Iit Jee 2000 Question Paper

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IIT-JEE-Physics-Screening–2000

SCREENING
_______________________________________________________________________

1. Electrons with energy 80keV are incident on the tungsten target of an X-Ray tube. K-shell
electrons of tungsten have -72.5keV energy. X-rays emitted by the tube contain only.
(A) a continuous X-ray spectrum (Bremsstrahlung) with a minimum wavelength of ~0.155 Å.
(B) A continuous X-ray spectrum (Bremsstrahlung) with all wavelengths.
(C) The characteristic X-ray spectrum of tungsten.
(D) A continuous X-ray spectrum (Bremsstrahlung) with a minimum wavelength of ~0.155 Å
and the characteristic X-ray spectrum of tungsten.

2. A uniform but time varying magnetic field B (t) exists in a circular region of radius a and is
directed into the plane of the paper as shown. The magnitude of the induced electric field at point
P at a distance r from the center of the circular region

3. A large open tank has two holes in the wall. One is a square hole of side L at a depth y from
the top and the other is a circular hole of radius R at a depth 4y from the top. When the tank is
completely filled with water, the quantities of water flowing out per second from both holes are
the same. Then, R is equal to
(A) L/√2π
(B) 2πL
(C) L
(D) L/2π

4. An equilateral triangle ABC formed from a uniform wire has two small identical beads
initially located at A. The triangle is set rotating about the vertical axis AO. Then the beads are
released from rest simultaneously and allowed to slide down; One along AB and the other along
AC as shown. Neglecting frictional effects, the quantities that are conserved as beads slides
down are
5. A cubical block of side L rests on a rough horizontal surface with coefficient of friction μ. A
horizontal force F is applied on the block as shown. If the coefficient of friction is sufficiently
high so that the block does not slide before toppling, the minimum force required to topple the
block is

(A) Infinitesimal
(B) mg/4
(C) mg/2
(D) mg(1-μ)

6. Imagine an atom made up of proton and a hypothetical particle of double the mass of the
electron but having the same charge as the electron. Apply the Bohr atom model and consider all
possible transitions of this hypothetical particle to the first excited level. The longest wavelength
photon that will be emitted has wavelength λ (given in terms of the Rydberg constant R for the
hydrogen atom) equal to
(A) 9/5R
(B) 36/5R
(C) 18/5R
(D) 4/R

7. A monoatomic ideal gas, initially at temperature T , is enclosed in a cylinder fitted with a


1

friction piston. The gas is allowed to expand adiabatically to a temperature T by releasing the
2

piston suddenly. If L and L are the lengths of the gas column before and after expansion
1 2

respectively, then T /T is given by


1 2

(A) (L ⁄ L )
1 2
2/3

(B) (L ⁄ L )
1 2

(C) L ⁄ L
2 1

(D) (L ⁄ L )
2 1
2/3

8. A point source of light B placed at a distance L in front of the centre of a mirror of width d,
hangs vertically on a wall. A man walks in front of the mirror along a line parallel to the mirror
at a distance 2L from it as shown. The greatest distance over which he can see the image of the
light source in the mirror is

(A) d/2
(B) d
(C) 2d
(D) 3d

9. An infinitely long conductor PQR is bent to form a right angle as shown. A current I flows
through PQR. The magnetic field due to this current at the point M is H1. Now, another infinitely
long straight conductor QS is connected to Q so that the current is I/2 in QR as well as in QS, the
current in PQ remaining unchanged. The magnetic field at M is now H2.The ratio of H1/H2 is
given by

10. The plots of intensity versus wavelength for three black bodies at temperatures T1, T2 and
T3 respectively are as shown. Their temperatures are such that

(A) T1 >T
2 >T
3

(B) T1 >T
3 >T
2

(C) T2 >T
3 >T
1

(D) T3 >T
2 >T
1

11. A train moves towards a stationary observer with speed 34 m/s. The train sounds a whistle
and its frequency registered by the observer is F . If the train’s speed is reduced to 17 m/s, the
1

frequency registered is F . If the speed of sound is 340 m/s then f / f is


2 1 2

(A) 18 / 19
(B) 1 / 2
(C) 2
(D) 19 / 18

12. A particle of charge q and mass m moves in a circular orbit of radius r with angular speed ω.
The ratio of the magnitude of its magnetic moment to that of its angular momentum depends on
(A) ω and q
(B) ω, q and m
(C) q and m
(D) ω and m

13. The dimension of (1/2) Є E ( Є0 : permittivity of free space; E : electric field ) is


0
2

(A) MLT -1

(B) ML T2 -2

(C) ML T-1 -2

(D) ML T2 -1

14. In a compound microscope, the intermediate image is


(A) Virtual, erect and magnified
(B) Real, erect and magnified
(C) Real, inverted and magnified
(D) Virtual, erect and reduced

15. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum of length L suspended from the roof of the
vehicle which moves without friction, down an inclined plane of inclination α, is given by
(A) 2π√(L/gcosα)
(B) 2π√(L/gsinα)
(C) 2π√(L/g)
(D) 2π√(L/gtanα)

16. In a double slit experiment instead of taking slits of equal widths, one slit is made twice as
wide as the other, then in the interference pattern
(A) The intensities of both the maxima and minima increases
(B) The intensity of maxima increases and the minima has zero intensity
(C) The intensity of maxima decreases and that of minima increases
(D) The intensity of maxima decreases and the minima has zero intensity

17. Three charges Q, +q and –q are p;aced at the vertices of a right angle triangle (isosceles
triangle) as shown. The net electrostatic energy of the configuration is zero if Q is equal to

(A) (-q)/(1+√2)
(B) (-2q)/(2+√2)
(C) -2q
(D) +q

18. A long horizontal road has a bead which can slide along its length and is initially placed at a
distance L from one end A of the rod. The rod is set in angular motion about A with a constant
angular acceleration. If the coefficient of friction between the rod and the bead is μ, and gravity
is neglected, then the time after which the bead starts slipping is
(A) √(μ/α)
(B) μ/√α
(C) 1/√μα
(D) Infinitesimal

19. Starting with the same initial conditions, an ideal gas expands from volume V1 to V2 in three
different ways, the work done by the gas is W1 if the process is purely isothermal, W2 if purely
isobaric and W3 if purely adiabatic, then
(A) W2> W1> W3
(B) W2> W3 >W1
(C) W1 >W2 >W3
(D) W1 >W3 >W2

20. A block of ice at -100C is slowly heated ahs converted to steam at 1000C. Which of the
following curves represents the phenomenon qualitatively?

21. An ionized gas contains both positive and negative ions. If it is subjected simultaneously to
an electric field along the + x direction and a magnetic field along the + z direction then
(A) Positive ions deflect towards +y direction and negative ions towards –y direction
(B) All ions deflect towards +y direction
(C) All ions deflect towards – y direction
(D) Positive ions deflect towards –y direction and negative ions towards +y direction
22. Two radioactive materials X and X have decay constants 10λ and λ respectively. If initially
1 2

they have the same number of nuclei, then the ratio of the number of nuclei of X to that of X
.
2 2

will be 1/e after a time


(A) 1/10λ
(B) 1/11λ
(C) 11/10λ
(D) 1/9λ

23. A parallel plate capacitor of area A, plate separation d and capacitance C is filled with three
different dielectric materials having dielectric constants k , k and k as shown. If a single
1 2 3

dielectric material is to be used to have the same capacitance C in this capacitor then its
dielectric constant k is given by

(A) 1/k = 1/k + 1/k + 1/(2k )


1 2 3

(B) 1/k = 1/(k + k ) + 1/(2k )


1 2 3

(C) k = (k k )/(k + k ) + 2k
1 2 1 2 3

(D) k = (k k )/(k + k ) + (k k )/(k + k )


1 3 1 2 2 3 2 2

24. A thin wire of length L and uniform linear mass density p is bent into a circular loop with
centre at O as shown. The moment of inertia of the loop about the axis XX’ is

(A) (pL )/(8π )


3 2

(B) (pL )/(16π )


3 2

(C) (5pL )/(16π )


3 2

(D) (3pL )/(8π )


3 2

25. The electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition from an excited state to the ground state.
Which of the following statements is true
(A) Its kinetic energy increases and its potential and total energy decreases
(B) Its kinetic energy decreases, potential energy increases and its total energy remains the same
(C) Its kinetic and total energy decreases and its potential energy increases
(D) Its kinetic , potential and total energy decreases

26. An ideal gas is initially at temperature T and volume V. Its volume is increased by V due to
an increase in temperature T, pressure remaining constant. The quantity  = V/VT varies
with temperature as

27. A wind-powered generator converts wind energy into electrical energy. Assume that the
generator converts a fixed fraction of the wind energy intercepted by its blades into electrical
energy. For wind speed V, the electrical power output will be proportional to
(A) v
(B) v2

(C) v3

(D) v4

28. A ball is dropped vertically from a height d above the ground. It hits the ground and bounces
up vertically to a height d/2. Neglecting subsequent motion and air resistance, its velocity v
varies with height h above the ground as
29. A coil of wire having finite inductance and resistance has a conducting ring placed co-axially
within it. The coil is connected to a battery at time t= 0, so that a time dependent current I (t)
1

starts flowing through the coil. If I (t) is the current induced in the ring, and B (t) is the magnetic
2

field at the axis of the coil due to I (t) then as a function of time (t > 0), the product I (t) B (t)
1 2

(A) increases with time


(B) decreases with time
(C) does not vary with time
(D) passes through a maximum

30. A hollow double concave lens is made of very thin transparent material. It can be filled with
air or either of two liquids L or L having refracting indices n1 and n2 respectively (n2 > n1 > 1).
1 2

The lens will diverge a parallel beam of light if it is filled with


(A) air and placed in air
(B) air and immersed in L 1

(C) L and immersed in L


1 2

(D) L and immersed in L


2 1

31. Two long parallel wires are at a distance 2d a part. They carry steady equal currents flowing
out of the plane of the paper as shown. The variation of the magnetic field B along the line XX’
is given by
32. A diverging beam of light from a point source S having divergence angle α falls
symmetrically on a glass slab as shown. The angles of incidence of the two extreme rays are
equal. If the thickness of the glass slab is t and its refractive index is n, then the divergence angle
of the emergent beam is

(A) Zero
(B) α
(C) sin (1/n)
–1

(D) 2sin (1/n)


–1

33. A rectangular glass slab ABCD of refractive index n1 is immersed in water of refractive
index n2(n1 > n2). A ray of light is incident at the surface AB of the slab as shown. The
maximum value of the angle of incidence αmax, such that the ray comes out only from the other
surface CD, is given by
34. Two vibrating strings of the same material but lengths L and 2L have radii 2r and r
respectively. They are stretched under the same tension. Both the strings vibrate in their
fundamental modes, the one of length L with frequency v1. The ratio v1/v2 is given by
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 1

35. Two monoatomic ideal gases 1 and 2 of molecular masses m and m respectively are
1 2

enclosed in separate containers kept at the same temperature. The ratio of the speed of sound is
gas 1 to that in gas 2 is given by
(A) √(m / m ) 1 2

(B) √(m / m ) 2 1

(C) m / m 1 2

(D) m / m 2 1

IIT-JEE-Chemistry-Screening–2000
SCREENING

Time : Three hours Max. Marks : 100


___________________________________________________________________

1. For the electrochemical cell, M|M ||X |X, E (M |M) = 0.44V and E
+ – o + o

(X|X ) = 0.33 V. From this data one can deduce that:


(A) M + X → M + X is the spontaneous reaction.


+ –

(B) M + X → M + X is the spontaneous reaction.


+ –

(C) E = 0.77V
cell

(D) E = –0.7 V
cell

2. The  H for CO (g), CO(g) and H O(g) are –393.5, –110.5 and –241.8 kJ mol respectively.
f
o
2 2
–1

The standard enthalpy change (in kJ mol ) for the reaction CO (g) + H → CO + H O is:
–1
2 2(g) (g) 2 (g)
(A) 524.1 (B) 41.2
(C) –262.5 (D) –41.2

3. The number of P — O — P bonds in cyclic metaphosphoric acid is:


(A) zero (B) two
(C) three (D) four

4. The chemical processes in the production of steel from haematite ore involve:
(A) reduction
(B) oxidation
(C) reduction followed by oxidation
(D) oxidation followed by reduction

5. Which of the following has the highest nucleophilicity:


(A) F–
(B) OH –

(C) CH 3
-
(D) NH 2
-

6. The order of reactivities of the following alkyl halides for a SN2 reaction is:
(A) RF > RCI > RBr > RI (B) RF > RBr > RCI > RI
(C) RCI > RBr > RF > RI (D) RI > RBr > RCI > therefore

7. The electronic configuration of an element is 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s . 2 2 6 2 6 5 1

This represents its:


(A) excited state (B) ground state
(C) cationic form (D) anionic form

8. The correct order of acidic strength is:


(A) CI O > SO > P O10
2 7 (B) CO > N O > SO
2 4 2 2 5 3

(C) Na O > MgO > AI O3


2 (D) K O > CaO > MgO
2 2

9. Which of the following, has the most acidic hydrogen:


(A) 3–hexanone (B) 2, 4-hexanedione
(C) 2, 5-hexanedione (D) 2, 3-hexanedione

10. Benzoyl chloride is prepared from benzoic acid by:


(A) CI , hv
2 (B) SO CI 2 2

(C) SOCI (D) CI , H O


2 2 2

11. Which one of the following alkenes will react fastest with H under catalytic hydrogenation
2

condition :
12. The appropriate reagent for the following transformation :

(A) Zn(Hg), HCI (B) NH NH , OH–


2 2

(C) H /Ni
2 (D) NaBH 4

13. Electrolytic reduction of alumina to aluminium by Hall-Heroult process is carried out:


(A) in the presence of NaCI.
(B) in the presence of fluorite.
(C) in the presence of cryolite which forms a melt with lower melting temperature.
(D) in the presence of cryolite which forms a melt with higher melting temperature.

14. Amongst the following, identify the species with an atom in +6 oxidation state.
(A) MnO 4
-
(B) Cr(CN) 6
3-

(C) NiF 6
2-
(D) CrO CI2 2

15. For the reversible reaction N (g) + 3H (g) = 2NH (g) at 500oC, the value of Kp is 1.44 × 10
2 2 3
-5

when partial pressure is measured in atmospheres. The corresponding value of Kc with


concentration in mol L is:
-1

(A) 1.44 × 10 /(0,082 × 500)


-5 -2
(B) 1.44 × 10 /(8.314 × 773) -5 -2

(C) 1.44 × 10 /(0.082 × 773)


-5 2
(D) 1.44 × 10 /(0.082 × 773) -5 -2

16. The hybridization of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in NO , NO and NH are: 2


+
3
-
4
+
(A) sp, sp3 and sp2 respectively (B) sp, sp2 and sp3 respectively
(C) sp2, sp and sp3 respectively (D) sp2, sp3 and sp respectively

17. Amongst H O, H S, H Se and H Te, the one with the highest boiling point is:
2 2 2 2

(A) H O because of hydrogen bonding


2

(B) H Te because of higher molecular weight


2

(C) H S because of hydrogen bonding


2

(D) H Se because of lower molecular weight


2

18. Which of the following compounds will exhibit geometrical isomerism:


(A) 1-phenyl-2-butene (B) 3-phenyl-1-butene
(C) 2-phenyl-1-butene (D) 1, 1-diphenyl-1-propene

19. Molecular shapes of SF , CF and XeF are: 4 4 4

(A) the same, with 2, 0 and 1 lone pair of electrons respectively


(B) the same, with 1, 1 and 1 lone pair of electrons respectively
(C) different, with 0, 1 and 2 lone pairs of electrons respectively
(D) different, with 1, 0 and 2 lone pairs of electrons respectively

20. Among the following, the strongest base is:


(A) C H NH
6 5 2 (B) p – NO C H NH 2 6 4 2

(C) m – NO – C H NH
2 6 (D) C H CH NH
4 2 6 5 2 2

21. The correct order of radii is:


(A) N < Be < B (B) F < O < N
– 2– 3–

(C) Na < Li < K (D) Fe < Fe < Fe3+ 2+ 4+

22. The number of nodal planes in a px orbital is:


(A) one (B) two
(C) three (D) zero

23. Ammonia can be dried by:


(A) conc. H SO 2 4 (B) P O
4 10

(C) CaO (D) anhydrous CaCI 2

24. The rms velocity of hydrogen is √7 times the rms velocity of nitrogen. If T is the temperature
of the gas:
(A) T (H ) = T (N )
2 (B) T (H ) > T (N )
2 2 2

(C) T (H ) < T (N )
2 (D) T (H ) = √7 T (N )
2 2 2

25. Propyne and propene can be distinguished by:


(A) conc. H SO 2 4 (B) Br in CCI 2 4

(C) dil. KMnO 4 (D) AgNO in ammonia 3

26. Which one of the following will most readily be dehydrated in acidic condition:
27. The compressibility of a gas is less than unity at STP. Therefore :
(A) Vm > 22.4 litres (B) Vm < 22.4 litres
(C) Vm = 22.4 litres (D) Vm = 44.8 litres

28. The rate constant for the reaction, 2N O → 4NO + O is 3.0 × 10 s . If the rate is 2.40 × 10
2 5 2 2
–5 –1 –5

mol L s , then the concentration of N O (in mol L ) is :


–1 –1
2 5
–1

(A) 1.4 (B) 1.2


(C) 0.04 (D) 0.8

29. At 100oC and 1 am if the density of the liquid water is 1.0g cm and that of water vapour is
–3

0.0006 g cm , then the volume occupied by water molecules in1 litre of steam at this temperature
–3

is:
(A) 6 cm 3
(B) 60 cm 3

(C) 0.6 cm 3
(D) 0.06 cm 3

30. When two reactants, A and B are mixed to give products C and D, the reaction quotient, Q, at
the initial stages of the reaction :
(A) is zero (B) decreases with time
(C) is independent of time (D) increases with time

The questions below consist of an ‘Assertion’ in column I and the ‘Reason’ in column 2. Use of
the following key to choose the appropriate answer.
(A) If both assertion and reason are CORRECT, and reason is the CORRECT explanation of the
assertion.
(B) If both assertion and reason are CORRECT, but reason is NOT the CORRECT explanation
of the assertion.
(C) If assertion is CORRECT, but reason is INCORRECT.
(D) If assertion is INCORRECT, but reason is CORRECT.

Assertion Reason
31. 1-Butene on reaction with HBr It involves the formation of primary
in the presence of a peroxide radical.
produces 1-bromobutane
32. The first ionization energy of 2p orbital is lower in energy than 2s.
Be is greater than that of B.
33. The pressure of a fixed amount Frequency of collisions and their impact
of an ideal gas is proportional both increase in proportion to the square
to its temperature root of temperature.
34. Phenol is more reactive than In the case of phenol, the intermediate
benzene towards electrophilic carbocation is more resonance stabilized.
substitution reaction
35. The heat absorbed during the The volume occupied by the molecules
isothermal expansion of an of an ideal gas is zero.
ideal gas against vacuum is
zero

IIT-JEE-Mathematics–Screening-2000

SCREENING

Time : Two hours Max. Marks : 100


_______________________________________________________________________
PART A

1. Let f (θ) = sin θ (sin θ + sin 3 θ). Then f (θ) :


(A) ≥ 0 only when θ ≥ 0 (B) ≤ 0 for all real θ
(C) ≥ 0 for all real θ (D) ≤ 0 only when θ ≤ 0

2. If x + y = k is normal to y = 12 x, then k is :
2

(A) 3 (B) 9
(C) –9 (D) –3

4. If a and β (α < β) are the roots of the equation x + bx + c = 0 , where c < 0 < b, then :
2

(A) 0 < α < β (B) α < 0 < β < │α│


(C) α < β < 0 (D) α < 0 < │α│< β
5. Let f : R → R be any function. Define g : R → R by g (x) = │f (x) │for all x.
Then g is :
Onto if f is onto
One-one is f one-one
Continuous if, f is continuous
Differentiable if f is differentiable

6. The domain of definition of the function y (x) is given by the equation 2 + 2 = 2 is :


x y

(A) 0< x≤1 (B) 0≤x≤1


(C) -∞ < x ≤0 (D) -∞< x<1

7. If x + y =1, then :
2 2

(A) yy'" - 2(y ' ) +1=0 2


(B) yy'' + (y ' ) +1=0 2

(C) yy " = (y ' ) -1=0 2


(D) yy''+2(y ' ) +1=0 2

8. If a,b, c, d are positive real numbers such that a + b + c + d = 2, then M = (a + b) (c + d)


satisfies the relation :
(A) 0 ≤ M ≤ 1 (B) 1 ≤ M ≤ 2
(C) 2 ≤ M ≤ 3 (D) 3 ≤ M ≤ 4

9. If the system of equations x – ky – z = 0, kx – y – z = 0, x + y – z = 0 has a non-zero solution,


then possible values of k are :
(A) –1, 2 (B) 1, 2
(C) 0, 1 (D) –1, 1

10. The triangle PQR is inscribed in the circle x + y =25. If Q and R have coordinates (3, 4) and
2 2

(–4, 3) respectively, then ∠PQR is equal to:


(A) π/2 (B) π/3
(C) π/4 (D) π/6

11. In a triangle ABC, 2ac sin 1/2 (A – B + C) =


(A) a +b -c
2 2 2
(B) c +a -b
2 2 2

(C) b -c -a
2 2 2
(D) c -a -b
2 2 2

12. For x Є R, limn→∞((x-3)/(x+2)) = x

(A) e (B) e -1

(C) e-5
(D) e 5

13. Consider an infinite geometric series with first term and common ratio r. If its sum is 4 and
the second term is 3/4, then :
(A) a=4/7, r=3/7 (B) a =2, r = 3/8
(C) a = 3/2, r = 1/2 (D) a = 3, r = ¼

14. Let g (x) = ∫ f (t) dt, where f is such that 1/2 ≤ f(t) ≤ 1 for t ∈ [0,1] and
0
x

0 ≤ f(t) ≤1/2 for t ∈[1,2]. Then g (2) satisfies the inequality:

(A) -3/2 ≤ g (2) < 1/2 (B) 0 ≤ g (2) <2


(C) 3/2 < g (2) ≤ 5/2 (D) 2 < g (2)< 4

15. In a triangle ABC, Let ∠ C= π/2. If r is the inradius and R is the circum-radius of the triangle,
then 2 (r +R) is equal to :
(A) a + b (B) b + c
(C) c + a (D) a + b + c

16. How many different nine digit numbers can be formed from the number 223355888 by
rearranging its digits so that the odd digits occupy even position :
(A) 16 (B) 36
(C) 60 (D) 180

17. If arg (z) < 0, then arg (–z) – arg (z) =


(A) π (B) –π
(C) -π/2 (D) π/2

18. Let PS be the median of the triangle with vertices P (2, 2), Q (6-1) and R (7, 3). The equation
of the line passing through (1,–1) and parallel to PS is:
(A) 2x-9 y-7=0 (B) 2 x-9 y-11=0
(C) 2 x+9 y-11=0 (D) 2 x-9 y-11=0

19. A pole stands vertically inside a triangular park Δ ABC. If the angle of elevation of the top of
the pole from each corner of the park is same, then in Δ ABC the foot of the pole is at the :
(A) centroid (B) circumcentre
(C) incentre (D) orthocenter.

(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 3

21. The incentre of the triangle with vertices (1,√3 ), (0, 0) and (2, 0) is :
(A) (1,√3/2) (B) (2/3,1/√3)
(C) (2/3,√3/2) (D) (1,1/√3)

22. Consider the following statements in S and R :


S : Both sin x and cos x are decreasing functions in the interval (π/2,π)
R : If a differentiable function decreases in an interval (a, b), then its derivative also decreases in
(a, b).
Which of the following is true :
(A) Both S and R are wrong
(B) Both S and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of S.
(C) S is correct and R is correct explanation for S.
(D) S is correct and R is wrong.

23. Let f(x)= ∫e (x-1)(x-2) dx. Then f decreases in the interval :


x

(A) (∞,-2) (B) (–2, –1)


(C) (1, 2) (D) (2,+∞)

24. If the circles x +y +2x+2ky+6=0 and x +y +2ky+k=0 intersect orthogonally, then k is :


2 2 2 2

(A) 2 or –3/2 (B) –2 or 3/2


(C) 2 or 3/2 (D) (2,+∞)

26. If the normal to the curve y=f (x) at the point (3, 4) makes an angle 3 /4 with the positive x-
axis then f' (3) =
(A) –1 (B) –3/4
(C) 4/3 (D) 1

27. Let the vectors a, b, c and d be such that (a × b) × (c × d) = 0. Let P and P be planes
1 2

determined by the pairs of vectors a, b and c, d respectively, then the angle between P1 and P2 is
:
(A) 0 (B) /4
(C) /3 (D) /2

Then at x = 0, f has :
(A) A local maximum (B) no local maximum
(C) a local minimum (D) no extremum

(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) -√3 (D) √3
30. If b > a, then the equation (x-a)(x-b) –1 = 0 has :
(A) both roots in (a, b)
(B) both roots in (–, a)
(C) both roots in (b, + )
(D) one root in (–, a) and the other in (b, + )

31. If z , z and z are complex numbers such that


1 2 3

│z ││z │=│z │= |1/z +1/z +1/z | = 1, then │z +z +z │ is :


1 2 3 1 2 3 1 2 3

(A) equal to 1 (B) less than1


(C) greater than 3 (D) equal to 3

32. For the equation 3x +px+3=0,p>0, if one of the root is square of the other, then p is equal to :
2

(A) 1/3 (B) 1


(C) 3 (D) 2/3

33. If the line x – 1 = 0 is the directrix of the parabola y -kx+8=0 then one of the values of k is :
2

(A) 1/8 (B) 8


(C) 4 (D) 1/4

34. For all ∈(0,1) :


(A) e < 1+x
x
(B) log (1+x) < x
e

(C) sin x > x (D) log x>x. e

35. The value of the integral ∫ | log x / x | dx is :


e-1
e2
e

(A) 3/2 (B) 5/2


(C) 3 (D) 5

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