EXAMINATION NOTICE NO.03/2023-NDA-I DATED 21.12.

2022

(Last Date for Submission of Applications: 10.01.2023)

NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY & NAVAL ACADEMY EXAMINATION (I),

2023
(Commission’s Website http://upsc.gov.in)

IMPORTANT
1. CANDIDATES TO ENSURE THEIR ELIGIBILITY FOR THE
EXAMINATION:
The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they
fulfil all the eligibility conditions for admission to the Examination. Their
admission at all the stages of the examination will be purely provisional
subject to satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions.

Mere issue of Admission Certificate to the candidate will not imply

that his candidature has been finally cleared by the Commission.

Verification of eligibility conditions with reference to original documents is

taken up only after the candidate has qualified for interview/Personality
Test.

2. HOW TO APPLY

Candidates are required to apply online by using the website

upsconline.nic.in. It is essential for the applicant to register
himself/herself first at One Time Registration (OTR) platform, available
on the Commission’s website, and then proceed for filling up the online
application for the examination. OTR has to be registered only once in
life time. This can be done anytime throughout the year. If the
candidate is already registered, he/she can proceed straightway for
filling up the online application for the examination.

Modification in OTR Profile:

In case, the candidate wants to effect any change in his/her OTR

profile, it shall be allowed only once in the lifetime after the registration at
OTR platform. The change in OTR profile data shall be available till
expiry of 14 days from the next day after the closure of application window
of his/her first final application for any Examination of the Commission. In
the case, the candidate after registration of OTR applies for the first time in
this examination last date of modification of OTR would be 24/01/2023.

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Modification in application form (Other than OTR Profile):

The Commission has also decided to extend the facility of making

correction(s) in any field(s), except choice of Centre, of the application
form for this examination after 7 days of the closure of the application
window of this Examination. This window will remain open for 7 days
from the date of opening of the same, i.e., from 18/01/2023 to
24/01/2023. In case a candidate wants to carry out any change in
his/her OTR profile during this period, then he/she should log into the
OTR platform and do the needful accordingly. In other words, no change
in the OTR profile can be made by visiting the window for Modification
in application form.

Withdrawal of Application:

The candidates can withdraw their application for the

Examination and the detailed instructions in this regard are
mentioned in Appendix – II B of this Examination Notice. This
withdrawal window shall be available to the candidates, after 7
days of the closure of the application window of this examination
and it will remain open for 7 days from the date of opening of the
same. This withdrawal window will run concurrently with the
above correction window i.e. from 18.01.2023 to 24.01.2023.

Brief instructions for filling up the online Application Form have been
given in the Appendix-II (A) Detailed instructions are available on the
above mentioned website.

Candidate should also have details of one photo ID viz. Aadhar Card/ Voter
Card/ PAN Card/ Passport/ Driving License/ School Photo ID/Any other
photo ID Card issued by the State/Central Government. The details of
this photo ID will have to be provided by the candidate while filling up
the online application form. The same photo ID card will also have to be
uploaded with the Online Application Form. This photo ID will be used for
all future referencing and the candidate is advised to carry this ID while
appearing for examination/SSB.

3. LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION AND WITHDRAWAL OF

APPLICATIONS:
(i) The Online Applications can be filled upto 10th January, 2023 till
6:00 PM.

(ii) The online Applications can be withdrawn from 18.01.2023 to

24.01.2023 till 6:00 PM. Detailed instructions regarding withdrawal of
Applications is available at Appendix-II (B).

4. The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admit Card three

weeks before the commencement of the examination. The e-Admit
Card will be made available on the UPSC website (upsconline.nic.in)

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 for being downloaded by candidates. No Admit Card will be sent by
post. All the applicants are required to provide valid & active e-mail
id while filling up online application form as the Commission may
use electronic mode for contacting them.

5. PENALITY FOR WRONG ANSWERS:

Candidates should note that there will be penalty (Negative Marking) for
wrong answers marked by a candidate in the Objective Type Question
Papers.

6. For both writing and marking answers in the OMR sheet (Answer Sheet)
candidates must use black ball pen only Pens with any other colour are
prohibited. Do not use Pencil or Ink pen. Candidates should note that
any omission/mistake/discrepancy in encoding/filling of details in the
OMR answer sheet especially with regard to Roll Number and Test
Booklet Series Code will render the answer sheet liable for rejection.
Candidates are further advised to read carefully the “Special
Instructions” contained in Appendix-III of the Notice.

7. FACILITATION COUNTER FOR GUIDANCE OF CANDIDATES:

In case of any guidances/information/clarification regarding their
application, candidature etc. candidates can contact UPSC’s Facilitation
Counter near Gate ‘C’ of its campus in person or over Telephone No.011-
23385271/011-23381125/011-23098543 on working days
between 10.00 hrs. to 17.00 hrs.

8. MOBILE PHONES BANNED:

(a) The use of any mobile phone (even in switched off mode), pager or any
electronic equipment or programmable device or storage media like pen
drive, smart watches etc. or camera or blue tooth devices or any other
equipment or related accessories either in working or switched off mode
capable of being used as a communication device during the examination
is strictly prohibited. Any infringement of these instructions shall entail
disciplinary action including ban from future examinations.

(b) Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the
banned item including mobile phones or any valuable/costly items to the
venue of the examination, as arrangement for safe-keeping cannot be
assured. Commission will not be responsible for any loss in this regard.

CANDIDATES ARE REQUIRED TO APPLY ONLINE AT

http://upsconline.nic.in ONLY. NO OTHER MODE IS ALLOWED FOR
SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION.
GOVERNMENT STRIVES TO HAVE A WORKFORCE WHICH
REFLECTS GENDER BALANCE AND WOMEN CANDIDATES ARE
ENCOURAGED TO APPLY.
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F.No.7/2/2022.E.1 (B): An Examination will be conducted by the Union
Public Service Commission on 16th April, 2023 for admission to the
Army, Navy and Air Force wings of the NDA for the 151st Course and for
the 113th Indian Naval Academy Course (INAC) commencing from 2nd
January, 2024.

The date of holding the examination as mentioned above is liable to be

changed at the discretion of the Commission.

The approximate number of vacancies to be filled on the results of this

examination will be as under :—

National : Army - 208 (including 10 for female candidates)

Defence
Academy
Navy – 42 (including 03 for female candidates)

Air Force - (i) Flying – 92 (including 02 for female

candidates)

(ii) Ground Duties (Tech) – 18

(including 02 for female candidates)

(iii) Ground Duties (Non Tech) – 10

(including 02 for female candidates)
Naval Academy : - 25 (for male candidates only)
(10+2 Cadet
Entry Scheme)

Total : 395

Vacancies are provisional and may be changed depending on the

availability of training capacity of National Defence Academy and
Indian Naval Academy.

N.B. (i) A candidate is required to specify clearly in the Online

Application Form the Services for which he wishes to be considered
in the order of his preference [1 to 4]. He is also advised to indicate
as many preferences as he wishes to opt so that having regard to
his rank in the order of merit due consideration can be given to his
preferences when making appointments.

(ii) Candidates should note that they will be considered for

appointment to those services only for which they express their
preferences and for no other service(s). No request for
addition/alteration in the preferences already indicated by a
candidate in his application will be entertained by the
Commission. Nonetheless, the Commission has also decided to
extend the facility of making correction(s) in any field(s), except
choice of Centre, of the application form for this examination

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 after 7 days of the closure of the application window of this
Examination. This window will remain open for 7 days from the
date of opening of the same i.e. from 18.01.2023 to 24.01.2023.
In case a candidate wants to carry out any change in his/her OTR
profile during this period, then he/she should log into the OTR
platform and do the needful accordingly. In other words, no
change in the OTR profile can be made by visiting the window for
Modification in application form.

(iii) Admission to the above courses will be made on the results of

the written examination to be conducted by the Commission
followed by intelligence and personality test by the Services
Selection Board of candidates who qualify in the written
examination.

2. CENTRES OF EXAMINATION:
The Examination will be held at the following Centres :
AGARTALA GHAZIABAD PANAJI (GOA)
AGRA GORAKHPUR PATNA
AJMER GURGAON PORT BLAIR
PRAYAGRAJ
AHMEDABAD GWALIOR
(ALLAHABAD)
AIZAWL HYDERABAD PUDUCHERRY
ALIGARH IMPHAL PUNE
ALMORA (UTTARAKHAND) INDORE RAIPUR
ANANTPUR (ANDHRA
ITANAGAR RAJKOT
PRADESH)
AURANGABAD
JABALPUR RANCHI
(MAHARASHTRA)
BENGALURU JAIPUR SAMBALPUR
BAREILLY JAMMU SHILLONG
BHOPAL JODHPUR SHIMLA
BILASPUR (CHHATISGARH) JORHAT SILIGUDI
CHANDIGARH KOCHI SRINAGAR
SRINAGAR
CHENNAI KOHIMA
(UTTARAKHAND)
COIMBATORE KOLKATA THANE
KOZHIKODE
CUTTACK THIRUVANANTHAPURAM
(CALICUT)
DEHRADUN LEH TIRUCHIRAPALLI
DELHI LUCKNOW TIRUPATI
DHARAMSHALA LUDHIANA UDAIPUR
DHARWAD MADURAI VARANASI
DISPUR MANDI VELLORE
FARIDABAD MUMBAI VIJAYAVADA
GANGTOK MYSORE VISHAKHAPATNAM
GAYA NAGPUR WARANGAL
GAUTAM BUDDH NAGAR NAVI MUMBAI

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 Applicants should note that there will be a ceiling on the number
of candidates allotted to each of the centres except Chennai, Dispur,
Kolkata and Nagpur. Allotment of Centres will be on the first-apply-first-
allot basis and once the capacity of a particular centre is attained, the
same will be frozen. Applicants, who cannot get a centre of their choice
due to ceiling, will be required to choose a Centre from the remaining
ones. Applicants are, thus, advised that they may apply early so that
they could get a Centre of their choice.

N.B. : Notwithstanding the aforesaid provision, Commission reserves the

right to change the Centres at their discretion if the situation demands.

Candidates admitted to the examination will be informed of the time

table and place or places of examination. Candidates should note that no
request for change of centre will be granted.
3. CONDITIONS OF ELIGIBILITY:

(a) Nationality : A candidate must be unmarried male/female and

must be :

(i) a citizen of India, or

(ii) a subject of Nepal, or
(iii) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan,
Burma, Sri Lanka and East African Countries of Kenya, Uganda,
the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire and
Ethiopia or Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in
India.

Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii) and (iii),

above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility
has been issued by the Government of India.
Certificate of eligibility will not, however, be necessary in the
case of candidates who are Gorkha subjects of Nepal.

(b) Age Limits, Sex and Marital Status :

Only unmarried male/female candidates born not earlier than

02nd July, 2004 and not later than 1st July, 2007 are eligible.

The date of birth accepted by the Commission is that entered in

the Matriculation or Secondary School Leaving Certificate or in a
certificate recognised by an Indian University as equivalent to
Matriculation or in an extract from a Register of Matriculates
maintained by a University which must be certified by the proper
authority of the University or in the Secondary School
Examination or an equivalent examination certificates. These
certificates are required to be submitted only after the declaration
of the result of the written part of the examination. No other
document relating to age like horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts
from Municipal Corporation, service records and the like will be
accepted. The expression Matriculation/ Secondary School

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 Examination Certificate in this part of the instruction includes the
alternative certificates mentioned above.

NOTE 1: Candidates should note that only the date of birth as

recorded in the Matriculation/ Secondary School Examination
Certificate available or an equivalent certificate on the date of
submission of applications will be accepted by the Commission
and no subsequent request for its change will be considered or
granted.

NOTE 2: Candidates should also note that once a date of birth has
been claimed by them and entered in the records of the
Commission for the purpose of admission to an Examination, no
change will be allowed subsequently or at any subsequent
examination on any ground whatsoever.

Provided that in case of an inadvertent/

unintentional/typographical error committed by a candidate in
indicating the date of birth in the Online Application Form, the
candidate may make a request to the Commission for subsequent
rectification along with supporting documents, as specified in the Rule
2 (b) of the Examination Rules and the request may be considered by
the Commission, if the same is made latest by the date of the National
Defence Services & Naval Academy (I) Examination, 2023 which is
16.04.2023.

All communication in this regard should contain the following

particulars:-

1. NAME AND YEAR OF THE EXAMINATION.

2. REGISTRATION I.D. (RID.).
3. ROLL NUMNBER (IF RECEIVED)
4. NAME OF CANDIDATE (IN FULL AND IN BLOCK LETTERS).
5.COMPLETE POSTAL ADDRESS AS GIVEN IN THE
APPLICATION.
6.VALID AND ACTIVCE EMAIL ID.

NOTE 3 : The candidates should exercise due care while entering

their date of birth in the respective column of the Online
Application Form for the Examination. If on verification at any
subsequent stage any variation is found in their date of birth from
the one entered in their Matriculation or equivalent Examination
certificate, disciplinary action will be taken against them by the
Commission under the Rules.

NOTE 4 : The candidates should also note that no

addition/deletion/any changes are allowed in online application
form in the NDA & NA Examination in any circumstances once it is
submitted after the closure of the window for modification of
Application as detailed in para 5 below under the caption ‘How to
Apply’.

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NOTE 5 : Candidates must undertake not to marry until they
complete their full training. A candidate who marries subsequent
to the date of his application though successful at this or any
subsequent Examination will not be selected for training. A
candidate who marries during training shall be discharged and will
be liable to refund all expenditure incurred on him by the
Government.

(c) Educational Qualifications:

(i) For Army Wing of National Defence Academy :—12th Class

pass of the 10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent
examination conducted by a State Education Board or a
University.

(ii) For Air Force and Naval Wings of National Defence

Academy and for the 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme at the Indian
Naval Academy :—12th Class pass with Physics, Chemistry and
Mathematics of the 10+2 pattern of School Education or equivalent
conducted by a State Education Board or a University.

Candidates who are appearing in the 12th Class under the 10+2
pattern of School Education or equivalent examination can also
apply for this examination.

Such candidates who qualify the SSB interview but could not
produce Matriculation/10+2 or equivalent certificate in original at
the time of SSB interview should forward duly self attested
Photocopies to ‘Directorate General of Recruiting, Army HQ, West
Block.III, R.K. Puram, New Delhi-110066’ and for Naval Academy
candidates to ‘Naval Headquarters, DMPR, OI&R Section, Room
No. 204, ‘C’ Wing, Sena Bhavan, New Delhi-110011’ by 24th
December, 2023 failing which their candidature will be cancelled.
All other candidates who have produced their Matriculation and
10+2 pass or equivalent certificates in original at the time of
attending the SSB interview and have got the same verified by the
SSB authorities are not required to submit the same to Army HQ
or Naval HQ as the case may be. Certificates in original issued by
the Principals of the Institutions are also acceptable in cases
where Boards/Universities have not yet issued certificates.
Certified true copies/photostate copies of such certificates will not
be accepted.

In exceptional cases the Commission may treat a candidate, who

does not possess any of the qualifications prescribed in this rule as
educationally qualified provided that he possesses qualifications,
the standard of which in the opinion of the Commission, justifies
his admission to the examination.

NOTE 1 : Candidates appearing in the 11th class exam are not

eligible for this examination.

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NOTE 2 : Those candidates who have yet to qualify in the 12th
class or equivalent examination and are allowed to appear in the
UPSC Examination should note that this is only a special
concession given to them. They are required to submit proof of
passing the 12th class or equivalent examination by the prescribed
date (i.e. 24th December, 2023) and no request for extending this
date will be entertained on the grounds of late conduct of
Board/University Examination, delay in declaration of results or
any other ground whatsoever.

NOTE 3 : Candidates who are debarred by the Ministry of Defence

from holding any type of Commission in the Defence Services shall
not be eligible for admission to the examination and if admitted,
their candidature will be cancelled.

NOTE 4 : Those candidates, who have failed CPSS/PABT earlier,

are now eligible for Air Force in Ground Duty branches if they fill
their willingness in the Online Application Form available at the
Commission’s website.

(d) Physical Standards:

Candidates must be physically fit according to physical standards

for admission to National Defence Academy and Naval Academy
Examination (I), 2023 as per guidelines given in Appendix-IV.

(e) A candidate who has resigned or withdrawn on disciplinary

grounds from any of the training academies of Armed Forces is not
eligible to apply.
4. FEE

Candidates (excepting SC/ST candidates/female

candidates/Wards of JCOs/NCOs/ORs specified in Note 2 below
who are exempted from payment of fee) are required to pay a fee of
Rs. 100/- (Rupees one hundred only) either by remitting the
money in any Branch of State Bank of India by cash, or by using
Visa/Master/RuPay Credit/Debit Card/UPI Payment or by using
internet banking of any Bank.

N.B. 1 : Applicants who opt for “Pay by Cash” mode, should print
the system generated Pay-in-slip during Part-II registration and
deposit the fee at the counter of SBI Branch on the next working
day only. “Pay by Cash” mode option will be deactivated at
23:59 hours of 09.01.2023 i.e. one day before the closing date;
however, applicants who have generated their Pay-in-slip before it
is de-activated may pay at the counter of SBI Branch during
banking hours on the closing date. Such applicants who are
unable to pay by cash on the closing date i.e. during banking
hours at SBI Branch, for reason whatsoever, even if holding a
valid Pay-in-Slip, will have no other offline option but to opt for
online Debit/Credit Card/UPI Payment or Internet Banking

9
Payment mode on the closing date i.e. till 6:00 P.M. of
10.01.2023.

N.B. 2 : Candidates should note that payment of examination fee

can be made only through the modes prescribed above. Payment of
fee through any other mode is neither valid nor acceptable.
Applications submitted without the prescribed fee/mode (unless
remission of fee is claimed) shall be summarily rejected.

N.B. 3 : Fee once paid shall not be refunded under any

circumstances nor can the fee be held in reserve for any other
examination or selection.

N.B. 4 : For the applicants in whose case payments details have

not been received from the bank, they will be treated as fictitious
payment cases and their applications will be rejected in the first
instance. A list of all such applicants shall be made available on
the Commission's website within two weeks after the last day of
submission of online application. The applicants shall be required
to submit the proof of their fee payment within 10 days from the
date of such communication either by hand or by speed post to the
Commission. On receipt of documentary proof, genuine fee
payment cases will be considered and their applications will be
revived, if they are otherwise eligible.

NOTE-1 : Candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes/Scheduled

Tribes and those specified in Note 2 below are not required to pay
any fee. No fee exemption is, however, available to OBC candidates
and they are required to pay the full prescribed fee.

NOTE-2 : The Wards of serving/ex-Junior Commissioned

Officers/Non-Commissioned Officers/Other Ranks of Army and
equivalent ranks in the Indian Navy/Indian Air Force are also not
required to pay the prescribed fee if they are studying in Military
School (formerly known as King George's School)/Sainik School
run by Sainik Schools Society.

[N.B. : A certificate of eligibility for fee exemption is required

to be obtained by all such candidates from the Principals
concerned individually and produced for verification at the
time of SSB Test/Interview by the candidates who are
declared qualified for the SSB Test/Interview.]
5. HOW TO APPLY:

Candidates are required to apply Online by using the website

upsconline.nic.in. It is essential for the applicant to register
himself/herself first at One Time Registration (OTR) platform,
available on the Commission’s website, and then proceed for filling
up the online application for the examination. OTR has to be
registered only once in life time. This can be done anytime
throughout the year. If the candidate is already registered, he/she

10
 can proceed straightway for filling up the online application for the
examination.

Modification in OTR Profile:

In case, the candidate wants to effect any change in his/her OTR

profile, it shall be allowed only once in the lifetime after the registration at
OTR platform. The change in OTR profile data shall be available till expiry
of 14 days from the next day after the closure of application window of
his/her first final application for any Examination of the Commission. In the
case, the candidate after registration of OTR applies for the first time in this
examination last date of modification of OTR would be 24/01/2023.

Modification in application form (Other than OTR Profile):

The Commission has also decided to extend the facility of making

correction(s) in any field(s), except choice of Centre, of the
application form for this examination after 7 days of the closure of
the application window of this Examination. This window will
remain open for 7 days from the date of opening of the same, i.e.,
from 18/01/2023 to 24/01/2023. In case a candidate wants to
carry out any change in his/her OTR profile during this period, then
he/she should log into the OTR platform and do the needful
accordingly. In other words, no change in the OTR profile can be
made by visiting the window for Modification in application form.

Withdrawal of Application:

The candidates can withdraw their application for the Examination

and the detailed instructions in this regard are mentioned in
Appendix – II B of this Examination Notice. This withdrawal
window shall be available to the candidates, after 7 days of the
closure of the application window of this examination and it will
remain open for 7 days from the date of opening of the same. This
withdrawal window will run concurrently with the above correction
window i.e. from 18.01.2023 to 24.01.2023.

NOTE-1: No queries, representations etc. shall be entertained by

the Commission in respect of correcting details that are required to
be filled up by the candidates by exercising due diligence and
caution as the timely completion of examination process is of
paramount importance.

NOTE-2: Candidate should also have details of one photo ID viz.

Aadhar Card/ Voter Card/ PAN Card/ Passport/ Driving License/

11
 School Photo ID/Any other photo ID Card issued by the
State/Central Government. The details of this photo ID will have to
be provided by the candidate while filling up the online application
form. The same photo ID card will also have to be uploaded with
the Online Application Form. This photo ID will be used for all
future referencing and the candidate is advised to carry this ID
while appearing for examination/SSB.

NOTE-3 : All candidates whether already in Government Service

including candidates serving in the Armed Forces, Sailors
(including boys and artificers apprentices) of the Indian Navy,
Cadets of Rashtriya Indian Military College (previously known as
Sainik School, Dehradun), Students of Rashtriya Military Schools
(formerly known as Military Schools) and Sainik Schools run by
Sainik Schools Society, Government owned industrial
undertakings or other similar organizations or in private
employment should apply online direct to the Commission.

(a) Persons already in Government Service, whether in permanent or

temporary capacity or as work charged employees other than casual or
daily rated employees or those serving under the Public Enterprises; (b)
Candidates serving in the Armed Forces, Sailors (including boys and
artificers apprentices) of the Indian Navy; and (c) Cadets of Rashtriya
Indian Military College (previously known as Sainik School, Dehra Dun),
Students of Military Schools formerly known as King George's Schools and
Sainik Schools run by Sainik Schools Society are required to inform their
Head of Office/Department, Commanding Officer, Principals of
College/School concerned, as the case may be, in writing that they have
applied for this examination. Candidates should note that in case a
communication is received by the Commission from their
employer/authority concerned withholding permission to the candidates
applying for/appearing at the examination, their applications will be liable
to be rejected/candidatures will be liable to be cancelled.
NOTE-4: WHILE FILLING IN THE APPLICATION FORM, THE
CANDIDATE SHOULD CAREFULLY DECIDE ABOUT HIS CHOICE
FOR THE CENTRE FOR THE EXAMINATION.

IF ANY CANDIDATE APPEARS AT A CENTRE OTHER

THAN THE ONE INDICATED BY THE COMMISSION IN HIS E-
ADMISSION CERTIFICATE, THE PAPERS OF SUCH A
CANDIDATE WILL NOT BE VALUED AND HIS CANDIDATURE
WILL BE LIABLE TO CANCELLATION.

NOTE-5 : APPLICATIONS WITHOUT THE PRESCRIBED FEE

(UNLESS REMISSION OF FEE IS CLAIMED AS IN PARA 4 ABOVE)
OR INCOMPLETE APPLICATIONS SHALL BE SUMMARILY
REJECTED. NO REPRESENTATION OR CORRESPONDENCE
REGARDING SUCH REJECTION SHALL BE ENTERTAINED
UNDER ANY CIRCUMSTANCES. CANDIDATES ARE NOT
REQUIRED TO SUBMIT ALONG WITH THEIR APPLICATIONS ANY
CERTIFICATE IN SUPPORT OF THEIR CLAIMS REGARDING AGE,

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 EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATIONS, SCHEDULED
CASTES/SCHEDULED TRIBES/OTHER BACKWARD CLASSES
AND FEE REMISSION ETC EXCEPT THE PHOTO ID CARD. THEY
SHOULD THEREFORE, ENSURE THAT THEY FULFIL ALL THE
ELIGIBILITY CONDITIONS FOR ADMISSION TO THE
EXAMINATION. THEIR ADMISSION TO THE EXAMINATION WILL
ALSO THEREFORE BE PURELY PROVISIONAL. IF ON
VERIFICATION AT ANY LATER DATE IT IS FOUND THAT THEY
DO NOT FULFIL ALL ELIGIBILITY CONDITIONS, THEIR
CANDIDATURE WILL BE CANCELLED. THE RESULT OF THE
WRITTEN PART OF THE EXAMINATION IS LIKELY TO BE
DECLARED IN THE MONTH OF MAY, 2023. All the candidates
who have successfully qualified in the written examination are
required to register themselves online on Directorate General of
Recruiting website www.joinindianarmy.nic.in, with the same E-
mail ID as provided to UPSC while filling UPSC online application.
Candidates must ensure that their e-mail IDs given in their online
applications are valid and active. These candidates would then be
allotted Selection Centres through the aforesaid website. In case of
any problems/queries, candidates should contact Directorate
General of Recruiting on the telephone numbers given on their
website or through feedback / query module after logging on to
their profile.

NOTE-6 : CANDIDATES WHO HAVE PASSED WRITTEN TEST ARE

NOT REQUIRED TO SUBMIT THEIR ORIGINAL CERTIFICATE OF
AGE AND EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION EITHER TO
DIRECTORATE GENERAL OF RECRUITING, ARMY HQ, WEST
BLOCK-III, RK PURAM, NEW DELHI-110066 OR TO NAVAL
HEADQUARTERS, DMPR, OI&R SECTION, 'C' WING, SENA
BHAWAN, NEW DELHI-110011.

ALL CANDIDATES CALLED FOR SSB INTERVIEW MUST

CARRY THEIR ORIGINAL MATRICULATION CERTIFICATE OR
EQUIVALENT EXAMINATION CERTIFICATE TO THE SERVICES
SELECTION BOARD (SSB). ORIGINALS WILL HAVE TO BE
PRODUCED BY THE CANDIDATES WHO QUALIFY AT THE SSB
INTERVIEW SOON AFTER THE INTERVIEW. THE ORIGINALS
WILL BE RETURNED AFTER VERIFICATION. THOSE
CANDIDATES WHO HAVE ALREADY PASSED 10+2 EXAMINATION
MUST CARRY THEIR ORIGINAL 10+2 PASS CERTIFICATE OR
MARKS SHEET FOR THE SSB INTERVIEW. IF ANY OF THEIR
CLAIMS IS FOUND TO BE INCORRECT THEY MAY RENDER
THEMSELVES LIABLE TO DISCIPLINARY ACTION BY THE
COMMISSION IN TERMS OF THE FOLLOWING PROVISIONS:

A candidate who is or has been declared by the Commission or

respective service HQ to be guilty of :—
(a) Obtaining support for candidature by the following means,
namely :—
(i) offering illegal gratification to; or

13
 (ii) applying pressure on; or
(iii) blackmailing, or threatening to blackmail any person
connected with the conduct of the examination; or
(b) impersonation; or
(c) procuring impersonation by any person; or
(d) submitting fabricated/incorrect documents or documents
which have been tampered with; or
(e) uploading irrelevant or incorrect photos/signature in the
application form in place of actual photo/signature.
(f) making statements which are incorrect or false or
suppressing material information; or
(g) resorting to the following means in connection with the
candidature for the examination, namely :—
(i) obtaining copy of question paper through improper means;
(ii) finding out the particulars of the persons connected with
secret work relating to the examination;
(iii) influencing the examiners; or
(h) being in possession of or using unfair means during the
examination; or
(i) writing obscene matter or drawing obscene sketches or
irrelevant matter in the scripts; or
(j) misbehaving in the examination hall including tearing of the
scripts, provoking fellow examinees to boycott examination,
creating a disorderly scene and the like; or
(k) harassing, threatening or doing bodily harm to the staff
employed by the Commission for the conduct of their
examination; or
(l) being in possession of or using any mobile phone, (even in
switched-off mode), pager or any electronic equipment or
programmable device or storage media like pen drive, smart
watches etc. or camera or bluetooth devices or any other
equipment or related accessories (either in working or switched
off mode) capable of being used as a communication device
during the examination; or
(m) violating any of the instructions issued to candidates along
with their admission certificates permitting them to take the
examination; or
(n) attempting to commit or, as the case may be, abetting the
commission of all or any of the acts specified in the foregoing
clauses;
in addition to being liable to criminal prosecution, shall be
disqualified by the Commission from the Examination held
under these Rules, and /or shall be liable to be debarred either
permanently or for a specified period:-

14
 (i) by the Commission, from any examination or selection
held by them;
(ii) by the Central Government from any employment
under them; and
And shall be liable to face disciplinary action under the
appropriate rules if already in service under Government.

Provided that no penalty under this rule shall be imposed

except after :—
(i) giving the candidate an opportunity of making such
representation in writing as the candidate may wish to
make in that behalf; and
(ii) taking the representation, if any, submitted by the
candidate within the period allowed for the purpose, into
consideration.
Any person who is found by the Commission or respective
service HQ to be guilty of colluding with a candidate (s) in
committing or abetting the commission of any of the misdeeds
listed at Clauses (a) to (m) above render himself/herself liable to
action in terms of the Clause (n).

6. LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION AND WITHDRAWAL OF

APPLICATIONS:
(i) The Online Applications can be filled upto 10th January, 2023
till 6:00 PM.
(ii) The online Applications can be withdrawn from 18.01.2023 to
24.01.2023 till 6:00 PM. Detailed instructions regarding
withdrawal of Applications is available at Appendix-II (B).

7. TRAVELLING ALLOWANCE:
Candidates appearing for SSB interview for the first time for
a particular type of Commission i.e. Permanent or Short Service,
shall be entitled for AC III Tier to and fro railway fare or bus fare
including reservation cum sleeper charges within the Indian
limits. Candidates who apply again for the same type of
Commission will not be entitled to travelling allowance on any
subsequent occasion.

8. CORRESPONDENCE WITH THE COMMISSION / ARMY /

NAVAL /AIR HEADQUARTERS:
The Commission will not enter into any correspondence with the
candidates about their candidature except in the following
cases :

15
 (i) The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admit Card
three weeks before the commencement of the examination. The e-
Admit Card will be made available in the UPSC website
[upsc.gov.in] for being downloaded by candidates. No Admit Card
will be sent by post. For downloading the e-Admit Card the
candidate must have his vital parameters like RID & Date of
Birth or Roll No. (if received) & date of birth or name, father's
name & Date of Birth available with him.

(ii) If a candidate does not receive his e-Admit Card or any other
communication regarding his candidature for the examination
one week before the commencement of the examination, he
should at once contact the Commission. Information in this
regard can also be obtained from the Facilitation Counter located
in the Commission’s Office either in person or over Phone Nos.
011–23385271/011–23381125/011–23098543 Extn 4119,
4120. In case no communication is received in the Commission’s
Office from the candidate regarding non-receipt of his e-Admit
Card at least one week before the examination, he himself will be
solely responsible for non-receipt of his e-Admit Card.
(iii) No candidate will ordinarily be allowed to take the
examination unless he holds a certificate of admission for the
examination. On receipt of e-Admit Card, check it carefully and
bring discrepancies/errors, if any, to the notice of the UPSC
immediately. The courses to which the candidates are admitted
will be according to their eligibility as per educational
qualifications for different courses and the preferences given by
the candidates.
The candidates should note that their admission to the
examination will be purely provisional based on the information
given by them in the Application Form. This will be subject to
verification of all the eligibility conditions.
(iv) If a candidate receives an e-Admit Card in respect of some
other candidate on account of processing error, it should be
notified to the Commission with a request to issue the correct e-
Admit Card. Candidates may note that they will not be allowed
to take the examination on the strength of an e-Admit Card
issued in respect of another candidate.
(v) The decision of the Commission as to the acceptance of the
application of a candidate and his eligibility or otherwise for
admission to the Examination shall be final.
(vi) Candidates should note that the name in the e-Admit Card
in some cases, may be abbreviated due to technical reasons.
(vii) Candidates must ensure that their e.mail Ids given in
their online applications are valid and active.
IMPORTANT : All Communications to the Commission should
invariably contain the following particulars.

1. Name and year of the examination.

16
2. Registration ID (RID).
3. Roll Number (if received).
4. Name of candidate (in full and in block letters).
5. Postal Address as given in the application.

N.B. (i) : Communications not containing the above particulars

may not be attended to.

N.B. (ii) : If a letter/communication is received from a candidate

after an examination has been held and it does not give his full
name and roll number, it will be ignored and no action will be
taken thereon. Candidates recommended by the Commission for
interview by the Services Selection Board who have changed their
addresses subsequent to the submission of their applications for
the examination should immediately after announcement of the
result of the written part of the examination notify the changed
address also to :—

For candidates with Army as first choice—Army Headquarters,

A.G’s Branch, RTG (NDA Entry), West Block-III, Wing-1, R. K.
Puram, New Delhi-110066, Phone No. 26175473.

For candidates with Navy/Naval Academy as first choice— Naval

Headquarters, Directorate of Manpower & Recruitment, OI&R
Section, R. No. 204, ‘C’ Wing, Sena Bhawan,New Delhi-110011,
Phone No. 23010097/23011282.

For candidates with Air Force as first choice—Dte of Personnel

(Officers), Air Headquarters, (VB) Room No 838. `A’ Block, Defence
Offices Complex, Kasturba Gandhi Marg, New Delhi-110001 Phone
No. 23010231 Extn 7645/7646/7610.

FAILURE TO COMPLY WITH THIS INSTRUCTION WILL DEPRIVE

THE CANDIDATE OF ANY CLAIM TO CONSIDERATION IN THE
EVENT OF HIS NOT RECEIVING THE SUMMONS LETTER FOR
INTERVIEW BY THE SERVICES SELECTION BOARD.

AFTER HAVING CLEARED THE WRITTEN EXAMINATION THE

CANDIDATES SHOULD LOG ON TO THE FOLLOWING WEBSITES
FOR THEIR SSB CENTRE & DATE OF INTERVIEW :-

www.joinindianarmy.nic.in
www.joinindiannavy.gov.in
The candidate with Air Force as first choice are also to register on
www.joinindianarmy.nic.in for AFSB and date selection.

Candidates whose names have been recommended for interview by

the Services Selection Board should address enquiries or requests,
if any, relating to their interview or visit website of respective
service headquarters after 20 days from the announcement of
written results as follows :—

17
For candidates with Army as first choice—Army Headquarters,
AG’s Branch, RTG (NDA Entry), West Block-III, Wing-1, R.K.
Puram, New Delhi – 110 066, Phone No. 26175473 or
joinindianarmy.nic.in

For candidates with Navy/Naval Academy as first choice—Naval

Headquarters, Directorate of Manpower & Recruitment, O.I. & R.
Section, Room No. 204, ‘C’ Wing, Sena Bhavan, New Delhi-110011,
Phone No. 23010097/Email : [email protected] or
joinindiannavy.gov.in

For candidates with Air Force as first choice—Dte of

Personnel(Officers), Air Headquarters, (VB) Room No 838. `A’
Block, Defence Offices Complex, Kasturba Gandhi Marg, New Delhi-
110001 Phone No. 23010231 Extn 7645/7646/7610.

Candidates are required to report for SSB interview on the date

intimated to them in the call up letter for interview. Requests for
postponing interview will only be considered in exceptional
circumstances and that too if it is administratively convenient for
which Army Headquarters will be the sole deciding authority. Such
requests should be addressed to the Administrative Officer of the
Selection Centre from where the call letter for interview has been
received. No action will be taken on letters received by
Army/Navy/Air HQs. SSB interview for the candidates qualified in
the written examination is likely to be held during the months of
July 2023 to September 2023 or as suitable to Recruiting
Directorate. For all queries regarding Merit list, joining
instructions and any other relevant information regarding selection
process, please visit website www.joinindianarmy.nic.in.

9. ANNOUNCEMENT OF THE RESULTS OF THE WRITTEN

EXAMINATION, INTERVIEW OF QUALIFIED CANDIDATES,
ANNOUNCEMENT OF FINAL RESULTS AND ADMISSION TO
THE TRAINING COURSES OF THE FINALLY QUALIFIED
CANDIDATES:

The Union Public Service Commission shall prepare a list of

candidates who obtain the minimum qualifying marks in the
written examination as fixed by the Commission at their
discretion. Such candidates shall appear before a Services
Selection Board for Intelligence and Personality Test where
candidates for the Army/Navy wings of the NDA and 10+2 Cadet
Entry Scheme of Indian Naval Academy will be assessed on
Officers Potentiality and those for the Air Force in addition to the
above will have to qualify Computerised Pilot Selection
System (CPSS). Candidates with Air Force as one of the choice
would also undergo CPSS if they qualify SSB and are willing.
TWO-STAGE SELECTION PROCEDURE

Two-stage selection procedure based on Psychological Aptitude

Test and Intelligence Test has been introduced at Selection

18
Centres/Air Force Selection Boards/Naval Selection Boards. All
the candidates will be put to stage-one test on first day of reporting
at Selection Centres/Air Force Selection Boards/Naval Selection
Boards. Only those candidates who qualify at stage one will be
admitted to the second stage/remaining tests. Those candidates
who qualify stage II will be required to submit the Original
Certificates along with one photocopy each of : (i) Original
Matriculation pass certificate or equivalent in support of date of
birth, (ii) Original 10+2 pass certificate or equivalent in support of
educational qualification.

Candidates who appear before the Services Selection Board and

undergo the test there, will do so at their own risk and will not be
entitled to claim any compensation or other relief from
Government in respect of any injury which they may sustain in the
course of or as a result of any of the tests given to them at the
Services Selection Board whether due to the negligence of any
person or otherwise. Parents or guardians of the candidates will be
required to sign a certificate to this effect.

To be acceptable, candidates for the Army/Navy/Naval Academy

and Air Force should secure the minimum qualifying marks
separately in (i) Written examination as fixed by the Commission at
their discretion and (ii) Officer Potentiality Test as fixed by the
Services Selection Board at their discretion. Over and above
candidates for the Air Force, and all the SSB qualified candidates
as per their willingness, eligibility and preference for flying branch
of Air Force, should separately qualify the CPSS.

Subject to these conditions the qualified candidates will then be

placed in a single combined list on the basis of total marks
secured by them in the Written Examination and the Services
Selection Board Tests. The final allocation/selection for admission
to the Army, Navy, Air Force of the National Defence Academy and
10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme of Indian Naval Academy will be made
upto the number of vacancies available subject to eligibility,
medical fitness and merit-cum-preference of the candidates. The
candidates who are eligible to be admitted to multiple
Services/Courses will be considered for allocation/selection with
reference to their order or preferences and in the event of their
final allocation/ selection to one Service/Course, they will not be
considered for admission to other remaining Services/Courses.

N.B.: EVERY CANDIDATE FOR THE FLYING BRANCH OF AIR

FORCE IS GIVEN COMPUTERISED PILOT SELECTION SYSTEM
(CPSS) (PILOT APTITUDE TEST) ONLY ONCE. THE GRADES
SECURED BY HIM AT THE FIRST TEST WILL THEREFORE
HOLD GOOD FOR EVERY SUBSEQUENT INTERVIEW HE HAS
WITH THE AIR FORCE SELECTION BOARD. A CANDIDATE
WHO FAILS IN THE CPSS CANNOT APPLY FOR ADMISSION TO
THE NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY EXAMINATION FOR THE
FLYING BRANCH OF AIR FORCE WING OR GENERAL DUTIES
(PILOT) BRANCH OR NAVAL AIR ARM.
19
Candidates who have been given the Computerised Pilot Selection
System (CPSS) for any previous NDA course should submit their
application for this examination for the Air Force Wing only if they
have been notified as having qualified in CPSS. In case a candidate
has failed in CPSS/not tested for CPSS for being HWG, the
candidate would be considered for Ground Duty branch of IAF,
Navy, Army and NAVAC as per his choices.

The form and manner of communication of the result of the

examination to individual candidates shall be decided by the
Commission at their discretion and the Commission will not enter
into correspondence with them regarding the result.

Success in the examination confers no right of

admission to the Academy. A candidate must satisfy the
appointing authority that he is suitable in all respects for
admission to the Academy.

10. DISQUALIFICATION FOR ADMISSION TO THE TRAINING

COURSE:

Candidates who were admitted to an earlier course at the

National Defence Academy, or to the 10 + 2 Cadet Entry Scheme of
Indian Naval Academy but were removed there from for lack of
officer-like qualities or on disciplinary grounds will not be admitted
to the Academy.

Candidates who were previously withdrawn from the

National Defence Academy or Indian Naval Academy on medical
grounds or left the above Academy voluntarily are however, eligible
for admission to the Academy provided they satisfy the medical
and other prescribed conditions.

11. The details regarding (a) the scheme and syllabus of the
examination, (b) guidelines for filling up the online Application
Form (c) Special Instructions to candidates for objective type tests,
(d) Physical standards for admission to the National Defence
Academy and Naval Academy and (e) Brief particulars of the
service etc., for candidates joining the National Defence Academy
and Naval Academy are given in Appendices I, II, III, IV and V
respectively.
12. WITHDRAWAL OF APPLICATIONS: THE COMMISSION HAS
INTRODUCED THE FACILITY OF WITHDRAWAL OF APPLICATION
FOR THOSE CANDIDATES WHO DO NOT WANT TO APPEAR FOR
THE EXAMINATION. INSTRUCTIONS ARE GIVEN IN APPENDIX-II
(B).

(Om Prakash)
Under Secretary
Union Public Service Commission
20
 APPENDIX-I

(The Scheme and Syllabus of Examination)

A. SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

1. The subjects of the written examination, the time allowed and

the maximum marks allotted to each subject will be as follows:—

Subject Code Duration Maximum

Marks
Mathematics 01 2½ Hours 300
General Ability Test 02 2½ Hours 600

Total 900
SSB Test/Interview: 900

2. THE PAPERS IN ALL THE SUBJECTS WILL CONSIST OF

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS ONLY. THE QUESTION PAPERS
(TEST BOOKLETS) OF MATHEMATICS AND PART “B” OF
GENERAL ABILITY TEST WILL BE SET BILINGUALLY IN HINDI AS
WELL AS ENGLISH.

3. In the question papers, wherever necessary, questions

involving the metric system of Weights and Measures only will be
set.

4. Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no

circumstances will they be allowed the help of a scribe to write
answers for them.

5. The Commission have discretion to fix qualifying marks in

any or all the subjects at the examination.

6. The candidates are not permitted to use calculator or

Mathematical or logarithmic table for answering objective type
papers (Test Booklets). They should not therefore, bring the same
inside the Examination Hall.
B. SYLLABUS OF THE EXAMINATION

PAPER-I
MATHEMATICS
(Code No. 01)
(Maximum Marks-300)
1. ALGEBRA

Concept of set, operations on sets, Venn diagrams.

De Morgan laws, Cartesian product, relation, equivalence relation.

21
 Representation of real numbers on a line. Complex
numbers—basic properties, modulus, argument, cube roots of
unity. Binary system of numbers. Conversion of a number in
decimal system to binary system and vice-versa. Arithmetic,
Geometric and Harmonic progressions. Quadratic equations with
real coefficients. Solution of linear inequations of two variables by
graphs. Permutation and Combination. Binomial theorem and its
applications. Logarithms and their applications.

2. MATRICES AND DETERMINANTS :

Types of matrices, operations on matrices. Determinant of a

matrix, basic properties of determinants. Adjoint and inverse of a
square matrix, Applications-Solution of a system of linear
equations in two or three unknowns by Cramer’s rule and by
Matrix Method.

3. TRIGONOMETRY :

Angles and their measures in degrees and in radians.

Trigonometrical ratios. Trigonometric identities Sum and difference
formulae. Multiple and Sub-multiple angles. Inverse trigonometric
functions. Applications-Height and distance, properties of
triangles.

4. ANALYTICAL GEOMETRY OF TWO AND THREE DIMENSIONS:

Rectangular Cartesian Coordinate system. Distance formula.

Equation of a line in various forms. Angle between two lines.
Distance of a point from a line. Equation of a circle in standard
and in general form. Standard forms of parabola, ellipse and
hyperbola. Eccentricity and axis of a conic. Point in a three
dimensional space, distance between two points. Direction Cosines
and direction ratios. Equation two points. Direction Cosines and
direction ratios. Equation of a plane and a line in various forms.
Angle between two lines and angle between two planes. Equation
of a sphere.

5. DIFFERENTIAL CALCULUS :

Concept of a real valued function–domain, range and

graph of a function. Composite functions, one to one, onto and
inverse functions. Notion of limit, Standard limits—examples.
Continuity of functions—examples, algebraic operations on
continuous functions. Derivative of function at a point, geometrical
and physical interpretation of a derivative—applications.
Derivatives of sum, product and quotient of functions, derivative of
a function with respect to another function, derivative of a
composite function. Second order derivatives. Increasing and
decreasing functions. Application of derivatives in problems of
maxima and minima.

22
6. INTEGRAL CALCULUS AND DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS :

Integration as inverse of differentiation, integration by

substitution and by parts, standard integrals involving algebraic
expressions, trigonometric, exponential and hyperbolic functions.
Evaluation of definite integrals—determination of areas of plane
regions bounded by curves—applications.

Definition of order and degree of a differential equation,

formation of a differential equation by examples. General and
particular solution of a differential equations, solution of first order
and first degree differential equations of various types—examples.
Application in problems of growth and decay.
7. VECTOR ALGEBRA :

Vectors in two and three dimensions, magnitude and

direction of a vector. Unit and null vectors, addition of vectors,
scalar multiplication of a vector, scalar product or dot product of
two vectors. Vector product or cross product of two vectors.
Applications—work done by a force and moment of a force and in
geometrical problems.

8. STATISTICS AND PROBABILITY :

Statistics : Classification of data, Frequency distribution,

cumulative frequency distribution—examples. Graphical
representation—Histogram, Pie Chart, frequency polygon—
examples. Measures of Central tendency—Mean, median and
mode. Variance and standard deviation—determination and
comparison. Correlation and regression.

Probability : Random experiment, outcomes and associated

sample space, events, mutually exclusive and exhaustive events,
impossible and certain events. Union and Intersection of events.
Complementary, elementary and composite events. Definition of
probability—classical and statistical—examples. Elementary
theorems on probability—simple problems. Conditional probability,
Bayes’ theorem—simple problems. Random variable as function on
a sample space. Binomial distribution, examples of random
experiments giving rise to Binominal distribution.

PAPER-II
GENERAL ABILITY TEST
(Code No. 02)
(Maximum Marks—600)
Part ‘A’—ENGLISH (Maximum Marks—200)
The question paper in English will be designed to test the
candidate’s understanding of English and workman like use of
words. The syllabus covers various aspects like : Grammar and
usage, vocabulary, comprehension and cohesion in extended text
to test the candidate’s proficiency in English.

23
 Part ‘B’—GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (Maximum Marks—400)

The question paper on General Knowledge will broadly

cover the subjects : Physics, Chemistry, General Science, Social
Studies, Geography and Current Events.
- The syllabus given below is designed to indicate the scope of these
subjects included in this paper. The topics mentioned are not to be
regarded as exhaustive and questions on topics of similar nature
not specifically mentioned in the syllabus may also be asked.
Candidate’s answers are expected to show their knowledge and
intelligent understanding of the subject.
Section ‘A’ (Physics)

Physical Properties and States of Matter, Mass, Weight,

Volume, Density and Specific Gravity, Principle of Archimedes,
Pressure Barometer.
Motion of objects, Velocity and Acceleration, Newton’s
Laws of Motion, Force and Momentum, Parallelogram of Forces,
Stability and Equilibrium of bodies, Gravitation, elementary ideas
of work, Power and Energy. Effects of Heat, Measurement of
Temperature and Heat, change of State and Latent Heat, Modes of
transference of Heat. Sound waves and their properties, Simple
musical instruments. Rectilinear propagation of Light, Reflection
and refraction. Spherical mirrors and Lenses, Human Eye.
Natural and Artificial Magnets, Properties of a Magnet,
Earth as a Magnet.
Static and Current Electricity, conductors and Non-
conductors, Ohm’s Law, Simple Electrical Circuits, Heating,
Lighting and Magnetic effects of Current, Measurement of
Electrical Power, Primary and Secondary Cells, Use of X-Rays.
General Principles in the working of the following:
Simple Pendulum, Simple Pulleys, Siphon, Levers,
Balloon, Pumps, Hydrometer, Pressure Cooker, Thermos Flask,
Gramophone, Telegraphs, Telephone, Periscope, Telescope,
Microscope, Mariner’s Compass; Lightening Conductors, Safety
Fuses.

Section ‘B’ (Chemistry)

Physical and Chemical changes. Elements, Mixtures

and Compounds, Symbols, Formulae and simple Chemical
Equations, Law of Chemical Combination (excluding problems).
Properties of Air and Water.

Preparation and Properties of Hydrogen, Oxygen,

Nitrogen and Carbondioxide, Oxidation and Reduction. Acids,
bases and salts. Carbon—different forms. Fertilizers—Natural and
Artificial. Material used in the preparation of substances like Soap,
Glass, Ink, Paper, Cement, Paints, Safety Matches and Gun-

24
Powder. Elementary ideas about the structure of Atom, Atomic
Equivalent and Molecular Weights, Valency.

Section ‘C’ (General Science)

Difference between the living and non-living. Basis of Life—Cells,

Protoplasms and Tissues. Growth and Reproduction in Plants and
Animals.
Elementary knowledge of Human Body and its important organs.
Common Epidemics, their causes and prevention.

Food—Source of Energy for man. Constituents of food, Balanced

Diet. The Solar System—Meteors and Comets, Eclipses.
Achievements of Eminent Scientists.

Section ‘D’ (History, Freedom Movement etc.)

A broad survey of Indian History, with emphasis on Culture and

Civilisation.
Freedom Movement in India. Elementary study of Indian
Constitution and Administration. Elementary knowledge of Five
Year Plans of India. Panchayati Raj, Co-operatives and Community
Development. Bhoodan, Sarvodaya, National Integration and
Welfare State, Basic Teachings of Mahatma Gandhi.
Forces shaping the modern world; Renaissance, Exploration
and Discovery; War of American Independence. French Revolution,
Industrial Revolution and Russian Revolution. Impact of Science
and Technology on Society. Concept of one World, United Nations,
Panchsheel, Democracy, Socialism and Communism. Role of India
in the present world.

Section ‘E’ (Geography)

The Earth, its shape and size. Lattitudes and Longitudes,

Concept of time. International Date Line. Movements of Earth and
their effects. Origin of Earth. Rocks and their
classification; Weathering—Mechanical and Chemical,
Earthquakes and Volcanoes. Ocean Currents and Tides
Atmosphere and its composition; Temperature and Atmospheric
Pressure, Planetary Winds, Cyclones and Anti-cyclones; Humidity;
Condensation and Precipitation; Types of Climate, Major Natural
regions of the World. Regional Geography of India—Climate,
Natural vegetation. Mineral and Power resources; location and
distribution of agricultural and Industrial activities. Important Sea
ports and main sea, land and air routes of India. Main items of
Imports and Exports of India.

Section ‘F’ (Current Events)

Knowledge of Important events that have happened in

India in the recent years. Current important world events.
25
 Prominent personalities—both Indian and International including
those connected with cultural activities and sports.

NOTE : Out of maximum marks assigned to part ‘B’ of this paper,

questions on Sections ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’, ‘D’, ‘E’ and ‘F’ will carry
approximately 25%, 15%, 10%, 20%, 20% and 10% weightages
respectively.

Intelligence and Personality Test

The SSB procedure consists of two stage Selection process

- stage I and stage II. Only those candidates who clear the stage I
are permitted to appear for stage II. The details are :

(a) Stage I comprises of Officer Intelligence Rating (OIR) tests are

Picture Perception * Description Test (PP&DT). The candidates
will be shortlisted based on combination of performance in OIR
Test and PP&DT.

(b) Stage II Comprises of Interview, Group Testing Officer Tasks,

Psychology Tests and the Conference. These tests are conducted
over 4 days. The details of these tests are given on the website
joinindianarmy.nic.in.

The personality of a candidate is assessed by three

different assessors viz. The Interviewing Officer (IO), Group
Testing Officer (GTO) and the Psychologist. There are no separate
weightage for each test. The mks are allotted by assessors only
after taking into consideration the performance of the candidate
holistically in all the test. In addition, marks for Conference are
also allotted based on the initial performance of the Candidate in
the three techniques and decision of the Board. All these have
equal weightage.

The various tests of IO, GTO and Psych are designed to

bring out the presence/absence of Officer Like Qualities and their
trainability in a candidate. Accordingly candidates are
Recommended or Not Recommended at the SSB.

APPENDIX–II (A)

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES FOR FILLING ONLINE

APPLICATION

Candidates are required to apply online by using the website

upsconline.nic.in .

Salient Features of the Online Applications Form are given

hereunder:

 Detailed instructions for filling up Online Applications are

available on the above mentioned website.
26
 Candidates will be required to complete the Online Application
form containing two stages viz. Part I and Part II.
 The candidates are required to pay a fee of Rs. 100/- (Rupees one
hundred only) [except SC/ST candidates and those specified in
Note-2 of Para 4 of the Notice who are exempted from payment of
fee] either by depositing the money in any branch of SBI by cash
or or by using any Visa/Master/RuPay Credit/Debit Card/UPI
Payment or by using Internet Banking of any Bank.
 Candidate should also have details of one photo ID viz. Aadhar
Card/ Voter Card/ PAN Card/ Passport/ Driving License/ School
Photo ID/Any other photo ID Card issued by the State/Central
Government. The details of this photo ID will have to be provided
by the candidate while filling up the online application form. The
same photo ID card will also have to be uploaded with the Online
Application Form. This photo ID will be used for all future
referencing and the candidate is advised to carry this ID while
appearing for examination/SSB.
 Before start filling up Online Application, a candidate must have
his photograph and signature duly scanned in the .jpg format in
such a manner that each file should not exceed 300 KB each and
must not be less than 20 KB in size for the photograph and
signature.
 Before start filling up Online Application, a candidate must have
his photo identity card document in PDF format only. The digital
size of PDF file should not exceed 300 KB and must not be less
than 20 KB.
 The Online Applications (Part I and II) can be filled from 21st
December, 2022 to 10th January, 2023 till 6:00 PM.
 The applicants must ensure that while filling their Application
Form, they are providing their valid and active E-mail Ids as the
Commission may use electronic mode of communication while
contacting them at different stages of examination process.
 The applicants are advised to check their e-mails at regular
intervals and ensure that the email addresses ending with @nic.in
are directed to their inbox folder and not to the SPAM folder or
any other folder.
 Candidates are strongly advised to apply online well in time
without waiting for the last date for submission of online
application. Moreover, the Commission has introduced
provision of withdrawal of application for the candidate, who
does not want to appear at the Examination, he/she may
withdraw his/her application.

27
 Appendix-II (B)

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO WITHDRAW

APPLICATION

1. Candidates are advised to go through the instructions

carefully before filling up the request for withdrawal of
application.

2. The Commission has provided the withdrawal facility from

18.01.2023 to 24.01.2023 (till 6:00 PM) to those
candidates who do not want to appear at this Examination.

3. Candidates are advised to provide the details of registered

application with registration-id which was completed and
submitted finally. There is no provision for withdrawing of
incomplete applications.

4. Before making the request for withdrawal, candidate must

ensure that they have access to the registered mobile
number and email-id which were provided by them at the
time of submission of application. Separate OTPs will be sent
by the Commission on the registered mobile number and
email-id. Request for withdrawal will be accepted only after it
is confirmed by validating the OTP details sent on
candidate’s mobile and email-id. Such OTPs will be valid for
30 Minutes only.

5. Request for generating OTP for withdrawal of

application will be accepted only till 5:30 PM on
24.01.2023.

6. If a candidate has submitted more than one application

form then the higher registration-id of Application (latest)
will be considered for withdrawal and all earlier applications
will be treated as cancelled automatically.

7. After the final acceptance of the request for online

withdrawal of application, the candidate must print the
authenticated receipt. Once application has been withdrawn
by the candidate, it cannot be revived in future.

8. UPSC has no provision to refund any fee amount paid by

candidates, so in case of successful withdrawal of
application the fees will not be refunded.

9. On successful completion of withdrawal of application, an

auto-generated email and SMS will be sent on candidate’s
registered email-id and mobile. In case any candidate has
not submitted the request for withdrawal of application
he/she may contact UPSC on email-id: [email protected]
immediately.

28
 10. Candidates are advised not to share the OTPs received
on email and SMS to anybody.

APPENDIX–III

Special Instructions to Candidates for objective type

tests

1. Articles permitted inside Examination Hall

Clip board or hard board (on which nothing is written)a
good quality Black Ball Pen for marking responses on the
Answer Sheet. Answer Sheet and sheet for rough work
will be supplied by the invigilator.
2. Articles not permitted inside Examination Hall
Do not bring into the Examination Hall any article other
than those specified above e.g. books, notes, loose sheets,
electronic or any other type of calculators, mathematical
and drawing instruments, Log Tables, stencils of maps,
slide rules, Test Booklets and rough sheets pertaining to
earlier session(s) etc.
Mobiles, phones, Bluetooth, pagers or any other
communication devices are not allowed inside the
premises where the examination is being conducted.
Any infringement of these instructions shall entail
disciplinary action including ban from future
examinations.
Candidates are advised in their own interest not to
bring any of the banned items including mobile
phones/Bluetooth/pagers to the venue of the
examination, as arrangements for safekeeping cannot
be assured. Candidates are advised not to bring any
valuable/costly items to the Examination Halls, as
safe keeping of the same cannot be assured.
Commission will not be responsible for any loss in this
regard.
3. Penalty for wrong Answers
THERE WILL BE PENALTY (NEGATIVE
MARKING) FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A
CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION
PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every
question. For each question for which a wrong answer
has been given by the candidate. One third (0.33) of the
marks assigned to that question will be deducted as
penalty.
(ii) If a candidate given more than one answer, it will be
treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will be same
penalty as above for that question.

29
 (iii) If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the
candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.
4. Unfair means strictly prohibited
No candidate shall copy from the papers of any other candidate
nor permit his papers to be copied nor give nor attempt to give
nor obtain nor attempt to obtain irregular assistance of any
description.
5. Conduct in Examination Hall
No candidate should misbehave in any manner or create
disorderly scene in the Examination Hall or harass the staff
employed by the Commission for the conduct of the
examination. Any such misconduct will be severely penalised.
6. Answer Sheet particulars

(i) Write with Black ball pen your Centre and subject followed by
test booklet series (in bracket), subject code and roll number at
the appropriate space provided on the answer sheet at the top.
Also encode your booklet series (A, B, C, or D as the case may
be), subject code and roll number in the circles provided for the
purpose in the answer sheet. The guidelines for writing the
above particulars and for encoding the above particulars are
given in Annexure. In case the booklet series is not printed on
the test booklet or answer sheet is un-numbered, please report
immediately to the invigilator and get the test booklet/answer
sheet replaced.

(ii) Candidates should note that any

omission/mistakes/discrepancy in encoding/filling of details in
the OMR answer sheet, especially with regard to Roll Number
and Test Booklet Series Code, will render the answer sheet liable
for rejection.

(iii) Immediately after commencement of the examination please

check that the test booklet supplied to you does not have any
unprinted or torn or missing pages or items etc., if so, get it
replaced by a complete test booklet of the same series and
subject.

7. Do not write your name or anything other than the specific

items of information asked for, on the answer sheet/test
booklet/sheet for rough work.

8. Do not fold or mutilate or damage or put any extraneous

marking in the Answer Sheet. Do not write anything on the
reverse of the answer sheet.

9. Since the answer sheets will be evaluated on computerised

machines, candidates should exercise due care in handling and
filling up the answer sheets. They should use black ball pen
only to darken the circles. For writing in boxes, they should
use black ball pen. Since the entries made by the
candidates by darkening the circles will be taken into

30
 account while evaluating the answer sheets on
computerised machines, they should make these entries
very carefully and accurately.

10. Method of marking answers

In the ‘OBJECTIVE TYPE’ of examination, you do not write the

answers. For each question (hereinafter referred to as “Item”)
several suggested answers (hereinafter referred to as
“Responses”) are given. You have to choose one response to
each item. The question paper will be in the Form of TEST
BOOKLET. The booklet will contain item bearing numbers 1, 2,
3.......etc. Under each item, Responses marked (a), (b), (c), (d)
will be given. Your task will be to choose the correct response.
If you think there is more than one correct response, then
choose what you consider the best response.

In any case, for each item you are to select only one response, if
you select more than one response, your response will be
considered wrong.
In the Answer Sheet, Serial Nos. From 1 to 160 are printed.
Against each numbers, there are circles marked (a), (b), (c) and
(d). After you have read each item in the Test Booklet and
decided which one of the given responses is correct or the best.
You have to mark your response by completely blackening
with black ball pen to indicate your response.
For example, if the correct answer to item 1 is (b), then the circle
containing the letter (b) is to be completely blackened with black
ball pen as shown below :- Example : (a) • (c) (d)

11. Entries in Scannable Attendance List.

Candidates are required to fill in the relevant particulars with
black ball pen only against their columns in the Scannable
Attendance List, as given below.
i) Blacken the circle (P) under the column (Present/Absent)
ii) Blacken the relevant circle for Test Booklet Series
iii) Write Test Booklet Serial No.
iv) Write the Answer Sheet Serial No. and also blacken the
Corresponding circles below.
v) Append signature in the relevant column.
12. Please read and abide by the instructions on the cover of Test
Booklet. If any candidate indulges in disorderly or improper
conduct he will render himself liable for disciplinary action
and/or imposition of a penalty as the Commission may deem fit.

ANNEXURE

How to fill in the Answer Sheet of objective type tests in the

Examination Hall

Please follow these instructions very carefully. You may note that
since the answer sheets are to be evaluated on machine, any violation
of these instructions may result in reduction of your score for which
31
you would yourself be responsible. Before you mark your responses
on the Answer Sheet, you will have to fill in various particulars in it.
As soon as the candidate receives the Answer Sheet, he should check
that it is numbered at the bottom. If it is found un-numbered he
should at once get it replaced by a numbered one.

You will see from the Answer Sheet that you will have to fill in the top
line, which reads thus:

क5 fवषय fवषय को ड अन मो ोक
Centre Subject S. Code Roll Number

If you are, say, appearing for the examination in Delhi Centre for the
Mathematics Paper* and your Roll No. is 081276, and your test
booklet series is ‘A’ you should fill in thus, using black ball pen.

क5 fवषय fवषय को ड अन मो क
Centre Delhi Subject Mathe- S .Co0 de1 Roll 0N um
8 ber
1 2 7 6
matics (A)

You should write with black ball pen the name of the centre and
subject in English or Hindi

The test Booklet Series is indicated by Alphabets A, B, C or D at the

top right hand corner of the Booklet.

Write your Roll Numbers exactly as it is in your e-Admission

Certificate with Black ball pen in the boxes provided for this purpose.
Do not omit any zero(s) which may be there.

The next step is to find out the appropriate subject code from the Time
Table. Now encode the Test Booklet Series, Subject Code and the Roll
Number in the circles provided for this purpose. Do the encoding with
Black Ball pen. The name of the Centre need not be encoded.

Writing and encoding of Test Booklet Series is to be done after

receiving the Test Booklet and confirming the Booklet Series from the
same. For Mathematics *subject paper of ‘A’ Test Booklet Series you
have to encode the subject code, which is 01. Do it thus:
प िु तक म (ए) fवषय 0
1
Booklet Series (A) Subject 0

2 2

B 3 3

4 4

C 5 5

6 6

D 7 7

8 8

32 9 9
 अन मो ोक
Roll Number

All that is required is to

blacken 0 8 1 2 7 6
completely the circle 0 0 0 0 0

marked ‘A’ below 1 1 1 1 1

the Booklet Series and 2 2 2 2 2

below the subject code

3 3 3 3 3 3

blacken completely the

Circles for “0” (in the first
4 4 4 4 4 4

vertical column) and “1” (in 5 5 5 5 5 5

the second vertical 6 6 6 6 6

column). You should then 7 7 7 7 7

encode the Roll No.081276. 8 8 8 8 8

Do it thus similarly: 9 9 9 9 9 9

Important : Please
ensure that you have
carefully encoded your
subject. Test Booklet
series and Roll Number:

*This is just illustrative

and may not be relevant
to your Examination.

APPENDIX–IV

GUIDELINES FOR PHYSICAL STANDARDS FOR ADMISSION TO

THE NATIONAL DEFENCE ACADEMY.

NOTE : CANDIDATES MUST BE PHYSICALLY AND MENTALLY FIT

ACCORDING TO THE PRESCRIBED PHYSICAL STANDARDS.
MEDICAL FITNESS CRITERIA GIVEN BELOW ARE AS PER
EXISTING GUIDELINES AS ON DATE OF PUBLICATION AND
THESE GULIDELINES ARE SUBJECT TO REVISION.

A NUMBER OF QUALIFIED CANDIDATES ARE REJECTED

SUBSEQUENTLY ON MEDICAL GROUNDS. CANDIDATES ARE
THEREFORE ADVISED IN THEIR OWN INTEREST TO GET
THEMSELVES MEDICALLY
EXAMINED BEFORE SUBMITTING THEIR APPLICATIONS TO
AVOID DISAPPOINTMENT AT THE FINAL STAGE.

1. Candidates are also advised to rectify minor

defects/ailments in order to speed up finalisation of medical
examination conducted at the Military Hospital after being
recommended at the SSB.

33
2. Few of such commonly found defects/ailments are listed below:

(a) Wax (Ears)

(b) Deviated Nasal Septum

(c) Hydrocele/Phimosis

(d) Overweight/Underweight

(e) Under Sized Chest

(f) Piles

(g) Gynaecomastia

(h) Tonsillitis

(i) Varicocele

NOTE: Permanent body tattoos are only permitted on inner face of

forearm i.e. from inside of elbow to the wrist and on the reverse
side of palm/back (dorsal) side of hand/Permanent body tattoos
on any other part of the body are not acceptable and candidates
will be barred from further selection. Tribes with tattoo marks on
the face or body as per their existing custom and traditions will be
permitted on a case to case basis. Comdt Selection Centre will be
competent auth for clearing such cases.

3. Civilian candidates appearing for all types of commission in

the Armed Forces will be entitled to out-patients treatment from
service sources at public expense for injuries sustained or diseases
contracted during the course of their examination by the Selection
Board. They will also be entitled to in-patient treatment at public
expense in the Officer’s ward of a hospital provided—

(a) the injury is sustained during the tests or,

(b) the disease is contracted during the course of the

examination by selection board and there is no suitable
accommodation in local civil hospital or it is impracticable to
remove the patient to the civil hospital; or,

(c) the medical board requires the candidate’s admission

for observation.

NOTE: They are not entitled to special nursing.

4. Medical Procedure

A candidate recommended by the Services Selection Board

will undergo a medical examination by a Board of Service Medical
34
 Officers. Only those candidates will be admitted to the academy
who are declared fit by the Medical Board. The proceedings of the
Medical Board are confidential and will not be divulged to anyone.
However, the candidates declared unfit will be intimated by the
President of the Medical Board and the procedure for request for
an Appeal Medical Board will also be intimated to the candidate.

5. Candidates declared unfit during Appeal Medical Board will

be intimated about the provision of Review Medical Board.

6. Medical Standards and procedure for Army, Navy and Air

Force (Flying Branch and Ground Duty Branch) are given in
Annexure ‘A’. Annexure ‘B’ and Annexure ‘C’ respectively, which is
also available at following websites:-

(i) For Officers Entry into Army : Medical Standards and

Procedure of Medical Examination at
www.joinindianarmy.nic.in
(ii) For Officers Entry for Air Force (flying & Ground duty
branches) Medical Standards and Procedure of Medical
Examination at www.careerindianairforce.cdac.in
(iii) For Officers Entry for Navy : Medical Standards and
Medical Examination at www.joinindiannavy.gov.in

Note : The proceedings of the Medical Board are confidential will

not be divulged to anyone. Directorate General of Recruiting has
no role to play in any Medical Boards and procedure advised by the
Competent medical authorities will be strictly adhered.

MEDICAL EXAMINATION OF FEMALE CANDIDATES

1. General methods and principles of medical examination of female

candidates will be the same as for male candidates. However, special
points pertaining to Medical Examination of female candidates are given
in succeeding paragraphs.

2. A detailed menstrual, gynaecological and obstetric history in the

form of a questionnaire is to be obtained from the candidate.

3. A detailed physical and systemic examination will be carried out of

the candidate and she should be examined by a Lady Medical Officer or a
Lady Gynecologist only.

4. The examination must include the following inspections:-

(a) External genitalia.

(b) Hernial orifices and the perineum.

(c) Any evidence of stress urinary incontinence or genital

prolapsed outside introitus.
35
 (d) Evidence of lump breast and galactorrhoea

5. In all unmarried female candidates, speculum or per vaginal

examination will not be carried out.

6. Ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis is mandatory in all

female candidates during the initial Medical Examination.

7. Any abnormality of external genitalia will be considered on merits

of each case. Significant hirsutism especially with male pattern of hair
growth along with radiological evidence of PCOS, will be a cause for
rejection.

8. Following conditions will entail female candidates being declared

unfit:

(a) Primary or secondary amenorrhoea

(b) Severe Menorrhagia or/ and severe dysmenorrhea.

(c) Stress urinary incontinence

(d) Congenital elongation of cervix or prolapsed which comes

outside the introitus even after corrective surgery.

(e) Pregnancy. Pregnancy will be a cause of rejection for NDA

entry.

(f) Complex ovarian cyst of any size.

(g) Simple ovarian cyst more than six cm.

(h) Endometriosis and Adenomyosis.

(i) Submucous fibroid of any size.

(j) Broad ligament or cervical fibroid of any size causing

pressure over ureter.

(k) Single fibroid uterus more than three cm in diameter;

fibroids more than two in number (each fibroid not more than
fifteen mm in diameter) or fibroids causing distortion of
endometrial cavity.

(l) Congenital uterine anomalies except arcuate uterus.

(m) Acute or chronic pelvic infection.

(n) Disorders of sexual differentiation.

(o) Any other condition will be considered on merits of each

case by the Gynaecologist.
36
9. Following conditions will be declared as FIT:-

(a) Unilocular clear ovarian cyst up to six cm.

(b) Minimal fluid in pouch of Douglas.

10. Medical fitness after laparoscopic surgery or

laparotomy. Candidates reporting after undergoing cystectomy or
myomectomy will be accepted as fit if she is asymptomatic, ultrasound
pelvis is normal, histopathology of tissues removed is benign and per
operative findings are not suggestive of endometriosis. Fitness will be
considered twelve weeks after laparoscopic surgery and when the wound
has healed fully. Candidate will be considered FIT after laprotomy one
year after the surgical procedure.

Annexure -A

MEDICAL STANDARDS AND PROCEDURE OF MEDICAL

EXAMINATION
FOR OFFICER ENTRIES INTO ARMY

1. Introduction:

(a) The primary responsibility of the Armed Forces is defending

territorial integrity of the nation. For this purpose Armed Forces
should always be prepared for war. Armed Forces personnel
undergo rigorous training in preparation for war. Armed Forces
also assist civil authorities if required whenever the need arises
like in the case of disasters. To carry out such tasks Armed Forces
requires candidates with robust mental and physical health. Such
candidates should also be capable of withstanding rigorous stress
and strain of service conditions to perform their military duties in
adverse terrain and uncongenial climate incl sea and air, in remote
areas, in austere conditions with no medical facilities. A medically
unfit individual due to disease/disability can not only drain
precious resources but can also jeopardize lives of other members
of the team during operations. Therefore only medically fit
candidates are selected who emerge fit to be trained for war.

(b) The Armed Forces Medical Services are responsible for

ensuring selection of ‘Medically Fit’ individuals into the Armed
Forces.

(c) All Armed Forces personnel regardless of occupational

specialty, unit assignment, age or gender should have a basic level
of general ‘Medical fitness’ when inducted into service. This basic
level of fitness can then be used as a benchmark to train personnel
for further physically demanding occupational specialties or unit
assignments. This will enhance deployable combat readiness.

(d) Medical examinations are carried out meticulously by Armed

Forces Medical Services Medical Officers. These Medical Officers
37
 are well oriented to specific working conditions of Armed Forces
after undergoing basic military training. Medical examinations are
finalized by the Board of Medical Officers. The decision of the
Medical Board is final. In case of any doubt about any
disease/disability/injury/genetic disorder etc noticed during
enrolment/ commissioning, the benefit of doubt will be given
to State.

Medical Standards.

2. Medical standards described in the following paragraphs are

general guidelines. They are not exhaustive in view of the vast knowledge
of disease. These standards are subject to change with advancement in
the scientific knowledge and change in working conditions of Armed
Forces due to introduction of new eqpt/trades. Such changes will be
promulgated from time to time by policy letters by competent authorities.
Medical Officers, Spl Medical Officers and Medical Boards will take
appropriate decisions based on following guidelines and principles.

3. To be deemed ‘Medically fit’, a candidate must be in good

physical and mental health and free from any
disease/syndrome/disability likely to interfere with the efficient
performance of military duties in any terrain, climate, season incl
sea and air, in remote areas, in austere conditions with no medical
aid. Candidate also should be free of medical conditions which
require frequent visit to medical facilities and use of any aid /
drugs.
(a) It will, however, be ensured that candidate is in good health.
There should be no evidence of weak constitution, imperfect
development of any system, any congenital deformities/
diseases/syndrome or malformation.
(b) No swelling/s including tumours/cyst/swollen lymph node/s
anywhere on the body. No sinus/es or fistula/e anywhere on
the body.
(c) No hyper or hypo pigmentation or any other
disease/syndrome/disability of the skin.
(d) No hernia anywhere on the body.
(e) No scars which can impair the functioning and cause
significant disfigurement.

(f) No arterio-venous malformation anywhere in/on the body.

(g) No malformation of the head and face including asymmetry,
deformity from fracture or depression of the bones of the
skull; or scars indicating old operative interference and
malformation like sinuses and fistulae etc.
(h) No impairment of vision including colour perception and field
of vision.
(j) No hearing impairment, deformities/disabilities in ears
vestibule-cochlear system.

38
 (k) No impediment of speech due to any aetiology.
(l) No disease/disability/ congenital anomaly/syndrome of the
bones or cartilages of the nose, or palate, nasal polyps or
disease of the naso-Pharynx, uvula and accessory sinuses.
There should be no nasal deformity and no features of chronic
tonsillitis.
(m) No disease /syndrome/disability of the throat, palate tonsils
or gums or any disease or injury affecting the normal function
of either mandibular joint.
(n) No disease /syndrome/disability of the heart and blood
vessels incl congenital, genetic, organic incl hypertension,
and conduction disorders.
(o) No evidence of pulmonary tuberculosis or previous history of
this disease or any other disease/syndrome/disability chronic
disease of the lungs and chest including
allergies/immunological conditions, connective tissue
disorders, musculoskeletal deformities of chest.
(p) No disease of the digestive system including any abnormality
of the liver, pancreas incl endocrinal, congenital, hereditary or
genetic diseases /syndromes and disabilities.
(q) No diseases/syndrome/disability of any endocrinal system,
reticuloendothelial system.
(r) No diseases/ syndrome/ disability of genito-urinary system
including malformations, atrophy/hypertrophy of any organ
or gland.
(s) No active, latent or congenital venereal disease.
(t) No history or evidence of mental disease, epilepsy,
incontinence of urine or enuresis.
(u) No disease/deformity/syndrome of musculo-skeletal system
and joints incl skull, spine and limbs.
(v) There is no congenital or hereditary disease/
syndrome/disability.

4. Psychological examinations will be carried out during SSB

selection procedure. However, any abnormal traits noticed during
medical examination will be a cause for rejection.

5. Based on the above mentioned guidelines usual medical conditions

which lead to rejection are:-

(a) Musculo-skeletal deformities of spine, chest and pelvis, limbs

e.g. scoliosis, torticollis, kyphosis, deformities of vertebrae,
ribs, sternum, clavicle, other bones of skeleton, mal-united
fractures, deformed limbs, fingers, toes and congenital
deformities of spine.
(b) Deformities of Limbs: Deformed limbs, toes and fingers,
deformed joints like cubitus valgus, cubitus varus, knock

39
 knees, bow legs, hyper mobile joints, amputated toes or
fingers and shortened limbs.
(c) Vision and eye: Myopia, hypermetropia, astigmatism, lesions
of cornea, lens, retina, squint and ptosis.
(d) Hearing, ears, nose and throat: Sub standard hearing
capability, lesions of pinna, tympanic membranes, middle ear,
deviated nasal septum, and congenital abnormalities of lips,
palate, peri-auricular sinuses and lymphadenitis/ adenopathy
of neck. Hearing capacity should be 610 cm for
Conversational Voice and Forced Whispering for each ear.
(e) Dental conditions:-
(i) Incipient pathological conditions of the jaws, which are
known to be progressive or recurrent.
(ii) Significant jaw discrepancies between upper and lower
jaw which may hamper efficient mastication and/or
speech will be a cause for rejection.
(iii) Symptomatic Temporo-Mandibular Joint clicking and
tenderness. A mouth opening of less than 30 mm
measured at the incisal edges, Dislocation of the TMJ
on wide opening.
(iv) All potentially cancerous conditions.
(v) Clinical diagnosis for sub mucous fibrosis with or
without restriction of mouth opening.
(vi) Poor oral health status in the form of gross visible
calculus, periodontal pockets and/or bleeding from
gums.
(vii) Loose teeth: More than two mobile teeth will render the
candidate unfit.
(viii) Cosmetic or post-traumatic maxillofacial
surgery/trauma will be UNFIT for at least 24 weeks
from the date of surgery/injury whichever is later.
(ix) If malocclusion of teeth is hampering efficient
mastication, maintenance of oral hygiene or general
nutrition or performance of duties efficiently.

(f) Chest: Tuberculosis, or evidence of tuberculosis, lesions of

lungs, heart, musculo skeletal lesions of chest wall.
(g) Abdomen and genitor-urinary system: Hernia, un-descended
testis, varicocele, organomegaly, solitary kidney, horseshoe
kidney & cysts in the kidney/liver, Gall bladder stones, renal
and ureteric stones, lesions/deformities of urogenital organs,
piles, sinuses and lymphadenitis/pathy.
(h) Nervous system: Tremors, speech impediment and
imbalance.
(j) Skin: Vitiligo, haemangiomas, warts, corns, dermatitis, skin
infections growths and hyperhydrosis.

40
6. Height and Weight Standards for Female Candidates joining
NDA (Army):

Age Minimum Age: 17 Age: 20 Age : 30 + Age:

(yrs) weight for all to 20 +01 day-30 01 Above
ages yrs yrs Day- 40 40 yrs
yrs
Height Weight (Kg) Weight Weight Weight Weight
(cm) (Kg) (Kg) (Kg) (Kg)
140 35.3 43.1 45.1 47.0 49.0
141 35.8 43.7 45.7 47.7 49.7
142 36.3 44.4 46.4 48.4 50.4
143 36.8 45.0 47.0 49.1 51.1
144 37.3 45.6 47.7 49.8 51.8
145 37.8 46.3 48.4 50.5 52.6
146 38.4 46.9 49.0 51.2 53.3
147 38.9 47.5 49.7 51.9 54.0
148 39.4 48.2 50.4 52.6 54.8
149 40.0 48.8 51.1 53.3 55.5
150 40.5 49.5 51.8 54.0 56.3
151 41.0 50.2 52.4 54.7 57.0
152 41.6 50.8 53.1 55.4 57.8
153 42.1 51.5 53.8 56.2 58.5
154 42.7 52.2 54.5 56.9 59.3
155 43.2 52.9 55.3 57.7 60.1
156 43.8 53.5 56.0 58.4 60.8
157 44.4 54.2 56.7 59.2 61.6
158 44.9 54.9 57.4 59.9 62.4
159 45.5 55.6 58.1 60.7 63.2
160 46.1 56.3 58.9 61.4 64.0
161 46.7 57.0 59.6 62.2 64.8
162 47.2 57.7 60.4 63.0 65.6
163 47.8 58.5 61.1 63.8 66.4

(a) The minimum height required for entry into the Armed Forces for
female Candidates is 152 cm. Gorkhas and candidates belonging
to Hills of North Eastern region of India, Garhwal and Kumaon will
be accepted with a minimum height of 148 cm. An allowance for
growth of 02 cm will be made for candidates below 18 yrs at the
time of examination. The minimum height requirement for the
Flying Branch is 163 cm. Flying Branch also requires other
anthropometric standards like sitting height, leg length and thigh
length.

(b) Weight for height charts given below is for all categories of
personnel. This chart is prepared based on the BMI. The chart
specifies the minimum acceptable weight that candidates of a
particular height must have. Weights below the minimum specified
will not be acceptable in any case. The maximum acceptable
weight of height has been specified in age wise categories. Weights
higher than the acceptable limit will be acceptable only in the case
of candidates with documented evidence of body building,
41
 wrestling, and boxing at the National level. In such cases the
following criteria will have to be met.

(i) Body Mass Index should be below 25.

(ii) Waist Hip ratio should be below 0.9 for male and 0.8 for
female.
(iii) Waist Circumference should be less than 90 cm for male and
80 cm for female.
(iv) All biochemical metabolic parameters should be within
normal limits.

Note: The height and weight for candidates below 17 years will be
followed as per guidelines by ‘Indian Academy of Paediatrics growth
charts for height, weight and BMI for 05 Years to 16 Years old children’
amended from time to time.

7. Height and Weight Standards for Male Candidates joining NDA

(Army): Height requirement varies as per the stream of entry. Weight
should be proportionate to height as per the chart given below:-

Age Minimum Age: 17 to Age: Age: 30 Age:

(yrs) weight 20 yrs 20+01 + 01 day Above
for all day - 30 - 40 yrs 40 yrs
ages yrs
Height Weight Weight Weight Weight Weight
(cm) (Kg) (Kg) (Kg) (Kg) (Kg)
140 35.3 43.1 45.1 47.0 49.0
141 35.8 43.7 45.7 47.7 49.7
142 36.3 44.4 46.4 48.4 50.4
143 36.8 45.0 47.0 49.1 51.1
144 37.3 45.6 47.7 49.8 51.8
145 37.8 46.3 48.4 50.5 52.6
146 38.4 46.9 49.0 51.2 53.3
147 38.9 47.5 49.7 51.9 54.0
148 39.4 48.2 50.4 52.6 54.8
149 40.0 48.8 51.1 53.3 55.5
150 40.5 49.5 51.8 54.0 56.3
151 41.0 50.2 52.4 54.7 57.0
152 41.6 50.8 53.1 55.4 57.8
153 42.1 51.5 53.8 56.2 58.5
154 42.7 52.2 54.5 56.9 59.3
155 43.2 52.9 55.3 57.7 60.1
156 43.8 53.5 56.0 58.4 60.8
157 44.4 54.2 56.7 59.2 61.6
158 44.9 54.9 57.4 59.9 62.4
159 45.5 55.6 58.1 60.7 63.2
160 46.1 56.3 58.9 61.4 64.0

42
161 46.7 57.0 59.6 62.2 64.8
162 47.2 57.7 60.4 63.0 65.6
163 47.8 58.5 61.1 63.8 66.4
164 48.4 59.2 61.9 64.6 67.2
165 49.0 59.9 62.6 65.3 68.1
166 49.6 60.6 63.4 66.1 68.9
167 50.2 61.4 64.1 66.9 69.7
168 50.8 62.1 64.9 67.7 70.6
169 51.4 62.8 65.7 68.5 71.4
170 52.0 63.6 66.5 69.4 72.3
171 52.6 64.3 67.3 70.2 73.1
172 53.3 65.1 68.0 71.0 74.0
173 53.9 65.8 68.8 71.8 74.8
174 54.5 66.6 69.6 72.7 75.7
175 55.1 67.4 70.4 73.5 76.6
176 55.8 68.1 71.2 74.3 77.4
177 56.4 68.9 72.1 75.2 78.3
178 57.0 69.7 72.9 76.0 79.2
179 57.7 70.5 73.7 76.9 80.1
180 58.3 71.3 74.5 77.8 81.0
181 59.0 72.1 75.4 78.6 81.9
182 59.6 72.9 76.2 79.5 82.8
183 60.3 73.7 77.0 80.4 83.7
184 60.9 74.5 77.9 81.3 84.6
185 61.6 75.3 78.7 82.1 85.6
186 62.3 76.1 79.6 83.0 86.5
187 62.9 76.9 80.4 83.9 87.4
188 63.6 77.8 81.3 84.8 88.4
189 64.3 78.6 82.2 85.7 89.3
190 65.0 79.4 83.0 86.6 90.3
191 65.7 80.3 83.9 87.6 91.2
192 66.4 81.1 84.8 88.5 92.2
193 67.0 81.9 85.7 89.4 93.1
194 67.7 82.8 86.6 90.3 94.1
195 68.4 83.7 87.5 91.3 95.1
196 69.1 84.5 88.4 92.2 96.0
197 69.9 85.4 89.3 93.1 97.0
198 70.6 86.2 90.2 94.1 98.0
199 71.3 87.1 91.1 95.0 99.0
200 72.0 88.0 92.0 96.0 100.0
201 72.7 88.9 92.9 97.0 101.0
202 73.4 89.8 93.8 97.9 102.0
203 74.2 90.7 94.8 98.9 103.0
204 74.9 91.6 95.7 99.9 104.0
205 75.6 92.5 96.7 100.9 105.1
206 76.4 93.4 97.6 101.8 106.1
43
207 77.1 94.3 98.6 102.8 107.1
208 77.9 95.2 99.5 103.8 108.2
209 78.6 96.1 100.5 104.8 109.2
210 79.4 97.0 101.4 105.8 110.3

(a) Weight for height charts given above is for all categories of
personnel. This chart is prepared based on the BMI. The chart
specifies the minimum acceptable weight that candidates of a
particular height must have. Weights below the minimum specified
will not be acceptable in any case. The maximum acceptable
weight of height has been specified in age wise categories. Weights
higher than the acceptable limit will be acceptable only in the case
of candidates with documented evidence of body building,
wrestling, and boxing at the National level. In such cases the
following criteria will have to be met.
(i) Body Mass Index should be below 25.
(ii) Waist Hip ratio should be below 0.9 for males and 0.8
for females.
(iii) Waist Circumference should be less than 90 cm for
males and 80 cm for females.
(vi) All biochemical metabolic parameters should be within
normal limits.

Note: The height and weight for candidates below 17 years will be
followed as per guidelines by ‘Indian Academy of Paediatrics
growth charts for height, weight and BMI for 05 Years to 16 Years
old children’ amended from time to time.

(b) The minimum height required for male/female candidates for

entry into the Armed Forces is 157 cm or as decided by the
respective recruiting agency. Gorkhas and candidates
belonging to Hills of North Eastern region of India. Garhwal and
Kumaon, will be accepted with a minimum height of 152 cm.

Note : An allowance for growth of 02 cm will be made for both

male and female candidates below 18 yrs of age at the time of
examination. The minimum height requirement for the Flying
Branch is 163 cm. Anthropometric standards like sitting
height, leg length and thigh length are also required by the
Flying Branch.

8. Following investigations will be carried out for all officer

entries and for pre-commission training academies. However
examining medical officer/ medical board may ask for any other
investigation deemed fit.
(a) Complete haemogram
(b) Urine RE
(c) Chest X-ray
(d) USG abdomen and Pelvis.

44
 9. Certain standards vary depending on age and type entry viz
stds for vision as follows:-
Parameter Standards : 10+2 Graduate & Post graduate &
entries, equivalent equivalent
NDA(Army), TES entries: CDSE, entries: JAG,
and equivalent IMA, OTA, UES, AEC , APS,
NCC,TGC & RVC,TA, AMC,
equivalent ADC, SL &
equivalent
Uncorrected 6/36 & 6/36 6/60 &6/60 3/60 & 3/60
vision(max
allowed)
BCVA Rt 6/6 & Lt 6/6 Rt 6/6 & Lt Rt 6/6 & Lt 6/6
6/6
Myopia < -2.5 D Sph < -3.50 D Sph < -5.50 D Sph
( including max ( including (including max
astigmatism ≤ +/- max astigmatism ≤
2.0 D Cyl) astigmatism ≤ +/- 2.0 D Cyl)
+/- 2.0 D Cyl)
Hypermetropia <+2.5 D Sph, <+3.50 DSph <+3.50 D Sph
( including max ( including max (including max
astigmatism ≤ +/- astigmatism ≤ astigmatism ≤ +/-
2.0 D Cyl) +/- 2.0 D Cyl) 2.0 D Cyl)
Lasik/equivalent Not permitted Permitted * Permitted*
surgery
Colour perception CP-II CP-II CP-II

*LASIK or Equivalent kerato-refractive procedure

(a) Any candidate who has undergone any kerato-refractive

procedure will have a certificate/operative notes from the medical
centre where he/she has undergone the procedure, specifying the
date and type of surgery.

Note: Absence of such a certificate will necessitate the

Ophthalmologist to make a decision to reject the candidate with
specific endorsement of “Unfit due to undocumented Visual Acuity
corrective procedure”.

(b) In order to be made FIT, the following criteria will have to be

met:

(i) Age more than 20 yrs at the time of surgery

(ii) Minimum 12 months post LASIK
(iii) Central corneal thickness equal to or more than 450 µ
(iv) Axial length by IOL Master equal to or less than 26 mm

45
 (v) Residual refraction of less than or equal to +/- 1.0 D
incl cylinder, (provided acceptable in the category
applied for).
(vi) Normal healthy retina.
(vii) Corneal topography and ectasia markers can also be
included as addl criteria.

Candidates who have undergone radial keratotomy are permanently

unfit

10. Form to be used for med board proceedings is AFMSF-2A.

11. Procedure of Medical Examination Board: Medical Examination

Board for selection for officers and pre-commissioning training
academies are convened at designated Armed Forces Medical Services
Hospitals near Service Selection Boards (SSB). These Medical Boards are
termed as ‘Special Medical Board’ (SMB). Candidates who clear SSB
interview are referred to Armed Forces Medical Services Hospital with
identification documents. Staff Surgeon of Hospital will identify the
candidate, guide the candidate to fill the relevant portions of the AFMSF-
2, organize investigations and examination by Medical, Surgical, Eye,
ENT, Dental specialists. Female candidates are examined by
Gynaecology Specialist also. After examination by Specialists, the
candidate is brought before Medical Board. Medical Board once satisfied
with findings of Specialists will declare fitness of candidate. If any
candidate is declared ‘Unfit’ by SMB, such candidates can request for
‘Appeal Medical Board’ (AMB). Detailed procedure for AMB will be
provided by President SMB.

12. Miscellaneous aspects:

(a) Clinical methods of examinations are laid down by O/O

DGAFMS.

(b) Female candidates will be examined by female medical officers

and specialists. In case of non availability they will be
examined by Medical Officer in the presence of female
attendant.

(c) Fitness following surgery: Candidates may be declared fit after

surgery. However, there should not be any complication; scar
should be healthy, well healed and attained required tensile
strength. The candidate shall be considered fit after 01 year of
open/laproscopic surgeries for hernia and twelve weeks of
laparoscopic abdominal surgery for cholesystectomy. For any
other surgery, fitness shall be considered only after 12 weeks
of the laparoscopic surgery and 12 months after an open
surgery. Candidate shall be unfit for any surgeries for
injuries, ligament tear, and meniscus tear of any joint,
irrespective of duration of surgery.

Annexure B
46
 MEDICAL STANDARDS AND PROCEDURE OF MEDICAL
EXAMINATION FOR
OFFICER ENTRIES INTO NAVY

PROCEDURE ON CONDUCT OF MEDICAL BOARDS

1. A candidate recommended by the Services Selection Board (SSB)

will undergo a medical examination (Special Medical Board) by a Board
of Service Medical Officers. Only those candidates, who are declared fit
by the Medical Board, will be admitted to the Academy. However, the
President of the Medical Board will intimate the candidates declared
unfit of their results and the procedure for an Appeal Medical Board
(AMB)to be completed in a Command Hospital or equivalent within 42
days of Special Medical Board.

2. Candidates who are declared unfit by the Appeal Medical Board

(AMB) may request for Review Medical board (RMB) within one day of
completion of Appeal Medical Board. The President AMB will intimate
about the procedure of challenging the findings of AMB. The candidates
will also be intimated that sanction for holding of Review Medical Board
(RMB) will be granted at the discretion of DGAFMS based on the merit of
the case and that RMB is not a matter of right. The candidate should
address the request for RMB if he/ she so desires to DMPR, Integrated
Headquarters Ministry of Defence (Navy), Sena Bhawan, Rajaji Marg,
New Delhi – 110011 and a copy of the same is handed over to the
President of AMB. O/o DGAFMS will inform the date and place (Delhi
and Pune only) where the candidate will appear for a RMB.

3. The following investigations will be carried out mandatorily during

Special Medical Board. However, Medical Officer / Medical Board
examining a candidate may ask for any other investigation as required or
indicated :-

(a) Complete Haemogram

(b) Urine RE/ME

(c) X Ray chest PA view

(d) USG abdomen & pelvis

(e) Liver Function Tests

(f) Renal Function Tests
(g) X Ray Lumbosacral spine, Anterior-Posterior and Lateral
views
(h) Electrocardiogram(ECG)

PHYSICAL STANDARDS FOR OFFICERS (MALE/ FEMALE) ON

ENTRY

47
 4. The candidate must be physically fit according to the prescribed
physical standards.

(a) The candidate must be in good physical and mental health

and free from any disease/ disability which is likely to interfere
with the efficient performance of dutiesboth ashore and afloat,
under peace as well as war conditions in any part of the world.

(b) There should be no evidence of weak constitution, bodily

defects or underweight. The candidate should not be overweight or
obese.

5. Weight

Height-Weight Chart : Navy

Heig 17 yrs + 1 18 yrs + 1 20 yrs + 1

ht in Up to 17 yrs day day day Above 30 yrs
Mtrs to 18 yrs to 20 yrs to 30 yrs
Mini Mini Maxi
Mini Maxi Maxi Mini Maxi Mini Maxi
mu mu mu
mum mum mum mum mum mum mum
m m m
Weig Weig Weigh Weigh Weigh Weig Weigh
Weig Weig Weig
ht in ht in t in t in t in ht in t in
ht in ht in ht in
Kg Kg Kg Kg Kg Kg Kg
Kg Kg Kg
1.47 37 45 40 45 40 48 40 50 40 52
1.48 37 46 41 46 41 48 41 50 41 53
1.49 38 47 41 47 41 49 41 51 41 53
1.5 38 47 42 47 42 50 42 52 42 54
1.51 39 48 42 48 42 50 42 52 42 55
1.52 39 49 43 49 43 51 43 53 43 55
1.53 40 49 43 49 43 51 43 54 43 56
1.54 40 50 44 50 44 52 44 55 44 57
1.55 41 50 44 50 44 53 44 55 44 58
1.56 41 51 45 51 45 54 45 56 45 58
1.57 42 52 46 52 46 54 46 57 46 59
1.58 42 52 46 52 46 55 46 57 46 60
1.59 43 53 47 53 47 56 47 58 47 61
1.6 44 54 47 54 47 56 47 59 47 61
1.61 44 54 48 54 48 57 48 60 48 62
1.62 45 55 49 55 49 58 49 60 49 63
1.63 45 56 49 56 49 58 49 61 49 64
1.64 46 56 50 56 50 59 50 62 50 65
1.65 46 57 50 57 50 60 50 63 50 65
1.66 47 58 51 58 51 61 51 63 51 66
1.67 47 59 52 59 52 61 52 64 52 67

48
1.68 48 59 52 59 52 62 52 65 52 68
1.69 49 60 53 60 53 63 53 66 53 69
1.7 49 61 53 61 53 64 53 66 53 69
1.71 50 61 54 61 54 64 54 67 54 70
1.72 50 62 55 62 55 65 55 68 55 71
1.73 51 63 55 63 55 66 55 69 55 72
1.74 51 64 56 64 56 67 56 70 56 73
1.75 52 64 57 64 57 67 57 70 57 74
1.76 53 65 57 65 57 68 57 71 57 74
1.77 53 66 58 66 58 69 58 72 58 75
1.78 54 67 59 67 59 70 59 73 59 76
1.79 54 67 59 67 59 70 59 74 59 77
1.8 55 68 60 68 60 71 60 75 60 78
1.81 56 69 61 69 61 72 61 75 61 79
1.82 56 70 61 70 61 73 61 76 61 79
1.83 57 70 62 70 62 74 62 77 62 80
1.84 58 71 63 71 63 74 63 78 63 81
1.85 58 72 63 72 63 75 63 79 63 82
1.86 59 73 64 73 64 76 64 80 64 83
1.87 59 73 65 73 65 77 65 80 65 84
1.88 60 74 65 74 65 78 65 81 65 85
1.89 61 75 66 75 66 79 66 82 66 86
1.9 61 76 67 76 67 79 67 83 67 87
1.91 62 77 67 77 67 80 67 84 67 88
1.92 63 77 68 77 68 81 68 85 68 88
1.93 63 78 69 78 69 82 69 86 69 89
1.94 64 79 70 79 70 83 70 87 70 90
1.95 65 80 70 80 70 84 70 87 70 91

Notes for Male Candidates:-

(a) The minimum and maximum weight for height will be

standard for all categories of personnel. Candidates with weight
below the minimum specified will not be accepted.

(b) Male candidates with weight higher than specified will be

acceptable only in exceptional circumstances in case of candidates
with documented evidence of body building, wrestling, boxing or
muscular build. In such cases, the following criteria are to be met
:-

(i) Body Mass Index should not be more than 25.

(ii) Waist : Hip Ratio less than 0.9.

(iii) All biochemical parameters such as blood sugar

Fasting and Post Prandial, blood urea, creatinine,
cholesterol, HbA1C%, etc are within normal limits.
49
 (c) The fitness can only be given by a Medical Specialist.

(d) The minimum acceptable height is 157 cms. However,

relaxation in height is permissible to candidates holding
domicile of areas as mentioned below and talented sports
male candidates:

Srl Category Minimum Height for

No. Male Candidates
(i) Tribals from Ladhakh Region 155 Cm
Andaman & Nicobar, Lakshdweep 155 Cm
(ii)
and Minicoy Islands
(iii) Gorkhas, Nepali, Assamese, 152 Cm
Garhwali, Kumaoni and
Uttarakhand
(iv) Bhutan, Sikkim & North East 152 Cm
Region
(v) Extra talented sports candidates 155 Cm

Notes for Female Candidates:-

(a) The minimum and maximum weight for height will be standard for
all categories of personnel. Candidates with weight below the minimum
specified will not be accepted.
(b) Candidates with weight higher than specified will be acceptable
only in exceptional circumstances in case of candidates with
documented evidence of body building, Wrestling, boxing or muscular
build. In such cases, the following criteria are to be met :

(i) Body Mass Index should not be more than 25.

(ii) Waist : Hip Ratio less than 0.8 for female.

(iii)All biochemical parameters such as blood sugar Fasting and

Post Prandial, blood urea, creatinine, cholesterol, HbA1C%,
etc are within normal limits.
(c) The fitness can only be given by a Medical Specialist.
(d) The minimum acceptable height for female Candidates is 152 cms.
However, relaxation in height is permissible to candidates holding
domicile of areas as mentioned below:

Srl Category Minimum Height

No. for Female
Candidates
(i) Tribals from Ladhakh Region 150 Cm
(ii) Aandaman& Nicobar, Lakshdweep and Minicoy 150 Cm
Islands
(iii) Gorkhas, Nepali, Assamese, Garhwali, 147 Cm
Kumaoni and Uttarakhand

50
(iv) Bhutan, Sikkim &North East Region 147 Cm

(e) The above relaxation in height will not be applicable to candidates

seeking entry as officers into the Navy in Pilot/ Observer specialisations
of the Executive branch.

6. During the medical examination of candidates, the following

principal points will be ensured:-

(a) The candidate is sufficiently intelligent, although the

responsibility on this point rests with the Enrolling Officer. The
Medical Officer will bring to the Enrolling Officer’s notice any
deficiency he/she may observe during the examination.

(b) The hearing is good and that there is no sign of any disease
of ear, nose or throat.

(c) Vision in either eye is up to the required standard. His/ her

eyes are bright, clear and with no obvious squint or abnormality.
Movements of eye balls should be full and free in all directions.

(d) Speech is without impediment.

(e) There is no glandular swelling.

(f) Chest is well formed and that his/her heart and lungs are
sound.

(g) Limbs of the candidates are well formed and fully developed.

(h) There is no evidence of hernia of any degree or form.

(j) There is free and perfect action of all the joints.

(k) Feet and toes are well formed.

(l) Absence of any congenital malformation or defects.

(m) He/she does not bear traces of previous acute or chronic

disease pointing to an impaired constitution.

(n) Presence of sufficient number of sound teeth for efficient

mastication.

(p) Absence of any disease of the Genito-Urinary tract.

The candidates very often do not give family history of disease because of
ignorance. At times deliberate attempt is made for concealment of
disease for fear of rejection. In all these cases Recruiting Medical Officer
should state in concerned Para of AFMSF-2A, if there is any relevant
history of Fits, Leprosy, Epilepsy or Tuberculosis. It is, however,
essential to make a thorough clinical examination of candidates for any
signs of organic disease/physical deformity. Recruiting Medical Officer
51
should either reject the candidate or endorse the disease in respective
column, if it is of acceptable nature.

7. Major defects for rejection are as under:-

(a) Weak constitution, imperfect development, congenital

malformation, muscular wasting.

Note:- Muscular wasting is to be judged entirely by its effect on

function.

(b) Malformation of the head including deformity from fracture

or depression of the bones of the skull.

(c) Assessment of Scoliosis. Cobb’s angle of 15 degrees at

Lumber Spine and 20 degrees at Dorsal Spine will be the cut-off
limits for scoliosis. Scoliosis will be declared Unfit if deformity
exists on full flexion of the spine with restriction of range of
movements or due to organic defect causing structural
abnormality.

(d) Skeletal deformity either hereditary or acquired and disease

or impairment of function of bones or joints.

Note:- Rudimentary cervical rib causing no signs or symptoms is

acceptable.

(e) Asymmetry of torso or limbs, abnormality of locomotion

including amputation.

(f) Deformity of feet and toes.

(i) Hyperextensible Finger Joints. All candidates shall

be thoroughly examined for hyper-extensible finger joints.
Any extension of fingers bending backwards beyond 90
degrees shall be considered hyper-extensible and considered
unfit. Other joints like Knee, Elbow, Spine and Thumb shall
also be examined carefully for features of hyper laxity/
hypermobility. Although the individual may not show
features of hyper laxity in other joints, isolated presentation
of hyper extensibility of finger joints shall be considered
unfit because of the various ailments that may manifest
later if such candidates are subjected to strenuous physical
training as mentioned above.

(ii) Mallet Finger. Loss of extensor mechanism at the

distal inter-phalangeal joint leads to Mallet finger. Chronic
mallet deformity can lead to secondary changes in the PIP
and MCP joint which can result in compromised hand
function. Normal range of movement at DIP joints is 0-
80 degree and PIP joint is 0-90 degrees in both flexion and
extension. In Mallet finger, candidate is unable to extend/
straighten distal phalanx of fingers completely.
52
 (aa) Candidates with mild condition i.e., less than 10
degrees of extension lag without any evidence of
trauma, pressure symptoms and any
functional deficit should be declared Fit.

(ab) Candidates with fixed deformity of fingers will be

declared Unfit.

(iii) Polydactyly. Can be assessed for fitness 12 weeks post-

op. Can be declared fit if there is no bony abnormality
(X-Ray), wound is well healed and scar is supple.

(iv) Simple Syndactyly. Can be assessed for fitness 12

weeks post op. Can be declared fit if there is no bony
abnormality (X-Ray), wound is well healed and scar is
supple.

(v) Complex Syndactyly. Unfit

(vi) Polymazia. Can be assessed for fitness 12 weeks post-

op.

(vii) Hyperostosis Frontalis Interna. Will be considered fit

in the absence of any other metabolic abnormality.

(viii) Healed Fractures.

(aa) All intra-articular fractures especially of major

joints (Shoulder, elbow, wrist, hip, knee and
ankle) with or without surgery, with or without
implant shall be considered unfit.

(ab) All extra-articular injuries with post-operative

status with or without implant shall be considered
unfit.

(ac) All extra-articular injuries of long bones which

have been managed conservatively shall be thoroughly
evaluated clinically for soft tissue involvement,
crush component, alignment, mal-union/non-union or
any miscellaneous causes which can later on
present with a disability on being subjected to
physical stress shall be considered unfit if found so.
However, the fitness of a candidate in whom the
fracture has consolidated well and remodelled after
conservative treatment with no evidence of mal-
alignment, shortening, soft tissue involvement etc.
shall be at the discretion of Surgical Specialist or
Medical Board.

(ix) CubitusRecurvatum. >10 degrees is Unfit

53
(x) Cubitus Valgus.

(aa) Measurement of Carrying Angle. The carrying

angle at the elbow is assessed conventionally with the
elbow in full extension using a protractor goniometer
to measure the axes from the surface margin of the
arm and forearm. However, variations in the
development of the soft tissues in the arm and forearm
generally lead to inconsistencies in the measured
results. So far, there is no uniform method to measure
the carrying angle of the elbow. However, measuring
the carrying angle of the elbow through identification
of bony landmarks on the acromion, medial and lateral
epicondyles of the humerus, and the distal radial and
ulnar styloid processes is recommended. Carrying
angle is measured by a manual goniometer with two
drawing axes of the arm and forearm. The axis of the
arm is defined by the lateral border of the cranial
surface of the acromion to the midpoint of the lateral
and medial epicondyles of the humerus. The axis of
the forearm is defined by the midpoint of the lateral
and medial epicondyles of the humerus to the
midpoint of the distal radial and ulnar styloid
processes.

(ab) Cubitus valgus should be primarily a clinical

diagnosis. The suggested indications to perform a
radiographic evaluation include:-

(i) History of trauma

(ii) Scar around elbow

(iii) Asymmetry of angles

(iv) Distal neurovascular deficit

(v) Restricted range of motion

(vi) If deemed necessary by Orthopaedic

Surgeon

(xi) Hyperextension at Elbow Joint. Individuals can have

naturally hyperextended elbow. This condition is not a
medical problem, but can be a cause of fracture or chronic
pain especially considering the stress and strains military
population is involved in. Also, the inability to return the
elbow to within 10 degrees of the neutral position is
impairment in the activities of daily living.

(aa) Measurement modality. Measured using a

Goniometer
54
 (ab) Normal elbow extension is 0 degrees. Up to 10
degrees of hyperextension is within normal limits if
the patient has no history of trauma to the joint.
Anyone with hyperextension more than 10 degree
should be unfit.

8. Eye.

(a) Deformity or morbid condition of the eye or eyelids that is

liable for aggravation or recurrence.

(b) Manifest squint of any degree.

(c) Active trachoma or its complication or sequelae.

(d) Visual acuity below prescribed standards.

Notes:-

1. Visual standards for NDA/ NA entry are as follows :-

Criteria NDA/ NA
Uncorrected Vision 6/6 6/9
Corrected Vision 6/6 6/6
Limits of Myopia - 0.75 D Sph
Limits of Hypermetropia + 1.5 D Cyl
Astigmatism (within limits of + 0.75 D Sph / Cyl
myopia and hypermetropia)
Binocular Vision III
Colour Perception I

2. Kerato Refractive Surgery. Candidates who have

undergone any Refractory Surgery (PRK/LASIK/SMILE) can be
considered fit in all branches (except submarine, diving and
MARCO cadre) subject to the following conditions :-

(a) Surgery should not have been carried out before 20

yrs of age.

(b) Uncomplicated surgery at least 12 months before

examination (Certificate mentioning the type of refractive
surgery, date of surgery and pre-operative refractive error
from concerned eye centre is to be produced by the
candidate at the time of recruitment medical examination).

(c) Post LASIK Standards. Candidate will be considered

Fit if Axial Length by IOL Master is equal to or less than 26
mm and Central Corneal Thickness is equal to or more than
450 microns.

(d) Residual refraction less than or equal to +1.0 D Sph or

Cyl, provided within the permissible limit for the category
55
 applied for. However, for Pilot and Observer entries, the
residual refraction should be nil.

(e) Pre-operative refractive error not more than +/- 6.0 D

(f) Normal retinal examination.

3. Kerato-Refractory Surgery (PRK, LASIK, SMILE) is not

acceptable for special cadres such as submarine, diving and
MARCO.Candidates who have undergone Radial Keratotomy
are permanently unfit for all branches.

(i) Ptosis. Candidate will be considered fit post-operative

provided there is no recurrence one year after surgery, visual
axis is clear with normal visual fields and upper eyelid is 02
mm below the superior limbus. Candidates, who have not
undergone surgery for the condition, would be considered fit
if they meet any of the following criteria:-

(aa) Mild ptosis

(ab) Clear visual axis

(ac) Normal visual field

(ad) No sign of aberrant degeneration/ head tilt

(ii) Exotropia. Unfit

(iii) Anisocoria. If size difference between the pupils is

>01mm, candidate will be considered unfit.

(iv) Heterochromia Iridum. Unfit

(v) Sphincter Tears. Can be considered fit is size

difference between pupils is <01mm, pupillary reflexes
are brisk with no observed pathology in cornea, lens
or retina.

(vi) Pseudophakia. Unfit

(vii) Lenticular Opacities. Any lenticular opacity causing

visual deterioration, or is in the visual axis or is present in
an area of 07 mm around the pupils, which may cause glare
phenomenon, should be considered Unfit. The propensity of
the opacities not to increase in size or number should also
be a consideration when deciding fitness. Small stationery
lenticular opacities in the periphery like congenital blue dot
cataract, not affecting the visual axis/ visual field may be
considered by specialist (Should be less than 10 in number
and central area of 04 mm to be clear).

(viii) Optic Nerve Drusen. Unfit

56
(ix) High Cup Disc Ratio. Candidate will be considered fit
if the ratio is <0.2 with normal visual fields with no other
evidence of glaucoma. Candidates with high cup disc ratio
(>0.2)/ Abnormal RNFL study/ Visual Field Defect detected
by Visual Field Analyzer will be considered Unfit.

(x) Keratoconus. Unfit

(xi) Lattice.

(aa) The following lattice degenerations will render a

candidate Unfit:-

(i) Single circumferential lattice extending

more than two clock hours in either or
both eyes.

(ii) Two circumferential lattices each more

than one clock hour in extent in either or
both eyes.

(iii) Radial lattices.

(iv) Any lattice with atrophic hole/ flap tears

(Unlasered).

(v) Lattice degenerations posterior to equator.

(ab) Candidates with lattice degeneration will be

considered Fit under the following conditions:-

(i) Single circumferential lattice without

holes of less than two clock hours in
either or both eyes.

(ii) Two circumferential lattices without holes

each being less than one clock hour in
extent in either or both eyes.

(iii) Post Laser delimitation single

circumferential lattice, without holes/
flap tear, less than two clock hours extent
in either or both eyes.

(iv) Post Laser delimitation two circumferential

lattices, without holes/ flap tear, each
being less than one clock hour extent in
either or both eyes.

57
9. Ear, Nose and Throat.

(a) Ear. History or recurrent ear ache, tinnitus or vertigo,

impairment of hearing, disease of the external meatus including
atresia, exostosis or neoplasm which prevent a thorough
examination of the drum, unhealed perforation of the tympanic
membrane, aural discharge or sign of acute or chronic suppurative
otitis media, evidence of radical or modified radical mastoid
operation.

Notes:-

1. A candidate should be able to hear forced whisper at a

distance of 610 cms with each ear separately with back to
the examiner.

2. Otitis Media. Current Otitis Media of any type will

entail rejection. Evidence of healed chronic otitis media in
the form of tympanosclerosis/ scarred tympanic membrane
affecting less than 50% of Pars Tensa of tympanic membrane
will be assessed by ENT Specialist and will be acceptable if
Pure Tone Audiometry (PTA) and Tympanometry are normal.
Healed healthy scar (Dimeric Tympanic Membrane or
cartilage) of the Neo-Tympanic Membrane involving less than
50% of Pars Tensa due to Type 1 Tympanoplasty (tympanic
membrane repair with or without cartilage)/ Myringoplasty
(with or without intact cortical mastoidectomy) for Chronic
Otitis Media (mucosal type) and Myringotomy (for Otitis
Media with Effusion) may be accepted after minimum period
of 1 year post surgery if PTA and tympanometry are normal.

(i) The fwg conditions would render a candidate

Unfit:-

(aa) Residual perforation

(ab) Residual hearing loss on Free Field

Hearing and/or PTA

(ac) Any other type of tympanoplasty (other

than Type 1 Tympanoplasty) or middle ear
surgery (including ossiculoplasty, stapedotomy,
canal wall down mastoidectomy, atticotomy,
attico-antrostomyetc)

(ad) Any implanted hearing device (eg. cochlear

implant, bone conduction implant, middle ear
implants etc)

(b) Bony Growth of External Auditory Canal. Any candidate

with clinically evident bony growth of external auditory canal like
58
 exostosis, osteoma, fibrous dysplasia etc. will be declared Unfit.
Assessment of operated cases will be done after minimum period of
4 weeks. Post-surgery histopathology report and HRCT temporal
bone will be mandatory. If the histo-pathological report is
suggestive of a neoplasia or HRCTtemporal bone is suggestive of
partial removal or deep extension it would entail rejection.

(b) Nose. Disease of the bones or cartilages of the nose, marked

nasal allergy, nasal polyps, atrophic rhinitis, disease of the
accessory sinuses and nasopharynx.

Note:- Septal Deformity. Nasal septal perforation can be anterior

cartilaginous or posterior bony perforation. Simple nasal deformity
not causing disfigurement, minor septal deviation not interfering
with nasal airway and small traumatic septal perforation which are
asymptomatic are acceptable. Any septal perforation greater than
01 cm in the greatest dimension is a ground for rejection. A septal
perforation which is associated with nasal deformity, nasal
crusting, epistaxis and granulation irrespective of the size is a
ground for rejection.

(i) Nasal Polyposis. It is also known as Chronic

Rhinosinusitis with polyposis (CRSwNP). Nasal polyposis is
mostly associated with allergy, asthma, sensitivity to NSAIDs
and infection i.e. bacterial and fungal. Most of these patients
have high chances of recurrence and require long term
management with nasal/ oral steroids and are unfit for
extremes of climate and temperature conditions. Any
individual detected to have nasal polyposis on examination
or with history of having undergone surgery for nasal
polyposis will be rejected.

(c) Throat. Disease of throat palate, tongue, tonsils, gums

and disease or injury affecting the normal function of either
mandibular joints.

Note:- Simple hypertrophy of the tonsils without associated

history of attacks of tonsillitis is acceptable.

(d) Disease of the larynx and impediment of speech. Voice

should be normal. Candidates with pronounced stammer will not
be accepted.

10. Dental Condition. It should be ensured that a sufficient number

of natural and sound teeth are present for efficient mastication.

(a) A candidate must have a minimum of 14 dental points to be

acceptable in order to assess the dental condition of an individual.
Dental points less than 14 are a cause of rejection. The dental
points are allotted as under for teeth in good opposition with
corresponding teeth in the other jaw:-

59
 (i) Central incisor, lateral incisor, canine, 1 st Premolar,
2 Premolar and under developed third molar with 1 point
nd

each.

(ii) 1st molar and 2nd molar and fully developed 3 rd molar
with 2 points each.

(iii) When all 32 teeth are present, there will be a total

count of 22 or 20 points according to whether the third
molars are well developed or not.

(b) The following teeth in good functional apposition must be

present in each jaw:-
(i) Any 4 of the 6 anteriors.

(ii) Any 6 of the 10 posteriors.

All these teeth must be sound/ repairable.

(c) Candidates suffering from severe pyorrhea will be rejected.

Where the state of pyorrhea is such that in the opinion of the
Dental Officer, it can be cured without extraction of teeth, the
candidates may be accepted. A note about the affected teeth is to
be inserted by the Medical/ Dental Officer in the medical
documents.

(d) Artificial dentures are not to be included while counting the

dental points.

11. Neck.

(a) Enlarged glands, tubercular or due to other diseases in the

neck or other parts of the body.

Note:- Scars of operations for the removal of tubercular glands are

not a cause for rejection provided there has been no active disease
within the preceding five years and the chest is clinically and
radiologically clear.

(b) Disease of the thyroid gland.

(c) Chest. The following are criteria for rejection:-

(aa) Deformity of chest, congenital or acquired.

(ab) Expansion less than 5 cms.

(ac) Significant bilateral/ unilateral Gynaecomastia in

males. Can be evaluated for fitness 12 weeks post-op.

12. Skin and Sexually Transmitted Infection (STI).

(a) Skin disease unless temporary or trivial.

60
 (b) Scars which by their extent or position cause or are likely to
cause disability/ or marked disfigurement.

(c) Hyperhydrosis - Palmar, plantar or axillary.

(d) Congenital, active or latent sexually transmitted diseases.

Note:- In cases with old healed scar over the groin or penis/
vagina suggestive of past STI, blood will be tested for STI
(Including HIV) to exclude latent Sexually Transmitted Disease.

13. Respiratory System.

(a) History of chronic cough or Bronchial Asthma.

(b) Evidence of Pulmonary Tuberculosis.

(c) Evidence of diseases of bronchi, lungs or pleurae detected on

radiological examination of the chest will disqualify the candidate.

Note:- An X-Ray examination of the chest will be carried out

under following circumstances:-

(i) On entry into the service as a cadet or direct entry.

(ii) At the time of grant of permanent commission in case

of short service commissioned officer.

14. Cardio-Vascular System.

(a) Functional or organic disease of the heart or blood vessels,

presence of murmurs or clicks on auscultation.

(b) Tachycardia (Pulse Rate persistently over 96/min at rest),

bradycardia (Pulse Rate persistently below 40/ min at rest), any
abnormality of peripheral pulses.

(c) Blood Pressure. Candidate with Blood Pressure consistently

greater than 140/90mm Hg will be rejected. All such candidates
shall undergo a 24 hour Ambulatory Blood Pressure Monitoring
(24h ABPM) to differentiate between white coat hypertension and
persistent hypertension. Wherever feasible, candidates will be
evaluated by a Cardiologist at AMB. Those with normal 24h ABPM
and without any target organ damage can be considered fit after
evaluation by a cardiologist.

(d) Electrocardiogram (ECG). Any ECG abnormality detected at

SMB will be a ground for rejection. Such candidates will be
evaluated by a cardiologist during AMB with echocardiography for
structural abnormality and stress test if deemed necessary. Benign
ECG abnormalities like incomplete RBBB, T wave inversion in
inferior leads, T inversion in V1-V3 (persistent juvenile pattern),
61
 LVH by voltage criteria (due to thin chest wall) may exist without
any structural heart disease. Echocardiography should be
performed in all such cases to rule out an underlying structural
heart disease and opinion of Senior Adviser (Medicine)/
Cardiologist should be obtained. If echocardiography and stress
tests (if indicated) are normal, the individual can be considered fit.

15. Abdomen.

(a) Evidence of any disease of the gastro-intestinal tract,

enlargement of liver, gall bladder or spleen, tenderness on
abdominal palpation, evidence/ history of peptic ulcer or previous
history of extensive abdominal surgery. All officer entry candidates
are to be subjected to the Ultra Sound Examination of the
abdominal and pelvic organs for detecting any abnormalities of the
internal organs.

(b) Post-op Assessment. Post-op duration for assessment of

fitness in common conditions:-

(i) Hernia. Those who have been operated for hernia may
be declared fit provided:-

(aa) 24 weeks have elapsed since the operation for

Anterior Abdominal Wall hernia. Documentary proof to
this effect is to be produced by the candidate.

(ab) General tone of the abdominal musculature is

good.

(ac) There has been no recurrence of hernia or any

complication connected with the operation.

(ii) Other Conditions. Those who have been operated for

below mentioned conditions may be declared fit
provided:-

(aa) Open Cholecystectomy. 24 weeks (In the

absence of Incisional Hernia)

(ab) Laparoscopic Cholecystectomy. 08 weeks

(Normal LFT, Normal histopathology)

(ac) Appendicectomy. 04 weeks (with normal histo-

pathological findings)

(ad) Pilonidal Sinus. 12 weeks

(ae) Fistula-in-Ano, Anal Fissure and Grade IV

Hemorrhoids.12 weeks post-op with satisfactory
treatment and recovery.

62
 (af) Hydrocele and Varicocele. 08 weeks post-op with
satisfactory treatment and recovery.

(c) Agenesis of Gall Bladder. Will be considered fit in the

absence of any other abnormality of the biliary tract. MRCP will be
done for all such cases.

16. Genito-Urinary System.

(a) Any evidence of disease of genital organs.

(b) Bilateral undescended testis, unilateral undescended testis

retained in the inguinal canal or at the external abdominal ring
unless corrected by operation.

Note:- Absence of one testis is not a cause for rejection unless the
testis has been removed on account of disease or its absence has
affected the physical or mental health of the candidate.

(c) Disease or malformation of the kidneys or urethra.

(d) Incontinence of urine and nocturnal enuresis.

(e) Any abnormality on examination of urine including

albuminuria or glycosuria.

(i) The following are criteria for rejection:-

(aa) Renal Calculi. Irrespective of size, numbers,

obstructive or non-obstructive. History of renal calculi
(History or radiological evidence) will render a
candidate Unfit.

(ab) Calyecdasis

(ac) Bladder Diverticulum

(ad) Simple Renal Cyst. > 1.5 Cm

17. Central Nervous System.

(a) Organic disease of Central Nervous System.

(b) Tremors.

(c) Candidates with history of fits and recurrent attacks of

headache/ migraine will not be accepted.

18. Psychiatric Disorders. History or evidence of mental disease or

nervous instability in the candidate or his family.

(a) Lab Investigation (Hematology).

63
 (aa) Polycythemia. Hemoglobin more than 16.5g/dL in
males and more than 16g/dL in females will be considered
as Polycythemia and deemed Unfit.

(ab) Monocytosis. Absolute monocyte counts greater than

1000/cu mm or more than or equal to 10% of total WBC
counts is to be deemed Unfit.

(ac) Eosinophilia. Absolute eosinophil counts greater than

or equal to 500/ cu mm is deemed Unfit.

19. Women Candidates. They should not be pregnant and should

also be free from gynaecological disorders such as primary or secondary
Amenorrhea/ Dysmenorhoea/ Menorrhagia etc. All women candidates
are to be subjected to Ultra Sound Examination of the abdominal and
pelvic organs for detecting any abnormalities of the internal organs.

20. Acceptable Defects on Entry. Candidates for the Navy with the
following minor defects may be accepted. These defects are however to
be noted in the medical forms on entry.

(a) Knock Knees with a separation of less than 5 cm at the

internal malleoli.

(b) Mild curvature of legs not affecting walking or running.

Intercondylar distance should not be over 7 cm.

(c) Mild hammer toe and minor degree of hallux valgus.

(d) Flexible flat feet with no significant history of pain.

(e) Healed perforation of the ear drum without any discontinuity

is acceptable, provided the hearing is normal.

(f) Mild stammering not affecting expression.

(g) Mild degree of varicocele.

(h) Mild degree of varicose veins.

Note:- Remedial operations wherever required are to be performed

prior to entry. No guarantee is given about ultimate acceptance
and it should be clearly understood by a candidate that the
decision whether an operation is desirable or necessary is one to
be made by their private medical advisor. The Government will
accept no liability regarding the result of operation or any expenses
incurred.

(k) Any other slight defect which produces no functional

disability and which in the opinion of medical officer/ medical

64
 board will not interfere with the individual’s efficiency as an officer
or sailor.

Annexure C

MEDICAL STANDARDS FOR NDA ( AIR FORCE)

(FLYING & GROUND DUTY BRANCHES)

GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS

1. In this section, standardized guidelines for the physical

assessment of candidates for commissioning through NDA into flying
and ground duty branches in the IAF are elaborated. The purpose of
these guidelines is to lay down uniform physical standards and to ensure
that the candidates are free of health conditions that may hamper or
limit their performance in the respective branch. The guidelines
enumerated in this section are meant to be applied in conjunction with
the standard methods of clinical examination.

2. All candidates during their induction should meet the basic

physical fitness standards which will enable them to proficiently undergo
the training and the subsequent service in varied climatic and work
environments. A candidate will not be assessed physically fit unless the
complete examination shows that he/ she is physically and mentally
capable of withstanding the severe physical and mental strain for
prolonged periods. The requirements of medical fitness are essentially
the same for all branches, except for aircrew in whom the parameters for
visual acuity, anthropometry and certain other physical standards are
more stringent.

3. The results of initial examination are recorded on AFMSF – 2. The

complete medical examination consists of:-

(a) A questionnaire, which is to be carefully and truthfully

completed by the candidate and countersigned by the examining
medical officer. The importance of all aspects of the questionnaire,
including the legal aspect, should be emphasised to all the
candidates. Any subsequent detection of disability or revelation of
a significant past history, not declared earlier, may lead to
disqualification at any stage prior to commissioning. USG
abdomen would be conducted for all candidates and Candidates
during medical examination prior to commissioning.

(b) A complete medical and surgical examination including

dental examination and gynecological examination in female.

(c) An ophthalmic examination.

(d) An examination of the ear, nose and throat.

4. The medical standards spelt out pertain to initial entry medical

standards. Continuation of medical fitness during training will be
assessed during the periodic medical examinations held at NDA/ AFA
prior to commissioning.
65
GENERAL PHYSICAL ASSESSMENT

1. Every candidate, to be fit for the Air Force, must conform to the
minimum standards laid down in the succeeding paragraphs. The
physical parameters should fall within the acceptable ranges and should
be proportionate.

2. The residual effects of old fractures/ injuries are to be assessed for

any functional limitation. If there is no effect on function, the candidate
can be assessed fit. Following categories should be meticulously
assessed:

(a) Spine injuries. Cases of old fractures of spine are unfit.

Any residual deformity of spine or compression of a vertebra will be
cause for rejection.

(b) Nerve injuries. Injuries involving the trunks of the larger

nerves, resulting in loss of function, or neuroma formation, which
causes pain significant tingling, indicate unsuitability for
employment in flying duties.

(c) Keloids. The presence of large or multiple keloids will be a

cause for rejection.

3. (a) Surgical Scars. Minor well-healed scars for e.g. as resulting

from any superficial surgery do not, per se, indicate unsuitability
for employment. Extensive scarring of a limb or torso that may
cause functional limitation or unsightly appearance should be
considered unfit.

(b) Birth Marks. Abnormal pigmentation in the form of hypo or

hyper- pigmentation is not acceptable. Localized, congenital mole/
naevus, however, is acceptable provided its size is <10 cm.
Congenital multiple naevi or vascular tumours that interfere with
function or are exposed to constant irritation are not acceptable.

(c) Subcutaneous Swellings. Lipoma will be considered fit

unless the lipoma is causing significant disfigurement/ functional
impairment due to the size/ location. Neurofibroma, if single will
be considered fit. Multiple neurofibromas associated with
significant Café-au-lait spots (more than 1.5 cm size or more than
one in number) will be considered unfit.

4. Cervical Rib. Cervical rib without any neuro-vascular compromise

will be accepted. Meticulous clinical examination to rule out neuro-
vascular compromise should be performed in such cases. This should be
documented in the Medical Board proceedings.

5. Cranio-facial Deformities. Asymmetry of the face and head or

uncorrected deformities of skull, face or mandible which will interfere
with proper fitting of oxygen mask, helmet or military headgear will be
considered unfit. Major deformities even after corrective surgery will be
considered unfit.

66
6. History relating to Operations. A candidate who has undergone
an abdominal operation involving extensive surgical intervention or
partial/ total excision of any organ is, as a rule, unfit for service .
Operation involving the cranial vault with any residual bony defect will
be unfit. Major thoracic operations will make the candidate unfit.

MEASUREMENTS AND PHYSIQUE

7. Chest Shape and Circumference. The shape of the chest is as

important as its actual measurement. The chest should be well
proportioned and well developed. Any chest deformity likely to interfere
with physical exertion during training and performance of military duties
or adversely impact military bearing or are associated with any cardio-
pulmonary or musculoskeletal anomaly are to be considered unfit.
Minimum recommended chest circumference for Candidates is 77 cm.
The chest expansion should be at least 05 cm for all candidates. For the
purpose of documentation, any decimal fraction lower than 0.5 cm will
be ignored, 0.5 cm will be recorded as such and 0.6 cm and above will be
recorded as 1 cm.

Height, Sitting Height, Leg Length and Thigh Length for Male
Candidates .

8. Minimum height for Flying Branch will be 162.5 cm. Acceptable

measurements of leg length, thigh length and sitting height for such
aircrew will be as under: -

(a) Sitting height Minimum - 81.5 cm

Maximum - 96.0 cm

(b) Leg Length Minimum - 99.0 cm

Maximum - 120.0 cm

(c) Thigh Length Maximum - 64.0 cm

The minimum height for entry into Ground Duty branches will be
157.5 cm. For Gorkhas and individual belonging to North-Eastern
regions of India and hilly regions of Uttarakhand, the minimum
acceptable height will be 5 cm less (152.5 cm). In case of candidates from
Lakshadweep the minimum acceptable height can be reduced by 2 cm
(155.5 cm).

9. Body Weight Parameters

(a) For NDA candidates, at entry, the weight chart placed at

Appendix ‘A’ to this notification will be applicable. The maximum
permissible variation from the ideal body weight is 10%. The
weight will be rounded off to the nearest 0.5 kg. If a candidate is
underweight by more than 10% below the ideal, a detailed history
and careful examination to rule out possible cause like
tuberculosis, hyperthyroidism, diabetes etc. will be carried out. If
no cause is detected the candidate will be declared fit. If any cause
is detected the fitness of the candidate will be decided accordingly.

67
10. Weights higher than the prescribed limit will be acceptable only in
exceptional circumstances in case of those candidates where there is
documented evidence of bodybuilding, wrestling and boxing. However, in
such cases, the following criteria will have to be met:

(a) BMI should be below 27.

(b) Waist Hip ratio should be below 0.9 for males and 0.8 for
females.

(c) Waist circumference should be less than 94 cm for males

and 89 cm for females.

(d) All biochemical metabolic parameters should be within

normal limits.

Height and Weight Standards for Female Candidates joining NDA

(Air Force).

11. Minimum height for Flying Branch will be 162.5 cm. Acceptable
measurements of leg length, thigh length and sitting height for such
aircrew will be as under: -

(a) Sitting height Minimum - 81.5 cm

Maximum - 96.0 cm

(b) Leg Length Minimum - 99.0 cm

Maximum - 120.0 cm

(c) Thigh Length Maximum - 64.0 cm

The minimum height for entry into Ground Duty branches will be
152 cm. For Gorkhas and individual belonging to North-Eastern regions
of India and hilly regions of Uttarakhand, the minimum acceptable
height will be 5 cm less (147 cm). In case of candidates from
Lakshadweep the minimum acceptable height can be reduced by 2 cm
(150 cm).

Body Weight Parameters

12. For female NDA candidates, at entry, the weight chart placed at
Appendix ‘B’ will be applicable. The maximum permissible variation from
the ideal body weight is 10%. The weight will be rounded off to the
nearest 0.5 kg. If a candidate is under-weight by more than 10% below
the ideal, a detailed history and careful examination to rule out possible
cause like tuberculosis, hyperthyroidism, diabetes etc. will be carried
out. If no cause is detected the candidate will be declared fit. If any cause
is detected the fitness of the candidate will be decided accordingly.

13. Weights higher than the prescribed limit will be acceptable only in
exceptional circumstances in case of those candidates where there is
documented evidence of bodybuilding, wrestling and boxing. However, in
such cases, the following criteria will have to be met:
(a) BMI should be below 27.
68
 (b) Waist Hip ratio should be below 0.9 for males and 0.8 for
females.

(c) Waist circumference should be less than 94 cm for males and

89 cm for females.

(d) All biochemical metabolic parameters should be within normal

limits

Appendix ‘A’
[Refer Para 9
above]
Male Ideal Nude Weights for Different Age Groups and
Heights for NDA (Flying & Ground Duty) Candidates on
Entry
(10% variation on higher side of average acceptable)

Height Age Range (in Years) /

(in cm) Weight (in Kgs)

15-16 16-17 17-18 18-19

152 41 42.5 44 45
155 42 43.5 45.3 47
157 43 45 47 48
160 45 46.5 48 49
162 46 48 50 51
165 48 50 52 53
167 49 51 53 54
170 51 52.5 55 56
173 52.5 54.5 57 58
175 54.5 56 59 60
178 56 58 61 62
180 58.5 60 63 64.5
183 61 62.5 65 66.5

69
 Appendix ‘B’
[Refer Para 12
above]

Female Ideal Nude Weights for Different Age Groups and

Heights for NDA (Flying & Ground Duty) Candidates on
Entry
(10% variation on higher side of average acceptable)

Age Range (in Years) /

Height
Weight (in Kgs)
(in cm)
15-16 16-17 17-18 18-19
147 38 40 41 42
148 39 40 42 43
149 39 41 42 43
150 40 41 43 44
152 41 42.5 44 45
155 42 43.5 45.3 47
157 43 45 47 48
160 45 46.5 48 49
162 46 48 50 51
165 48 50 52 53
167 49 51 53 54
170 51 52.5 55 56
173 52.5 54.5 57 58
175 54.5 56 59 60
178 56 58 61 62
180 58.5 60 63 64.5
183 61 62.5 65 66.5

70
CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM

1. History of chest pain, breathlessness, palpitation, fainting attacks,

giddiness, rheumatic fever, ankle swelling, chorea, frequent sore throats
and tonsillitis should be given due consideration in assessment of the
cardiovascular system.

2. Pulse. Rate, rhythm, volume, tension, regularity of the pulse and

conditions of the arterial wall are assessed. The normal pulse rate varies
from 60-100 bpm. The pulse should be counted for one full minute. The
pulsations for the radial and femoral arteries should always be compared
and any difference, if any, should be recorded. Other peripheral
pulsations viz. carotid, popliteal, posterior tibial artery and dorsalis pedis
artery on both sides should also be palpated and any difference, if noted
should be documented. Persistent sinus tachycardia (> 100 bpm) as well
as persistent sinus bradycardia (< 60 bpm) are unfit. In case bradycardia
is considered to be physiological, the candidate can be declared fit after
evaluation by Medical Specialist/ Cardiologist.

3. Blood Pressure. Candidates are quite prone to develop White Coat

Hypertension, which is a transient rise of BP, due to stress of medical
examination. Every effort must be made to eliminate the White Coat
effect by repeated recordings under basal conditions with the candidate
in a relaxed state. An individual with BP consistently greater than or
equal to 140/90 mm of Hg shall be rejected.

4. Cardiac Murmurs. Evidence of organic cardiovascular disease will

be cause for rejection. Diastolic murmurs are invariably organic. Short
systolic murmurs of ejection systolic nature and not associated with
thrill and which diminish on standing, especially if associated with a
normal ECG and chest radiograph, are most often functional. In case of
any doubt the case should be referred to cardiologist for opinion.

5. ECG. Assessment of a properly recorded ECG (resting – 12 lead)

should be carried out by a medical specialist. Note will be taken of wave
patterns, the amplitude, duration and time relationship. All ECG
abnormalities are unfit except incomplete RBBB which may exist without
any structural heart disease. 2D ECHO should be performed in cases
with incomplete RBBB to rule out an underlying structural heart disease
and opinion of Senior Adviser (Medicine) or Cardiologist should be
obtained.

6. Cardiac surgery and interventions. Candidates with history of

cardiac surgery/ intervention in the past will be considered unfit.

RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
71
1. History of pulmonary tuberculosis, pleurisy with effusion, frequent
episodes of expectorant cough, haemoptysis, frequent episodes of
bronchitis, asthma, spontaneous pneumothorax and injuries to the
chest should be elicited. Spirometry/ Peak Expiratory Flow Rate may be
done in cases suspected to have obstructive airway disease. In case there
is any suspicion of lung pathology, relevant investigations, including X
Ray/ CT chest/ Immunological tests etc may be carried out to decide
fitness. Final fitness in doubtful cases will be decided only at appeal level
after opinion of Sr Adv (Med)/ Pulmonologist.

2. Pulmonary Tuberculosis. Any residual scarring in pulmonary

parenchyma or pleura, as evidenced by a demonstrable opacity on chest
radiogram will be a ground for rejection. Old treated cases with no
significant residual abnormality can be accepted if the diagnosis and
treatment was completed more than two years earlier. In these cases, a
CT scan chest and fibreoptic bronchoscopy with bronchial lavage can be
done along with USG, ESR, PCR, Immunological tests and Mantoux test
as decided by the Physician. If all the tests are normal the candidate may
be considered fit. However, in such cases fitness will only be decided at
Appeal/ Review Medical Board.

3. Pleurisy with Effusion. Any evidence of significant residual

pleural thickening will be a cause for rejection.

4. Bronchitis. History of repeated attacks of cough/ wheezing/

bronchitis may be manifestations of chronic bronchitis or other chronic
pathology of the respiratory tract. Such cases will be assessed unfit.
Pulmonary Function Tests may be carried out, if available. In such
cases, opinion of the Medical Specialist/ Chest Physician may be
obtained.

5. Bronchial Asthma. History of repeated attacks of bronchial

asthma/ wheezing/ allergic rhinitis will be a cause for rejection.

6. Radiographs of the Chest. Definite radiological evidence of

disease of the lungs, mediastinum and pleurae are criteria for declaring
the candidate unfit. If required, investigations as outlined in para 2
above can be carried out under the advice of a pulmonologist.

7. Thoracic surgery. Candidate with history of any resection of the

lung parenchyma will be considered unit. Any other major surgery of the
thorax will be considered on a case to case basis.

GASTROINTESTINAL SYSTEM

1. The examiner should enquire whether the candidate has any past
history of ulceration or infection of the mouth, tongue, gums or throat.
Record should be made of any major dental alteration. When discussing
a candidate‘s medical history the examiner must ask direct questions
about any history of heartburn, history of recurrent dyspepsia, peptic
ulcer-type pain, chronic diarrhoea, jaundice or biliary colic, indigestion,
constipation, bleeding PR and any abdominal surgery.
72
2. Head to toe examination. Presence of any sign of liver cell failure
(e.g. loss of hair, parotidomegaly, spider naevi, gynaecomastia, testicular
atrophy, flapping tremors etc) and any evidence of malabsorption (pallor,
nail and skin changes, angular cheilitis, pedal edema) will entail
rejection. The condition of oral mucosa, gums and any restriction of
mouth opening should be noted.

3. Gastro-Duodenal Disabilities. Candidates who are suffering or

have suffered, during the previous one year, from symptoms suggestive
of acid-peptic disease including proven peptic ulcers, are not to be
accepted. Any past surgical procedure involving partial or total loss of an
organ (other than vestigial organs/ gall bladder) will entail rejection.

4. Diseases of the Liver. If past history of jaundice is noted or any

abnormality of the liver function is suspected, full investigation is
required for assessment. Candidates suffering from viral hepatitis or any
other form of jaundice will be rejected. Such candidates can be declared
fit after a minimum period of 6 months has elapsed provided there is full
clinical recovery; HBV and HCV status are both negative and liver
functions are within normal limits. History of recurrent jaundice and
hyperbilirubinemia of any nature is unfit.

5. Disease of the Spleen. Candidates who have undergone partial/

total splenectomy are unfit, irrespective of the cause for operation.

6. Hernia. Hernial sites are to be examined for presence of inguinal,

epigastric, umbilical and femoral hernia. Any abdominal wall hernia is
unfit. A candidate with a well-healed surgical scar, after 06 months of
either open or laparoscopic repair, is considered fit provided there is no
evidence of recurrence and the abdominal wall musculature is good.

7. Abdominal Surgery

(a) A candidate with well-healed scar after conventional

abdominal surgery will be considered fit after one year of
successful surgery provided there is no potential for any
recurrence of the underlying pathology, no evidence of incisional
hernia and the condition of the abdominal wall musculature is
good.

(b) A candidate after laparoscopic cholecystectomy will be

considered fit if 08 weeks have passed since surgery provided they
are free from signs and symptoms and their evaluation including
LFT and USG abdomen are normal and there is total absence of
gall bladder with no intra-abdominal collection. Other abdominal
laparoscopic procedures can also be considered fit after 08 weeks
of surgery provided the individual is asymptomatic, recovery is
complete and there is no residual complication or evidence of
recurrence.
8. Anorectal Conditions. The examiner should do a digital rectal
examination and rule out haemorrhoids, sentinel piles, anal skin tags,
fissures, sinuses, fistulae, prolapsed, rectal mass or polyps.

73
 (a) Fit

(i) Only external skin tags.

(ii) After rectal surgery for polyps, haemorrhoids, fissure,

fistula or ulcer, provided there is no residual/ recurrent disease.

(b) Unfit

(i) Rectal prolapse even after surgical correction

(ii) Active anal fissure

(iii) Haemorrhoids (external or internal)

(iv) Anal Fistula

(v) Anal or rectal polyp

(vi) Anal stricture

(vii) Faecal incontinence

Ultrasonography of Abdomen

9. Liver

(a) Fit

(i) Normal echo-anatomy of the liver, CBD, IHBR, portal

and hepatic veins with liver span not exceeding 15 cm
in the mid- clavicular line.

(ii) Solitary simple cyst (thin wall, anechoic) upto 2.5 cm

diameter provided that the LFT is normal and hydatid
serology is negative.

(iii) Hepatic calcifications to be considered fit if solitary

and less than 1 cm with no evidence of active disease like
tuberculosis, sarcoidosis, hydatid disease or liver
abscess based on relevant clinical examinations and
appropriate investigations.

(b) Unfit

(i) Hepatomegaly more than 15 cm in mid-clavicular line.

(ii) Fatty liver – Grade 2 and 3, grade 1 in presence of

abnormal LFT.

(iii) Solitary cyst > 2.5 cm.

(iv) Solitary cyst of any size with thick walls, septations,

papillary projections, calcifications and debris.

(v) Multiple hepatic calcifications or cluster > 1 cm.

(vi) Multiple hepatic cysts of any size.

(vii) Any haemangioma irrespective of the size and location.

74
 (viii) Portal vein thrombosis.

(ix) Evidence of portal hypertension (PV >13 mm,

collaterals, ascites).

10. Gall Bladder

(a) Fit

(i) Normal echo-anatomy of the gall bladder.

(ii) Post laparoscopic Cholecystectomy. Candidates having

undergone laparoscopic cholecystectomy may be considered
fit if 08 weeks have passed since surgery and there is total
absence of gall bladder with no intra-abdominal
collection. Wound should have healed well without
incisional hernia.

(iii) Post Open Cholecystectomy. Candidates having

undergone Open Cholecystectomy may be considered fit if
one year has passed since surgery, the scar is healthy with
no incisional hernia and there is total absence of gall bladder
with no intra-abdominal collection.

(b) Unfit

(i) Cholelithiasis or biliary sludge.

(ii) Choledocolithiasis.
(iii) Polyp of any size and number.
(iv) Choledochal cyst.
(v) Gall bladder mass.
(vi) Gall bladder wall thickness > 05 mm.
(vii) Septate gall bladder.
(viii) Persistently contracted gall bladder on repeat USG.
(ix) Incomplete Cholecystectomy.

11. Spleen

(a) Unfit

(i) Spleen more than 13 cm in longitudinal axis (or if

clinically palpable).

(ii) Any Space Occupying Lesion in the spleen.

(iii) Asplenia.

(iv) Candidates who have undergone partial/ total

splenectomy are unfit, irrespective of the cause of operation.

12. Pancreas

75
 (a) Unfit

(i) Any structural abnormality.

(ii) Space Occupying Lesion/ Mass lesion.

(iii) Features of chronic pancreatitis (calcification, ductal

abnormality, atrophy).

13. Peritoneal Cavity

(a) Unfit

(i) Ascites.

ii) Solitary mesenteric or retroperitoneal lymph node >1

cm. (Single retroperitoneal LN <1 cm and normal in
architecture may be considered fit).

(iii) Two or more lymph nodes of any size

(iv) Any mass or cyst.

14. Major Abdominal Vasculature (Aorta/ IVC). Any structural

abnormality, focal ectasia, aneurysm and calcification will be considered
as unfit.

UROGENITAL SYSTEM

1. Enquiry should be made about any alteration in micturition or

urinary stream e.g. dysuria, frequency, poor stream etc. Recurrent
attacks of cystitis; pyelonephritis and haematuria must be excluded from
history. Detailed enquiry must be made about any history of renal colic,
attacks of acute nephritis, any operation on the renal tract including loss
of a kidney, passing of stones or urethral discharges. If there is any
history of enuresis, past or present, full details must be obtained.
History of urethral discharge and Sexually Transmitted Disease (STD)
should be elicited.

2. The external genitalia should be meticulously examined to rule out

the presence of congenital anomalies e.g. hypospadias, epispadias,
ambiguous genitalia, undescended testis (UDT) or ectopic testis etc.
Conditions like hydrocele, varicocele, epididymal cyst, phimosis, urethral
stricture, meatal stenosis etc should also be ruled out. The criteria to be
followed are as follows:

(a) Undescended testis (UDT)

(i) Unfit – Any abnormal position of testis (unilateral or

bilateral) is unfit. Bilateral orchidectomy due to any
cause such as trauma, torsion or infection is
unfit.

(ii) Fit - Operatively corrected UDT may be considered fit at

least 04 weeks after surgery, provided after surgical
correction, the testis is normal in location and
76
 the wound has healed well. Unilateral atrophic testis/
unilateral orchidectomy for benign cause may be considered
fit, provided other testis is normal in size, fixation and
location.

(b) Varicocele

(i) Unfit – All grades of current varicocele.

(ii) Fit - Post-operative cases of varicocele with no residual

varicocele and no post op complication or testicular atrophy
may be made fit after 04 weeks of surgery, for sub-inguinal
varicocoelectomy.

(c) Hydrocele

(i) Unfit – Current hydrocele on any side.

(ii) Fit - Operated cases of hydrocele may be made fit after 04

weeks of surgery, if there are no post-op complications and
wound has healed well.

(d) Epididymal Cyst/ Mass, Spermatocele

(i) Unfit – Current presence of cyst / mass.

(ii) Fit – Post operative cases, where wound has healed well,
there is no recurrence and only when benign on
histopathology report.

(e) Epididymitis/ Orchitis

(i) Unfit – Presence of current orchitis or epididymitis/

tuberculosis.

(ii) Fit – After treatment, provided the condition has resolved

completely.

(f) Epispadias/ Hypospadias

(i) Unfit – All are unfit, except glanular variety of hypospadias

and epispadias, which is acceptable.

(ii) Fit – Post-operative cases at least 08 weeks after

successful surgery, provided recovery is complete and there
are no complications.

(g) Penile Amputation. Any amputation will make the candidate

unfit.

(h) Phimosis

(i) Unfit – Current phimosis, if tight enough to interfere with

local hygiene and voiding and/ or associated with Balanitis
Xerotica Obliterans.

77
 (i) Fit – Operated cases will be considered fit after 04 weeks of
surgery, provided wound is fully healed and no post-op
complications are seen.

(j) Meatal Stenosis

(i) Unfit – Current disease, if small enough to interfere with

voiding.

(ii) Fit – Mild disease not interfering with voiding and post-
operative cases after a period of 04 weeks of surgery with
adequately healed wound and no post op complications.

(k) Stricture Urethra, Urethral Fistula. Any history of / current

cases or post- op cases are unfit.

(l) Sex reassignment surgery/ Intersex condition. Unfit

(m) Nephrectomy. All cases, irrespective of the type of surgery

(Simple/ radical/ donor/ partial/ RFA/ cryo-ablation) are unfit.

(n) Renal Transplant Recipients. Unfit

3. Urine Examination

(a) Proteinuria. Proteinuria will be a cause for rejection, unless

it proves to be orthostatic.

(b) Glycosuria. When glycosuria is detected, a blood sugar

examination (fasting and after 75 g glucose) and glycosylated Hb is
to be carried out, and fitness decided as per results. Renal
glycosuria is not a cause for rejection.

(c) Urinary Infections. When the candidate has history or

evidence of urinary infection it will entail full renal investigation.
Persistent evidence of urinary infection will entail rejection.

(d) Haematuria. Candidates with history of haematuria will be

subjected to full renal investigation.

4. Glomerulonephritis

(a) Acute. In this condition there is a high rate of recovery in

the acute phase, particularly in childhood. A candidate who has
made a complete recovery and has no proteinuria may be assessed
fit, after a minimum period of one year after full recovery.

(b) Chronic. Candidate with chronic glomerulonephritis will be

rejected.

5. Renal Colic and Renal Calculi. Complete renal and metabolic

evaluation is required. Current or history of urolithiasis, recurrent
calculus, bilateral renal calculi, nephrocalcinosis are unfit. Even after
surgery or any procedure to treat urolithiasis the candidate remains
unfit.

78
6. Sexual Transmitted Diseases and Human Immuno Deficiency
Virus (HIV). Seropositive HIV status and/ or evidence of STD will
entail rejection.

Ultrasonography of the Abdomen - Urogenital System

7. Kidneys, ureters and urinary bladder

(a) Unfit

(i) Congenital structural abnormalities of kidneys or

urinary tract

(aa) Unilateral renal agenesis.

(ab) Unilateral or bilateral hypoplastic/ contracted

kidney of size less than 08 cm.

(ac) Malrotation of kidney.

(ad) Horseshoe kidney.

(ae) Ptosed kidney.

(af) Crossed fused/ ectopic kidney.

(ii) Simple single renal cyst of more than 1.5 cm size in

one kidney.

(iii) Complex cyst/ polycystic disease/ multiple or bilateral

cysts.

(iv) Renal/ ureteric/ vesical mass.

(v) Hydronephrosis or Hydroureteronephrosis.

(vi) Calculi - Renal/ Ureteric/ Vesical.

(b) Fit - Solitary, unilateral, simple renal cyst <1.5 cm provided the
cyst is peripherally located, round/ oval, with thin smooth wall and no
loculations, with posterior enhancement, no debris, no septa and no
solid component.

(c) During Appeal Medical Board/ Review Medical Board unfit

candidates will be subjected to specific investigations and detailed
clinical examination. Candidates having isolated abnormality of
echo texture of Kidney may be considered fit if Renal Function,
DTPA scan and CECT kidney is normal.

8. Scrotum and Testis. The following cases will be made unfit:

(a) Bilateral atrophied testis.

(b) Varicocele (Unilateral or bilateral).

(c) Any abnormal location of testis (Unilateral or Bilateral).

(d) Hydrocele

(e) Epididymal lesions e.g. cyst.

79
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

1. History should be carefully elicited for any endocrine conditions

particularly Diabetes Mellitus, disorders of thyroid and adrenal glands,
gonads etc. Any history suggestive of endocrine disorders will be a cause
for rejection. In case of any doubt, Medical Spl/ Endocrinologist opinion
should be taken.

2. A thorough clinical examination to detect any obvious disease of

the endocrine system should be carried out. Any clinical evidence of
endocrine disease will be unfit.

3. All cases of thyroid swelling having abnormal iodine uptake and

abnormal thyroid hormone levels will be rejected. All cases of thyroid
swelling are unfit.

4. Candidates detected to have diabetes mellitus will be rejected. A

candidate with a family history of Diabetes Mellitus will be subjected to
blood sugar (Fasting and after Glucose load) and HbA1c evaluation,
which will be recorded.

DERMATOLOGICAL SYSTEM

1. Careful interrogation followed by examination of the candidate’s

skin is necessary to obtain a clear picture of the nature and severity of
any dermatological condition claimed or found. Borderline skin
conditions should be referred to a dermatologist. Candidates who give
history of sexual exposure to a Commercial Sex Worker (CSW), or have
evidence of healed penile sore in the form of a scar should be declared
permanently unfit, even in absence of an overt STD, as these candidates
are likely ‘repeaters‘ with similar indulgent promiscuous behavior.

2. Assessment of Diseases of the Skin. Acute non-exanthematous

and non-communicable diseases, which ordinarily run a temporary
course, need not be a cause of rejection. Diseases of a trivial nature, and
those, which do not interfere with general health or cause incapacity, do
not entail rejection.

3. Certain skin conditions are apt to become active and

incapacitating under tropical conditions. An individual is unsuitable for
service if he has a definite history or signs of chronic or recurrent skin
disease. Some of such conditions are described below:-

(a) Some amount of Palmoplantar Hyperhydrosis is

physiological, considering the situation that recruits face during
medical examination. However, candidates with significant
Palmoplantar Hyperhydrosis should be considered unfit.

80
 (b) Mild (Grade I) acne consisting of few comedones or papules,
localized only to the face may be acceptable. However, moderate to
severe degree of acne (nodulocystic type with or without keloidal
scarring) or involving the back should be considered unfit.

(c) Any degree of palmoplantar keratoderma manifesting with

hyperkeratotic and fissured skin over the palms, soles and heels
should be considered unfit.

(d) Ichthyosis involving the upper and lower limbs, with evident
dry, scaly, fissured skin should be considered unfit. Mild xerosis
(dry skin) could be considered fit.

(e) Candidates having any keloid should be considered unfit.

(f) Clinically evident onychomycosis of finger and toe-nails

should be declared unfit, especially if associated with nail
dystrophy. Mild degree of distal discoloration involving single nail
without any dystrophy may be acceptable.

(g) Giant congenital melanocytic naevi, greater than 10 cm

should be considered unfit, as there is a malignant potential in
such large sized naevi.

(h) Single corns/ Warts/ Callosities will be considered fit, three

months after successful treatment and no recurrence. However,
candidates with multiple warts/ corns/ callosities on palms and
soles or diffuse palmoplantar mosaic warts, large callosities on
pressure areas of palms and soles should be rejected.

(j) Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition known to relapse

and/or recur and hence should be considered unfit.

(k) Candidates suffering from minor degree of Leukoderma

affecting the covered parts may be accepted. Vitiligo limited only to
glans penis and prepuce may be considered fit. Those having
extensive degree of skin involvement and especially, when the
exposed parts are affected, even to a minor degree, should be made
unfit.

4. A history of chronic or recurrent episodes of skin infections will be

cause for rejection. Folliculitis or sycosis barbae from which there has
been complete recovery may be considered fit.

5. Individuals who have chronic or frequently recurring episodes of a

skin disease of a serious or incapacitating nature e.g. eczema are to be
assessed as permanently unfit and rejected.

81
6. Any sign of Leprosy will be a cause for rejection. All peripheral
nerves should be examined for any thickness of the nerves and any
clinical evidence suggestive of leprosy is a ground for rejection.

7. Naevus depigmentosus and Beckers naevus may be considered fit.

Intradermal naevus, vascular naevi are to be made unfit.

8. Pityriasis Versicolor is to be made unfit.

9. Any fungal infection (like Tinea Cruris and Tinea Corporis) of any
part of the body will be unfit.

10. Scrotal Eczema may be considered fit on recovery.

11. Canities (premature graying of hair) may be considered fit if mild

in nature and no systemic association is seen.

12. Intertrigo may be considered fit on recovery.

13. Genital Ulcers should be considered unfit. Anal and perianal area
should also be included as a part of genital examination to rule out STD.

14. Scabies may be considered fit only on recovery.

15. Alopecia areata single and small (<2 cm in diameter) lesion on

scalp can be accepted. However if multiple, involving other areas or
having scarring, the candidate should be rejected.

MUSCULOSKELETAL SYSTEM AND PHYSICAL CAPACITY

1. Assessment of the candidate’s physique is to be based upon

careful observation of such general parameters as apparent muscular
development, age, height, weight and the correlation of this i.e. potential
ability to acquire physical stamina with training. The candidate’s
physical capacity is affected by general physical development or by any
constitutional or pathological condition.

SPINAL CONDITIONS

2. Past medical history of disease or injury of the spine or sacroiliac

joints, either with or without objective signs, which has prevented the
candidate from successfully following a physically active life, is a cause
for rejection for commissioning. History of recurrent lumbago/ spinal
fracture/ prolapsed intervertebral disc and surgical treatment for these
conditions will entail rejection.

Evaluation of Spine

3. Clinical Examination. Normal thoracic kyphosis and cervical/

lumbar lordosis are barely noticeable and not associated with pain or
restriction of movement.

82
 (a) If clinical examination reveals restriction of spine
movements, deformities, tenderness of the spine or any gait
abnormalities, it will be considered unfit.

(b) Gross kyphosis, affecting military bearing/ restricts full

range of spinal movements and/or expansion of chest is unfit.

(c) Scoliosis is unfit, if deformity persists on full flexion of the

spine, when associated with restricted range of spine movements
or when due to an underlying pathological cause. When scoliosis is
noticeable or any pathological condition of the spine is suspected,
radiographic examination of the appropriate part of the spine
needs to be carried out.

(d) Spina Bifida. The following markers should be looked for, on

clinical examination and corroborated with radiological evaluation:

(i) Congenital defects overlying the spine e.g.

hypertrichosis, skin dimpling, haemangioma, pigmented
naevus or dermal sinus.

(ii) Presence of lipoma over spine.

(iii) Palpable spina bifida.

(iv) Abnormal findings on neurological examination.

4. Radiograph Spine. For flying duties, radiograph (AP and lateral

views) of cervical, thoracic and lumbosacral spine is to be carried out.
For ground duties, radiographic examination of spine may be carried
out, if deemed necessary by Medical Officer/ Specialist.

5. Spinal Conditions Unfit for Air Force Duties (Both Flying and
Ground Duties)

(a) Congenital/ Developmental Anomalies

(i) Wedge Vertebra

(ii) Hemivertebra

(iii) Anterior Central Defect

(iv) Cervical Ribs (Unilateral/ Bilateral) with demonstrable

neurological or circulatory deficit

(v) Spinabifida:- All types are unfit except in sacrum and

LV5 (if completely sacralised)

(vi) Loss of Cervical Lordosis when assessed with clinically

restricted movement of cervical spine.

(vii) Scoliosis:-

(aa) Lumbar Scoliosis greater than 15 degrees

83
 (ab) Thoracic scoliosis greater than 20 degrees

(ac) Thoraco-lumbar scoliosis greater than 20

degrees

(viii) Atlanto-occipital and Atlanto-axial anomalies

(ix) Incomplete Block (fused) vertebra at any level in

cervical, dorsal or lumbar spine.

(x) Complete Block (fused) vertebra at more than one level

in cervical or dorsal spine. (Single level is acceptable.
Annotation is to be made in AFMSF-2)

(xi) Unilateral sacralisation or lumbarisation (complete or

incomplete) and Bilateral incomplete sacralisation or
lumbarisation (LSTV- Castellvi Type II a & b, III a & IV)
(Bilateral Complete Sacralisation of LV5 and Bilateral
Complete Lumbarisation of SV1 i.e LSTV Castellvi Type III b
and Type I a & b are acceptable (Annotation is to be made in
AFMSF-2)

(b) Traumatic Conditions

(i) Spondylolysis/ Spondylolisthesis

(ii) Compression fracture of vertebra

(iii) Intervertebral Disc Prolapse

(iv) Schmorl’s Nodes at more than one level

(c) Infective

(i) Tuberculosis and other Granulomatous disease of

spine (old or active)

(ii) Infective Spondylitis

(d) Autoimmune

(i) Rheumatoid Arthritis and allied disorders

(ii) Ankylosing spondylitis

(iii) Other rheumatological disorders of spine e.g

Polymyositis, SLE and Vasculitis

(e) Degenerative

(i) Spondylosis

84
 (ii) Degenerative Joint Disorders

(iii) Degenerative Disc Disease

(iv) Osteoarthrosis/ osteoarthritis

(v) Scheuerman’s Disease (Adolescent Kyphosis)

(f) Any other spinal abnormality, if so considered by the

specialist.

CONDITIONS AFFECTING THE ASSESSMENT OF UPPER LIMBS

6. Deformities of the upper limbs or their parts will be cause for

rejection. Candidate with an amputation of a limb will not be accepted
for entry. Amputation of terminal phalanx of little finger on both sides is,
however, acceptable.

7. Healed Fractures

(a) In the following conditions, healed fractures of upper limb

are not acceptable:-

(i) Fractures involving articular surfaces

(ii) Fractures associated with neuro-vascular deficit

(iii) Malunited fractures

(iv) Fracture causing impairment of function

(v) Fractures with implant in-situ

(b) Fracture of the upper limb, presenting 06 months after the

injury with none of the sequelae as mentioned above are
acceptable after assessment by orthopaedic surgeon.

8. Fingers and Hands. Syndactyly and polydactyly will be assessed

as unfit except when polydactyly is excised. Deformities and limitations
to movements will be considered unfit.

9. Wrist. Painless limitation of movement of the wrist will be

assessed according to the degree of stiffness. Loss of dorsiflexion is more
serious than loss of palmar flexion.

10. Elbow. Slight limitation of movement does not bar acceptance

provided functional capacity is adequate. Ankylosis will entail rejection.
Cubitus Valgus is said to be present when the carrying angle (angle
between arm and forearm in anatomical posture) is exaggerated. In
absence of functional disability and obvious cause like a fracture mal-
union, fibrosis or the like, a carrying angle of upto 15º in male and 18º
in female candidates would be made fit.

11. Cubitus Varus of > 5 degree will be unfit.

85
12. Shoulder Girdle. History of recurrent dislocation of shoulder with
or without corrective surgery will be unfit.

13. Clavicle. Non-union of an old fracture clavicle will entail rejection.

Mal-united clavicle fracture without loss of function and without obvious
deformity are acceptable.

CONDITIONS AFFECTING THE ASSESSMENT OF LOWER LIMBS

14 Hallux valgus with angle >20 degrees and first-second metatarsal

angle of >10 degrees is unfit. Hallux valgus of any degree with bunion,
corns or callosities is unfit.

15. Hallux rigidus is unfit for service.

16. Isolated single flexible mild hammer toe without symptoms may be
accepted. Fixed (rigid) deformity or hammer toe associated with corns,
callosities, mallet toes or hyperextension at meta-tarso-phalangeal joint
(claw toe deformity) are to be rejected.

17. Loss of any digits/ toes entails rejection.

18. Extra digits will entail rejection if there is bony continuity with
adjacent digits. Cases of syndactyly will be rejected.

19. Pes Planus (Flat feet)

(a) If the arches of the feet reappear on standing on toes, if the

candidate can skip and run well on the toes and if the feet are
supple, mobile and painless, the candidate is acceptable.

(b) Rigid or fixed flat feet, gross flat feet, with planovalgus,
eversion of heel, cannot balance himself/herself on toes, cannot
skip on the forefoot, tender painful tarsal joints, prominent head of
talus will be considered unfit. Restriction of the movements of the
foot will also be a cause for rejection. Rigidity of the foot, whatever
may be the shape of the foot, is a cause for rejection.

20. Pes Cavus and Talipes (Club Foot). Mild degree of idiopathic pes
cavus without any functional limitation is acceptable. Moderate and
severe pes cavus and pes cavus due to organic disease will entail
rejection. All cases of Talipes (Club Foot) will be rejected.

21. Ankle Joints. Any significant limitation of movement following

previous injuries will not be accepted. Functional evaluation with
imaging should be carried out wherever necessary.

22. Knee Joint. Any ligamentous laxity is not accepted. Candidates

who have undergone ACL reconstruction surgery are to be considered
unfit.

23. Genu valgum (knock knee) with intermalleolar distance > 5 cm in

males and > 8 cm in females will be unfit.

24. Genu varum (bow legs) with intercondylar distance >7 cm will be
considered unfit.

86
25. Genu Recurvatum. If the hyperextension of the knee is within 10
degrees and is unaccompanied by any other deformity, the candidate
should be accepted as fit.

26. True lesions of the hip joint or early signs of arthritis will entail
rejection.

27. Peripheral Vascular System

(a) Varicose Veins. All cases with active varicose veins will be
declared unfit. Post-op cases of varicose veins also remain unfit.

(b) Arterial System. Current or history of abnormalities of the

arteries and blood vessels e.g. aneurysms, arteritis and peripheral
arterial disease will be considered unfit.

(c) Lymphoedema. History of past/ current disease makes the

candidate unfit.

CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM

1. A candidate giving a history of mental illness/ psychological

afflictions requires detailed investigation and psychiatric referral. Such
cases should normally be rejected. Most often the history is not
volunteered. The examiner should try to elicit a history by direct
questioning, which may or may not be fruitful. Every examiner should
form a general impression of the candidate’s personality as a whole and
may enquire into an individual’s stability and habitual reactions to
difficult and stressful situations. Family history and prior history of
using medication is also relevant.

2. History of insomnia, phobias, nightmares or frequent sleepwalking

or Bed-wetting, when recurrent or persistent, will be a cause for
rejection.

3. Common types of recurrent headaches are those due to former

head injury or migraine. Other forms of occasional headache must be
considered in relation to their probable cause. A candidate with
migraine, which was severe enough to make him/her consult his/her
doctor, should normally be a cause for rejection. Even a single attack of
migraine with visual disturbance or Migrainous epilepsy is to be made
unfit.

4. History of epilepsy in a candidate is a cause for rejection.

Convulsions/ fits after the age of five are also a cause for rejection.
Convulsions in infancy may not be of ominous nature provided it
appears that the convulsions were febrile convulsions and were not
associated with any overt neurological deficit. Causes of epilepsy include
genetic factors, traumatic brain injury, stroke, infection, demyelinating
and degenerative disorders, birth defects, substance abuse and
withdrawal seizures. Enquiry should not be limited only to the
occurrence of major attacks. Seizures may masquerade as ― “faints”
and therefore the frequency and the conditions under which ― “faints”
took place must be elicited. Such attacks will be made unfit, whatever
their apparent nature. An isolated fainting attack calls for enquiry into
87
all the attendant factors to distinguish between syncope and seizures
e.g. fainting in school are of common occurrence and may have little
significance. Complex partial seizures, which may manifest as vegetative
movements as lip smacking, chewing, staring, dazed appearance and
periods of unresponsiveness, are criteria for making the candidate unfit.

5. History of repeated attacks of heat stroke, hyperpyrexia or heat

exhaustion bars employment for Air Force duties, as it is an evidence of
a faulty heat regulating mechanism. A single severe attack of heat
effects, provided the history of exposure was severe, and no permanent
sequelae were evident is, by itself, not a reason for rejecting the
candidate.

6. A history of severe head injury is a cause for rejection. Other

sequelae of head injury like post-concussion syndrome, focal
neurological deficit and post traumatic epilepsy should be noted which
may be associated with subjective symptoms of headache, giddiness,
insomnia, restlessness, irritability, poor concentration and attention
deficits. Post traumatic neuropsychological impairment can also occur
which includes deficits in attention concentration, information
processing speeds, mental flexibility and frontal lobe executive functions
and psychosocial functioning. Neuropsychological testing including
pyschometry can assess these aspects. It is important to realize that
sequelae may persist for considerable period and may even be
permanent. Fracture of the skull need not be a cause for rejection unless
there is a history of associated intracranial damage or any residual bony
defect in the calvaria. When there is a history of severe injury or an
associated convulsive attack, an electroencephalogram should be carried
out which must be normal. Presence of burr holes will be cause for
rejection for flying duties, but not for ground duties. Each case is to be
judged on individual merits. Opinion of Neurosurgeon and Psychiatrist
must be obtained before acceptance.

7. When a history of nervous breakdown, mental disease, or suicide

of a near relative is obtained, a careful investigation of the personal past
history from a psychological point of view is to be obtained. Any evidence
of even the slightest psychological instability in the personal history or
present condition should entail rejection and the candidate should be
referred to the psychiatrist for further evaluation.

8. If a family history of epilepsy is admitted, an attempt should be

made to determine its type. When the condition has occurred in a near
(first degree) relative, the candidate may be accepted, if he has no history
of associated disturbance of consciousness, neurological deficit or higher
mental functions and his electroencephalogram is completely normal.

9. The assessment of emotional stability must include family and

personal history, any indication of emotional instability under stress as
evidenced by the occurrence of undue emotionalism as a child or of any
previous nervous illness or breakdown. The presence of stammering, tic,
nail biting, excessive hyperhydrosis or restlessness during examination
could be indicative of emotional instability and should be made unfit.

88
10. All candidates who are suffering from psychosis are to be rejected.
Drug dependence in any form will also be a cause for rejection.

11. Psychoneurosis. Mentally unstable and neurotic individuals are

unfit for commissioning. Juvenile and adult delinquency, history of
nervous breakdown or chronic ill-health is causes for rejection.
Particular attention should be paid to such factors as unhappy
childhood, poor family background, truancy, juvenile and adult
delinquency, poor employment and social maladjustment records,
history of nervous breakdown or chronic ill-health, particularly if these
have interfered with employment in the past.

12. Any evident neurological deficit should call for rejection.

13. Tremors are rhythmic oscillatory movements of reciprocally

innervated muscle groups. Two categories are recognized: normal or
physiologic and abnormal or pathologic. Fine tremor is present in all
contracting muscle groups, it persists throughout the waking state, the
movement is fine between 8 to 13 Hz. Pathologic tremor is coarse,
between 4 to 7 Hz and usually affects the distal part of limbs. Gross
tremors are generally due to enhanced physiological causes where, at the
same frequency, the amplitude of the tremor is grossly enhanced and is
elicited by outstretching the arms and fingers which are spread apart.
This occurs in cases of excessive fright, anger, anxiety, intense physical
exertion, metabolic disturbances including hyperthyroidism, alcohol
withdrawal and toxic effects of lithium, smoking (nicotine) and excessive
tea, coffee. Other causes of coarse tremor are Parkinsonism, cerebellar
tremors (intentional tremors), essential (familial) tremor, tremors of
neuropathy and postural or action tremors.

14. Candidates with stammering will not be accepted for Air Force
duties. Careful assessment by ENT Specialist, Speech therapist,
psychologist/ psychiatrist may be required in doubtful cases.

15. Basal Electroencephalogram (EEG). EEG is to be recorded for

candidates for aircrew duties only in case there is a history of epilepsy in
the family, past history of head injury and/or any other psychological or
neurological abnormality noted in the past. These aspects will be
carefully enquired into. In case of other candidates also, EEG can be
taken if indicated or considered necessary by the medical examiner.
Those with following EEG abnormalities in resting EEG or EEG under
provocative techniques will be rejected for aircrew duties: -

(a) Background Activity. Focal, excessive and high amplitude

beta activity/hemispherical asymmetry of more than 2.3
Hz/generalized and focal runs of slow waves approaching
background activity in amplitude.

(b) Hyperventilation. Paroxysmal spikes and slow

waves/spikes/focal spike pattern.

89
 (c) Photo Stimulation. Bilaterally synchronous or focal
paroxysmal spikes and slow waves persisting in post-photic stimulation
period/suppression or driving response over one hemisphere.

16. Non specific EEG abnormality will be acceptable provided opinion

of Neuropsychiatrist/Neurophysician is obtained. The findings of EEG
will be entered in AFMSF-2. In case an EEG is reported as abnormal, the
cadet would be referred to CHAF (B) for a comprehensive evaluation by
neurophysician followed by review by a Board at IAM IAF.

EAR, NOSE AND THROAT

1. History. Any significant history of otorrhoea, hearing loss, vertigo

including motion sickness, tinnitus etc is to be elicited.

2. Nose and Para-nasal Sinuses. The following entails rejection:

(a) Gross external deformity of nose causing cosmetic deformity

may be rejected if it adversely impacts military bearing. However,
minor deformities of dorsum and nasal tip should not be a cause of
rejection.

(b) Obstruction to free breathing as a result of a marked septal

deviation. Post corrective surgery with residual mild deviation with
adequate airway patency will be acceptable.

(c) Septal perforation is unacceptable. However, asymptomatic

anterior (cartilaginous) septal perforation may be accepted by ENT
specialist provided chronic granulomatous diseases have been
ruled out and nasal mucosa is healthy.

(d) Atrophic rhinitis.

(e) Any history/clinical evidence suggestive of allergic rhinitis/

vasomotor rhinitis will entail rejection.

(f) Any infection of the para-nasal sinuses will be declared

unfit. Such cases may be accepted following successful treatment at the
Appeal Medical Board.

(g) Current nasal polyposis is a cause for rejection. However,

such cases may be accepted after Endoscopic Sinus Surgery
provided there is no residual disease, mucosa is healthy and
histopathology is benign and non-fungal. Such evaluation will be
done minimum 04 weeks post-surgery.

3. Oral Cavity

(a) Unfit

(i) Current/ operated cases of leukoplakia, erythroplakia,

submucous fibrosis, ankyloglossia and oral
carcinoma.

90
 (ii) Current oral ulcers/ growths and mucous retention
cysts.

(iii) Trismus due to any cause.

(iv) Cleft palate, even after surgical correction.

(b) Fit

(i) Completely healed oral ulcers.

(ii) Operated cases of mucus retention cyst with no

recurrence and proven benign histology. Evaluation in these
cases should be done after minimum 04 weeks post-
surgery.

(iii) Sub-mucous cleft of palate with or without bifid uvula

not causing Eustachian tube dysfunction may be accepted by
ENT specialist, provided PTA, tympanometry and speech are
normal.

4. Pharynx and Larynx. The following conditions will entail rejection:

(a) Any ulcerative/ mass lesion of the pharynx.

(b) Candidates in whom tonsillectomy is indicated. Such

candidates may be accepted minimum 02 weeks after successful
surgery provided there are no complications and histology is benign.

(c) Cleft palate.

(d) Any disabling condition of the pharynx or larynx causing

persistent hoarseness or dysphonia.

(e) Chronic laryngitis, vocal cord palsy, laryngeal polyps and

growths.

5. Obstruction or insufficiency of Eustachian tube function will be a

cause for rejection. Altitude chamber ear clearance test will be carried
out before acceptance in in-service candidates.

6. The presence of tinnitus necessitates investigation of its duration,

localization, severity and possible causation. Persistent tinnitus is a
cause for rejection, as it is liable to become worse through exposure to
noise and may be a precursor to Otosclerosis and Meniere’s disease.

7. Specific enquiry should be made for any susceptibility to motion

sickness. An endorsement to this effect should be made in AFMSF-2.
Such cases will be fully evaluated and, if found susceptible to motion
sickness, they will be rejected for flying duties. Any evidence of
peripheral vestibular dysfunction due to any cause will entail rejection.

8. A candidate with a history of dizziness needs to be investigated

thoroughly.

9. Hearing loss. The following are not acceptable:

(a) Any reduction less than 600 cm in CV/ FW.

91
 (b) Wherever PTA is indicated and thresholds are obtained, the
audiometric loss greater than 20 db, in frequencies between 250 and
8000 Hz.

(c) Free field hearing loss is a cause for rejection.

Note: In evaluating the audiogram, the baseline zero of the

audiometer and the environmental noise conditions under which
the audiogram has been obtained should be taken into
consideration. On the recommendation of an ENT Specialist, an
isolated unilateral hearing loss up to 30 db may be condoned
provided ENT examination is otherwise normal.

10. Ears. A radical/modified radical mastoidectomy entails rejection

even if completely epithelialised and good hearing is preserved. Cases of
cortical mastoidectomy in the past with the tympanic membrane intact,
normal hearing and presenting no evidence of disease may be accepted.

11. External Ear. The following defects of external ear should be

declared unfit:

(a) Gross deformity of pinna which may hamper wearing of

uniform/ personal kit/ protective equipment, or which adversely
impacts military bearing.

(b) Cases of chronic otitis externa.

(c) Exostoses, atreisa/ narrowing of EAM or neoplasm

preventing a proper examination of the ear drum.

(d) Exaggerated tortuosity of the canal, obliterating the anterior

view of the tympanic membrane will be a cause for rejection.

(e) Granulation or polyp in external auditory canal.

12. Middle Ear. The following conditions of middle ear will entail
rejection:-

(a) Current otitis media of any type.

(b) Attic, central or marginal perforation.

(c) Tympanosclerosis or scarring affecting >50 % of the Pars

Tensa of TM is unfit even if PTA and tympanometry are normal.
Evidence of healed chronic Otitis Media in the form of
Tympanosclerosis or scarrign affecting <50 % of Pars Tensa of TM will
be assessed by ENT spl and will be acceptable if PTA and
tympanometry are normal. A trial of decompression chamber may
be carried out, if indicated, for aircrew, ATC/FC,
submariners/divers.

(d) Any residual perforation in cases of old otitis media.

(e) Marked retraction or restriction in TM mobility on

pneumatic otoscopy.

(f) Any hearing impairment on forced Whisper test.

92
 (g) Deranged pure tone audiometry thresholds.

(h) Tympanometry showing patterns other than Type ‘A’

tympanogram.

(j) Any implanted hearing devices e.g. cochlear implants, bone

anchored hearing aids etc.

(k) After middle ear surgeries viz. stapedectomy, ossiculoplasty,

any type of canal-wall down mastoidectomy.

Note: Healed healthy scars of neo-tympanic membrane involving

<50 % of Pars Tensa due to Type 1 Tympanoplasty (with or without
Cortical Mastoidectomy) for Chronic Otitis Media (Mucosal type)
and Myringotomy (for Otitis Media with Effusion) may be
acceptable if PTA, Tympanoplasty are normal. Assessment of
operated cases will be done only after a minimum of 12 weeks. A
trial in Decompression Chamber may be carried out, if indicated,
for aircrew, ATC/FC, submariners/ divers.

13. Miscellaneous Ear Conditions. The following ear conditions will

entail rejection:-

(a) Otosclerosis.

(b) Meniere‘s disease.

(c) Vestibular dysfunction including nystagmus of vestibular

origin.

(d) Bell‘s palsy following ear infection.

OPHTHALMIC SYSTEM

1. Visual defects and medical ophthalmic conditions are amongst the

major causes of rejection from flying duties. Therefore, a thorough and
accurate eye examination is of great importance for all candidates,
especially those for flying duties.

2. Personal and Family History and External Examination

(a) Squint and the need for spectacles for other reasons are
frequently hereditary and a family history may give valuable
information on the degree of deterioration to be anticipated.
Candidates, who are wearing spectacles or found to have
defective vision, should be properly assessed. All cases of squint
should be made unfit by recruiting MO and by Specialist.
Individuals with manifest squint are not acceptable for
commissioning. However, small horizontal latent squint/ Phoria
i.e. Exophoria/ Esophoria may be considered fit by the specialist
along with Grade III BSV. Hyperphoria/ Hypophoria or
cyclophoria are to be made unfit.

(b) Ptosis interfering with vision or visual field is a cause for

rejection till surgical correction remains successful for a period of
six months. Mild ptosis which is not affecting vision/ visual field
in day or night may be considered fit. In such situations, the
93
assessment in central 30 degree of visual field should be done
properly.

(c) Candidates with uncontrollable blepharitis, particularly with

loss of eyelashes, are generally unsuitable and should be rejected.
Severe cases of blepharitis and chronic conjunctivitis should be
assessed as temporarily unfit until the response to treatment can
be assessed.

(d) These cases of Ectropion/ Entropion are to be made unfit.

Mild ectropion and entropion which in the opinion of
ophthalmologist will not hamper day to day functioning in any
way, may be made fit.

(e) All cases of progressive pterygium to be made unfit by

recruiting MO and specialist. Regressive non vascularised
pterygium likely to be stationary occupying ≤ 1.5 mm of the
peripheral cornea may be made fit by eye spl after measurement
on a slit lamp.

(f) All cases of nystagmus are to be made unfit except for

physiologic nystagmus.

(g) Naso-lacrymal occlusion producing epiphora or a mucocele

entails rejection, unless surgery produces relief lasting for a
minimum of six months and the post op syringing is patent.

(h) Uveitis (iritis, cyclitis, and choroiditis) is frequently

recurrent, and candidates giving a history of or exhibiting this
condition should be carefully assessed. When there is evidence of
permanent lesions such candidates should be rejected.

(j) Corneal scars, opacities will be cause for rejection unless it

does not interfere with vision. Such cases should be carefully
assessed before acceptance, as many conditions are recurrent.

(k) Cases with Lenticular opacities should be assessed carefully.

As a guideline any opacity causing visual deterioration, or is in
the visual axis or is present in an area of 7 mm around the pupil,
which may cause glare phenomena, should not be considered fit.
The propensity of the opacities not to increase in number or size
should also be a consideration when deciding fitness. Small
stationary lenticular opacities in the periphery like congenital
Blue Dot cataract, not affecting the visual axis/ visual field may
be considered fit by specialist. (It should be less than 10 in
number and central area of 4 mm to be clear).

(l) Visual disturbances associated with headaches of a

migrainous type are not a strictly ocular problem, and should be
assessed in accordance with para 3 of Central Nervous System
Section mentioned above. Presence of diplopia or detection of
nystagmus requires proper examination, as they can be due to
physiological reasons.

(m) Night blindness is largely congenital but certain diseases of

the eye exhibit night blindness as an early symptom and hence,
94
 proper investigations are necessary before final assessment. As
tests for night blindness are not routinely performed, a certificate
to the effect that the individual does not suffer from night
blindness will be obtained in every case. Certificate should be as
per Appendix ‘A’ to this notification. A proven case of night-
blindness is unfit for service.

(n) Restriction of movements of the eyeball in any direction and

undue depression/ prominence of the eyeball requires proper
assessment.

(o) Retinal lesions. A small healed chorio-retinal scar in the

retinal periphery not affecting the vision and not associated with
any other complications can be made fit by specialist. Similarly a
small lattice in periphery with no other complications can be
made fit. Any lesion in the central fundus will be made unfit by
the specialist.

3. Visual Acuity/ Colour Vision for Male and Female Candidates.

The visual acuity and colour vision requirements for male and female
Candidates are detailed in Appendix ‘B’ and Appendix ‘C respectively to
this notification. Those who do not meet these requirements are to be
rejected.

4. Myopia. If there is a strong family history of Myopia, particularly if

it is established that the visual defect is recent, if physical growth is still
expected, or if the fundus appearance is suggestive of progressive
myopia, even if the visual acuity is within the limit prescribed, the
candidate should be declared unfit.

5. Refractive Surgeries. Candidates who have undergone Photo

Refractive Keratotomy (PRK)/ Laser in-situ Kearomileusis (LASIK) may be
considered fit for commissioning in the Air Force in all branches. Post
PRK/LASIK candidates must meet the following criteria of visual
requirements for the branch as laid down below:-

(a) PRK/LASIK surgery should not have been carried out before
the age of 20 years.

(b) The axial length of the eye should not be more than 25.5
mm as measured by IOL master.

(c) At least 12 months should have elapsed post uncomplicated

stable PRK/LASIK with no history or evidence of any complication.

(d) The post PRK/LASIK corneal thickness as measured by a

corneal pachymeter should not be less than 450 microns.

(e) Individuals with high refractive errors (>6D) prior to LASIK

are to be excluded.

6. Radial Keratotomy (RK) surgery for correction of refractive errors is

not permitted for any Air Force duties. Candidates having undergone
cataract surgery with or without IOL implants will also be declared unfit.

OCULAR MUSCLE BALANCE

95
7. Individuals with manifest squint are not acceptable for
commissioning. The assessment of latent squint or heterophoria in the
case of aircrew will be mainly based on the assessment of the fusion
capacity. A strong fusion sense ensures the maintenance of binocular
vision in the face of stress and fatigue. Hence, it is the main criterion for
acceptability.

(a) Convergence (as assessed on RAF rule)

(i) Objective Convergence. Average is from 6.5 to 8 cm. It

is poor at 10 cm and above.

(ii) Subjective Convergence (SC). This indicates the end

point of binocular vision under the stress of convergence. If the
subjective convergence is more than 10 cm beyond the limit of
objective convergence, the fusion capacity is poor. This is
specially so when the objective convergence is 10 cm and above.

(b) Accommodation. In the case of myopes, accommodation

should be assessed with corrective glasses in position. The
acceptable values for accommodation in various age groups are
given in Table 1.

Table 1 - Accommodation Values – Age wise

Age in Yrs 17-20 21-25 26-30 31-35 36-40 41-45

Accommodation 10-11 11-12 12.5- 14-16 16- 18.5-
(in cm) 13.5 18.5 27

8. Ocular muscle balance is dynamic and varies with concentration,

anxiety, fatigue, hypoxia, drugs and alcohol. The above tests should be
considered together for the final assessment. For example, cases just
beyond the maximum limits of the Maddox Rod test, but who show a
good binocular response, a good objective convergence with little
difference from subjective convergence, and full and rapid recovery on
the cover tests may be accepted. On the other hand, cases well within
Maddox Rod test limits, but who show little or no fusion capacity,
incomplete or no recovery on the cover tests, and poor subjective
convergence should be rejected. Standards for assessment of Ocular
Muscle Balance for male and female Candidates are detailed in
Appendix ‘D’ and Appendix ‘E’, respectively, to notification.

9. Any clinical findings in the media (cornea, lens, vitreous) or

fundus, which is of pathological nature and likely to progress will be a
cause for rejection. This examination will be done by slit lamp and
ophthalmoscopy under mydriasis.

Appendix ‘A’
[Refers to para 2 (m) Ophthalmology
standards]

CERTIFICATE REGARDING NIGHT BLINDNESS

96
 Name with
initials Batch No.
Chest No

I hereby certify that to the best of my knowledge, there has not

been any case of night blindness in our family, and I do not suffer
from it.

Date: (Signature of the

candidate)

Countersigned by

(Name of Medical Officer)

97
 Appendix ‘B’

(para 3 above of
Ophthalmology
standards)

VISUAL STANDARDS FOR MALE CANDIDATES AT INITIAL ENTRY

Sl Med Branch Maximum Limits of Visual Acuity (VA) Colour

No. Cat Refractive Error with limits of Vision
maximum
correction
1 A1G F (P) Hypermetropia: + 1.5D 6/6 in one eye and CP-I
1 including Sph Manifest Myopia: Nil 6/9 in other,
WSOs , Astigmatism: +0.75D Cyl correctable to 6/6
Flying (within +1.5 D Max) only for
Branch Retinoscopic myopia: Nil Hypermetropia
Candidate
s at NDA
and AFA
2. A4G 10+2/ND Hypermetropia: + 2.5D Uncorrected VA 6/36 CP II
1 A Entry to Sph Myopia: -2.5D Sph & 6/36 for
Ground Astigmatism: +/- 2.0D Best Corrected VA AE(L)/
duty Cyl 6/6 & 6/6 Adm
branches
of IAF CP III
(AE(L), only for
Adm, Lgs) Lgs

Note 1: Ocular muscle balance for personnel covered in Sl. Nos. 1 and 2
should conform to Appendix D to this Chapter.
Note 2: Visual standards of Air Wing Candidates at NDA and Flt Cdts of
F (P) at AFA should conform to A1G1 F (P) standard (S1. No. 1 of
Appendix B)
Note 3: The Sph correction factors mentioned above will be inclusive of
the specified astigmatic correction factor. A minimum correction factor
upto the specified visual acuity standard can be accepted

Appendix
‘C’
(para 3 above of
Ophthalmology
standards)
VISUAL STANDARDS FOR FEMALE CANDIDATES AT INITIAL ENTRY

Sl Branch Maximum Limits of Visual Acuity (VA) with Colour

No. Refractive Error limits of maximum Vision
correction
1 Flying Hypermetropia: + 1.5D 6/6 in one eye and 6/9 in CP-I
Branch Sph Manifest Myopia: Nil other, correctable to 6/6
Astigmatism: +0.75D Cyl only for Hypermetropia
(within +1.5 D Max)
Retinoscopic myopia: Nil
98
2. Ground Hypermetropia: + 2.5D Uncorrected VA 6/36 & CP II for
Duty Sph Myopia: -2.5D Sph 6/36 AE(L)/
Branch Astigmatism: +/- 2.0D Best Corrected VA 6/6 & Adm
Cyl 6/6
CP III
only for
Lgs

99
 Appendix ‘D’

(para 8 above of
Ophthalmology
standards)

STANDARD OF OCULAR MUSCLE BALANCE FOR FLYING DUTIES

FOR MALE CANDIDATES

Sl. Test Fit Temporary Unfit Permanently Unfit

No.
1 Maddox Rod Exo-6 Prism D Exo- Greater than 6 prism Uniocular suppression
Test at 6 Eso -6 Prism D Eso- Greater than 6 Hyper/ Hypo more
meters D Hyper-1 prism D Hyper- Greater than 2 prism D
prism D Hypo- than 1 prism D Hypo-
1 prism D Greater than 1 prism D
2 Maddox Rod Exo-16 Prism Exo - Greater than 16 Uniocular suppression
Test at 33 D Eso- 6 prism D Eso - Greater than Hyper/ Hypo more
cm Prism D 6 prism D Hyper Greater than 2 prism D
Hyper- 1 than 1 prism D Hypo
Prism D Hypo- Greater than 1 prism D
1 Prism D
3 Hand held All of BSV Poor Fusional reserves Absence of SMP,
Stereoscope grades fusion Stereopsis
4 Convergence Up to 10 cm Up to 15 cm with effort Greater than 15 cm
with effort

5 Cover test Latent Compensated Compensated

for Distance divergence / heterophoria/ trophia heterophoria
and Near convergence likely to improve with
recovery rapid treatment / persisting even
and complete after treatment

Appendix ‘E’

(para 8 above of
Ophthalmology
standards)
STANDARD OF OCULAR MUSCLE BALANCE FOR FLYING DUTIES
FOR FEMALE CANDIDATES
Sl. Test Fit Temporary Unfit Permanently Unfit
No.
1 Maddox Rod Exo-6 Prism D Exo- Greater than 6 prism Uniocular suppression
Test at 6 Eso -6 Prism D Eso- Greater than 6 Hyper/ Hypo more
meters D Hyper-1 prism D Hyper- Greater than 2 prism D
prism D Hypo- than 1 prism D Hypo-
1 prism D Greater than 1 prism D
2 Maddox Rod Exo-16 Prism Exo - Greater than 16 Uniocular suppression
Test at 33 D Eso- 6 prism D Eso - Greater than Hyper/ Hypo more
cm Prism D 6 prism D Hyper Greater than 2 prism D
Hyper- 1 than 1 prism D Hypo
Prism D Hypo- Greater than 1 prism D
100
 1 Prism D
3 Hand held All of BSV Poor Fusional reserves Absence of SMP,
Stereoscope grades fusion Stereopsis
4 Convergence Up to 10 cm Up to 15 cm with effort Greater than 15 cm
with effort

5 Cover test Latent Compensated Compensated

for Distance divergence / heterophoria/ trophia heterophoria
and Near convergence likely to improve with
recovery rapid treatment / persisting even
and complete after treatment

101
HAEMOPOIETIC SYSTEM

1. History of easy fatiguability, general weakness, petechiae/

ecchymosis, bleeding from gums and alimentary tract, persistent
bleeding after minor trauma and menorrhagia in case of females should
be carefully elicited. All candidates should be examined for clinical
evidence of pallor (anaemia), malnutrition, icterus, peripheral
lymphadenopathy, purpura, petechiae/ ecchymoses and
hepatosplenomegaly.

2. In the event of laboratory confirmation of anaemia (<13g/dl in

males and <11.5g/dl in females), further evaluation to ascertain type of
anaemia and aetiology has to be carried out. This should include a
complete haemogram (to include the PCV MCV, MCH, MCHC, TRBC,
TWBC, DLC, Platelet count, reticulocyte count and ESR) and a
peripheral blood smear. All the other tests to establish the aetiology will
be carried out, as required. Ultrasonography of abdomen for gallstones,
upper GI Endoscopy/ proctoscopy and hemoglobin electrophoresis etc.
may be done, as indicated, and the fitness of the candidate, decided on
the merit of each case.

3. Candidates with mild microcytic hypochromic (Iron deficiency

anaemia) or dimorphic anaemia (Hb < 10.5g/dl in females and <
11.5g/dl in males), in the first instance, may be made temporarily unfit
for a period of 04 to 06 weeks followed by review thereafter. These
candidates can be accepted, if the complete haemogram and PCV,
peripheral smear results are within the normal range. Candidates with
macrocytic/ megaloblastic anaemia will be assessed unfit.

4. All candidates with evidence of hereditary haemolytic anaemias

(due to red cell membrane defect or due to red cell enzyme deficiencies)
and haemoglobinopathies (Sickle cell disease, Beta Thalassaemia: Major,
Intermedia, Minor, Trait and Alpha Thalassaemia etc.) are to be
considered unfit for service.

5. In the presence of history of haemorrhage into the skin like

ecchymosis/ petechiae, epistaxis, bleeding from gums and alimentary
tract, persistent bleeding after minor trauma or lacerations/ tooth
extraction or menorrhagia in females and any family history of
haemophilia or other bleeding disorders a full evaluation will be carried
out. These cases will not be acceptable for entry to service. All
candidates with clinical evidence of purpura or evidence of
thrombocytopenia are to be considered unfit for service. Cases of
Purpura Simplex (simple easy bruising), a benign disorder seen in
otherwise healthy female, may be accepted.

6. Candidates with history of haemophilia, von Willebrand‘s disease,

on evaluation, are to be declared unfit for service at entry level.

DENTAL FITNESS STANDARDS

1. The examiner should enquire whether the candidate has any past
history of major dental procedures or alterations. Significant past history
102
of ulceration or infection of the tongue, gums or throat should be
documented. History suggestive of premalignant lesions or pathologies
that are prone for recurrence should be elicted.

2. Dental Standards. The following dental standards are to be

followed and candidates whose dental standard does not conform to the
laid down standards will be rejected:-

(a) Candidate must have a minimum of 14 dental points and

the following teeth must be present in the upper jaw in good
functional opposition with the corresponding teeth in the lower jaw:-

(i) Any four of the six anterior

(ii) Any six of the ten posterior

(b) Each incisor, canine 1st and 2nd premolar will have a value of
one point provided their corresponding opposite teeth are present.

(c) Each 1st and 2nd molar and well developed 3rd molar will
have the value of two points, provided in good opposition to
corresponding teeth in the opposing jaw.

(d) In case 3rd molar is not well developed, it will have a value of
one point only.

(e) When all the 16 teeth are present in the upper jaw and in
good functional opposition to corresponding teeth in the lower jaw, the
total value will be 20 or 22 points according to whether the 3 rd molars
are well developed or not.

(f) All removable dental prosthesis will be removed during oral

examination and not be awarded any dental points except in the
case of ex-serviceman applying for re-enrolment, who will be awarded
dental points for well fitting removable prostheses.

3. Extra oral examination

(a) Gross facial examination. Presence of any gross asymmetry

or soft/ hard tissue defects/ scars or if any incipient pathological
condition of the jaw is suspected, it will be a cause of rejection.

(b) Functional examination

(i) Temporomandibular joint (TMJ). TMJs will be

bilaterally palpated for tenderness and/or clicking.
Candidates with symptomatic clicking and/or
tenderness or dislocation of the TML on wide opening
will be rejected.

(ii) Mouth Opening. A mouth opening of less than 30 mm

measured at the incisal edges will be reason for rejection.

4. Guidelines for awarding dental points in special situations

103
 (a) Dental caries. Teeth with caries that have not been restored
or teeth associated broken down crowns, pulp exposure, residual
root stumps, teeth with abscesses and/or sinuses will not be counted
for award of dental points.

(b) Restorations. Teeth having restorations that appear to be

improper/broken/discolored will not be awarded dental points.
Teeth restored by use of inappropriate materials, temporary or
fractured restorations with doubtful marginal integrity or peri-
apical pathology will not be awarded dental points.

(c) Loose teeth. Loose/mobile teeth with clinically

demonstrable mobility will not be awarded dental points.
Periodontally splinted teeth will not be counted for award of dental
points.

(d) Retained deciduous teeth. Retained deciduous teeth will

not be awarded dental points.

(e) Morphological defects. Teeth with structural defects which

compromise efficient mastication will not be awarded dental points.

(f) Periodontium

(i) The condition of the gums, of the teeth included for

counting dental points, should be healthy, i.e. pink
in colour, firm in consistency and firm in consistency
and firmly resting against the necks of the teeth.
Visible calculus should not be present.

(ii) Individual teeth with swollen, red or infected gums or

those with visible calculus will not be awarded dental points.

(iii) Candidates with generalized calculus, extensive

swollen and red gums, with or without exudates,
shall be rejected.

(g) Malocclusion. Candidates with malocclusion affecting

masticatory efficiency and phonetics shall not be recruited. Teeth
in open bite will not be awarded dental points as they are not
considered to be in functional apposition. Candidates having an
open bite, reverse overjet or any visible malocclusion will be
rejected. However, if in the opinion of the dental officer, the
malocclusion of teeth is not hampering efficient mastication,
phonetics, maintenance of oral hygiene or general nutrition or
performance of duties efficiently, then candidates will be declared
FIT. The following criteria have to be considered in assessing
malocclusion:

(i) Edge to edge bite. Edge to edge bite will be considered

as functional apposition.

(ii) Anterior Open Bite. Anterior open bite is to be taken

as lack of functional opposition of involved teeth.

104
 (iii) Cross bite. Teeth in cross bite may still be in
functional occlusion and may be awarded points, if
so.

(iv) Traumatic bite. Anterior teeth involved in a deep

impinging bite which is causing traumatic
indentations on the palate will not be counted for
award of points.

(h) Hard and Soft tissues. Soft tissues of cheek, lips, palate,
tongue and sublingual region and maxilla/mandibular bony
apparatus must be examined for any swelling, discoloration,
ulcers, scars, white patches, sub mucous fibrosis etc. All
potentially malignant lesions will be cause for rejection. Clinical
diagnosis for sub mucous fibrosis with or without restriction of
mouth opening will be a cause of rejection. Bony lesion(s) will be
assessed for their pathological/physiological nature and
commented upon accordingly. Any hard or soft tissue lesion will be
a cause of rejection.

(j) Orthotic appliances. Fixed orthodontics lingual retainers

will not be considered as periodontal splints and teeth included in
these retainers will be awarded points for dental fitness.
Candidates wearing fixed or removable orthodontic appliances will
be declared UNFIT.

(k) Dental implants. When an implant supported crown

replaces a single missing tooth, the prosthesis may be awarded
dental points as for natural teeth provided the prosthesis is in
functional apposition and the integrity of the implant is confirmed.

(l) Fixed Partial Dentures (FPD) / Implant supported FPDs.

FPDs will be assessed clinically and radiologically for firmness,
functional apposition to opposing teeth and periodontal health of
the abutments. If all parameters are found satisfactory, dental
points will be awarded as follows:-

(i) Tooth supported FPDs

(aa) Prosthesis, 3 units. Dental points will be

awarded for the abutments and the pontic.

(ab) Prosthesis, more than 3 units. Dental points will

be awarded only to the abutments. No points
will be awarded for the pontics.

(ac) Cantilever FDPs. Dental points will be awarded

only to the abutments.

(ii) Implant supported FPDs

(aa) Prosthesis, 3 units. Dental points will be

awarded for the natural teeth, implant and the
pontic.

105
 (ab) Prosthesis, more than 3 units. Dental points will
be awarded only to the natural teeth. No points
are to be awarded for pontics and implant(s).

(ac) Two unit cantilever FPDs. Dental points will be

awarded only to the implants.

(m) A maximum of 02 implants will be permitted in a candidate.

No points will be given for implants/implant supported prosthesis
in excess of the 02 permissible implants. In the case of a candidate
having 03 more implants/implant supported prosthesis, which 02
are to be awarded marks will be based on the clinical judgment of
the dental officer.

5. The following will be criteria for declaring a candidate UNFIT

(a) Oral hygiene. Poor oral health status in the form of gross
visible calculus, periodontal pockets and/or bleeding from gums
will render candidate UNFIT.

(b) Candidates reporting post maxillo-facial surgery/

maxillofacial trauma. Candidates who undergo cosmetic or post-
traumatic maxillofacial surgery/ trauma will be UNFIT for at least
24 weeks from the date of surgery/ injury whichever is later. After
this period, if there is no residual deformity or functional deficit,
they will be assessed as per the laid down criteria.

(c) Candidate with dental arches affected by advanced stage of

generalized active lesions of pyorrhoea, acute ulcerative gingivitis,
and gross abnormality of the teeth or jaws or with numerous
caries or septic teeth will be rejected.

106
 APPENDIX-V

(BRIEF PARTICULARS OF THE SERVICE ETC.)

1. Before a candidate joins the Academy, the parent or

guardian will be required to sign :—

(a) A certificate to the effect that he fully understands that

he/she or his/her son or ward shall not be entitled to claim
any compensation or other relief from the Government in
respect of any injury which his son or ward may sustain in
the course of or as a result of the training or where bodily
infirmity or death results in the course of or as a result of a
surgical operation performed upon or anaesthesia
administered to him/her for the treatment of any injury
received as aforesaid or otherwise.

(b) A bond to the effect that if, on account of his dismissal

or discharge or withdrawal from National Defence Academy
for knowingly furnishing false particulars or suppressing
material information in his application for admission to the
said National Defence Academy or in the event of his being
dismissed or discharged or withdrawn on disciplinary
grounds from the said, National Defence Academy or for any
reason not beyond the control of the cadet, he/she does not
complete the prescribed period of training, or he, the cadet,
does not accept a Commission if offered as conventated
above, then the Guarantors and the cadet shall jointly and
severally be liable to pay forthwith to Government in cash
sums as the Government shall fix but not exceeding such
expenses as shall have been incurred by the Government on
account of the Cadet on his training and all the money
received by the Cadets as pay and allowance from the
Government together with interest on the said money
calculated at the rate in force for Government loans.

2. The cost of training including accommodation, books,

uniforms, boarding and medical treatment will be borne by the
Government. Parents or guardians of cadets, will, however, be
required to meet their pocket and other private expenses.
Normally these expenses are not likely to exceed Rs. 3000.00 p.m.
If in any case a cadet’s parents or guardian is unable to meet
wholly or partly even this expenditure financial assistance of Rs.
1000.00 p.m. for the period of training may be granted by the
Government whose parents income is less than Rs. 21,000/- per
month. Cadet whose parent’s or guardian’s income exceeds Rs.
21,000/- per month will not be liable for the assistance. If more
than one son/ward simultaneously undergoing training at NDA,
IMA, OTA and corresponding training establishment in the Navy
and Air Force, then BOTH would be eligible for the financial
assistance.

107
 The parent/guardian of a candidate desirous of having
financial assistance from the Government should immediately after
his son/ward having been finally selected for training at the
National Defence Academy submit an application through the
District Magistrate of his District who will forward the application
with his recommendation to the Commandant, National Defence
Academy, Khadakwasla, Pune-411023.

3. Candidates finally selected for training at the Academy will

be required to deposit the following amount with the
Commandant, National Defence Academy, on their arrival there :—

(a) Pocket allowance for five months Rs. 15000.00

@ Rs. 3000.00 per month.
(b) For items of clothing and equipment
(Cost of clothing and equipment for
candidates will be intimated subsequently
at the time of Joining Instructions)
(c) Army Group Insurance Fund Rs. 7200.00

(d) Clothing items required at the time of

joining (Cost of clothing and equipment for
candidates will be intimated subsequently
at the time of Joining Instructions)
(e) Incidental Expenditure during 1st Semester Rs.13176.00

Total (less Ser (b) & (d) to be added later) Rs. 35376.00

Out of the amount mentioned above the following amount

is refundable to the candidates in the event of financial aid being
sanctioned to them:—

(a) Pocket allowance for five months @ Rs. Rs. 2000.00

400.00 per month (Corresponding to
Govt. Financial
Assistance)

(b) For items of clothing and equipment

approximately (to be intimated later)

4. The following Scholarships/Financial Assistance are tenable

at the National Defence Academy.
(1) PARASHURAM BHAU PATWARDHAN SCHOLARSHIP—
This Scholarship is granted to cadets overall first in
Academics of Passing out Course. One time scholarship
amount is Rs. 5000/-.

(2) COLONEL KENDAL FRANK MEMORIAL

SCHOLARSHIP—This scholarship is of the value of Rs.
4800.00 per annum and awarded to a MARATHA cadet who
should be the son of an ex-serviceman. The scholarship is in
addition to any financial assistance from the Government.

108
(3) KAUR SINGH MEMORIAL SCHOLARSHIP— Two
scholarships are awarded to cadets who obtain the highest
position amongst candidates from BIHAR. The value of each
scholarship is Rs. 37.00 per mensem tenable for a maximum
period of 4 years during the training at the National Defence
Academy, Khadakwasla and thereafter at the Indian Military
Academy, Dehra Dun and the Air Force Flying College; and
Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala where the cadets may be
sent for training on completion of their training at the
National Defence Academy. The scholarship will, however, be
continued subject to maintaining good progress at the above
institution.

(4) ASSAM GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIP—Two

scholarships will be awarded to the cadets from ASSAM. The
value of each scholarship is Rs. 30.00 per mensem and is
tenable for the duration of a cadet’s stay at the National
Defence Academy. The scholarships will be awarded to the
two best cadets from ASSAM without any reference to the
income of their parents. The cadets who are granted this
scholarship will not be entitled to any other financial
assistance from the Government.

(5) UTTAR PRADESH GOVERNMENT INCENTIVE

SCHEME—Uttar Pradesh Sainik Punarvas Nidhi a Trust
under Hon’ble Governor of Uttar Pradesh has started a
incentive scheme for cadets joining NDA/IMA/OTA/AF
Academy/Naval Academy/Female Entry who are wards of
ex servicemen/widows upto JCO rank and are domicile of
State of Uttar Pradesh in which there is a provision of grant
of Rs 50,000/- for each cadet selected as a special incentive.

(6) KERALA GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIPS— All

male/female cadets irrespective of gender and without any
pre conditions to all Kerala state cadets who are admitted to
OTA, NDA, IMA, Naval Academy, Air force Academy, Armed
Forces Medical College, RIMC Schools, as a consolation
shall be granted Rs 2,00,000/- only and those who get
admission to Military, Naval and Airforce Nursing Schools
shall be granted as a consolation Rs 1,00,000/-.

(7) BIHARI LAL MANDAKINI PRIZE—This is cash prize of

Rs. 500.00 available for the best BENGALI boy in each
Course of the Academy. Application Forms are available with
the Commandant, National Defence Academy.

(8) ORISSA GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIPS—These

scholarships, one for the Army, one for the Navy and the
other for the Air Force of the value of Rs. 80.00 each per
month will be awarded by the Government of Orissa to the
cadets who are permanent residents of the State of ORISSA.
Two of these scholarships will be awarded on the basis of
merit-cum-means of the cadets whose parent’s or guardian’s
income does not exceed Rs. 5,000/- per annum and the

109
 other one will be given to the best cadet irrespective of his
parent’s or guardian’s income.

S.N State Amount Eligibility

o Government
(9) West Bengal Low Middle (i) The cadet must be
*Income Initial High Indian Citizen and
Lump sum grant 5000/- 3750/ the cadet and/or his
Scholarship per 2500/- of/or permanently
domiciled in the State
semester 1800/- 1350/- of West Bengal.
900/- (ii) The Cadet is not in
Table Income group receipt of any other
Low - up to Rs. 9000/- financial
pm assistance/grant
Middle - Rs. 9001/- to Rs. from the Govt. of
18000/-pm India and/or the
High - Above 18000/-pm State Government or
any other authority
excepting scholarship
or stipend received on
merit.
(10) Goa Rs. 1000/- per month during (i) The income limit of
the period of training (subject to the cadet's
a maximum of 24 months or parent/guardian
duration of the course whichever is shall not exceed Rs.
15,000/- pm (Rs.
less) & one time outfit allowance of
1,80,000/- per
Rs. 12,000/- annum).
(ii) The income
limit of those
belonging
to SC/ST/OBC
should not exceed
Rs. 37,500/- per
month (Rs.
4,50,000/- per
annum).
(iii) He should not be
receiving financial
assistance/ freeship
from any other
source.
(11) Nagaland Rs. 1,00,000/- onetime Should be domicile of
payment Nagaland State.
(12) Manipur Rs. 1,00,000/- onetime Should be domicile of
payment Manipur State.
(13) Arunacha Scholarship Should be domicile of
l Rs.1,000/- pm One time Arunachal Pradesh
Pradesh outfit Allowance Rs. State.
12,000/-
(14) Gujarat Scholarship Rs. To the ward of
6,000/- per annum Serving/Ex-
servicemen (incl
Ex/Serving Officer) of
Native/

110
 Domicile of Gujarat.
(15) Uttarakhand
(a) Pocket Money Rs. 250/- pm for NDA Cadets of
Uttarakhand domicile is paid to father/guardian of
cadets (Ex-Servicemen/Widow, through respective
Zilla Sainik Kalyan Officers.)
(b) Cash Award of Rs. 50,000/- for NDA Cadets of
Uttarakhand domicile is paid to father/guardian of
cadets through Directorate of Higher Education,
Haldwani.
(16) Punjab Rs. 1,00,000/-(one Should be domicile of
time payment) Punjab State.
(17) State Rs.1.5 lakhs for all Award for successful
Govt. Offrs entry schemes candidates of Sikkim for
Sikkim all Officer’sentry schemes.

(18) Fg Officer Anuj Nanchal Memorial Scholarship. Rs. 1500/-

(One time payment) – Second best all round Air Force cadet
of VI term
(19) Pilot Officer Gurmeet Singh Bedi Memorial Scholarship.
Pilot Officer Gurmeet Singh Bedi Memorial Scholarship. Rs.
1500/- (One time payment). Best all round Air Force cadet
at the time of Passing Out of VI term.

(20) HIMACHAL PRADESH GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIP—

Four scholarships will be awarded to cadets from HIMACHAL
PRADESH. The value of each scholarship is Rs. 30.00 per month
during the first two years of training and Rs. 48.00 per month
during the third year of training. These scholarships will be
available to those cadets whose parent’s income is below Rs.
500.00 per month. No cadet in receipt of financial assistance from
the Government will be eligible for this scholarship.

(21) TAMIL NADU GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIP—The

Government of Tamil Nadu has instituted at NDA one scholarship
per course of the value of Rs. 30/- per month plus an outfit
allowance of Rs. 400/- (one only during the entire period of
cadet’s training) to be awarded to a cadet belonging to the State of
TAMIL NADU whose parent’s/guardian’s monthly income does
not exceed Rs. 500/-. The application by an eligible cadet can be
made to the Commandant, National Defence Academy on their
arrival.

In addition to the existing Scholarships, Directorate of Ex-

Servicemen Welfare, Chennai under Tamil Nadu Government has
sanctioned a onetime grant of Rs.1,00,000/- (Rupees One Lakh
Only) to the eligible children of Ex-Servicemen who join
NDA/IMA/Naval or Air Force Academy as Permanent
Commissioned Officers.

111
(22) KARNATAKA GOVERNMENT SCHOLARSHIPS—The Govt. of
Karnataka has awarded scholarships to cadets from Karnataka
State who join the National Defence Academy. The value of the
scholarship shall be Rs.1,500/- (Rupees One Thousand Five
Hundred only) per month and outfit allowance in first term
Rs.18,000/- per annum.

(23) ALBERT EKKA SCHOLARSHIP—The Government of Bihar

has instituted at NDA 25 Merit Scholarships at Rs. 50/- per month
for entire period of six terms at the NDA and Rs. 650/- one time
towards clothing and equipment. The cadet awarded the above
merit scholarship would not be eligible for any other scholarship or
financial assistance from the Government. The application by an
eligible cadet can be made to the Commandant, National Defence
Academy on their arrival.

(24) FG OFFICER DV PINTOO MEMORIAL SCHOLARSHIP—Gp

Capt. M Vashishta has instituted 3 scholarships of Rs. 125/- each
per month at NDA for one term to be awarded to the first three
cadets in the order of merit on completion of their first semester till
end of second term. The cadets in receipt of Govt. Financial
Assistance will not be eligible for the above scholarships. The
application for eligible cadets can be made to the Commandant,
NDA on arrival.

(25) FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE TO WARDS OF EX-

SERVICEMEN—MAHARASHTRA STATE

The wards of Maharashtrian ex-service officers/men who

are undergoing training as cadets at NDA will be given Rs.
50,000/- as one time incentive.

The parents/guardians of the wards should submit their

applications to their respective Zilla Sainik Welfare Office along
with the certificates obtained from the Academy. Terms and
conditions governing these scholarships are obtainable from the
Commandant, National Defence Academy, Khadakwasla, Pune –
411 023.

(26) AWARD OF FINANCIAL ASSISTANCE TO CANDIDATES OF

HARYANA DOMICILE UNDER TRAINING AT NDA.

The Haryana State Govt. has declared a cash award of Rs.

1,00,000/- (Rupees one lakh) to every individual who successfully
completes the training at NDA/IMA/OTA and other Defence
Academies of National Status and domicile of State of Haryana.

(27) INCENTIVE GRANT TO CADETS DOMICILE OF UT,

CHANDIGARH UNDER TRAINING AT NDA.

Chandigarh Administration has introduced the scheme for

grant of one time incentive of Rs. 1,00,000/- (Rupees one lakh) to
the cadets who are resident of UT, Chandigarh and joined NDA.
112
(28) SCHOLARSHIP/GRANT FOR NCT DELHI.

The cadets undergoing training at NDA and who are

bonafide residents of NCT Delhi will get a monthly grant of Rs
2000/-. A bonafide resident would means those cadets whose
permanent home address recorded in the documents at the time of
joining NDA is that of National Capital Territory of Delhi ( and does
not include NCR). This would be needed to be supported with a
copy of the residence proof (Aadhaar Card, Voter Identity Card,
Service Records of their parent etc.)

5. Immediately after the selected candidates join the Academy, a

preliminary examination will be held in the following subjects:

(a) English;
(b) Mathematics;
(c) Science;
(d) Hindi.

The standard of the examination in the subjects at (a), (b) and (c)
will not be higher than that of the Higher Secondary Examination
of an Indian University or Board of Higher Secondary Education.
The paper in the subject at (d) is intended to test the standard
attained by the candidate in Hindi at the time of joining the
Academy.

Candidates are, therefore, advised not to neglect their

studies after the competitive examination.

TRAINING

6. The selected candidates for the three services viz, Army,

Navy and Air Force are given preliminary training both academic
and physical for a period of 3 years at the National Defence
Academy which is an Inter-Service Institution. The training during
the first two and half years is common to the cadets of three wings.
All the cadets on passing out will be awarded degrees from
Jawaharlal Nehru University Delhi as under:-

(a) Army Cadets - B.Sc/ B.Sc (Computer)/ B.A

(b) Naval Cadets - B. Tech Degree*
(c) Air Force Cadets - B. Tech Degree* /B.Sc/B.Sc
(Computer)

Note* : All the cadets undergoing B.Sc/B.SC(Computer)/BA Degree

programme shall be awarded the degree on the successful
completion of Academics, Physical and Service Training at NDA.
All the cadets undergoing B Tech programme shall be awarded the
B.Tech degree on the subsequent Pre Commissioning Training
Academies/ Institutions/ Ships/ Air Craft.

113
 The selected candidates of the Naval Academy will be given
preliminary training both academic and physical, for a period of 04
years at Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala. The cadets of 10+2
Cadet Entry Scheme will be awarded a
B. Tech Degree on successful completion of training.

7. On passing out from the National Defence Academy, Army

Cadets go to the Indian Military Academy, Dehra Dun, Naval
Cadets to Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala and Air Force cadets
and Ground Duty-Non Tech streams to Air Force Academy,
Hyderabad and Air Force cadets of Ground Duty–Tech stream to
Air Force Technical College, Bengaluru.

8. At the I.M.A, Army Cadets are known as Gentlemen/Lady

Cadets and are given strenuous military training for a period of
one year aimed at turning them into officer capable of leading
infantry Sub-units. On successful completion of training
Gentlemen/Lady Cadets are granted Permanent Commission in
the rank of Lt subject to being medically fit in "SHAPE" one.

9. (a) The Naval cadets are selected for the Executive Branch
of the Navy, on passing out from the National Defence
Academy and are given further training at Indian Naval
Academy, Ezhimala for a period of one year on successful
completion of which they are promoted to the rank of Sub
Lieutenants. The lady cadets would be eligible for induction
into Naval Armament Inspectorate, Logistics and Education
specialization.

(b) Selected candidates for the Naval Academy under

(10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme) will be inducted as Cadets
for four year B.Tech course in Applied Electronics &
Communication Engineering (for Executive Branch),
Mechanical Engineering (for Engineering Branch including
Naval Architect specialization) or Electronics &
Communication Engineering (for Electrical Branch) as per
Naval requirements. On completion of the course, B. Tech
Degree will be awarded by Jawaharlal Nehru
University (JNU).

10. (a) Air Force Flying Branch Cadets receive flying training
for a period of one and a half years. On successful
completion of one year of basic flying training (Pilots), they
are granted Permanent Commission (on probation) in the
rank of Flying Officer, for a period of six months. Permanent
Commission is then confirmed in respect of those officers
who successfully complete the flying training conversion
course for pilots lasting for a period of approximately six
months. .

(b) Air Force Ground Duties Branch Cadets are granted

Permanent Commission (on probation) in the rank of Flying
114
 Officer, for six months on successful completion of training
at AFA. On successful completion of the probationary period
of approximately six months, the Permanent Commission is
then confirmed.

TERMS AND CONDITIONS OF SERVICES

11. Army Officers and equivalent ranks in Air Force and

Navy

(a) Fixed Stipend for Cadet Training:-

Stipend to male/female Cadets during the Rs 56,100/-p.m.*

entire duration of training in Service (Starting pay in
academies i.e. during training period at Level 10)
IMA.

*On successful commissioning, the pay in the Pay matrix of

the Officer commissioned shall be fixed in first Cell of Level
10 and the period of training shall not be treated as
commissioned service and arrears on account of admissible
allowances, as applicable, for the training period shall be
paid to cadets.

(b) Pay

(i) Rank Pay Level (in Rs.)

Lt to Maj Lt - Level 10 (56,100 – 1,77,500)/-
Capt - Level 10 B (61,300-
1,93,900)/-
Maj - Level 11 (69,400 –
2,07,200)/-
Lt Col to Maj Gen Lt Col - Level 12A (1,21,200 –
2,12,400)/-
Col - Level 13 (1,30,600 –
2,15,900)/-
Brig - Level 13A (1,39,600 –
2,17,600)/-
Maj Gen - Level 14 (1,44,200 –
2,18,200)/-
Lt Gen (HAG Scale) Level 15 (1,82,200 – 2,24,100)/-
Lt Gen (HAG+Scale) Level 16 (2,05,400 – 2,24,400)/-
VCOAS/Army Cdr/ Level 17 (2,25,000/-) (fixed)
Lt Gen (NFSG)
COAS Level 18 (2,50,000/-) (fixed)

(ii) MSP to the officer is as follows:-

Military Service Pay(MSP) to the Rs 15,500 p.m.

officers from the rank of Lt to Brig fixed

115
 (iii) Flying Allowance: The Army Aviators (Pilots) serving
in the Army Aviation Corps are entitled to flying allowance at
Rs 25,000/- p.m.

(iv) Other allowance:-

Dearness Admissible at the same rates and un der the

Allowance same conditions as are applicable to the
civilian personnel from time to time.
Para Allce Rs 10,500/- pm
Para Reserve Rs 2,625/- pm
Allce
Para Jump Rs 10,500/- pm
Instructor
Allce
Project Allce Rs 3,400/- pm
Special Rs 25,000/- pm
Forces Allce
Technical Rs 3,000/- pm
Allce (Tier-I)
Technical Rs 4,500/- pm
Allce (Tier-II)

(v) Depending upon rank and area of posting, officer posted

to Field Areas will be eligible for the following Field Area
allowances:-

Level Highly Active Field Area Modified

Field Area Allce Field Area
Allce Allce
Officers Rs 16,900/- Rs 10,500/- Rs 6,300/-
pm pm pm

High Altitude Allowance

Level Category-I Category-II Category-III

Officers Rs 3,400/- Rs 5,300/- pm Rs 25,000/-
pm pm
Counter Insurgency Allowance

Level Counter Counter Counter

Insurgency Insurgency Insurgency
Allce in Peace Allce in Field Allce in
Area Area Modified Field
Area
Officers Rs 10,500/- pm Rs 16,900/- Rs 13,013/- pm
pm

(vi) Siachen Allowance Rs 42,500/- per month.

(vii) Uniform allowance. Rs 20,000/- per year.

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 (viii) Ration in Kind. In peace and Field areas

(ix) Transport Allowance (TPTA)

Pay Level Higher TPTA Cities Other Places

(Rs. Per month) (Rs. Per month)
Officers Rs. 7200+DA Rs. 3600+DA
thereon thereon

(x) Children Education Allowance. Rs. 2250/- per

month per child for two eldest surviving only. CEA is
admissible from Nursery to 12th Class.

(xi) Hostel Subsidy. Rs. 6,750/- per month per child for
two eldest surviving only. Hostel Subsidy is admissible from
Nursery to 12th Class.

(xii) The following monetary benefits are available to the

Cadets (Direct)/NoKs in the event of invalidment on medical
grounds/death of a Cadet (Direct) due to causes attributable
to or aggravated by military training:

(I) IN CASE OF DISABLEMENT

(i) Monthly Ex-gratia amount of Rs. 9,000/- per

month.

(ii) Ex-gratia disability award @ Rs. 16200/- per

month shall be payable in addition for 100% of
disability during period of disablement subject to
prorata reduction in case the degree of disablement is
less than 100%. No disability award shall be payable
in cases where the degree of disablement is less than
20%.

(iii) Constant Attendant Allowance (CAA) @ Rs

6750/- per month for 100% disabled on the
recommendation of Invaliding Medical Board (IBM).

(II) IN CASE OF DEATH

(i) Ex-gratia amount of Rs. 12.5 lakhs to the NoK.

(ii) Monthly Ex-gratia amount of Rs. 9000/- per

month to the NoK.

Note: 1. The Ex-gratia awards to Cadets (Direct) /

NoK, shall be sanctioned purely on ex-gratia
basis and the same shall not be treated as
pension for any purpose.

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 2. Dearness Relief at applicable rates shall
be granted on monthly ex-gratia as well as ex-
gratia disability award.

12. (a) Army Group Insurance Fund provides insurance cover

of Rs.15 lakh on payment of one time non-refundable premium of
Rs. 7,200/- (subject to revision from time to time) by cadets from
the date of joining for pre-commission training i.e. for 3 years. If a
cadet is relegated an additional premium of Rs. 1,355/- (subject
to revision from time to time) per relegated term will be paid. For
those who are invalidated out by IMB on account of disability and
not entitled to any pension will be provided Rs.15 lakhs for 100
per cent disability. This will be proportionately reduced to Rs 3
lakhs for 20 per cent. However, for less than 20 percent
disability, only an Ex-Gratia Grant of Rs. 50,000/- for first two
years of training and Rs. 1 lakh during the third year of training
will be paid. Disability due to alcoholism, drug addiction and due
to the diseases of pre-enrolment origin will not qualify for disability
benefit and Ex-Gratia Grant. In addition, cadets withdrawn on
disciplinary grounds, expelled as undesirable or leaving the
Academy voluntarily will also not be eligible for disability benefits
and Ex-Gratia. There is no saving component under the scheme.

(b) The Lady/Gentlemen Cadets during pre commission

trg when in receipt of stipend are insured for Rs. One Cr (wef 01
Apr 2022) as applicable to officers of the regular Army. For those
who are invalidated out by Invalidated Medical Board (IMB) on
account of disability and not entitled to any pension will be
provided one time lumsum amount of Rs 25 lakhs for 100 percent
disability. This will be proportionately reduced to Rs 5 lakhs for 20
percent disability. However, for less than 20 percent disability, an
ex-gratia grant of Rs. 50,000/- only will be paid. Disability due to
alcoholism, drug addiction and due to the diseases of pre-
enrolment origin will not qualify for disability benefit and Ex-
Gratia Grant. In addition, Lady/Gentleman Cadets withdrawn on
disciplinary grounds, expelled as an undesirable or leaving the
Academy voluntarily will not be eligible for disability benefits and
Ex-Gratia. Mandatory subscription at the rate of Rs. 10,000/- pm
(subject to revision from time to time) will have to be paid in
advance on monthly basis by the Lady/Gentlemen Cadets to
become members under the AGI Scheme as applicable to Regular
Army Officers. The subscription for the relegated period would
also be recovered at the same rate.

13. PROMOTIONAL AVENUES:

S.No Army Navy Air Force Minimum

. Reckonable
Commission
ed Service
required for
Substantive
Promotion
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 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
(a) Lieutenant Sub Flying Officer On
Lieutenant Commission
(b) Captain Lieutenant Flight 02 Years
Lieutenant
(c) Major Lt. Squadron 06 years
Commander Leader
(d) Lieutenant Commander Wing 13 years
Colonel Commander
(e) Colonel Captain Group Captain On Selection
(Selection) (Selection) (Selection)
(f) Colonel Captain Group Captain 26 years
(Time Scale) (Time Scale) (Time Scale)
(g) Brigadier Commodore Air Commodore On Selection
(h) Major General Rear Admiral Air Vice On Selection
Marshal
(i) Lieutenant Vice Admiral Air Marshal On Selection
General
(j) General Admiral Air Chief On Selection
Marshal

14. RETIREMENT BENEFITS

Pension, gratuity and casualty pensionary award will be

admissible in accordance with the rules in force from time to time.

15. LEAVE
Leave will be admissible in accordance with the rules in force from
time to time.

***

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