema approach to database management. The three key components
were:
A. Internal
B. Logical
C. Generic
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D. Conceptual
E. External
Answer: A, D, E
Question: 370
Defining quality content requires understanding the context of its production and use, including:
A. Producers
B. Timing
D. Delivery
E. Consumers
F. Format
Answer: A, B, D, E, F
Question: 371
Please select the 2 frameworks that show high-level relationships that influence how an organization
manages data.
A. Strategic Alignment Model

B. DAMA DMBOK Hexagon
C. DAMA Wheel
D. Amsterdam Information Model
Answer: A, D
Question: 372
Please select the option that correctly orders the models in decreasing level of detail:

B. Conceptual model, Subject Area model, Logical model, Logical & Physical models for a project.
C. Logical model, Conceptual model, Subject Area model, Logical & Physical models for a project.
D. Conceptual model, Logical model, Subject Area model, Logical & Physical models for a project.
E. Subject Area model, Conceptual model, Logical model, Logical & Physical models for a project.
Answer: B
Question: 373
Data warehouses are often loaded and serviced by a nightly batch window.
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A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 374
The DW encompasses all components in the data staging and data presentation areas, including:
A. Operational source system

B. Data access tools
C. Data presentation area
D. Data staging area
E. All of the above
F. Technology source system
Answer: A, B, C, D
Question: 375
The term data quality refers to both the characteristics associated with high quality data and to the
processes used to measure or improve the quality of data.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 376
Creating the CDM involves the following steps:
A. Select Scheme
B. Obtain Sign-off
C. Complete Initial CDM
D. Select Notation
E. Incorporate Enterprise Technology
F. All of the above
Answer: B
Question: 377
Functionality-focused requirements associated with a comprehensive metadata solution, include:
A. Synchronization
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B. Structure
D. History
E. Volatility
F. Access rights
Answer: A, B, D, E, F
Question: 378
Access to data for Multidimensional databases use a variant of SQL called MDX or Multidimensional
expression.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 379
The most important reason to implement operational data quality measurements is to inform data
consumers about levels of data effectiveness.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: A
Question: 380
To build models, data modellers heavily rely on previous analysis and modelling work.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 381
Lack of automated monitoring represents serious risks, including compliance risk.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
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Question: 382
Orchestration is the term used to describe how multiple processes are organized and executed in a
system.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 383
All organizations have the same Master Data Management Drivers and obstacles.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 384
Those responsible for the data-sharing environment have an obligation to downstream data
consumers to provide high quality data.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 385
Type of Reference Data Changes include:
A. Row level changes to internal Reference Data sets

B. Row level changes to external Reference Data sets
C. Creation of new Reference Data sets
D. Business model changes on column level
E. Structural changes to external Reference Data sets
Answer: A, B, C, E
Question: 386
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Examples of data enhancement includes:
A. All of the above

B. Audit data
C. Contextual information
D. Incorporate Enterprise Technology
E. Reference vocabularies
F. Select Notation
Answer: B, C, E
Question: 387
A control activity in the metadata management environment includes loading statistical analysis.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 388
Please select the correct name for the PDM abbreviation when referring to modelling.
A. Physical Dimension Model

B. Photo Data Model
D. Probabilistic Dimension Model
E. Photo Dimensional Model
F. Physical Data Model
Answer: F
Question: 389
Please select the correct component pieces that form part of an Ethical Handling Strategy and
Roadmap.
A. Emotions matrix
C. All of the above
D. Compliance framework
E. Values Statement
F. Roadmap
Answer: D, E, F
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Question: 390
An organization will create an uncover valuable Metadata during the process of developing Data
Integration and Interoperability solutions.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 391
Barriers to effective management of data quality include:
A. Inappropriate or ineffective instruments to measure value

B. Lack of awareness on the part of leadership and staff
C. Lack of leadership and management
D. Lack of business governance
F. Difficulty in justification of improvements
Answer: A, B, C,D, F
Question: 392
Principles for data asset accounting include:
A. Accounting Principle
B. Due Diligence Principle
C. Asset Principle
D. Audit Principle
E. Going Concern Principle
F. All of the above
Answer: F
Question: 393
A business driver for Master Data Management program is managing data quality.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
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Question: 394
The Data Model Scorecard provides 10 data model quality metrics
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 395
The data warehouse and marts differ from that in applications as the data is organized by subject
rather than function.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 396
Data science depends on:
A. Information alignment and analysis

B. Presentation of findings and data insights
C. Rich data sources
D. Information delivery
Answer: A, B, C, D
Question: 397
If the target system has more transformation capability than either the source or the intermediary
application system, the order of processes may be switched to ELT – Extract Load Tranform.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 398
Types of metadata include:
A. Strategic
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B. Business
C. Column-orientated
D. Operational
E. Graph
F. Technical
Answer: B, D, F
Question: 399
BI tool types include:
A. BPM
B. Operational reporting
C. Data lake extraction
D. Diagnostic, self-service analytics
E. Descriptive, self-service analytics
F. Reduction of risk
Answer: A, B, E
Question: 400
The categories of the Data Model Scorecard with the highest weightings include:
A. How well does the model capture the requirements?

B.None of the above
C. How good are the definitions?
D. How complete is the model?
E. How structurally sound is the model?
F. All of the above
Answer: A, D, E
Question: 401
DBAs and database architects combine their knowledge of available tools with the business
requirements in order to suggest the best possible application of technology to meet organizational
goals.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 402
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The DMBOK support’s DAMA’s mission by:
A. Establish a common vocabulary

B. Guides IT personnel to improve data management
C. Serving as the fundamental reference guide
D. roviding a functional framework
Answer: A, C, D
Question: 403
All data is of equal importance. Data quality management efforts should be spread between all the
data in the organization.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 404
Triplestores can be classified into these categories:
A. Native triplestores
B. All of the above
D. RDMS-backed triplestores
E. NoSQL triplestores
F. MapReduce triplestores
Answer: D, E, F
Question: 405
Data replication can be active or passive.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 406
The target of organizational change is expedition.
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A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 407
A deliverable in the data architecture context diagram includes an implementation roadmap.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 408
Metrics tied to Reference and Master Data quality include:
A. Strategic usage reporting

B. Amsterdam Information Model
C. Data change activity
D. Total cost of ownership
Answer: C, D
Question: 409
Common OLAP operations include:
A. Drill down/up
B. Roll-up
C. Slice
D. Dice
E. All of the above
F. Cut
Answer: A, B, C, D
Question: 410
Business glossaries have the following objectives:
A. Improve the alignment between technology assets and the business organization
B. All of the above
C. Cultural factors that might improve the concepts and terminology
D. Maximise search capability and enable access to documented institutional knowledge
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E. Enable common understanding of the core business concepts and terminology

F. Reduce the risk that data will be misused due to inconsistent understanding of the business
concepts.
Answer: A, D, E, F
Question: 411
The best DW/BI architects will design a mechanism to connect back to transactional level and
operational level reports in an atomic DW.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 412
Control activities to manage metadata stores include:
A. Roadmap extrapolation
B. Load statistical analysis
C. Lineage
D. Missing metadata reports
E. Definitions resolutions improvement
F. Job scheduling and monitoring
Answer: B, D, F
Question: 413
XML provides a language for representing both structures and unstructured data and information.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 414
A hacker is a person who finds unknown operations and pathways within complex computer system.
Hackers are only bad.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
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Answer: B
Question: 415
Examples of transformation in the ETL process onclude:
A. De-duping
B. Structure changes
C. Hierarchical changes
D. Re-ordering
E. Semantic conversions
Answer: A, B, D, E
Question: 416
Improving data quality requires a strategy that accounts for the work that needs to be done and the
way people will execute it.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 417
The best preventative action to prevent poor quality data from entering an organisation include:
A. Institute a formal change control

B. Define and enforce rules
C. Implement data governance and stewardship
E. Train data procedures
F. Establish data entry controls
Answer: A, B, C, E, F
Question: 418
The operational data quality management procedures depend on the ability to measure and monitor
the applicability of data.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
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Answer: A
Question: 419
Data modelling tools are software that automate many of the tasks the data modeller performs.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 420
A goal of a Reference and Master Data Management program include enabling master and reference
data to be shared across enterprise functions and applications.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 421
Inputs in the Data Integration and Interoperability context diagram include:
A. Data needs & standards

B. Data semantics
C. Business goals & strategies
D. Source data
Answer: A, B, C, D
Question: 422
Project that use personal data should have a disciplined approach to the use of that dat
a. They should account for:
A. What activities analytics will focus on
B. How they select their populations for study
C. All of the above
D. How data will be captured
E. How results will be made accessible
Answer: C
Question: 423
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Changes to reference data do not need to be management, only metadata should be managed.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 424
Subtype absorption: The subtype entity attributes are included as nullable columns into a table
representing the supertype entity
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 425
Data governance requires control mechanisms and procedures for, but not limited to, escalating
issues to higher level of authority.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 426
Data science merges data mining, statistical analysis, and machine learning with the integration and
data modelling capabilities, to build predictive models that explore data content patterns.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 427
An input in the data architecture context diagram includes data governance.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
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Answer: B
Question: 428
Archiving is the process of moving data off immediately accessible storage media and onto media
with lower retrieval performance.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 429
A completely distributed architecture maintains a single access point. The metadata retrieval engine
responds to user requests by retrieving data from source systems in real time.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 430
Data quality issues cannot emerge at any point in the data lifecycle.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: A
Question: 431
Reference and Master Data Management follow these guiding principles:
A. Obtaining buy-in from all stakeholders

B. Stewardship
C. Monitoring the resistance
D. Ownership
E. Addressing all queries
F. Controlled change
Answer: B, D, F
Question: 432
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In the context of big data the Three V’s refer to: Volume, Velocity and Validity
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: A
Question: 433
Architects seek to design in a way that brings value to an organisation. To reach these goals, data
architects define and maintain specifications that:
A. Align data architecture with enterprise strategy and business architecture

B. Provide a standard business vocabulary for data and components
C. Outline high-level integrated designs to meet these requirements.
D. Integrate with overall enterprise architecture roadmap
E. Define the current state of data in the organization.
F. Express strategic data requirements
F
Question: 434
Data replication has two dimensions of scaling: diagonal and lateral
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: A
Question: 435
Critical success factors throughout the BI/DW lifecycle include:
A. Business readiness
B. A clear and consistent focus
C. Vision alignment
D. Business sponsorship
E. Linear symmetry
F. A consistent line across display methods
Answer: C, D, F
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Question: 436
Corrective actions are implemented after a problem has occurred and been detected.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 437
Examples of concepts that can be standardized within the data quality knowledge area include:
A. Standard measurement methodologies

B. Data security standards
C. Data remediation standards and procedures
E. Data quality rules
F. Data quality rules
Answer: A, C, F
Question: 438
Inputs in the reference and master data context diagram include:

B. Business Drivers
C. Business model
D. Data Glossary
E. Cultural Drivers
F. All of the above
Answer: B, D
Question: 439
A limitation of the centralized metadata repository approach is it may be less expensive.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 440
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Please select the four domains of enterprise architecture:
A. Enterprise software architecture

B. Enterprise technology architecture
C. Enterprise business architecture
D. Enterprise data architecture
E. Enterprise hardware architecture
F. Enterprise application architecture
Answer: B, C, D, F
Question: 441
Several global regulations have significant implications on data management practices. Examples
include:
A. BCBS 239
B. Data Standards
C. Privacy laws
D. Effectiveness of education Standards
E. SPCA
F. PCI-DSS
Answer: A, C, F
Question: 442
Please select the user that best describes the following description: Uses the business glossary to
make architecture, systems design, and development decisions, and to conduct the impact analysis.
A. Business user
B. Technical user
C. Analytical user
E. Advanced user
Answer: B
Question: 443
Advantages if a centralized metadata repository include:
A. Quick metadata retrieval

C. Combining data from multiple other tables in advance to avoid costly run-time joins
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D. All of the above

E. High availability
F. Low latency, since it is independent of the source systems
Answer: A, E
Question: 444
One of the percentages to measure success of a records management system implantation is the
percentage of the identified corporate records declared as such and put under records control.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 445
When constructing an organization’s operating model cultural factors must be taken into
consideration.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 446
Please select the correct name for the LDM abbreviation
A. Logical Data Model

B. Logical Dimensional Model
C. Lifecycle Data Model
D. Lifecycle Dimensional Model
Answer: A
Question: 447
A e-discovery readiness assessment should examine and identify opportunities for the commercial
response program.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
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Answer: B
Question: 448
Enterprise service buses (ESB) are the data integration solution for near real-time sharing of data
between many systems, where the hub is a virtual concept of the standard format or the canonical
model for sharing data in the organization.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 449
Data governance requires control mechanisms and procedures for, but not limited to, facilitating
subjective discussions where managers’ viewpoints are heard.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 450
In a SQL injection attack, a perpetrator inserts authorized database statements into a vulnerable SQL
data channel, such as a stored procedure.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: A
Question: 451
Once the most critical business needs and the data that supports them have been identified, the
most important part of the data quality assessment is actually looking data, querying it to understand
data content and relationships, and comparing actual data to rules and expectations.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 452
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The impact of the changes from new volatile data must be isolated from the bulk of the historical,
non-volatile DW dat
a. There are three main approaches, including:
A. All of the above
B. Streaming
C. Messaging
D. Technology
E. Data
F. Trickle Feeds
Answer: B, C, F
Question: 453
Please select the three types of data models:
A. Innovative Data Model

B. Logical Data Model
C. Dimensional Data model
D. Conceptual Data Model
E. Idea Data Model
F. Physical Data Model
Answer: B, C, F
Question: 454
Service accounts are convenient because they can tailor enhanced access for the processes that use
them.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 455
Data and enterprise architecture deal with complexity from two viewpoints:

B. Implementation-orientated
C. Quality-orientated
C. Architecture-orientated
D. Innovation-orientated
E. Industry-orientated
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Answer: C, D
Question: 456
There are three recovery types that provide guidelines for how quickly recovery takes place and what
it focuses on.
A. Immediate recovery
B. Intermittent recovery
C. Critical recovery
D. Translucent recovery
E. BMT recovery
F. Non-critical recovery
Answer: A, C, F
Question: 457
Logical abstraction entities become separate objects in the physical database design using one of two
methods.
A. The DAMA Wheel

B. Supertype partition
C. Subtype partition
D. Subtype absorption
E. Supertype absorption
Answer: B, D
Question: 458
Small reference data value sets in the logical data model can be implemented in a physical model in
three common ways:
A. Create a matching separate code table

B. Create a master shared code table
D. Program integration by joining tables
E. Embed rules or valid codes into the appropriate object’s definition.
F. Roadmap Development
Answer: A, B, E
Question: 459
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Reference and master data require governance processes, including:
A. The data sources to be integrated

B. Emotions matrix
C. Compliance framework
D. The priority and response levels of data stewardship efforts
E. The conditions of use rules to be followed
Answer: A, D, E
Question: 460
Data profiling is a form of data analysis used to inspect data and assess quality.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 461
Effectiveness metrics for a data governance programme includes: achievement of goals and
objectives; extend stewards are using the relevant tools; effectiveness of communication; and
effectiveness of education.
A. FALSE
B. RRUE
Answer: B
Question: 462
Lack of automated monitoring represents serious risks, including:
A. Administrative and audit duties risk

B. Risk of compliance
C. Direction and recovery risk
D. Risk of reliance on inadequate native
Answer: A, C, D
Question: 463
The ISO 11179 Metadata registry, an international standard for representing Metadata in an
organization, contains several sections related to data standards, including naming attributes and
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writing definitions.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 464
An implemented warehouse and its customer-facing BI tools is a technology product.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 465
Tools required to manage and communicate changes in data governance programs include
A. Ongoing business case for data governance

B. Obtaining buy-in from all stakeholders
C. Data governance roadmap
D. Monitoring the resistance
E. Business/Data Governance strategy map
F. Data governance metrics
Answer: A, C, E, F
Question: 466
Device security standard include:
A. Installation of anti-malware and encryption software

B. Relational security policies
C. Access policies regarding connections using mobile devices
D. Regulation compliance standards
F. Awareness of security vulnerabilities
Answer: A, C, F
Question: 467
The first two steps of the Reference data Change request process, as prescribed DMBOk2, include:
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A. Decide and Communicate

B. Receive Change Request
C. Update and Inform
D. Identify Stakeholder
E. Identify Impact
Answer: B, D
Question: 468
SOA is an abbreviation for service orientated architecture.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 469
Implementing a BI portfolio is about identifying the right tools for the right user communities within
or across business units.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 470
Many people assume that most data quality issues are caused by data entry errors. A more
sophisticated understanding recognizes that gaps in or execution of business and technical processes
cause many more problems that mis-keying.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 471
Metadata is described using different set of categories, including:
A. Descriptive Metadata, Structural Metada, Administrative Metadata

B. Diagnostic Metadata, Structural Metada, Administrative Metadata
C. Prescriptive Metadata, Serial Metada, Administrative Metadata
D. Descriptive Metadata, Serial Metada, Administrative Metadata
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Answer: A
Question: 472
Activities that drive the goals in the context diagram are classified into the following phases:
A. Plan, Develop, Operate, Control

B. Plan, Do, Check, Act
C. Measure, Develop, Implement, Monitor, Improve
D. Planning, Analysis, Design, Implementation & Maintenance
Answer: A
Question: 473
Within each area of consideration mentioned in question 13, they should address morale adversity
as per Ethical Risk Model for Sampling Projects.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: A
Question: 474
In designing and building the database, the DBA should keep the following design principles in mind:
A. Assessments
B. Maintainability
C. Reusability
D. Performance and ease of use
E. Security
F. Integrity
Answer: B, C, D, E, F
Question: 475
Enterprise data architecture description must include both [1] as well as [2]
A. [1] Data Flow Design [2] Data Context Diagram

B. [1] Enterprise Data Model [2] Architecture Diagram
C. [1] Enterprise Data Model [2] Data Flow Design
D. [1] Enterprise Data Model [2] Data Context Diagram
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Answer: C
Question: 476
Business Intelligence, among other things, refer to the technology that supports this kind of analysis.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 477
Effective document management requires clear policies and procedures, especially regarding
retention and disposal of records.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 478
Issues caused by data entry processes include:
A. Data entry interface issues

B. List entry placement
C. Field overloading
E. Training issues
F. Changes to business processes
Answer: A, B, C, E, F
Question: 479
Examples of technical metadata include:
A. Column Properties
B. Access permissions
C. Internal
D. Conceptual
E. ETL job details
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Answer: A, D, E
Question: 480
DAMA International’s Certified Data Management Professional (CDMP) certification required that
data management professionals subscribe to a formal code of ethics, including an obligation to
handle data ethically for the sake of society beyond the organization that employs them.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
Question: 481
The information governance maturity model describes the characteristics of the information
governance and recordkeeping environment at five levels of maturity for each of the eight GARP
principles. Please select the correct level descriptions:
A. Level 2 In Development
B. Level 4 Proactive
C. Level 2 Sub-standard
D. Level 4 Proactive
E. Level 3 Transformational
F. Level 3 Essential
Answer: A, D, F
Question: 482
The load step of the ETL is physically storing or presenting the results of the transformation into the
source system.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 483
Typically, DW/BI projects have three concurrent development tracks, including:
A. Technology
B. Trickle Feeds
C. Data
D. BI Tools
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E. Messaging
F. Streaming
Answer: A, C, D
Question: 484
Data professional should not balance the short-term versus long-term business interests.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
Question: 485
Structural Metadata describe srealtionships within and among resource and enables identification
and retrieval.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
Answer: B
Question: 486
A metadata repository is essential to assure the integrity and consistent use of an enterprise data
model across business processes.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: A
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Questions & Answers PDF P-1

Product Questions: 486

A. Serve as a platform to enable data governance and management

Data architects facilitate alignment between [1] and [2]

A. [1] Business and [2] IT

A goal of data architecture is to identify data storage and processing requirements.

The deliverables in the data architecture context diagram include:

The Zachman Framweork’s communication interrogative columns provides guidance on defining

A. What -> The inventory Column

Data flows map and document relationships between data and:

A. Locations where local differences occur

Enterprise data architecture usually include the following work streams:

Enterprise data architecture project-related activities include:

A. Define maturity assessment

Inputs in the data modelling and design context diagram include:

Data models comprise and contain metadata essential to data consumers.

Data models are critical to effective management of dat

Confirming and documenting understanding of different perspectives facilitate:

SDLC stands for:

A. System development leverage cycle

Category information is one of the types of data that can be modelled.

Examples of the ‘What’ entity category include the following nouns:

High quality data definition exhibit three characteristics:

Please select valid modelling schemes or notations

Class operations can be:

A. [1] Information, [2] Information, [3] Data, [4] Information

A. Data is an asset with unique properties.

A. Cost of erasing data from servers

A. Scrap and rework

Reduced risk is a benefit of high quality data.

A. Respect for Persons

A. Data collection for pre-defined results

Obfuscating or redacting data is the practice of making information anonymous ot removing

Improving an organization’s ethical behaviour requires an informal Organizational Change

A goal of data governance is to enable an organisation to manage its data as a liability.

A. Specific risk management

Data governance and IT governance are the same thing.

Select three correct attributes a data governance programme must be:

Three data governance operating models types include:

Please select the correct types of data stewards:

A. Executive Data Steward

Some ways to measure value of data include:

Please select the correct General Accepted Information Principles:

Architecture is the fundamental organization of a system, embodied in its components, their

Enterprise Architecture domains include:

Developing complex event processing solutions require:

A. Preparation of historical data and pre-population of a predictive model

Inputs in the data storage and operations context diagram include:

Companies do not rely on their information systems to run their operations.

The goals of data storage and operations include:

A. Managing performance of data assets

SLA Stands for:

A. Service Level Agreement

Please select the types of DBA specializations:

Please select the two classifications of database types:

A. Virtual machine image

The acronym BASE is made up of:

SSD is the abbreviation for Solid State Dimension.

Test environments serve many uses:

A. Quality Assurance Testing (QA)