Cfas Millan 2020 Answer Key

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Pdfcoffee MILLAN ANSWER KEY Financial Accounting
Accountancy (PHINMA Saint Jude College)
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TEST BANK
Intermediate
Financial
Accounting
Part 1A
ZEUS VERNON B. MILLAN

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ALL RIGHTS RESERVED

2015
No part of this work covered by the

copyright hereon may be reproduced or
used in any form or by any means -
electronic or mechanical, including
photocopying – without the written
permission of the author.
ISBN 978-621-95096-0-2
Published by:
BANDOLIN ENTERPRISE
No. 100 Montebello Village, Bakakeng Sur, Baguio City 2600, Philippines

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TABLE OF CONTENTS
CHAPTER 1
OVERVIEW OF ACCOUNTING ................................................................. 1
CHAPTER 1: THEORY OF ACCOUNTS REVIEWER............................................... 1
CHAPTER 1 - SUGGESTED ANSWERS TO THEORY OF ACCOUNTS QUESTIONS ....... 27
CHAPTER 2
THE ACCOUNTING PROCESS ................................................................ 28
CHAPTER 2: MULTIPLE CHOICE – COMPUTATIONAL (SET B) – (FOR CLASSROOM INSTRUCTION PURPOSES)
................................................................................................................. 28
CHAPTER 2: THEORY OF ACCOUNTS REVIEWER............................................. 31
CHAPTER 3
THE CONCEPTUAL FRAMEWORK FOR FINANCIAL REPORTING ...... 46
................................................................................................................. 46
CHAPTER 3 - SUGGESTED ANSWERS TO REVIEW THEORY QUESTIONS ............... 71
CHAPTER 4
CASH & CASH EQUIVALENTS................................................................ 72
................................................................................................................. 72
CHAPTER 5
RECEIVABLES (PART 1) ........................................................................ 88
................................................................................................................. 88
CHAPTER 5 - SUGGESTED ANSWERS TO THEORY OF ACCOUNTS QUESTIONS ..... 100
CHAPTER 6
RECEIVABLES (PART 2) ...................................................................... 101
............................................................................................................... 101
CHAPTER 6: THEORY OF ACCOUNTS REVIEWER........................................... 105
CHAPTER 7
RECEIVABLES (PART 3) ...................................................................... 111
............................................................................................................... 111
CHAPTER 8
INVENTORIES ...................................................................................... 126
............................................................................................................... 126
iii

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CHAPTER 9
INVESTMENTS (PART 1) .................................................................... 150
............................................................................................................... 150
CHAPTER 10
............................................................................................................... 169
CHAPTER 10: THEORY OF ACCOUNTS REVIEWER ........................................ 175
CHAPTER 10 - SUGGESTED ANSWERS TO THEORY OF ACCOUNTS QUESTIONS ... 185
CHAPTER 11
............................................................................................................... 186
CHAPTER 11: THEORY OF ACCOUNTS REVIEWER ........................................ 187
CHAPTER 11 - SUGGESTED ANSWERS TO THEORY OF ACCOUNTS QUESTIONS ... 188
iv

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Chapter 1
Overview of Accounting
Chapter 1: Theory of Accounts Reviewer
Definition of Accounting
1. Accounting has been given various definitions, which of the following is not
one of those definitions
a. Accounting is a service activity. Its function is to provide quantitative
information, primarily financial in nature, about economic entities that is
intended to be useful in making economic decisions.
b. Accounting is the art of recording, classifying, and summarizing in a
significant manner and in terms of money, transactions and events which
are, in part of at least, of a financial character and interpreting the results
thereof.
c. Accounting is a systematic process of objectively obtaining and evaluating
evidence regarding assertions about economic actions and events to
ascertain the degree of correspondence between these assertions and
established criteria and communicating the results to interested users.
d. Accounting is the process of identifying, measuring, and communicating
economic information to permit informed judgment and decisions by
users of information.
2. It is the first process used in accounting. It refers to the identification of

events as to whether they are recognized or not in the financial statements.
a. Identifying b. Measuring c. Communicating d. Auditing
3. The following statements correctly refer to the accounting process.

I. Measuring is the accounting process of analyzing business activities as to
whether or not they will be recognized in the books.
II. Recognition refers to the process of including the effects of an event in the
totals of the statement of financial position or the statement of profit or
loss and other comprehensive income through memo entries.
III. Disclosure of events in the notes to financial statement without including
in the totals of the statement of financial position or statement of profit or
loss and other comprehensive income is not an application of the
recognition principle.
IV. An accountable event is an event that has an effect on the assets, liabilities
or equity of an entity and its effect can be measured reliably.
V. Sociological and psychological matters are within the scope of accounting.
a. I, II, III, IV, V b. I, II, III, IV c. IV d. III, IV
Types of Events
4. These events involve changes in the economic resources or obligations of
entities involving other entities but do not involve transfers of resources or
obligations
a. External events c. External events other than transfers
b. Non-reciprocal transfers d. Internal events
5. Events involving an entity and an external party.

6. Events in which an entity transfers (or receives) economic resources to

(from) another entity without directly receiving (or giving) value in exchange.

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7. These events result to a sudden or unanticipated loss from fortuitous events.

a. Internal events c. External events other than transfers
b. Non-reciprocal transfers d. Casualty
8. Which of the following statements is true?

I. Loss from theft should be classified as a nonreciprocal transfer
II. Internal events are changes in economic resources by actions of other
entities that do not involve transfers of enterprise resources and
obligations
III. Nonreciprocal transfers involve the transfer of resources in only one
direction, either from an entity to other entities or from other entities to
the entity.
IV. Internal events are sudden, substantial, unanticipated reductions in
enterprise resources not caused by other entities
V. Fire, earthquake and flood are examples of accountable events classified
as internal events.
a. I, II, III, V b. I, III, V c. II, III, IV, V d. I, III, IV, V
9. All of the following are events considered as exchange or reciprocal transfer,

except
a. purchase of investment in equity securities
b. sale of equipment for non-interest bearing note
c. subscription on the entity’s own equity instrument
d. exchange of a note payable for an account payable
e. borrowing of money from a bank
10. All of the following are events considered as nonreciprocal transfer, except
a. declaration of cash dividends c. payment of accounts payable
b. declaration of stock dividends d. imposition of fines
11. All of the following are events considered as external events other than
transfers, except
a. obsolescence c. imposition of fines
b. inflation d. vandalism
12. All of the following are events considered as internal events, except
a. Transfer of goods from work-in-process to finished goods inventory
b. flood, earthquake, fire and other “Acts of God”
c. transformation of biological assets from immature to mature
d. vandalism committed by the entity’s employees
13. Which of the following events is considered an internal event?

a. sale of inventory on account
b. provision of capital by owners
c. borrowing of money
d. conversion of raw materials into finished goods
14. Which of the following events is considered an external event?

a. production c. payment of taxes
b. casualty loss d. growth of biological assets
15. Which of the following events is considered an internal event?

a. theft c. vandalism

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b. contributions by owners d. degeneration of biological assets
16. Which of the following correctly relates to accountable events?

I. An obsolete asset which has no use was received in exchange of an
existing asset. This transaction may be classified as an exchange.
II. An entity exchanges a non-cash asset for another non-cash asset in an
exchange transaction with commercial substance. This is a reciprocal
transfer.
III. An entity issues its shares of stocks in exchange for a non-cash asset. This
is a reciprocal transfer.
a. I b. II c. II, III d. I, II, III
17. An example of income derived from a nonreciprocal transfer is

a. compensation received as damages in a successful lawsuit
b. appreciation of property
c. land acquired from a stockholder as donation
d. settlement of a liability at less than its book value
(RPCPA)
Measuring
18. Asset measurements in conventional financial statements
a. are confined to historical cost
b. are confined to historical cost and current cost
c. reflect several financial attributes
d. do not reflect output values
(RPCPA)
19. Financial statements are said to be a mixture of fact and opinion. Which of the
following items is factual?
a. cost of goods sold c. discount on capital stock
b. retained earnings d. patent amortization expense
(Adapted)
20. On December 31, 200A, Annod Co. decided to end its operations and dispose
its assets within three months. At December 31, 200A, the carrying amount of
an investment property was less than both its fair value and net realizable
value. The fair value is greater than the net realizable value. What is the
appropriate measurement basis for the investment property in Annod’s
December 31, 200A statement of financial position?
a. Historical cost c. Net realizable value
b. Fair value d. Current replacement cost
Communicating
21. These are the principal means through which an entity communicates its
financial information to those outside it.
a. managerial reports c. segment reports
b. financial statements d. directors’ statements
22. The analytical phase of accounting which significantly portrays the liquidity,
solvency, profitability of a business
a. interpreting c. summarizing
b. recording d. classification
(RPCPA)
Basic purpose
23. The basic purpose of accounting is

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a. to provide information useful in making economic decisions

b. to provide information useful only for investors
c. to provide information regarding the economic resources controlled by an
entity
d. to provide business owners, politicians, and other government officials an
opportunity to evade taxes
24. One objective of financial reporting is to provide information useful in

assessing the amounts, timing, and uncertainty of future cash flows. In
regards to this objective, which of the following is (are) correct?
I. The emphasis on “assessing cash flow prospects” means that the cash
basis is preferred over the accrual basis of accounting.
II. Information based on accrual accounting generally better indicates an
entity’s present and continuing ability to generate favorable cash flows
than does information limited to the financial effects of cash receipts and
payments.
a. I only b. II only c. I and II d. neither I nor II
25. The primary objective of financial reporting is to provide information:

a. About a firm's financing and investing activities
b. About a firm's economic resources and obligations
c. About a firm's products and services
d. Useful in predicting cash flows
(Adapted)
26. Financial accounting applies to which of the following:

a. Businesses c. Governments
b. Non-profit organizations d. All of these
(Adapted)
27. Stewardship reporting focuses on:

a. Showing investors what sales revenues were
b. Showing the financial statement reader just how the resources entrusted
to the management's care were managed
c. Showing employees how high their raises will be
d. Showing the financial statement reader how many shop stewards are
employed
(AICPA)
28. The function of measuring and reporting information to absentee investors is

called the:
a. Accounting function c. Auditing function
b. Stewardship function d. Management function
(AICPA)
29. The following relate to financial reporting. Choose the correct statement(s).
I. Since financial statements are historical, they are of little use in making
decisions about the future.
II. Financial accounting is based on the presumption that all statement users
need the same information.
III. Financial accounting is expressly designed to measure directly the value of
a business enterprise.
a. I, III b. II, III c. II only d. None
(RPCPA)
30. Financial reporting should provide all of the following information, except

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a. Information that is useful to present and potential investors and creditors

and other users in making rational investment, credit, and similar
decisions.
b. Information that helps present and potential investors, creditors, and
other users assess the amounts, timing, and uncertainty of prospective
cash receipts from dividends or interest and the proceeds from the sale,
redemption, or maturity of securities or loans.
c. Information that is comprehensible only to accountants and auditors who
have reasonable understanding of business and economic activities and
are willing to study the information with reasonable diligence.
d. Information that clearly portrays the economic resources of an enterprise,
the claims to those resources and the effects of transactions, events, and
circumstances that change its resources and claims to those resources.
31. Apart from the monetary impact, factors of decision making include:
a. personal taste c. environmental factors
b. social factors d. all of these
(Adapted)
32. For the purpose of decision making:

a. accounting information provides information about future events
b. accounting information provides information about the outcomes of past
decisions
c. the future is used as a guide to past estimates
d. the accountant never becomes involved in the budgeting process.
(Adapted)
Economic entities and activities

33. A business that operates to support a cause or interest is known as a
a. not-for-profit organization c. career goal
b. sports franchise d. private entity
34. The most common form of business organization is a

a. corporation c. sole proprietorship
b. partnership d. cell phone stand
(Adapted)
35. Which of the following statements are correct?

I. The economic activities of a business enterprise increase or decrease its
assets and liabilities but never its equity.
II. An internal event involves a transfer or exchange between two or more
entities.
III. Exchange is an economic activity which involves trading resources and
obligations for other resources or obligations.
IV. Income recognition is a basic economic activity which involves the process
of allocating rights to the use of outputs among individuals and groups in
society.
V. An event generally is the source or cause of changes in assets, liabilities,
and equity.
VI. Investment is the process of using current inputs to increase the stock of
resources available for future output as opposed to immediately
consumable output.
a. III, IV, V b. I, II, III, V, VI c. III, V, VI d. II, III, VI
(RPCPA)

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36. Which of the following statements correctly refer to the basic economic
activities?
I. Production is the process of converting economic resources into outputs
of goods and services that are intended to have greater utility than the
required inputs.
II. Exchange is the process of trading resources or obligations for other
resources or obligations.
III. Consumption is the process of allocating rights to the use of output among
individuals and groups in society.
IV. Income distribution is the process of using the final output of the
production process.
V. Savings is the process of using current inputs to increase the stock of
resources available for output as opposed to immediately consumable
output.
VI. Investment is the process by which individuals and groups set aside rights
to present consumption in exchange for rights to future consumption.
a. I, II c. I, II, V, VI
b. I, II, III, IV d. I, II, III, IV, V, VI
(RPCPA)
37. Whether a business is successful and thrives is determined by

a. markets. b. free enterprise. c. competition d. all of these
(AICPA)
38. An effective capital allocation process

a. promotes productivity.
b. encourages innovation.
c. provides an efficient market for buying and selling securities.
d. all of these.
(AICPA)
39. A business that operates to earn money for its owners is called a(n)
a. economic entity c. professional organization
b. for-profit business d. owner financed business
(Adapted)
40. A free enterprise system allows businesses to

a. have their government choose their products
b. produce the goods and services they choose
c. buy goods at a discount
d. operate at a profit
(Adapted)
41. One of the disadvantages of a sole proprietorship is

a. all the profits go to the owner c. the owner has all the risks
b. there are no lunch breaks d. there are few regulations to follow
(Adapted)
42. A corporation is a business organization that is recognized by law to

a. pay no tax c. have an active social life
b. have a life of its own d. have at least 3 owners
(Adapted)
43. Those who transform ideas for products or services into real-world
businesses are known as
a. profit takers b. accountants c. entrepreneurs d. organizers

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(Adapted)
44. A business owned by two or more people is called

a. a corporation c. a partnership
b. looking for trouble d. venture capital
(Adapted)
45. A merchandising business

a. buys raw materials and transforms them into finished products
b. buys finished products and resells them
c. provides a service for a fee
d. all of the above
(Adapted)
46. Economic resources are the scarce means available for carrying on economic
activities. The economic resources of a business enterprises are:
a. productive resources b. products c. money d. all of these
(RPCPA)
47. Which of the following is not among the economic resources of a business
enterprise?
a. money
b. products or output of the enterprise
c. obligations to pay money
d. ownership interest in other enterprises
(RPCPA)
48. It does not truly describe “economic value” as an element of economic

resources
a. value in exchange c. utility
b. over supply of resources d. scarcity
(RPCPA)
Accounting information
49. Which of the following statements is correct?
I. Accounting provides qualitative information, financial information, and
quantitative information.
II. Qualitative information is found in the notes to the financial statements
only.
III. Accounting is considered an art because it is supported by an organized
body of knowledge
IV. Accounting is considered a science because it involves the exercise of skill
and judgment.
V. Measurement is the process of assigning numbers to objects such
inventories or plant assets and to events such as purchases or sales.
VI. All quantitative information are also financial in nature.
VII. The accounting process of assigning peso amounts or numbers to relevant
objects and events is known as Identification.
a. I, V b. I, II, VI, V c. I, II, III, IV, V d. II, VI, V
(RPCPA)
50. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

I. The information contained in the financial statements is obtained
exclusively from the firm’s accounting records.
II. Financial accounting is a science rather than an art while management
accounting is an art rather than a science.

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III. Management decisions are oriented to the future whereas the decisions of
external users are oriented to the past.
IV. Financial accounting is a branch of accounting which deals primarily with
the common needs of users while management accounting is a branch of
accounting which deals primarily with the specific needs of users.
V. Quantitative information is always more useful than non-quantitative
information for the purpose of making economic decisions.
VI. Financial statements are only one source of information needed by users
to make rational economic decisions.
VII. Financial statements have the same basic purpose as financial accounting.
VIII. Financial statements are the only source of information needed by users
to make rational economic decisions.
a. IV, VII, VIII b. I, II, III, V, VIII c. IV, VI, VII d. I, II, III, V, VI, VII
(RPCPA)
51. The manner in which the accounting records are organized and employed
within a business is referred to as
a. Accounting system c. Voucher system
b. Business document d. Special journals
(RPCPA)
52. Accounting is often called the "language of business" because

a. it is easy to understand
b. it is fundamental to the communication of financial information
c. all business owners have a good understanding of accounting principles
d. accountants in many companies share financial information
(RPCPA)
53. Accounting as an art involves the considerable use of judgment. Accountants

should exercise creative and critical thinking in solving accounting problems.
In solving accounting problems, this involves the use of imagination and
insight by finding new relationships (ideas) among items of information. It is
most important in identifying alternative solutions.
a. Creative thinking c. Professional Skepticism
b. Critical thinking d. Wishful thinking
54. Creative skills and judgment is usually exercised in problem solving. State the
correct order of the following steps in problem solving.
I. Selecting a solution from among the alternatives
II. Identifying alternative solutions
III. Recognizing a problem
IV. Implementing the solution
V. Evaluating the alternatives
a. III, II, IV, V, I b. I, II, III, V, IV c. III, II, V, I, IV d. I, II, III, VI, V
(RPCPA)
55. Critical thinking is most important in which of the following problem-solving

steps?
a. Recognizing a problem
b. Identifying alternative solutions
c. Evaluating the alternatives
d. Selecting a solution from among the alternatives
(Adapted)

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Basic Accounting Concepts

56. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding accounting
concepts?
a. Under the Accrual Basis of accounting, revenues are recognized when
earned and expenses are recognized when incurred, not when cash is
received and disbursed.
b. Under the Going concern concept, the business entity is assumed to carry
on its operations for an indefinite period of time.
c. Under the Business entity/ Separate entity/ Entity/ Accounting entity
Concept, the business is treated separately from its owners.
d. Under the Time Period/ Periodicity/ Accounting Period concept, the life of
the business is divided into series of reporting periods.
e. Under the Cost-benefit concept, the cost of processing and communicating
information should exceed the benefits derived from it.
57. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding accounting

concepts?
a. Under the Materiality concept, items deemed material and affect decision
making should be separately disclosed.
b. Underlying assumptions are those that are mentioned in the Conceptual
Framework; Implicit assumptions are those that are not mentioned in the
Conceptual Framework; Pervasive concepts are those that affect virtually
all financial statement elements and all aspects of accounting.
c. Under the Cost/ Historical cost concept, the value of an asset is to be
determined on the basis of acquisition cost.
d. The Concept of Articulation states that all the components of a complete
set of financial statement are interrelated.
e. Under the Matching concept, revenues are matched with expenses in
order to properly determine the profit for a period.
58. Accrual accounting techniques are used to:

a. assign revenues and expenses to the appropriate accounting period.
b. record the anticipated effects of actions that may occur at a future date.
c. report the results of actions whose monetary effects are difficult to
estimate.
d. allocate nonoperating revenues and expenses to the appropriate business
unit.
(Adapted)
59. Accrual accounting is used because

a. cash flows are considered less important.
b. it provides a better indication of ability to generate cash flows than the
cash basis.
c. it recognizes revenues when cash is received and expenses when cash is
paid.
d. none of the above.
(Adapted)
60. The going concern assumption is also called

a. Periodicity b. Entity c. Business continuity d. Entity
61. The valuation of an assurance to receive cash in the future at present value on
a business entity’s financial statements is well-founded because of the
accounting concept of:
a. Entity b. Going concern c. Materiality d. Neutrality
(RPCPA)

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62. Business entity produces financial statements at arbitrary points in time in

accordance with which basic accounting concept?
a. objectivity b. periodicity c. conservatism d. matching
(RPCPA)
63. Treating partners’ salaries as an expense rather than as a means of allocating

partnership profits is an application of what theory?
a. proprietary theory c. residual equity theory
b. entity theory d. funds theory
(RPCPA)
64. Mr. Van owns a butcher shop, a restaurant, and a catering business. Separate
financial statements are prepared for each business independent of the other
businesses. What accounting principle or assumption is being applied in this
situation?
a. Time period assumption c. Full-disclosure principle
b. Separate entity assumption d. Unit-of-measure assumption
(CGA)
65. Which of the following correctly relate to the Monetary/ Stable monetary/
Monetary Unit concept?
I. Assets, liabilities, equity, revenues and expenses should be stated in terms
of a unit of measure which is the peso in the Philippines
II. The purchasing power of the peso is stable or constant and that its
instability is insignificant and therefore ignored.
a. I b. II c. I and II d. None
66. An accounting (financial reporting) period may be

a. One month b. One quarter c. One year d. a, b or c
67. Which of the following statements best reflects the accounting assumption of
periodicity or time period?
I. A fiscal year begins in any month and ends in any month but covers a
period of 12 months
II. A calendar year begins on any month and ends on any month but covers a
period of 12 months
III. Technically, an accounting year is synonymous with an accounting period.
IV. Accounting periods are usually equal in length.
a. I, II, III, IV b. I, IV c. I, III, IV d. II, III, IV
68. Which of the following best reflect(s) the reason(s) why companies select
accounting periods other than a calendar year?
a. to avoid closing books during peak sales period
b. to close the books at a time when inventories and business activity are
lowest
c. to conform to auditors’ request in order to reduce audit efforts and cost of
counting inventories
d. a and b
69. Most listed corporations in the Philippines have which type of accounting
year?
a. fiscal year b. calendar year c. quarterly d. indeterminate
70. For a fiscal year ending April 30, 20x2, the period covered by the statement of
profit or loss and other comprehensive income is
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a. April 1, 20x2 to April 30, 20x2 c. May 1, 20x1 to April 30, 20x2
b. April 1, 20x1 to April 30, 20x2 d. April 30, 20x1 to April 30, 20x2
71. An entity uses calendar year as its accounting period. The statement of
financial position prepared on December 31, 20x2 covers the period
a. December 31, 20x1 to December 31, 20x2
b. January 1, 20x1 to December 31, 20x2
c. January 1, 20x2 to December 31, 20x2
d. From business’ inception up to December 31, 20x2
72. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the basic accounting
concepts?
a. Under the Consistency concept, the financial statements should be
prepared on the basis of accounting principles which are followed
consistently.
b. Under the Entity theory, the accounting objective is geared toward proper
income determination. Proper matching of cost against revenue is the
ultimate end. Entity theory emphasizes the income statement. This is
explained by the equation Assets = Liabilities + Capital.
c. Under the Proprietary theory the accounting objective is directed toward
proper valuation of assets. This theory emphasizes the importance of the
balance sheet. It is exemplified by the equation Assets – Liabilities =
Capital.
d. Under the Fund theory, the accounting objective is neither proper income
determination nor proper valuation of assets but the custody and
administration of funds. The objective is directed toward cash flows
exemplified by the formula “cash inflows minus cash outflows equals
fund.” Government accounting and fiduciary accounting are examples of
the application of this concept.
e. Under the Residual equity theory, the accounting objective is proper
valuation of assets. This is applicable when there are two classes of
stockholders, common and preferred. Thus, the equation is Assets –
Liabilities + Preference Shareholders’ Equity = Ordinary Shareholders’
Equity.
73. Which of the following statements correctly relate to the basic features of
financial accounting?
I. The going concern assumption is necessary for asset valuation at
historical cost to have meaning.
II. Inexact information always makes financial statements useless for
decision making.
III. Under the residual equity theory, preference share equity is deducted
from total equity to arrive at ordinary share equity.
IV. Materiality is always a quantitative as opposed to a qualitative concept.
a. I, III, IV b. I, II, IV c. I, III d. I, II
74. The Full Disclosure Principle recognizes that the nature and amount of
information included in financial reports reflects a series of judgmental trade-
offs. The trade-offs strive for
I. Sufficient detail to disclose matters that make a difference to users
II. Sufficient condensation to make the information understandable, keeping
in mind costs of preparing and using it
a. I b. II c. I and II d. None
75. A concept that states that all the components of a complete set of financial
statement are interrelated
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a. entity c. concept of articulation

b. accounting process d. principle of fair presentation
76. Which of the following statements are correctly stated?

I. Under the entity theory, the major accounting effort is accounting effort is
directed toward proper valuation of assets rather income determination.
What is more important is the valuation of assets because owners are
interested in the real worth of their investment. This is expressed in
accounting equation “assets - liabilities = capital”.
II. One of the basic features of financial accounting is the direct measurement
of economic resources and obligations and changes in them in terms of
money and sociological and psychological impact.
III. The accounting process consists of two inter-related parts – the recording
phase and the summarizing phase. The preparation of a trial balance is a
step under the recording phase.
IV. Financial accounting measurements are primarily based on prices at
which economic resources and obligations are exchanged.
V. Owners’ equity is the excess of an enterprise’s assets over its liabilities.
VI. The financial position and results of operations of an entity are not
fundamentally related.
a. I, IV, V b. IV, V c. I, III, IV, V d. III, IV, V, VI
77. Application of the full disclosure principle

a. Is theoretically desirable but not practical because the costs of complete
disclosure exceed the benefits.
b. Is violated when important financial information is buried in the notes to
the financial statements.
c. Is demonstrated by providing additional information whenever this
information is deemed relevant to the understanding of the financial
statements.
d. Requires that the financial statements be consistent and comparable.
78. While making a delivery, the driver of Fastrac Courier collided with another
vehicle causing both property damage and personal injury. The party sued
Fastrac for damages which could exceed Fastrac's insurance coverage.
Existence of the lawsuit was reported in the notes to Fastrac's financial
statements. What accounting principle, assumption or constraint is being
applied in this situation?
a. Full-disclosure principle c. Matching principle
b. Conservatism constraint d. Unit-of-measure assumption
(CGA)
79. What does the full disclosure principle require?

a. All relevant information to be disclosed in the financial statements
b. All relevant information to be disclosed in the financial statements and the
notes accompanying the financial statements
c. Sufficient information to be disclosed so that the financial statements are
not misleading
d. Sufficient information to be disclosed so that the financial statements may
be used for investment and credit granting decisions
(CGA)
80. Which accounting principle charges low-cost capital items such as waste
baskets directly to an expense?
a. historical cost b. materiality c. expense recognition d. matching
(CGA)
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81. The process of converting non-cash resources and rights into cash or
equivalent claims to cash is called
a. Realization b. Allocation c. Recognition d. Disposition
(RPCPA)
82. The body of rules that dictates that the entire profit must be recognized at the
moment and in the period of sale is called:
a. cost convention c. realization convention
b. going concern convent d. conservatism
(RPCPA)
83. Which statements correctly refer to the basic principles used in accounting?
a. The personal assets of the owner of a company will not appear on the
company's balance sheet because of the principle of conservatism.
b. The growing concern principle/guideline is associated with the
assumption that the company will continue on long enough to carry out its
objectives.
c. An instance of application of the conservatism principle is when a very
large corporation's financial statements have the peso amounts rounded
to the nearest P1,000.
d. In applying the matching principle, income is not recognized if the related
expense cannot be determined reliably.
84. Which principle/guideline requires a company's balance sheet to report its

land at the amount the company paid to acquire the land, even if the land
could be sold today at a significantly higher amount?
a. Conservatism b. Economic entity c. Monetary unit d. Cost
(RPCPA)
85. During the lifetime of an entity accountants produce financial statements at

arbitrary points in time in accordance with which basic accounting concept?
a. Objectivity b. Periodicity c. Conservatism d. Matching
(RPCPA)
86. Which principle/guideline allows a company to ignore the change in the

purchasing power of the peso over time?
a. Cost b. Economic entity c. Monetary unit d. Timeliness
87. Which principle/guideline requires the company's financial statements to

have footnotes containing information that is important to users of the
financial statements?
a. Conservatism b. Economic entity c. Full disclosure d. Neutrality
(RPCPA)
88. Public utilities' balance sheets list the plant assets before the current assets.
This is acceptable under which accounting principle/guideline?
a. Conservatism c. Industry practices
b. Cost d. This is not acceptable
(RPCPA)
89. A large company purchases a P2,000 digital camera and expenses it

immediately instead of recording it as an asset and depreciating it over its
useful life. This practice may be acceptable because of which
principle/guideline?
a. Cost b. Matching c. Materiality d. Conservatism
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90. Uncertainty and risk inherent in business situations should be adequately

considered in financial reporting. This statement is an example of the concept
of
a. disclosure b. conservatism c. completeness d. neutrality
(RPCPA)
91. Revenue generally may be recognized when:

(Item #1) The earning process is complete; (Item #2) An exchange has taken
place
a. yes, no b. no, yes c. no, no d. yes, yes
(RPCPA)
92. Which of the following statements is correctly stated?

I. Effects of the events on the financial position of the enterprise are
measured and represented by money amounts.
II. The consistency principles refer to the use of original historical cost in the
matching process.
III. An accrued expense can best be described as an amount not paid but
currently matched with earnings.
IV. Generally, revenues should be recognized at a point when an order for a
definite amount of merchandise has been received for shipment.
V. Accounting process is governed by generally accepted principles which
reflect the objectives and the basic features of financial accounting.
a. I, III, V b. I, II, III, IV, V c. I, III, IV, V d. I, II, III, V
(RPCPA)
93. Under what principle when revenue is generally recognized and when the
earning process is virtually complete and an exchange has taken place
a. consistency b. maturing c. realization d. conservatism
(RPCPA)
94. The accounting objective or theory that is directed towards proper valuation
of assets
a. Entity theory c. Funds theory
b. Residual equity theory d. Proprietary theory
(RPCPA)
95. A theory in financial accounting which is exemplified in the equation “Assets -

Liabilities = Capital.”
a. proprietary theory c. residual equity theory
b. entity theory d. fund theory
(RPCPA)
96. The following statements relate to the standard of adequate disclosure:

I. In complying with the standard of adequate disclosure, accountants are
guided by the doctrine that more information is always better than less.
II. Financial accounting information that meets the qualitative objectives of
financial accounting also meets the reporting standard of adequate
disclosure.
III. Adequate disclosure is concerned not only with the kind of information
contained in financial statements but also with the manner in which that
information is presented.
IV. The disclosure standard calls for financial reporting of any financial facts
significant enough to influence the judgment of an informed reader of the
statements.
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State whether the foregoing statements are false:

a. all of the statements are false c. only two statements are false
b. only one statement is false d. three statements are false
(RPCPA)
97. It is the exercise of care and caution in dealing with uncertainties in

measurement so as not to overstate assets and income and not understate
liabilities and expenses.
a. Completeness b. Prudence c. Faithful representation d. Neutrality
98. The general tendency toward early recognition of unfavorable events and
minimization of the amount of net assets and net income is called:
a. conservatism b. consistency c. neutrality d. verifiability
99. When uncertainty exists, the convention of conservatism uses estimates of a

conservative nature in an attempt to ensure which of the following?
a. Assets, revenues, liabilities, and expenses are not overstated
b. Assets, revenues, liabilities, and expenses are not understated
c. Assets and revenues are not understated; liabilities and expenses are not
overstated
d. Assets and revenues are not overstated; liabilities and expenses are not
understated
(CGA)
Branches of Accounting
100. The process of identifying, measuring, analyzing, and communicating
financial information needed by management to plan, evaluate, and control an
organization’s operations is called
a. financial accounting c. tax accounting
b. managerial accounting d. auditing
(AICPA)
101. A city taxes merchants for various central district improvements. Which of
the following accounting methods assist(s) in assuring that these revenues
are expended legally?
(Item #1) Fund accounting; (Item #2) Budgetary accounting
a. Yes, No b. No, Yes c. No, No d. Yes, Yes
(AICPA)
102. Which of the following correctly refer to the various branches of

accounting?
I. Government accounting deals with accounting for the national
government and its instrumentalities, focusing attention on the custody of
public funds and the purpose or purposes to which such funds are
committed.
II. Institutional accounting deals with handling of accounts managed by a
person entrusted with the custody and management of property for the
benefit of another.
III. Estate accounting deals with the handling of accounts for fiduciaries who
wind up the affairs of a deceased person.
IV. Social responsibility accounting is the process of measuring and disclosing
the performance of firm in terms of community involvement and related
criteria.
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V. Accounting Systems deals with the installation of accounting procedures

for the accumulation of financial data; includes designing of accounting
forms to be used in data gathering.
VI. Cost accounting is the systematic recording and analysis of the costs of
material, labor, and overhead incident to production.
VII. Fiduciary accounting is the accounting for not-for-profit entities other
than the government.
a. I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII c. I, III, IV, V, VI, VII
b. I, II, IV, V, VI, VII d. I, III, IV, V, VI
103. Which of the following is not a characteristic of management accounting?

a. The level of detail is greater than financial accounting.
b. It must be in compliance with the IFRSs.
c. There is one primary user group.
d. It deals primarily with segments of an organization.
(AICPA)
104. Which of the following statements correctly refer to financial reporting

and accounting?
I. Financial accounting is the process of identifying, measuring, analyzing,
and communicating financial information needed by management to plan,
evaluate, and control an organization's operations.
II. Financial statements are the principal means through which financial
information is communicated to those inside an enterprise.
III. Users of the financial information provided by an entity use that
information to make capital allocation decisions.
IV. While objectives for financial reporting exist on an informal basis, no
formal objectives have been adopted.
V. Financial reports in the early 21st century did not provide any
information about a company’s soft assets.
a. I, II, III, IV, V b. II, III, IV, V c. III, IV, V d. III
105. General-purpose financial statements are the products of

a. financial accounting
b. managerial accounting.
c. both financial and managerial accounting.
d. neither financial nor managerial accounting.
(Adapted)
106. The information provided by financial reporting pertains to

a. individual business enterprises, rather than to industries or an economy
as a whole or to members of society as consumers.
b. business industries, rather than to individual enterprises or an economy
as a whole or to members of society as consumers.
c. individual business enterprises, industries, and an economy as a whole,
rather than to members of society as consumers.
d. an economy as a whole and to members of society as consumers, rather
than to individual enterprises or industries.
(AICPA)
107. Financial statements in the early 2000s provide information related to

a. non-financial measurements.
b. forward-looking data.
c. hard assets (inventory and plant assets).
d. none of these.
(Adapted)
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108. Which of the following statements is not an objective of financial

reporting?
a. Provide information that is useful in investment and credit decisions.
b. Provide information about enterprise resources, claims to those
resources, and changes to them.
c. Provide information on the liquidation value of an enterprise.
d. Provide information that is useful in assessing cash flow prospects.
(Adapted)
109. One objective of financial reporting is to provide

a. information about the investors in the business entity.
b. information about the liquidation values of the resources held by the
enterprise.
c. information that is useful in assessing cash flow prospects.
d. information that will attract new investors.
(Adapted)
110. Which of the following is true regarding the comparison of managerial to

financial accounting?
a. Managerial accounting is generally more precise.
b. Managerial accounting has a past focus and financial accounting has a
future focus.
c. The emphasis on managerial accounting is relevance and the emphasis on
financial accounting is timeliness.
d. Managerial accounting need not follow generally accepted accounting
principles (GAAP) while financial accounting must follow them.
(AICPA)
111. Which of the following statements correctly relates to financial reporting?

a. Accounting standards are now less likely to require the recording or
disclosure of fair value information due to its inherent subjectivity.
b. One weakness of accrual accounting is that it does not provide a good
indication of the enterprise's present and continuing ability to generate
favorable cash flows.
c. Some generally accepted accounting principles have simply been accepted
as appropriate because of their universal application rather than due to
the action of an authoritative accounting rule-making body.
d. Accounting standards are a product of careful logic or empirical findings
and are not influenced by political action.
(Adapted)
112. Which of the following incorrectly relates to financial reporting?

a. An effective process of capital allocation promotes productivity and
provides an efficient market for buying and selling securities and
obtaining and granting credit.
b. Users of financial accounting statements have both coinciding and
conflicting needs for information of various types.
c. The expectations gap is caused by what the public thinks accountants
should be doing and what accountants think they can do.
d. Ethical issues in financial accounting in the Philippines are governed by
the FRSC.
(Adapted)
113. Electronic data processing is
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a. act of preparing a program defined as the complete plan for the solution of
a problem
b. system of processing data performed by mechanical equipment such as
general office machines to increase speed and accuracy of data processing
operations
c. the systematization of processing operations in a manner that will provide
a rapid and uninterrupted flow of all information needed in the conduct of
the business
d. a system of accumulating, assembling and recasting transactions by the
use of electronic devices with the object of recording, analyzing and
reporting their output data
(RPCPA)
114. The end product of the financial accounting process

a. financial statement b. audit report c. ledger d. T-account
(RPCPA)

a. Accounting and bookkeeping are synonyms.
b. The process of providing financial information to external decision
makers is referred to as managerial accounting.
c. Financial statements generally include all the balance sheet, statement of
profit or loss and other comprehensive income, statement of changes in
equity, statement of cash flows, notes, and the corporate income tax
return.
d. Financial accounting applies to both business and non-business
organizations.
Practice of Accounting
116. The law that regulates the practice of accounting in the Philippines is the
Philippine Accountancy Act of 2004 also known as
a. R.A. No. 9298 c. R.A. No. 8299
b. R.A. No. 9892 d. R.A. Blg. 69
117. The professional regulatory board created under Republic Act No. 9298
tasked with the supervision of the registration, licensure and practice of
accountancy in the Philippines.
a. PRC b. BOA c. PICPA d. FRSC
118. The Board of Accountancy (BOA) shall be composed of

a. Six (6) members with a chairman for a total of six (6) individuals
b. chairman and six (6) members for a total of seven (7) individuals
c. chairman and fifteen (15) members
d. chairman and seventeen (17) members
119. The Commission upon the recommendation of the Board shall within
ninety (90) days from the effectivity of the IRR, create an accounting standard
setting body to be known as the
a. Financial Reporting Standards Council
b. Financial Reporting Standards Committee
c. Accounting Standards Committee
d. Financial Reporting Standards Board
120. FRSC shall be composed of

a. Fifteen members and a Chairman
b. Fourteen members with a Chairman
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c. Fourteen members and a Chairman

d. Eight members and a Chairman
121. All of the following are represented in the FRSC, except

a. Board of Accountancy (1)
b. Securities an d Exchange Commission (1)
c. Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas (1)
d. Bureau of Internal Revenue (1)
e. An association or organization of CPAs in active public practice of
accountancy (1)
f. None, all of the above are represented in the FRSC
122. One of the following is not a member of the Financial Reporting Standards
Council.
a. Philippine Institute of Certified Auditors
b. Commission on Audit
c. Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas
d. Securities and Exchange Commission
123. The integrated national professional organization of Certified Public

Accountants accredited by the Board and the Commission.
a. Accredited National Professional Organization of Certified Public
Accountants or APO
b. Federation of Certified Public Accountants
c. Philippine Institute of Certified Public Auditors
d. Accredited National Professional Accountants
124. The Accredited National Professional Organization of Certified Public

Accountants or APO in the Philippines is
a. Philippine Institute of Certified Public Auditors
b. Association of Certified Public Accountants in Commerce and Industry
c. Philippine Institute of Certified Public Accountants
d. Association of Certified Public Accountants in Education
125. An accountant employed in a government agency is considered to be in

the
a. Practice of Public Accountancy c. Practice in Education/Academe
b. Practice in Commerce and Industry d. Practice in the Government
126. The role of the Securities and Exchange Commission in the formulation of
accounting principles can be best described as
a. consistently primary.
b. consistently secondary.
c. sometimes primary and sometimes secondary.
d. non-existent.
(Adapted)
127. Corporations are required to submit their financial statements to the

a. FRSC b. BOA c. COA d. SEC
128. Which of the following is not among the Four Sectors in the practice of
accountancy as enumerated in R.A. 9298 also known as the “Philippine
Accountancy Act of 2004”?
a. Practice in Commerce and Industry c. Practice in the Government
b. Practice in Education/Academe d. Practice in Private Accounting
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129. Most accounting positions within an organization have primarily

a. line authority c. staff authority
b. line and staff authority d. financial authority
(RPCPA)
130. Which of the following statements are correct?

I. The first step in problem solving in accounting is to analyze the
consequences of different alternatives.
II. Resources are traded in the marketplace at a price because they are in
limited or scarce supply.
III. An internal transaction is an economic event which occurs between one
entity and another entity.
IV. Public accountants in the Philippines are found in the public service
serving local and national government bodies.
V. Establishing goals, gathering information on alternatives, determining the
consequences of alternatives, and choosing a course of action involve
estimates of future events.
VI. A major focus of accounting information is on actual, historical financial
events. Therefore, recording financial transactions of an entity is of no use
in establishing future relationships.
a. I, II, V b. II, V c. II, V, VI d. I, II, IV, V, VI

(Adapted)
Accounting standards
131. Issuing of accounting standards is the responsibility of the
a. PICPA b. FRSC c. AASC d. CPE Council
132. A common set of accounting standards and procedures are called

a. financial account standards
b. generally accepted accounting principles
c. objectives of financial reporting
d. statements of financial accounting concepts
(RPCPA)
133. Accounting principles are "generally accepted" only when

a. an authoritative accounting rule-making body has established it in an
official pronouncement.
b. it has been accepted as appropriate because of its universal application.
c. both a and b.
d. neither a nor b.
(RPCPA)
134. Generally accepted accounting principles

a. include detailed practices and procedures as well as broad guidelines of
general application.
b. are influenced by pronouncements of the SEC and Regulatory Accounting
Principles
c. change over time as the nature of the business environment changes.
d. all of these.
(Adapted)
135. Choose the correct statement about generally accepted accounting

principles (GAAP)
a. They are laws
b. The Bureau of Internal Revenue enforces GAAP
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c. Firms that do not comply with GAAP may suffer negative economic
consequences.
d. GAAP in the Philippines is represented by PSAs
(RPCPA)
136. Accounting concepts are not derived from

a. Inductive reasoning c. Pragmatism
b. Experience d. Laws of nature
(Adapted)
137. Generally accepted accounting principles in the Philippines are

represented by
a. PASs b. PSAs c. PFRSs d. SFASs
138. Philippine Financial Reporting Standards (PFRSs) comprise:

I. Philippine Financial Reporting Standards
II. Philippine Accounting Standards
III. Interpretations adopted by the Philippine Interpretations Committee
(PIC)
IV. Accounting Practice Statements and Implementation Guidance
a. I, II, III b. I, II, III, IV c. I and II d. I and III
139. The Philippine Financial Reporting Standards (PFRSs) are standards

adopted by the
a. Accounting Standards Council (ASC)
b. Financial Reporting Standards Committee (FRSC)
c. Philippine Institute of Certified Public Accountants (PICPA)
d. Financial Reporting Standards Council (FRSC)
140. Application and Implementation Guidance included in PFRSs

a. forms part of the standards and are in themselves standards
b. does not form part of the standards
c. may or may not be integral part of the standards
d. are useless if the accountant is a CPA
141. When resolving accounting problems not specifically addressed by

current standards, an entity should be guided by the hierarchy of reporting
standards. The correct sequence of the hierarchy of reporting standards in the
Philippines is
I. PASs, PFRSs and Interpretations
II. Conceptual Framework
III. Judgment
a. I, III, II b. I, II, III c. II, I, III d. I, II
142. In the absence of a GAAP addressing a particular transaction

a. Management may use its judgment in developing a relevant and reliable
accounting policy
b. Management should consider the most recent pronouncements of other
standard-setting bodies that use a similar conceptual framework to
develop accounting standards, other accounting literature and accepted
industry practices
c. The entity should refer to the Conceptual Framework.
d. The entity should refer to its External Auditor.
143. The argument that practicing accountants are familiar with the
significance of various accounting problems and the feasibility of alternative
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solutions is an argument for establishing generally accepted accounting

principles through
a. a free-market approach c. government regulation
b. a deductive approach d. private sector regulation
(Adapted)
International Standards
144. Generally accepted accounting principles in the Philippines are based on
a. IFRSs issued by IASB
b. SFAS issued by FASB
c. partly (a) and (b)
d. GAAP in the Philippines are originally formulated by the FRSC and are not
based on standards issued by other standard setting bodies.
145. The International Accounting Standards Board (IASB)

a. Directly influences governmental legislation regarding accounting
standards.
b. Develops binding pronouncements for its members.
c. Is composed of members from national standard setting bodies.
d. Establishes uniform accounting standards to eliminate reporting
differences among nations.
(Adapted)
146. Approval of International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRSs) and

related documents, such as the Conceptual Framework for Financial Reporting,
exposure drafts, and other discussion documents, is the responsibility of the
a. International Accounting Standards Board
b. International Accounting Standards Committee
c. International Accounting Standards Council
d. Financial Reporting Standards Council
147. Are the following statements true or false concerning the IFRSs?
I. IFRSs set out recognition, measurement, presentation and disclosure
requirements dealing with transactions and events that are important in
general and special purpose financial statements. They may also set out
such requirements for transactions and events that arise mainly in specific
industries.
II. IFRSs are based on the Conceptual Framework, which addresses the
concepts underlying the information presented in general purpose financial
statements. The objective of the Conceptual Framework is to facilitate the
consistent and logical formulation of IFRSs. The Conceptual Framework
should, however, not be used as a basis for the use of judgment in resolving
accounting issues.
a. True, true b. True, false c. False, true d. False, false
148. Which of the following statements correctly refer(s) to the IFRSs?

I. IFRSs are designed to apply to the general purpose financial statements
and other financial reporting of all profit-oriented entities.
II. Profit-oriented entities include those engaged in commercial, industrial,
financial and similar activities, whether organized in corporate or in other
forms. They include organizations such as mutual insurance companies
and other mutual cooperative entities that provide dividends or other
economic benefits directly and proportionately to their owners, members
or participants.
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III. Although IFRSs are not designed to apply to not-for-profit activities in the
private sector, public sector or government, entities with such activities
may find them appropriate.
IV. The Public Sector Committee of the International Federation of
Accountants (PSC) has issued a Guideline stating that IFRSs are applicable
to government business entities. The PSC prepares accounting standards
for governments and other public sector entities, other than government
business entities, based on IFRSs.
a. I, II b. II, III, IV c. I, II, III d. I, II, III, IV
149. The objectives of the International Accounting Standards Board are

(choose the incorrect statement)
a. To develop, in the public interest, a single set of high quality,
understandable and enforceable global accounting standards that require
high quality, transparent and comparable information in financial
statements and other financial reporting to help participants in the
various capital markets of the world and other users of the information to
make economic decisions;
b. To promote the use and rigorous application of those standards
c. To eliminate differences between standards used by various countries
d. To work actively with national standard-setters to bring about
convergence of national accounting standards and IFRSs to high quality
solutions

a. The term ‘financial statements’ includes a complete set of financial
statements prepared for an annual period only (excluding statements
prepared for interim period), and condensed financial statements for an
interim period.
b. In some cases, IASB permitted different treatments for given transactions
and events. Usually, one treatment is identified as the ‘benchmark
treatment’ and the other as the ‘allowed alternative treatment’. The
financial statements of an entity may appropriately be described as being
prepared in accordance with IFRSs whether they use the benchmark
treatment or the allowed alternative treatment.
c. The IASB’s objective is to require like transactions and events to be
accounted for and reported in a like way and unlike transactions and
events to be accounted for and reported differently, both within an entity
over time and among entities. Consequently, the IASB intends to permit
choices in accounting treatment. Also, the IASB has reconsidered, and will
continue to reconsider, those transactions and events for which IFRSs
permit a choice of accounting treatment, with the objective of increasing
the number of those choices.
d. Standards approved by the IASB include paragraphs in bold type and plain
type; those in bold type indicate the main principles and have greater
authority than those in plain type. An individual standard should be read
in the context of the objective stated in that standard and the Preface to
IFRSs.
e. Interpretations of IFRSs are prepared by the SIC to give authoritative
guidance on issues that are likely to receive divergent or unacceptable
treatment, in the absence of such guidance.
151. In the event of conflict between the International Financial Reporting

Standards and the local standards, which among the following will prevail?
a. The provisions of the Corporation Code and Tax Code will prevail
b. The rule of the Philippine Securities and Exchange Commission prevails
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c. The rule of the International Accounting Standards prevails

d. The rule of local standards, laws and regulations shall prevail
(Adapted)
152. Are the following statements about the Norwalk Agreement true or false?
I. The Norwalk Agreement requires the consolidated financial statements of
all listed United States companies, starting after January 1, 2005, to be
prepared in accordance with International Accounting Standards.
II. The Norwalk Agreement was an agreement for short-term financial
reporting convergence between the European Commission and the United
States government.
a. False, False b. False, True c. True, False d. True, True
(ACCA)
153. Which of the following bodies is responsible for reviewing accounting

issues that are likely to receive divergent or unacceptable treatment in the
absence of authoritative guidance, with a view to reaching consensus as to the
appropriate accounting treatment?
a. International Financial Reporting Interpretations Committee (IFRIC)
b. Standards Advisory Council (SAC)
c. International Accounting Standards Board (IASB)
d. International Accounting Standards Committee Foundation (IASC
Foundation)
(ACCA)
154. The International Financial Reporting Interpretations Committee (IFRIC)

issues interpretations as authoritative guidance. For which of the following
should IFRIC consider issuing an Interpretation?
I. Narrow, industry-specific issues
II. Newly identified financial reporting issues not specifically addressed
in IFRSs
III. Issues where unsatisfactory or conflicting interpretations have
developed, or seem likely to develop
IV. Areas where members of the IASB cannot reach unanimous agreement
a. I, II, III b. II, III c. III, IV d. II, III, IV
(ACCA)
155. Are the following statements true or false?

I. The Norwalk Agreement outlines the commitment of the IASB and FASB
towards harmonization of International and US Accounting Standards.
II. IOSCO requires mandatory preparation of financial statements in
accordance with IFRS.
(ACCA)
156. According to the Preface to International Financial Reporting Standards,

which of the following are included in the objectives of the IASB?
I. To harmonize financial reporting between IFRS and US GAAP
II. To work actively with national standard setters
III. To promote the use and rigorous application of accounting
IV. To harmonize financial reporting within the European Union
a. I, II, III b. II, III c. III, IV d. II, IV
(ACCA)
157. The purpose of the International Accounting Standards Board is to
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a. issue enforceable standards which regulate the financial accounting and

reporting of multinational corporations.
b. develop a uniform currency in which the financial transactions of
companies throughout the world would be measured.
c. promote uniform accounting standards among countries of the world.
d. arbitrate accounting disputes between auditors and international
companies.
(Adapted)
Changes in standards
158. Choose the correct statement
a. Financial accounting is a social science and cannot be influenced by
changes in legal, political, business and social environments.
b. Financial accounting is an information system designed to provide
information primarily to internal users.
c. General-purpose financial statements must be prepared by a certified
public accountant.
d. The preparation of general-purpose financial statements is usually based
on the assumption that the primary users of the information are external
decision makers.
(RPCPA)
159. Identify the incorrect statement(s).

I. GAAP is as much a product of political action as it is of careful logic or
empirical findings.
II. GAAP is part of the real world, and it cannot escape politics and political
pressures.
III. Changes in GAAP are generally triggered by changes in users’ needs.
IV. Realization is the process of converting an asset, liability or commitment
into an income statement item.
V. Assets are always stated at historical cost on the balance sheet.
VI. Many accounting measurements are estimates and involve approximation
and judgment.
a. I, II, IV b. IV, V c. IV d. I, II, III, VI
160. Which of the following is the incorrect statement?

a. Theory can be defined as a coherent set of hypothetical, conceptual, and
pragmatic principles forming a general frame of reference for a field of
inquiry.
b. Accounting theory has developed in response to government regulations.
c. Concepts are components of theory.
d. Accounting concepts are human-made.
(RPCPA)
161. The following statements relate to the purpose/ reasons for the issuance
of International Financial Reporting Standards by IASB.
I. The International Accounting Standards Board (IASB) is committed to
narrowing differences in Financial Reporting Standards by seeking to
harmonize regulations, accounting standards and procedures relating to
the preparation and presentation of financial statements.
II. The IASB believes that further harmonization can best be pursued by
focusing on financial statements that are prepared for the purpose of
providing information that is useful in making economic decisions.
III. The IASB believes that financial statements prepared for general purpose
meet the common needs of most users.
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IV. The IASB believes that US FASB Standards are not applicable in most
countries other than in the US.
a. I, II b. I, II, IV c. I, II, III, IV d. I, II, III
162. The purpose of the International Financial Reporting Standards is to

a. issue standards to be applied by all countries in the world.
b. eliminate all the differences in financial reporting between countries in
the world.
c. promote a uniform basis of financial reporting among countries of the
world.
d. issue enforceable standards to be applied by all international accountants.
163. If accounting information is to be useful, it must be expressed in terms of:

a. non-monetary units
b. monetary and non-monetary units
c. units of consumer demand
d. a common denominator
164. Generally accepted accounting principles

a. Are fundamental truths or axioms that can be derived from laws of nature.
b. Derive their authority from legal court proceedings.
c. Derive their credibility and authority from general recognition and
acceptance by the accounting profession.
d. Have been specified in detail in the FRSC framework.
(Adapted)
165. The principles, which constitute the ground rules for financial reporting,
are termed “generally accepted accounting principles”. To qualify as
“generally accepted,” an accounting principle must
a. Usually guide corporate managers in preparing financial statements,
which will be understood by widely scattered stockholders
b. Guide corporate managers in preparing financial statements which will be
used, for collective bargaining agreements with trade unions.
c. Guide an entrepreneur of the choice of an accounting entity like single
proprietorship partnership or corporation
d. Receive substantial authoritative support.
(Adapted)

a. The accounting theory which explains well the accounting equation
“Assets minus liabilities equals capital” is the proprietary theory.
b. Under the entity theory, the major accounting effort is directed toward
proper valuation of assets rather than income determination.
c. Strict adherence to the entity concept would not allow a parent company
to take up in it books its proportionate share in the profits and losses of its
subsidiaries.
d. Under the fund theory, assets represent prospective services to the fund,
liabilities represent restriction against assets of the fund, and invested
capital represents either legal or financial restrictions on the use of assets.
167. Financial accounting is shaped to a significant extent, by the environment,

and in particular all of the following, except
a. The many uses and users which it serves
b. The overall organization of economic activity in society
c. The characteristics and limitations of financial accounting and financial
statements
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d. The means of measuring economic activity

(Adapted)
168. Proper application of accounting principles is most dependent upon the

a. existence of specific guidelines.
b. oversight of regulatory bodies.
c. external audit function.
d. professional judgment of the accountant.
(Adapted)
169. Which of the following is most likely to prepare the most accurate
financial forecast for a corporate entity based on empirical evidence?
a. Investors using statistical models to generate forecasts
b. Corporate management
c. Financial analysts
d. Independent CPAs
(AICPA)
Chapter 1 - Suggested answers to theory of accounts questions

1. C 31. D 61. B 91. D 121. E 151. D
2. A 32. B 62. B 92. A 122. A 152. A
3. D 33. A 63. B 93. C 123. A 153. A
4. C 34. C 64. B 94. D 124. C 154. B
5. A 35. C 65. C 95. A 125. D 155. C
6. B 36. A 66. D 96. B 126. C 156. B
7. D 37. D 67. B 97. B 127. D 157. C
8. B 38. D 68. D 98. A 128. D 158. D
9. C 39. B 69. B 99. D 129. C 159. B
10. C 40. B 70. C 100. B 130. B 160. B
11. C 41. C 71. D 101. D 131. B 161. D
12. D 42. B 72. E 102. D 132. B 162. C
13. D 43. C 73. C 103. B 133. C 163. D
14. C 44. C 74. C 104. D 134. D 164. C
15. D 45. B 75. C 105. A 135. C 165. D
16. B 46. D 76. B 106. A 136. D 166. B
17. A 47. C 77. C 107. C 137. C 167. C
18. C 48. C 78. A 108. C 138. A 168. D
19. C 49. A 79. C 109. C 139. D 169. B
20. C 50. B 80. B 110. D 140. C
21. B 51. A 81. A 111. C 141. A
22. A 52. B 82. C 112. D 142. A
23. A 53. A 83. D 113. D 143. D
24. B 54. C 84. D 114. A 144. A
25. D 55. C 85. B 115. D 145. D
26. D 56. E 86. C 116. A 146. A
27. B 57. E 87. C 117. B 147. D
28. B 58. A 88. C 118. B 148. D
29. C 59. B 89. C 119. A 149. C
30. C 60. C 90. A 120. C 150. B
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Chapter 2
The Accounting Process
Chapter 2: Multiple choice – Computational (SET B) – (For classroom

instruction purposes)
Trial balance – effect of errors
1. An entity’s unadjusted trial balance does not equal. The following information
was determined:
 The debit posting for a sale on account was omitted. 5,000
 The balance of Prepaid assets was listed as a credit instead of
debit 34,000
 The balance of Office expense was listed as Rent expense 16,000
 Accounts payable was listed as a debit instead of credit 4,000
How much is the difference between the total debits and total credits in the trial
balance?
a. 65,000 b. 81,000 c. 30,000 d. 34,000
Trial balance – correct debits and credits

2. The debit total of a trial balance exceeds the credit total by ₱600. In
investigating the cause of the difference, the following errors were
determined:
a) A debit to accounts receivable of ₱2,100 was not posted;
b) A ₱10,500 credit to be made to the Purchases account was credited to
Accounts payable instead;
c) A ₱26,000 credit to be made to the Sales account was credited to the Accounts
receivable account instead;
d) The prepaid rent account balance of ₱15,800 was included in the trial balance
as ₱18,500.
How much is the correct balance of the trial balance?

a. 36,500 b. 15,500 c. 20,900 d. 13,400
Worksheet
3. The total debits in the statement of financial position columns of a worksheet
amounted to ₱1,440,800 while the total credits in the income statement
columns is ₱1,234,000. The total credits in the adjusted trial balance is
₱2,376,000.
How much is the profit/(loss) for the period?

a. 298,800 b. (298,800) c. 206,800 d. (206,800)
Liability method vs. Income method

Use the following information for the next four questions:
An entity receives ₱360,000 advance rent covering 3 years starting January 1,
20x1.
4. If the entity uses the liability method of initial recording, the 20x1 year-end
adjusting journal entry includes
a. a debit to rent income for ₱120,000
b. a credit to unearned rent for ₱240,000
c. a debit to unearned rent for ₱120,000
d. a credit to rent income for ₱240,000
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5. If the entity uses the income method of initial recording, the 20x1 year-end
a. a debit to rent income for ₱240,000
b. a credit to unearned rent for ₱120,000
c. a debit to unearned rent for ₱240,000
d. a credit to rent income for ₱120,000
6. If the entity uses the income method of initial recording, how much is the rent
income for the year 20x1?
a. 240,000 b. 180,000 c. 120,000 d. 80,000
7. If the entity uses the liability method of initial recording, how much is the
unearned rent as of December 31, 20x1?
a. 240,000 b. 180,000 c. 120,000 d. 80,000
Asset method vs. Expense method

An entity prepays a ₱240,000 one-year insurance on August 1, 20x1.
8. If the entity uses the asset method of initial recording, the 20x1 year-end
a. a credit to prepaid insurance for ₱140,000
b. a credit to insurance expense for ₱140,000
c. a credit to prepaid insurance for ₱100,000
d. a debit to prepaid insurance for ₱140,000
9. If the entity uses the expense method of initial recording, the 20x1 year-end
a. a debit to prepaid insurance for ₱140,000
b. a credit to insurance expense for ₱140,000
c. a debit to prepaid insurance for ₱100,000
d. a debit to insurance expense for ₱140,000
Adjusting entries
10. Borong Zyrus Co. records all disbursements using nominal accounts (i.e.,
expense method). On December 31, 20x1, Borong Zyrus Co. has total expenses
of ₱2,000,000 before considering the following:
a. Advertisement costs paid in January 20x2 totaled ₱20,000. The advertisement
was aired on TV on December 28, 20x1.
b. A three-year insurance on assets was obtained on August 1, 20x1 for
₱108,000.
c. On July 15, 20x1, Borong Zyrus Co. entered into an operating lease requiring
monthly payments of ₱120,000 starting on the date of the lease contract and
monthly thereafter.
d. Office supplies expense has a balance of ₱140,000. The physical count of office
supplies revealed a balance of ₱132,000.
How much is the 20x1 adjusted total expenses?

a. 1,859,000 b. 1,735,000 c. 1,765,000 d. 1,695,000
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Closing entries
11. The inexperienced accountant of Raymel Co. prepared the following closing
entry on December 31, 20x1:
Dec. 31, Sales 1,800,000
20x1 Interest income 40,000
Unrealized gain – OCI 20,000
Accrued interest income 32,000
Dividend income 16,000
Cost of goods sold 680,000
Prepaid insurance 18,000
Dividends 280,000
Accrued interest expense 70,000
Finance cost 50,000
Depreciation expense 60,000
Income summary 750,000
Dec. 31, Income summary 750,000

20x1 Retained earnings 750,000
How much is the correct amount of “Income summary” to be closed to retained

earnings?
a. 786,000 b. 1,028,000 c. 1,066,000 d. 1,048,000
Reversing entries
Use the following information for the next two questions:
On August 31, 20x1, Jones Co. received a ₱2,000,000, 12%, 4-year note receivable
from Franklin, Inc. Principal, in 4 equal annual installments, and interest are
collectible every September 1. Jones Co. records receipts of income using nominal
accounts. At December 31, 20x1, the following adjusting entry was made to take
up the accrued interest.
Dec. 31, Interest receivable (2M x 12% x 4 /12) 80,000
20x1 Interest income 80,000
12. If no reversing entries are made, the adjusting entry on December 31, 20x2 to
take up accrued interest includes
a. a credit to interest income for ₱60,000
b. a debit to interest income for ₱20,000
c. a debit to interest receivable for ₱20,000
d. a credit to interest receivable for ₱60,000
13. If reversing entries are made, what is the adjusting entry on December 31,
20x2 to take up accrued interest?
a. a debit to interest income for ₱60,000
b. a credit to interest income for ₱20,000
c. a debit to interest receivable for ₱60,000
d. a debit to interest receivable for ₱20,000
The answers and solutions to the computational problems above

(Multiple choice – Computational (SET B) can be found in the
accompanying Teacher’s Manual.
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Accounting cycle
1. Which of the following represents the expanded basic accounting equation?
a. Assets = Liabilities + Common Shares + Dividends – Income – Expenses
b. Assets + Dividends + Expenses = Liabilities + Equity + Income
c. Assets – Liabilities – Dividends = Equity + Income – Expenses
d. Assets = Income + Expenses – Liabilities
2. An accounting period which is a fiscal year may be

a. One month b. One quarter c. One year d. a, b or c
3. The basic sequence in the accounting process can best be described as:
a. Transaction, journal entry, source document, ledger account, trial balance.
b. Source document, transaction, ledger account, journal entry, trial balance.
c. Transaction, source document, journal entry, trial balance, ledger account.
d. Transaction, source document, journal entry, ledger account, trial balance.
(Adapted)
4. Which of the following statements is/are true?

I. The listing of all of the accounts available for use in a company's
accounting system is known as the General Ledger.
II. The term associated with "left" or "left-side" is Credit.
III. The basic accounting equation is Assets + Liabilities = Capital.
IV. The accounting equation should remain in balance because every
transaction affects only two accounts.
V. The Accounting Cycle represents the steps or accounting procedures
normally used by entities to record transactions and prepare financial
statement. It implements the accounting process.
VI. A corporation's net income and distributions to stakeholders are
eventually recorded in the income summary.
a. II, IV, V, VI b. V c. I, V, VI d. I, V
5. The following comments all relate to the recording process. Which of these
statements is correct?
a. The general ledger is a chronological record of transactions.
b. The general ledger is posted from transactions recorded in the general
journal.
c. The trial balance provides the primary source document for recording
transactions into the general journal.
d. Transposition is the transfer of information from the general journal to
the general ledger.
(Adapted)
6. Choose the incorrect statement

a. An accounting information system is designed to collect data about each
transaction and event that should be recorded by an entity during a
reporting year
b. Posting is a transfer process which reclassifies chronological information
into account classification format in the ledger
c. In recording transactions, an external transaction is more likely to be
overlooked and not recorded than is an internal transaction.
d. A trial balance is prepared after adjusting entries are recorded but before
closing entries.
(Adapted)
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7. Which of the following is not optional?

a. use of an Income Summary account
b. preparation of the Worksheet
c. making adjusting entries
d. preparation of Post-Closing Trial Balance
(RPCPA)
8. Given the dual effects of accountable events, an increase in a liability cannot

possibly be accompanied by a (an):
a. increase in asset c. decrease in asset
b. decrease in equity d. no effect on assets
Systems of recording
I. The two basic concepts or theories underlying double-entry bookkeeping
are Duality and Equilibrium
II. The reason why expense is recorded as a debit entry to an expense
account is that expenses decrease owner’s equity.
III. The effects of revenue and expenses upon owners’ equity explains the
debit and credit rules relating to the recording of revenue and expenses
IV. All activities of a business are recorded in its accounting system
V. The accounting process of determining how events affect assets, liabilities,
owners’ equity, revenue and expenses of the enterprise is called
“Measuring the effects.”
a. I, II, IV b. I, II, III c. III, IV, V d. I, II, III, V
(RPCPA)
10. Which of the following statements correctly relate to single-entry system?

I. Accrual basis financial statements cannot be prepared under a single-
entry bookkeeping system
II. Under single-entry bookkeeping system financial statements are not likely
to be fairly presented in accordance with GAAP
III. Cash Receipts and Cash Disbursement Journals are utilized in both a
single-entry bookkeeping system and a double-entry bookkeeping system
IV. Internal control is inadequate under a single-entry bookkeeping system
V. Subsidiary ledger is utilized only in a double-entry bookkeeping system
but not in a single-entry bookkeeping system
a. II, IV b. II, III, IV, V c. I, III, IV d. I, II, III, IV, V
(RPCPA)
11. The following statements relates to the double-entry system and the single-
entry system. Choose the correct statements.
I. Merchandise inventory account is not recognized under single-entry
bookkeeping
II. Net income or loss under single entry bookkeeping is computed using
an approach that directly matches cost with revenue.
III. Under a Double-entry system, both general and special journals are
used while under a single-entry system, only special journals are used.
IV. Double-entry system is sometimes known as transaction approach of
accounting for assets, liabilities, equity, revenue and expenses.
V. Double-entry system is the generally acceptable method of
bookkeeping because it offers a more accurate and more complete
income measurement than single-entry.
a. I, III, V b. I, V c. III, IV, V d. I, III, IV, V
(RPCPA)
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a. Accrual basis financial statements may be prepared from single-entry
records
b. Single-entry accounting is synonymous with cash basis accounting
c. No adjusting entries are necessary when accounting records are kept on a
pure cash basis
d. Over the entire life of a business enterprise, there would be no difference
between income on a cash basis and income on an accrual basis
(RPCPA)
13. Consider the following statements.

I. The theory of debit and credit is a fundamental concept of double entry
bookkeeping
II. From the accounting viewpoint, the life of the business is a series of
income statements
III. From the accounting viewpoint, the life of the business is a series of
balance sheets
a. true, true, true c. false, false, true
b. true, true, false d. true, false, true
(RPCPA)
14. The best interpretation of the word credit is the

a. offset side of an account. c. right side of an account.
b. increase side of an account d. decrease side of an account
(Adapted)
Books of records
15. The account may take many possible forms and accounting practice
commonly uses several. Perhaps the most useful form of the account for
textbooks, problems, and examinations but not really used in actual practice,
except perhaps for memoranda or preliminary analyses is the
a. One-sided account c. Three-sided account
b. T-account d. moving balance account
16. Which one of the following best expresses the primary purpose of the general
journal?
a. The general journal provides an organized summary of transactions
classified by type of account
b. The general journal directly provides the data for a trial balance
c. The general journal eliminates the need for control accounts in the ledger
d. The general journal provides a continuing balance of the amount to date in
each of the temporary accounts
e. The general journal provides a chronological listing of transactions in
debit-credit form
17. Choose the incorrect statement concerning special journals

a. All special journals are designed to handle only one type of transaction
b. Special journals are designed specifically to simplify the data processing
tasks involved in journalizing and posting of particular types of
transactions.
c. The design of special journals is dependent upon the frequency of specific
types of transactions
d. Special journals vary in number depending upon the types of frequent
transactions recorded by the entity.
(RPCPA)
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18. Which one of the following best expresses the primary purpose of the general
ledger?
a. The general ledger provides a record of transactions classified by account
b. The general ledger provides a record from which the journal entries are
later posted
c. The general ledger provides a listing of the dates of transactions affecting
each account, in what amounts, and the ending balances of each account
d. The general ledger eliminates the need for control accounts
e. The general ledger houses only accounts which are supported by
subsidiary ledgers
19. Which of the following best defines a control account?

a. A summary account in the general ledger that is supported by detailed
accounts in a subsidiary ledger.
b. A listing of the balances in all accounts
c. An account which increases due to sale of goods or services during the
normal operations of a business
d. A chronological listing of all transactions for a specific time period
20. These are entries made at the end of the accounting period after adjustments
used as means of closing nominal accounts to a summary account and
transferring the balances to equity.
a. Closing entries c. Reclassification entries
b. Adjusting entries d. Reversing entries
21. These are entries usually made in the next period to reverse certain adjusting
entries made in the immediately preceding accounting period.
a. Closing entries c. Reclassification entries
22. These are entries used to correct accounting errors.

a. Correcting entries c. Reclassification entries
23. These are entries that transfer an item from one account to another that more
clearly describe the nature of the item transferred.
24. It is the difference between the debit and the credit side of a T account.
a. normal balance c. account balance
b. discount d. a and c
25. The normal balance of any account is the

a. left side c. side which increases that account
b. right side d. side which decreases that account
(Adapted)
26. A journal is not useful for

a. closing in one place the complete effect of a transaction.
b. preparing financial statements.
c. providing a record of transactions.
d. locating and preventing errors.
27. A T account is
a. a way of depicting the basic form of an account.
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b. a special account used instead of a journal.

c. a special account used instead of a trial balance.
d. used for accounts that have both a debit and credit balance.
(Adapted)
28. A systematic compilation of a group of accounts; also called a “book of

secondary entry”
a. trial balance b. ledger c. worksheet d. journal
(RPCPA)
29. A notation in a journal or ledger not intended to be incorporated in the

accounts which describes a situation/event
a. memo entry c. reversing entry
b. correcting entry d. adjusting entry
(RPCPA)
30. The mechanical process of recording transactions and events on the books of
accounts in a chronological sequence in accordance with established
accounting rules and procedures
a. summarizing b. reporting c. journalization d. classification
(RPCPA)
31. The appropriate book of account in which the receipt of a cash dividend is
recorded
a. purchases journal c. cash receipts journal
b. sales journal d. general journal
(RPCPA)

I. A general journal entry having two debits and a credit is a simple entry.
II. Account numbers are entered in the posting reference column of the two-
column general journal at the time the transactions are recorded in the
journal.
III. One of the purposes of the ledger is to record the complete effect of the
transaction in one place.
IV. A list of all the accounts of a specific business enterprise is referred to as a
ledger.
V. When special journals are designed and adopted correctly, there is no
need for the general journal.
a. I, III, IV b. II, V c. II, IV d. none
Trial balance
33. This is prepared in order to prove the equality of the debits and credits in the
ledger after the closing process.
a. Trial balance c. chart of accounts
b. Worksheet d. post-closing trial balance
34. The post-closing trial balance contains

a. nominal, real, and mixed accounts c. real and mixed accounts
b. real and nominal accounts d. real accounts only

a. Bad debts recovered account, if having an income tax benefit, is
transferred to profit or loss summary account
b. Bill of exchange is drawn by the purchaser
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c. Trial balance establishes the arithmetical accuracy of the accounting

records
d. A well maintained asset need not be depreciated
e. Drawing of goods by the owner is to be debited to profit or loss summary
account.
(Adapted)
36. The trial balance:

a. Is a formal financial statement.
b. Is used to prove that there are no errors in the journal or ledger.
c. Provides a listing of every account in the chart of accounts.
d. Provides a listing of the balance of each account in active use.
(Adapted)
37. Which of the following errors will be disclosed in the preparation of a trial
balance?
a. Recording transactions in the wrong account.
b. Duplication of a transaction in the accounting records.
c. Posting only the debit portion of a particular journal entry.
d. Recording the wrong amount for a transaction to both the account debited
and the account credited.
(Adapted)
38. An error which is disclosed by trial balance

a. account omitted from trial balance
b. journal entry not posted
c. omission of journal entry
d. error of transposition in posting one side of a journal entry
(RPCPA)
39. Which of these errors would be disclosed by the trial balance?

a. check of P95 from Pedro Cruz entered in Pedro’s account as P59.
b. selling expenses debited to the sales account.
c. credit sales of P300 entered in both the double entry account as P30.
d. a purchase of P250 was omitted entirely from the books.
(RPCPA)
40. Which of the following errors would cause unequal totals in the trial balance?
a. the firm records P2,100 received from a customer in advance of delivery
of goods as a debit of P100 to Cash and a credit of P2,100 to Sales
b. the firm fails to enter the cost of the electric current used during the
month as an expense and fails to recognize the P2,200 owed to Meralco
c. all these errors will cause unequal trial balance totals
d. none of these errors will cause unequal trial balance totals
(RPCPA)
Adjusting entries
41. Which of the following statements about adjusting entries is/are correct?
I. Every adjusting entry impacts both a balance sheet and a statement of
profit or loss and other comprehensive income account.
II. Every adjusting entry impacts comprehensive income.
III. If only year-end financial reports are prepared for both external and
internal users then adjusting entries need only to be prepared once a year.
IV. Adjusting entries are necessitated by the accrual basis accounting. If an
entity uses the pure cash basis of accounting, there is no need for
adjusting entries.
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a. I, II, III, IV b. I, II, III c. I, II, IV d. II, III, IV
42. These are entries made at the end of the accounting period to update certain
amounts so that they reflect correct balances at the designated time.
43. Theoretically, adjusting entries fall into these broad classes

a. deferred items and accrued items
b. deferred items, accrued items and reclassification items
c. deferred items, accrued items and client adjustments
d. deferred items, accrued items, reclassification items, current period
correcting items and prior period correcting items
44. Deferred items consist of these types of adjusting entries

a. asset/ expense adjustments, liability/revenue adjustments, asset/revenue
adjustments, and liability/expense adjustments
b. asset/ expense adjustments and liability/revenue adjustments
c. asset/revenue adjustments and liability/expense adjustments
d. asset/liability adjustments, liability/equity adjustments, asset/ equity
adjustments, asset/ expense adjustments, and liability/revenue
adjustments
45. Accrued items consist of these types of adjusting entries

a. asset/ expense adjustments, liability/income adjustments, asset/income
adjustments, and liability/expense adjustments
b. asset/ expense adjustments and liability/income adjustments
c. asset/income adjustments and liability/expense adjustments
d. asset/liability adjustments, liability/equity adjustments, asset/ equity
adjustments, asset/ expense adjustments, and liability/income
adjustments
46. In accounting, it means to postpone or delay

a. defer b. accrue c. procrastinate d. a or c
47. In accounting, it means to grow or accumulate

a. defer b. accrue c. germinate d. a or c
48. Consist of adjusting entries involving data previously recorded in accounts

a. deferred items c. procrastinated items
b. accrued items d. a or c
49. Consist of adjusting entries relating to activity on which no data have been
previously recorded in the accounts
a. deferred items c. procrastinated items
b. accrued items d. a or c
50. Deferred items

a. involve the initial, or first, recording of assets and liabilities and the
related revenues and expenses or the transfer of data already recorded in
asset and liability accounts to expense and revenue accounts, respectively
b. involve the reconciling of records to conform to Mr. Auditor’s materiality
threshold
c. involve the initial, or first, recording of assets and liabilities and the
related revenues and expenses
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d. involve the transfer of data already recorded in asset and liability

accounts to expense and revenue accounts, respectively
51. Accrued items

a. involve the initial, or first, recording of assets and liabilities and the
related revenues and expenses or the transfer of data already recorded in
asset and liability accounts to expense and revenue accounts, respectively
b. involve the reconciling of records to conform to Mr. Auditor’s materiality
threshold
c. involve the initial, or first, recording of assets and liabilities and the
related revenues and expenses
d. involve the transfer of data already recorded in asset and liability
accounts to expense and revenue accounts, respectively
52. Periodic reporting and the matching principle necessitate the preparation of
a. journal entries c. adjusting entries
b. dramatic entries d. no ID, no entry
53. Receiving assets before they are earned creates a liability called
a. unearned assets c. unearned revenue
b. deferred assets d. accrued revenue
54. Accrued expense accounts are presented as

a. Assets b. Liabilities c. Equity d. Contra-equity accounts
55. Accrued income accounts are presented as

a. Assets b. Liabilities c. Equity d. Contra-equity accounts
56. Employees’ taxes not yet paid to the BIR as of reporting date should be
credited to which account
a. income tax payable c. withholding tax payable
b. output tax d. deferred tax liability
57. Adjusting entries reversed

a. depletion adjustments c. accrued expenses
b. bad debt adjustments d. inventory adjustments
(RPCPA)
58. A prepaid expense

a. paid and not currently matched with earnings
b. not paid and currently matched with earnings
c. paid and currently matched with earnings
d. not paid and not matched with earnings
(RPCPA)
59. The premium on a three-year insurance policy expiring on December 31, year
3, was paid in total on January 1, year 1. Assuming that the original payment
was recorded as a prepaid asset, how would each of the following be affected
in year 3? (Item #1) Prepaid Asset; (Item #2) Expenses
a. decrease, increase c. no change, increase
b. decrease, no change d. no change, no change
(Adapted)
60. The accrued balance in a revenue account represents an amount which is:
a. earned and collected c. not earned or collected
b. earned and not collected d. not earned but collected
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(RPCPA)
61. Which one of the following assets is similar to certain current assets, but is
not one?
a. Accounts receivable
b. Prepaid insurance
c. long term payment of expenses
d. short-term investment in equity security
(Adapted)
62. The premium on a three (3) year insurance policy was paid in total on January
1, 1989. Upon payment, Prepaid Asset Account was debited. The appropriate
journal entry has been recorded on December 31, therefore the balance of
Prepaid Asset Account should be:
a. higher, if the original payment had been debited initially to an expense
account
b. the same as the original payment
c. the same even if the original payment had been debited initially to an
expense account
d. no balance
(RPCPA)
63. An adjusting entry for revenue collected in advance, which was initially
credited to a revenue account will:
a. decrease liabilities
b. increase assets
c. decrease the balance in the revenue account
d. increase equity
Preparation of financial statements

64. These are the means by which the information accumulated and processed in
financial accounting is periodically communicated to the users.
a. financial statements c. trial balance
b. worksheet d. management reports
65. Based on which of the following concepts, is share capital account shown on
the liability side of statement of financial position?
a. Dual-side concept c. Cost concept
b. Money measurement concept d. Business entity concept
(Adapted)
66. While preparing the worksheet, the accountant made the following entry:
Debit Income Summary Account and Credit Inventory – beginning. This entry
can be properly termed as a(n)
a. Adjusting entry c. Closing entry
b. Reclassification entry d. Correcting entry
67. While preparing the worksheet, the accountant made the following entry:
Debit Inventory – ending and Credit Income Summary. This entry can be
properly termed as a(n)
a. Adjusting entry c. Closing entry
b. Reclassification entry d. Correcting entry

I. Another name for the balance sheet is statement of changes in financial
position.
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II. The balance sheet heading will specify a Period of time.

III. An acceptable heading for a balance sheet is:
ABC Corporation
Statement of financial position
For the Year Ended December 31, 20x1
IV. In a manual bookkeeping system, transactions are first recorded in a trial
balance.
V. A journal entry includes the date, account titles, and amounts.
a. I and V b. I , IV and V c. V only d. I, II and V
69. After the revenues for an accounting period have been determined, the costs
directly or indirectly associated with these revenues must be deducted to
measure net income. This is called
a. Income statement preparation c. Matching process
b. Profit and loss preparation d. Bookkeeping process
(RPCPA)
70. Totaling the columns of a columnar journal and proving the equality of the
totals is called
a. totaling and balancing c. totaling and cross footing
b. footing and cross footing d. footing and balancing
(RPCPA)
Closing entries
71. These are entries prepared at the end of the accounting period to “zero out”
all temporary accounts in the ledger.
a. adjusting entries c. reversing entries
b. closing entries d. reclassification entries

a. Equity is reduced by outside borrowings
b. When there is no change in equity, it is an indication of loss in the business
c. Nominal account refers to the exchange transactions
d. Real accounts relate to the accounts found in the post-closing trial balance
e. Bills payable is a nominal account

I. The formal process by which all nominal accounts are reduced to zero and
the profit or loss is determined and transferred to an equity account is
called closing entries
II. Post-closing is the process of transferring the essential facts and figures
from the book of original entry to the ledger accounts.
III. A trial balance taken immediately after reversing entries have been posted
is designated as a post-closing trial balance.
IV. Adjusting entries are made at the beginning of an accounting period to
bring all accounts up to date on an accrual accounting basis so that correct
financial statements can be prepared.
V. The chart of accounts is a list of all open accounts in the ledger and their
balances.
VI. Various amounts are transferred to the ledger from the book of original
entry
a. VI b. I, VI c. I, III, V, VI d. all of the statements are correct
74. Amounts transferred to income summary represent

a. increases and decreases in owner`s equity
b. all the expenses of a company
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c. the asset balance of a company

d. increases and decreases in owners’ equity not directly recognized in
equity
75. After the closing process

a. all accounts have zero balances
b. all accounts have the prior period ending balance
c. temporary accounts have zero balances
d. all accruals and deferred items are reversed
76. Which of the following is likely to be an incorrect closing entry?

a. debit dividends, credit retained earnings
b. debit sales revenue, credit income summary
c. debit income summary, credit rent expense
d. debit income summary, credit retained earnings
(RPCPA)
77. The effect of the closing entries is to:

a. change assets
b. change liabilities
c. change retained earnings
d. change the debit balances of all accounts into credits and vice versa
(Adapted)
78. Which of the following is an example of a closing entry?

a. Posting the ending inventory balance in a perpetual inventory system
b. Transferring an amount entered in a wrong account to the appropriate
account
c. Transferring the balance in the bad debt expense account to the income
summary account
d. Transferring the balance in a temporary account to a contra account
Reversing entries
79. When reversing entries are made, the beginning balance of a nominal account
is
a. the amount in the adjusting entry that was reversed
b. the opposite balance representing the amount in the reversing entry
c. either a debit or credit balance depending on the effect of the adjusting
and reversing entries
d. always zero regardless of whether or not a reversing entry is made
80. Which of the following adjusting entries may a reversing entry be used?
a. debit insurance expense, credit prepaid insurance
b. debit interest receivable, credit interest income
c. debit unearned rental income, credit rental income
d. debit depreciation expense, credit accumulated depreciation
(RPCPA)
Comprehensive
I. Every adjusting entry affects both a balance sheet and a statement of
profit or loss and other comprehensive income account.
II. The company has earned an income for the period if a credit is needed to
close the income summary account.
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III. If a company reports profit for the year, this amount will be shown on the
worksheet as a balancing figure in the income statement debit column and
in the balance sheet credit column.
IV. The income summary account reveals that an operating loss of P800 has
been incurred. Before closing entries are posted, the owner’s drawing
account shows a balance of P460. The entry to close the income summary
account is a debit of P340 to the owner’s capital account and a credit of
P340 to the income summary account.
V. Entering adjustments in the adjustments column of a worksheet makes it
unnecessary to record and post adjusting entries.
a. I, III b. I, II, III c. II, III, IV d. I, III, IV, V

a. Deferred charges are distinguished from prepaid expenses on the basis of
the time over which their benefits will be realized.
b. Working capital is a very useful measure because it reveals how much
would be left if all the assets were to be sold and the proceeds were used
to pay all the current liabilities.
c. The normal operating cycle of a business is the average length of the time
from cash expenditure, to inventory, to sale and back to accounts
receivable.
d. Retained earnings often is restricted (or appropriated) to ensure that cash
will be available for plant expansion. When retained earnings is restricted,
the cash appropriated cannot be spent.
83. Choose the correct statement

a. A worksheet is not a part of the basic accounting records of the entity
b. No adjusting entries should be necessary for the inventory account if the
periodic inventory system is used
c. Examples of accrued expenses include wages payable and depreciation
expense
d. Accrued items are those of which recognition of the related revenue of
expense occurs in an accounting period after the entity pays or receives
cash, respectively

a. The income statement and the balance sheet reflect the internal events of
a company; the information included in the footnotes refers to external
events only
b. A post-closing trial balance has balances in the temporary accounts
c. Income summary is a clearing or suspense account that is often used to
hold the balances of revenue and expense accounts ; its balance is closed
to the retained earnings account only
d. Financial statements cannot be prepared properly until adjusting entries
are posted to the ledger
(Adapted)

a. The use of a general journal implies that there is no need for special
journals
b. Each subsidiary ledger has a related control account in the general journal
c. Assume a company always records deferred expenses as assets upon
payment of cash, and deferred revenues as liabilities upon receipt of cash.
If this company records reversing entries, generally only adjusting entries
for accrued expenses and accrued revenues should be reversed
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d. All entries in the general journal are supported by details contained in the
special journals.
86. Which of the following statements is false?

I. The chart of accounts is a listing of the accounts presently having balances
in the general ledger.
II. Some accounting software classifies some accounts as "income" accounts,
while accountants might refer to these accounts as "revenue" accounts.
III. The digits of the account numbers assigned to general ledger accounts
often have significance. For example, an account number beginning with a
"1" might signify that the account is an asset account; a "6" might signify
an operating expense, etc.
IV. In addition to the standard chart of accounts for a specific industry, you
will likely want to expand and/or modify the chart of accounts to fit your
business. One tool that would be helpful in determining the accounts for
your company would be your company's organization chart.
a. I b. I, IV c. I, II, IV d. II, III
(Adapted)

I. In a manual bookkeeping system, each amount in a journal is posted to an
account.
II. Invoices from vendors (suppliers) which are due in 30 days should be
credited to Accounts Receivable.
III. A company's Special ledger contains all of the accounts such as Rent
Expense, Supplies, and Interest Payable.
IV. Historically, the final step of the bookkeeper's responsibilities was to
prepare a trial balance.
V. An internal document that is prepared to prove that the total of all the
debit balances is equal to the total of all the credit balances is a trial
balance.
a. I, IV, V b. I, II, IV, V c. I, V d. I, II, III, IV, V
(Adapted)

a. The post-closing trial balance is prepared immediately after all
adjustments have been journalized and posted.
b. There will be no change in the transactions that had previously been
recorded in the general journal after special journals are adopted.
c. If the balance in the income summary account is a credit balance, this
means the firm has earned profit of this amount.
d. The purpose of the income summary account is to summarize all income
and expenses during the period in one account.

a. Expense accounts usually have a debit balance and show the cost
associated with producing revenue during an accounting period.
b. Transactions often overlap accounting periods.
c. All sales journals have a single column which is posted as a debit to
accounts receivables and as a credit to sales.
d. If the accounts receivable control account agrees with the total of its
subsidiary ledger, there can be no errors in the subsidiary ledger.
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a. If the accountant mistakenly places a revenue account balance in the

balance sheet credit column instead of the income statement credit
column of the worksheet, the worksheet columns will still balance.
b. The closing entries necessary under the periodic and perpetual inventory
methods do not differ because all expenses and revenues must be closed
just the same.
c. A partnership's profit is eventually recorded in the retained earnings
account.
d. If an entity’s expenses are greater than its revenue, the owner’s equity is
increased.

a. The accounting cycle is in line with the application of the periodicity
concept.
b. The effect of adjusting entries to accrue revenues is always an increase in
assets and a corresponding increase in equity.
c. Closing the books means charging the retained earnings account and/or
applicable equity accounts with the temporary accounts.
d. The listing of all of the accounts available for use in a company's
accounting system is known as the trial balance.
92. If debits do not equal credits, the first step to find the error is to
a. call your manager and ask for advice
b. add the debit and credit columns again
c. review the journal entries for errors
d. make correcting entries rather than adjusting entries
(Adapted)
93. If the Balance Sheet columns of the worksheet do not balance, the error is
most likely to exist in the:
a. General journal. c. Last six columns of the work sheet.
b. General ledger. d. First six columns of the work sheet.
(Adapted)
94. Assume an enterprise initially records prepayments in balance sheet accounts

and makes reversing entries when appropriate. Which of the following year-
end adjusting entries should be reversed?
a. The entry to record depreciation expense for the period
b. The entry to record the portion of service fees received in advance that is
earned by year-end
c. The entry to record supplies used during the period
d. The entry to record service fees earned by year-end but not billed
(Adapted)
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1. B 16. E 31. C 46. A 61. C 76. A 91. D
2. C 17. A 32. C 47. B 62. C 77. C 92. B
3. D 18. C 33. D 48. A 63. C 78. C 93. C
4. B 19. A 34. D 49. B 64. A 79. D 94. D
5. B 20. A 35. C 50. D 65. D 80. B
6. C 21. D 36. D 51. C 66. C 81. A
7. C 22. A 37. C 52. C 67. A 82. A
8. C 23. C 38. D 53. C 68. C 83. A
9. B 24. C 39. A 54. B 69. A 84. C
10. A 25. C 40. A 55. A 70. B 85. C
11. B 26. B 41. A 56. C 71. B 86. A
12. B 27. A 42. B 57. C 72. D 87. A
13. B 28. B 43. A 58. A 73. A 88. A
14. C 29. A 44. B 59. A 74. D 89. D
15. B 30. C 45. C 60. B 75. C 90. A
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Chapter 3
The Conceptual Framework for Financial
Reporting

Profit or loss
1. The following information pertains to Arones Co. for the year.
Net assets, Jan.1, 20x1 1,008,480
Net assets, Dec. 31. 20x1 2,112,960
Share capital issued in 20x1 335,520
Dividends declared in 20x1 195,120
How much is the profit (loss)?

a. 964,800 b. 573,840 c. 964,080 d. 674,040
Net change in net assets

2. The following information shows the changes in the account balances of
Manuel, Inc. during 20x1.
Increase (Decrease)
Cash (312,000)
Accounts receivable 3,432,000
Allowance for bad debts 343,200
Inventory (2,496,000)
Investment in associate 1,820,000
Property, plant and equipment 2,860,000
Accumulated depreciation (1,664,000)
Accounts payable (2,340,000)
Bonds payable 3,458,000
Discount on bonds payable 741,000
Share capital 3,744,000
Share premium 416,000
Revaluation surplus 2,800,000
Treasury shares 332,800
Cash dividends declared during 20x1 amounted to ₱5,400,000, share dividends

declared amounted to ₱400,000, and appropriations of retained earnings for the
retirement of bonds amounted to ₱100,000.
How much is the profit (loss) for the year?

a. 2,379,000 b. 5,020,600 c. 5,520,600 d. 5,420,600
Net change in net assets

3. The following are the changes in the accounts of Maurice Co. during the
period:
Accounts receivable 240,000 increase
Prepaid assets 600,000 increase
Inventory 1,500,000 decrease
Notes payable 800,000 decrease
Additional information:
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During the year, Maurice Co. obtained a bank loan of ₱2,000,000 and paid interest
of ₱100,000. Interest of ₱80,000 is accrued on December 31, 20x1. Interest
payable at the end of 20x0 amounted to ₱120,000. In 20x1, a shareholder
donated an equipment with historical cost of ₱1,000,000 and carrying amount of
₱800,000 to Maurice Co. The fair value of the equipment is ₱600,000. Maurice
declared dividends in 20x1 of ₱160,000.
How much is the profit (loss) for the year?

a. 1,380,000 b. (2,460,000) c. (2,340,000) d. (2,260,000)


Purpose and status
1. What is the authoritative status of the Conceptual Framework?
a. It has the highest level of authority. In case of a conflict between the
Conceptual Framework and a Standard or Interpretation, the Conceptual
Framework overrides the Standard or Interpretation.
b. If there is a Standard or Interpretation that specifically applies to a
transaction, it overrides the Conceptual Framework. In the absence of a
Standard or an Interpretation that specifically applies, the Conceptual
Framework should be followed.
c. If there is a Standard or Interpretation that specifically applies to a
transaction, it overrides the Conceptual Framework. In the absence of a
Standard or an Interpretation that specifically applies to a transaction,
management should consider the applicability of the Conceptual
Framework in developing and applying an accounting policy that will
result in information that is relevant and reliable.
d. The Conceptual Framework applies only when IASB develops new or
revised Standards. An entity is never required to consider the Conceptual
Framework.
(Adapted)
2. The FRSC recognizes that in a limited number of cases there may be a conflict
between the Conceptual Framework and a Philippine Financial Reporting
Standard. In those cases where there is a conflict,
a. the requirements of the Philippine Financial Reporting Standard prevail
over those of the Conceptual Framework
b. the requirements of the Conceptual Framework prevail over those of the
Philippine Financial Reporting Standard
c. the professional judgment of the accountant should prevail and this may
necessitate disclosure in the notes.
d. the provisions of standards issued by FASB will prevail
(Adapted)
3. Financial statements are most commonly prepared in accordance with an

accounting model based on
a. Recoverable historical cost and the nominal financial capital maintenance
concept
b. Recoverable historical cost and the physical capital maintenance concept
c. Fair value and the nominal financial capital maintenance concept
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d. Either recoverable historical cost and fair value and either nominal
financial or physical capital concept
4. Choose the incorrect statement.

a. The IASB recognizes that governments, in particular, may specify different
or additional requirements for their own purposes. These requirements
should not, however, affect financial statements published for the benefit
of other users unless they also meet the needs of those other users.
b. In conjunction with choice (a), when there are conflicts between local
legislation and the IASB framework or standards, the framework and
standards should prevail over the local legislation.
c. Financial statements are most commonly prepared in accordance with an
accounting model based on recoverable historical cost and the nominal
financial capital maintenance concept.
d. Other models and concepts may be more appropriate in order to meet the
objective of providing information that is useful for making economic
decisions although there is presently no consensus for change. The
Conceptual Framework has been developed so that it is applicable to a
range of accounting models and concepts of capital and capital
maintenance.
5. The purpose of the Philippine Conceptual Framework is to:

I. Assist the Financial Reporting Standards Council (FRSC) in developing
accounting standards that represent generally accepted accounting
principles in the Philippines
II. Assist the Board of IASC in the development of future International
Accounting Standards and in its review of existing International
Accounting Standards
III. Assist the Board of IASC in promoting harmonization of regulations,
accounting standards and procedures relating to the presentation of
financial statements by providing a basis for reducing the number of
alternative accounting treatments permitted by International Accounting
Standards;
IV. Assist the FRSC in its review and adoption of existing International
Accounting Standards
V. Assist preparers of financial statements in applying FRSC financial
reporting standards and in dealing with topics that have yet to form the
subject of an FRSC standard
VI. Assist auditors in forming an opinion as to whether financial statements
conform with Philippine generally accepted accounting principles
VII. Assist users of financial statements in interpreting the information
contained in financial statements prepared in conformity with Philippine
generally accepted accounting standards
VIII. Provide those who are interested in the work of FRSC with information
about its approach to the formulation of Financial Reporting Standards.
a. I, II, III, IV c. IV, V, VI, VII, VII
b. I, IV, V, VI, VII, VIII d. all of the above
6. All of the following statements incorrectly refer to the Conceptual Framework

except
a. The Conceptual Framework sets out the concepts that underlie the
preparation and presentation of financial statements for external and
internal users.
b. The Conceptual Framework is an integral part of the Philippine Financial
Reporting Standard and hence defines standards for any particular
measurement or disclosure issue.
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c. The FRSC recognizes that in a limited number of cases there may be a

conflict between the framework and a Philippine Financial Reporting
Standards. In those cases where there is a conflict, the requirements of the
framework prevail over those of the Philippine Financial Reporting
Standard.
d. As the FRSC will be guided by the framework in the development of future
Statements and in its review of existing Statements, the number of cases of
conflict between the framework and Philippine Financial Reporting
Standards will diminish through time.
e. Unlike for the various PASs and PFRSs, the framework, as a solid
foundation and a model, will not be revised from time to time on the basis
of the FRSC's experience of working with it.
7. The Scope of the framework includes all of the following except

a. The objective of financial statements
b. The qualitative characteristics that determine the usefulness of
information in financial statements
c. The underlying and implicit assumptions governing the preparation and
presentation of financial statements
d. The definition, recognition and measurement of the elements from which
financial statements are constructed
e. Concepts of capital and capital maintenance
8. All of the following statements incorrectly refer to the Conceptual Framework

except
a. The framework is concerned with all-purpose financial statements
including consolidated financial statements.
b. Financial statements are prepared and presented at least annually and are
directed toward the common and specific information needs of a wide
range of users.
c. Prospectuses and computations prepared for taxation purposes are
outside the scope of the framework.
d. Financial statements may also include supplementary schedules and
information based on or derived from, and expected to be read with, such
statements. Financial statements include such items as reports by
directors’ statements by the chairman, discussion and analysis by
management and similar items that may be included in a financial or
annual report.
e. The framework applies to the financial statements of all commercial,
industrial and business reporting entities, but only for the private sector.
9. An entity for which there are users who rely on its financial statements as
their major source of financial information about the entity.
a. publicly listed entity c. reporting entity
b. publicly accountable entity d. small or medium-sized entity
10. The primary users of financial statements under the Conceptual Framework
include
I. Existing and potential investors
II. Employees
III. Lenders and other creditors
IV. Suppliers and other trade creditors
V. Customers
VI. Governments and their agencies
VII. Public
VIII. Professional accountants, including auditors
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a. I, III c. I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII

b. I, II, III, IV, V, VI d. all of the above
11. These refer to the providers of risk capital, including their advisers, who are
concerned with the risk inherent in, and return provided by, their
investments. They need information to help them determine whether they
should buy, hold or sell. They are also interested in information which enables
them to assess the ability of the entity to pay dividends.
a. investors c. stakeholders
b. shareholders d. public
12. They are interested in information that enables them to determine whether
their loans, and the interest attaching to them, will be paid when due.
a. investors b. lenders c. suppliers d. public
13. They are interested in information that enables them to determine whether
amounts owing to them will be paid when due. They are likely to be
interested in an entity over a shorter period than lenders unless they are
dependent upon the continuation of the entity as a major customer.
a. investors b. lenders c. suppliers d. public

a. All of the information needs of users can be met by financial statements
because there are needs which are common to all users.
b. The accountant/ controller of an entity has the primary responsibility for
the preparation and presentation of the financial statements of the entity.
c. Management is also interested in the information contained in the
financial statements even though it has no access to additional
management and financial information that helps it carry out its planning,
decision-making and control responsibilities.
d. Management has the ability to determine the form and content of
additional information in order to meet its own needs. The reporting of
such information is within the scope of the framework.
e. Published financial statements are based on the information used by
management about the financial position, performance and changes in
financial position of the entity.
Objective of financial statements

15. The foundation of the Conceptual Framework is formed from
a. The qualitative characteristics that makes information useful to users
b. The objective of general purpose financial reporting
c. The concept of reporting entity
d. The various measurement requirements which results to fair presented
financial information
16. What is the objective of financial statements according to the Conceptual

Framework?
a. To provide information about the financial position, performance, and
changes in financial position of an entity that is useful to a wide range of
users in making economic decisions.
b. To prepare and present a balance sheet, an income statement, a cash flow
statement, and a statement of changes in equity.
c. To prepare and present comparable, relevant, reliable, and
understandable information to investors and creditors.
d. To prepare financial statements in accordance with all applicable
Standards and Interpretations.
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(Adapted)
17. Which of the following statements correctly relates to the provisions of the
Conceptual Framework?
a. Financial statements are prepared and presented at least annually and are
directed toward the common information needs of a limited range of
users.
b. Financial statements do not include items such as reports by directors,
statements by the chairman, discussion and analysis by management and
similar items that may be included in a financial or annual report.
c. The Conceptual Framework applies only to the financial statements of all
commercial, industrial and business reporting entities, which are in the
private sector.
d. Special purpose financial reports, for example, prospectuses and
computations prepared for taxation purposes, are within the scope of the
Conceptual Framework.
18. Which of the following statements correctly relates to the provisions of the
a. Financial statements do not form part of the process of financial reporting.
b. The statement of changes in financial position may be presented in a
variety of ways such as classified or unclassified statement of financial
position.
c. All of the information needs of users cannot be met by financial
statements.
d. The shareholders of an entity have the primary responsibility for the
preparation and presentation of the financial statements of the entity.
19. Which of the following statements incorrectly relates to the provisions of the
Conceptual Framework regarding the use of financial information by an
entity’s management?
a. Management is also interested in the information contained in the
financial statements even though it has access to additional management
and financial information that helps it carry out its planning, decision-
making and control responsibilities.
b. Management has the ability to determine the form and content of such
additional information in order to meet its own needs.
c. The reporting of information for internal use of management is beyond
the scope of the Conceptual Framework.
d. Published financial statements are not based on the information used by
management about the financial position, performance and changes in
financial position of the entity.
20. Who has the primary responsibility for the preparation and presentation of
the financial statements of an entity?
a. shareholders c. management
b. board of directors d. accountant
21. The objective of financial statements is

a. to provide information about the financial position, performance and
changes in financial position of an entity that is useful to a limited range of
users in making economic decisions.
b. to provide information that meets the common needs of all users
c. to provide information that meets the common needs of most users
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d. to provide information about the financial position, performance and

changes in financial position of an entity that is useful for managing day-
to-day operations.
22. The following statements relate to the objective of financial statements,

except
a. The objective of financial statements is to provide information about the
financial position, performance and changes in financial position of an
entity that is useful to a wide range of users in making economic decisions.
b. Financial statements prepared for a wide range of users meet the common
needs of most users.
c. Financial statements provide all the information that users may need to
make economic decisions since they largely portray the financial effects of
past events and do not necessarily provide non-financial information.
d. Financial statements also show the results of the stewardship of
management, or the accountability of management for the resources
entrusted to it. Those users who wish to assess the stewardship or
accountability of management do so in order that they may make
economic decisions; these decisions may include, for example, whether to
hold or sell their investment in the entity or whether to reappoint or
replace the management.
23. All of the following correctly relate to the provisions of the Conceptual
Framework, except
a. Financial statements do not provide all the information that users may
need to make economic decisions since they largely portray the financial
effects of past events and do not necessarily provide non-financial
information.
b. The economic decisions that are taken by users of financial statements
require an evaluation of the ability of an entity to generate cash and cash
equivalents and of the timing and certainty of their generation.
c. The income statement provides an incomplete picture of performance
unless it is used in conjunction with the balance sheet and the other
financial statements.
d. According to the Conceptual Framework, the underlying assumptions are
accrual basis of accounting and going concern and the implicit
assumptions are accounting entity, periodicity and stable monetary
concept.
24. The financial position of an entity is affected by all of the following, except
a. the economic resources it controls
b. its performance
c. its liquidity and solvency
d. its capacity to adapt to changes in the environment
e. its financial structure
25. Users are better able to evaluate an entity’s ability to generate cash and cash
equivalents if they are provided with information that focuses on the entity’s
a. financial position c. cash flows
b. performance d. a, b and c
26. When the going concern becomes inappropriate such as when liquidation
becomes imminent, the assets of an entity should be shown on the balance
sheet at their
a. historical cost c. fair value
b. realizable value d. current cost
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27. This information is useful in predicting future borrowing needs and how
future profits and cash flows will be distributed among those with an interest
in the entity; it is also useful in predicting how successful the entity is likely to
be in raising further finance.
a. economic resources c. liquidity and solvency
b. financial structure d. performance
28. This information is useful in predicting the ability of the entity to meet its
financial commitments as they fall due
29. This information is required in order to assess potential changes in the

economic resources that an entity is likely to control in the future.
30. This information is useful in predicting the capacity of the entity to generate
cash flows from its existing resource base. It is also useful in forming
judgments about the effectiveness with which the entity might employ
additional resources.
31. This information is useful in assessing an entity’s its investing, financing and
operating activities during the reporting period.
a. economic resources c. cash flows
32. Financial statements are prepared and presented for external users by many
entities around the world. Although such financial statements may appear
similar from country to country, there are differences which have probably
been caused by a variety of social, economic and legal circumstances and by
different countries having in mind the needs of different users of financial
statements when setting national requirements. These different
circumstances have led/ resulted to all of the following except
a. use of a variety of definitions of the elements of financial statements; that
is, for example, assets, liabilities, equity, income and expenses.
b. use of different criteria for the recognition of items in the financial
statements and in a preference for different bases of measurement.
c. different audit opinions resulting to various losses, litigations and
differences in audit standards
d. differences in the scope of the financial statements and the disclosures
made in them.
(Adapted)
33. Nearly all users of financial statements are making economic decisions which
include the following
I. decide when to buy, hold or sell an equity investment
II. assess the stewardship or accountability of management
III. assess the ability of the entity to pay and provide other benefits to its
employees
IV. assess the security for amounts lent to the entity
V. determine taxation policies
VI. determine distributable profits and dividends
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VII. prepare and use national income statistics

VIII. regulate the activities of entities
State how many items are correctly included in the list.
a. 4 to 5 b. 5 to 6 c. 6 to 7 d. all items are correctly included
34. When determining how liquid a company is which ratio best provides the
indication?
a. Debt to worth ratio c. Inventory turnover
b. Dupont ratio d. Current ratio
(Adapted)
35. Which is the best ratio indicator for the solvency of a company?
a. Cash flow to debt c. Current ratio
b. Return of average assets d. Debt to equity ratio
(Adapted)
36. The financial position of an entity is affected by

I. the economic resources it controls
II. its financial structure
III. its liquidity and solvency
IV. its capacity to adapt to changes
a. I, II b. I, II, III c. I, II, III, IV d. II, III, IV
37. It refers to the availability of cash in the near future after taking account of
financial commitments over this period.
a. Financial structure c. Solvency
b. Liquidity d. Performance
38. It refers to the availability of cash over the longer term to meet financial
commitments as they fall due.
a. Financial structure c. Solvency
b. Liquidity d. Performance
39. The following statements relate to the objective of financial statements except
a. Information about financial structure is useful in predicting future
borrowing needs and how future profits and cash flows will be distributed
among those with an interest in the entity; it is also useful in predicting
how successful the entity is likely to be in raising further finance.
b. Information about liquidity and solvency is useful in predicting the ability
of the entity to meet its financial commitments as they fall due.
c. Information about the performance of an entity, in particular its
profitability is required in order to assess potential changes in the
economic resources that it is likely to control in the future.
d. Information about performance is useful in predicting the capacity of the
entity to generate revenues but not cash flows from its existing resource
base. It is also useful in forming judgments about the effectiveness with
which the entity might employ additional resources.
e. Information concerning changes in the financial position of an entity is
useful in order to assess its investing, financing and operating activities
during the reporting period. This information is useful in providing the
user with a basis to assess the ability of the entity to generate cash and
cash equivalents and the needs of the entity to utilize those cash flows.
40. Information about financial position is primarily provided in a(n)

a. Statement of financial position
b. Statement of profit or loss and other comprehensive income
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c. Statement of cash flows

d. Statement of changes in equity
41. Information about performance is primarily provided in a(n)

a. Statement of financial position
b. Statement of profit or loss and other comprehensive income
c. Statement of cash flows
d. Statement of changes in equity
42. Information about changes in financial position is provided in the financial

statements
a. through the statement of cash flows
b. through the statement of changes in equity
c. by means of a separate statement
d. all of the above
43. The following relate to the elements of the financial statements which include
(1) elements directly related to the measurement of financial position and (2)
elements directly related to measurement of profit. Which of the following
statements is correctly stated?
I. An asset is a resource controlled by the entity as a result of past events
and from which future economic benefits are expected to flow to the
entity.
II. A liability is a present obligation of the entity arising from past events, the
settlement of which is expected to result in an outflow from the entity of
resources embodying economic benefits.
III. Equity is the residual interest in the assets of the entity after deducting all
its liabilities.
IV. Income is increases in economic benefits during the accounting period in
the form of inflows or enhancements of assets or decreases of liabilities
that result in increases in equity, other than those relating to
contributions from equity participants.
V. Expenses are decreases in economic benefits during the accounting period
in the form of outflows or depletions of assets or incidences of liabilities
that result in decreases in equity, other than those relating to distributions
to equity participants.
a. I, II, III b. I, II, III, IV c. I, II, III, V d. I, II, III, IV, V
44. The future economic benefits embodied in an asset may flow to the entity in a
number of ways which include all of the following except
a. Used singly or in combination with other assets in the production of goods
or services to be sold by the entity
b. Exchanged for other assets
c. Used to settle a liability
d. Used to incur or replace an obligation with another obligation
e. Distributed to the owners of the entity
45. The settlement of a present obligation usually involves the entity giving up
resources embodying economic benefits in order to satisfy the claim of the
other party .Settlement of a present obligation may occur in a number of ways
which includes all of the following except
a. Payment of cash or transfer of other assets
b. Replacement of the obligation with another obligation
c. Provision of services
d. Conversion of the obligation to asset
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46. Choose the correct statement.

a. The amount at which equity is shown in the balance sheet is dependent on
the measurement of assets and liabilities.
b. Realization is the process of incorporating in the balance sheet or income
statement an item that meets the definition of an element and satisfies the
criteria for recognition set out in paragraph. It involves the depiction of
the item in words and by a monetary amount and the inclusion of that
amount in the balance sheet or income statement totals.
c. Items that satisfy the recognition criteria should be recognized in the
balance sheet or income statement. The failure to recognize such items is
rectified by disclosure of the accounting policies used or by notes or
explanatory material.
d. An item that meets the definition of an element should be recognized if:
(a) It is probable or reasonably possible that any future economic benefit
associated with the item will flow to or from the entity; and (b) The item
has a cost or value that can be measured with reliability.
e. In many cases, cost or value must be estimated; the use of reasonable
estimates is not an essential part of the preparation of financial
statements and undermines their reliability.
47. Measurement is the process of determining the monetary amounts at which

the elements of the financial statements are to be recognized and carried in
the balance sheet and income statement. This involves the selection of the
particular basis of measurement. A number of different measurement bases
are employed to different degrees and in varying combinations in financial
statements. The measurement bases enumerated in the Conceptual
Framework include all of the following except
a. Historical cost d. Present value
b. Current cost e. Fair Value
c. Realizable value
48. The measurement basis most commonly adopted by entities in preparing

their financial statements is
a. Historical cost c. Present Value
b. Fair value d. Current cost
49. According to the framework, certain assets are reported in financial

statements at the amount of cash or its equivalent that would have to be paid
if the same or equivalent assets were acquired currently. What is the name of
the reporting concept?
a. Replacement cost c. Historical cost
b. Current market value d. Net realizable value
(AICPA)
50. Historical cost is a measurement base currently used in financial accounting.

Which of the following measurement bases is also currently used in financial
accounting? (Item #1) Current selling price; (Item #2) Discounted cash flow;
(Item #3) Replacement cost
a. Yes, No, Yes c. Yes, No, No
b. Yes, Yes, Yes d. No, Yes, Yes
(AICPA)
51. When discussing asset valuation, the following valuation bases are sometimes
mentioned: replacement cost, exit value and discounted value. Which of these
bases should be considered a current value measure?
a. Replacement cost and exit value only
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b. Replacement cost and discounted cash

c. Exit value and discounted cash flow only
d. Replacement cost, exit value, and discounted cash flow
(AICPA)
52. Four types of money prices are used in measuring resources in financial
accounting. The type which uses such concepts as present value, discounted
cash flow and value in use is known as
a. Price in a current purchase exchange
b. Price in past purchase exchange
c. Price based on future exchange
d. Price in a current sale exchange
(AICPA)
53. The measurement basis most often used to report a long-term payable
representing a commitment to pay money at a determinable future date is
a. Historical cost. c. Net realizable value.
b. Current cost. d. Present value of future cash flows.
(AICPA)
54. The valuation basis used in conventional financial statement is

a. Replacement cost c. Original cost
b. Fair value d. A mixture of cost and value
(Adapted)
55. Imputing interest for certain assets and liabilities is primarily based on the
concept of
a. Valuation c. Consistency
b. Conservatism d. Stable monetary unit
(AICPA)
56. Questions raised by external users of accounting information include:

a. Will the entity be able to repay its loans?
b. What is the entity’s earning potential?
c. Is the business in a financially sound position?
d. All of the above
(Adapted)
Underlying assumption
57. Under the Conceptual Framework, the underlying assumption is
a. Relevance and reliability
b. Concepts of capital maintenance
c. Accrual basis and going concern
d. Going concern
58. It is assumed that the entity has neither the intention nor the need to
liquidate or curtail materially the scale of its operations; if such an intention
or need exists, the financial statements may have to be prepared on a
different basis and, if so, the basis used is disclosed.
a. Growing Concern c. Cash Basis
b. Accrual Basis d. Going Concern
59. The going concern assumption

a. means the entity will continue to exist forever
b. supports the valuation of assets using historical costs and fair values but
do not support valuation in a forced sale transaction.
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c. requires that capital expenditures be immediately recognized as expense

d. is always maintained by all entities
60. The assets of a liquidating entity should be shown on the balance sheet at
their
a. historical cost c. realizable value
b. fair value d. current cost
61. The valuation of a promise to receive cash in the future at present value on
the financial statements of a company is valid because of the accounting
concept of
a. Entity b. Materiality c. Going concern d. Neutrality
(Adapted)
Qualitative characteristics
62. These identify the types of information that are likely to be most useful to the
existing and potential investors, lenders and other creditors for making
decisions about the reporting entity on the basis of information in its financial
report (financial information)
a. Relevance and Faithful representation c. Qualitative characteristics
b. Fundamental qualitative characteristics d. Pervasive constraint
63. What are qualitative characteristics of financial statements according to the

a. Qualitative characteristics are the attributes that make the information
provided in financial statements useful to users.
b. Qualitative characteristics are broad classes of financial effects of
transactions and other events.
c. Qualitative characteristics are nonquantitative aspects of an entity’s
position and performance and changes in financial position.
d. Qualitative characteristics measure the extent to which an entity has
complied with all relevant Standards and Interpretations.
(Adapted)
64. Under the Conceptual Framework, qualitative characteristics are sub-

classified into
a. primary and secondary qualitative characteristics
b. major and minor qualitative characteristics
c. fundamental characteristics and those that enhance the usefulness of
financial information
d. not sub-classified
65. Identify the fundamental qualitative characteristics under the Conceptual

Framework.
I. Relevance
II. Reliability
III. Faithful representation
IV. Comparability
V. Verifiability
VI. Timeliness
VII. Understandability
a. I, II b. I, III c. I, II, III, IV, V, VI d. IV, V, VI, VII
66. Identify the qualitative characteristics that enhance the usefulness of financial
information.
I. Relevance
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II. Reliability
III. Faithful representation
IV. Comparability
V. Verifiability
VI. Timeliness
VII. Understandability
a. I, II b. I, III c. II, III, IV, V, VII d. IV, V, VI, VII
67. Which of the following are ingredients of relevance under the Conceptual
Framework?
I. Predictive value
II. Confirmatory value
III. Timeliness
IV. Materiality
a. I, II b. I, II, III c. I, II, IV d. I, II, III, IV
68. Which of the following are ingredients of faithful representation under the
I. Completeness
II. Neutrality
III. Free from error
IV. Reliability
a. I, II b. I, II, III c. I, II, IV d. I, II, III, IV
69. According to the Conceptual Framework, the predictive value of the income
statement is enhanced if
a. unusual, abnormal and infrequent items of income or expense are
separately disclosed.
b. the transaction approach is used
c. expenses are presented according to their function
d. the multiple-step method is used
70. For this qualitative characteristic, users are assumed to have a reasonable
knowledge of business and economic activities and accounting and a
willingness to study the information with reasonable diligence. However,
information about complex matters that should be included in the financial
statements because of its relevance to the economic decision-making needs of
users should not be excluded merely on the grounds that it may be too
difficult for certain users to understand.
a. Relevance c. Understandability
b. Reliability d. Comparability
71. Information has this quality when it influences the economic decisions of
users by helping them evaluate past, present or future events or confirming,
or correcting, their past evaluations.
a. Predictive Value c. Reliability
b. Relevance d. Understandability
72. The relevance of information is affected by its

a. Nature b. Risk c. Materiality d. all of these
73. It depends on the size of the item or error judged in the particular
circumstances of its omission or misstatement and provides a threshold or
cut-off point rather than being a primary qualitative characteristic which
information must have if it is to be useful.
a. Materiality b. Relevance c. Budget d. Variance
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74. Which of the following is the pervasive constraint under the Conceptual
Framework?
a. Timeliness c. Balance between Qualitative Characteristics
b. Cost constraint d. all of the choices
75. Comparability is sometimes sacrificed for

a. Reliability b. Conservatism c. Objectivity d. Relevance
76. This concept defines the accountant’s area of interests and determines what
information should be included in, or excluded from the financial statements.
a. Periodicity c. Accrual basis
b. Going concern d. Accounting entity
(Adapted)
77. An essential quality of the information provided in financial statements is that

it is readily understandable by users. For this purpose, users are
I. Assumed to have a reasonable knowledge of business and economic
activities and accounting and a willingness to study the information with
reasonable diligence.
II. Informed of the accounting policies employed and changes in those
policies and the effects of such changes.
a. I b. II c. I and II d. Neither I nor II
(Adapted)
78. Decision makers vary widely in the types of decisions they make, the methods
of decision making they employ, the information they already possess or can
obtain from other sources, and their ability to process information.
Consequently, for information to be useful there must be a linkage between
these users and the decisions they make. This link is
a. Relevance b. Reliability c. Understandability d. Materiality
(Adapted)
79. To be relevant, information should have which of the following?

a. Verifiability c. Understandability
b. Feedback value d. Costs and benefits
(AICPA)
80. Which of the following accounting concepts states that before a transaction is
recorded, sufficient evidence must exist to allow two or more knowledgeable
individuals to reach essentially the same conclusion about the transaction?
a. Continuity assumption c. Cost principle
b. Materiality constraint d. Verifiability quality
81. One of the fundamental qualitative characteristics of financial statements is

a. Relevance b. Timeliness c. Neutrality d. Completeness
82. If, in Year 1, a company used LIFO; year 2, FIFO; and in year 3, moving average
cost for inventory valuation, which of the following assumptions, constraints,
or principles would be violated:
a. consistency b. time period c. matching d. comparability
83. Technically it is the quality of information that allows comparisons within a

single entity through time or from one accounting period to the next.
a. Comparability b. Consistency c. Reliability d. Uniformity
84. Objectivity is assumed to be achieved when an accounting transaction
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a. Is recorded in a fixed amount of pesos

b. Involves the payment or receipt of cash
c. Involves an arms’ length transaction between two independent parties
d. Allocates revenue or expenses in a rational and systematic manner
(Adapted)
85. Which of the following situations violates the concept of faithful

representation?
a. Financial statements were issued nine months late
b. Report data on segments having the same expected risks and growth rates
to analysts estimating future profits
c. Financial statements included property with a carrying amount increased
to management’s estimate of market value
d. Management reports to stockholders regularly refer to new projects
undertaken, but the financial statements never report project results
(Adapted)
86. Which statement is incorrect concerning the qualitative characteristic of

relevance?
a. The relevance of information is affected by its nature and materiality.
b. To be useful, information must be relevant to the decision-making needs
of users.
c. Information about financial position and past performance is frequently
used as basis for predicting future financial position and performance and
other matters such as dividend and wage payments and ability of the
entity to meet its financial commitments as they fall due.
d. The predictive and confirmatory roles of information are not interrelated.
87. Consistency is an important factor in comparability within a single entity,

although the two are not the same. The consistency standard of reporting
requires that
a. Some costs should be recognized as expenses on the basis of a presumed
direct association with specific revenue.
b. Assets whose prices or utility are increased by external events other than
transfers should be retained in the accounting records at their recorded
amounts until they are exchanged.
c. Historical cost should be the primary basis used in measuring inventory;
intangible assets and property, plant and equipment.
d. Changes in circumstances or in the nature of the underlying transactions
should be disclosed.
88. Financial information exhibits the characteristic of consistency when

a. Expenses are reported as charges against revenue in the period in which
they are paid.
b. Accounting entities give accountable events the same accounting
treatment from period to period.
c. Gains and losses are not included on the income statement.
d. Accounting procedures are adopted which give a consistent rate of net
income.
89. A company reports only its total account receivable balance in its balance
sheet, as opposed to a complete listing of its individual customer balances.
This is an example of
a. Consistency b. Materiality c. Cost/benefit d. Conservatism
(Adapted)
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90. Which of the following statements do not correctly relate to the provisions of
the Conceptual Framework?
I. Consistency is not an important factor in comparability within single
entity.
II. Matching is an accounting concept that states that an accounting
transaction should be supported by sufficient evidence to allow two or
more qualified individuals to arrive at essentially similar measures and
conclusions.
III. Timeliness is an ingredient of the primary qualitative characteristic of
verifiability.
IV. Comparability of financial information between entities is the same as
comparability within a single enterprise.
V. The responsibility for the reliability of an entity’s financial statements
rests with the management.
a. I, II, III, IV b. I, III, IV, V c. III, IV, V d. V
91. The type of consistency also known as “intracomparability” or “period to

period” consistency is
a. horizontal consistency c. vertical consistency
b. three dimensional consistency d. inter comparability
92. Which of the following is considered a pervasive constraint by the Conceptual

Framework for the Preparation and Presentation of Financial Statements?
a. Benefits/costs b. Conservatism c. Timeliness d. Verifiability
93. Which of the following four statements about accounting concepts or

principles are correct?
I. The money measurement concept is that items in accounts are initially
measured at their historical cost.
II. In order to achieve comparability it may sometimes be necessary to
override the prudence concept.
III. To facilitate comparisons between different entities it is helpful if
accounting policies and changes in them are disclosed.
IV. To comply with the law, the legal form of a transaction must always be
reflected in financial statements.
a. I and III b. I and IV c. III only d. II and III
(ACCA)

a. All increases in cash and accounts receivable represent revenue which
increases owners’ equity.
b. The fact that an expense is recognized on the income statement indicates
that an equivalent out lay of cash has been made in the same period
c. Assets are normally recorded at cost for accounting purposes because cost
is objective and value is subjective.
d. Losses are asset expirations that are incurred voluntarily to produce
revenue.
(RPCPA)
The elements of financial statements

95. When should an item that meets the definition of an element be recognized,
according to the Conceptual Framework?
a. When it is probable that any future economic benefit associated with the
item will flow to or from the entity.
b. When the element has a cost or value that can be measured with
reliability.
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c. When the entity obtains control of the rights or obligations associated

with the item.
d. When it is probable that any future economic benefit associated with the
item will flow to or from the entity and the item has a cost or value that
can be measured with reliability.
(Adapted)
96. The Conceptual Framework sets out general recognition principles of financial
statement elements which include all of the following except
a. asset recognition c. equity recognition
b. liability recognition d. gain recognition
97. The following statements relate to the concept of “revenue.” Which statement
is not true?
a. Income determination is a technical term that refers to the process of
identifying, measuring and relating revenue and expenses during an
accounting period.
b. Transactions like issuance of capital stock and payment of dividends
between the business entity and its owners cannot give rise to revenue.
c. Deferred revenue is synonymous with unrealized revenue.
d. The definition of income encompasses both revenue and gains.
(Adapted)
98. Assume that employees confessed to a P500,000 inventory theft but are not
able to make restitution. How should this material fraud be shown in the
a. Classified as a loss and shown as a separate line item in the income
statement.
b. Initially classified as an accounts receivable because the employees are
responsible for the goods. Because they cannot pay, the loss would be
recognized as a write-off of accounts receivable.
c. Included in cost of goods sold because the goods are not on hand, losses
on inventory shrinkage are ordinary, and it would cause the east amount
of attention.
d. Recorded directly to retained earnings because it is not an income-
producing item.
(Adapted)
99. The framework classifies gains and losses based on whether they are related
to an entity's major ongoing or central operations. These gains or losses may
be classified as (Item #1) Nonoperating; (Item #2) Operating
a. Yes, No b. Yes, Yes c. No, Yes d. No, No
100. Goodwill is recognized in profit or loss under the

a. matching concept
b. systematic and rational allocation concept
c. immediate distribution
d. immediate recognition
101. According to the framework, the objectives of financial reporting for

business entities are based on
a. The need for conservatism.
b. Reporting on management's stewardship.
c. Generally accepted accounting principles.
d. The needs of the users of the information.
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102. Information about economic resources controlled by the entity and its
capacity to modify these resources is useful in predicting
I. The ability of the entity to generate cash and cash equivalents in the
future.
II. The capacity of the entity to generate cash flows from its operations.
a. I only b. II only c. I and II d. Neither I nor II
103. During a period when an entity is under the direction of a particular

management, financial reporting will directly provide information about
a. Both entity performance and management performance
b. Management performance but not entity performance
c. Entity performance but not management performance
d. Neither entity performance nor management performance.
(Adapted)
104. An objective of financial reporting is

a. Providing information useful to investors, creditors, donors, and other
users for decision making.
b. Assessing the adequacy of internal control
c. Evaluating management results compared with standards.
d. Providing information on compliance with established procedures.
(Adapted)
105. Which of the following items is not listed as a major objective of financial
reporting?
a. Financial reporting should provide information about entity resources,
claims to those resources, and changes in them.
b. Financial reporting should provide information useful in evaluating
management’s stewardship.
c. Financial reporting should provide information useful in investment,
credit, and similar decisions.
d. Financial reporting should provide information useful in assessing cash
flow projects.
106. Which of the following is not an important characteristic or limitation of

the financial statements that accountants currently prepare?
a. The information in financial statements is expressed in units of money
adjusted for changing purchasing power.
b. Financial statements articulate with one another because measuring
financial position is related to measuring changes in financial position
c. The information in financial statements is summarized and. classified to
help meet users’ needs.
d. Financial statements can be justified only if the benefits they provide
exceed the costs.
(Adapted)
107. A condensed report of how the activities of a business have been financed
and how the financial resources have been used is referred to as:
a. income statement c. statement of cash flows
b. balance sheet d. notes
108. The recognition of periodic depreciation expense on company-owned

automobiles requires estimating both salvage or residual value, and the useful
life of the vehicles. The use of estimates in this case is an example of
a. conservatism
b. maintaining consistency
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c. invoking the materiality constraint rather than the cost benefit constraint
d. providing relevant data at the expense of reliability
(Adapted)
109. Determining periodic earnings and financial position depends on

measuring economic resources and obligations and changes in them as these
changes occur. This explanation pertains to
a. Disclosure b. Accrual basis c. Materiality d. Matching
110. According to the framework, the process of reporting an item in the

financial statements of an entity is
a. Recognition b. Realization c. Allocation d. Matching
111. What is the purpose of information presented in notes to the financial

statements?
a. To provide disclosures required by generally accepted accounting
principles.
b. To correct improper presentation in the financial statements.
c. To provide recognition of amounts not included in the totals of the
d. To present management's responses to auditor comments.
(Adapted)
112. An entity with total assets of 100,000,000 and net profit of 9,000,000
purchases staplers with an estimated life of 10 years for 1,000. In connection
with the purchase, the entity debits miscellaneous expense. This scenario is
most closely associated with which of the following concepts or principles?
a. Materiality and going concern.
b. Relevance and neutrality.
c. Reliability and comparability.
d. Materiality and the balance between cost and benefit
(Adapted)
113. An entity’s revenue may result from

a. A decrease in an asset from primary operations
b. An increase in an asset from incidental transactions
c. An increase in a liability from incidental transactions
d. A decrease in a liability from primary operations
114. Which of the following is an essential characteristic of an asset?

a. The claims to an asset’s benefits are legally enforceable.
b. An asset is tangible.
c. An asset is obtained at a cost.
d. An asset provides future benefits.
(Adapted)
115. Which of the following statements is not consistent with generally

accepted accounting principles as they relate to asset valuation?
a. Assets are originally recorded in the accounting records at cost to the
entity
b. Accountants assume that assets such as supplies, buildings and equipment
will be used in the business operations rather than sold
c. Subtracting total liabilities from total assets results in the current market
value of equity
d. Accountants base asset valuation upon objective, verifiable evidence
rather than on personal opinion
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(Adapted)
116. Which of the following would be matched with current revenues on a

basis other than association of cause and effect?
a. goodwill b. sales commission c. cost of salesd. purchases
(Adapted)
117. Some costs cannot be directly related to particular revenue but are
incurred to obtain benefits that are exhausted in the period in which costs are
incurred. An example of such cost is
a. sales commissions c. freight in
b. sales salaries d. prepaid insurance
(Adapted)
118. The basic elements of the financial position of an entity include the
following:
I. economic resources of an entity that are recognized in conformity with
GAAP
II. economic obligations of an entity that are recognized in conformity with
GAAP
III. gross increases in assets or gross decreases in liabilities recognized and
measured in conformity with GAAP
IV. the interest of owners in an entity which is the excess of an entity’ assets
over its liabilities
V. gross decreases in assets or gross increases in liabilities recognized and
measured in conformity with GAAP
a. I, II, III, IV, V b. I, II, III, IV c. I, II, III d. I, II, IV
119. In December 200A catalogs were printed for use in a special promotion in
January 200B. The catalogs were delivered by the printer on December 31,
200A, with an invoice for P70,000 attached. Payment was made in January
200B. The P70,000 should be reported as a deferred cost at the December 31,
200A balance sheet because of the
a. Matching principle. c. Reliability principle.
b. Revenue recognition principle d. Cost principle.
(Adapted)
120. In expense recognition principle, which of the following is not an

important class of expense?
a. expenditures to acquire assets
b. expenses from non-reciprocal transfers and casualties
c. cost of assets other than products disposed of
d. decline in market prices of inventories held for sale
(Adapted)
121. Whenever costs or expenses cannot be reasonably associated with specific

products but can be associated with specific revenues, the cost should be,
a. expensed in the period in which the related revenue is recognized
b. charged to expense in the period incurred
c. allocated to specific products based on the best estimate of the production
processing time
d. capitalized an amortized over a period not to exceed 24 months
(Adapted)
122. Which of the following is expended under the systematic and rational
allocation principle of expense recognition?
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a. amortization of intangible assets c. cost of merchandise sold

b. transportation to customers d. salesman’s commission
(Adapted)
123. A patent being amortized for a period of (10) years was found to have no
future benefits on the fifth year. The write off of the asset on the fifth year is
an example of the principle of:
a. immediate recognition c. systematic and rational allocation
b. associating cause and effect d. realization
(Adapted)
124. Which of the following is an application of the principle of systematic and

rational allocation?
a. Depreciation of equipment c. Research and development costs.
b. Sales commissions. d. Officers' salaries.
125. The matching concept:

a. requires that the debit is matched or posted for every credit
b. is the name applied to the process of associating expenses with revenues
c. treats all costs as being directly related to revenue generation
d. treats all costs as expenses
(Adapted)
126. Which of the following in the most precise sense, means the process of
converting noncash resources and rights into cash or claims to cash?
a. Allocation b. Recordation c. Recognition d. Realization
(Adapted)
127. Which of the following statements conforms to the realization concept?

a. Equipment depreciation was assigned to a production department and
then to product unit costs.
b. Depreciated equipment was sold in exchange for a note receivable.
c. Cash was collected on accounts receivable.
d. Product unit costs were assigned to cost of goods sold when the units
were sold.
(Adapted)
128. When a P300 asset with a six-year estimated useful life is recorded as an
expense at the date of purchase, this is an application of the:
a. matching principle c. materiality constraint
b. cost principle d. separate entity assumption
(Adapted)
129. Owners’ equity equals

a. capital minus liabilities c. assets minus liabilities
b. assets plus capital d. capital minus assets
130. In addition to a statement of a financial position, statement of profit or

loss and other comprehensive income, statement of changes in equity, and
statement of cash flows, a complete set of financial statements must include
a. notes c. net present value of expected future cash flows
b. an auditor’s opinion d. a ten-year summary of operations
(Adapted)
131. The ratio that measures short-term solvency

a. ratio of net in income to revenue c. return on investment
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b. age or receivables d. current ratio

(RPCPA)
132. The primary factor that distinguishes a capital expenditure from a

revenue expenditure is:
a. the period in which the expenditure was made
b. the period or periods expected to be benefited
c. the account to be charged
d. the materiality of the expenditure
(RPCPA)
133. Increases in owners’ equity arise from

a. treasury stock acquisition
b. net losses for a period
c. nonreciprocal transfers to an entity from other than owners
d. transfers from a business to its owners
(RPCPA)
134. A modifying convention adopted which is deemed to increase the

usefulness of the income statement regardless of effect on the balance sheet
or other financial statements
a. application of judgment by the accounting profession as a whole
b. matching
c. emphasis on income
d. conservatism
(RPCPA)
135. The total of net income and depreciation which is available for dividends,
expansion of facilities, replacement of assets and for reserve is called
a. Accounting profit c. Economic income
b. Cash earnings d. Gross income
(RPCPA)
136. Identify the correct statements.

I. The cash basis of accounting recognizes revenue only when cash is
collected.
II. The practice of conservatism tends to understate rather than overstate net
income.
III. Most assets used in operating a business are measured in terms of current
cost.
IV. Return on investment is the measurement of net income by making
certain assumptions about changes in the financial position of a business
entity over its lifetime.
V. Revenue is the difference between the selling price of a service and the
cost of providing such service.
VI. The financial statement with a structure similar to the accounting
equation is the statement of changes in financial position.
a. I, II b. I, II, IV, VI c. I, II, IV, V, VI d. all of the statements
Concepts of capital maintenance and the determination of profit

137. The concept of capital adopted by most entities in preparing their
financial statements is
a. Financial concept of capital c. A combination of (a) and (b)
b. Physical concept of capital d. Neither (a) nor (b)
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138. Framework explains both financial and physical capital maintenance

concepts. Which capital maintenance concept is applied to currently reported
net income, and which is applied to comprehensive income?
(Item #1) Currently reported profit; (Item #2) Comprehensive income
a. Financial capital, Physical capital c. Financial capital, Financial capital
b. Physical capital, Physical capital d. Physical capital, Financial capital
(AICPA)
139. The selection of the appropriate concept of capital by an entity should be

based on the needs of the users of its financial statements. This concept of
capital should be adopted if the users of financial statements are primarily
concerned with the maintenance of nominal invested capital or the
purchasing power of invested capital.
140. This concept of capital should be adopted if the main concern of users is
with the operating capability of the entity.
141. This concept is concerned with how an entity defines the capital that it
seeks to maintain. It provides the linkage between the concepts of capital and
the concepts of profit because it provides the point of reference by which
profit is measured; it is a prerequisite for distinguishing between an entity's
return on capital and its return of capital; only inflows of assets in excess of
amounts needed to maintain capital may be regarded as profit and therefore
as a return on capital.
a. Concept of capital c. Concept of equity and performance
b. Concept of capital maintenance d. Concept of capital and performance
142. Under this concept, a profit is earned only if the financial (or money)
amount of the net assets at the end of the period exceeds the financial ( or
money) amount of net assets at the beginning of the period, after excluding
any distributions to, and contributions from, owners during the period. It can
be measured in either nominal monetary units or units of constant
purchasing power.
a. Concept of capital c. Financial capital maintenance concept
b. Concept of capital maintenance d. Physical capital maintenance concept
143. Under this concept, a profit is earned only if the physical productive
capacity ( or operating capability) of the entity (or the resources or funds
needed to achieve that capacity) at the end of the period exceeds the physical
productive capacity at the beginning of the period, after excluding any
distributions to, and contributions from, owners during the period.
a. Concept of capital c. Financial capital maintenance concept
b. Concept of capital maintenance d. Physical capital maintenance concept
144. It is the residual amount that remains after expenses (including capital
maintenance adjustments, where appropriate) have been deducted from
income. If expenses exceed income, the residual amount is a net loss.
a. Equity b. Capital c. Profit d. Net Gains
145. This capital maintenance concept requires the adoption of the current cost
basis of measurement.
a. Physical capital maintenance c. Capital maintenance
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b. Financial capital maintenance d. Concept of capital
146. The particular basis of measurement financial capital maintenance

concept requires the use of
a. Historical cost b. Current cost c. Nominal cost d. No particular basis
147. The principal difference between the two concepts of capital maintenance
is the
a. treatment of the effects of changes in the prices of assets and liabilities of
the entity
b. the basis of measurement required under each concept
c. the valuation of capital being maintained
d. treatment of excess earnings
148. Under the concept of financial capital maintenance where capital is
defined in terms of nominal monetary units, profit represents
a. the increase in nominal money capital over the period
b. the increase in that capital over the period
c. the increase in invested purchasing power over the period
d. the increase in invested purchasing power and net holding gains during
the period
149. When the concept of financial capital maintenance is defined in terms of

constant purchasing power units, profit represents
b. the increase in that capital over the period
the period
150. Under the concept of physical capital maintenance when capital is defined
in terms of the physical productive capacity, profit represents
b. the increase in physical productive capacity (or operating capability) over
the period
the period
151. Under the concept of financial capital maintenance where capital is

defined in terms of nominal monetary units, increases in the prices of assets
held over the period, conventionally referred to as holding gains, are,
conceptually
a. profits but they may not be recognized as such until the assets are
disposed of in an exchange transaction
b. profits and they may be recognized as such during the period they arise
c. not profits but they may be recognized as such over the period until the
assets are disposed of in an exchange transaction
d. not profits but they may be recognized as profits only until the assets are
disposed of in an exchange transaction
152. When the concept of financial capital maintenance is defined in terms of

constant purchasing power units and prices increase during the period
a. all of the increase in the prices of assets is considered as profits
b. only that part of the increase in the prices of assets that exceeds the
increase in the general level of prices is regarded as profit
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c. that part of the increase in the prices of assets that exceeds the increase in
the general level and specific level of prices is regarded as profit, the rest
of the increase is not treated as profit
d. none of the increase is treated as profit
153. The selection of the measurement bases and concept of capital,

maintenance will determine the accounting model used in the preparation of
the financial statements. Different accounting models exhibit different
degrees of relevance and reliability and, as in other areas; management must
seek a balance between relevance and reliability. The Framework is
applicable to a range of accounting models and provides guidance on
preparing and presenting the financial statements constructed under the
chosen model. At the present time,
a. the accounting model prescribed is Assets = Liability + Capital
b. the accounting model prescribed is Assets = Liability + Capital + Revenues
– Expenses
c. the accounting model prescribed is Assets – Liability – Preference
shareholders’ equity = Ordinary shareholders’ equity
d. no particular model is prescribed
Chapter 3 - Suggested answers to review theory questions

1. C 26. B 51. D 76. D 101. D 126. D
2. A 27. B 52. C 77. A 102. A 127. B
3. A 28. C 53. D 78. C 103. C 128. C
4. B 29. D 54. D 79. B 104. A 129. C
5. B 30. D 55. A 80. D 105. B 130. A
6. D 31. C 56. D 81. A 106. A 131. D
7. C 32. C 57. D 82. A 107. C 132. B
8. C 33. D 58. D 83. B 108. D 133. C
9. C 34. D 59. B 84. C 109. B 134. C
10. A 35. D 60. C 85. C 110. A 135. B
11. A 36. C 61. C 86. D 111. A 136. A
12. B 37. B 62. C 87. D 112. D 137. A
13. C 38. C 63. A 88. B 113. D 138. C
14. E 39. D 64. C 89. C 114. D 139. A
15. B 40. A 65. B 90. A 115. C 140. B
16. A 41. B 66. D 91. A 116. A 141. B
17. B 42. D 67. C 92. A 117. D 142. C
18. C 43. D 68. B 93. C 118. D 143. D
19. D 44. D 69. A 94. C 119. A 144. C
20. C 45. D 70. C 95. D 120. A 145. A
21. C 46. A 71. B 96. C 121. A 146. D
22. C 47. E 72. D 97. C 122. A 147. A
23. D 48. A 73. A 98. A 123. A 148. A
24. B 49. A 74. B 99. B 124. A 149. C
25. D 50. B 75. D 100. D 125. B 150. B
151. A
152. B
153. D
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Chapter 4
Cash & Cash Equivalents

Cash balance
1. The books of Kapiz Co. show the following balances at December 31, 20x1:
Cash on hand ₱ 400,000
Cash in Bank – current account 1,200,000
Cash in Bank – peso savings deposit 5,000,000
Cash in Bank – dollar deposit (unrestricted) $ 100,000
Cash in Bank – dollar deposit (restricted) 250,000
Cash in 3-month money-market account ₱ 500,000
3-month unrestricted time deposit $ 20,000
Treasury bill, purchased 11/1/20x1, maturing 2/14/20x2 ₱1,600,000
Treasury bond, purchased 3/1/20x1, maturing 2/28/20x2 1,000,000
Treasury note, purchased 12/1/20x1, maturing 2/28/20x2 400,000
Unused Credit Line 4,000,000
Redeemable preference shares, purchased 12/1/20x1, 740,000
due on 3/1/20x2
Treasury shares, purchased 12/1/20x1, to be reissued on 200,000
1/5/20x2
Sinking fund 400,000
 Cash on hand includes a ₱40,000 check payable to Kapiz Co. dated December
29, 20x1.
 During December 20x0, check amounting to ₱30,000 was drawn against the
Cash in bank - current account in payment of accounts payable. The check
remains outstanding as of December 31, 20x1.
 The Cash in Bank – peso savings deposit includes ₱800,000 security bond on a
pending labor litigation, in favor of a previous employee. The establishment of
the bond is mandated by a court of law.
 The Cash in Bank – peso savings deposit also includes a compensating balance
amounting to ₱500,000 which is not legally restricted.
 The Cash in Bank – dollar deposit (unrestricted) account includes interest of
$4,000, net of tax, directly credited to Kapiz Co.’s account. The exchange rate at
year-end is $1 is to ₱45.
How much is the cash and cash equivalents to be reported in the 20x1 financial
statements?
a. 14,720,000 b. 19,520,000 c. 12,430,000 d. 12,870,000
Bank overdraft
2. The cash balance of Ronnie Co. comprises the following:
Cash on hand 300,000
Cash in bank – savings – Alpha Bank 600,000
Cash in bank – current – Alpha Bank (160,000)
Cash in bank – current – Beta Bank (140,000)
Cash in bank – deposit in escrow – Beta Bank 240,000
Cash in bank – savings – Charlie Bank 90,000
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 Cash on hand excludes undeposited collections of ₱60,000.
 The cash in bank – savings maintained at Alpha Bank includes a ₱100,000
compensating balance which is restricted.
How much is the amount of cash to be reported in the financial statements?

a. 700,000 b. 640,000 c. 730,000 d. 790,000
Petty cash fund – journal entries

3. The following were the transactions involving an entity’s petty cash fund
during the period.
July. 1, Established ₱30,000 petty cash fund.
20x1
July 1 Disbursements are made for the following:
through - Groceries for use of employees in the pantry ₱4,200
21, 20x1 - Transportation of Mang Benny, the messenger boy 1,500
- Snacks during meetings and conferences 3,000
- Gasoline for company vehicles 9,000
- Pedicure of Ms. Ana (secretary of the
boss) – authorized 9,000
Total ₱ 26,700
July 22, Total coins and currencies in the petty cash box is ₱1,500.
20x1 Replenishment is made.
Assuming that the petty cash fund is not replenished and financial statements are
prepared on July 31, 20x1, the month-end adjustment to the petty cash fund most
likely does not include a:
a. debit to receivable from custodian for ₱1,800
b. credit to petty cash fund for ₱28,500
c. total debit to various expense accounts for ₱26,700
d. credit to cash in bank for ₱28,500
Petty cash fund

4. As of December 31, 20x1, the petty cash fund of Kristelle Co. with a general
leger balance of ₱15,000 comprises the following:
Coins and currencies 2,550
Petty cash vouchers:
Gasoline for delivery equipment 3,000
Medical supplies for employees 2,040 5,040
IOU’s:
Advances to employees 2,220
A sheet of paper with names of several employees
together with contribution to bereaved employee,
attached is a currency of 2,400
Checks:
Check drawn to the order of the petty cash custodian 3,000
Personal check drawn by the petty cash custodian 2,400
The entry to replenish the fund on December 31, 20x1 includes a

a. credit to cash shortage or overage for ₱2,190
b. debit to cash shortage or overage for ₱2,910
c. credit to cash in bank for ₱9,450
d. credit to petty cash fund for ₱9,450
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Bank reconciliation
5. Jane Co. is preparing its September 30, 20x1 bank reconciliation. Relevant
information is shown below:
Balance per books 1,480
Balance per bank statement 2,800
Collection on note by bank (including ₱250 interest) 2,500
NSF check returned by bank 500
Bank service charges for December 70
Deposits in transit 2,200
Outstanding checks (including certified checks of ₱100) 1,000
 A ₱600 loan amortization of Jane Co. was erroneously debited by the bank to
Tarzan Co.’s account.
 A ₱650 collection of accounts receivable was erroneously recorded in the
books as ₱560. The actual amount deposited to the bank is ₱650.
The compound entry to reconcile the accounts includes a

a. net debit to cash for ₱2,020
b. net credit to cash for ₱700
c. credit to notes receivable for ₱2,500
d. net debit to accounts receivable for ₱590
Book to Bank
6. Ching Co. has the following information:
Balance per books 380
Credit memos 670
Debit memos 400
Deposits in transit 560
Outstanding checks 280
How much is the cash balance per bank statement?

a. 650 b. 560 c. 930 d. 370
Computation of DIT and OC

The next three items are based on the following information:
Taken from the records of Girly Co. are the following:
Balance per books, October 31 4,440

Total Credits per books, November 8,320
Balance per books, November 30 2,400
Balance per bank statement, October 31 5,520
Balance per bank statement, November 30 4,560
Total Debits per bank statement, November 2,800
Loan proceeds directly credited to Girly’s account in October 1,200
Collection of receivable directly credited to Girly’s
account in November – not yet recorded in the books 600
NSF checks returned in October 900
NSF checks returned in November - not yet recorded in the books 300
Check received from a customer amounting to ₱1,800
was recorded in the books in October as 180
Overstatement in book debit in October 800
Overstatement in book credit in November 300
Understatement in bank debit in October 290
Overstatement in bank credit in October 370
Deposit amounting to ₱1,050 was recorded by
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the bank in November as 150
Deposits in transit – October 31 4,500

Outstanding checks – October 31 3,800
7. How much is the deposits in transit at November 30?

a. 5,820 b. 6,190 c. 5,340 d. 6,920
8. How much is the outstanding checks at November 30?

a. 7,620 b. 8,680 c. 9,120 d. 8,280
9. How much is the adjusted balance of cash at November 30?

a. 3,000 b. 3,300 c. 2,400 d. 3,580
Bank reconciliation - overdraft

10. Radeline Co.’s bank statement shows an overdraft of ₱18,500 as of August 31,
20x1. Additional information is as follows:
 A cash deposit of ₱1,380 appears on the bank statement as ₱1,830. The bank
admits it has committed an error.
 The bank collected ₱700 from a customer on behalf of Radeline.
 Cash deposited in an overnight depository on August 30 but not shown on the
August bank statement – ₱1,800
 Interest on overdraft not yet recorded – ₱1,728
 Check issued but not presented – ₱2,200
 The bank returned a customer check for ₱2,000 to Radeline.
How much is the overdraft in Radeline’s cashbook on August 31, 20x1?

a. 16,322 b. 17,650 c. (19,350) d. (16,322)
Proof of cash
Use the following information for the next three questions:
Kriselda Co. has the following information for the months of June and July.
June 30 July 31
Book balance ? 9,300
Book debits 30,700
Book credits 27,000
Bank balance 10,200 16,800
Bank debits 21,300
Bank credits ?
Notes collected by bank 2,250 3,000
Bank service charge 20 100
NSF checks 880 1,400
Understatement of recorded cash
collections 1,900 1,200
Deposit in transit 6,000 11,250
Outstanding checks 9,750 17,850
Loan amortization of Kristeta
Corp. erroneously debited to
Kriselda Co.’s account 2,400 1,800
11. How much is the adjusted cash receipts in July?

a. 24,150 b. 27,900 c. 30,750 d. 24,350
12. How much is the adjusted cash disbursements in July?

a. 27,600 b. 27,900 c. 21,000 d. 21,600
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13. How much is the adjusted cash balance as of July 31?

a. 12,000 b. 8,850 c. 15,930 d. 14,600


Cash and cash equivalents
1. Which of the following is not considered cash for financial reporting purposes?
a. Petty cash funds and change funds
b. Money orders, certified checks, and personal checks
c. Coin, currency, and available funds
d. Postdated checks and I.O.U.'s
(Adapted)
2. Which of the following may properly be included as part of cash to be reported

in the December 31, 200A statement of financial position?
a. Treasury bills maturing on March 31, 200B, acquired on December 1, 200A.
b. Customer’s check dated January 1, 200B and sent to bank for deposit on
December 31, 200A.
c. Shares of stocks to be sold on the first week of January 200B.
d. Preference shares with mandatory redemption and acquired three months
prior to redemption date.
3. Bank overdrafts, if material, should be

a. reported as a deduction from the current asset section.
b. reported as a deduction from cash.
c. netted against cash and a net cash amount reported.
d. reported as a current liability.
(Adapted)
4. Deposits held as compensating balances

a. usually do not earn interest.
b. if legally restricted and held against short-term credit may be included as
cash.
c. if legally restricted and held against long-term credit may be included
among current assets.
d. none of these.
(Adapted)
5. The effect of compensating balance is

a. to provide greater security for the borrower
b. to decrease the yield on the loan to the lender
c. to increase the yield on the loan to the borrower
d. to increase the yield on the loan to the lender.
(Adapted)

a. Cash which is restricted and not available for use within one year of the
reporting period should be included in noncurrent assets.
b. Cash in a demand deposit account, being held specifically for the
retirement of long-term debts not maturing currently, should be excluded
from current assets and shown as a noncurrent investment.
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c. Investments which can be liquidated at once and with little risk of loss of
principal may be classified as cash equivalent and included in the caption
“Cash and Cash equivalents”
d. Compensating balances are cash amounts that are not immediately
accessible by the owner.
e. Cash and cash equivalents is always presented first in statement of
financial position when presenting current and non-current classifications.
7. Alaking received cash to be held in trust for Ambit under an escrow

agreement. Such cash should be presented in Alaking’s financial statements as
a. part of cash
b. a liability
c. an asset and a liability
d. an off-balance sheet item but disclosed in the notes
8. These are short-term, highly liquid investments that are so near their maturity
that they represent insignificant risk of changes in value due to changes in
interest rates.
a. Cash and Cash equivalents c. Treasury notes
b. Treasury bills d. Cash equivalents
9. When the bank receives cash from a depositor, the cash should be credited to
a. Cash c. Accounts payable
b. Cash in bank d. Deposit liability
10. Devin Co.'s cash balance in its balance sheet is P1,300,000, of which
P300,000 is identified as a compensating balance. In addition, Devin has
classified cash of P250,000 that has been restricted for future expansion plans
as "other assets". Which of the following should Devin disclose in notes to its
(Item #1) Compensating balance; (Item #2) Restricted cash
a. Yes, Yes b. Yes, No c. No, Yes d. No, No
(AICPA)
11. Which of the following is/are true about "compensating balances?"

I. They are reserve balances maintained for emergency spending
requirements.
II. If compensating balances are legally restricted, they must be segregated
on the balance sheet.
III. Compensating balances are overstated if "floats" are included as part of
the cash.
a. II only b. I & III c. I, II & III d. II & III
(Adapted)
12. Which of the following best qualifies as a "cash equivalent?"

a. A firm's investment in "held to maturity" government treasury bonds that
mature in 5 years.
b. A firm's equity investment in an unconsolidated subsidiary of a privately
held firm.
c. A firm's investment in government treasury bills.
d. All of these answers.
(Adapted)
13. Float refers to:
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a. the number of days that a bank will allow a corporation to hold a negative
balance in its checking account before charging fees for the negative
balance.
b. the companies bank balance in excess of its working capital needs.
c. the receivable balance on the books of the corporation.
d. checks issued but not yet paid by a bank.
(Adapted)
14. On an entity’s December 31, 20x1 statement of financial position which of

the following items should be included in the amount reported as cash?
I. A check payable to the enterprise, dated January 2, 20x2, in payment of a
sale made in December 20x1.
II. A check drawn on the enterprise’s account, payable to a vendor, dated and
recorded in the company’s books on December 31, 20x1 but not mailed
until January 10, 2002.
a. I only b. II only c. I and II only d. Neither I nor II
(Adapted)
15. The amount reported as "Cash" on a company's balance sheet normally

should exclude
a. postdated checks that are payable to the company
b. cash in a payroll account
c. undelivered checks written and signed by the company
d. petty cash
(Adapted)
16. Which of the following would not be classified as cash?

a. Personal checks c. Cashier’s checks
b. Traveler’s checks d. Postdated checks
(Adapted)
17. On October 31, 2003, Dingo, Inc. had cash accounts at three different
banks. One account balance is segregated solely for a November 15, 2003
payment into a bond sinking fund. A second account, used for branch
operations, is overdrawn. The third account, used for regular corporate
operations, has a positive balance. How should these accounts be reported in
Dingo’s October 31, 2003 classified balance sheet?
a. The segregated account should be reported as a noncurrent asset, the
regular account should be reported as a current asset, and the overdraft
should be reported as a current liability.
b. The segregated and regular accounts should be reported as current assets,
and the overdraft should be reported as a current liability.
c. The segregated account should be reported as a noncurrent asset, and the
regular account should be reported as a current asset net of the overdraft.
d. The segregated and regular accounts should be reported as current assets
net of the overdraft.
(Adapted)
18. Compensating balance agreements that do not legally restrict the amount
of funds shown on the balance sheet should:
a. be reported in the current asset section
b. be reported in the Long-term investment section
c. be reported in the other asset section
d. be reported in the footnotes
(Adapted)
19. Bank overdraft
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a. Is a debit balance in a cash in bank account.

b. Is offset against demand deposit account in another bank.
c. Which cannot be offset is classified as current liability.
d. Which cannot be offset is classified as non-current liability.
20. Cash in foreign currency is valued at

a. Face value
b. Current exchange rate
c. Current exchange rate reduced by allowance for expected decline in peso
d. Estimated realizable value
21. If material, deposit in foreign countries which are subject to foreign

exchange restriction should be shown separately as
a. Current asset with no disclosure of the restriction.
b. Non-current asset with no disclosure of the restriction.
c. Current assets with disclosure of the restriction.
d. Non-current asset with disclosure of the restriction.
Internal controls for cash

22. In an imprest system, it is the fund set aside for small disbursements
a. Pretty cash fund c. Payroll fund
b. Dividends fund d. Petty cash fund
23. When making payments to suppliers, an entity normally credits this

account.
a. Cash c. Cash in bank
b. Vouchers payable d. Accounts payable
24. Which of the following is least likely the purpose of preparing bank
reconciliation?
a. to bring the cash in bank balance per books and per bank statement in
agreement
b. as an internal control procedure for safeguarding assets
c. to detect fraud
d. to recognize items such as expenses and assets not recorded
25. Consider the following statements.

I. The voucher system refers to the complete use of the voucher check and of
subsidiary records of vouchers payable, voucher register and check
register
II. The simplest and most satisfactory method of handling purchase discounts
under the voucher system is to deduct the purchase discount on the face of
the voucher and enter this discount in a special column in the check
register
III. Entries in the voucher register are made in the same sequence as the
numbering of the checks – that is, in the order in which payments are
made.
a. true, true, false c. false, false, false
b. true, false, false d. true, true, true
(RPCPA)
26. Which of the following is not a basic characteristic of a system of cash

control?
a. Use of a voucher system
b. Combined responsibility for handling and recording cash
c. Daily deposit of all cash received
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d. Internal audits at irregular intervals

(Adapted)
The next two questions are based on the following information:

The information below was taken from the bank transfer schedule prepared
during the audit of Fox Co.’s financial statements for the year ended December
31, 2001. Assume all checks are dated and issued on December 30, 2001.
Bank Accounts Disbursement date Receipt date
Check no. From To Per books Per bank Per books Per bank
101 National Federal Dec. 30 Jan. 4 Dec. 30 Jan. 3
202 County State Jan. 3 Jan. 2 Dec. 30 Dec. 31
303 Federal American Dec. 31 Jan. 3 Jan. 2 Jan. 2
404 State Republic Jan. 2 Jan. 2 Jan. 2 Dec. 31
27. Which of the following checks might indicate kiting?

a. #101 and #303. c. #101 and #404
b. #202 and #404 d. #202 and #303
(AICPA)
28. Which of the following checks illustrate deposits/ transfers in transit at

December 31, 2001?
a. #101 and #202. c. #202 and #404
b. #101 and #303 d. #303 and #404
(AICPA)
29. For effective eternal control over the disbursement of payroll checks, an
enterprise makes a specific amount of cash available in a checking account for
this limited purpose. The type of account used for this purpose is called a(n)
a. General checking account c. Lockbox account
b. Imprest bank account d. Compensating balance
(Adapted)
30. The principal purpose of a voucher system is to provide assurance that

a. All cash receipts are deposited intact in the bank
b. All cash disbursements are approved before a check is issued
c. All cash receipts are recorded in the accounting records
d. All purchase invoices are supported by debit memoranda
31. Which of the following best describes a voucher?

a. A supporting document prepared for each cash receipt and disbursement
b. A promise to pay an amount owed within a discount period
c. A written authorization prepared for each check written
d. A written record sent to a payee along with the signed check
32. A voucher system is used in connection with transactions that involve only
a. The receipt of cash c. The purchase and sale of merchandise
b. The payment of cash d. Revenue and expense
33. It is the business paper which a company makes for every cash payment.
a. Check b. Voucher c. Journal d. Official receipt
34. After vouchers are recorded, they are filed in an “unpaid vouchers file”
a. Numerically c. Chronologically
b. In the order of payment d. No particular order
35. Which of the following is not a correct way of handling a voucher system?
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a. Purchases are recorded in the voucher register at gross by debiting

purchases and crediting vouchers payable.
b. Payment of purchases with discounts is recorded in the check register by
debiting vouchers payable at gross and crediting respectively cash in bank
and purchase discounts.
c. In case there are purchase returns and allowances, there is no need to
cancel the original voucher and the issuance of a new one for the lower
amount because adjusting entries could later on be prepared.
d. When installments or other payments are made on an invoice, a separate
voucher is prepared for the amount of each check issued.
(Adapted)
36. Which of the following is a key element of internal control over cash
payments?
a. periodically reconciling the cash account balance on the company's books
to the bank statement balance
b. making daily bank deposits
c. requiring that all petty cash vouchers be approved by two signatures
d. authorizing and verifying that all cash received is recorded daily
(Adapted)
37. Which is not a key element of internal control over cash receipts?
a. daily recording of all cash receipts in the accounting records
b. daily entry in a voucher register
c. immediate counting by the person opening the mail or using the cash
register
d. daily deposit intact
(Adapted)
38. This occurs when collection of receivable from one customer is

misappropriated and then concealed by applying a subsequent collection from
another customer.
a. Lapping b. Kiting c. Window dressing d. Fraud
39. This occurs when cash shortage is concealed by overstating the balance of
cash. This is performed by exploiting the float period (the time it needs for a
check to clear at the bank it was drawn).
40. This document shows the dates of all transfers of cash among the various
bank accounts. Its primary purpose is to help auditors detect kiting.
a. Cut-off bank statement c. Bank transfer schedule
b. Bank reconciliation d. Proof of cash
41. This document is a bank statement prepared a few days after month-end.
Its purpose is to help auditors verify reconciling items on the year-end bank
reconciliation.
a. Cut-off bank statement c. Bank transfer schedule
b. Bank reconciliation d. Proof of cash
42. This refer to measures taken by management to make a business look as

strong as possible in its statement of financial position, statement of profit or
loss and other comprehensive income, and statement of cash flows. It occurs
when books are not closed at year-end and transactions in the subsequent
period are deliberately recorded in current period in order to improve the
entity’s financial performance or financial ratios.
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43. This internal control for cash requires that cash collections are deposited
intact and cash disbursements are made through check.
a. Segregation of duties c. Imprest system
b. Voucher system d. Bank reconciliation
Petty cash
44. Who is responsible, at all times, for the amount of the petty cash fund?
a. The president c. The general cashier
b. The general office manager d. The petty cash custodian
45. Which of the following is not an appropriate procedure for controlling the
petty cash fund?
a. The petty cash custodian files receipts by category of expenditure after
their presentation to the general cashier so that variations in different
types of expenditures can be monitored.
b. Surprise counts of the fund are made from time to time by a superior of the
petty cash custodian to determine that the fund is being accounted for
satisfactorily.
c. The petty cash custodian obtains signed receipts from each individual to
whom petty cash is paid.
d. Upon receiving petty cash receipts as evidence of disbursements, the
general cashier issues a company check to the petty cash custodian, rather
than cash, to replenish the fund.
(Adapted)
46. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

a. The accounting function should be separated from the custodianship of a
company's assets.
b. Certain clerical personnel in a company should be rotated among various
jobs.
c. The responsibility for receiving merchandise and paying for it should
usually be given to one person.
d. A company's personnel should be given well-defined responsibilities.
(Adapted)
47. A petty cash system is designed to

a. cash checks for employees.
b. handle cash sales.
c. account for all cash receipts and disbursements.
d. pay small miscellaneous expenses.
(Adapted)
48. In most situations, the petty cash fund is reimbursed just prior to the year
end and an adjusting entry is made to avoid
a. the overstatement of cash and the understatement of expenses.
b. the understatement of cash and the overstatement of expenses.
c. the misstatement of revenues.
d. the understatement of cash with the appropriate statement of expenses.
(Adapted)
49. In replenishing a petty cash fund, which one of the following entries is
required?
a. Debit Petty Cash, credit Cash in bank
b. Debit individual expense accounts, credit Cash in bank
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c. Debit Petty Cash, credit individual expense accounts

d. Debit Cash in bank, credit Petty Cash
50. On January 1, 20x1, UFC Co. established a petty cash fund of P400. On
December 31, 20x1, the petty cash fund was examined and found to have
receipts and documents for miscellaneous expenses amounting to P364. In
addition, there was cash amounting to P44. What entry would be required to
record replenishment of the petty cash fund on December 31, 20x1?
a. Petty Cash.................................364
Cash Short and Over..............................................8
Cash in bank.......................................................356
b. Miscellaneous Expense...........364
Cash Short and Over..............................................8
Petty Cash..........................................................356
c. Miscellaneous Expense...........364
Cash Short and Over...............................................8
Cash in bank........................................................356
d. Miscellaneous Expense...........356
Cash Short and Over....................8
Cash in bank........................................................364
(Adapted)
Bank reconciliation
51. Adjusting and correcting entries in the books of the company are
necessary for
a. Book reconciling items c. Errors committed by the bank
b. Bank reconciling items d. a and c
52. Bank reconciliations are normally prepared

a. on “as needed” basis
b. on a monthly basis
c. every time financial statements are prepared
d. only at year-end
53. In preparing the bank reconciliation, certified checks should be excluded

from outstanding checks. The rationale for this treatment is
a. the bank, when certifying checks, draws the check in its account
b. the bank, when certifying checks, automatically debits the company’s
account
c. the bank, when certifying checks, automatically credits the company’s
account
d. the bank, when certifying checks, assumes the obligation to pay the drawee
when the check is presented for payment
54. Unless otherwise stated, reconciling items are presumed to have been
taken up in the books or taken up by the bank
a. during the month the bank statement is prepared
b. in the immediately following month
c. in the immediately preceding month
d. in the immediately following or preceding reporting period, on a case-to-
case basis
55. In preparing the bank reconciliation using the adjusted balance method,
the first item listed in the bank reconciliation report for reconciling the
balance of cash in bank per books to the adjusted balance is the
a. balance of cash in bank per books as of the end of the month
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b. balance of cash in bank per books as of the beginning of the month

c. balance of cash in bank per bank statement as of the end of the month
d. balance of cash in bank per bank statement as of the beginning of the
month
the first item listed in the bank reconciliation report for reconciling the
balance of cash in bank per bank statement to the adjusted balance is the
a. Balance of cash in bank per books as of the end of the month
b. balance of cash in bank per books as of the beginning of the month
c. balance of cash in bank per bank statement as of the end of the month
d. balance of cash in bank per bank statement as of the beginning of the
month
errors to be included in reconciling the balance per books to the adjusted
balance include
a. only the errors committed by the company
b. only the errors committed by the bank
c. both the errors committed by the company and the bank
d. choice (c) if both errors affect the balance per books
58. Which of the following is deducted from the cash balance per bank when
computing for the cash balance reported in the books?
a. Deposit in transit c. Credit memo
b. Error d. Debit memo
59. When presenting a bank reconciliation statement prepared using the book
to bank method, which of the following is as a deduction in order to compute
for the cash balance per bank?
a. Deposit in transit c. Credit memo
b. Error d. Outstanding checks
60. In reconciling a business cash book with the bank statement, which of the
following items could require a subsequent entry in the cash book?
1. Checks presented after date.
2. A check from a customer which was dishonored.
3. An error by the bank.
4. Bank charges.
5. Deposits credited after date.
6. Standing order entered in bank statement.
a. 2, 3, 4 and 6 b. 1, 2, 5 and 6 c. 2, 4 and 6 d. 1, 3 and 5
(ACCA)
61. A bank reconciliation is
a. A formal financial statement that list all of the bank account balances of an
enterprise.
b. A merger of two banks that previously were competitors.
c. A statement sent by the bank to depositor on a monthly basis.
d. A schedule that accounts for the differences between an enterprise’s cash
balance as shown on its bank statement and the cash balance shown in its
general ledger.
(AICPA)
62. If the balance shown on a company's bank statement is less than the
correct cash balance, and neither the company nor the bank has made any
errors, there must be
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a. deposits credited by the bank but not yet recorded by the company.
b. outstanding checks.
c. bank charges not yet recorded by the company.
d. deposits in transit.
(AICPA)
63. If the cash balance shown in a company's accounting records is less than
the correct cash balance, and neither the company nor the bank has made any
errors, there must be
a. deposits credited by the bank but not yet recorded by the company.
b. deposits in transit.
c. outstanding checks.
d. bank charges not yet recorded by the company.
(Adapted)
64. Which of the following statements is false?

a. Certified check is a liability of the bank certifying it.
b. Certified check will be accepted by many persons who would not otherwise
accept a personal check.
c. Certified check is one drawn by the bank upon itself.
d. Certified check should not be included in the outstanding check.
(Adapted)
65. Bank statements provide information about all of the following except
a. checks cleared during the period c. bank charges for the period
b. NSF checks d. errors made by the company
(Adapted)
66. Which of the following items would be added to the book balance on a
bank reconciliation?
a. Outstanding checks
b. A check written for P63 entered as P36 in the accounting records
c. Interest paid by the bank
d. Deposits in transit
(Adapted)
67. In preparing a bank reconciliation, interest paid by the bank on the

account is
a. added to the bank balance c. added to the book balance
b. subtracted from the bank balance d. subtracted from the book balance
(Adapted)
68. In preparing a monthly bank reconciliation, which of the following items

would be added to the balance reported on the bank statement to arrive at the
correct cash balance?
a. Outstanding checks
b. Bank service charge
c. Deposits in transit
d. A customer's note collected by the bank on behalf of the depositor
69. Bank reconciliations are normally prepared on a monthly basis to identify

adjustments needed in the depositor's records and to identify bank errors.
Adjustments should be recorded for
a. bank errors, outstanding checks, and deposits in transit.
b. all items except bank errors, outstanding checks, and deposits in transit.
c. book errors, bank errors, deposits in transit, and outstanding checks.
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d. outstanding checks and deposits in transit.
Proof of cash
70. A reconciliation that includes proof of receipts and disbursements that is
useful in discovering possible discrepancies in handling cash over a certain
period of time.
a. Bank statement c. Proof of cash
b. Bank reconciliation d. Cash requirements report
71. A device not normally prepared on a regular basis but is a very useful tool
during fraud audits regarding defalcation of cash
a. Lapping statement c. Proof of cash
b. Bank reconciliation d. Cash requirements report
72. Regarding the preparation of a proof of cash, an erroneous book credit

committed in the previous month which is corrected this month
a. is an addition to previous month's balance per books and a deduction to
receipts in current month
b. is a deduction to previous month's balance per books and a deduction to
c. is an addition to current month's balance per books and a deduction to
receipts in previous month
d. is an addition to previous month's balance per bank statement and a
deduction to receipts in current month
73. When preparing a proof of cash, the correction for an overstatement of

cash in the previous month
a. is an addition to previous month's balance per books and a deduction to
b. is a deduction to previous month's cash balance and a deduction to current
month's disbursements
c. is an addition to previous month's balance per bank statement and a
deduction to receipts in current month
d. is an addition to previous month's balance per bank statement and a
deduction to current month's disbursements
74. A proof of cash would be useful for

a. Discovering cash receipts that have not been recorded in the journal.
b. Discovering time lag in making deposits.
c. Discovering cash receipts that have been recorded but have not been
deposited.
d. Discovering an inadequate separation of incompatible duties of employees.
(Adapted)
75. Del Co. prepares a four-column bank reconciliation. Check no. 8859 was
written for P5,670 on the books, but the check was written and cleared the
bank for the correct amount, P6,570. The correct treatment on the
reconciliation would be:
a. on the bank side, deduct P900 from payments and add P900 to ending
balance
b. on the book side, deduct P900 from payments and add P900 to ending
balance
c. on the book side, add P900 to payments and deduct P900 from ending
balance
d. on the bank side, add P900 to receipts and add P900 to ending balance
(Adapted)
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1. D 11. D 21. D 31. C 41. A 51. A 61. D 71. C
2. D 12. C 22. D 32. B 42. C 52. B 62. D 72. A
3. D 13. D 23. C 33. B 43. C 53. B 63. A 73. B
4. D 14. B 24. C 34. B 44. D 54. B 64. C 74. C
5. D 15. A 25. D 35. C 45. A 55. A 65. D 75. C
6. E 16. D 26. B 36. A 46. C 56. C 66. C
7. C 17. A 27. B 37. B 47. D 57. A 67. C
8. D 18. D 28. B 38. A 48. A 58. C 68. C
9. D 19. C 29. B 39. B 49. B 59. A 69. B
10. A 20. B 30. B 40. C 50. C 60. C 70. C
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Chapter 5
Receivables (Part 1)

Trade and other receivables
Information from the records of ABC Co. is shown below:
 Accounts receivable - net of P8,000 credit
balance in customers' accounts 100,000
 Notes receivable (trade) 15,000
 Notes receivable (non-trade), P15,000
collectible within one year 30,000
 Dividends receivable 2,000
 Subscriptions receivable 2,000
 Advances to officers and employees (due in 10
months) 4,000
 Accounts payable - net of P10,000 debit
balance in
suppliers' accounts 3,000
1. How much is the total trade receivables?

a. 108,000 b. 118,000 c. 123,000 d. 133,000
2. How much is the total current receivables?

a. 156,000 b. 144,000 c. 150,000 d. 154,000
Goods in-transit
3. On December 27, 20x1, ABC Co. received a sale order for a credit sale of goods
with selling price of ₱3,000. The goods were shipped by ABC on December 31,
20x1 and were received by the buyer on January 2, 20x2. The related shipping
costs amounted to ₱20. ABC Co. collected the receivable on January 5, 20x2. If
the term of the sale is FOB destination, freight collect, how much net cash is
collected on January 5, 20x2?
a. 3,020 b. 3,000 c. 2,980 d. 0
Gross method and Net method

STALWART STRONG Co. sells inventory with a list price of ₱200,000 on account
under credit terms of 20%, 10%, 2/10, n/30.
4. If STALWART uses the gross method, how much is the debit to account
receivable on initial recognition?
a. 114,120 b. 144,000 c. 200,000 d. 141,120
5. If STALWART uses the net method, how much is the debit to account
receivable on initial recognition?
a. 114,120 b. 144,000 c. 200,000 d. 141,120
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Allowance for sales return

The next two questions are based on the following information:
On December 31, 20x1, ABC Co. sold goods for ₱20,000 to XYZ, Inc. on account. To
induce sale, ABC Co. provides its buyers the right to return goods within 30 days
upon purchase if the buyers are not satisfied with the goods.
Case #1: Reliable estimate

6. ABC Co. can reliably estimate that 20% of the goods sold will be returned
within the agreed period of time. However, 25% of the goods are actually
returned on January 5, 20x2. How much is the net accounts receivable
recognized on the date of sale?
a. 20,000 b. 16,000 c. 15,000 d. 0
Case #2: No reliable estimate

7. ABC Co. cannot reliably estimate future returns. much is the net accounts
receivable recognized on the date of sale?
a. 20,000 b. 16,000 c. 15,000 d. 0
Percentage of credit sales method

8. ABC Co. has the following information on December 31, 20x1 before any year-
end adjustments.
Allowance for doubtful accounts, Jan. 1 30,400
Write-offs 19,000
Recoveries 3,800
Sales (including cash sales of ₱380,000) 2,280,000
Sales returns and discounts (including ₱3,800 sales returns
22,800
on cash sales)
Accounts receivable, Dec. 31 570,000
Percentage of credit sales 3%
How much is the recoverable historical cost of accounts receivable?

a. 498,370 b. 502,630 c. 486,780 d. 478,970
Percentage of receivable method

ABC Co. has the following information on December 31, 20x1 before any year-end
adjustments.
Accounts receivable, Jan. 1 80,000
Net credit sales 270,000
Collections from customers (including recoveries) 140,000
Allowance for doubtful accounts, Jan. 1 10,000
Write-offs 5,000
Recoveries 1,000
Percentage of receivables 5%
9. How much is the bad debt expense?

a. 4,250 b. 4,300 c. 4,550 d. 10,300
10. How much is the recoverable historical cost of accounts receivable?

a. 194,750 b. 200,450 c. 196,250 d. 195,700
Computation of percentage
11. ABC Co. has been recognizing bad debt expenses based on the direct write-off
method. In 20x4, ABC Co. decided to change to the allowance method and that
doubtful accounts shall be estimated using the percentage of receivables
method. The percentage is to be computed based on all available historical
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data up to a maximum of four years. Information for five years is shown

below:
Year Write-offs Recoveries Net credit sales
20x0 10,000 600 80,000
20x1 7,000 1,000 100,000
20x2 10,000 3,000 160,000
20x3 15,000 5,000 200,000
20x4 28,000 2,000 240,000
70,000 11,600 780,000
The balances of accounts receivables on January 1, 20x4 and December 31, 20x4
are ₱100,000 and ₱200,000, respectively.
How much is the doubtful accounts expense to be recognized in 20x4?

a. 19,900 b. 34,000 c. 35,000 d. 24,600
Aging based on days outstanding

12. ABC Co. has the following information:
Days outstanding Receivable balances % uncollectible
0 – 60 180,000 1%
61 – 120 135,000 2%
Over 120 150,000 6%
Total accounts receivables 465,000
During the year, ABC Co. wrote off ₱10,500 receivables and recovered ₱6,000
that had been written-off in prior years. The allowance for doubtful accounts has
a beginning balance of ₱3,000.
How much is the doubtful accounts expense for the year?

a. 20,000 b. 25,000 c. 15,000 d. 30,000
Aging based on days past due

13. ABC Co. sells to wholesalers on terms of 2/15, net 30. An analysis of ABC Co.’s
trade receivable balances at December 31, 20x1, revealed the following:
Age in days Receivable balances
0 – 15 180,000
16 – 30 108,000
31 – 60 90,000
61 – 90 72,000
91 – 120 54,000
121 – 150 36,000
ABC Co. uses the aging of receivables method. The estimated percentages of
collectibility based on past experience are shown below.
Accounts which are overdue for less than 31 days 97%
Accounts which are overdue 31 – 60 days 90%
Accounts which are overdue for over 120 days 40%
The allowance for doubtful accounts has a balance of ₱18,000 as of January 1,

20x1. Write-offs and recoveries during the year amounted to ₱6,000 and ₱3,000,
respectively.
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How much is the doubtful accounts expense for the year?

a. 15,600 b. 9,000 c. 22,600 d. 28,200
Combination of methods
ABC Co. has the following information on December 31, 20x1 before any year-end
adjustments.
Net credit sales 6,300,000
Accounts receivable, December 976,500
Allowance for doubtful accounts, Dec. 31 (before any
53,550
necessary year-end adjustments)
Percentage of credit sales 2%
The aging of receivables is shown below:

Days outstanding Receivable balances % uncollectible
0 – 60 378,000 1%
61 – 120 283,500 2%
Over 120 315,000 6%
 ABC Co. uses the percentage of credit sales in determining bad debts in
monthly financial reports and the aging of receivables for its annual financial
statements.
 Accounts written-off during the year amounted to ₱119,700 and accounts
recovered amounted to ₱28,350.
 As of December 31, ABC Co. determined that ₱63,000 accounts receivable from
a certain customer included in the “61-120 days outstanding” group is 95%
collectible and a ₱31,500 account included in the “Over 120 days outstanding”
group is worthless and needs to be written-off.
14. How much is the balance of the allowance for doubtful accounts on January 1,
20x1?
a. 12,600 b. 18,900 c. 19,200 d. 23,400
15. How much is the adjusted bad debt expense to be reported in the year-end
a. 123,300 b. 128,700 c. 143,300 d. 132,300
Debit balance in allowance for doubtful accounts

16. ABC Co. has the following information before any year-end adjustment.
Accounts receivable, Dec. 31 200,000
Allowance for doubtful accounts, Jan. 1 6,000 (Dr.)
Percentage of receivables 2%
Recoveries and write-offs during the year amounted to ₱1,000 and ₱7,600,
respectively.
How much is the bad debts expense for the year?

a. 3,400 b. 4,600 c. 16,600 d. 10,600

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1. Receivables arising from sales to customers are best described as
a. accounts receivables c. trade receivables
b. note receivables d. non-trade receivables
2. If a receivable account has a credit balance

a. the credit balance is offset with other receivable accounts with debit
balances
b. an adjusting entry is needed to eliminate the credit balance
c. the credit balance is classified as a liability
d. b and c
3. Which of the following increases the reported receivables in the financial

statements?
a. offsetting a credit balance in an account receivable
b. a credit balance in an account payable
c. adjustment to eliminate a debit balance in account payable
d. a credit balance in an allowance account
4. The category "trade receivables" includes

a. advances to officers and employees.
b. income tax refunds receivable.
c. claims against insurance companies for casualties sustained.
d. none of these.
(Adapted)
5. Which of the following should be recorded in Accounts Receivable?

a. Receivables from officers c. Dividends receivable
b. Receivables from subsidiaries d. None of these
(Adapted)
6. Which of the following is not a characteristic of receivables?

a. They have fixed or determinable payments.
b. The holder can recover substantially all of its investment (unless there has
been credit deterioration).
c. They are not quoted in an active market.
d. The holder has a demonstrated positive intention and ability to hold them
to maturity.
(Adapted)
7. Which of the following is not an acceptable balance sheet presentation of

receivables?
a. the allowance for bad debts is not offset against the related receivables
but rather shown in a parenthetical notation as deduction to receivables
b. trade notes receivable are combined with trade accounts receivable
c. cash advances to officers which are due after one year but within the
entity’s 18-month operating cycle, are reported as current assets
d. unearned finance charges included in the face amount of receivables are
presented as deduction from the related receivables
(Adapted)
8. These receivables are classified as current or noncurrent based on the length

of the entity’s normal operating cycle
a. accounts receivables c. trade receivables
b. notes receivables d. nontrade receivables
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9. Trade receivables are preferably presented on the face of the statement of

financial position
a. as a separate line item distinguished from other receivables
b. as part of one line item, included and undistinguished from other
receivables
c. as part of current assets, included and undistinguished from other assets
d. as part of one line item but distinguished from other receivables
10. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding recognition of

receivables?
a. An entity shall recognize a receivable when the entity becomes party to
the contractual provisions of the instrument
b. Trade receivables are recognized simultaneously with the recognition of
related revenue when the criteria for revenue recognition are met.
c. Non-trade receivables are recognized when contractual rights over the
future cash flows of the receivables have been established and future
economic benefits are both probable and measurable.
d. Receivables are initially recognized at fair value
11. Receivables are initially recognized at

a. fair value c. net realizable value
b. amortized cost d. fair value plus direct costs
12. For trade receivables, the fair value is deemed equal to the
a. exchange price between a seller and a buyer after taking into account the
amount of any trade discounts and volume rebates allowed by the entity.
b. the amount due from the buyer without adjustment for any trade
discounts allowed
c. the quoted price of the receivable in an active market
d. the price in a binding sale agreement
13. The entry to be made by the seller for a P10,000 freight on a sale transaction
with terms of FOB Shipping Point, Freight Collect is
a. Freight-in 10,000 c. Freight-in 10,000
Cash 10,000 Receivable 10,000
b. Freight-out 10,000 d. No entry
Cash 10,000
with terms of FOB Shipping Point, Freight Prepaid is
a. Payable 10,000 c. Freight-out 10,000
Cash 10,000 Cash 10,000
b. Receivable 10,000 d. Cash 10,000
with terms of FOB Destination, Freight Prepaid is
b. Freight-out 10,000 d. Accounts receivable10,000
Cash 10,000 Cash 10,000
16. What is the effect upon the total assets of a business when an account
receivable has been collected?
a. increase total assets c. no change in total assets
b. decrease total assets d. decrease of receivable only
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17. The value at which advances to subsidiaries and affiliates should be carried is
a. face amount
b. fair value
c. face amount less allowance for uncollectible accounts and impairment
losses recognized
d. fair value with changes in fair values recognized in profit or loss
18. If it is known that sales are often recorded for merchandise that is shipped on
approval and available data suggests that a material proportion of such sales
are returned by the customers,
a. loss should be recognized under the immediate recognition principle
b. loss should be recognized under the matching concept
c. these estimated future returns must be accrued
d. future returns are ignored
19. Material amounts of anticipated discounts and allowances should be recorded

a. in the period of sale c. when the boss says so
b. when discounts are availed of d. they are not recorded
20. The “Allowance for sales discounts” account may be used under
a. Gross method c. Allowance method
b. Net method d. a or b
21. The “Allowance for sales returns” account may be used under
a. Gross method c. Allowance method
b. Net method d. a or b
22. If a company employs the gross method of recording accounts receivable

from customers, then sales discounts taken by customers should be
a. reported as a deduction from sales in the income statement.
b. reported as an item of "other expense" in the income statement.
c. reported as a deduction from accounts receivable in determining the net
realizable value of accounts receivable.
d. reported as sales discounts forfeited in the cost of goods sold section of
the income statement.
23. An allowance for cash discounts that is presented in the financial statements
as deduction from accounts receivable and is based on an estimate of future
cash discounts expected to be taken is an effect of
a. consistency principle c. materiality principle
b. revenue principle d. conservatism principle
24. Poison Company sold merchandise on credit with a list price of P70,000.
Terms were 2/10, n/30. Given the indicated sales discounts methods in the
responses, which entry is correct?
a. Gross price method
Accounts receivable 63,000
Sales 63,000
b. Net price method
Sales 68,600
c. Net price method
Sales 40,000
d. Gross price method
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Sales 68,600
(RPCPA)
25. The “Sales returns and allowances” account is reported as a:

a. contra-revenue account in the income statement
b. current liability on the balance sheet
c. deduction from accounts receivable on the balance sheet
d. selling expense on the income statement
26. Theoretically, the amount of estimated future returns and allowances on

credit sales should be recorded during the period of the sale so as not to
overstate sales and ending accounts receivable. In practice, these estimates
are rarely recorded because:
a. the amount of such returns and allowances tends to fluctuate too greatly
from period to period.
b. there is too much uncertainty surrounding such estimates.
c. such estimates are not allowed according to generally accepted accounting
principles
d. the amount of such returns and allowances is usually not material
(RPCPA)
27. The most theoretically sound method of accounting for cash discounts on
credit sales is the:
a. net method c. gross method
b. discounted price method d. net present value
(RPCPA)
28. Which of the following is an advantage of using the net price method for
recording cash discounts on credit sales?
a. It eases communication with customers about their balances
b. It properly reflects current period sales revenue
c. It simplifies recording of sales returns and allowances
d. It requires less record keeping than the gross method
(RPCPA)
29. Which of the following affects most the valuation of an entity's receivables?
a. The rate of sales growth
b. The type of business that a firm is engaged in
c. The allowance for uncollectible accounts
d. The seasonality of a company's products
30. A credit entry to the Allowance for uncollectible account

a. increases the balance c. neither of these answers is correct
b. increases net receivables d. both of these answers are correct
31. Which of the following is used to calculate the actual adjustment for bad debt
expense for the period?
a. percentage of accounts receivable c. aging
b. percentage of net credit sales d. all of these
32. The allowance for uncollectible accounts is based on all of the following
except:
a. Experience c. Customer fortunes
b. Profitability expectancy d. Industry expectations
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33. Which of the following is a valuable investigation tool for analysis of the
collectibility of a firm's receivables?
a. Determining patterns of receivables for peers as a percentage of net credit
sales.
b. An examination of any customer concentrations.
c. An analysis of the adequacy of allowances for trade discounts, and returns
and allowances.
d. An aging schedule.
e. All of these
34. In practice, the deductions that would be made for estimated returns,
allowances, and discounts are rarely made because
a. they are usually deemed to be immaterial
b. GAAP does not require such allowances
c. it is always difficult to make estimates
d. such estimates are a matter of company policy
35. Under the direct method,

a. doubtful accounts are charged as an expense
b. estimates for uncollectible accounts are made periodically and an
allowance is set up to recognize such uncollectible accounts
c. an expense is recognized when it is estimated that the collection from a
receivable is deemed doubtful
d. a receivable is charged off only when it is clear that it cannot be collected
36. Doubtful accounts expense should be presented in the income statement

under
a. selling expense c. administrative expense
b. other expense d. cost of goods sold
37. When the allowance method of recognizing uncollectible accounts is used,

how would the collection of an account previously written off affect accounts
receivable and the allowance for uncollectible accounts?
Item #1: Accounts receivable; Item #2: Allowance for uncollectible accounts
a. Increase , Decrease c. No effect, Decrease
b. Increase, No effect d. No effect, Increase
(AICPA)
38. Which of the following methods of determining bad debt expense does not
conform with the accrual basis of accounting nor the matching principle?
a. Charging bad debts with a percentage of net credit sales under the
allowance method.
b. Charging bad debts with an amount derived from a percentage of accounts
receivable under the allowance method.
c. Charging bad debts with an amount derived from aging accounts
receivable under the allowance method.
d. Charging bad debts as accounts are written off as uncollectible.
39. Which of the following methods of determining bad debt expense best
achieves the matching concept?
a. Percentage of net credit sales
b. Percentage of ending accounts receivable
c. Aging of accounts receivable
d. Direct write-off
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40. Which of the following is a generally accepted method of determining the

amount of the adjustment to bad debt expense?
a. A percentage of net credit sales adjusted for the balance in the allowance
b. A percentage of net credit sales not adjusted for the balance in the
allowance
c. A percentage of accounts receivable not adjusted for the balance in the
allowance
d. An amount derived from aging accounts receivable and not adjusted for
the balance in the allowance
41. The advantage of relating a company's bad debt expense to its credit sale is
that this approach
a. gives a reasonably correct statement of receivables in the balance sheet.
b. best relates bad debt expense to the period of sale.
c. is the only generally accepted method for valuing accounts receivable.
d. makes estimates of uncollectible accounts unnecessary.
(AICPA)
42. Chris Co. prepares an accounts receivable aging schedule with a series of
computation as follows: 2% of the total peso balance of accounts from 1—60
days past due, plus 5% of the total peso balance of accounts from 61—120
days past due and so on. How would you describe the total of the, amounts
determined in this series of computations?
a. it is the amount of bad debts expense for the year
b. it is the amount that should be added to the allowance for doubtful
accounts at year end
c. it is the amount of the desired credit balance of the allowance for doubtful
accounts to be reported in the year-end financial statements
d. when added to the total of accounts written off during the year, this new
sum is the desired credit balance of the allowance account
(RPCPA)
43. Ismael Co. recorded a bad debt recovery using the allowance method of
accounting for bad debts. Compare (X) the working capital before the
recovery with (Y), the working capital after the recovery.
a. X equals Y c. X is less than Y
b. X is greater than Y d. X is equal to or less than Y
(RPCPA)
44. Mr. Golf Champ maintains the accounts receivable records, authorizes the
write-off of uncollectible accounts, issues credit memoranda to customers,
and handles cash receipts from customers. When customers are late in paying
their accounts, Mr. Golf Champ often writes off the account as uncollectible
and abstracts the cash received from the customer. This fraud should come to
light if an employee other than Mr. Golf Champ.
a. reconciles the bank statement to the accounting records
b. reconciles the accounts receivable subsidiary ledger to the controlling
account
c. reconciles credit memoranda for sales returns to the returned
merchandise accepted by the receiving department
d. none of the above
(RPCPA)
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a. The net realizable value of the total amount of accounts receivable is

defined as the gross amount billed to customers less any cash and trade
discounts.
b. When a specified bad debt which has already been written off is later
collected, sales revenue is increased by the amount of the recovery.
c. The primary accounting principle supporting use of the allowance for
doubtful accounts is the cost principle.
d. An estimate of bad debt expense based upon credit sales rather than total
sales will likely be more in conformity with the matching principle.
46. Which of the following methods may not be appropriate for estimating bad
debt expense?
a. Individual or collective assessment of outstanding receivables
b. Percentage of outstanding accounts receivable
c. Aging of accounts receivable
d. Percentage of sales
(Adapted)

a. If the estimate of bad debt expense is made on the basis of net credit sales,
an entry is made each period to the account, "Allowance for Doubtful
Accounts," without regard to the prior balance in that account.
b. If the allowance for doubtful accounts has been underestimated, a sale of
the related receivables to a factor is more likely to result in a gain than in
loss.
c. If credit terms to customers were 2/10, n/30, a two percent discount will
be granted if payment is made within 10 days of the date of sale.
d. If the estimate of the bad debt expense is made on the basis of net
realizable value of the accounts receivable the balance of the account,
"Allowance for Doubtful Accounts," is adjusted so that the adjusted
balance reflects the computed amount needed to properly value the
receivables.
(RPCPA)
48. Which of the following accounting principle primarily supports the use of
allowance for doubtful accounts?
a. continuity principle c. matching
b. full-disclosure d. cost principle
(RPCPA)
49. The allowance method of recognizing bad debt expense can be applied in
more than one way. What two conditions must be met before the allowance
method can be used?
a. bad debts must be expected and material
b. bad debts must be relevant and reliable
c. bad debts must be probable and estimable
d. bad debts must be consistent over time and the method used to estimate
them must be consistently applied
(RPCPA)
50. A company uses the allowance method to account for bad debts. Early 20x1,
one of the company's best customers went bankrupt. The customer owed for
P6,570 of goods purchased on credit. At the end of 20x1, this amount was
considered uncollectible. What entry should be made to reflect this
information?
a. Loss of bad debts 6,570
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b. Bad debt expense 6,570
c. Allowance for doubtful accounts 6,570
d. Loss on bad debts 6,570
(RPCPA)
51. If a company uses a percentage of receivables in computing the amount of

uncollectible accounts expense:
a. no valuation allowance will be required
b. the relationship between revenue and expenses is being stressed more
than the valuation of receivables at the balance sheet date.
c. the existing balance in the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts will be
increased sufficiently to equal the probable loss indicated by the
percentage of receivables computation
d. any past-due accounts will be listed as a separate item in the balance sheet
(RPCPA)
52. Eureka Co. sells goods to Ancing, a customer who uses Swipe Credit Card.
Eureka should record this sale as:
a. an account receivable from Ancing.
b. cash receipt.
c. an account receivable from Swipe.
d. an increase in the allowance for doubtful accounts.
53. When a company decides to sell its goods on credit, it should evaluate the
effect on profit of:
Item #1: Additional Revenues; Item #2: Additional Expenses
(RPCPA)
54. An advantage of relating a company's bad debt expense to its accounts

receivable is that this approach:
a. is the only way generally accepted method for "valuing" accounts
receivable.
b. gives a reasonable valuation of accounts receivable in the statement of
financial position.
c. does not require estimates of uncollectible accounts.
d. does not require knowledge of the balance in the allowance for doubtful
accounts before adjustment for bad debt expense.
(AICPA)
55. At December 31, before adjusting and closing the accounts had occurred, the
Allowance for Doubtful Accounts of Wise Corporation showed a debit balance
of P5,300. An aging of the accounts receivable indicated the amount probably
uncollectible to be P3,900. Under these circumstances, a year-end adjusting
entry for uncollectible accounts expense would include a:
a. debit to the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts for P1,400
b. credit to the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts for P1,400
c. debit to Uncollectible Accounts Expense, P3,900
d. debit to Uncollectible Accounts Expense, P9,200
(AICPA)
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56. When the allowance method of recognizing bad debt expense is used, the
entry to record the specific write-off of a specific customers’ account
a. decreases current assets c. has no effect on profit
b. decreases profit d. decreases working capital
57. When the allowance method of recognizing bad debt expense is used, the
entry to record the specific write-off of an uncollectible account would
decrease
a. net accounts receivable c. profit
b. allowance for doubtful accounts d. working capital
58. When the percentage of credit sales method is used in determining doubtful
accounts, the amount computed represents the
a. required balance
b. bad debt expense
c. bad debt expense after adjustments for write-offs, recoveries and changes
in the balance of the allowance for doubtful accounts
d. required balance after adjustments for write-offs, recoveries and changes
in the balance of the allowance for doubtful accounts
59. In its December 31 balance sheet, Devin Co. reported trade accounts
receivable of P250,000 and related allowance for uncollectible accounts of
P20,000. What is the total amount of risk of accounting loss related to Devin's
trade accounts receivable, and what amount of that risk is off balance-sheet
risk? (Item #1) Risk of accounting loss; (Item #2) Off-balance-sheet risk
a. 0, 0 c. 230,000, 20,000
b. 230,000, 0 d. 250,000, 20,000
(AICPA)

1. C 11. D 21. D 31. B 41. B 51. C
2. D 12. A 22. A 32. B 42. C 52. C
3. C 13. D 23. D 33. E 43. A 53. A
4. D 14. B 24. B 34. A 44. D 54. B
5. D 15. B 25. A 35. D 45. D 55. D
6. D 16. C 26. D 36. C 46. D 56. C
7. C 17. C 27. A 37. D 47. B 57. B
8. C 18. C 28. B 38. D 48. C 58. B
9. B 19. A 29. C 39. A 49. C 59. B
10. D 20. A 30. A 40. B 50. C
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Chapter 6

Initial measurement
1. An entity sells goods either on cash basis or on 6-month installment basis. On
January 1, 20x1, goods with cash price of ₱50,000 were sold at an installment
price of ₱75,000. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Net receivable of ₱75,000 is recognized on the date of sale.
b. Net receivable of ₱50,000 is recognized upon full payment of the total
price.
c. The ₱20,000 difference between the cash price and installment price is
recognized as interest income on the date of sale.
d. Net receivable of ₱50,000 is recognized on the date of sale.
Initial measurement
2. An entity sells goods for ₱150,000 to a customer who was granted a special
credit period of 1 year. The entity normally sells the goods for ₱120,000 with
a credit period of one month or with a ₱10,000 discount for outright payment
in cash. How much is the initial measurement of the receivable?
a. 150,000 b. 120,000 c. 130,000 d. 110,000
Initial measurement
3. ABC Co. received the following note receivables on January 1, 20x1:
9-month, 10% note from Alpha Company. 15,000
6-month, noninterest bearing note from Beta, Inc. (the
effect of discounting is deemed immaterial) 20,000
14%, 3-year note from Charlie Corp. 30,000
Market rate of interest on January 1, 20x1 10%
At what total net amount will the notes be initially recognized?

a. 65,000 b. 53,673 c. 62,357 d. 50,000
Simple interest
4. On August 1, 20x1, ABC Co. received a ₱1,200,000, 10%, 3-year note
receivable in exchange for a vacant lot carried in the books at ₱850,000.
Principal, in three equal installments, plus interest are due annually starting
August 1, 20x2. Current market rates as of April 1, 20x1, December 31, 20x1,
and December 31, 20x2 are 10%, 12% and 13%, respectively. How much
interest receivable is recognized on December 31, 20x2?
a. 33,333 b. 40,000 c. 50,000 d. 60,000
Compounded interest
5. On January 1, 20x1, ABC Co. extended a ₱1,200,000 loan to one of its officers
as part of ABC Co.’s car and housing assistance program. The note received is
due on January 1, 20x4 and bears 10% interest compounded annually. How
much interest receivable is recognized on December 31, 20x2 statement of
financial position?
a. 132,000 b. 120,000 c. 168,000 d. 252,000
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Noninterest-bearing note – lump sum

On January 1, 20x1, ABC Co. sold a transportation equipment with a historical
cost of ₱1,000,000 and accumulated depreciation of ₱300,000 in exchange for
cash of ₱100,000 and a noninterest-bearing note receivable of ₱800,000 due on
January 1, 20x4. The prevailing rate of interest for this type of note is 12%.
6. How much is the interest income in 20x1?

a. 68,331 b. 76,532 c. 85,714 d. 96,000
7. How much is the carrying amount of the receivable on December 31, 20x2?
a. 800,000 b. 569,424 c. 637,755 d. 714,286
Noninterest-bearing note – installments

On January 1, 20x1, ABC Co. sold transportation equipment with a historical cost
of ₱20,000,000 and accumulated depreciation of ₱7,000,000 in exchange for cash
of ₱500,000 and a noninterest-bearing note receivable of ₱8,000,000 due in 4
equal annual installments starting on December 31, 20x1 and every December 31
thereafter. The prevailing rate of interest for this type of note is 12%.

a. 728,946 b. 678,334 c. 728,964 d. 704,236
9. How much is the current portion of the receivable on December 31, 20x1?
a. 1,271,036 b. 1,423,560 c. 3,380,102 d. 1,594,388
a. 4,803,663 b. 3,380,102 c. 6,074,699 d. 6,000,000
Noninterest-bearing note – installment in advance

On January 1, 20x1, ABC Co. sold transportation equipment with a historical cost
of ₱12,000,000 and accumulated depreciation of ₱7,000,000 in exchange for cash
of ₱100,000 and a noninterest-bearing note receivable of ₱4,000,000 due in 4
equal annual installments starting on January 1, 20x1 and every January 1
thereafter. The prevailing rate of interest for this type of note is 12%.

a. 408,230 b. 278,334 c. 328,964 d. 288,220
a. 1,690,510 b. 892,857 c. 2,690,051 d. 1,594,388
13. How much is the carrying amount of the receivable on January 1, 20x3?
a. 892,857 b. 3,380,102 c. 6,074,699 d. 6,000,000
Noninterest-bearing note – semiannual cash flows

On January 1, 20x1, ABC Co. sold machinery with historical cost of ₱3,000,000
and accumulated depreciation of ₱900,000 in exchange for a 3-year, ₱2,100,000
noninterest-bearing note receivable due in equal semi-annual payments every
July 1 and December 31 starting on July 1, 20x1. The prevailing rate of interest
for this type of note is 10%.
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a. 88,825 b. 177,649 c. 128,964 d. 164,591
a. 1,241,083 b. 982,378 c. 1,690,051 d. 1,594,388
Noninterest-bearing note – non-uniform cash flows

16. On January 1, 20x1, ABC Co. sold machinery costing ₱3,000,000 with
accumulated depreciation of ₱1,100,000 in exchange for a 3-year, ₱900,000
noninterest-bearing note receivable due as follows:
Date Amount of installment
December 31, 20x1 400,000
December 31, 20x2 300,000
December 31, 20x3 200,000
Total 900,000
The prevailing rate of interest for this type of note is 10%. How much is the
carrying amount of the receivable on December 31, 20x1?
a. 467,354 b. 438,016 c. 376,345 d. 428,346
Receivable with cash price equivalent

On January 1, 20x1, ABC Co. sold inventory costing ₱1,800,000 with a list price of
₱2,200,000 and a cash price of ₱2,000,000 in exchange for a ₱2,400,000
noninterest-bearing note due on December 31, 20x3.
17. How much is the initial measurement of the receivable?

a. 1,800,000 b. 2,200,000 c. 2,000,000 d. 2,400,000
a. 2,125,390 b. 2,135,341 c. 2,098,343 d. 2,000,000
Note with below-market interest (simple interest) - Principal due at

maturity, interests due periodically
19. On January 1, 20x1, ABC Co. sold machinery with historical cost of ₱5,000,000
and accumulated depreciation of ₱1,900,000 in exchange for a 3-year, 3%,
₱3,000,000 note receivable. Principal is due on January 1, 20x4 but interest is
due annually every December 31. The prevailing interest rate for this type of
note is 12%. How much is the carrying amount of the receivable on December
31, 20x1?
a. 2,159,324 b. 2,249,324 c. 2,543,685 d. 3,000,000
Note with below-market interest (simple interest) - Principal due at

maturity, interests due in semi-annual installments
20. On July 1, 20x1, ABC Co. sold machinery costing ₱12,000,000 with
accumulated depreciation of ₱9,000,000 in exchange for a 3-year, 3%,
₱4,000,000 note receivable. Principal is due on July 1, 20x4 but interests are
due semiannually every July 1 and January 1. The prevailing interest rate for
this type of note is 12%. How much is the interest income in 20x1?
a. 186,893 b. 381,399 c. 94,147 d. 120,000
Note with below market interest (simple interest) - Principal and interests
collectible in installments
accumulated depreciation of ₱950,000 in exchange for a 3-year, 3%, ₱900,000
note receivable. Principal is due in three equal annual installments. Interests
on the outstanding principal balance are also due annually and are to be
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collected together with the periodic collections on the principal. The

prevailing interest rate for this type of note is 12%. How much is the carrying
amount of the receivable on December 31, 20x1?
a. 530,261 b. 1,000,562 c. 673,531 d. 789,361
Note with below market interest (compound interest) - Principal and

interests due at maturity
accumulated depreciation of ₱950,000 in exchange for a 3-year, ₱1,200,000
note receivable. Principal and interest at 3% are due on January 1, 20x4. The
prevailing interest rate for this type of note is 12%. How much is the carrying
amount of the receivable on initial recognition date?
a. 1,311,272 b. 2,000,000 c. 933,337 d. 854,136
Total interest income over the life of a note

23. ABC Co. received a ₱1,000,000, 8%, 5-year note that requires five equal
annual year-end payments. The effective interest rate on the note is 9%.
How much is total interest revenue to be earned on the note?
a. 250,438 b. 278,074 c. 25,882 d. 225,882
Non-interest bearing note with deferred uniform payments

24. On January 1, 20x1, ABC Co. sold a used equipment in exchange for a
₱1,200,000 noninterest-bearing note receivable due in three equal annual
installments starting January 1, 20x4. The current market rate of interest on
January 1, 20x1 is 12%. How much is the carrying amount of the receivable on
initial recognition date?
a. 890,365 b. 728,860 c. 765,890 d. 821,060
Non-interest bearing note with deferred non-uniform payments

25. On January 1, 20x1, ABC Co. sold a used equipment in exchange for a
₱4,500,000 non-interest bearing note due in three annual installments as
follows:
Jan. 1, 20x4 2,000,000
Jan. 1, 20x5 1,500,000
Jan. 1, 20x6 1,000,000
Total 4,500,000
The current market rate of interest on January 1, 20x1 is 12%. How much is the
carrying amount of the receivable on initial recognition date?
a. 1,980,685 b. 2,728,860 c. 2,944,264 d. 2,818,706
Pre-acquisition accrued interest

26. On March 1, 20x1, ABC Co. received a ₱1,000,000, 12%, one-year note dated
January 1, 20x1 from XYZ, Inc. in exchange for a ₱1,000,000 past due account.
How much interest income is recognized in 20x1?
a. 120,000 b. 100,000 c. 90,000 d. 0

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1. Which of the following statements correctly relate to accounting for loans and
receivables?
I. Andres Company sold equipment to Bonifacio Company, taking in
exchange a non-interest bearing note, the face amount of which was in
excess of the fair value of the equipment. In a balance sheet prepared
immediately after receipt of the note, Andres Company should present the
note at its face value plus the anticipated net earnings to the note.
II. Receivables denominated in a foreign currency, when reported on the
year-end statement of financial position, should be translated to local
currency at the rate of exchange at acquisition.
III. The collection of an account which was previously written off through the
allowance method of recognizing bad debts would affect the total current
assets.
IV. Significant amounts of installment receivables should be disclosed
V. Under PAS 1 trade receivables should be shown separately on the face of
the balance sheet. Notes receivable may either be combined with or
separated from accounts receivable.
a. IV, V b. II, IV, V c. I, III, IV, V d. IV
2. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the initial

recognition of receivables?
a. On initial recognition, the fair value of a short-term receivable may be
equal to its face amount.
b. On initial recognition, the fair value of a long-term receivable bearing a
reasonable interest rate is deemed equal to its face amount.
c. On initial recognition, the fair value of a long-term noninterest bearing
receivable is deemed equal to the present value of future cash flows from
the instrument discounted at the effective interest rate on initial
recognition.
d. On initial recognition, the fair value of all interest-bearing receivables is
deemed equal to their face amount.
3. If the gross amount of receivables includes unearned interest or finance

charges
a. these should be presented in the statement of financial position as
liability.
b. these should be deducted in arriving at the net amount to be presented in
the statement of financial position.
c. these should be added in arriving at the net amount to be presented in the
statement of financial position.
d. these should be ignored.
4. Loans and receivables are initially recognized at

a. fair value
b. face value
c. amortized cost
d. fair value plus transaction costs that are directly attributable to the
acquisition
5. Loans and receivables are measured, subsequent to initial recognition, at

a. historical cost c. amortized cost
b. fair value d. effective value
6. Jellyfish Co. lent P10,000 to a major supplier in exchange for a noninterest-

bearing note due in three years and a contract to purchase a fixed amount of
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merchandise from the supplier at a 10% discount from prevailing market

prices over the next three years. The market rate for a note of this type is
10%. On issuing the note, Jellyfish should record
(Item #1) Deferred charge; (Item #2) Discount on note receivable
(AICPA)
7. On July 1, 2010, a company obtained a two-year 8% note receivable for

services rendered. At that time the market rate of interest was 10%. The face
amount of the note and the entire amount of the interest are due on June 30,
2012. Interest receivable at December 31, 2010, was
a. 5% of the face value of the note.
b. 4% of the face value of the note.
c. 5% of the July 1,2010, present value of the amount due June 30, 2012.
d. 4% of the July 1,2010, present value of the amount due June 30, 2012.
(AICPA)
8. Which of the following best describes the concept of time value of money?
a. interest is earned or incurred on debt instruments due to passage of time
b. interest is earned only on interest-bearing receivables
c. the amount debited to interest receivable is always equal to the interest
income recognized during the period
d. if no interest receivable is recognized, no interest income is also
recognized
9. If the contractual cash flow from a debt instrument is due in lump sum, the
appropriate present value factor to be used is
a. PV of ₱1 c. PV of an annuity due of ₱1
b. PV of an ordinary annuity of ₱1 d. No one knows except the CPA
10. If the contractual cash flows from a debt instrument are due in installments
with the first installment due one period after initial recognition, the
b. PV of an ordinary annuity of ₱1 d. Ask the auditor
11. If the contractual cash flows from a debt instrument are due in installments
with the first installment due immediately on initial recognition, the
b. PV of an ordinary annuity of ₱1 d. Please don’t ask me
12. Which of the following is incorrect in relation to the concept of time value of
money?
a. Present value is the exact opposite of Future value
b. If a noninterest-bearing note of ₱10,000 has a present value of ₱7,513
then the future value of ₱7,513 is ₱10,000 using the same discount rate
and period used in the present value computation
c. If the contractual cash flows from a debt instrument are due in semi-
annual installments, the discount rate is divided by 2 and the period is
multiplied by 2 in computing for the present value factor.
d. The concept of time value of money means that the value of money
decreases over time due to inflation.
13. Which of the following is incorrect in relation to accounting for note

receivables?
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a. a long-term note that is interest-bearing may nonetheless be discounted if

it bears an unreasonable interest rate.
b. the unearned interest income on a noninterest-bearing note receivable
represents the total interest income to be recognized over the life of the
note.
c. the present value factor using a period (‘n’) of zero is 1
d. when accounting for noninterest-bearing note, the legal form of the
instrument takes precedence over its substance
14. If “PV” is the present value of an instrument, “CF” is the future cash flows, and
“PVF” is the present value factor, then future cash flows may be computed as
a. CF = PVF + PV c. CF = PVF ÷ PV
b. CF = PVF x PV d. CF = PV ÷ PVF
15. What is the effective interest rate of a bond or other debt instrument
measured at amortized cost?
a. The stated coupon rate of the debt instrument.
b. The interest rate currently charged by the entity or by others for similar
debt instruments (i.e., similar remaining maturity, cash flow pattern,
currency, credit risk, collateral, and interest basis).
c. The interest rate that exactly discounts estimated future cash payments or
receipts through the expected life of the debt instrument or, when
appropriate, a shorter period to the net carrying amount of the
instrument.
d. The basic, risk-free interest rate that is derived from observable
government bond prices.
(Adapted)
16. Which of the following is true regarding non-interest bearing note

receivables?
a. they are always discounted to their present value on initial recognition
b. they include a specified principal amount but an unspecified interest
amount
c. they include a specified principal and specified interest
d. they cause no interest income to be recognized over their term
e. they include an unspecified principal and an unspecified interest
(Adapted)
17. An entity received a 15-day non-interest bearing note receivable. The entity
would most likely recognize the note on initial recognition at
a. current value c. appraised value
b. maturity value d. present value
(Adapted)
18. Which statement is not true?

a. Notes receivable initially should be recorded at the present value of the
future cash receipts on the date of issue.
b. All notes implicitly carry interest
c. Discount on notes receivable is a contra account frequently found with
interest-bearing notes
d. The Notes receivable dishonored account is an asset account
(Adapted)
19. On March 1, 20x1, Nickelodeon Co. received a 12% note receivable dated
January 1, 20x1. Principal and interest on the note are due on July 1, 20x1. On
initial recognition, which of the following accounts increased?
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a. Prepaid interest c. Unearned interest income

b. Interest receivable d. Interest revenue
20. Spongebob Squarepants lent ₱2,000 to Squidward for one year at 10%
interest, all due at maturity. He insisted the terms of the transaction be
formalized in promissory note. In this situation:
a. the maturity value of the note is ₱2,000
b. Spongebob Squarepants is considered the maker of the note and records
the note as an asset in his accounting records
c. Spongebob Squarepants is considered the maker of the note and records
the note as a liability in his accounting records
d. Squidward is considered the maker of the note and records the note as a
liability in his accounting records
(Adapted)
21. Sandy Company received a 12%, 3-year note receivable that is collectible in
monthly installments in exchange for services rendered. What is the note
receivable’s carrying amount one year after initial recognition?
a. Two-thirds of the billing price
b. Less than two-thirds of the net billing price
c. The present value of remaining future cash flows discounted at the
current market rate as of year-end
d. The present value of the remaining monthly payments discounted at 12%
22. Which of the following statements regarding interest methods of allocations

is not true?
a. The term “interest methods of allocation” refers both to the convention for
periodic reporting and to the several approaches to dealing with changes
in estimated future cash flows.
b. Interest methods of allocation are reporting conventions that use present
value techniques in the absence of a fresh-start measurement to compute
changes in the carrying amount of an asset or liability from one period to
the next.
c. Interest methods of allocation are grounded in the notion of current cost.
d. Holding gains and losses are generally excluded from allocation systems.
(AICPA)
23. Which of the following is not an objective of using present value in accounting
measurements?
a. To capture the value of an asset or a liability in the context of a particular
entity.
b. To estimate fair value.
c. To capture the economic difference between sets of future cash flows.
d. To capture the elements that taken together would comprise a market
price if one existed.
(AICPA)
24. A company received two one-year notes in payment for merchandise sold.
One note has a face amount of P6,000 and was interest-bearing at an annual
rate of 18 percent. The other note has a face amount of P7,080 and was non-
interest-bearing (its implied interest rate was 18 percent)
a. The total amount of cash ultimately to be received will be more for the
interest-bearing note.
b. Both notes will cause the same total interest to be recognized.
c. The amount of interest revenue which should be recognized is more for
the interest-bearing note.
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d. The amount which should be credited to sales revenue is more for the
noninterest-bearing note
(Adapted)
25. Gary Snail Inc., received a 3-year non-interest bearing trade note for ₱50,000
on January 1, 20x1. The current interest rate at that time was 15% for similar
notes. Gary Snail recorded the receipt of the note as follows:
(Dr) Notes receivable – trade ₱50,000

(Cr) Sales ₱50,000
The effect of this accounting for the notes receivable Gary Snail’s profit for years
20x1, 20x2 and 20x3 and retained earnings at the end of 20x3, respectively, shall
to
a. overstate, overstate, understate, no effect
b. overstate, understate, understate, no effect
c. overstate, understate, understate, understate
d. no effect on any of these
(RPCPA)
Use the following data for the next three questions.

On May 1, 20x1, Bikini Bottom Co. acquired a 16%, nine-month note receivable
from a customer in settlement of an existing account receivable of P120,000.
Interest and principal are due at maturity.
26. The proper adjusting entry at December 31,20x1, with regard to this note
receivable includes a:
a. credit to Interest Revenue of ₱12,800
b. debit to Notes Receivable of ₱19,200
c. debit to Cash of ₱12,800
d. debit to Interest Receivable of ₱14,400
27. Bikini's entry to record the collection of this note at maturity includes a
(assume no reversing entries were made):
a. credit to Interest Receivable of ₱12,800
b. credit to Interest Revenue of ₱14,400
c. credit to Interest Receivable of ₱1,600
d. credit to Notes Receivable of ₱134,400
28. Bikini's entry to record the collection of this note at maturity includes a
(assume reversing entries were made):
a. credit to Interest Receivable of ₱12,800
b. credit to Interest Revenue of ₱14,400
c. credit to Interest Receivable of ₱1,600
d. credit to Notes Receivable of ₱134,400
(Adapted)
29. Chum Bucket Co. received a 60-day, 15% note for ₱3,000 on June 16. Which of
the following statements is true?
a. Chum Bucket will receive ₱3,000 plus interest of ₱450 at maturity
b. Chum Bucket should record a total receivable due of ₱3,075 on June 16
c. The principal of the note plus interest is due on August 15
d. The maturity value of this note is ₱3,000
(Adapted)
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30. If a 10%, 60-day note receivable is acquired from a customer in settlement of

an existing account receivable of ₱6,000, the accounting entry for acquisition
of the note will:
a. include a debit to Notes Receivable for ₱6,600
b. include a debit to Notes Receivable for ₱6,100
c. include a credit to Interest Revenue for ₱100
d. include a debit to Notes Receivable for ₱6,000 and no entry for interest
(Adapted)
31. On November 1, Plankton Corporation sold merchandise in return for a 12%,

90-day note receivable in the amount of ₱20,000. The proper adjusting entry
at December 31 (end of Plankton's accounting period) includes a:
a. credit to Interest Revenue of ₱400
b. debit to cash of ₱400
c. debit to Interest Receivable of ₱200
d. credit to Notes Receivable of ₱600
(Adapted)
32. On May 1 of this year, a company received a one-year note receivable bearing
interest at the market rate. The face amount of the note receivable and the
entire amount of the interest are due on April 30 of next year. At December 31
of this year, the company should report on its balance sheet:
a. no interest receivable
b. a deferred credit for interest applicable to next year
c. interest receivable for the interest accruing this year
d. interest receivable for the entire amount of the interest due on April 30 of
the next year
(Adapted)

1. D 6. A 11. C 16. E 21. D 26. A 31. A
2. D 7. B 12. D 17. B 22. C 27. A 32. C
3. B 8. A 13. D 18. C 23. A 28. B
4. D 9. A 14. D 19. B 24. B 29. C
5. C 10. B 15. C 20. D 25. B 30. D
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Chapter 7

Origination costs and fees

1. On January 1, 20x1, ABC Bank extended a 12%, ₱1,000,000 loan to XYZ, Inc.
Principal is due on January 1, 20x5 but interests are due annually every
January 1. ABC Bank incurred direct loan origination costs of ₱88,394 and
indirect loan origination costs of ₱18,000. In addition, ABC Bank charged XYZ
a 2.5-point nonrefundable loan origination fee. How much is the interest
income in 20x2?
a. 104,973 b. 105,364 c. 106,339 d. 136,661
“Day 1” difference
On January 1, 20x1, ABC Co. extended a ₱500,000, zero-interest loan to one of its
directors. The loan matures in lump sum on January 1, 20x5. The prevailing
interest rate for this type of loan is 12%.
2. If the loan proceeds extended to the director is equal to the present value of
the loan receivable, the net effect of the loan to ABC’s 20x1 profit (loss) is
a. (182,240) b. (144,109) c. 38,131 d. 0
3. If the loan proceeds extended to the director is equal to the face amount of the
loan receivable, the net effect of the loan to ABC’s 20x1 profit (loss) is
a. (182,240) b. (144,109) c. 38,131 d. 0
Impairment of receivable
On January 1, 20x1, ABC Bank extended a ₱900,000 loan to XYZ, Inc. Principal is
due on December 31, 20x5 but 12% interest is due annually starting December
31, 20x1.
On December 31, 20x3, XYZ, Inc. was delinquent and it was ascertained that the
loan is impaired. ABC Bank assessed that interests accruing on the loan will not
be collected; however, the principal is expected to be received in three equal
annual installments starting on December 31, 20x4. Accrued interest receivable
on December 31, 20x3 amounted to ₱100,000. The current market rate on
December 31, 20x3 is 14%.
4. How much is the balance of allowance for impairment loss on December 31,
20x3 immediately after impairment testing?
a. 279,460 b. 303,510 c. 203,510 d. 179,460

a. 86,465 b. 60,481 c. 60,841 d. 0
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Interest not accrued because of loss event

On January 1, 20x1, ABC Co. received a ₱1,000,000 note receivable from XYZ, Inc.
Principal payments of ₱200,000 and interest at 12% are due annually at the end
of each year for 5 years. The first payment starts on December 31, 20x1.
XYZ, Inc. made the required payments during 20x1 and 20x2. However, during
20x3 XYZ, Inc. began to experience financial difficulties, requiring ABC Co. to
reassess the collectibility of the note. Because of the loss event, ABC Co. did not
accrue the interest on December 31, 20x3. The current rate of interest on
December 31, 20x3 is 10%. ABC Co. made the following cash flow projections on
December 31, 20x3:
Date of expected receipt Amount of cash flow
January 1, 20x4 200,000
January 1, 20x5 150,000
January 1, 20x6 150,000
6. How much is the impairment loss recognized in 20x3?

a. 146,492 b. 195,082 c. 139,669 d. 181,518

a. 54,421 b. 30,421 c. 16,071 d. 0
Reversal of impairment loss

8. On January 1, 20x1, ABC Bank extended a 3-year, 12%, ₱1,000,000 loan to
XYZ, Inc. at a price that yields an effective interest rate of 10%. Principal is
due at maturity but interest is due annually every December 31.
On December 31, 20x1, XYZ was delinquent and it was ascertained that the loan
was impaired. The loan was restructured as follows:
 Only the principal amount of ₱1,000,000 shall be collected from the loan. This
is due on December 31, 20x3.
 ABC Co. waived the collection of interest.
On December 31, 20x2, XYZ’s credit rating has improved and the loan was again
restructured as follows:
 Aside from the principal amount of ₱1,000,000, which is due on December 31,
20x3, a 14% interest will also be collected.
 The new terms shall be applied prospectively.
How much is the gain on impairment reversal on December 31, 20x2? (Do not
round-off present value factors)
a. 109,091 b. 112,561 c. 134,341 d. 141,323
Evaluation of transfers
ABC Co. transferred loans receivables with carrying amount of ₱900,000 and fair
value of ₱1,000,000 to XYZ, Inc. for cash amounting to ₱1,000,000.
9. If ABC Co. transfers substantially all the risks and rewards of ownership of the
loans receivable, how much of the transferred receivables is derecognized?
a. 1,000,000 b. 900,000 c. 100,000 d. 0
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10. If ABC Co. is obligated to repurchase the transferred loans at a future date for
the fair market value of the instrument at repurchase date plus 10% interest,
how much of the transferred receivables is derecognized?
a. 1,000,000 b. 900,000 c. 100,000 d. 0
11. If ABC Co. is obligated under the terms of the transfer to repurchase any
individual loan but the aggregate amount of loans that could be repurchased
could not exceed ₱100,000, how much of the transferred receivables is
retained in the books and not derecognized?
a. 1,000,000 b. 900,000 c. 100,000 d. 0
12. If ABC Co. retains only a right of first refusal to repurchase the transferred
asset at fair value if XYZ, Inc. subsequently sells it, how much of the
transferred receivables is derecognized?
a. 1,000,000 b. 900,000 c. 100,000 d. 0
Transfer of financial asset

Fact pattern
13. ABC Co. transfers loans receivable with a fair value of ₱500,000 and carrying
amount of ₱420,000. ABC Co. obtains an option to purchase similar loans and
assumes a recourse obligation to repurchase similar loans. ABC Co. also
agrees to provide a floating rate of interest to the transferee company. The
assets and liabilities received as consideration for the transfer are listed
below:
Assets received & liabilities assumed Fair values

Cash proceeds 250,000
Interest rate swap 120,000
Call option 60,000
Recourse obligation 120,000
How much is the gain (loss) on the derecognition of the financial asset?
a. 30,000 b. 7,500 c. (110,000) d. (135,000)
Servicing of a financial asset

14. Use the information in the immediately preceding problem except that ABC
Co. agreed to service the loans without explicitly stating the compensation.
The fair value of the service is ₱25,000.
How much is the gain (loss) on the derecognition of the financial asset?
a. 30,000 b. 7,500 c. (110,000) d. (135,000)
Assignment
15. On March 1, 20x1, ABC Co. assigned its ₱1,000,000 accounts receivable to
Piggy Bank in exchange for a 2-month, 12%, loan equal to 75% of the assigned
receivables. ABC Co. received the loan proceeds after a 2% deduction for
service fee based on the assigned notes. During March, ₱500,000 were
collected from the receivables. Sales returns and discounts amounted to
₱150,000. How much net cash is received from the assignment transaction on
March 1, 20x1?
a. 735,000 b. 730,000 c. 1,230,000 d. 1,235,000
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Factoring: Without recourse

The next three questions are based on the following information:
Fact pattern
ABC Co. factored ₱100,000 accounts receivable to XYZ Financing Corp. on a
without recourse basis on January 1, 20x1. XYZ charged a 4% service fee and
retained a 10% holdback to cover expected sales returns. In addition, XYZ
charged a 12% interest computed on a weighted average time to maturity of the
receivables of 73 days based on 365 days.
16. How much proceeds is received from the factoring on January 1, 20x1?
a. 100,320 b. 85,600 c. 83,600 d. 88,300
17. How much is the cost of factoring assuming all of the receivables have been
collected?
a. 6,400 b. 2,400 c. 16,400 d. 12,400
Factoring: With recourse

18. Use the same information in the preceding illustration except that ABC Co.
factored the receivables on a with recourse basis. ABC Co. determines that the
recourse obligation has a fair value of ₱3,000. How much is the loss on sale of
receivables recognized on January 1, 20x1 assuming the factoring was made
on a casual basis?
a. 3,000 b. 9,400 c. 19,400 d. 6,400
Discounting - Without recourse

19. On October 1, 20x1, ABC Co. discounted a ₱600,000, one-year, 12% note,
received from a customer on January 1, 20x1, with a bank at 14% on a
without recourse basis. How much is the loss on discounting?
a. 4,960 b. 5,250 c. 4,690 d. 5,520
Dishonored note
20. On July 1, 20x1, ABC Co. discounted an ₱800,000, 90-day, 12% note, received
from a customer on June 1, 20x1, with a bank at 16% on with recourse basis.
The discounting is treated as conditional sale. The bank uses 365 days per
year in computing for discounts. On August 30, 20x1 (maturity date), the
maker of the note defaulted and the bank charged ABC Co. the maturity value
of the note plus a ₱3,000 protest fee. How much is transferred to accounts
receivable due to the dishonor and before impairment testing?
a. 826,671 b. 823,671 c. 827,000 d. 862,671
Discounting of “own” note

21. On July 1, 20x1, ABC Co. discounted its own note of ₱200,000 to a bank at 10%
for one year. How much was the net proceeds received by ABC from the
transaction?
a. 180,000 b. 190,000 c. 200,000 d. 0


1. Which of the following statements is(are) correct?
I. The normal operating cycle of a business is disregarded when classifying
nontrade receivables as current or noncurrent.
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II. Trade receivables which are collectible beyond one year or beyond the
normal operating cycle, whichever is longer, are presented under the
current assets section
III. Nontrade receivables which are collectible beyond one year,
notwithstanding the normal operating cycle, are presented under the non-
current assets section.
IV. A financial asset and a financial liability shall be offset and the net amount
presented in the balance sheet when, and only when, an entity currently
has a legally enforceable right to set off the recognized amounts
a. I, III b. I, III, IV c. II, III and IV d. I, II, III and IV
2. Which of the following may be classified under loans and receivables?

a. Non-derivative equity securities which are not quoted
b. An interest acquired in a pool of assets that are not loans or receivables.
c. Non-derivative debt instrument acquired with definite payments that are
not quoted.
d. An interest acquired in mutual fund.
3. In calculating the carrying amount of a loan, the lender adds to the principal
(Item #1) Direct loan origination; (Item #2) Loan origination fees costs
incurred by the lender charged to the borrower
(AICPA)
4. Loans receivable are normally reported in the financial statements at

a. cost c. fair value
b. proceeds extended d. amortized cost
5. The following statements may be correctly stated as part of the acceptable

accounting principles for receivables:
I. Accounts receivable balances should be valued at their face amounts
minus, if appropriate, allowances set up for doubtful accounts and
impairment in value
II. Receivable denominated in a foreign currency should be translated to
local currency at the rate of exchange at balance sheet date
III. If receivables are hypothecated against borrowings, the amount of
receivables involved should be disclosed in the financial statements or
notes
IV. Unearned finance charges and interests included in the face amount of the
receivables are preferably shown as an addition to the related receivables
V. Significant amount of installment receivables should be stated separately
a. I, II, III, IV, and V c. I, II, III, and IV only
b. I, II, III, and V only d. I, II, and III only
6. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the accounting for receivables?

a. The percentage-of- credit sales method is principally oriented toward
achieving the best possible matching of revenues and expenses. Aging the
accounts is more oriented toward the presentation of the correct net
realizable value of the trade receivables in the statement of financial
position.
b. Impairment loss on note receivables may be recorded as a direct
deduction to the impaired asset’s account or through an allowance
account.
c. Impairment testing on receivables is normally triggered by loss events.
d. Direct origination costs are deducted while direct origination fees are
added to the carrying amount of a loan receivable.
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7. If a 12%, 3-month note receivable is acquired from a customer in settlement

of an existing account receivable of ₱10,000, the entry on initial recognition of
the note receivable includes a
a. debit to note receivable for ₱10,300
b. debit to note receivable for ₱11,200
c. credit to interest income for ₱300
d. debit to note receivable for ₱10,000 and no entry for interest
8. When testing loans and note receivables for impairment, the rate that should
be used is
a. the current market rate as of date of impairment testing
b. the weighted average rate on the remaining term before maturity of note
c. the original effective rate of the note
d. the weighted average rate over the total life of the note
9. Immediately prior to recognition of impairment loss, the carrying amount of

an impaired note is
a. the future value of the note
b. the carrying amount of the note plus any accrued interest recorded prior
to impairment testing
c. the present value of the note discounted at the current market rate on the
date of impairment testing,
d. the total expected cash flows from the note
10. After impairment testing, the carrying amount of the impaired note is
a. the present value of the expected cash flows from the note, discounted at
the original effective rate.
b. the present value of the expected cash flows from the note, discounted at
the current market rate
c. the future value of the expected cash flows from the note
d. the amortized cost of the note ignoring impairment loss since the loss is
only recognized in profit or loss
11. After impairment testing, interest income on the impaired note is computed
by
a. multiplying the present value of the note by the current market rate at
year-end
b. multiplying the present value of the note by the rate used in impairment
testing
c. multiplying the face value of the note by the rate used in impairment
testing
d. no interest income will be recognized since the note is already impaired
12. Which of the following is not an objective evidence of impairment of a

financial asset?
a. Significant financial difficulty of the issuer or obligor.
b. A decline in the fair value of the asset below its previous carrying amount.
c. A breach of contract, such as a default or delinquency in interest or
principal payments.
d. Observable data indicating that there is a measurable decrease in the
estimated future cash flows from a group of financial assets although the
decrease cannot yet be associated with any individual financial asset.
(Adapted)
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13. Impairment loss on financial assets may be recorded as a direct deduction to

the impaired asset’s account or through an allowance. If the entity uses an
allowance account to record impairment loss
a. the amount credited to the allowance account is equal to the impairment
loss recognized
b. the amount credited to the allowance account is equal to the impairment
loss recognized if the carrying amount of the impaired financial asset
immediately before impairment testing does not include any accrued
interest already recognized
c. the amount credited to the allowance account is equal to the impairment
loss recognized if the original effective interest rate is used in discounting
the restructured future cash flows from the instrument
d. in no case would the amount credited to the allowance account be equal
to the impairment loss recognized
14. Which of the following would indicate that a note receivable or other loan is
impaired?
a. when it is written off
b. when it is probable that principal payments will be delayed
c. when the maker of the note experiences financial difficulties
d. when the market value of the note falls below its book value due to
interest rate changes
(Adapted)
15. If, in a subsequent period, the amount of the impairment loss decreases and
the decrease can be related objectively to an event occurring after the
impairment was recognized
a. the previously recognized impairment loss shall be reversed in equity
b. the previously recognized impairment loss shall be reversed through an
allowance account
c. the previously recognized impairment loss shall be reversed either
directly or by adjusting an allowance account.
d. the previously recognized impairment loss shall not be reversed in profit
or loss
16. Which of the following most likely would cause an impairment loss previously
recognized to be reversed to gain in profit or loss in the current period?
a. increase in the fair value of the receivable previously impaired
b. an improvement in the debtor’s credit rating
c. increase in current market interest rates
d. an improvement in the creditor’s credit rating
17. The reversal of impairment loss

a. shall not result in a carrying amount of the financial asset that exceeds
what the amortized cost would have been had the impairment not been
recognized at the date the impairment is reversed.
b. is recognized in profit or loss without any limit
c. is recognized in directly in equity
d. causes the debtor’s credit rating to increase
18. Where (X) is equal to the recoverable amount of a financial asset on

impairment reversal date, (Y) is equal to the carrying amount of a financial
asset on impairment reversal date had no impairment loss been recognized
previously, and (Z) is equal to the carrying amount of a financial asset on
reversal date. The gain on reversal of impairment, assuming X is greater than
Y, is computed as
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a. X minus Y b. Y minus Z c. X minus Z d. Z minus Y
19. The carrying value of an impaired note before recognizing a loan impairment:
a. includes accrued interest.
b. excludes accrued interest.
c. is the same as the carrying value after recognizing the impairment.
d. is less than the carrying value after recognizing the impairment.
(AICPA)
20. Which of the following describes the carrying value of an impaired note
immediately following the recognition of the impairment?
a. normal sum of the remaining cash flows to be received.
b. present value of remaining cash flows to be received, discounted at the
current market rate of interest.
c. present value of the remaining cash flows to be received, discounted at the
original interest rate implicit in the note.
d. the book value before the impairment is recognized less accrued interest.
(AICPA)
21. Derecognition is the

a. inclusion of a financial asset or financial liability in the totals of the
financial statements through a journal entry.
b. exclusion of a financial asset or financial liability in the totals of the
financial statements through a memo entry.
c. removal of a previously recognized financial asset or financial liability
from an entity’s statement of financial position.
d. removal of a previously disclosed financial asset or financial liability from
an entity’s notes.
22. An agreement to transfer a financial asset to another party in exchange for

cash or other consideration, with a concurrent obligation to reacquire the
asset at a future date
a. firm purchase commitment c. recourse
b. repurchase agreement d. notification
23. Which of the following transfers of financial assets qualifies for

derecognition?
a. A sale of a financial asset where the entity retains an option to buy the
asset back at its current fair value on the repurchase date.
b. A sale of a financial asset where the entity agrees to repurchase the asset
in one year for a fixed price plus interest.
c. A sale of a portfolio of short-term accounts receivables where the entity
guarantees to compensate the buyer for any losses in the portfolio.
d. A loan of a security to another entity (i.e., a securities lending transaction).
(Adapted)
24. In which of the following circumstances is derecognition of a financial asset

not appropriate?
a. The contractual rights to the cash flows of the financial assets have
expired.
b. The financial asset has been transferred and substantially all the risks and
rewards of ownership of the transferred asset have also been transferred.
c. The financial asset has been transferred and the entity has retained
substantially all the risks and rewards of ownership of the transferred
asset.
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d. The financial asset has been transferred and the entity has neither
retained nor transferred substantially all the risks and rewards of
ownership of the transferred asset. In addition, the entity has lost control
of the transferred asset.
(Adapted)
25. Which of the following is not one of the conditions that must be met if a
transfer of receivables is to be accounted for as a sale?
a. The transferred assets have been isolated from the transferor.
b. The transferor's obligation under the recourse provisions can be
reasonably estimated.
c. The transferee has the right to pledge or exchange the transferred assets.
d. The transferor does not maintain effective control over the assets through
an agreement to repurchase the assets before their maturity.
(AICPA)
26. If financial assets are exchanged for cash or other consideration, but the
transfer does not meet the criteria for a sale, the transferor and the transferee
should account for the transaction as a (Item #1) Secured borrowing; (Item
#2) Pledge of collateral
a. No, Yes b. Yes, Yes c. Yes, No d. No, No
(AICPA)
27. Which one of the following sets correctly reflects whether the transfer of a
financial asset should be treated as a sale or as a borrowing when control
over the transferred financial asset has been surrendered and when control
has not been surrendered? (Item #1) Control Surrendered; (Item #2) Control
Not Surrendered
a. Sale, Sale c. Borrowing, Sale
b. Sale, Borrowing d. Borrowing, Borrowing
(AICPA)
28. All but one of the following are required before a transfer of receivables can
be recorded as a sale.
a. The transferred receivables are beyond the reach of the transferor and its
creditors.
b. The transferor has not kept effective control over the transferred
receivables through a repurchase agreement.
c. The transferor maintains continuing involvement.
d. The transferee can pledge or sell the transferred receivables.
(AICPA)
29. Which of the following is not an objective for each entity accounting for
transfers of financial assets?
a. To derecognize assets when control is gained.
b. To derecognize liabilities when extinguished.
c. To recognize liabilities when incurred.
d. To derecognize assets when control is given up.
(AICPA)
30. Which of the following is false?

a. A servicing asset shall be assessed for impairment based on its fair value.
b. A servicing liability shall be assessed for increased obligation based on its
fair value.
c. An obligation to service financial assets may result in the recognition of a
servicing asset or servicing liability.
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d. A servicing asset or liability should be amortized for a period of five years.

(AICPA)
31. Which of the following is true?

a. A debtor may not grant a security interest in certain assets to a lender to
serve as collateral with recourse.
b. A debtor may not grant a security interest in certain assets to a lender to
serve as collateral without recourse.
c. The arrangement of having collateral transferred to a secured party is
known as a pledge.
d. Secured parties are never permitted to sell collateral held under a pledge.
(AICPA)
32. Larry has pledged financial assets as security for a loan from Lobster. Which
of the following statements concerning disclosure of the pledged assets is
correct?
a. Larry is not required to separately disclose the assets pledged as security.
b. Larry must disclose the assets pledged as security on the face of its
Balance Sheet.
c. Larry must disclose the assets pledged as security in the notes to its
d. Larry may disclose the assets pledged as security either on the face of its
Balance Sheet or in the notes to its financial statements.
(AICPA)
33. A transferor enterprise most likely should continue to recognize a transferred

financial asset if
a. The transferor may reacquire the asset, and the asset is readily obtainable
in the market
b. The transferee may sell or pledge the full fair value of the asset.
c. The transferor may reacquire the asset, and the reacquisition price is fair
value.
d. The transferor is entitled and obligated to repurchase the asset, and the
transferee receives a lender’s return.
(AICPA)
34. Krabby Corp. transferred financial assets to Patty, Inc. The transfer meets the
conditions to be accounted for as a sale. As a transferor, Krabby should do
each of the following, except
a. Remove all assets sold from the balance sheet.
b. Record all assets received and liabilities incurred as proceeds from the sale.
c. Measure the assets received and liabilities incurred at cost.
d. Recognize any gain or loss on the sale.
(AICPA)
35. On April 9, 200A, Zyrus Co. purchased a financial asset from Dalome Co.
During 200B, Zyrus sold the financial asset to Didaco Co. at fair value.
However, the sale was subject to an agreement that Zyrus Co. should
repurchase the financial asset on February 10, 200C at face amount plus 10%
interest. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Zyrus Co. should derecognize the financial asset.
b. Zyrus Co. should continue to recognize the financial asset.
c. Didaco should recognize interest income immediately
d. Dalome Co. should recognize the financial asset.
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36. On July 10, 200A, Clifton Co. purchased a financial asset from Princess Co.
During 200B, Clifton sold the financial asset to Arnold Co. at fair value.
However, the sale agreement gave Clifton Co. the option to repurchase the
financial asset in 200C at face amount plus 10% interest. Which of the
following statements is correct?
a. Clifton Co. should derecognize the financial asset.
b. Clifton Co. should continue to recognize the financial asset.
c. Arnold should derecognize the financial asset from Princess Co.
d. Princess Co. should not derecognize the financial asset.
37. Under PFRS 9 Financial Instruments, an entity shall derecognize a financial

asset when
a. the contractual rights to the cash flows from the financial asset expire
b. it transfers the financial asset and such transfer qualifies for derecognition
c. a revenue recognition is permitted by a standard
d. a or b
38. An entity transfers a financial asset if, and only if, it

a. transfers the contractual rights to receive the cash flows of the financial
asset
b. retains the contractual rights to receive the cash flows of the financial
asset, but assumes a contractual obligation to pay the cash flows to one or
more recipients in an arrangement that meets all the conditions required
under PFRS 9 Financial Instruments
c. a or b
d. a and b
39. An entity transfers a financial asset if, and only if, it either transfers the
contractual rights to receive the cash flows of the financial asset; or retains
the contractual rights to receive the cash flows of the financial asset, but
assumes a contractual obligation to pay the cash flows to one or more
recipients in an arrangement that meets which of the following conditions
I. If the entity is unable to collect on the financial instrument, it has no
obligation to the eventual recipient
II. The entity is prohibited from selling or pledging the financial instrument
III. Collections obtained from the financial instrument should be remitted to
eventual recipients without material delay
IV. The entity is not entitled to reinvest cash flows from the financial
instrument, except for investments in cash or cash equivalents during the
short settlement period from the collection date to the date of required
remittance to the eventual recipients
V. Interest earned on temporary investments of collections is passed to the
eventual recipient
a. I, II, III, IV c. any of the conditions stated
b. I, III, IV, V d. all of the conditions stated above
40. If the entity transfers substantially all the risks and rewards of ownership of
the financial asset, the entity
a. shall derecognize the financial asset
b. shall derecognize the financial asset and recognize separately as assets or
liabilities any rights and obligations created or retained in the transfer
c. shall continue to recognize the financial asset but also recognize as
liabilities any rights created or retained in the transfer
d. shall continue to recognize the financial asset
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41. If the entity retains substantially all the risks and rewards of ownership of the
financial asset, the entity
a. shall derecognize the financial asset
b. shall derecognize the financial asset and recognize separately as assets or
liabilities any rights and obligations created or retained in the transfer
c. shall continue to recognize the financial asset but also recognize as
liabilities any rights created or retained in the transfer
d. shall continue to recognize the financial asset
42. The process whereby financial assets are transformed into securities
a. equity set-off c. instrument modification
b. securitization d. instrument transformation
43. Offsetting financial assets and liabilities is permitted only when the entity
I. Has a legally enforceable right to set off the recognized amounts
II. Intends to settle the asset and liability on a net basis, or to realize the asset
and settle the liability simultaneously
a. I b. II c. I or II d. I and II
44. Girl Co. and Boy Co. regularly engage in transactions giving rise to both assets
and liabilities in each other’s statement of financial position. The companies
thereby entered into a master netting agreement on which a company’s
payables may be offset from any receivables the company has from the other
company. At year-end, Boy Co. does not intend to settle its receivables and
liabilities on a net basis because of the timing of cash flows. Which of the
following is correct?
a. Boy Co. may present its receivables from Girl Co. and liabilities to Girl Co.
separately and at gross amounts in the financial statements
b. Boy Co. should present its receivables from Girl Co. net of any liabilities to
Girl Co.
c. If Boy Co. is reluctant in offsetting its assets and liabilities, Girl Co. may
report Boy Co. to the Securities and Exchange Commission.
d. If Boy Co. is reluctant in offsetting its assets and liabilities, Girl Co. may
report Boy Co. to the Philippine Institute of Certified Public Accountants.
45. It is the process of using an asset as collateral security for borrowings. It

generally refers to borrowings secured by accounts receivable.
a. Factoring b. Pledging c. Discounting d. Financing
46. When accounts receivables are pledged,

a. a journal entry should be made to derecognize the accounts receivables
pledged and to record the pledge transaction. The loan transaction should
be recorded separately.
b. the accounts receivables pledged should be separately presented in the
face of the statement of financial position separate from other receivables.
c. specific receivables are set up as collateral security for borrowings
d. the only accounting issue is that of adequate disclosure.
47. Which of the following is not a valid comparison between pledging and
assignment of accounts receivable?
a. Under pledge, all accounts receivables are set as collateral security for
borrowings; under assignment only specific receivables are set as
collateral security.
b. In pledging, the lender has limited rights to inspect the borrower’s records
to achieve assurance that the receivables do exist; in assignment the
lender will make an investigation of the specific receivables that are being
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proposed for assignment and will approve those that are deemed worthy
to be held as collateral security.
c. No journal entry is made for the pledged receivables; an entry is made for
the assigned receivables.
d. Pledged accounts receivable remain the assets of the borrower and
continue to be presented in its financial statements, with appropriate
disclosure of the pledge transaction; assigned receivables are assets of the
lender/assignee but the assignment is disclosed in the financial
statements of the borrower/assignor.
e. In pledge, the amount borrowed is independent from the amount of
accounts receivables pledged; in assignment, normally only 70% to 90%
of the amount of accounts receivables assigned is advanced as a loan to
the borrower.
48. The owner of the accounts receivable assigned in a notification basis is

a. assignee b. pledger c. assignor d. lender
49. If the records of an entity show a balance in a “Due from factor” or “Factor’s
holdback” account, it can be reasonably inferred that accounts receivables
have been
a. pledged b. assigned c. factored d. discounted
50. The right of the transferee (factor) of accounts receivable to seek recovery for
an uncollectible account from the transferor
a. credit risk c. recourse
b. repurchase agreement d. notification
51. When accounts receivables are factored on a “with recourse” basis, the
factoring is usually treated as
a. a secured borrowing
b. an outright sale
c. a transfer of financial asset without recognition of liability created in the
transfer.
d. derecognition of financial asset when the transferor neither transfers nor
retains substantially all the risks and rewards of ownership of the
financial asset and has not retained control. The transferor recognizes
separately as assets or liabilities any rights and obligations created in the
transfer, such as the proceeds on the factoring and the recourse obligation.
52. Jaco Co. had ₱3 million in accounts receivable recorded on its books. Jaco
wanted to convert the ₱3 million in receivables to cash in a more timely
manner than waiting the 45 days for payment as indicated on its invoices.
Which of the following would alter the timing of Jaco's cash flows for the ₱3
million in receivables already recorded on its books?
a. Change the due date of the invoice.
b. Factor the receivables outstanding.
c. Discount the receivables outstanding.
d. Demand payment from customers before the due date.
(AICPA)
53. Which of the following is true when accounts receivable are factored without
recourse?
a. The transaction may be accounted for either as a secured borrowing or as
a sale, depending upon the substance of the transaction.
b. The receivables are used as collateral security for a promissory note
issued to the factor by the owner of the receivables.
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c. The factor assumes the risk of collectibility and absorbs any credit losses
in collecting the receivables.
d. The financing cost (interest expense) should be recognized ratably over
the collection period of the receivables.
54. Which of the following is used to account for probable sales discounts, sales
returns, and sales allowances? (Item #1) Due from factor; (Item #2) Recourse
liability
a. Yes, No b. Yes, Yes c. No, Yes d. No, No
(AICPA)
55. When accounts receivable are set aside as collateral security for a loan, and
the borrower continues to collect the receivables but collections are applied
to the loan, the receivables are
a. factored b. pledged c. discounted d. assigned
56. If a company usually sells its accounts receivable, it records any factoring
commission as a(n):
a. loss b. expense c. receivable d. liability
57. Accounts receivable of a company sold outright to a financing company

without recourse are said to have been
a. pledged b. factored c. assigned d. collateralized
58. Dream Theater Co. accepted a ₱5,000, 8%, 90-day note receivable for
services rendered to a client. Thirty days later Dream Theater discounted the
note at a bank at 10%. The entry to record the proceeds from sales of the note
would include a:
a. credit to notes receivable for ₱50,000
b. debit to cash for ₱51,000
c. credit to interest income for ₱33.33
d. debit to loss from discounting of note for ₱150
(Adapted)
59. A note receivable that is sold (i.e., discounted) to obtain early cash must be:
a. retained in the accounts in the same manner as before discounting
b. reported as an extraordinary loss if it is dishonored
c. disclosed as a contingent liability if it is discounted without recourse
d. reported as sale or a loan
(Adapted)
60. When a note receivable of an entity is sold to a non-bank financial institution

on a with recourse basis before maturity, the note receivable has been
a. pledged b. assigned c. discounted d. factored
(Adapted)
61. When a company discounts its notes receivables at a bank, the common
practice is to record the discounted notes in a(n):
a. liability account c. asset account
b. contra-asset account d. expense account
(AICPA)
62. When a company discounts its notes receivable at a bank and the discounting
is treated as secured borrowing, the discounting is recorded in a
a. liability account c. asset account
b. contra-asset account d. expense account
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63. After being held for 30 days, a 90-day, 15% interest bearing note receivable
was discounted at a bank at 18%. The proceeds received from the bank upon
discounting would be the:
a. face value less the discount at 18%
b. face value plus the discount at 18%
c. maturing value less the discount at 18%
d. maturing value plus the discount at 18%
(AICPA)

1. A 11. B 21. C 31. C 41. D 51. D 61. B
2. C 12. B 22. B 32. D 42. B 52. B 62. A
3. B 13. B 23. A 33. D 43. D 53. C 63. C
4. D 14. B 24. C 34. C 44. A 54. A
5. B 15. C 25. B 35 B 45. B 55. D
6. D 16. B 26. B 36. A 46. D 56. B
7. D 17. A 27. B 37. D 47. D 57. B
8. C 18. B 28. C 38. C 48. C 58. C
9. B 19. A 29. A 39. D 49. C 59. D
10. A 20. C 30. D 40. B 50. C 60. D
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Chapter 8
Inventories

Goods in transit
ABC Co. purchased goods with invoice price of ₱3,000 on account on December
27, 20x1. The related shipping costs amounted to ₱50. The seller shipped the
goods on December 31, 20x1. ABC Co. received the goods on January 2, 20x2 and
settled the account on January 5, 20x2.
1. How much is the capitalizable cost of the inventory purchased if the terms of
the shipment are FOB shipping point, freight prepaid?
a. 3,050 b. 3,000 c. 2,950 d. 0
2. How much is the net cash payment to the supplier if the terms of the
shipment are FOB destination, freight collect?
a. 3,050 b. 3,000 c. 2,950 d. 0
Total inventory
3. ABC Co. provided you the following information for the purpose of
determining the amount of its inventory as of December 31, 20x1:
Goods located at the warehouse (physical count) 3,400,000
Goods located at the sales department (at cost) 15,800,000
Goods in-transit purchased FOB Destination 2,400,000
Goods in-transit purchased FOB Shipping Point 1,600,000
Freight incurred under “freight prepaid” for the goods
purchased under FOB Shipping Point 80,000
Goods held on consignment from XYZ, Inc. 1,800,000
How much is the total inventory on December 31, 20x1?

a. 25,080,000 b. 25,080,000 c. 20,880,000 d. 20,800,000
Consigned goods
4. ABC Co. consigned goods costing ₱14,000 to XYZ, Inc. Transportation costs of
delivering the goods to XYZ totaled ₱3,000. Repair costs for goods damaged
during transportation totaled ₱1,500. To induce XYZ, Inc. in accepting the
consigned goods, ABC Co. gave XYZ ₱2,000 representing an advance
commission. How much is the cost of the consigned goods?
a. 20,500 b. 18,500 c. 17,000 d. 14,000
Correct inventory and accounts payable

On December 31, 20x1, ABC Co. has a balance of ₱240,000 in its inventory
account determined through physical count and a balance of ₱90,000 in its
accounts payable account. The balances were determined before any necessary
adjustment for the following:
a. Segregated goods in the shipping area marked “Bill and hold sale” were
included in inventory because shipment was not made until January 4, 20x2.
The goods were sold to the customer on a “bill and hold” sale for ₱20,000. The
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cost of the goods is ₱10,000. The goods were already packed and ready for
shipment. Both ABC and the buyer acknowledged the shipping term.
b. A package containing a product costing ₱80,000 was standing in the shipping
area when the physical inventory was conducted. This was included in the
inventory although it was marked “Hold for shipping instructions.” The sale
order was dated December 17 but the package was shipped and the customer
was billed on January 4, 20x2.
c. Merchandise costing ₱10,000, shipped FOB destination from a vendor on
December 30, 20x1, was received and recorded on January 5, 20x2.
d. Goods shipped F.O.B. shipping point on December 27, 20x1, from a vendor to
ABC Co. were received on January 6, 20x2. The invoice cost of ₱30,000 was
recorded on December 31, 20x1 and included in the count as “goods in-
transit.”
5. How much is the adjusted balance of inventory?

a. 240,000 b. 230,000 c. 160,000 d. 200,000
6. How much is the adjusted balance of accounts payable?

a. 90,000 b. 80,000 c. 60,000 d. 100,000
Inventories under financing agreement, Installment sales

7. The records of ABC Co. show the following:
a. Goods sold on an installment basis to XYZ, Inc., title to the
goods is retained by ABC Co. until full payment is made. XYZ,
Inc. took possession of the goods. 150,000
b. Goods sold to Alpha Co., for which ABC Co. has the option to
repurchase the goods sold at a set price that covers all costs
280,000
related to the inventory.
c. Goods sold where large returns are unpredictable. 70,000
d. Goods received from Beta Co. for which an agreement was
signed requiring ABC Co. to replace such goods in the near
future. 50,000
How much is included as part of inventory?

a. 50,000 b. 120,000 c. 270,000 d. 330,000
Bill and hold and Lay away

8. The following are among the transactions of ABC Co. during the year:
 Purchased goods costing ₱20,000 from XYZ, Inc. Billing was received although
delivery was delayed per request of ABC Co. The goods purchased were
segregated and ready for delivery on demand.
 Purchased goods costing ₱35,000 from Alpha Corp. on a lay away sale
agreement. The goods were not yet delivered until after ABC makes the final
payment on the purchase price. ABC Co. made total payments of ₱34,920
during the year.
How much of the goods purchased above will be included in ABC’s year-end
inventory?
a. 55,000 b. 54,920 c. 34,920 d. 0
Errors in inventory
9. ABC Co. uses the periodic inventory system. In the current year, ABC’s ending
inventory is understated by ₱20,000. Which of the following statements is
correct?
a. ABC’s cost of goods sold is understated by ₱20,000.
b. ABC’s gross income is understated by ₱20,000.
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c. ABC’s net purchases are understated by ₱20,000.

d. ABC’s profit is overstated by ₱20,000.
Cost of purchase
10. ABC Co., a VAT payer, imported goods from a foreign supplier. Costs incurred
by ABC include the following: purchase price, ₱250; import duties, ₱20; value
added tax, ₱15; transportation and handling costs, ₱5; and commission to
broker, ₱2. How much is the cost of purchase of the imported goods?
a. 292 b. 277 c. 257 d. 255
Deferred payment
11. On January 1, 20x1 ABC Co. acquired goods for sale in the ordinary course of
business for ₱250,000, excluding ₱5,000 refundable purchase taxes. The
supplier usually sells goods on 30 days’ interest-free credit. However, as a
special promotion, the purchase agreement for these goods provided for
payment to be made in full on December 31, 20x1. In acquiring the goods
transport charges of ₱2,000 were incurred; these were due on January 1,
20x1. An appropriate discount rate is 10 per cent per year. How much is the
initial cost of the inventories?
a. 229,273 b. 224,727 c. 250,000 d. 257,000
12. ABC Co. acquired a tract of land for ₱2,000,000. The land was developed and
subdivided into residential lots at an additional cost of ₱200,000. Although
the subdivided lots are relatively equal in sizes, they were offered at different
sales prices due to differences in terrain and locations. Information on the
subdivided lots is shown below:
Lot group No. of lots Price per lot
A 4 480,000
B 10 240,000
C 15 192,000
During the year, 2 lots from the A group, 3 lots from the B group and 12 lots from
the C group were sold. How much gross income is recognized during the year?
a. 2,766,667 b. 2,783,333 c. 2,860,000 d. 2,877,333
Cost formulas
ABC Co. is a wholesaler of guitar picks. The activity for product “Pick X” during
August is shown below:
Date Transaction Units Unit cost Total cost

1-Aug Inventory 2,000 ₱ 28.80 ₱ 57,600
7 Purchase 3,000 29.76 89,280
12 Sales 4,200
13 Purchase 4,800 30.40 145,920
14 Sales return 600
22 Sales 3,800
29 Purchase 1,900 30.88 58,672
30 Purchase return 300 30.88 (9,264)
Total goods available for sale ₱ 342,208
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13. How much are the ending inventory and cost of goods sold under the FIFO –
periodic cost flow formula?
Ending inventory Cost of goods sold
a. 219,840 122,368
b. 112,341 229,867
c. 122,368 219,840
d. 122,386 219,804
14. How much are the ending inventory and cost of goods sold under the FIFO –
perpetual cost flow formula?
a. 219,840 122,368
b. 112,341 229,867
c. 122,368 219,840
d. 122,386 219,804
15. How much are the ending inventory and cost of goods sold under the
weighted average – periodic cost flow formula?
a. 229,840 112,160
b. 126,468 215,740
c. 120,080 222,128
d. 120,072 222,153
16. How much are the ending inventory and cost of goods sold under the
weighted average – perpetual cost flow formula?
a. 121,813 220,395
b. 122,468 219,740
c. 122,017 220,191
d. 123,384 218,824
Write-down of inventories
17. ABC Co. buys and sells products A & B. The following unit costs are available
for the inventory as of December 31, 20x1: (All costs are borne by ABC Co.)
A B
Number of units 2,000 3,000
Purchase cost per unit ₱125 ₱190
Delivery cost from supplier 10 30
Estimated selling price 150 250
Selling costs 22 28
General and administrative 15 18
How much total inventory shall be reported in the 20x1 financial statements?
a. 916,000 b. 930,000 c. 936,000 d. 696,000
Write-down of raw materials

18. The raw materials inventory of ABC Co. on December 31, 20x1 have a cost of
₱20,000 and an estimated net realizable value of ₱18,000. Information on
finished goods are as follows:
Cost……………………………………….₱250,000
NRV…………………….…………………₱280,000
How much is the total inventory on December 31, 20x1?

a. 268,000 b. 270,000 c. 298,000 d. 300,000
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Reversal of write-down
ABC Co. has the following comparative information regarding its inventories.
20x2 20x1
Inventory, December 31 at cost 30,000 24,000
Inventory, December 31 at NRV 33,000 22,000
Cost of goods sold before 180,000 200,000
adjustments
ABC recognizes write-downs of inventories in cost of goods sold.
19. How much is the cost of goods sold in 20x1?

a. 200,000 b. 202,000 c. 198,000 d. 220,000
20. How much is the cost of goods sold in 20x2?

a. 178,000 b. 177,000 c. 182,000 d. 183,000
Purchase commitment
21. On January 1, 20x1, ABC Co. signed a three year, noncancelable purchase
contract, which allows ABC Co. to purchase up to 12,000 units of a microchip
annually from XYZ Co. at ₱15 per unit and guarantees a minimum annual
purchase of 3,000 units. At year-end, it was found out that the goods are
obsolete. ABC Co. had 4,000 units of this inventory at December 31, 20x1, and
believes these parts can be sold as scrap for ₱5 per unit. How is the loss on
purchase commitment to be recognized on December 31, 20x1?
a. 70,000 b. 100,000 c. 60,000 d. 0
Gross profit based on sales

22. On October 1, 20x1, the warehouse of ABC Co. and all inventories contained
therein were damaged by flood. Off-site back up of data base shows the
following information:
Inventory, Jan. 1 10,000
Accounts payable, Jan. 1 3,000
Accounts payable, Sept. 30 2,000
Payments to suppliers 50,000
Freight-in 500
Purchase returns 500
Sales from Jan. to Sept. 80,000
Sales returns 5,000
Sales discounts 2,000
Gross profit rate based on sales 30%
Goods in transit as of October 1, 20x1 amounted to ₱1,000, cost of goods out on
consignment is ₱1,200, and materials damaged by flood can be sold at a salvage
value of ₱1,800. How much is the inventory loss due to the flood?
a. 3,000 b. 2,500 c. 4,400 d. 4,900
Gross profit rate based on cost

23. On October 1, 20x1, the warehouse of ABC Co. and all inventories contained
therein were razed by fire. Off-site back up of data base shows the following
information:
Inventory, Jan. 1 20,000
Net purchases 190,000
Net sales from Jan. to Sept. 240,000
Gross profit rate based on cost 25%
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Twenty percent of the inventory contained in the warehouse has been salvaged
from the fire while half is partially damaged and can be sold as scrap at thirty
percent of its cost. How much is the inventory loss due to the fire?
a. 18,000 b. 5,400 c. 9,000 d. 11,700
Cost of goods sold

24. Based on the following information, how much is the cost of goods sold?
Decrease in inventory 12,000
Increase in accounts payable 16,000
Payments to suppliers 80,000
a. 108,000 b. 96,000 c. 76,000 d. 84,000
Accounts of a manufacturing entity

25. The work in process inventories of ABC Manufacturing, Inc. were completely
destroyed by fire on June 1, 20x1. Amounts for the following accounts have
been established.
January 1, 20x1 June 1, 20x1
Accounts payable 117,000 135,000
Raw materials 15,000 18,000
Work in process 60,000 ?
Finished goods 69,000 87,000
The following additional information was determined:

 Payments to suppliers for purchases on account, ₱60,000.
 Freight on purchases, ₱3,000.
 Purchase returns, ₱7,500.
 Direct labor, ₱48,000.
 Production overhead, ₱18,000.
 Sales from January 1 to May 31, ₱225,000.
 Sales returns, ₱45,000.
 Sales discounts, ₱15,000.
 Gross profit rate based on sales, 25%.
How much is the work in process destroyed by fire?

a. 48,000 b. 49,500 c. 58,500 d. 51,000
Retail method
Presented below is information pertaining to ABC Co.:
Cost Retail
Inventory, January 1 21,750 35,000
Purchases 138,250 200,750
Freight-In 5,000 -
Purchase discounts 1,250 -
Purchase returns 13,000 21,500
Departmental Transfers-In (Debit) 2,500 3,750
Departmental Transfers-Out (Credit) 2,000 3,000
Markups 15,000
Markup cancellations 5,000
Markdowns 30,000
Markdown cancellations 7,500
Abnormal spoilage (theft and casualty
12,500
loss) 17,500
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Sales 109,500
Sales returns 6,250
Sales discounts 2,500
Employee discounts 1,250
Normal spoilage (shrinkage and breakages) 500
26. How much is the ending inventory using the Average cost method?
a. 60,750 b. 60,000 c. 61,050 d. 62,400
27. How much is the ending inventory using the FIFO cost method?
a. 60,750 b. 60,000 c. 61,050 d. 62,400

Objective and scope of PAS 2
1. According to PAS 2, the primary issue in accounting for inventories is the
determination of
I. cost to be recognized as asset in the statement of financial position.
II. the amount recognized as expense in the statement of profit or loss and
other comprehensive income when the related revenues are recognized.
III. obsolete items that need to be written down to net realizable value.
IV. the point of sale where ownership is transferred from the seller to the
buyer
a. I and II b. I, II, III c. I, II, IV d. I, II, III, IV
2. In which of the following shall PAS 2 Inventories be applied?

a. Buildings constructed and to be sold to third parties in the ordinary
course of business under specifically negotiated construction contracts.
b. Shares of stocks held for trading
c. Animals and plants that are managed and to be sold in the ordinary course
of business
d. Inventory of a service provider consisting only of direct labor and
overhead
3. PAS 2 Inventories shall not be applied to which of the following?

a. minor tools and spare parts
b. buildings being sold by a “buy and sell” real estate entity
c. obsolete inventory
d. assets held for use in the production or supply of goods or services
4. The measurement provisions of PAS 2 Inventories do not apply to which of the

following?
I. Inventories of producers of agricultural, forest, and mineral products to
the extent that they are measured at net realizable value in accordance
with well-established practices in those industries.
II. Inventories of commodity broker-traders measured at fair value less costs
to sell.
III. Inventories of a retail store.
IV. Inventories of a service concessionaire.
a. I, II b. I, II, III c. III, IV d. I, II, III, IV
5. PAS 2 Inventories may not be applied to which of the following,?
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a. inventories consisting of agricultural, mineral and forest products

b. minor spare parts, tools and lubricants
c. commodities of broker traders measured at fair value less costs to sell
d. unfinished products undergoing processing
6. Inventories of commodity broker-traders are measured at

a. fair value c. net realizable value
b. cost d. fair value less costs to sell
Recognition
7. Which of the following is correct regarding the recognition of inventories?
a. Inventories are recognized only when legal title is obtained
b. Inventories are recognized only when they meet the definition of
inventory and they qualify for recognition as assets.
c. Inventories include only those that are readily available for sale in the
ordinary course of business.
d. Inventories are recognized only by entities engaged in trading or
manufacturing operations.
8. Inventories are assets (choose the incorrect one)

a. Held for sale in the ordinary course of business.
b. In the process of production for sale.
c. In the form of materials or supplies to be consumed in the production
process or in the rendering of services.
d. Held for use in the production or supply of goods or services.
(Adapted)
9. Ownership over inventories is normally transferred to the buyer

a. when legal title to the inventories is transferred
b. when the purchase price is fully paid
c. upon shipment of the goods by the seller to the buyer
d. upon filling-up the sales order
10. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the accounting for inventories?
a. Legal title over inventories normally passes when possession over of the
goods is transferred.
b. Transfer of ownership over inventories may precede, coincide with, or
follow the transfer of physical possession of the goods.
c. Ownership over inventories may be transferred to the buyer even when
legal title to the goods is retained by the seller.
d. Transfer of ownership over inventories may coincide with or follow but
never precedes the transfer of physical possession of the goods.
11. When accounting for inventories,

a. the form of the sales contract is more important than its substance
b. the agreement between the seller and the buyer shall be considered in
determining the timing of transfer of ownership over the goods
c. the sales contract is ignored since ownership over inventories are
transferred only upon receipt of delivery by the buyer
d. a journal entry is made only upon receipt of the delivery by the purchaser
12. Ownership over inventories is normally transferred from the seller to the
buyer
I. When the significant risks and rewards of ownership are transferred to
the buyer
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II. The seller retains continuing managerial involvement to the degree

usually associated with neither ownership nor effective control over the
goods sold
III. The seller retains neither continuing managerial involvement to the
degree usually associated with ownership nor effective control over the
goods sold
a. I, II b. II, III c. I, III d. I, II, III
Goods in transit
13. In accounting for inventories, which of the following statements is incorrect?
a. In daily transactions, strict adherence to the passing of legal title is not
practicable.
b. Regardless of location, an entity shall report in its financial statements all
inventories over which it holds legal title to or has gained control of the
related economic benefits.
c. On inventory cut-off, an entity shall include in its inventory only those
goods which are on hand.
d. Goods that are in transit as of inventory cut-off date may be included as
part of inventory.
14. Identify the incorrect statement regarding goods in transit.

a. Depending on the terms of sales contract, goods in transit may form part
of the inventories of the buyer or the seller or, in rare cases, both the
buyer and the seller.
b. Accounting procedures for goods in transit are normally performed only
on inventory cut-off.
c. Goods in transit form part of the inventory of the entity who holds legal
title to the goods.
d. Accounting for goods in transit are normally performed by trading or
manufacturing entities but not by service oriented entities.
15. Who owns the goods in transit under FOB shipping point?
a. buyer b. seller c. either a or b d. none
16. Who owns the goods in transit under FOB destination?

17. Under this shipping cost agreement, freight is not yet paid upon shipment.
The carrier collects shipping costs from the buyer upon delivery.
a. freight collect c. FOB shipping point
b. freight prepaid d. FOB destination
18. Under this shipping cost agreement, freight is paid in advance by the seller
before shipment.
19. Under this shipping cost agreement, the buyer initially pays the freight of the
goods delivered.
20. Under this agreement, the seller should pay for the freight of goods delivered.
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21. Under a freight collect shipping cost agreement, who is supposed to pay for
the freight?
22. Who should properly shoulder the freight of the goods shipped?
a. the entity who owns the goods c. the seller
b. the buyer d. the shipper
23. If the term of a sale or purchase transaction is FOB Shipping Point, ownership
is transferred
a. upon shipment of the goods
b. after production is finished
c. when the buyer receives the goods
d. either a or c
24. If the term of a purchase transaction is FOB Shipping Point, liability is

recognized
a. upon shipment of the goods
c. upon receipt of buyer of the goods shipped
d. either a or c
25. If the terms of a purchase or sale transaction is FOB Destination, ownership is

transferred
a. upon the shipment of goods
c. when the buyer receives the goods
d. either a or c
26. If the term of a purchase transaction is FOB Destination, liability is recognized

a. upon the shipment of goods
c. upon receipt of buyer of the goods shipped
d. either a or c
27. If the term of a purchase transaction is FOB Shipping Point, Freight collect, the
party who finally shoulders the freight is the
a. buyer b. seller c. shipping company d. LBC
28. If the term of a purchase transaction is FOB Destination, Freight collect, the
party who finally shoulders the freight is the
a. buyer b. seller c. Air21 d. accountant
29. If the term of a purchase transaction is FOB Shipping Point, Freight prepaid,
the party who finally shoulders the freight is the
a. buyer b. seller c. FedEx d. auditor
30. If the term of a purchase transaction is FOB Shipping Point, Freight prepaid,
the party who initially shouldered the freight is the
a. buyer b. seller c. shipping company d. JRS
31. The entry to record the P10,000 freight paid by the buyer on a purchase
transaction with terms of FOB Shipping Point, Freight Collect is
Cash 10,000 Accounts receivable 10,000
b. Freight-out 10,000 d. Freight-in 10,000
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Accounts receivable 10,000 Accounts payable 10,000
32. The entry to record the settlement of P10,000 freight on a purchase

transaction with terms of FOB Shipping Point, Freight Prepaid is
a. Accounts payable 10,000 c. Freight-in 10,000
b. Freight-in 10,000 d. Answer not given
Accounts payable 10,000
33. The entry to record the P10,000 freight paid by the buyer on a purchase
transaction with terms of FOB Destination, Freight Collect is
b. Freight-out 10,000 d. Accounts payable 10,000
Cash 10,000 Cash 10,000
34. The entry to record the settlement of P10,000 freight on a purchase

transaction with terms of FOB Destination, Freight Prepaid is
b. Freight-out 10,000 d. None
35. The entry to record the payment of P10,000 freight on a purchase transaction
with terms of FOB Destination, Freight Collect is
Cash 10,000 Accounts payable 10,000
b. Freight-out 10,000 d. Answer not given
36. On January 1, an entity ordered goods under a purchase transaction with

terms of FOB Destination, Freight Collect. The goods were received on
January 3 and freight of P10,000 was paid to the shipper. What is the entry on
January 5, when the entity settles the purchase?
a. Freight-in 10,000 c. Accounts payable 90,000
Accounts payable 100,000 Cash 90,000
Cash 110,000
b. Accounts payable 100,000 d. Freight-out 10,000
37. The entry to record the settlement of a purchase on account amounting to

P100,000 and freight of P10,000 on a purchase transaction with terms of FOB
Destination, Freight Prepaid is
Cash 110,000
b. Accounts payable 100,000 d. Freight-out 10,000
38. The entry to record the settlement of a purchase on account amounting to

P100,000 and freight of P10,000 on a purchase transaction with terms of FOB
Shipping Point, Freight Prepaid is
Cash 110,000 d. Freight-out 10,000
b. Accounts payable 110,000 Accounts receivable 10,000
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Cash 110,000
39. On January 1, an entity ordered goods under a purchase transaction with

terms of FOB Shipping point, Freight Collect. The goods were received on
January 3 and freight of P10,000 was paid to the shipper. What is the entry on
January 5, when the entity settles the purchase?
Cash 100,000 d. Accounts payable 90,000
b. Accounts payable 110,000 Cash 90,000
Cash 110,000
40. When the buyer pays the freight on a sales transaction with terms of FOB
Destination, Freight Collect, the entry to record the payment for the freight is
a. Freight-out xx c. Accounts receivable xx
Cash xx Cash xx
b. Freight-in xx d. Accounts payable xx
Cash xx Cash xx
41. When the buyer settles the freight on a sales transaction with terms of FOB
Destination, Freight Prepaid, the entry to record the payment for the freight is
a. Freight-out xx c. Accounts payable xx
Cash xx Cash xx
b. Freight-in xx d. None of the choices
Cash xx
42. No special accounting treatment is necessary if the terms of purchase is

a. FOB Destination, Freight Collect
b. FOB Shipping point, Freight Prepaid
c. FOB Destination, Freight Unpaid
d. FOB Shipping point, Freight Collect
Consigned goods
43. Which statement is true?
a. Until goods are sold by the consignee, the consignor includes the goods in
his/her inventory at cost, less handling and shipping costs incurred in the
delivery and consignee.
b. When goods are sold on an installment plan, the seller retains title and
continues to include them on his/her balance sheet until full payment has
been received.
c. Title to goods cannot be transferred to the buyer before shipment occurs.
d. In accounting for inventory, economic substance should take precedence
over legal form
(Adapted)
44. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the accounting for consigned
goods?
a. Consigned goods are properly included in the inventory of the consignor
and not the consignee.
b. Freight incurred by the consignor in delivering the consigned goods to the
consignee forms part of the cost of inventories
c. The consignee records consigned goods received from the consignor
through journal entries.
d. The consignor should not recognize revenue until the consigned goods are
sold by the consignee to third parties.
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45. Costs of delivering consigned goods to the consignee should be

a. expensed immediately
b. capitalized and included in the inventory of the consignee
c. capitalized and included in the inventory of the consignor
d. recorded be the consignor through memo entry
Inventory financing and other terms

46. All of the following may properly be included in inventory, except
a. goods sold by an entity under a sale with repurchase agreement
b. goods pledged by an entity as security for a loan obtained
c. goods borrowed by an entity to be replaced with similar goods in the
future
d. goods transferred by an entity to another entity to be replaced with
similar goods in the future
47. Which of the following may properly be included in inventory?

a. goods sold by an entity under a sale with right of return and future
returns can be reliably estimated
b. goods sold by an entity on installment basis and possession over the goods
is transferred to the buyer but legal title is retained by the entity to
protect collectibility of the amount due
c. goods sold by an entity under a sale that qualifies as “bill and hold” sale
d. goods sold by an entity under a sale that qualifies as “lay away sale” and
amount due from the buyer is not yet collected in full
48. It is a type of sale in which the buyer takes title and accepts billing but
delivery of the goods is delayed at the buyer’s request.
a. buy and hold sale c. cash and carry
b. lay away sale d. bill and hold
49. It is a type of sale in which goods are delivered only when the buyer makes
the final payment in a series of installments.
a. installment sale c. cash on delivery
b. lay away sale d. run away sale
50. The goods sold on a “bill and hold” sale is included in the inventory of the
a. buyer b. seller c. either a or b d. both a and b
51. Prior to delivery, the goods sold on a “lay away” sale is included in the
inventory of the
a. buyer b. seller c. either a or b d. both a and b
52. The goods sold under a bill and hold sale are excluded from the seller’s
inventory and included in the buyer’s inventory at the time of sale when title
passes to the buyer and he accepts billing, provided which of the following is
met
a. Delivery is probable
b. Goods sold are on hand, identified, and ready for delivery to the buyer at
the time of sale
c. The buyer specifically acknowledges the deferred delivery instructions
d. The usual payment terms apply
e. All of the choices
53. The goods sold under a lay away sale is included in the seller’s inventory until
delivery is made to the buyer except when
a. the term of the sale is freight prepaid
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b. the title to the goods is retained by the seller solely to protect collectibility
of the amount due
c. the purchase price is substantially paid
d. the goods are lost without the fault of the seller
Financial statement presentation

54. The line-item “inventories” presented on the face of the statement of financial
position of a manufacturing entity is composed of all of the following, except
a. raw materials and manufacturing supplies c. finished goods
b. work-in-process d. office supplies
55. Inventories are classified on the statement of financial position as

a. current assets c. financial instruments
b. noncurrent assets d. intangible assets
56. Which of the following is not included as inventory?

a. raw materials and components c. work in-process
b. goods in-transit sold FOB destination d. long-term major spare parts
57. In a manufacturing company, inventory that is ready for sale is called

a. raw materials c. finished goods
b. work in process d. store supplies
Inventory systems
58. The major objective of inventory accounting is
a. valuation of assets in the statement of financial position
b. proper matching of costs with related revenues
c. proper selection of appropriate cost flow formula
d. proper determination of periodic income and valuation of assets
59. Mr. Eugene Krab’s “buy and sell” business involves a large quantity of low-
valued inventory. Because of the fast turnover of inventory, it is often
impracticable to perform periodic physical count of inventory. In fact, the cost
of inventory is often approximated in Krab’s quarterly reports. Which of the
following inventory systems is most suitable for Krab’s business?
a. perpetual system c. plankton system
b. periodic system d. a or b
60. Spongebob Squarepants Co. utilizes an automated accounting system in which

Spongebob inputs the serial number of each item of inventory in the system.
This enables Spongebob to track the movement of each inventory. Which
inventory system is most likely to be used by Spongebob?
a. perpetual system d. spatula system
b. periodic system e. a or b
c. patty system
61. The “inventory” account is updated for each purchase and sale of inventory
under this type of accounting system
a. respiratory system c. perpetual system
b. automatic system d. periodic system
62. Cost of goods sold is a residual amount under this system.

a. skeletal system c. perpetual system
b. endocrine system d. periodic system
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63. Patrick Star uses the perpetual inventory system. During the period, Patrick
Star returned goods previously purchased for P300,000 to the seller. Ten
percent of the goods returned were purchased on cash basis. Which entry is
most likely to have been made to record the transaction?
a. Accounts payable 270,000 c. Accounts payable 300,000
Purchases 270,000 Purchase return 300,000
b. Accounts payable 270,000 d. Accounts payable 270,000
Inventory 300,000 Purchase returns 300,000
64. In a perpetual inventory system, an inventory flow assumption is used

primarily for determining which cost to use in:
a. recording purchases of inventory
b. recording the cost of goods sold
c. recording sales revenue
d. forecasts of future operating results
(Adapted)
65. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding inventory systems?

a. An entity needs to have a ledger book in order to use the perpetual
system.
b. Cost of goods sold is determined only periodically under the periodic
system, whereas, cost of goods sold can be determined at any given time
under the perpetual system.
c. Physical count is performed basically as an internal control procedure
under perpetual system, whereas, physical count must be performed
under periodic system in order to properly compute for the profit or loss
during the period.
d. Internal control is enhanced under periodic system.
66. Prior to physical count, the balance of the inventory account of an entity using
the periodic system is
a. equal to the beginning balance of inventory plus net purchases less cost of
goods sold
b. equal to the net purchases less cost of goods sold minus increase in
inventory during the period
c. equal to the beginning balance of inventory plus cost of goods sold less net
purchases
d. equal to the beginning balance of inventory
67. Prior to physical count, cost of goods sold under the periodic system is equal
to
a. net purchases plus increase in inventory during the period
b. net purchases minus increase in inventory during the period
c. net purchases plus decrease in inventory during the period
d. zero
68. The following account is affected when recording a return of inventory to the
vendor under a perpetual inventory system:
a. merchandise inventory c. accounts receivable
b. cash d. purchase returns and allowances
(Adapted)
69. A perpetual inventory system would most likely be used by a(n)

a. automobile dealership c. drugstore
b. hardware store d. convenience store
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(Adapted)
70. Funk Co. is selecting its inventory system in preparation for its first year of
operations. Funk intends to use either the periodic weighted-average method
or the perpetual moving-average method, and to apply the lower of cost or
market rule either to individual items or to the total inventory. Inventory
prices are expected to generally increase throughout 20x3, although a few
individual prices will decrease. What inventory system should Funk select if it
wants to maximize the inventory carrying amount at December 31, 20x3?
(Item #1) Inventory method; (Item #2) Cost or market application
a. Perpetual, Total inventory c. Periodic, Total inventory
b. Perpetual, Individual item d. Periodic, Individual item
(Adapted)
Inventory errors under periodic system
71. If a company incorrectly includes consignment items in the ending inventory,
the net effects on the cost of goods sold and profit for the period, respectively,
are
a. Overstatement, Understatment
b. Understatement, Overstatement
c. Overstatement, overstatement
d. The next period’s account will be correct
72. When the opening balance of inventory or net purchases during the period is
overstated, profit for the period is
a. understated b. overstated c. either a or b d. no effect
73. Cost of goods sold is understated if

a. beginning inventory is overstated c. ending inventory is understated
b. net purchases is overstated d. ending inventory is overstated
74. If ending inventory is understated, (choose the incorrect statement)

a. cost of goods sold is overstated c. net purchases is unaffected
b. profit for the year is understated d. profit for the year is overstated
75. If purchase returns is understated,

a. profit for the period is understated c. ending inventory is overstated
b. cost of goods sold is understated d. profit for the period is overstated
76. Under the periodic system, which of the following statements is correct?
a. If purchase returns is understated, ending inventory is unaffected
b. If purchase returns is understated, cost of goods sold is understated
c. If purchase returns is understated, beginning inventory is understated
d. If purchase returns is understated, net purchases is unaffected
Measurement
77. At each reporting period, inventories are measured at
a. cost c. cost plus direct acquisition costs
b. lower of cost or NRV d. fair value less cost to sell
78. The cost of inventories includes

I. Cost of purchase
II. Costs of conversion
III. Other costs necessary in bringing the inventory in its intended condition
and location
a. I b. II c. I, II d. I, II, III
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79. The purchase cost of inventories includes all of the following, except
a. purchase price
b. import duties and non-refundable taxes
c. freight cost incurred in bringing the inventory to its intended location
d. Value added taxes paid by a VAT registered payer
80. Which of the following costs is included as part of cost of inventories?

a. Abnormal amounts of wasted materials, labor or other production costs
b. Storage costs
c. Administrative overheads
d. Selling costs
e. None of the choices
81. When determining the unit cost of an inventory item, which of the following
should be included?
a. interest on loans obtained to purchase the item
b. advertising costs incurred to promote sale
c. freight cost on the item purchased
d. storage costs incurred prior to sale
82. Which of the following is least likely to be included in determining the cost
inventory?
a. Interest cost for amounts borrowed to finance the purchase of inventory
b. Purchasing costs
c. Receiving and unpacking costs
d. Freight costs
83. Which of the following costs of conversion cannot be included in cost of

inventory?
a. Cost of direct labor.
b. Factory rent and utilities.
c. Salaries of sales staff (sales department shares the building with factory
supervisor).
d. Factory overheads based on normal capacity.
(Adapted)
84. The cost of inventory should not include

I. Purchase price.
II. Import duties and other taxes.
III. Abnormal amounts of wasted materials.
IV. Administrative overhead.
V. Fixed and variable production overhead.
VI. Selling costs.
a. II, III, IV, V b. III, IV, VI c. I, II d. II, III, IV, V, VI
(Adapted)
85. Reporting inventory at the lower of cost or NRV is a departure from the
accounting principle of
a. Historical cost c. Conservatism
b. Consistency d. Full disclosure
86. When using the periodic inventory method, which of the following generally
would not be separately accounted for in the computation of cost of goods
sold?
a. Trade discounts applicable to purchases during the period
b. Cash discounts taken during the period
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c. Purchase returns and allowances of merchandise during the period

d. Cost of transportation-in (freight-in) for merchandise purchased during
the period
Accounting for discounts

87. Accounts such as Purchase Returns, Sales Returns, Purchase Discounts,
Freight-in and Allowance for Purchase Discounts are used in
a. Perpetual Method and Gross Method
b. Perpetual Method and Net Method
c. Periodic Method and Net Method
d. Periodic Method and Gross Method
88. The use of Allowance for Purchase Discounts account is based on which
accounting concept
a. matching c. net method
b. gross method d. periodic method
89. The Purchase Discounts Lost account is used under

a. gross method c. perpetual system
b. net method d. periodic system
90. The Purchase Discounts account is used under

a. gross method c. perpetual system
b. net method d. periodic system
91. Theoretically, the net method should be used in recording purchases. Cash
discounts not availed of is preferably presented in the statement of profit or
loss and other comprehensive income as
a. cost of goods sold c. other expense
b. finance cost d. b or c
92. Theoretically, the net method should be used in recording purchases. Trade
discounts taken is preferably presented in the statement of profit or loss and
other comprehensive income as
a. cost of goods sold c. other expense
b. operating expense d. not presented
Cost formulas
93. Generally accepted accounting principles require the selection of an inventory
cost flow method which:
a. emphasizes the valuation of inventory for balance sheet purposes
b. most closely approximates lower of cost and net realizable value for the
ending inventory
c. most clearly reflects the periodic income
d. matches the physical flow of goods from inventory with sales revenue
e. yields the most conservative amount of reported income
(Adapted)
94. All of the following correctly describe the average cost inventory cost flow
method except:
a. a moving average cost is used with a perpetual inventory system only.
b. the average cost methods are based on the view that the cost of inventory
on hand and the cost of goods sold during a period should be
representative of all purchase costs available for the period
c. a weighted-average unit cost is used with a periodic inventory system only
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d. a moving average cost is used with either a periodic or a perpetual

inventory system
(Adapted)
95. The specific identification method can be used only:

a. in income tax returns
b. for financial reporting purposes(but not in income tax returns)
c. when the individual items in inventory are similar in terms of cost,
function, and sales revenue
d. when the actual acquisition costs of individual units can be determined
from the accounting records
(Adapted)
96. The average method of cost flow assumption, when used in a perpetual
inventory system, is called
a. moving average c. simple average
b. weighted average d. b or c
97. Alcoholica Co. sells a wide variety of beverages. Because of the way Alcoholica
stores its inventory, the most recently purchased cases are usually the ones
being sold first. Given these circumstances, what flow assumption must
Alcoholica use?
a. Specific identification c. Average cost
b. FIFO d. Any assumption it wishes
(Adapted)
98. Which of the following methods of measuring the cost of goods sold most
closely parallels the actual physical flow of the merchandise?
a. LIFO b. FIFO c. Average cost d. Specific Identification
(Adapted)
99. Cost of goods sold and ending inventory is the same under a periodic system
as under a perpetual system when the entity uses
a. FIFO b. LIFO c. Weighted average d. Specific identification
100. Which inventory costing method would not be appropriate for a

manufacturer using a perpetual inventory system?
a. FIFO
b. specific identification
c. simple weighted average
d. combination of FIFO and specific identification
(Adapted)
101. When the FIFO method is used, ending inventory units are priced at the
a. most recent price c. earliest price
b. the average price d. none of choices
(Adapted)
102. Which inventory cost flow formula is not permitted under PAS 2
Inventories?
a. Average cost b. LIFO c. FIFO d. All are permitted
103. The inventory cost flow assumption where the cost of the most recent
purchase is matched first against sales revenues is
a. FIFO b. Average c. Specific identification d. none
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104. In a period of falling prices, the inventory method that gives the lowest
possible value for ending inventory is:
a. gross profit b. FIFO c. LIFO d. weighted average
(Adapted)
105. A corporation entered into a purchase commitment to buy inventory. At

the end of the accounting period, the current market value of the inventory
was less than the fixed purchase price, by a material amount. Which of the
following accounting treatments is most appropriate?
a. Describe the nature of the contract in a note to the financial statements,
recognize a loss in the income statement, and recognize a liability for the
accrued loss
b. Describe the nature of the contract and the estimated amount of the loss
in a note to the financial statements, but do not recognize a loss in the
income statement
c. Describe the nature of the contract in a note to the financial statements,
recognize a loss in the income statement, and recognize a reduction in
inventory equal to the amount of the loss by use of a valuation account
d. Neither describes the purchase obligation nor recognize a loss on the
income statement or balance sheet
(AICPA)
Lower of cost or net realizable value

106. Which of the following is not an acceptable basis for valuation of certain
inventories in published financial statements?
a. Historical cost
b. Current replacement cost
c. Prime cost
d. Current selling price less cost of disposal
(Adapted)
107. The original cost of an inventory item is above the replacement cost and
the net realizable value. The replacement cost is below the net realizable
value less the normal profit margin. As a result, under the lower of cost or
market method, the inventory item should be reported at the
a. Net realizable value
b. Net realizable value less normal profit margin
c. Replacement cost
d. Original cost
(Adapted)
108. Under current standards, inventories of a trading entity should be

measured at
a. Fair Value less cost to sell
b. the lower of Cost or Market, with ceiling on replacement cost
c. the lower of Cost or estimated selling price less and cost to sell
d. the lower of Cost or estimated selling price less cost of completion and
cost to sell
109. Which statement is correct concerning the valuation of inventory at lower

of cost or NRV?
I. Inventories are usually written down to net realizable value on an item by
item basis.
II. It is not appropriate to write down inventories based on a classification of
inventory, for example, finished goods or all inventories in a particular
industry or geographical segment.
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a. I only b. II only c. Both I and II d. Neither I nor II
110. The costing of inventory must be deferred until the end of the accounting
period under which of the following method of inventory valuation?
a. Moving average c. LIFO perpetual
b. Weighted average d. FIFO
111. Which inventory costing method would a company that wishes to

maximize profits in a period of rising prices use?
a. FIFO c. Weighted average
b. Peso-value LIFO d. Moving average
(AICPA)
112. Which of the following is/are true under PAS 2?

I. Inventories can only be "written down" but not "written up."
II. Inventories may be “written up” above their cost if it is clear that their
values have increased subsequent to previous write-down.
III. Storage costs is included in the cost of inventory only when storage cost is
necessary in bringing the inventory to its intended condition and location.
a. II only b. I, II & III c. III only d. I & III
113. Which of the following are considered in determining the cost of an item
of inventory?
I. Material wasted due to a machine breakdown
II. Import duties on shipping of inventory inwards
III. Storage costs of finished goods
IV. Trade discounts received on purchase of inventory
a. I, II b. III, IV c. II, IV d. I, II, III, IV
(ACCA)
114. According to PAS 2 Inventories, which of the following costs should be

included in inventory valuations?
I. Transport costs for raw materials
II. Abnormal material usage
III. Storage costs relating to finished goods
IV. Fixed production overheads
a. I, II b. III, IV c. II, III d. I, IV
(ACCA)
115. How should import duties be dealt with when valuing inventories at the
lower of cost and net realizable value (NRV) according to PAS 2 Inventories?
a. added to cost c. deducted in arriving at NRV
b. ignored d. deducted from cost
(ACCA)
116. How should prompt payment discount not taken be dealt with when
valuing inventories at the lower of cost and net realizable value (NRV) using
the gross method?
117. How should sales staff commission be dealt with when valuing inventories
at the lower of cost and net realizable value (NRV), according to PAS 2
Inventories?
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(ACCA)
118. How should trade discounts be dealt with when valuing inventories at the
lower of cost and net realizable value (NRV) according to PAS 2 Inventories?
(ACCA)
119. Are the following statements true or false, according to PAS 2 Inventories?
I. Cost of factory management should be included in the cost of inventory.
II. Maintenance expenses for an item of equipment used in the
manufacturing process should be included in the cost of inventory.
a. False, false b. False, true c. True, false d. True, true
(ACCA)
120. The Hetfield Company has two products in its inventory which have costs
and selling prices per unit as follows:
Product X Product Y
Selling price 200 300
Materials and conversion costs 150 180
General administration costs 30 80
Selling costs 60 70
Profit/(loss) (40) (30)
At year-end, the manufacture of items of inventory has been completed but no

selling costs have yet been incurred. According to PAS 2 Inventories, how should
Product X and Product Y carried in Hetfield's statement of financial position,
respectively?
a. NRV, NRV b. NRV, Cost c. Cost, NRV d. Cost, Cost
(ACCA)
Inventory estimation
121. A major advantage of the retail inventory method is that it
a. Permits companies which use it to avoid taking an annual physical
inventory
b. Gives a more accurate statement of inventory cost than other methods.
c. Hides costs from customers and employees.
d. Provides a method for inventory control and facilitates determination of
the periodic inventory.
(Adapted)
122. According to PAS 2 Inventories, which of the following may be used in

estimating inventory for interim period reporting?
I. Conservative, Conventional or LCM Method
II. Average Method
III. First-in, first out (FIFO) Method
a. II b. I, II c. II, III d. I, II, III
123. Which inventory costing method is most useful in estimating the amount
of inventory lost or destroyed by theft, fire, or other hazards?
a. FIFO c. gross profit method
b. average cost method d. LIFO
(Adapted)
124. Cost of goods available for sale consists of the

a. cost of beginning inventory and the cost of ending inventory.
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b. cost of ending inventory and the cost of goods purchased during the year.
c. cost of beginning inventory and the cost of goods purchased during the
year.
d. difference between the cost of goods purchased and the cost of goods sold
during the year.
125. The operating expenses section of a statement of earnings for a

merchandising company would not include
a. freight out c. cost of goods sold
b. utilities expense d. insurance expense
(Adapted)
126. If a company wrote a check for P500 for the advance payment for a copy
machine they purchased yet to be delivered the Accounts Payable account
would
a. increase c. not be affected
b. decrease d. no one knows for sure
(Adapted)
127. The cost of goods available for sale is allocated between

a. beginning inventory and ending inventory
b. beginning inventory and cost of goods on hand
c. ending inventory and cost of goods sold
d. beginning inventory and cost of goods sold
128. Which of the following statements is(are) correct?

I. To calculate cash payments for purchases, the cost of goods sold must be
known, along with the changes in inventory and accounts payable during
the period.
II. Cost of goods sold is equal to net purchases minus increase in inventory.
III. Cost of goods sold is equal to net purchases plus increase in inventory.
a. I, II b. I, II, III c. II, III d. I, III
129. A binding agreement for the exchange of a specified quantity of resources

at a specified price on a specified future date or dates
a. purchase order c. purchase contract
b. firm commitment d. purchase committed
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1. A 21. C 41. D 61. C 81. C 101. A 121. D
2. D 22. A 42. D 62. D 82. A 102. B 122. C
3. D 23. A 43. D 63. B 83. C 103. D 123. C
4. A 24. A 44. C 64. B 84. B 104. B 124. C
5. C 25. C 45. C 65. D 85. A 105. A 125. C
6. D 26. C 46. D 66. D 86. A 106. C 126. C
7. B 27. A 47. D 67. D 87. D 107. A 127. C
8. D 28. B 48. D 68. A 88. A 108. C 128. A
9. A 29. A 49. B 69. A 89. B 109. C 129. B
10. D 30. B 50. A 70. A 90. A 110. B
11. B 31. A 51. B 71. B 91. D 111. A
12. C 32. A 52. E 72. A 92. D 112. C
13. C 33. D 53. C 73. D 93. C 113. C
14. A 34. D 54. D 74. D 94. D 114. D
15. A 35. D 55. A 75. A 95. D 115. A
16. B 36. C 56. D 76. A 96. A 116. B
17. A 37. B 57. C 77. B 97. D 117. C
18. B 38. B 58. D 78. D 98. D 118. D
19. A 39. C 59. B 79. D 99. A 119. D
20. D 40. D 60. A 80. E 100. C 120. B
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Chapter 9
Investments (Part 1)

Financial assets
1. The following are taken from the records of ABC Co. as of year-end.
Investment in 44,000
Cash and cash equivalents 10,400 subsidiary
Accounts receivable 12,000 Shares of stocks of 44,800
ABC Co.
Allowance for bad debts (1,600) Investment in bonds 9,600
Note receivable 4,000 Land 112,000
Interest receivable 1,600 Building 208,000
Accumulated
Claim for tax refund 9,600 depreciation (52,000)
Advances to suppliers 4,800 Investment property 40,000
Inventory 60,000 Biological assets 24,000
Prepaid expenses 4,000 Intangible assets 56,000
Prepaid interest* 800 Deferred tax assets 48,000
Investment in equity Cash surrender value 9,600
instruments 10,400
Investment in associate 16,000 Sinking fund 16,000
*Assume this account is not a valuation account to a financial liability.
How much is the total of the financial assets disclosed in the notes?
a. 142,400 b. 132,000 c. 132,800 d. 92,800
Financial liabilities
2. The following are taken from the records of ABC Co. as of year-end.
Accounts payable 1,600 SSS contributions payable 4,800
Utilities payable 5,600 Cash dividends payable 3,200
Accrued interest expense 4,800 Property dividends
payable 5,600
Advances from customers 800 Stock dividends payable 2,400
Unearned rent 7,200 Finance lease liability 28,000
Warranty obligations 4,000 Bonds payable 96,000
Unearned interest on Discount on bonds
receivables 2,400 payable (12,000)
Income taxes payable 1,600 Security deposit 1,600
How much is the total of the financial liabilities disclosed in the notes?
a. 128,800 b. 132,800 c. 100,800 d. 136,000
Principal market vs. Most advantageous market

ABC Co. has an asset that is required by the standards to be measured at fair
value. The asset is sold in two different active markets. ABC Co. has access to both
of these markets. Information on these markets is shown below:
Active market #1 Active market #2
Market price 150 145
Transaction costs 18 12
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Transport costs 10 8
Case #1: Principal market

3. If “Active market #1” is the principal market for the asset, how much is the fair
value of the asset?
a. 150 b. 132 c. 140 d. 122
Case #2: Most advantageous market

4. If neither market is the principal market for the asset, how much is the fair
value of the asset?
a. 122 b. 125 c. 145 d. 137
Financial assets designated at FVPL

On January 1, 20x1, ABC Co. purchased 1,000 shares of XYZ, Inc. for ₱250,000.
Commission paid to broker amounted to ₱10,000. The equity securities were
designated by management to be measured at fair value through profit or loss. On
December 31, 20x1, the shares are quoted at ₱200 per share. It was estimated
that transaction cost of ₱20 per share will be incurred if the shares were sold on
that date.
5. How much is the unrealized gain (loss) on change in fair value recognized in
the 20x1 profit or loss?
a. (70,000) b. (50,000) c. (40,000) d. 60,000
6. On January 3, 20x2, all of the shares were sold at ₱300 per share. Commission
paid for the sale amounted to ₱60,000. How much is the realized gain (loss)
from the sale?
a. 60,000 b. (10,000) c. 40,000 d. (40,000)
7. If ABC Co. uses an allowance account to account for changes in fair values,
how much is the balance of this account on December 31, 20x1?
a. 70,000 debit c. 40,000 credit
b. 50,000 debit d. 50,000 credit
Held for trading securities – equity securities

8. On January 1, 20x1, ABC Co. purchased 1,000 shares of XYZ, Inc. for ₱15,000.
Taxes and licenses incurred amounted to ₱15,000. The equity securities were
classified as held for trading. On December 31, 20x1, the shares are quoted at
₱12 per share. On January 3, 20x2, half of investment was sold at ₱15 per
share. Transaction costs incurred on the sale amounted to ₱1,000. How much
is the realized gain (loss) on the sale?
a. 500 b. (500) c. 2,000 d. (2,000)
Held for trading securities – portfolio

On January 1, 20x1, ABC Co. purchased the following marketable securities to be
held for trading. Transaction costs incurred on the purchase amounted to ₱2,000.
Fair value – Fair value –
Cost
12/31/x1 12/31/x2
Apple Co. preference shares 30,000 40,000 25,000
Boy Co. ordinary shares 20,000 12,000 10,000
Cat Co. bonds 12,000 25,000 30,000
Totals 62,000 77,000 65,000
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On February 2, 20x3, half of the Apple Co. preference shares were sold for
₱14,000, net of transaction costs.
9. How much is the unrealized gain (loss) recognized in ABC’s 20x1 profit or
loss?
a. 15,000 b. (15,000) c. 13,000 d. 0
loss?
a. b. 12,000 c. (12,000) d. 0
11. How much is the realized gain (loss) recognized in ABC’s 20x3 profit or loss?
a. (11,000) b. 1,500 c. 11,000 d. 0
Held for trading securities – debt securities

12. On January 1, 20x1, ABC Co. purchased ₱1,000,000 bonds at 98. The bonds
mature on January 1, 20x5 and pay 12% annual interest beginning January 1,
20x2. Commission paid on the acquisition amounted to ₱10,000. The
objective of the ABC Co.’s business model is to sell such bonds in the near
term to take advantage of fluctuations in fair values for short-term profit
taking. Accordingly, the bonds were classified as held for trading securities.
On December 31, 20x1, the bonds are quoted at 102. How much is the
unrealized gain (loss) on change in fair value recognized in ABC’s 20x1 profit
or loss?
a. 40,000 b. 30,000 c. 12,667 d. 0
Held for trading securities – debt securities

13. On January 1, 20x1, ABC Co. purchased ₱1,000,000 bonds at a price which
reflects a yield rate of 14%. The bonds mature on January 1, 20x4 and pay
12% annual interest beginning January 1, 20x2. Transaction costs incurred on
the acquisition amounted to ₱12,000. The bonds are classified as held for
trading securities. On December 31, 20x1, the bonds are selling at a yield rate
of 10%. How much is the unrealized gain (loss) on change in fair value
recognized in ABC’s 20x1 profit or loss?
a. 78,336 b. 85,343 c. 83,561 d. 81,143
Investment in equity securities measured at FVOCI

On January 1, 20x1, ABC Co. purchased 10,000 shares of XYZ, Inc. for ₱1,000,000.
Commission paid to broker amounted to ₱15,000. Management made an
irrevocable choice to subsequently measure the shares at fair value through
other comprehensive income. On December 31, 20x1, the shares are quoted at
₱90 per share. On January 3, 20x2, all of the shares were sold at ₱105 per share.
Commission paid for the sale amounted to ₱16,000.
loss?
a. 115,000 b. (115,000) c. (85,000) d. 0
15. How much is the unrealized gain (loss) recognized in ABC’s 20x1 other
comprehensive income?
a. 115,000 b. (115,000) c. (85,000) d. 0
16. How much is the realized gain (loss) recognized in ABC’s 20x3 profit or loss?
a. 19,000 b. 134,000 c. (19,000) d. 49,000
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Investment measured at FVOCI - portfolio

ABC Co. purchased the following equity securities on January 1, 20x1.
Transaction costs incurred on the acquisition amounted to ₱3,000.
Fair value – Fair value
Cost
12/31/x1 – 12/31/x2
Apple Co. preference shares 30,000 40,000 25,000
Boy Co. ordinary shares 20,000 12,000 10,000
Cat Co. bonds 12,000 25,000 32,000
Totals 62,000 77,000 67,000
On February 2, 20x3, half of the Apple Co. preference shares were sold for
₱14,000 net of transaction costs.
a. 15,000 b. 12,000 c. 18,000 d. 0
a. (10,000) b. 10,000 c. 5,000 d. 0
19. How much is the balance of accumulated fair value changes presented in
ABC’s December 31, 20x2 equity?
a. (2,000) b. 5,000 c. 2,000 d. 0
20. How much accumulated unrealized gain (loss) is transferred directly in equity
as a result of the sale in 20x3?
a. (3,226) b. (2,466) c. 4,322 d. 0


Financial instruments
1. It is any contract that gives rise to a financial asset of one entity and a
financial liability or equity instrument of another entity.
a. Debt instrument c. Financial instrument
b. Equity instrument d. a and b
2. Financial assets include

I. Cash
II. An entity’s own equity instrument
III. A contractual right or obligation to receive or pay cash or another
financial asset to or from another entity
IV. A contractual right to exchange financial assets or financial liabilities with
another entity under conditions that are potentially unfavorable to the
entity
a. I b. I, II c. I, II, III d. I, II, III, IV
3. Financial Liability is any liability that is

I. A contractual obligation to deliver cash or another financial asset to
another entity
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II. A contractual obligation to exchange financial assets or financial liabilities

with another entity under conditions that are potentially unfavorable to
the entity
III. A contract that will or may be settled in the entity’s own equity
instruments and is a non-derivative for which the entity is or may be
obliged to deliver a variable number of the entity’s own equity
instruments
IV. A derivative that will or may be settled other than by the exchange of a
fixed amount of cash or another financial asset for a fixed number of the
entity’s own equity instruments.
a. I or II b. I, II, III, or IV c. I, II, and III d. I and II
4. Regarding PFRS 9, which of the following is incorrect?

a. Only equity instruments of other entities can qualify as financial assets.
The entity’s own equity instruments are not financial assets
b. The term financial instrument refers to both financial assets and financial
liabilities.
c. Equity instruments refer only to those instruments issued by a
corporation. Other types of organizations cannot issue equity instruments.
d. The term financial instruments include a vast array of instruments,
including petty cash fund.
5. It is any contract that represents a right upon the holder to receive cash from
the issuer thereof or an obligation upon the issuer to pay cash to the holder
thereof.
a. financial asset c. debt instrument
b. equity instrument d. musical instrument
6. Under PAS 32, it refers to an instrument originated by an entity which

represents a residual interest in the entity’s net assets.
a. financial instruments c. debt instrument
b. equity instruments d. own equity instrument
7. All of the following are equity securities, except

a. share options given as compensation to employees
b. members’ shares in a cooperative
c. preference shares with mandatory redemption
d. a receivable collectible only on a pro-rata basis upon liquidation of the
issuer
8. Which of the following most likely qualify for disclosure as financial asset in
the notes?
a. undeposited collections c. treasury shares
b. inventory d. stock rights issued
9. X Co. has the following items.

I. Inventories
II. Shares of stocks issued by X Co.
III. Patent purchased from Y Co.
IV. Bonds payable
V. Accounts receivable
Which of these items is(are) considered financial asset(s)?

a. II b. II, IV, V c. II, IV d. V
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10. Are there any circumstances when a contract that is not a financial
instrument would be accounted for as a financial instrument under PAS 32
and PFRS 9?
a. No. Only financial instruments are accounted for as financial instruments.
b. Yes. Gold, silver, and other precious metals that are readily convertible to
cash are accounted for as financial instruments.
c. Yes. A contract for the future purchase or delivery of a commodity or other
nonfinancial item (e.g., gold, electricity, or gas) generally is accounted for
as a financial instrument if the contract can be settled net.
d. Yes. An entity may designate any nonfinancial asset that can be readily
convertible to cash as a financial instrument.
(Adapted)
11. Which of the following assets is not a financial asset?

a. Cash.
b. An equity instrument of another entity.
c. A contract that may or will be settled in the entity’s own equity instrument
and is not classified as an equity instrument of the entity.
d. Prepaid expenses.
(Adapted)
12. The scope of PFRS 9 includes all of the following items except:
a. Financial instruments that meet the definition of a financial asset.
b. Financial instruments that meet the definition of a financial liability.
c. Financial instruments issued by the entity that meet the definition of an
equity instrument.
d. Contracts to buy or sell nonfinancial items that can be settled net.
(Adapted)
13. Which of the following is not disclosed as a financial asset?

a. cash c. sinking fund
b. equity instruments on another entity d. prepaid income tax
14. Which of the following types of instrument is best described as a contract that
evidences a residual interest in the assets of an entity after deducting the
liabilities?
a. Financial liability b. Guarantee c. Equity d. Financial asset
15. Which of the following are classified as financial instruments in accordance

with PAS32 Financial Instruments: Presentation?
a. Patents d. Trade payables
b. Trade receivables e. b and d
c. Inventories
(ACCA)
16. Marketable securities are those investments which are:

a. for controlling another firm c. readily marketable
b. for plant expansion d. for food customer
(Adapted)
17. Assets not directly identified with the operating activities of a business
enterprise
a. inventories b. receivables c. equipment d. investments
(Adapted)
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18. Under PFRS 9, the subcategories of Financial Assets at Fair value Through
Profit or Loss (FVPL) include
I. Designated
II. Held for trading
III. Held for speculation
a. I and II b. I and III c. II and III d. I, II, and III
19. How many of the following are financial instruments

I. Cash
II. Demand and time deposits
III. Commercial paper
IV. Accounts, notes, and loans receivable
V. Accounts, notes, and loans payable
VI. Debt and equity securities.
VII. Asset backed securities such as collateralized mortgage obligations,
repurchase agreements, and securitized packages of receivables
VIII. Derivatives, including options, rights, warrants, futures contracts, forward
contracts, and swaps.
a. Seven b. Ten c. Six d. All of them
20. It is any contract that evidences a residual interest in the assets of an entity
after deducting all of its liabilities.
a. stocks instrument c. capital instrument
b. debt instrument d. equity instrument
21. Debt instruments may include

a. bonds payable c. a and b
b. investment in bonds d. callable preference shares
22. Preferred stock with a mandatory redemption date or redeemable at the

option of the holder is a(n)
a. equity instrument c. treasury share
b. debt instrument d. a or b
23. To which of the following items is PFRS 9 Financial Instruments not

applicable?
a. unquoted debt securities
b. preference shares with mandatory redemption
c. the entity’s own equity instruments
d. the entity’s own debt instruments
Initial recognition and classification

24. What is the principle for recognition of a financial asset or a financial liability
in PFRS 9?
a. A financial asset is recognized when, and only when, it is probable that
future economic benefits will flow to the entity and the cost or value of the
instrument can be measured reliably.
b. A financial asset is recognized when, and only when, the entity obtains
control of the instrument and has the ability to dispose of the financial
asset independent of the actions of others.
c. A financial asset is recognized when, and only when, the entity obtains the
risks and rewards of ownership of the financial asset and has the ability to
dispose the financial asset.
d. A financial asset is recognized when, and only when, the entity becomes a
party to the contractual provisions of the instrument.
(Adapted)
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25. The two main classifications of financial assets under PFRS 9 are
a. debt and equity instruments
b. fair value and amortized cost
c. financial assets and financial liabilities
d. FVPL and FVOCI
26. Which of the following is not a classification of financial assets under PFRS 9?
a. Financial assets at fair value through profit or loss.
b. Financial assets at fair value through other comprehensive income
c. Financial assets at amortized cost
d. Held-to-maturity investments
27. Under PFRS 9, an entity shall classify financial assets as subsequently

measured at either amortized cost or fair value on the basis of which of the
following:
I. the entity’s business model for managing the financial assets
II. the contractual cash flow characteristics of the financial asset
a. I only b. II only c. I and II d. neither I nor II
28. A financial asset shall be measured at amortized cost if which of the following
conditions are met:
I. the asset is held within a business model whose objective is to hold assets
in order to collect contractual cash flows.
II. the contractual terms of the financial asset give rise on specified dates to
cash flows that are solely payments of principal and interest on the
principal amount outstanding.
a. I only b. II only c. I or II d. I and II
29. If the objective of an entity’s business model for managing a financial asset is
to hold the financial asset in order to collect contractual cash flows, then the
financial asset is most likely to be classified as
a. FVPL b. FVOCI c. amortized cost d. any of these
30. If the objective of an entity’s business model for managing the financial assets
is to hold financial assets in order to realize fair value changes, then the
financial asset is most likely to be classified as
a. at fair value c. at cost
b. at amortized cost d. any of these
31. If the objective of an entity’s business model is to hold financial assets in

order to collect contractual cash flows, the entity may classify the financial
assets
a. at amortized cost
b. at amortized cost provided the management can demonstrate its ability to
hold them until maturity
c. at amortized cost; however, if a significant portion of the financial assets is
sold before maturity, the remaining portion should be reclassified
d. at amortized cost provided the fair value information and fair value
changes are disclosed in the notes
32. Regarding classification of financial assets, which of the following is

incorrect?
a. only equity securities can be classified as FVOCI
b. only debt securities can be classified as amortized cost
c. either debt or equity securities may be classified as FVPL
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d. only equity securities can be designated as FVPL
33. When an entity classifies its financial assets, which of the following
statements is true?
a. debt securities may be classified as FVOCI
b. equity securities may be classified as amortized cost
c. debt or equity securities may be designated at FVPL
d. securities classified as FVOCI are always presented as noncurrent assets
34. Loans and notes receivables are classified as financial assets measured at
a. fair value c. cost
b. amortized cost d. lower of cost or fair value
35. The initial classification of investments in financial assets is generally based

on
a. whether the debt or equity securities are marketable or not
b. whether the debt or equity securities are current or non-current
c. the intention of management on acquiring such investments
d. the entity’s business model and contractual cash flow characteristics of
the financial asset
36. Which of the following cannot be classified as FVOCI?

a. investment in nonredeemable preference shares
b. equity securities that qualify as held for trading
c. equity securities whose quoted prices are published only during
weekdays
d. a residual interest in the net assets of another entity
37. The option to designate financial assets as FVPL and the election to classify
financial assets at FVOCI are available to an entity’s management
a. on initial recognition and subsequent thereof
b. subsequent to initial recognition only
c. on initial recognition only
d. not available
38. The option to designate financial assets at FVPL may be made if

a. the financial asset is an equity security
b. the financial asset is a debt security
c. the designation minimizes accounting mismatch
d. the entity is a corporation
39. The option to designate financial assets as FVPL and the election to classify
financial assets at FVOCI are
a. revocable
b. mandatory
c. irrevocable
d. revocable under certain circumstances described in PFRS 9
40. Regarding classifications of financial assets, which of the following is

incorrect?
a. Once a financial asset is designated as financial asset measured at FVPL,
such asset is recognized at fair value until the financial asset is
derecognized.
b. The election to classify financial assets as FVOCI is made on an
instrument-by-instrument basis
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c. Once a financial asset is classified as FVOCI, all fair value changes on the
instrument is recognized in other comprehensive income
d. An entity cannot designate a financial asset at FVPL during a period it
holds investments classified as FVOCI
41. Which of the following is correct regarding classifications of financial assets?

a. An entity cannot designate a debt security at FVPL if it otherwise qualifies
for recognition as held for trading
b. An entity cannot designate an equity security at FVPL if it otherwise
qualifies for recognition as held for trading
c. An entity cannot elect to classify an equity security at FVOCI if it otherwise
qualifies for recognition as held for trading
d. An entity can elect to classify an equity security at FVOCI even if the
security qualifies for recognition as held for trading
42. Financial assets that are neither designated to be measured at FVPL nor
qualify for recognition at amortized cost are classified as held for trading if:
(choose the incorrect statement)
a. it is acquired principally for the purpose of selling it in the near term
b. on initial recognition it is part of a portfolio of identified financial
instruments that are managed together and for which there is evidence of
a recent actual pattern of short-term profit-taking
c. it is a derivative (except for a derivative that is a financial guarantee
contract or a designated and effective hedging instrument)
d. the instrument is an equity security
43. Any investment may be accounted for by fair value through profit and loss
provided
a. It is traded in an active market. c. It is a debt instrument.
b. It is an equity instrument. d. The instrument matures within 2 years.
(AICPA)
44. Are the following statements concerning the measurement of financial

instruments after initial recognition true or false, according to PFRS 9
Financial instruments?
(1) Held-for-trading financial assets are measured at amortized cost.
(2) Debt securities to be held to maturity are measured at fair value.
Statement (1) Statement (2) Statement (1) Statement (2)
a. False False c. True False
b. False True d. True True
(ACCA)
45. Prior to January 1, 20x1 Drive Company had not held any equity investments
in other companies. On January 1, 20x1 Drive purchased 3% of the equity
shares in Putt Company with the intention of holding this investment over the
long term. The most appropriate classification of the equity investment in
Putt by Drive is
a. Designated b. FVOCI c. amortized cost d. any of these
(ACCA)
46. Iron Company acquired equity securities of Wood Company, a listed entity, to
be held as investments. Which of the following is true?
a. Iron Company is required under PFRS 9 to classify the securities at fair
value
b. Iron Company is required under PFRS 9 to classify the securities as
amortized cost
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c. Iron Company is required under PFRS 9 to designate the securities to be

measured at fair value
d. Iron Company will most likely measure the securities at fair value.
However, Iron Company is not prohibited under PFRS 9 to measure the
securities at cost.
47. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the provisions of PFRS 9

Financial Instruments?
a. All equity securities held as investments, except those covered under
other Standards, shall be measured at fair value
b. Unquoted equity securities are required under PFRS 9 to be measured at
cost
c. Entries to record reclassifications of financial assets are always made after
a change in an entity’s business model but never simultaneously with the
change.
d. Classifications to FVOCI and financial assets designated at FVPL are
irrevocable.
48. Single Plane Company acquired 30,000 equity shares, representing 5% of the
issued ordinary share capital in Two Plane Company. Two Plane's shares are
listed on a Stock Exchange. In accordance with PFRS 9 Financial Instruments,
in which of the following classifications could Single Plane's investment in the
equity shares be classified?
a. FVOCI d. a or c
b. Available for sale e. any of these
c. FVPL
(ACCA)
49. Devin Company acquired 30,000 4% Government Bonds redeemable in 20x1

at the quoted market price of P200. Devin has no current intention to sell the
Bonds and has a policy to hold them as investments unless certain corporate
criteria are met and the bonds are sold to maintain liquidity. In accordance
with PFRS 9 Financial Instruments, which of the following is the most
appropriate classification for Devin's investment in the Government Bonds?
a. Held to maturity c. Available for sale
b. At fair value through profit or loss d. At amortized cost
(ACCA)
50. They represent temporary investments of funds available for current

operations and are intended to meet working capital requirements
a. receivables c. held for trading securities
b. inventories d. cash
51. Which of the following may be classified as receivables?

a. Financial assets designated at fair value through profit or loss;
b. Financial assets measured at fair value with fair value changes recognized
in other comprehensive income
c. Financial assets for which the holder may not recover substantially all of
its initial investment, other than because of credit deterioration.
d. Financial assets that are not derivative instruments but with fixed or
determinable payments that are not quoted in an active market.
52. Which of the following is the incorrect statement?

a. Investments classified as long-term are reclassified as short-term
investments only if it is in accordance with the entity’s business model and
based on cash flow characteristics of the financial asset.
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b. If an investor company does not have significant influence in another

company, it must use either the fair value method or the cost method to
account to account for that investment in equity securities.
c. If an investor company has a controlling interest in another company, it
must use either the cost method or the fair value method to account for
that investment in equity securities in its separate financial statements.
d. The cost method is sometimes applied to investments in equity securities.
(Adapted)
53. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the accounting for
financial assets?
a. The tainting provision under PAS 39 is carried over to PFRS 9.
b. Investments in unquoted equity securities are automatically measured at
cost
c. The election to classify financial assets at FVOCI is available after initial
recognition
d. When designating financial assets at FVPL, an entity’s management may
disregard the entity’s business model for managing financial assets and
the contractual cash flow characteristics of the instrument.
Presentation
54. Which of the following statements is the correct statement?
a. The best way to ascertain whether a marketable security is a short-term
or a long-term investment is to check with a securities dealer.
b. For balance sheet classification, a security is classified as a short-term
investment if it is readily marketable.
c. For balance sheet classification, a security is classified as a short-term
investment based on the entity’s business model and contractual cash flow
characteristics of the instrument
d. All investments in FVPL are reported at book value.
(Adapted)
55. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding presentation of

financial assets?
a. The carrying amounts of each financial asset at FVPL, FVOCI, and
amortized cost shall be disclosed either in the statement of financial
position or in the notes:
b. Financial assets measured at fair value through profit or loss are further
disaggregated into designated and held for trading
c. The unrealized gains and losses on changes in fair values recognized for
held for trading and designated at FVPL need not be disclosed separately
in the financial statements.
d. Change in fair values of FVOCI is presented as a separate line item on the
face of the statement of profit or loss and other comprehensive income.
56. Which of the following is the correct statement?

a. Financial assets at fair value and at amortized cost are classified
separately in the financial statements.
b. The FVOCI classification includes equity and debt securities.
c. Investments in FVPL include only debt securities.
d. Increases in the fair values of FVPL and amortized cost investments
always cause the valuation account to increase.
57. Which of the following incorrectly relates to the provisions of PFRS 9?

a. All investments in equity instruments and contracts on those instruments
must be measured at fair value.
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b. Only in limited circumstances may investments in equity instruments be

measured at cost.
c. Unquoted equity instruments whose fair value cannot be reliably
determined shall be measured at cost.
d. Unquoted equity instruments are always measured at cost.
58. Which of the following could cause a firm's equity position to be weaker than
is reflected in the statement of financial position?
a. Holding held-to-maturity securities in a portfolio with non-amortized
discounts.
b. Holding FVOCI securities in a portfolio that have unrealized losses.
c. Holding trading securities in a portfolio with unrealized gains.
d. Designating financial assets at FVPL to minimize accounting mismatch
(Adapted)
59. All of the following items may be presented in the statement of financial
position under either the current assets section or the noncurrent assets
section except
a. Held for trading c. Investments measured at amortized cost
b. Investments in FVOCI d. b and c
Initial measurement
60. Which of the following statement is true?
a. The fair value of accounting is the most appropriate method of accounting
for short-term investments in marketable equity securities.
b. All bond investments are accounted for by the amortized cost method.
c. The carrying value of an investment in FVOCI is limited to fair value at the
date of acquisition.
d. The realized gain or loss on a short-term investment in an equity security
is usually equal to the difference between its cost and its sale price.
(Adapted)
61. Financial assets classified as FVPL are initially recognized at

a. fair value c. fair value plus direct acquisition cost
b. cost d. invoice cost
62. Financial assets classified as FVOCI and financial assets measured at

amortized cost are initially recognized at
a. fair value c. fair value plus direct acquisition cost
b. cost d. invoice cost
63. Under PFRSs, these refer to incremental costs that are directly attributable to
the acquisition, issue or disposal of a financial asset or financial liability. They
would not have been incurred if the entity had not acquired, issued or
disposed of the financial instrument.
a. Transaction costs c. Cost of equity
b. Spread cost d. Finance cost
64. In addition to financial assets at fair value through profit or loss, which of the
following categories of financial assets is measured at fair value in the balance
sheet?
a. FVOCI
b. Amortized cost investments
c. Loans and receivables.
d. Investments in unquoted equity instruments whose fair values cannot be
measured reliably
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65. What is the best evidence of the fair value of a financial instrument?
a. Its cost, including transaction costs directly attributable to the purchase,
origination, or issuance of the financial instrument.
b. Its estimated value determined using discounted cash flow techniques,
option pricing models, or other valuation techniques.
c. Its quoted price, if an active market exists for the financial instrument.
d. The present value of the contractual cash flows less impairment.
(Adapted)
66. Is there any exception to the requirement to measure investments in equity

securities at fair value?
a. No. Such assets are always measured at fair value.
b. Yes. If the fair value of such assets increases above cost, the resulting
unrealized holding gains are not recognized but deferred until realized.
c. Yes. If the entity has the positive intention and ability to hold assets
classified in those categories to maturity, they are measured at amortized
cost.
d. Yes. Investments in unquoted equity instruments that cannot be reliably
measured at fair value are measured at cost.
(Adapted)
67. Which of the following conditions generally exists before fair value can be
used as the basis for the valuation of financial assets held as investment?
a. management’s intention must be to dispose of the securities within one
year
b. fair value must be determinable
c. fair value must approximate historical cost
d. fair value must be less than cost for each security held in the company’s
marketable equity security portfolio
e. financial assets held as investment should be valued at fair value in
compliance with current GAAP
(Adapted)
Subsequent measurement
68. Subsequent to their initial recognition, which financial assets with quoted
market prices in an active market are measured at fair value?
Financial assets Financial assets FVOCI Held for trading

designated at FVPL measured at amortized securities
cost
a. Yes Yes Yes No
b. Yes Yes No No
c. Yes No Yes Yes
d. No No No Yes
69. On November 1, 20x1, Monsters, Inc. invested ₱575,000 in short-term

marketable securities classified as held for trading. The market value of this
investment was ₱610,000 at December 31, 20x1 but had slipped to ₱595,000
by December 31, 20x2. In the financial statements prepared on December 31,
20x1, Monster reports:
a. the investment at ₱575,000 with note disclosure of the fair value of
P610,000.
b. the investment at ₱610,000 and a ₱35,000 unrealized holding gain
included in profit or loss.
c. the investment at ₱610,000 and a ₱35,000 realized gain recognized in the
income statement.
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d. the investments ₱595,000 and a ₱15,000 unrealized holding loss in profit

or loss.
(Adapted)
70. For a marketable debt securities portfolio to be held-to-maturity, which of the

following amounts should be included in the period’s profit, assuming the
entity elects the fair value option of reporting all of its financial instruments
in the portfolio?
I. Unrealized temporary losses during the period.
II. Realized gains during the period.
III. Unrealized gains during the period.
a. I only b. land lI c. II and III d. I, II, and III.
(AICPA)
71. When the fair value of an entity's portfolio of FVPL securities is lower than its
cost the difference is
a. Accounted for as liability.
b. Disclosed and described in a note to the financial statements but not
accounted for.
c. Accounted for as a valuation allowance deducted from the asset to which
it relates.
d. Accounted for as an addition in the equity section of the statement of
financial position
(Adapted)
72. Under PFRSs, if an entity designates a financial asset to be measured at fair

value, any changes in fair value are recognized in
a. Other comprehensive income. c. Profit or loss.
b. Retained earnings. d. Equity
(AICPA)
73. An entity has adopted PFRS 9 Financial Instruments. It should report the
marketable equity securities that it has classified as held for trading at:
a. Lower of cost or market, with holding gains and losses included in
earnings.
b. Lower of cost or market, with holding gains included in earnings only to
the extent of previously recognized holding losses.
c. Fair value, with holding gains included in earnings only to the extent of
previously recognized holding losses.
d. Fair value, with holding gains and losses included in earnings.
(AICPA)
74. Which of the following statements regarding fair value is/are correct?
I. The fair value of an asset or liability is specific to the entity making the fair
value measurement.
II. Fair value is the price to acquire an asset or assume a liability.
III. Fair value includes transportation costs, but not transaction costs.
IV. The price in the principal market for an asset or liability will be the fair
value measurement.
a. I & II b. I & IV c. II & III d. III & IV
(AICPA)
75. Which of the following is not a valuation technique that can be used to
measure the fair value of an asset or liability?
a. Market approach. c. Income approach.
b. Impairment approach. d. Cost approach.
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(AICPA)
76. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the inputs that can
be used to measure fair value?
I. Level I inputs are the most reliable fair value measurements and Level III
inputs are the least reliable.
II. Level III measurements are quoted prices in active markets for identical
assets or liabilities.
III. A fair value measurement based on management assumptions only (no
market data) would not be acceptable under current standards.
IV. The level in the fair value hierarchy of a fair value measurement is
determined by the level of the highest level significant input.
a. I only. b. I, II, IV. c. II, III, IV. d. I, II, III, IV.
(Adapted)
77. There are multiple active markets for a financial asset with different
observable market prices:
Market Quoted Price Transaction Costs
A ₱76 ₱5
B ₱74 ₱2
There is no principal market for the financial asset. What is the fair value of the
asset?
a. 71 b. 72 c. 74 d. 76
(Adapted)
78. The valuation allowance for a marketable equity securities portfolio included
in current assets should be a component of
a. current assets c. non-current assets
b. current liabilities d. non-current liabilities
(Adapted)
79. If marketable securities purchased for ₱500 increase in fair value to ₱800 as
of the end of the fiscal year and were sold in the subsequent year for ₱700,
what method was used if the gain of ₱300 was reported in the first year and a
loss of ₱100 in the year of sale?
a. equity method c. lower of cost or market
b. fair value method d. aggregate method
(Adapted)
80. As determined at the balance sheet date, the carrying amount of the current
portfolio of marketable equity securities shall be equal to
a. acquisition value c. fair value
b. lower of cost or market value d. appraised value
(Adapted)
81. Test of marketability must be met before equity securities owned can be
properly classified as
a. long-term investments c. treasury shares
b. current assets d. loans and receivables
(Adapted)
82. Assuming a financial asset classified as FVOCI is remeasured to fair value at

the end of reporting period, the gain or loss
a. Must be recognized in net profit or loss.
b. Must be recognized directly in equity.
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c. Must be recognized in other comprehensive income and accumulated

separately in equity
d. Must be recognized in profit or loss if the result is a loss and directly in
equity if the result is gain.
83. The difference between the acquisition cost and the aggregate par value of
shares acquired as investment is
a. accounted for as a deferred charge to be amortized using the straight line
method
b. accounted for as part of the initial cost and recognized in profit or loss
during the life of the investment using the effective interest method
c. accounted for as part of the initial cost and recognized in profit or loss
when the investment is impaired
d. not given special accounting

I. PFRS 9 Financial Instruments does not address the accounting for equity
instruments issued by the reporting entity. However, the holder of such
equity instruments may apply PFRS 9 to those instruments, unless such
instruments are obtained through interests in subsidiary, associate or
joint venture.
II. Investments in equity instruments that are not quoted in an active market,
and whose fair value cannot be reliably measured cannot be classified as
FVPL.
III. Designated financial assets at FVPL are acquired principally for the
purpose of selling them in the near term
IV. Trading generally reflects active and frequent buying and selling, and
financial instruments held for trading generally are used with the
objective of generating profit from short-term fluctuations in price or
dealer’s margin.
a. I, III b. I, II, III c. I, II, IV d. I, II, III, IV
85. Sanitarium Company holds equity instruments of Damage Inc., a non-publicly

listed company. The equity instruments were classified as regular investment.
Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Sanitarium should measure the asset at cost
b. Sanitarium should measure the asset at amortized cost
c. Sanitarium should carry the asset at fair value unless fair value cannot be
determined reliably
d. Either a or b
Derecognition
86. Chowder Corporation invested ₱290,000 cash in equity securities classified as
FVOCI in early December. On December 31, the quoted market price for these
securities is ₱307,000. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Chowder's December income statement includes a ₱17,000 gain on
investments.
b. If Chowder sells these investments on January 2 for ₱300,000, it will
report a loss of ₱7,000 in its income statement.
c. Chowder's December 31 statement of financial position reports
marketable securities at ₱290,000 and an unrealized holding gain on
investments of ₱17,000.
d. Chowder’s December 31 statement of financial position reports
marketable securities at ₱307,000 and an Unrealizable Holding Gain on
Investments of ₱7,000.
(Adapted)
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87. When an investment in FVPL is sold during the year, the realized gain or loss
(assume no transaction costs) equals
a. the difference between the acquisition cost and the fair value at date of
sale.
b. the difference between the amortized cost and the fair value at the date of
sale.
c. the balance in the valuation account.
d. the fair value change experienced during the year of sale.
(Adapted)
88. Which of the following is a provision of PAS 39 that has been outlawed by
PFRS 9?
a. Painting provision
b. Provision for doubtful accounts
c. Tainting provision
d. Reclassification between financial assets
89. If a financial asset classified as FVOCI is derecognized (sold) during the year
a. The gain on sale is recognized directly in equity
b. The cumulative unrealized gains or losses on the investment are
transferred directly to retained earnings.
c. The gain or loss on the sale does not affect profit in the year of sale
d. Profit in the year of sale is increased if the selling price exceeds the
acquisition cost of the investment.
90. Imagine that you are an auditor. During your preliminary survey, you were
informed by your client that a large portion of its investment in FVOCI has
been sold during the year. Which of the following is correct?
a. You will expect that your client’s profit for the current year is higher than
the profit last year.
b. You will expect to see a loss on sale of investment in your client’s records
c. You will expect to see an entry made to transfer cumulative fair value
changes in the FVOCI directly to retained earnings.
d. You will expect nothing but coffee, free lunch, and long hours of AIDS (as if
doing something).
91. You are now a CPA and it is your first day on your job as an accountant. You
were asked by your client’s non-CPA staff on how to compute for the gain or
loss on sale of an investment in FVPL. You will tell the staff that the gain or
loss on sale of an FVPL is computed as
a. the difference between the net disposal proceeds and the carrying amount
of the investment on the date of sale.
b. the difference between the net disposal proceeds and the fair value of the
investment on the date of sale.
c. the difference between the net disposal proceeds and the original
acquisition cost of the investment.
d. You will tell the staff nothing because you just memorized multiple choice
questions to pass the board exams.
92. A change from the cost approach to the market approach of measuring fair
value is considered to be what type of accounting change?
a. Change in accounting estimate c. Change in valuation technique
b. Change in accounting principle d. Error correction
(AICPA)
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1. C 16. C 31. A 46. A 61. A 76. C 91. A
2. A 17. D 32. D 47. B 62. C 77. C 92. A
3. B 18. A 33. C 48. D 63. A 78. A
4. C 19. D 34. B 49. D 64. A 79. B
5. C 20. D 35. D 50. C 65. C 80. C
6. D 21. C 36. B 51. D 66. D 81. B
7. C 22. B 37. C 52. B 67. B 82. C
8. A 23. C 38. C 53. D 68. C 83. D
9. D 24. D 39. C 54. C 69. B 84. C
10. C 25. B 40. D 55. C 70. D 85. C
11. D 26. D 41. C 56. A 71. C 86. B
12. C 27. C 42. D 57. D 72. C 87. D
13. D 28. D 43. A 58. C 73. D 88. C
14. C 29. C 44. A 59. A 74. D 89. B
15. E 30. A 45. B 60. A 75. B 90. C
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Chapter 10

Financial assets at amortized cost – acquisition at a discount

1. On January 1, 20x1, ABC Co. acquired 8%, ₱1,000,000 bonds for ₱936,603.
The principal is due on December 31, 20x4 but interest is due annually at
each year-end. The yield rate on the bonds is 10%. The investment will be
subsequently measured at amortized cost. How much is the carrying amount
of the investment on December 31, 20x2?
a. 1,000,000 b. 950,263 c. 965,289 d. 981,818
Financial assets at amortized cost – acquisition at a premium

On January 1, 20x1, ABC Co. acquired 14%, ₱1,000,000 bonds for ₱1,099,474.
The principal is due on December 31, 20x3 but interest is due annually starting
December 31, 20x1. The effective interest rate on the bonds is 10%. The bonds
are classified as investment measured at amortized cost.
2. How much is the carrying amount of the investment on December 31, 20x2?
a. 1,000,000 b. 1,036,364 c. 1,069,421 d. 1,044,312
3. Assume that half of the investment was sold on January 1, 20x2 for ₱480,000.
Transaction costs incurred on the sale amounted to ₱15,000. How much is the
gain (loss) on the sale?
a. (54,711) b. (39,711) c. 16,341 d. (69,711)
Purchased accrued interest

On April 30, 20x1, ABC Co. acquired 10%, ₱100,000 bonds dated January 1, 20x1
at 102.
4. If the purchase price excludes interest, how much is the initial carrying
amount of the investment?
a. 102,000 b. 99,500 c. 98,667 d. 105,333
5. If the purchase price includes interest, how much is the initial carrying
amount of the investment?
a. 102,000 b. 99,500 c. 98,667 d. 105,333
Adjustment to effective interest rate

6. On January 1, 20x1, ABC Co. acquired 10%, ₱1,000,000 bonds at 92.
Commission paid to brokers amounted to ₱9,100. The bonds are classified as
investment measured at amortized cost. Principal is due on December 31,
20x3 but interest payments are made annually starting December 31, 20x1.
How much is the carrying amount of the investment on December 31, 20x1?
a. 949,883 b. 958,364 c. 973,368 d. 938,341
Sale of bonds in between interest payment dates
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7. On January 1, 20x1, ABC Co. acquired 12%, ₱1,000,000 bonds for ₱1,049,737.
The principal is due on January 1, 20x4 but interest is due annually starting
December 31, 20x1. The bonds are classified as investment measured at
amortized cost. The yield rate on the bonds is 10%. On September 30, 20x2,
the entire bonds were sold at 110. Commission paid to the broker amounted
to ₱10,000. How much is the gain (loss) on the sale?
a. (67,686) b. 77,686 c. (77,686) d. (22,314)
Purchase price of bonds - acquisition on interest date

8. ABC Co. is contemplating on investing on 12%, 3-year, ₱1,000,000 bonds.
Principal is due at maturity but interest is due annually at each year-end. ABC
Co. determines that the current market rate on January 1, 20x1 is 14%. How
much is the estimated purchase price of the bonds on January 1, 20x1?
a. 953,567 b. 934,123 c. 928,591 d. 961,324
Purchase price of bonds - acquisition in between interest dates
9. Use the same information in immediately preceding problem except that ABC
Co. plans to purchase the bonds on September 30, 20x1. How much is the
estimated total purchase price of the bonds on September 30, 20x1?
a. 963,692 b. 981,273 c. 1,021,341 d. 1,053,692
Amortization of serial bonds

On January 1, 20x1, ABC Co. purchased 10%, ₱3,000,000 bonds for ₱3,105,726.
The bonds are classified as financial asset measured at amortized cost. Principal
on the bonds mature as follows:
December 31, 20x1 1,000,000
December 31, 20x2 1,000,000
December 31, 20x3, 1,000,000
Total 3,000,000
Interest is due annually at each year-end. The effective interest rate on the bonds
is 8%.
10. How much is the current portion of the investment on January 1, 20x1?
a. 1,051,542 b. 1,035,665 c. 2,054,184 d. 1,018,519
11. How much is the unamortized premium on December 31, 20x1?

a. 32,421 b. 58,321 c. 47,819 d. 54,184
Purchase price of serial bonds – acquisition on interest date

12. On January 1, 20x1, ABC Co. contemplates on acquiring 10%, ₱3,000,000
bonds as investment. Principal on the bonds will mature in four semi-annual
installments as follows:
July 1, 20x1 1,200,000
December 31, 20x1 800,000
July 1, 20x2 600,000
December 31, 20x2 400,000
Total 3,000,000
Interest on the outstanding principal balance is also due semi-annually. The

effective rate as of January 1, 20x1 is 8%. How much is the estimated purchase
price of the bonds on January 1, 20x1?
a. 3,057,796 b. 3,313,241 c. 2,845,234 d. 2,984,132
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Amortization of zero-coupon bonds

13. On January 1, 20x1, ABC Co. purchased 12%, 3-year, ₱1,000,000 bonds for
₱1,055,543. Principal and compounded interests on the bonds are due at
maturity. The effective interest rate on the bonds is 10%. How much is the
carrying amount of the investment on December 31, 20x1?
a. 829,989 b. 949,989 c. 1,161,098 d. 1,041,098
Purchase price of zero-coupon bonds – acquisition on interest date

14.On January 1, 20x1, ABC Co. contemplates on acquiring investment in bonds
with ₱1,000,000 face amount and stated rate of 12%. Both the principal and
compounded interest on the bonds are due on January 1, 20x4. The effective
interest rate on January 1, 20x1 is 14%. How much is the estimated purchase
price of the bonds on January 1, 20x1?
a. 1,034,187 b. 991,233 c. 849,018 d. 948,286
Amortization of callable bonds

15. On January 1, 20x1, ABC Co. purchased 10%, ₱1,000,000 callable bonds for
₱966,199. The bonds mature in 4 years’ time. The investment is classified as
financial asset measured at amortized cost. The effective interest rate is 12%.
If the carrying amount of the investment on December 31, 20x1 is ₱982,143,
what is the expected holding period for the investment?
a. 4 years b. 3 years c. 2 years d. none of these
Trade date and Settlement date accounting - Purchase

On December 29, 20x1, an entity commits itself to purchase a financial asset for
₱10,000, which is its fair value on commitment date (trade date). Transaction
costs are immaterial. On December 31, 20x1 and on January 4, 20x2 (settlement
date) the fair value of the asset is ₱12,000 and ₱15,000, respectively.
16. If the entity uses the settlement date accounting and that the investment is
classified as held for trading, how much is initially debited to the investment
account?
a. 10,000 b. 12,000 c. 15,000 d. 2,000
17. If the entity uses the trade date accounting and that the investment is
classified as investment in FVOCI, how much is the unrealized gain (loss)
recognized on the investment on December 31, 20x1?
a. 2,000 b. 3,000 c. 5,000 d. 0
Trade date and Settlement date accounting – Sale

On December 29, 20x2 (trade date) Jared Co. enters into a contract to sell a
financial asset for its current fair value of ₱4,040 to Hera Co. The asset was
acquired one year earlier for ₱4,000 and its carrying amount is ₱4,000. On
December 31, 20x2 (financial year-end), the fair value of the asset is ₱4,024. On
January 4, 20x3 (settlement date), the fair value is ₱4,052.
18. If the financial asset sold was classified as held for trading security and the
sale is accounted for under the trade date accounting, the entry on December
29, 20x2 in Jared’s books will include
a. a credit to “Held for trading securities” for ₱4,000
b. a credit to “Unrealized gain” for ₱40
c. a debit to “Accounts receivable” for ₱4,000.
d. No entry will be made on this date
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19. If the financial asset sold was classified as held for trading security and the
sale is accounted for under the settlement date accounting, the entry on
December 29, 20x2 in Jared’s books will include
a. a credit to “Held for trading securities” for ₱4,000
b. a credit to “Unrealized gain” for ₱40
c. a debit to “Accounts receivable” for ₱4,000.
d. No entry will be made on this date
Reclassification - Amortized cost to Held for trading

20. On January 1, 20x1, Dagul Co. acquired 10%, ₱4,000,000 bonds for
₱3,807,853. The principal is due on January 1, 20x4 but interest is due
annually starting December 31, 20x1. The yield rate on the bonds is 12%. On
July, 1 20x1, Dagul Co. changed its business model. It was ascertained that the
investment in bonds at amortized cost should be reclassified to held for
trading securities on reclassification date. The bonds were quoted at 102, 103
and 104 on July 1, 20x1, December 31, 20x1 and January 1, 20x2, respectively.
How much is the gain (loss) on reclassification on January 1, 20x2?
a. 243,676 b. 255,205 c. 295,205 d. 0
Reclassification from Held for trading to amortized cost

21. On January 1, 20x1, Bianca Co. acquired 10%, ₱4,000,000 bonds for
₱3,807,853. The objective of Bianca’s business model is to sell such bonds in
the near term to take advantage of fluctuations in fair values for short-term
profit taking. Accordingly, the bonds were classified as held for trading
securities. On December 31, 20x1, the bonds are quoted at 98. On September
30, 20x2, Bianca Co. changed its business model. It was ascertained that the
investment should be reclassified to financial asset measured at amortized
cost on reclassification date. The bonds were quoted at 101, 103 and 104 on
September 30, 20x2, December 31, 20x2 and January 1, 20x3, respectively.
How much is the gain (loss) on reclassification?
a. (120,000) c. 295,204 d. 80,000 d. 40,000
Impairment of financial asset at amortized cost

22. On January 1, 20x1, Vaughn Co. acquired 10%, 3-year, ₱4,000,000 bonds for
₱3,807,853. The investment is classified as financial asset measured at
amortized cost. The principal is due at maturity but interest is due annually
starting December 31, 20x1. The yield rate on the bonds is 12%.
On December 31, 20x2, the investee entered into a rehabilitation program.

The maturity date of the bonds was extended to January 1, 20x6. It was
assessed that interest on the bonds will not be paid. Only the face amount of
the bonds will be paid in lump-sum on January 1, 20x6. The interest accrued
in 20x1 remains unpaid. Vaughn Co. did not recognize interest in 20x2
because of the loss event. The current market rate on December 31, 20x2 is
14%. How much is the impairment loss?
a. 1,081,450 b. 1,152,880 c. 1,481,450 d. 1,881,450
Reversal of impairment loss on financial asset measured at amortized cost

23. On January 1, 20x1, ABC Co. acquired 12%, ₱1,000,000 bonds at 98.
Transaction costs incurred amounted to ₱69,737. The investment is classified
as financial asset measured at amortized cost. Principal is due on December
31, 20x3 but interest is due annually every December 31. The yield rate on the
bonds adjusted for transaction costs is 10%.
On December 31, 20x1, the investment was assessed as impaired and

impairment loss has been recognized on this date. On December 31, 20x2, it
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was ascertained that the impairment has decreased. As of this date, the
carrying amount of the investment is ₱998,312 while the present value of the
remaining future cash flows on the investment is ₱1,609,959.
How much is the gain on impairment loss reversal in 20x2?

a. 51,425 b. 22,341 c. 19,870 d. 611,647
Dividend-on
24.On March 31, 20x1, Likkig, Inc. declares cash dividends of ₱40 per share to
shareholders of record on April 15, 20x1 to be distributed on April 30, 20x1.
On April 9, 20x1, Ceecee Co. purchases 10,000 Likkig shares for ₱400 per
share. The investment is classified as investment in equity securities
measured at FVOCI. How much is the initial carrying amount of the
investment?
a. 4,000,000 b. 4,400,000 c. 3,600,000 d. 3,890,664
Ex-dividend
25.On March 31, 20x1, Czarina, Inc. declares cash dividends of ₱40 per share to
shareholders of record on April 15, 20x1 to be distributed on April 30, 20x1.
On April 26, 20x1, Jerome Co. purchases 10,000 Czarina shares for ₱400 per
share. The investment is classified as investment in equity securities
measured at FVOCI. How much is the initial carrying amount of the
investment?
a. 4,000,000 b. 4,400,000 c. 3,600,000 d. 3,890,664
Cash dividends
26. Blaire Co. holds 10,000 shares of Bugan, Inc. as investment in equity
securities. On April 1, 20x1, Blaire receives notice of declaration of ₱40 per
share cash dividends. On April 20, 20x1, Blair collects the cash dividends.
How much is the dividend income?
a. 400,000 b. 10,000 c. 40 d. 0
Property dividends
27. Andre Co. holds 10,000 shares of Jerome, Inc. as investment in equity
securities. On April 1, 20x1, Andre receives inventory with cost of ₱520,000
and fair value of ₱480,000 as property dividend. How much is the dividend
income?
a. 520,000 b. 480,000 c. 10,000 d. 0
Share dividends on financial assets measured at fair value

28. Devin Co holds 10,000 shares of Eureka, Inc. as investment in equity
securities. On April 1, 20x1, Devin receives shares with fair value of ₱520,000
and aggregate par value of ₱400,000 as share dividend. How much is the
dividend income?
a. 520,000 b. 400,000 c. 120,000 d. 0
Liquidating dividends
29. On April 1, 20x1, Jean Co. received ₱480,000 cash dividends, one-third of
which represents liquidating dividends. How much is the dividend revenue?
a. 160,000 b. 320,000 c. 80,000 d. 0
Shares in lieu of cash dividend

Alvin Co. holds 10,000 shares of Aron, Inc. as investment in equity securities. On
April 1, 20x1, Alvin Co. received 1,000 shares in lieu of cash dividends of ₱32 per
share.
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30. If the investment is measured at FVOCI and the fair value of the shares
received is ₱40 per share, how much is the dividend income?
a. 32,000 b. 40,000 c. 10,000 d. 0
31. If the investment is measured at cost, how much is the dividend income?
a. 32,000 b. 40,000 c. 10,000 d. 0
Cash in lieu of share dividend – Investment at FVOCI

32. Buboy Co. holds 10,000 shares of Angel, Inc. as investment in equity securities
measured at FVOCI. On April 1, 20x1, Buboy Co. received ₱32,000 cash in lieu
of 1,000 share dividends. The fair value of the shares on April 1, 20x1 is ₱40
per share. How much is the net effect of the dividends received on profit or
loss?
a. 8,000 gain b. 8,000 loss c. 80,000 gain d. 0
Cash in lieu of share dividend– Investment at cost

33. Nap Co. holds 10,000 shares of Sheryl, Inc. as investment in equity securities
measured at cost. The investment has a carrying amount of ₱440,000. On
April 1, 20x1, Nap Co. received ₱48,000 in lieu of 1,000 share dividends. How
much is the net effect of the dividends received on profit or loss?
a. 8,000 gain b. 8,000 loss c. 80,000 gain d. 0
Accounting for stock rights

34. Scott Co. holds 12,000 shares of Jayvee, Inc. as investment in equity securities
measured at FVOCI. The carrying amount of the investment is ₱400,000. On
March 31, 20x1, Scott received 12,000 stock rights to subscribe to new shares
at ₱24 per share for every 4 rights held. On March 31, 20x1, the shares and
the stock rights have fair values of ₱40 and ₱8, respectively. How much is the
initial carrying amount of the stock rights?
a. 66,667 b. 80,000 c. 96,000 d. 0
Theoretical or parity value – Right on

35. On March 31, 20x1, Budoy Co. received 10,000 stock rights from its
investment in equity securities to subscribe to new shares at ₱60 per share
for every 4 rights held. Prior to issuance of stock rights, the shares were
selling at ₱80 per share. How much is the initial carrying amount of the stock
rights?
a. 20,000 c. 50,000
b. 40,000 d. cannot be determined
Ex-right
36. On March 31, 20x1, Bogart Co. received 10,000 stock rights from its
investment in equity securities to subscribe to new shares at ₱60 per share
for every 4 rights held. Immediately after issuance of stock rights, the shares
were selling at ₱80 per share. How much is the initial carrying amount of the
stock rights?
a. 20,000 c. 50,000
b. 40,000 d. cannot be determined
Investment in bonds with detachable warrants

37. Sparky Co. acquired investment in bonds with detachable warrants for
₱1,050,000. The bonds have a face amount of ₱1,000,000. Without the
detachable warrants, the bonds are selling at ₱950,000. The detachable
warrants have a fair value of ₱100,000. The detachable warrants were
subsequently sold at ₱120,000. How much is the gain (loss) on the sale?
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a. (20,000) b. 40,000 c. 20,000 d. (40,000)


Financial assets measured at amortized cost
1. Subsequent to their initial recognition, which financial assets with quoted
market prices in an active market are measured at fair value?
Financial assets Financial Assets with
at amortized cost fair values through
profit or loss
a. Yes No
b. Yes Yes
c. No Yes
d. No No
(Adapted)
2. If the investment is measured at amortized cost, the transaction costs are

a. amortized to profit or loss using the effective interest method
b. recognized in profit or loss when the asset is derecognized or becomes
impaired
c. recognized in equity when the asset is derecognized or becomes impaired
d. expensed immediately on acquisition date
3. An entity purchased bonds to be measured at amortized cost. The bonds were

purchased at a premium. Assume the fair value of the bonds is volatile.
Therefore:
a. less cash interest is received each year than interest revenue is
recognized.
b. the ending valuation allowance account balance will depend on ending
market value and original cost.
c. the ending valuation allowance account balance will depend on the ending
market value and original cost adjusted for amortization of premium.
d. the carrying amount of the bonds decreases over the term of the bonds.
4. Zoom Corporation purchased bonds at a discount in the open market as an

investment. Assume that Zoom elects the fair value option. Zoom should
account for these bonds at
a. Cost. c. Fair value.
b. Amortized cost d. Lower of cost or market.
5. For a marketable debt securities portfolio classified to be measured

subsequently at amortized cost, which of the following amounts should be
included in the period’s profit.
I. Unrealized temporary losses during the period.
II. Realized gains during the period.
III. Changes in the valuation allowance during the period.
a. Ill only. b. Il only. c. l and lI d. I, II, and III.
(AICPA)
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6. Vaughn Company did not amortize the discount on its short-term bond
investment. What effect would this have on the carrying value of the
investment and on net income, respectively?
a. overstated, overstated c. understated, understated
b. understated, overstated d. no effect, no effect
(Adapted)
7. Use of the effective-interest method in amortizing bond premiums and

discounts results in
a. a greater amount of interest income over the life of the bond issue than
would result from use of the straight-line method.
b. a varying amount being recorded as interest income from period to
period.
c. a variable rate of return on the book value of the investment.
d. a smaller amount of interest income over the life of the bond issue than
would result from use of the straight-line method.
(Adapted)
8. Subsequent to initial recognition, debt instruments acquired to be held up to

their maturity are measured at
a. acquisition cost.
b. acquisition cost plus amortization of a discount.
c. acquisition cost plus amortization of a premium.
d. fair value.
(Adapted)
9. Solo Co. purchased ₱300,000 of bonds for ₱315,000. If Solo intends to hold
the securities to maturity, the entry to record the investment includes
a. a debit to Held-to-Maturity Securities at ₱300,000.
b. a credit to Premium on Investments of ₱15,000.
c. a debit to Investment in bonds at amortized cost of ₱315,000.
d. none of these.
(Adapted)
10. In accounting for investments in debt securities that are classified as trading
securities,
a. a discount is reported separately.
b. a premium is reported separately.
c. any discount or premium is not amortized.
d. none of these.
(Adapted)
11. Subsequent changes in fair value of financial assets measured at amortized

cost are
a. recognized in profit or loss c. recognized in equity
b. recognized in other comprehensive income d. not recognized
12. The rate appearing on the face of the bonds

a. nominal rate b. stated rate c. coupon rate d. a, b and c
13. What is the effective interest rate of a bond or other debt instrument
measured at amortized cost?
a. The stated coupon rate of the debt instrument.
b. The interest rate currently charged by the entity or by others for similar
debt instruments (i.e., similar remaining maturity, cash flow pattern,
currency, credit risk, collateral, and interest basis).
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c. The interest rate that exactly discounts estimated future cash payments or
receipts through the expected life of the debt instrument or, when
appropriate, a shorter period to the net carrying amount of the
instrument.
d. The basic, risk-free interest rate that is derived from observable
government bond prices.
(Adapted)
14. Which of the following does not properly describe effective interest rate?
a. current market rate c. imputed rate of interest
b. stated rate d. yield rate
15. The rate used in computing interest income on debt instruments measured at
amortized cost
a. nominal rate c. face rate
b. effective interest rate d. flat rate
16. The rate used in computing interest receivable on debt instruments measured
at amortized cost
a. nominal rate c. fast rate
b. effective interest rate d. celeb rate
17. If the cash paid on the purchase of bonds or if the cash proceeds received
from the issuance of bonds is greater than the face amount of the bonds, there
is
a. premium b. discount c. bonds d. nothing
from the issuance of bonds is less than the face amount of the bonds, there is
from the issuance of bonds is equal to the face amount of the bonds, there is
20. When investment in term bonds measured at amortized cost are acquired at a
discount, the carrying amount of the bonds
a. increases each year
b. varies depending on the fair value of the financial asset at year-end
c. decreases each year
d. remains unchanged unless impairment loss is recognized
21. When investment in term bonds measured at amortized cost are acquired at a
discount, interest income recognized
a. increases each year
b. varies depending on the amortization table used
c. decreases each year
d. remains constant as a percentage of the face amount
22. Which of the following statements is correct regarding term bonds classified
at amortized cost acquired at a discount?
a. the carrying amount of the bonds increases but amortization decreases
each year
b. the carrying amount of the bonds, interest income and amortization
increase each year.
c. only interest income and carrying amount of bonds increase each year
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d. only the carrying amount of the bonds increases each year
23. If bonds are acquired or sold in between interest payment dates

a. the transaction price necessarily includes any accrued interest
b. the cost of the investment acquired is increased by the accrued interest
c. the gain on sale is increased by the accrued interest
d. the seller will receive the full amount of interest
Regular way purchase and sale of financial assets

24. It refers to purchase or sale of a financial asset under a contract whose terms
require delivery of the asset within the time frame established generally by
regulation or convention in the marketplace concerned.
a. normal way c. special way
b. regular way d. no way
25. Regular way purchase or sale of financial assets are accounted for using
a. Trade date accounting c. Shadow accounting
b. Settlement date accounting d. either a or b
26. Under a regular way purchase or sale of financial assets (choose the incorrect
statement)
a. the buyer recognizes fair value changes on the financial asset between the
trade date and settlement date, except for financial assets measured at
amortized cost
b. the seller recognizes only the fair value changes of FVPL and FVOCI as of
trade date; the seller does not recognize fair value changes after trade date
but before settlement date
c. trade date and settlement date accounting differs on the timing of
recognition or derecognition of financial assets bought or sold.
d. the seller recognizes fair value changes between the trade date and
settlement date only for FVPL and FVOCI but not amortized cost
27. Investments in debt securities that are neither to be sold in the near term nor
designated are initially recorded at
a. amortized cost
b. fair value.
c. fair value plus direct acquisition cost, such as brokerage and other fees.
d. maturity value with a separate discount or premium account.
28. When an entity uses settlement date accounting for a financial asset acquired
to be subsequently measured at amortized cost,
a. the asset is recognized initially at its fair value plus direct transaction
costs on settlement date
b. the asset is recognized initially at its fair value plus direct transaction
costs on the trade date
c. the asset is recognized initially at its amortized cost on settlement date
d. the asset is recognized initially at its fair value plus direct transaction
costs either on settlement date or trade date
Reclassification
29. Which of the following is true if an entity reclassifies financial assets?
I. it shall apply the reclassification prospectively from the reclassification
date
II. it shall restate any previously recognized gains, losses or interest
a. true, true b. true, false c. false, true d. false, false
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30. If an entity which uses the calendar year changes its business model for
managing financial assets on February 1, 20x1, the reclassification date is on
a. January 1, 20x1 c. February 1, 20x2
b. January 1, 20x2 d. Any of these
31. When an investment in a debt instrument that was originally acquired to be

held up to maturity is transferred to FVOCI, the carrying amount assigned to
the FVOCI is
a. the original acquisition cost
b. the fair value at the date of transfer
c. the lower of its original acquisition cost and its fair value at the date of
transfer
d. none
32. Which of the following changes in circumstances qualifies as reclassification

under PFRS 9 Financial Instruments?
a. A derivative that was previously a designated and effective hedging
instrument in a cash flow hedge or net investment hedge no longer
qualifies as such.
b. A derivative becomes a designated and effective hedging instrument in a
cash flow hedge or net investment hedge.
c. A debt instrument previously measured at amortized cost is reclassified as
held for trading security due to a change in an entity’s business model.
d. An equity security is classified as financial asset measured at amortized
cost due to a change in an entity’s business model.
33. You are employed as an accountant in a company. One day your company
changed its business model on managing financial instrument. What will you
do?
a. Immediately make journal entries to reclassify financial assets.
b. Make journal entries only if the boss is looking
c. Procrastinate. Go back to your facebook account. Make journal entries
next year.
d. Read the revised risk management manual, identify the effect of the
change in business model on the current classifications of financial assets,
identify which items should be reclassified and to which classifications
they will be reclassified, and then make the journal entries before you go
home.
34. Which of the following reclassifications of financial assets is permitted under

PFRS 9?
a. reclassification out of designated at FVPL to amortized cost
b. reclassification out of amortized cost to FVOCI
c. reclassification out of held for trading equity securities to amortized cost
d. reclassification out of amortized cost to held for trading securities.
35. When investments measured at amortized cost are reclassified to FVOCI,

what amount of gain or loss is recognized in profit or loss?
a. The amount from the date of acquisition to the date of reclassification.
b. The amount from the beginning of the year of reclassification to date of
reclassification.
c. The amounts realized to date.
d. The amount from the date of acquisition the beginning of the year of
reclassification.
e. Zero
(Adapted)
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36. Choose the incorrect statement.

a. The reported FVOCI investment balance is the original cost plus a debit
valuation allowance or minus a credit valuation allowance.
b. After a reclassification between amortized cost and held for trading, the
new carrying amount for purposes of subsequent measurement is the fair
value at reclassification date.
c. The carrying amount of a bond purchased at a premium or discount and
classified as an investment measured at amortized cost must be adjusted
each period for the amortization of the premium or discount.
d. When an investment measured at amortized cost is reclassified to held for
trading, the recognized gain or loss on reclassification date is the change
in fair value since the beginning of the year of reclassification until the
date of reclassification.
(Adapted)
37. A marketable debt security is transferred from fair value to amortized cost. At
the transfer date, the security’s carrying amount exceeds its fair value.
Assume the fair value option is not elected to report this security. What
amount is used at the transfer date to record the security in the amortized
cost category?
a. Fair value, regardless of whether the decline in market value below cost is
considered permanent or temporary.
b. Fair value, only if the decline in market value below cost is considered
permanent.
c. Cost, if the decline in market value below cost is considered temporary.
d. Cost, regardless of whether the decline in market value below cost is
considered permanent or temporary.
(AICPA)
38. Yamaha Co. determined that the decline in the fair value of an investment was
below the carrying amount and the decline is permanent in nature. The
investment was classified as financial asset measured at FVOCI in Yamaha's
books. The accountant properly records the decrease in fair value by
including it in which of the following?
a. Other comprehensive income section of the statement of profit or loss and
other comprehensive income only.
b. Profit or loss section of the income statement and writing down the
carrying amount to FMV.
c. No accounting is required because the investment is measured at FVOCI
d. Other comprehensive income section of the statement of profit or loss and
other comprehensive income and presenting the net cumulative write
downs of cost in equity.
Impairment
39. Impairment losses on equity securities classified as FVOCI are
a. recognized in equity only if impairment loss represents a permanent
decline in fair value
b. profit or loss
c. not recognized since changes in fair values are recognized in profit or loss
d. not given special accounting, decreases in fair values are recognized in
other comprehensive income regardless of whether the decrease is
temporary or permanent
40. Are the following statements true or false, in accordance with PFRS7 Financial
instruments: disclosures?
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I. The carrying amount of amortized cost investments must be disclosed in

the statement of financial position only.
II. The amount of any impairment loss for each class of financial asset must
be disclosed in the statement of profit or loss and other comprehensive
income only.
a. False, False b. False True c. True False d. True True
(ACCA)
41. Impairment losses on equity securities measured at fair value

a. are not given special accounting treatment under PFRS 9
b. are recognized in profit or loss
c. are not recognized because changes in fair values are recognized in profit
or loss
d. are deferred in equity
42. Impairment losses on securities classified at amortized cost are recognized in

a. profit or loss c. equity
b. other comprehensive income d. none of these
Dividends
43. Dividends received on investment in equity securities accounted for under
PFRS 9 are either treated as return of capital or return on capital. Which of
the following types of dividends are treated as return on capital?
a. Cash and property dividends
b. Share dividends
c. Liquidating dividends
d. Cash dividends received in lieu of share dividends
44. Peavey Co. owns 2% of Marshall. A property dividend by Marshall consisted

of merchandise with a fair value lower than the listed retail price. Peavey in
turn gave the merchandise to its employees as a holiday bonus. How should
Peavey report the receipt and distribution of the merchandise in its income
statement?
a. At fair value for both dividend revenue and employee compensation
expense.
b. At listed retail price for both dividend revenue and employee
compensation expense.
c. At fair value for dividend revenue and listed retail price for employee
compensation expense.
d. By disclosure only.
(AICPA)
45. Dividends received on investment in equity securities accounted for under

PFRS 9 are treated as
a. either a return of capital or return on capital depending on the existence
of significant influence
b. return on capital for all cash and property dividends received
c. return on capital for all cash and property dividends received except
those declared from pre-acquisition retained surplus
d. return on capital for all cash, property, and stock dividends
Stock rights
46. State if the following statements are true or false.
I. A derivative that is attached to a financial instrument but is contractually
transferable independently of that instrument, or has a different
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counterparty, is not an embedded derivative, but a separate financial

instrument.
II. When, and only when, an entity changes its business model for managing
financial assets shall it reclassify all affected financial assets.
a. true, true b. true, false c. false, true d. false, false
47. In accordance with PFRSs, which of the following terms best describes a
compound financial instrument component of a hybrid instrument that also
includes a non-derivative host contract?
a. FVOCI c. Financial asset at amortized cost
b. An embedded derivative d. FVPL
(ACCA)
48. Under PFRS 9, stock rights are considered (choose the incorrect statement):
a. embedded derivatives all throughout the period they are outstanding
b. derivatives
c. embedded derivatives after their declaration but prior to their issuance
d. not embedded derivatives after their issuance but prior to their expiration
date
49. The following statements correctly relate to share dividends and stock rights
from the viewpoint of the investor:
I. When stock rights are received on investment in unquoted equity
securities measured at cost, no entry is required to transfer a portion of
the cost of the original investment to a separate account for the stock
rights.
II. A stock dividend received on an investment in unquoted equity securities
measured at cost reduces the per share cost of the investment.
III. From the date stock rights are issued until the date they expire, shares of
stock of the issuing corporation are said to sell ex-rights.
a. I b. I, II c. II, III d. I, II, III
(RPCPA)
50. If an investment in equity securities is measured at cost then

a. subsequent changes in fair values of the investment is ignored
b. stock rights received on the investment is not recognized
c. an allocation of cost is made when stock rights are received on the
investment, the allocation is based on relative fair values of the shares and
the stock rights
d. no allocation of cost is necessary if share dividends received are different
from those originally held
51. Which of the following forms a basis for the non-recognition of stock rights
received on investment in equity instruments measured at cost?
a. Assets are recognized only if they can be measured reliably and meet the
other criteria for recognition as set forth under the Conceptual Framework.
The value of stock rights received on investments in equity securities
measured at cost cannot be determined reliably.
b. There is no available allocation basis for allocating the cost of the
investment to the stock rights received because the fair value of the
investment cannot be determined.
c. PFRS 9 requires that all investments in equity securities should be
measured at fair value. If the stock rights received and the related
investment measured at cost have determinable fair values, an entity is
required to change from cost measurement to fair value measurement.
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Thus, no allocation of cost is necessary. Both the stock rights and the
investment are measured at fair value.
d. All of these
Disclosure
52. Fair value measurement (choose the incorrect statement)
a. violates the going concern assumption
b. renders no special accounting for impairment losses
c. requires disclosure of information derived from sources other than
accounting records
d. is required of investments in equity instruments of other entities
e. fair value reflects the credit quality of the instrument
53. In accordance with PFRS 7, Financial Instruments: Disclosures, all of the

following would be disclosed, except
a. Policy for requiring collateral or other security due to repurchase
agreements or securities lending transactions.
b. Cash flows between the securitization special purpose entity (SPE) and
the transferor.
c. Accounting policies for measuring retained interest.
d. Description of assets or liabilities with estimable fair values.
(Adapted)
54. Which of the following types of information does PFRS 7 not require to be
disclosed about exposure to risks arising from financial instruments?
a. Qualitative and quantitative information about market risk.
b. Qualitative and quantitative information about credit risk.
c. Qualitative and quantitative information about operational risk.
d. Qualitative and quantitative information about liquidity risk.
(Adapted)
55. In accordance with PFRS7 Financial Instruments: Disclosures, which of the
following best describe the risk that an entity will encounter if it has difficulty
in meeting obligations associated with its financial liabilities?
a. Liquidity risk b. Credit risk c. Financial risk d. Payment risk
(ACCA)
56. In accordance with PFRS7 Financial instruments: disclosures, which of the

following best describe credit risk?
a. The risk that one party to a financial instrument will cause a financial loss
for the other party by failing to discharge an obligation
b. The risk that an entity will encounter difficulty in meeting obligations
associated with financial liabilities
c. The risk that the fair value associated with an instrument will vary due to
changes in the counterparty's credit rating
d. The risk that an entity's credit facilities will be withdrawn due to cash flow
sensitivities
(ACCA)
57. For what items is fair value required to be disclosed under PFRS 7?
a. All financial instruments.
b. All financial instruments, except for unquoted equity instruments that
cannot be reliably measured at fair value (and derivatives linked thereto).
c. All financial assets and financial liabilities, except for investments in
unquoted equity instruments that cannot be reliably measured at fair
value.
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d. All financial assets, except for investments in unquoted equity instruments

that cannot be reliably measured at fair value (and derivatives linked
thereto).
(Adapted)
58. In accordance with PFRS7 Financial instruments: disclosures which of the

following are components of market risk?
a. Credit risk b. Currency risk c. Interest rate risk d. b and c
(ACCA)
59. Are the following statements about disclosures within the financial
statements true or false, according to PFRS7 Financial instruments:
Disclosures?
(1) The disclosure of quantitative data about an entity's risk exposure shall be
based upon internal information provided to key management personnel.
(2) A maturity analysis for financial liabilities based on the expected payment
dates for those liabilities shall be disclosed.
(ACCA)
60. Whether recognized or unrecognized in an entity's financial statements,

disclosure of the fair values of the entity's financial instruments is required
when:
a. It is practicable to estimate those values.
b. The entity maintains accurate cost records.
c. Aggregated fair values are material to the entity
d. Individual fair values are material to the entity.
(AICPA)
61. A general disclosure on investments that should be made in the body of the
financial statements or in the accompanying notes
a. allowance for decline in value
b. material security holdings of securities of related parties
c. details of any liens or pledges as collateral on any restrictions on sales
d. all of these
(Adapted)
62. Which of the following types of information does PFRS 7 not require to be
disclosed about the significance of financial instruments?
a. Carrying amounts of categories of financial instruments.
b. Fair values of financial instruments.
c. Information about the use of hedge accounting.
d. Information about financial instruments, contracts, and obligations under
share-based payment transactions.
(Adapted)
63. Disclosure of information about the extent, nature, and terms of financial
instruments with off-balance sheet credit or market risk and about
concentrations of credit risk is required for all financial instruments. Which of
the following is defined as a financial instrument?
a. Inventory c. Deferred subscriptions revenue
b. Note payable d. A warranty payable.
(Adapted)
64. Uncertainty about the future market value of an asset is referred to as

a. price risk c. interest rate risk
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b. credit risk d. exchange rate risk

(Adapted)
65. Uncertainty that the party on the other side of an agreement will abide by the
terms of the agreement is referred to as
a. price risk c. interest rate risk
b. credit risk d. exchange rate risk
(Adapted)
66. Fair value disclosure of financial instruments may be made in the:

Body of financial statements Notes to financial statements
a. No No
b. No Yes
c. Yes No
d. Yes Yes
(Adapted)
67. Disclosures about the following kinds of risks are required for most
amortized cost financial instruments.
Concentration of credit risk Market risk
a. Yes Yes
b. Yes No
c. No Yes
d. No No
(Adapted)
68. What are the principal objectives of PFRS 7?

a. To provide presentation and disclosure requirements for financial
instruments.
b. To require disclosures about the significance of financial instruments for
an entity’s financial position and financial performance and qualitative
and quantitative information about exposure to risks arising from
financial instruments.
c. To set out specified balance sheet and income statement formats for
financial entities.
d. To require disclosures about an entity’s exposure to off–balance-sheet
instruments and other complex transactions.
(Adapted)

1. C 16. A 31. D 46. A 61. D
2. A 17. A 32. C 47. B 62. D
3. D 18. B 33. C 48. A 63. B
4. C 19. D 34. D 49. D 64. A
5. B 20. A 35. E 50. B 65. B
6. D 21. A 36. D 51. D 66. D
7. B 22. B 37. A 52. A 67. B
8. B 23. A 38. A 53. D 68. B
9. C 24. B 39. D 54. C
10. C 25. D 40. A 55. A
11. D 26. D 41. A 56. A
12. D 27. C 42. A 57. C
13. C 28. A 43. A 58. D
14. B 29. B 44. A 59. C
15. B 30. B 45. B 60. A
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Chapter 11

Sinking fund – Contribution to the fund

On January 1, 20x1, Kulasa Co. issued ₱4,000,000 bonds due in ten years. The
bond indenture requires Kulasa Co. to set up a sinking fund to be used to settle
the bonds at maturity. Kulasa Co. determined that it can invest in a fund that
earns 12% interest. Relevant future value factors are shown below:
FV of ₱1 @ 12%, n=10…………………………………………………….3.10585
FV of an ordinary annuity of ₱1 @ 12%, n=10……………....17.54874
FV of an annuity due of ₱1 @ 12%, n=10....................................19.65458
1. If Kulasa Co. decides to make a one-time deposit to a sinking fund on January

1, 20x1, how much is the amount of deposit which would earn enough
interest to make the fund equal to ₱4,000,000 on maturity of the bonds?
a. 1,287,892 b. 227,937 c. 203,515 d. 202,668
2. If Kulasa Co. decides to make 10 equal annual deposits to a sinking fund

starting on December 31, 20x1, how much is the amount of annual deposit
which would earn enough interest to make the fund equal to ₱4,000,000 on
maturity of the bonds?
a. 1,287,892 b. 227,937 c. 203,515 d. 202,668
3. If Kulasa Co. decides to make 10 equal annual deposits to a sinking fund

starting on January 1, 20x1, how much is the amount of annual deposit which
would earn enough interest to make the fund equal to ₱4,000,000 on maturity
of the bonds?
a. 1,287,892 b. 227,937 c. 203,515 d. 202,668
Cash surrender value

On January 1, 20x1, Snyder Co. insures the life of its president for ₱4,000,000.
Snyder is the beneficiary. Annual insurance premium of ₱80,000 is payable at the
beginning of each year. Information on cash surrender value on the insurance
policy is shown below:
Policy year Cash surrender value
Dec. 31, 20x1 -
Dec. 31, 20x2 -
Dec. 31, 20x3 84,000
Dec. 31, 20x4 112,000
Dec. 31, 20x5 160,000
On September 1, 20x4, Snyder Co. received ₱4,000 cash dividend from the life
insurance. On April 1, 20x5, the key employee died and Kulasa Co. collected the
policy on May 1, 20x5.
4. How much is the life insurance expense in 20x4?

a. 80,000 b. 76,000 c. 52,000 d. 48,000
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5. How much is the gain on settlement of life insurance?

a. 3,888,000 b. 3,876,000 c. 3,840,000 d. 3,816,000


1. An increase in the cash surrender value of a life insurance policy owned by a
company would be recorded by
a. Decreasing annual insurance expense.
b. Increasing investment income.
c. Recording a memorandum entry only.
d. Decreasing a deferred charge.
(AICPA)
2. In theory, cash surrender value represents

a. the excess of premium paid over annual risk
b. the amount paid to a dead key employee
c. value of cash after adjustment for inflation
d. none of these
3. Upon the death of an officer, Budoy Co. received the proceeds of a life
insurance policy held by Budoy on the officer. The proceeds were not taxable.
The policy’s cash surrender value had been recorded on Budoy’s books at the
time of payment. What amount of income should Budoy report in its
statements?
a. Proceeds received.
b. Proceeds received less cash surrender value.
c. Proceeds received plus cash surrender value.
d. None.
(AICPA)
4. Under what condition would an entity report marketable securities as a long-

term asset?
a. When the securities are classified as FVOCI but are to be sold within the
next twelve months.
b. When funds are set aside for a specific long-term purpose such as plant
expansion.
c. When the value of a firm's investment in marketable securities is less than
cost.
d. Under no circumstance.
5. Which of the following is correct regarding accounting for investments?

a. Any current or non-current investment acquired should be recorded at
“cost or market” whichever is lower on date of acquisition.
b. Allowances for decline in value of investments are not necessary to be
disclosed in the body of the financial statements or in the accompanying
notes.
c. Sinking fund assets consisting of cash and securities held for the
redemption of bonds or stocks are normally classified as investments.
d. A debt instrument may be classified as financial asset measured at
amortized cost provided the entity can demonstrate its ability to hold the
instrument up to its maturity.
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6. The cash surrender value of the insurance policy on the corporation's

president would be presented on the balance sheet as:
a. cash c. long-term investment
b. marketable securities d. prepaid expense
(Adapted)
7. In January 20x1, Carlsbro Co. established a sinking fund in connection with its
issue of bonds due in 20x5. A bank was appointed as independent trustee of
the fund. At December 31, 20x1, the trustee held ₱364,000 cash in the sinking
fund account, representing ₱300,000 in annual deposits to the fund, and
₱64,000 of interest earned on those deposits. How should the sinking fund be
reported in Carlsbro's statement of financial position at December 31, 20x1?
a. No part of the sinking fund should appear in Carlsbro's statement of
financial position.
b. ₱64,000 should appear as a current asset.
c. ₱364,000 should appear as a current asset.
d. ₱364,000 should appear as a noncurrent asset.
(Adapted)
8. Marketable equity securities held to finance the long-term future expansion of

a company should be reported on the balance sheet as:
a. funds and investments
b. operational assets
c. current assets with additional information in a footnote
d. appropriation of retained earnings
(Adapted)
9. An entity acquired 10-year bonds at a discount to be held as investments

subsequently measured at amortized cost. Six years after acquisition date,
the entity sold 80% of the investment in bonds at a premium. Which of the
following is true?
a. gain is realized on the sale
b. the remaining 20% should be reclassified
c. loss is realized on the sale
d. a or c

1. A 3. B 5. C 7. D 9. A
2. A 4. B 6. C 8. A
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Pdfcoffee MILLAN ANSWER KEY Financial Accounting

Accountancy (PHINMA Saint Jude College)

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ZEUS VERNON B. MILLAN

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ALL RIGHTS RESERVED

No part of this work covered by the

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2. It is the first process used in accounting. It refers to the identification of

3. The following statements correctly refer to the accounting process.

5. Events involving an entity and an external party.

6. Events in which an entity transfers (or receives) economic resources to

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a. External events c. External events other than transfers

7. These events result to a sudden or unanticipated loss from fortuitous events.

8. Which of the following statements is true?

9. All of the following are events considered as exchange or reciprocal transfer,

13. Which of the following events is considered an internal event?

14. Which of the following events is considered an external event?

15. Which of the following events is considered an internal event?

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b. contributions by owners d. degeneration of biological assets

16. Which of the following correctly relates to accountable events?

17. An example of income derived from a nonreciprocal transfer is

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a. to provide information useful in making economic decisions

24. One objective of financial reporting is to provide information useful in

25. The primary objective of financial reporting is to provide information:

26. Financial accounting applies to which of the following:

27. Stewardship reporting focuses on:

28. The function of measuring and reporting information to absentee investors is

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a. Information that is useful to present and potential investors and creditors

32. For the purpose of decision making:

Economic entities and activities

34. The most common form of business organization is a

35. Which of the following statements are correct?

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37. Whether a business is successful and thrives is determined by

38. An effective capital allocation process

40. A free enterprise system allows businesses to

41. One of the disadvantages of a sole proprietorship is

42. A corporation is a business organization that is recognized by law to

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44. A business owned by two or more people is called

45. A merchandising business

48. It does not truly describe “economic value” as an element of economic

50. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

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52. Accounting is often called the "language of business" because

53. Accounting as an art involves the considerable use of judgment. Accountants

55. Critical thinking is most important in which of the following problem-solving

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Basic Accounting Concepts

57. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding accounting