It is a unit of organization designed to a specific organizational aspect– function

It is an authority Matrix- raci

Represents the ability and readiness of the service provider to serve customers and market spaces-
service fort
These are services that are proposed or in development – service pipe
It is the effect of uncertainty on objectives- risk
They are customers working within the same organization- Internal Customer
It is the World-wide representation of ‘best practice’ for quality ITSM- itil
It Defines how to manage the Various Responsibilities of all parties in a value chain- ITSM
What is "Consulted" within RACI Model?- Two-way communication between stakeholders in a
process or activity.
It is a means of delivering value to customers by facilitating outcomes the customer wants to
achieve. – service
Set of specialized organization capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of services-
none (NOT SURE)
It is the functionality offered by a product or service, operationalized by achieving specific results –
utility
Which of the following is not part of the 4 Ps of Service Design – PLAN
It is a Concept of Service Lifecycle that prepares and applies actual changes to a software or
service- Service Transition

It's a strategy that is limited in terms of variety but excels in terms of speed of delivery – make stock
It seeks to make things well, make them quickly and with minimal resources - Production Process
It is a facility that produces only one kind of very specialized product or service - focused
It is a cavity in abdominal lining – hernia
They develop manufacturing experience be it material or immaterial –
It focuses on making a standardized product with consistent quality , in high volumes at fast
production rate - Line flow layout
Cycle time - It is the quotient of production time divided by demand
Refers to factors that reduces productivity or efficiency of a company or system by reducing the
speed of production - bottleneck
It's a strategy that sits between make to order and make stock strategy - combination
It is a set of structured activities designed to accomplish a specific objective – process
ISO 2000 was originally called -British standard 15000
It is the term generally used to describe what was done by large mainframe computers from the late
1940's until the early 1980's.-
This is also known as facts that can be recorded and that have implicit meaning. – data
Is the underlying the structure of a database. – data model
It is collection of data that contains information relevant to an enterprise.- database-
The overall logical structure schema of a database can be expressed graphically by an – er diagram
It is a bundle of actions which are done within a database to bring it from one consistent state to a
new consistent state. – transaction
It is design to manage large bodies of information. –
The overall design of the database is called the – database schema
This describes the database design at the physical level. - physical schema
This describes the database design at the logical level.
He proposed the relational model for database systems in 1970.- Dr. E.F Codd
It is a collection of relations or two-dimensional tables controlled by the Oracle server. - Relational
database
Which of the following is not part of data manipulation language? – alter
Which of the following is not part of transaction control?- create
Which of the following is not part of data control language?– insert
A statement that is use to rename the table or change the existing name of the table. – rename
Suppose that a user wanted to change the datatype of column ADDRESS from Varchar to Char
which of the following is the correct example.-
An alter statement that is used to delete an existing column in the table. – drop
Basic unit of storage composed of rows and columns – table
It logically represents subsets of data from one or more table. – view
Which of the following datatype is not being used in oracle?-int
Which of the following is not true about ALTER statement?- Insert new row in a table
An alter statement that is used to update an existing column datatype or datatype size.- modify
Suppose that a user wanted to add a new column name as CITY datatype set to char size 10. Which
of the following is the correct sql statement?-ALTER TABLE STUDENTS
ADD CITY CHAR(10);
An alter statement that is used to add new column to the table- add
Suppose that a user wanted to change the datatype of column ADDRESS from Varchar to Char
which of the following is the correct example.- ALTER TABLE STUDENTS
MODIFY ADDRESS VARCHAR(20);
Which of the following is the correct example of truncating the table EMPLOYEES?-TRUNCATE
TABLE EMPLOYEES;
Which of the following is the correct example of modifying the column lastname? Change the
datatype size to 20.-
Which of the following is the correct example of removing a column FIRSTNAME from EMPLOYEES
table?-ALTER TABLE EMPLOYEESDROP COLUMN FIRSTNAME;
Which of the following is the correct example of adding a new column ADDRESS datatypevarchar
size 20 to EMPLOYEES table? - ALTER TABLE EMPLOYEESADD ADDRESS VARCHAR(20);
Which of the following is the correct example of modifying the column JOB_ID? Change the datatype
size to 10.-ALTER TABLE EMPLOYEESMODIFY JOB_ID CHAR(10);
Which of the following is the correct example of creating a new table STUDENTS? The column
STUD_ID is set to primary key.-CREATE TABLE STUDENTS( STUD_ID NUMBER(3) PRIMARY
KEY);
Which of the following is the correct example of dropping the table EMPLOYEES? - DROP TABLE
EMPLOYEES;
Which of the following is the correct example of renaming the table EMPLOYEES to WORKERS? -
RENAME EMPLOYEES TO WORKERS;
Which of the following is the correct example of adding a new column
CONTACT_NOdatatypeNUMBER size 11 to EMPLOYEES table?-ALTER TABLE EMPLOYEESADD
CONTACT_NO NUMBER(11);
Which of the following is the correct example of removing a column SALARY from EMPLOYEES
table?-ALTER TABLE EMPLOYEESDROP COLUMN SALARY;
Which of the following is the correct example of modifying the column lastname? Change the
datatype size to 20.-ALTER TABLE EMPLOYEESMODIFY LASTNAME VARCHAR(20);
Suppose that a user wanted to insert a new value using the implicit method which of the following is
the correct example.- INSERT INTO STUDENST(USN_ID, FIRSTNAME)
VALUES(10,’ELENA’)
A type of DML statement that is use to add new rows in a table. –
A type of insert statement that specify the NULL keyword in the VALUES clause. – explicit
Suppose that a user wanted to update the lastname of student to ‘Santos’ and YR_LVL to ‘Irreg’
whose USN_ID is equal to 50, in one select statement which of the following is the correct sql
statement to use.- UPDATE STUDENTS
SET LASTNAME = ‘SANTOS’, YR_LVL = ‘IRREG’
WHERE USN_ID = 50;
Consists of a collection of DML statements that form a logical unit of work.- transaction
A type of DML statement that is use to update existing rows in a table- update
A type of DML statement that is use to remove existing rows in a table. – delete
A type of insert statement that omit the column from the column list.- implicit
Suppose that a user wanted to insert a new value using the explicit method which of the following is
the correct example.-INSERT INTO STUDENTS VALUES (10, NULL,’ELENA’,NULL);
Suppose that a user uses the DELETE statement as shown below: what is/are the possible output.-
All rows are deleted but the table is still intact.
Which of these are business entities?-
What are the categories of the accounting professions?Both private and public accounting
It represents a document used to record all similar transactions.- account
Retained Earnings Statements - Retained Earnings Statements
Which of these are examples of corporate accounting statements?- All of the given choices are
correct
Represents the initial investment of the shareholders.- Capital stock
It is composed of capital stock and retained earnings.-Shareholder's equity
At the end of a financial period, all expense and revenue accounts are closed to a summarizing
account.- Income Summary
Which of these are rules for increasing and decreasing accounts? - Asset accounts normally
have debit balances and are increased by debits.
What are the basic elements of the accounting equation?- Asset's liabilities, owner's equity
Which of these are business entities? – all
Lists all assets, liabilities, and owner's equity balances as of the last day of the financial period.-
Balance Sheet
The accounting procedure companies use to pay bills.- Accounts Payable
Concerned with the recording of business data.- Bookkeeping
Practice as individuals or as members of an accounting firm and are subject to strict
government regulations and requirements, which are determined by each individual state
where a license is granted.-Public Accountants
The systematic and comprehensive recording of financial transactions pertaining to a business,
and it refers to the process of summarizing, analyzing and reporting these transactions to
oversight agencies and tax collection entities.- accounting
Represents money owed to the business from customer account sales.- Accounts Receivable
The financial statement that reports a company's revenues, expenses, and the resulting net
income.- Income Statement
Presents the changes, which have taken place in owner's equity over the period.- Statement of
owner's equity
They perform tasks, which have been determined by their employer.- Private Accountants
Begins with the analysis of all transactions and recording them in the journal.- Accounting Cycle
Include the cost of goods sold, operating expenses, and non-operating expenses. – expense
Provides financial information to a company's management.- Managerial/Management
Accounting
A specialized branch of accounting that keeps track of a company's financial transactions.-
Financial Accounting
The difference between the amount of assets and the amount of liabilities- Stockholder's Equity
Explains the change in a company's cash (and cash equivalents) during the time interval
indicated in the heading of the statement.- Statement of Cash Flows
Lists the changes in stockholders' equity for the same period as the income statement and the
cash flow statement.- Statement of Stockholder's Equity
Include such things as sales, service revenues, and interest revenue.- Revenues
Means that every transaction affects at least two accounts.- double entry
The unauthorized or accidental release of classified, personal, or sensitive information-
Accidental Disclosure

Consists not only of the computers used in an organization but also of networking hardware.-
Information Systems Hardware
The harm to a process or the related information resulting from some purposeful or accidental
event that negatively affects the process or the related information.- IT Security Risk
Consists of computer programs that interface with network users and permit the sharing of
information, such as files, graphics, and video, and resources, such as printers and disks.-
Application Software
Helps the system avoid having the adapter convert to and from every application format.-
Common Data Format
Make logical connections between network applications, direct the movement of packets
through the physical network, and minimize the possibility of collisions between packets sent at
the same time.- Protocols
A flaw or weakness in system security procedures, design, implementation, or internal
controls.- Vulnerability
Subsystems are integrated according to functionality by creating "silos" of functional entities,
beginning with the bottom basic function upward.- Vertical Integration
Each subsystem is connected to multiple subsystems, so that the diagrams of the
interconnections look like a star.- Star Integration
The process of understanding the environment in which a proposed system or systems will
operate and determining the requirements for the system.- Architectural Analysis
A conceptual model that defines the structure, behavior, and more views of a system.- System
Architecture
Engineering process or phase concerned with joining different subsystems or components as
one large system.- . System Integration
A well-defined practice for conducting enterprise analysis, design, planning, and
implementation, using a comprehensive approach at all times, for the successful development
and execution of strategy.- Enterprise Architecture
Accesses the physical media that link computers, receives packets from network software, and
transmits instructions and requests to other computers.- Network Adapter
The fifth step of system integration life cycle that includes logical and physical designs created
for the system that are to be integrated.- System Integration Design
Includes complete analysis of the system integration project based on the intense research to
support the decision making process.- Feasibility Analysis
Refers to the identification of a system's physical components and their interrelationships.-
Hardware Architecture
A discipline for proactively and holistically leading enterprise responses to disruptive forces by
identifying and analyzing the execution of change toward desired business vision and
outcomes.- Enterprise Architecture
Assume that there is already a great degree of uncertainty in the likelihood and impact values
and defines them, and thus risk, in somewhat subjective or qualitative terms.- Qualitative Risk
Assessment
The unauthorized or accidental release of classified, personal, or sensitive information-
Accidental Disclosure
The architecture of a software system represents an overall vision of what it should do and how
it should do it.- Conceptual Integrity
Involves the creation of a unique subsystem that is meant to be the single interface between all
other subsystems, ensuring that there is only one interface between any subsystem and any
may be replaced with another without affecting the others by using very different data and
interfaces.- Horizontal Integration
Not only does this make the information more impressive, comprehensive and intelligible
butare highly useful for planning and forecasting.-Statiscal tool
What's the main difference between Financial and Management Accounting.- Management
accounting is presented internally, whereas financial accounting is meant for external
stakeholders.
Which of these are advantages of Management accounting?- all
This includes maintenance of proper data processing and other office management services.-
Methods of Procedures
Management Accounting is based on- Current and future trends
Management's focus on the managerial accounting topics can make a difference in a
company's- Profitability
To install the management accounting system, this is required in the traditional accounting
practices and organizational set up.- changes
Expressing the plans, policies and goals of the firm for a definite period in future.- Budgeting
Management is able to know deviations in performance through this.- Internal Audit
An official inspection of an individual or organization's accounts, typically by an independent
body.- audit
Necessary to control from the time it is acquire until its final disposal as it involves large sum.-
Inventory
The process and techniques of ascertaining cost.- cost accounting
A primary concern of management accounting.- Allocation of Costs
A party that has an interest in a company, and can either affect or be affected by the business.-
stakeholder
The principal task of management accounting.- Interpreting the accounting data to the
authorities in the management
Emphasizes the preparation and analysis of accounting information within the organization.-
Management Accounting
Which documents must match when invoice requests payment?- all
In Procurement, the key thing to remember is to:-Adapt the process to fit the project
What is the first step in Supplier Relationship Management- Supplier identification
What is the final step in the procurement cycle?Award of the product or contract
In the case of audits, the company must maintain proper records. These include purchase
records to verify any tax information and purchase orders to confirm warranty information.-
Record Maintenance
It cannot be a negotiating point in the second instance of negotiations because the selection
was price-based.- Price
In the first instance of negotiations, thiscannot be negotiated because it would be unfair to the
other firms that participated in the process, because the price was a determining factor in the
overall combined score that led to the selection of the consultant.- Financial offer
A determining factor in the overall combined score that led to the selection of the consultant.-
price
Should be kept to a minimum and should only take place if the financial offer is considered
unreasonable based on documentary and/or historical evidence.- Price negotiations
Follows specific steps for identifying a requirement or need of the company through the final
step of the award of the product or contract.- Procurement Cycle
Make (an action or process) happen sooner or be accomplished more quickly.- Expedite
The planned approach of cost-effectively purchasing a company's required supplies, taking into
consideration several elements and factors such as the timeline for procurement, the funding
and budget, the projected risks and opportunities, among others.- Procurement Strategy
The acquisition of the materials, supplies, services, etc. that a company or project requires in
order to successfully operate.- Procurement
Discussion aimed at reaching an agreement.- Negotiation
A strategic and segmented approach, executed on the entire supply base, to maximize value
and minimize risks.- Supplier Relationship Management
The company must sort out and identify all its suppliers, to whom they paid invoices over a
certain period.- Supplier Identification
Helps to find those suppliers that are capable of contributing to the business strategy.- Supplier
Segmentation
It specifically defines the price, specifications and terms and conditions of the product or
service and any additional obligations.- Purchase Order

Contracts for goods and works procurement are usually negotiated

False

Based on the procurement method, the final selection will be determined either by:
All of the given choices are correct

Which documents must match when invoice requests payment? All of the answers are correct
TRUE or FALSE. Cut-through switching has two primary characteristics: rapid frame forwarding
and invalid frame processing.
The network segments that share the same bandwidth between devices.- Collision domain
A switch forwarding method that makes a forwarding decision on a frame after it has received
the entire frame and then checked the frame for errors. - Store-and-forward switching
What are the 3 layers of the distribution access? - Access, distribution and Core layer
This layer provides intelligent switching, routing, and network access policy functions to access
the rest of the network – distribution
This layer provide fault isolation and high-speed backbone connectivity.- core
The _____ switches typically come with different sized chassis that allow for the installation of
different numbers of line card. – modular
TRUE or FALSE. Store-and-forward switching has two primary characteristics that distinguish it
from cut-through: error checking and automatic buffering. – t
A collection of interconnected switches forms a – broadcast
A collection of interconnected switches forms a – t
Which of the following statement is INCORRECT? - A switch populates the MAC address table
based on destination MAC addresses.
What is the status of the Port speed LED if the LED light is green? 100 mbps
This is used to connect a PC to the console port of a switch for configuration. – console
What is the command to configure the interface to automatically negotiate speed with the
connected device?- speed auto
What is the command to configure the interface to automatically negotiate speed with the
connected device?- show ip interface brief
SSH protocol by default uses Port – 22
Sometimes switch ports must manually have their duplex mode manually configured. This
duplex mode increases effective bandwidth by allowing both ends of a connection to transmit
and receive data simultaneously. – full duplex mode
This is a security technology that determines which devices attached to switch ports can
respond to DHCP requests. This can be used to prevent unauthorized DHCP messages that
contain information such as IP address related data being provided to legitimate network
devices.-
A protocol that provides an encrypted connection to a remote device.-ssh
In the Switch port LED status, if the LED is blinking green what is the status of switch?-
This is a protocol that is used to synchronize the clocks of computer systems over packet-
switched, variable-latency data networks. - Network Time Protocol
What is the command to set the IP address (192.168.10.2) and subnet mask (255.255.0.0) for
specific Fast Ethernet interface?
This is a proprietary protocol that all Cisco devices can be configured to use. This checks other
Cisco devices that are directly connected, which allows the devices to auto-configure their
connection. – Cisco Discovery Protocol
This attack tries to crack a password on another device. The first phase of this attack starts with
the attacker using a list of common passwords and a program designed to try to establish a
Telnet session using each word on the dictionary list. - Brute force password attack
Which of the following is the command to configure the switch default gateway with IP address
of 172.10.90.1?
What type of DHCP attack where in an attacker configures a fake DHCP server on the network
to issue DHCP addresses to clients. The normal reason for this attack is to force the clients to
use false Domain Name System (DNS) or Windows Internet Naming Service (WINS) servers and
to make the clients use the attacker, or a machine under the control of the attacker, as their
default gateway.- DHCP spoofing attack
This is a security technology that determines which devices attached to switch ports can
respond to DHCP requests. This can be used to prevent unauthorized DHCP messages that
contain information such as IP address related data being provided to legitimate network
devices. - DHCP Snooping
Which of the following is the command to configure the switch default gateway with IP address
of 172.10.90.1?-Ip default-gateway 172.10.90.1
What is the command to set the IP address (192.168.10.2) and subnet mask (255.255.0.0) for
specific Fast Ethernet interface? - ip address 192.168.10.2 255.255.0.0
In the Switch port LED status, if the LED is blinking green what is the status of switch?- There is
activity and the port is sending or receiving data.

Assignment 7
This is the next step of order fulfillment process after confirming pricing.
Configuring the order (if there is more than one piece or product)

In Smart Inventory Handling, even the slightest of changes in stock levels need to be updated.
Stock Level Accuracy
After invoicing or billing the customer, the seller will _________________
Determine the shipping address where the item will be sent

What is the first step in Order Fulfillment?- Maintaining Inventory

Which of these is part of the order fulfillment process challenges?- Both Supply Chain Execution
and Inventory Management
Which of these are strategies to speed up your order fulfillment process?- all
What is the final step in Order Fulfillment? - Updating Inventory
Adopting a cloud-based inventory provides an environment where stock details of all selling
channels can be integrated and managed under a- Single interface
Order fulfillment is all about meeting customer's – Expectations
Rethink about the use of space for different sales channels.- Space Allocation
Which of the following is part of the basic services of fulfillment centers?- all
One of the ways companies judge the efficiency of their order fulfillment processes is by
looking at this.- Perfect Order Metric
 Involves knowing in advance what demand for a product will be, as well as demand shaping, or
a company's efforts to try to generate demand, like marketing and promotions. - Demand
Planning
One that is on time, complete, and undamaged, along with the correct paperwork to
accompany it.- Perfect Order Metric
A complete list of items such as property, goods in stock, or the contents of a building.-
Inventory
Refers to all the steps companies must take from the moment they receive an order until the
items land in customers' hands. - Order Fulfillment Process
Know your customer demands and behavior to meet the requirements.- Demand Forecasting
When your business receives an order from a customer, your company passes it on to the
fulfillment center, usually online-invoices can be emailed or organized into spreadsheets, which
are automatically sent on.- Order Processing
The detailed coordination of a complex operation involving many people, facilities, or supplies.-
Logistics
The most general sense the complete process from point of sales inquiry to delivery of a
product to the customer.- Order Fulfillment
Re-photograph warehouse using user activity log to avoid mistakes if any.- Warehouse
Monitoring
Transfer stocks between warehouses on a requirement basis and be available all the time.-
Warehouse Transfer
For more visibility into all aspects of order fulfillment, you need to:- Integrate systems
The most crucial part for any B2B or B2C business. - Order Fulfillment
This is the next step of order fulfillment process after acknowledging and confirming the order
is booked.
Invoicing/billing the customer

There are few stages an order must pass through that involves software systems and
physical systems.
False

It will help to improve the order fulfillment process but also provide better reporting and
analytics that can aid decision-making and profitability. - Systems Integration
It directly influences the brand's image and trust. - Order Fulfillment
It does not necessarily mean investing in robotics or conveyors; it can be as simple as investing
in scanners to more easily enter inventory into the system as it arrives in your warehouse, or
scanning it out as it leaves. - Automation
The lifecycle of an order fulfillment process begins- When an order is placed
The lifecycle of an order fulfillment process ends - When the shipment is made
Your order fulfillment process begins with - Inventory
Stock levels have to be up-to-date no matter how they have been used. True

Some customers in Rolan’s Online Store buy clothes in singles or in bulk.He processes the
orders as they come in to the e-commerce site.This flexible order process is called Partial
Order Processing
Businesses should also look at how the processes themselves can be sped up. Automate
processes
Several shipping location is not often considered a challenge in e-commerce order fulfillment
process.
False

This order handling falls under demand forecasting.

This activity falls under space allocation Segregating stocks based on sales channels
This order handling falls under demand forecasting.
Knowing customer behavior

Seasonal sales analysis doesn’t help for better order fulfillment. False

In processing orders, this helps in bettering your order fulfillment process. - Flexibility
To ensure rapid handling, you need to- Classify your inventory
Capable of bending easily without breaking.- Flexible
Forecasting customer demands for each sales channels will help reducing dead stock. Know
your customer behavior and be prepared for demands at any given time.- Demand Forecasting
Once you know which sales channels demands the most, you can start adjusting the stock
numbers according to it. Try segregating stocks based on sales channels so that you do not say
no to customers coming from any of your sales channel.- Space Allocation
To accommodate the new requirements, be it increase in product number or cancellation or
decrease in a quantity, you will need an order management system that provides the liberty of
editing orders at any point of time.- Order Editing
This can go beyond consumer-based order reporting and help in knowing your sales highs and
lows based on time. - Order management software
Your stock levels have to be up-to-date no matter how they have been used - Stock level
accuracy
Skill or expertise in a particular activity or field. – Prowess
Delivering it at the venue where your customers demand is a duty to be performed but your
customers might demand this to be done at several locations. - Multiple Shipping
Compare sales performances based on time to detect which season yields you maximum
revenue and which products make it to the top selling list. - Seasonal Sales
All of these are limitations of mass production EXCEPT:
Higher rate of production with reduced cycle time.
Which of these is a characteristic of a Production system?
All of the above
Which of these is a type of a production process? All of the above
All of these are characteristics of Continuous production EXCEPT:
Standardization of product and process sequence

Flow of materials, components and parts is continuous and without any back tracking is a
characteristic of ____________________ Mass production
Higher set up costs due to frequent changes in set up is a limitation of _________________________
Batch production

In this production, the advantage of this one is the cost per unit is lower as compared to job
order production.
Batch production

Breakdown of one machine will stop an entire production line is a limitation

of ________________________.
Mass production
_

A single or any selected number of products can be billed, invoiced can be raised, shipped and
delivered based on your customer's preference. - Partial Order Processing
Which of the following is an advantage of Continuous Production? - Higher capacity utilization
due to line balancing.
It is a characteristic of a job-shop production - Highly skilled operators who can take up each
job as a challenge because of uniqueness.
Which of these are limitations of Mass Production? - High investment in production facilities.
Which of these is an advantage of Job-shop production? - A variety of products can be
produced because of the general-purpose machines and facilities.
It is a characteristic of Mass Production. - Production planning and control is easy.
It is a characteristic of a batch production. - Manufacturing lead-time and cost are lower as
compared to job order production.
Which of these is a characteristic of Continuous Production? - Process follows a predetermined
sequence of operations Planning and scheduling is a routine action.

It is one of the limitations of batch production. - Work in process inventory is higher compared
to continuous production.
Characterized by manufacturing of one or few quantity of products designed and produced as
per the specification of customers within prefixed time and cost. It produces piece of goods in
small batches.-Job Shop Production
Essential for sequencing the requirements of each product, capacities for each work center and
order priorities. - Detailed Planning
For continuous Production, this is not required for material handling as it is completely
automatic. – Manpower
A form of manufacturing in which the job passes through the functional departments in lots or
batches and each lot may have a different routing. - Batch Production
The processes and methods used to transform tangible and intangible inputs into goods or
services. – Production
Comprises of general-purpose machines arranged into different departments. - Job Shop
When facilities are arranged as per the sequence of production operations from the first
operations to the finished product - Continuous Production
Activities of an organization where resources flowing within a defined system are combined
and transformed in a controlled manner to add value in accordance to the policies
communicated by the management. - Production System
Used in the Production process to create an output that is suitable for use or has exchange
value.-Resources
This production system is justified by very large volume of production.- mass
It outlines an organization's overall direction, philosophy, and purpose.- Strategic Business
Planning
Serve middle managers' interests by providing current and historical performance information
to aid in planning, controlling, and decision making at the management level - Management
Information Systems
Responsible for maintaining and managing the firm's financial records-receipts, disbursements,
depreciation, payroll-to account for the flow of funds in a firm. - Accounting Function
Dictates the genesis of the architecture and its associated components and the path for their
growth.- Product Strategy
Concerned with identifying the customers for the firm's products or services, determining what
customers need or want, planning and developing products and services to meet their needs,
and advertising and promoting these products and services. – Marketing
It performs and records the daily, routine transactions necessary to process the business. -
transaction Processing Systems
Help managers with non-routine decisions that are unique, rapidly changing, and not easily
specified in advance. - Desicion Support Systems
Monitors the range and distribution of employee wages, salaries and benefits. - Compensation
Analysis
Commercial off-the-shelf – COTS
Plays a major role that makes huge contributions to businesses and other organizations. -
Strategic Information Systems Planning
Evaluation of the system to assess its status in terms of original or current expectations and
how they are serving the organization. - Information Systems Assessment
It helps planners better understand the organization's current processes and procedures.-
analysis
Responsible for attracting, developing, and maintaining the firm's workforce. - Human
Resources Function
Their purpose is to help the business firm discover, organize, and integrate new knowledge into
the business and control flow or paperwork. - Knowledge-level systems
Return on investment – ROI
This converts documents and images into digital format. - Document Imaging System
Reduces the possible conflicts that may put SISP implementation at risk by creating a
partnership between managers, other users, and systems developers.- cooperation
Help senior management tackle and address strategic issues and long-term trends, both in the
firm and in the external environment - Strategic-Level Systems
Facilitates top management's understanding of the importance of information systems –
Alignment
Uses finance and accounting systems to track the flow of funds in the firm through
transactions, such as paychecks, payments to vendors, securities reports, and receipts. -
Operational Management
Serve the monitoring, controlling, decision-making, and administrative activities of middle
managers. - Management-level systems
Produces professional publishing-quality documents. - Desktop Publishing
Provide a generalized computing and communications environment that help senior managers
address strategic issues and identify long-term trends in the firm and its environment. -
Executive Support Systems
Capture data about each item sold, which update the sales system's figures about sales and
send data about items sold to related systems dealing with items remaining in inventory and
with production.- Point-of-sale devices
Contains basic data about each item, including the unique identification code for each item, a
description of the item, the number of units on hand, the number of units on order, and the
reorder point. - Inventory Master File
Includes all the core assets, which are the basis for the production of products in the product
line. - Core Asset Base
Evolves as market conditions change, as the organization's plans change, as new opportunities
arise, or as the organization, quite simply, becomes more adept at software product lines. - The
scope of the product line
A description of the products that will constitute the product line or that the product line is
capable of including.- Product Line Scope
The goal of this activity is to establish a production capability for products.- Core Asset
Development
What are the basic functions of an MRP system? –both
This includes all the restraints and directions to produce such items as: routing, labor and
machine standards, quality and testing standards, pull/work cell and push commands, lot sizing
techniques, scrap percentages, and other inputs. - Planning Data
Which of these are examples of messages and reports? – both
An order that is frozen in quantity and time. - Firm Order
It is that point in time inside of which the forecast is no longer included in total demand and
projected available inventory calculations: inside this point, only customer orders are
considered. - Frozen Zone
This is an area for tradeoffs that must be negotiated between marketing and manufacturing. -
Slushy Zone
Which of these are well-known methods to find order quantities? –all
Which of these are outputs and variety or messages/reports? – both
Which of these are an objective of an MRP System?- all
A system designed to centralize, integrate and process information for effective decision
making in scheduling, design engineering, inventory management and cost control in
manufacturing. –mrp Manufacturing Resource Planning
MRP can be only applied both to items that are purchased from outside suppliers.
False
The current date and a date within which the planning process does not alter the current
material plan or master schedule border the planning time fence.
True
Any change can be made to the MPS as long as it is within the limits set by the PP.
Changes does the computer program make routine and are often. Liquid
these are well-known methods to find order quantities EXCEPT: Bronze-Meal heuristic
For repetitive items, this one restricts the planning process to suggest rates of production
within the planning time fence.
Supply chain Planning

Any change can be made to the MPS as long as it is within the limits set by the PP. Changes
does the computer program make routine and are often.

A policy or guideline established to note where various restrictions or changes in operating

procedures take place. - Time Fence
Used to allow automatic release of orders falling within this planning horizon. - Release Time
Fence
A production planning, scheduling, and inventory control system used to manage
manufacturing processes. – MRP
A multi-echelon formal planning and execution technique with five distinct components. -
Demand driven MRP
Demand originating outside the plant or production system, while dependent demand is
demand for components. - Independent Demand
It is the demand for components. -0Dependent Demand
Allow the company to adapt buffers to group and individual part trait changes over time
through the use of several types of adjustments. - Dynamic Buffer Levels
Specifies the relationship between the product and the components.- Bill of Materials
Takes advantage of the sheer computational power of today's hardware and software. -
Demand Driven Planning
A schedule of the completions of the end items and these completions are very much planned
in nature. Master production schedule acts as a very distinct and important linkage between
the planning processes. - Master Production Schedule
Statistical tools are highly useful for planning and forecasting.
True
The tools and techniques of management accounting provide only information and not
decisions.
Management Accounting is only a Tool
 This will take care of all your customers' return and exchange requests for you according to
your company's policies.
Fulfillment center
The interpretation of financial information may differ from person to person depending upon
the capability of the interpreter.
Personal Prejudices and Bias
This step of procurement cycle comes after expediting.
Receipt and Inspection of Purchases
This order handing falls under stock level accuracy.
Updating inventory for updates
This one output lays out a detailed schedule of the required minimum start and completion
dates, with quantities, for each step of the Routing and Bill of Material required satisfying the
demand from the master production schedule (MPS).
Recommended Production Schedule
These recommend cancelling, increasing, delaying or speeding up existing orders.
Reschedule notices

This one output lays out both the dates on which the purchased items should be received into
the facility and the dates on which the purchase orders or blanket order release should occur in
order to match the production schedules.
Recommended Purchasing Schedule
An order to a supplier to provide materials. Purchase orders
This solution to data integrity issues is to find the root cause and correct the problem from
occurring again.
Cycle count

It relies on historical numeric data to predict what will happen in the future - Quantitative
Forecasting
These are also known as assets, anything that someone or a company owns - Properties
EOQ stands for? - Economic Order Quantity
It's the order size that will provide with the lowest total inventory cost- EOQ
Inventory storage is free – f
It is the amount of items or services tendered by producers –supply
He Developed Porter’s Five Forces - Dr. Micheal Porter
It's the first question in Porter’s Five Forces - How many competitor's are there?
It's a tool used to assess the environment using specific tasks and well defined questions aside
from Porter’s Five Forces and is typically drawn on a grid – swot
It defines the purpose of a company or organization - Strategic Plan not sure
Refers to the area where the company is lacking in – threat no sure
Refers to events or phenomena that might prove beneficial to the company –
They are the objective functions a company is trying to achieve - Strategic Filter
Refers to possible cause of the downfall of the company, Liabilities – threat not sure
Refers to events or phenomena that might prove beneficial to the company – opportunities –
not sure
Which of these are factors to consider when deciding on the location of a new warehouse
facility? – all
Which of these do you need to consider when determining the need for a warehouse? – all
Types of warehouse space not ideal for perishable products but in emergencies, sometimes the
only alternative.- Open storage
Which of these do you need to consider when selecting a warehouse? - access and parking for
vehicles as well as the number of loading docks required
Types of warehouse space in rented building used for business. – commercial
What are basic principles of warehouse and inventory management? – all
Types of warehouse space for temporary storage of goods destined for different locations and
need storage for a very short time. - Transit
Which of these warehouses are common in emergencies?- Both State and Pre-fabricated
warehouses
They are usually purpose built or purpose designed facilities operated by permanent staff that
has been trained in all the skills necessary to run an efficient facility or utilizing third party
logistics (3PL) staff and facilities. - Global Warehouses
They may be housed in buildings, which was not designed to be used as a warehouse, in a
temporary building/structures, and are often in mobile units that are little more than a tent in a
field. - Field Warehouses
Contain hard and fast rules and regulations that define the general conduct of the warehouse
operation – Policies
Defines systematically how the activities in the warehouse should be carried out and clearly
defines the processes to be adopted.- Procedures Document
Maintained to prevent accidents and breakdowns from occurring. - Warehouse equipment
A planned space for the storage and handling of goods and material. – warehouse
Pre-positioned stock is often held in this type of warehouses so that export is quick and can
sometimes be stored for long periods. – bonded
Consist of inspections, regular servicing and monitoring performance for failure trends, as this
will enable symptoms to be recognized before failure occurs.- Maintenance Activities
Responsible for monitoring the movement of goods as they are transported from the supplier
and for the control of stock movement in the warehouse facility. - Warehouse/Inventory
Manager
The practice of overseeing and controlling of quantities of finished products for sale.- Inventory
Management
Which of these are key work activities for the warehouse operation?
All of the given choices are correct
SKU means _______________________ Stock keeping units
What are the types of relief items that require special storage needs? All
The open storage warehouse space is ideal for perishable products. False
The following items are basic inclusions in a lease agreement. All
Warehouse equipment is maintained to prevent accidents and breakdowns from occurring.
True
Contain hard and fast rules and regulations that define the general conduct of the warehouse
operation. Policies

This is one of the two method of inventory control applicable to emergencies. Reorder cycle
policy
This processes determine the nature and scope of the project. Initiating
This is the stage in a process group that comes after Planning.
Production/execution

The main purpose of this stage is to plan time, cost and resources adequately to estimate the
work needed and to effectively manage risk during project execution.
Planning

These consist project planning EXCEPT:

Correction of errors

This is the stage in a process group that comes after Monitoring and Controlling.
Closing

The examination of a business process in order to better meet customer & quality
requirements.
Process Improvement

All of these are included in a process group except:

Costing

Which network design solution will best extend access layer connectivity to host
devices? - implementing wireless connectivity
Which two methods help to prevent the disruption of network services? (Choose two.)
-installing duplicate equipment to provide failover services, using redundant connections to provide
alternate physical paths
What are two expected features of modern enterprise networks? (Choose two.) - support
for critical applications, support for converged network traffic
Which feature could be used in a network design to increase the bandwidth by
combining multiple physical links into a single logical link? – EtherChannel
What is a characteristic of out-of-band device management? - It requires a terminal
emulation client.
Which type of router would an enterprise use to allow customers to access content
anytime and anyplace, regardless of whether they are at home or work? - network edge
routers
How much traffic is a 48-port gigabit switch capable of switching when operating at full wire
speed? -
48 Gb/s, by providing full bandwidth to each port

The number of ports available on a single switch is referred to as -

Port Density
Among the beneficial functions of a router are enhanced network
security and containment - Broadcast Traffic

provides a high-speed backbone link between dispersed networks

Core layer

Distribution layer - forward traffic from one local network to another.

Access layer - provides connectivity for the users

A method of planning and managing project execution designed to deal with uncertainties
inherent in managing projects, while taking into consideration limited availability of resources
(physical, human skills, as well as management & support capacity) needed to execute projects.
-Critical Chain Project Management
An expert in a particular area or topic and provides guidance, usually to the Project Owner,
when clarity is needed in understanding a feature and its development.- Subject Matter Expert
A methodology for identifying the most important limiting factor (i.e. constraint) that stands in
the way of achieving a goal and then systematically improving that constraint until it is no
longer the limiting factor.- theory
Enhances normal project management techniques through a focus on outcomes of a project
rather than products or outputs, and then measuring the degree to which that is happening to
keep a project on track.- Benefits Realization Management
It may be used in combination with the process modeling and management principles of
human interaction management. – extreme
An international framework for assessment of software processes developed jointly by the ISO
(International Organization for Standardization) and the IEC (International Electro technical
Commission). – software
A quantifiable measure used to evaluate the success of an organization, employee, etc., in
meeting objectives for performance. - Key Performance Indicator
Uses principles from operations research, industrial engineering and queuing theory to
organize work activities in major capital projects to optimize project delivery. - Project
Production Management
The incorporation of process-based management has been driven by the use of Maturity
models such as this. –capability
The group, team, or organization business unit that is responsible for setting the project
management standards, providing tools, and acting as a point of contact for the project
management team.- Project Management Office or Portfolio Management Office
A temporary endeavor designed to produce a unique product, service or result with a defined
beginning and end undertaken to meet unique goals and objectives, typically to bring about
beneficial change or added value. – project
The examination of a business process in order to better meet customer& quality
requirements.- process improve
Your company's guidebook for getting the job done. – processes
The discipline of initiating, planning, executing, controlling, and closing the work of a team to
achieve specific goals and meet specific success criteria. – project manage.
Uses the principles from lean manufacturing to focus on delivering value with less waste and
reduced time. – lean
Uses principles from operations research, industrial engineering and queuing theory to
organize work activities in major capital projects to optimize project delivery. - Project
Production Management
A structured approach to project management released in 1996 as a generic project
management method. – prince
A method of planning and managing project execution designed to deal with uncertainties
inherent in managing projects, while taking into consideration limited availability of resources
needed to execute projects. – critical
The fundamental re-thinking and re-designing of a business process in order to exceed
customer and quality requirements.- Business Process Reengineering
Requires you to practice applying your knowledge and your thinking skills to a real situation –
Restricts the flow of any information to countries that do not meet strict European laws on
personal information.- European Union Data Protection Directive United Kingdom
The movement of information across international boundaries in any form. – Transborder Data
Flow
A composite process that integrates data from individual enterprise applications and legacy
financial applications. – order to cash
Strives to improve processes and align the needs of customers with company objectives.-
Business Process Management
Some type of information exchange between a Business Process Integration/Business
Integration Application and a business application, business user or another Business Process
Integration/Business Integration Application. – interface
Each foreign unit designs its own unique solutions and systems.- Decentralized systems
In this phase, the Business Process Integration/Business Integration Applicationruns in
production. – operation
Consists of graphical modeling objects and a scripting notation, which are used to construct the
Business Process Integration and Business Integration Application logical models. - Business
Modeling Language
Rejects the very concept of a shared global culture and rejects the penetration of domestic
markets by foreign goods and services. - Particularism
This method requires individuals to transfer data from one application to another by hand,
often resulting in data entry. - Manual data entry
A software program that adds business value to a business process. - Business Application
This strategy is characterized by heavy centralization of corporate activities in the home country
of origin. - Domestic exporter
A practice used by different companies to reduce costs by transferring portions of work to
outside suppliers rather than completing it internally. – outsourcing
This strategy
 –multinational
Can be divided into two groups: general cultural factors and specific business factors. – global
business
Integrates multiple applications from multiple business functions, business units, or business
partners to deliver a seamless experience for the customer, employee, manager, or business
partner.- service plat
The process by which businesses or other organizations develop international influence or start
operating on an international scale. – global
In this phase, the Technical Designer performs the rest of the work that the Business Modeler
does not have the technical skills for to complete a Business Process Integration/Business
Integration Application design, such as developing any Java code for BML scripts, or configuring
supporting middleware. – technical
Allows for automation of business processes, integration of systems and services, and the
secure sharing of data across numerous applications. – bpi
Consists of the basic information systems required by organizations to coordinate worldwide
trade and other activities.- International Information Systems Architecture
Developed for assisting organization creating and operating business process integrations. -
Business Process Integration Methodology
Used to help you see how the complexities of real life influence decisions. - Case Studies
An actor who interfaces with a Business Integration Application. – business user
Can play havoc with planning models and projections. – currency
n this strategy, nearly all the value-adding activities are managed from a global perspective
without reference to national borders, optimizing sources of supply and demand wherever they
appear, and taking advantage of any local competitive advantages. – transnational
Systems development and operation occur totally at the domestic home base. – centralized
Create, design, finance, and initially produce in the home country, but for product-specific,
reasons must rely heavily on foreign personnel for further production, marketing, and human
resources. – franchise
In this phase, the focus is on the business process issues. - Business design and modeling
Contains the logic for describing how integration and processing takes place. - Business
Integration Application
Requires you to practice applying your knowledge and your thinking skills to a real situation.–
analyze
A tool used to determine whether the initiatives are still worth pursuing or not – Listing
It is an organization's way of setting a priority – Initiatives
It is one of the most important aspects of a good strategic planning – Prioritization
Strategic planning is about - Focus and Prioritization
It is the reason why an organization exists. - mission
A type of strategic filter that defines the company’s goal as something that is publicly
perceivable - Qualitative Filter
A type of strategic filter that weighs different numerical values’ value for the company -
Quantitative Filter
It is the “forte” of a company, an area where the company is great at - Core Competency
These are rules that should be lived by members of an organization - Guiding Princples
The process of creating a hierarchical sense between objectives, initiative or sense –
Prioritization
It is the identification, storage, retrieval and destruction of documents important to you and the
business - Document Retention
It was designed to allow access to vast amounts of information on multiple different topics –
none
It tells parties what they are and the obligations they have to the partnership – contracts
It helps you measure your progress, preserve your intellectual properties etc. – reports
Set of rules that helps you to create a historical record of your company - Document Retention
Policy
It's the lifeline of a company. It allows the company to adapt to situations, predict and make
necessary decisions. – information
Information passed without any written evidence are invalid – t
These are the earliest form of document retention - Clay Tables
They utilized Clay Tablets to record events – Egyptians
Digital CDs are a form of Document Retention -t
INSERT is the query for creating/inserting a new row of data into a particular table. –t
SELECT is the query for reading information from one of the tables in one of our databases. – t
Size, Ease of updating, Accuracy, Security, Redundancy and Importance are the six potential
problems related to Data.- f
Database Schema is the formal description of our database. –
Structured Query Language is the common language that lies at the heart of every relational
database management system and it is considered as declarative query
language. – t
Unique Key is a way to identify just one particular row in any table. – t
Table is the most basic and most fundamental building block of a database. – t
Database is the data and your rules about that data. – t
UPDATE is the query for changing information in a database. – t
Database Management System is the program or the set of programs that surround and
manage a database to make sure your rules are applied. – t
It's a type of datawarehouse that can be utilized by different sectors of the company regardless
if they are connected or not –edw
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a Data Warehouse- Small
The file extension name / file type of Database files is – mdf
Which of the following are the available modes for Analysis Services- Multi-Dimensional and
Data Mining Mode, Tabular Mode
By default, this is the more secure method of authentication.- Windows Authentication
It allows the SQL Server to be able to communicate to Sharepoint- SQL Server PowerPivot for
Sharepoint
During installation, a primary test is run to check whether the device can run SQL Server 2012 –
t
The duration of the evaluation period- 180
What does EDW mean?- External Data Warehouse
What does SSIS mean?- SQL Server Integration Services
Data Warehousing needs at least ________ of bandwidth to support its day to day processes- 1
gigabit
What does ETL mean?- Extract-Transform-Load
It's a process that stores bits of memory in a local storage to avoid re-loading of redundant
actions.- Caching
It helps us to determine the hardware needs of a particular data warehouse- FDTW
What does FTDW- Fast Track Data Warehouse Sizing Tool
Refers to data sets so large that a new tool or technique is required to analyze it- Big Data
It is currently the size of the biggest "Big Data" as of now- 10 Terabytes
It's the company that help the biggest "Big Data" warehouse- Google
It is often importing data from an external entity, in other words data we have a little or no
control over. – etl
Which of the following is not an example of Big Data for Research?- Fraud Detection
Which of the following is an example of Big Data for Business?- Predict Trends (Editd)
Which of the following is an example of Big Data for Consumer? – siri
This term is usually referred to as data that describes itself in an important way.- Introspection
Which of the following is not a NoSQL Database?- HADOP
This are data that has four measurement; width, length, petals and sepals of the 3 species of
IRIS.- Iris Data
How many rows and columns are there in an MS Excel 2007 version? - 1,048,576 rows by 16,
384 columns
Which of the following is not part of the 3 V that describes Big Data?- Variable
Who develops the Data Science Venn Diagram in 2010?- Drew Conway
This refers to the data that because of its size, speed and format (its volume, velocity or variety)
cannot be stored easily, manipulated or analyzed with
traditional methods- Big Data
It is defined as the methodology to utilize data be it external or internal.- Business Intelligence
The platform used for Business Intelligence - SQL Server Management Studio
This is the first term used to refer to the modern Business Intelligence - OLAP
It is normally an individual or a small team that is making the exploration of the data. - Personal
Business Intelligence
It can be either the sharing of the data that we describe in Personal Business Intelligence via
SharePoint with an entire team or division, or it can be creating a subset of data that lives in the
data warehouse for analysis.- Team Business Intelligence
It is the well-documented, traditional path that has been with us for decades and is in its sixth
or seventh generation. - Enterprise Data Intelligence
Which of the following is the most expensive type of BI- Team Business Intelligence
It allowed us to move off of the standard tabular view. It allows us to create, with a few simple
clicks, 3D animated maps showing our data, interactive graphics that allows us to drill down
and drill up in such things as a hierarchy of sales products.- Data Visualization Tools
He is the author of Computing on Analytics that popularized the word analytics- Thomas
Davenport
These are data that are grouped together because they have something in common. - Data set
These are step by step process in solving a specific problem, creating a software etc.- Algorithm
Tool used to make better informed decisions – Analytics
The benefits of analytics can be compared through the comparison of - Human Power and Raw
Materials
Unreliable data that often comes with a signal data. – Noise
It is the first factor that increases the importance of analytics - Humans need information
Algorithm and technology are what they used to be several years ago. – t
Type of Analytics that aims to provide a clear and calculated forecast of future events.-
Predictive Analytics
Phones nowadays are being powered by android, therefore their processing power allows them
to have computer like capabilities such as analysis,computingetc – t
These are based on a very robust workflow in which data is acquired and processed.-
Prescriptive Analytics
The tools _________ and ________ showed up in 1960s and has been used for analytics since then.
- SAS and SPSS
It is the year when BI dominated the analytics space.- 1990
It is the ultimate goal of any Analytics - To gather insights driven by data
Insights from the past are ultimately disregarded – f
It is a framework that carries our data all the way through from the first moments it makes its
way into our systems, - Prescriptive Analytics
It is a term that almost became synonymous with the term analytics - Data Mining
is a critically important aspect to prescriptive analytics workflow, and you can think of it as the
earliest possible detection of something of potential importance to us. – event
They are the hands-on modelers and the statisticians, and very often, they may also be subject
matter experts or SMEs in a particular part of the business. - Analytics Specialist
Which of the following is not a step in Prescriptive Analysis - Assimilate Feedbacks
Which of the following is not an Event Trigger- New piece of data
It means that the event itself triggers some sort of an action in the analytics workflow.- Discrete
Event
This event in combination with other events triggers action- Synthesized Event
This event by definition means that the data itself triggers the events. - Discrete Event
This event is typically tied to operational business processes - Operational Event
This event is usually related to market planning, product lineup. - Strategic Event
They're the ones who use their expertise to help decide which analytical model should be built,
- Data Analysts
What is an accurate description of redundancy? - designing a network to use multiple paths
between switches to ensure there is no single point of failure
Which three port states are used by Rapid PVST+? (Choose three.) –
DISCARD ,learning, forwarding
Which two issues are the result of a broadcast storm? (Choose two.) - Due to high
processing demands during a broadcast storm, communication may fail between end stations in the
broadcast domain, During a broadcast storm, constant changes to the MAC address table prevent a
switch from accurately forwarding frames.
Which two statements describe a switch port that is configured with PortFast? (Choose
two.)- The switch port immediately transitions from blocking to the forwarding state,The switch
port should never receive BPDUs.
What is one way to correct a spanning tree failure?-Manually remove redundant links in the
switched network.
An administrator is troubleshooting a switch and wants to verify if it is a root bridge.
What command can be used to do this? - show spanning-tree
During the implementation of Spanning Tree Protocol, all switches are rebooted by the
network administrator. What is the first step of the spanning-tree election process? - All
the switches send out BPDUs advertising themselves as the root bridge.
When PVST is running over a switched network, which port state can participate in
BPDU frame forwarding based on BPDUs received, but does not forward data frames? –
listening
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the
question.
What is the path cost from Switch_4 to the root bridge? – 57
When first hop redundancy protocols are used, which two items will be shared by a set
of routers that are presenting the illusion of being a single router? – IP, MAC
Which statement describes HSRP?- It is used within a group of routers for selecting an active
device and a standby device to provide gateway services to a LAN.
A network administrator is overseeing the implementation of first hop redundancy
protocols. Which two protocols will not be able to function with multivendor devices?
(Choose two.) – HSRP, GLBP
Match the STP protocol with the correct description. (Not all options are used.)-
Rapid PVST+ - CISCO ENHANCEMENT
STP- LEGACY
MSTP – PROTOCOL
After the election of the root bridge has been completed, how will switches find the best
paths to the root bridge? - Each switch will analyze the sum of all port costs to reach the root and
use the path with the lowest cost.
Which statement describes an ESS? - It involves several BSSs that are joined through a
common distribution system.
What Wi-Fi management frame is regularly broadcast by APs to announce their
presence? – BEACON
What type of frames are used for advertising, authenticating, and associating with a
wireless AP? – management
Known as "WiGig", the IEEE 802.11- ad
The company handbook states that employees cannot have microwave ovens in their
offices. Instead, all employees must use the microwave ovens located in the employee
cafeteria. What wireless security risk is the company trying to avoid?-accidental
interference
A network administrator discovers a rogue AP in the network. The rogue AP is capturing
traffic and then forwarding it on to the legitimate AP. This - man in the middle
Which combination of WLAN authentication and encryption is recommended as a best practice
for home users?- WPA2 and AES
If an administrator is troubleshooting a WLAN using a bottom up approach, which action
would be taken first? - Make sure all devices are powered on.
Match the wireless technologies to the correct descriptions. (Not all options are used.)
-Wi-Fi uses device pairing to communicate over distances of up to 100 meters
WiMAX - DSL the can communicate over
satellite Broadband - useful in remote areas, but requires a clear line of sight
Which wireless RF band do IEEE 802.11b/g devices use? - 2.4 GHz
Which two recommendations should an administrator follow when planning the location
of multiple APs? (Choose two.) - Position APs in locations where users are expected to be.,
Always consult the specifications for the AP when planning for coverage areas.
What is a characteristic of a Yagi antenna that is used by Cisco Aironet Access Points?-
It can be used for long-distance Wi-Fi networking.
An IEEE 802.11n network has been configured for mixed mode and has clients that are
using 802.11n and 802.11g radios on the network. The 802.11n clients are complaining
of slower than normal speeds. What is the problem? - This is the normal behavior of a mixed-
mode network.
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output that is shown, what can be determined
about the EtherChannel bundle? - A Cisco proprietary protocol was used to negotiate the
EtherChannel link.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator wants to form an EtherChannel between the two
switches by using the Port Aggregation Protocol. If switch S1 is configured to be in auto
mode, which mode should be configured on S2 to form the EtherChannel? – desirable
What are three advantages of using EtherChannel technology? (Choose three.) -
Configuration tasks can be done on the EtherChannel interface, There is no need to upgrade links
to faster connections to increase bandwidth, A spanning tree recalculation is not required when a
single link within the channel goes down.
Which command displays only one line of information per port channel? - show
etherchannel summary
Which three interface parameters must match for an EtherChannel to form? (Choose
three.) - allowed VLANs, native VLAN, trunking mode
Which two protocols are used to implement EtherChannel? (Choose two.)- Port
Aggregation Protocol, Link Aggregation Control Protocol
Which statement is true about EtherChannel technology?- EtherChannel uses existing switch
ports.
What will happen if a network administrator puts a port that is part of an EtherChannel
bundle into a different VLAN than the other ports in that bundle? - The EtherChannel will
fail.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator tried to implement an EtherChannel between two
switches by grouping the six physical ports as shown. However, the administrator was
not successful. What is the reason for that?-An EtherChannel link can only be formed by
grouping interfaces of the same type.
When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel, which mode will configure
PAgP so that it initiates the EtherChannel negotiation? - desirable

On which two types of OSPF routers can route summarization be configured?

ABR, ASBR
What is the correct order of statements for calculating the best path in an OSPF
network? - B, A, C
Why are users who are connected to router R2 prevented from accessing resources that
are located in network 192.168.1.0? - The OSPF network statements are misconfigured on
router R3.
A router has six networks that are connected to it with network IDs of 192.168.0.0/24,
192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, 192.168.3.0/24, 192.168.4.0/24, and 192.168.5.0/24.
After summarization of these six networks, how many LSAs would be sent to advertise
the summary route or routes?-two
Match the OSPF LSA types to their descriptions. (Not all options are used.)
LSA type 1 - including a list of directly attach network prefix and link type
LSA type 2 - identifying the routers and the network address of the multi access links
LSA type 3 - advertising networks from other areas ABRs
LSA type 4 - advertising an ASBR to other ares and providing a routes to it
LSA type 5 - advertising external(non-OSPF) network address
Which statement describes a characteristic of convergence in an OSPF network? - Once
converged, a router can communicate with any network within or outside the OSPF autonomous
system.
With multiarea OSPF, which OSPF router type has all interfaces in the same area? -
internal router
What are two reasons for creating an OSPF network with multiple areas? (Choose two.)-
to reduce SPF calculations, to reduce use of memory and processor resources
Which type of routing table entry would indicate that an external route was redistributed
into the multiarea OSPF process? - O E2
Which two statements describe OSPF? (Choose two.) - OSPF routers within an area have
the same link-state information.,OSPF routers may have large routing tables if routes are not
summarized.
LSA identifies the ASBR and provides a route to it.- 4
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring OSPFv2 on R1. Which
conclusion can be drawn based on the configuration? - R1 is an ABR.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring OSPFv3 on R1. Which
command sequence is used to advertise the network that is attached to Gi0/0? -
R1(config)# interface GigabitEthernet 0/0
R1(config-if)# ipv6 ospf 3 area 1
Which multicast address does an EIGRP-enabled router use to send query packets? -
224.0.0.10
What two conditions will result in an EIGRP route going into the active state? (Choose
two.)
The successor is down, There is no feasible successor.
Which two values are included by default in the calculation of an EIGRP metric?
(Choose two.) – delay, bandwidth
Which protocol number is used to indicate that an EIGRP packet is encapsulated in an
IP packet? – 88
Which address will EIGRP for IPv6 use as the router ID? - the highest IPv4 address that is
configured on any enabled interface
Refer to the exhibit. What does the value 2816 represent in the output display? - reported
distance
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is verifying the EIGRP configuration. Which
conclusion can be drawn? - Subnetted networks are included in route updates.
What address and wild card mask can be used to enable EIGRP for only the subnet
192.168.100.192 255.255.255.192? - 192.168.100.192 0.0.0.63
In the command router eigrp 100, what does the value 100 represent? - the autonomous
system number
Which bandwidth value is used when calculating the EIGRP metric of a route- the slowest
bandwidth of all outgoing interfaces between the source and destination
Match the types of EIGRP routes to the correct default administrative distances. (Not all
options are used.) - summary 5, internal 90, external 170.
Match the EIGRP packet type to the function. (Not all options are used.)
hello - used to form an EIRGP neighbor relationship.

update - used to distribute routing information.

acknowledgment - used to confirm the reliability deliver of a packet.

reply - used in response to an EIGRP-enabled router searching for a network.

Which destination address is used by EIGRP for IPv6 messages? - the all-EIGRP-routers
multicast address
Which two protocols are allowed to be routed by EIGRP as a consequence of the PDM
feature? (Choose two.) IPv4 , IPv6 .
A construction firm is building a power plant at a remote and isolated mine site and
needs to connect the data network of the plant to the corporate network. Which public
technology is the most suitable to meet the connection needs? - satellite Internet
Branch office networks and corporate headquarter networks can be connected together
using - site-to-site
What are two common types of circuit-switched WAN technologies? (Choose two.) –
PSTN, ISDN
Which one of the WAN technologies is inadequate for video traffic but operates
adequately for voice traffic? -ISDN BRI
A new corporation needs a data network that must meet certain requirements. The
network must be fast and reliable to transmit secure video conferencing calls between
two branches. If cost is not a consideration, which two types of WAN infrastructure
would best meet the requirements? (Choose two.) - private infrastructure, dedicated
Match the private WAN technology to its application. (Not all options are used.)
ISDN BRI: when 2 B channels and 1 D channel are used to provide additional capacity
dialup: when intermittent, low-volume data transfers are needed
leased line: when permanent point-to-point dedicated connections are required
VSAT: when connectivity in a remote location is needed and there are no service
providers that offer WAN service.
What is a disadvantage of leased lines? - high cost
Which public WAN technology provides security by using encrypted tunnels over
Internet connections? – VPN
Which medium do service providers use to transmit data over WAN connections with
SONET, SDH, and DWDM?-fiber optic
It is an email wherein it try to get or bait useful information about you.- Phishing
It is a software or hardware that serves as boundary to keep the dangerous things outside
while scanning all the data that coming into your router from the internet.- Firewall
It converts the signal into digital data that can be interpreted by a computer, game console, or
other device.-modemn
Supply chains includes three things: Buying things, Making things and Moving things. – t
Procurement is the action of obtaining equipment or supplies for a business. – t
Logistics & Transportation is the commercial activity of transporting goods to the customer- t
Manufacturing & Operations is the stage of the supply chain where the product is made – t
Which PPP option enables load balancing on PPP-enabled interfaces that connect to a
single destination? – Multilink
The default encapsulation for WAN interfaces is – hdlc
With which layers of the OSI model do the PPP control protocols interface?- NCP
interfaces with Layer 3; LCP interfaces with Layer 1
After PC10 sends a request to the web server, what is the inside global address? -
209.165.200.225

Use the PT Activity that is already open.

What type of address translation has been configured on router A? - PAT
Use the PT activity that is already open.
A user from PC20 is attempting to access the web page that is located on
209.165.201.2. What is the reason that the request is failing? The IP address of PC20 is not
included for NAT translation on Router A.
Use the PT activity that is already open.
To test NAT on RouterA, the network administrator first issues the command ping
209.165.201.2 from the CLI of RouterA and then issues show ip nat translations.
Although the ping command is successful, the router does not display any NAT
translation information. What is the reason for the lack of output? The source of the ping
packet is S0/1/0 on RouterA.
Refer to the exhibit. What device is the source of the traffic that is displayed in the
output, and what is the destination port number? The source device is PC10 and the
destination port is 80.
What are three characteristics that help build a successful environment for a teleworker?
(Choose three.) distraction free workplace, broadband Internet connection, flexible approach
to required work
The unauthorized or accidental release of classified, personal, or sensitive information .
The potential harm that may arise from some current process or from some future event. Risk
It is a model in which automation logic is decomposed into smaller, distinct units of logic.
Service-Oriented Architecture

Having ____________________________ about a business’s operations is a powerful feature of

enterprise systems.
Real-time Access to Information
All of these are fixed assets EXCEPT __________________
Accounts receivable
The ability to streamline the supply chain means that the products are delivered to customers
more reliably, and at a lower cost. Improve Supply Chain Management

The interpreted information must be communicated to those who are interested in it.
Reporting To Management

Which of these are not part of the main objectives of Management Accounting?

To install the management accounting system, this is required in the traditional accounting
practices and organizational set up. Changes

Limitation in management accounting where it is still in a development stage and has not yet
reached a final stage.
Evolutionary Stage

Limitation in management accounting where the correctness and effectiveness of managerial

decisions will depend upon the quality of data provided by cost and financial accounts.
Based on Accounting Information

Management's focus on the managerial accounting topics can make a difference in a company's
Based on Accounting Information

This scope of management accounting is when the control aspect is based on financial data and
performance evaluation, on recorded facts.
Financial accounting

Which of these are not part of the main objectives of Management Accounting?
None of the above

Management's focus on the managerial accounting topics can make a difference in a company's
Profitability

The use of management accounting requires the knowledge of number of related subjects
Lack of Knowledge
A prediction of what will happen because of a given set of circumstances. Forecasting

Decision taking based on management accounting that provide scientific analysis of various
situations will be time consuming one. Intensive Decisions

This is the stage of formal acceptance of the project. Closing

The cost of the lease is a legal consideration in leasing temporary warehouses/contracting.
he statement is true.

After supplier segmentation, what process of Supplier Relations Management comes next?
Relationship analysis

How many steps does the SRM method have?

Five

Price cannot be a negotiating point in the second instance because the selection was price-
based.
True

This step of procurement cycle comes after need recognition. Specific need
Once the sending company delivers the product, the recipient accepts or rejects the items.
Receipt and Inspection of Purchases

This will take care of all your customers' return and exchange requests for you according to
your company's policies Fulfillment center

Which of the following is part of the basic services of fulfillment centers? All of the answers are
correct
What step of order fulfillment process comes next after maintaining inventory?
Responding to a sales order to determine availability and location in inventory.

What is the first step in Order Fulfillment?

Maintaining Inventory

In Smart Inventory Handling, even the slightest of changes in stock levels need to be updated.
Mr. John assigned an area in the JLC warehouse where the most popular items can be picked,
packed and delivered to the shipping dock in a minimal amount of time. What process in
speeding the order fulfillment process that he did?
Classify your inventory to ensure rapid handling
After order configuration, what is the next step being done?
Booking the order
 CS310-Business Processes and
Enterprise System
1. Dashboard
2. My courses
3. CS310
4. Week 1: Introduction to Business Process
5. Assignment 001

Meanwhile, in another work he defined business process as structured,

measured set of activities designed to produce a specified output for a
particularcustomer or market.

Select one:

a. Davenport

b. Van der Aalst, Weijters and Medeiros

c. Hammer and Champy

d. Ko

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They gave attention to the originators of the activities: by process we mean the
way an organization arranges their work and resources, for instance the order in
which tasks are performed and which group of people are allowed to perform
specific tasks.

Select one:
a. Davenport

b. Ko

c. Hammer and Champy

d. van der Aalst, Weijters and Medeiros

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A business intelligence and analysis tool that provides real-time alerts for a
proactive approach.
Select one:

a. Business Activity Analysis (BAA)

b. Business Activity Monitoring (BAM)

c. Business Activity Process (BAP)

d. Business Activity Statistics (BAS)

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It is the year when Petri nets were proposed in the Ph.D. thesis by Carl Adam
Petri.
Select one:

a. 1962
b. 1963

c. 1964

d. 1965

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A workflow language born from a rigorous analysis of the existing workflow

patterns.
Select one:

a. YAWL

b. No correct answer

c. BPEL

d. BPMN

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What is the most important characteristic of a process model?

Select one:

a. It leaves uncertainties to the potential reader.

b. It should be unambiguous,
c. All of the given choices are correct

d. It is vague to the potential reader.

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The distribution of tokens among the places of a net, at the certain times is called
_________
Select one:

a. Firing

b. Checking

c. None of the choices

d. Marking

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In this type of process modelling language, designers tend to forget certain

constraints.
Select one:

a. Both Imperative and Declarative

b. Declarative

c. No correct answer
d. Imperative

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An important subclass of Petri nets, whose most important characteristics is to

have a dedicated “start” and “end”.
Select one:

a. WS-net

b. WB-net

c. WT-met

d. WF-net

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A business process has a goal and is affected by events occurringin the external
world or in other processes. This is according to.

Select one:

a. Van der Aalst, Weijters and Medeiros

b. Ko

c. Hammer and Champy

d. Davenport
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SHORT QUIZ 1

This generic term identifies the work done by a company.

Select one:

a. Sequence Flow

b. Gateway

c. Events

d. Activities

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A discrete unit of business activity, with significance to the business,

initiated in response to a business event, that cannot be broken down
into smaller units and still be meaningful.

Select one:

a. Business Process Management

b. Business Process

c. Business Process Modeling and Notation

d. Business Service

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Identify this component of BPMN notation

Select one:

a. Sub-process

b. Connectors

c. Gateway

d. Task

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Identify this component of BPMN notation

Select one:

a. Task

b. Sub-process

c. Connectors

d. Events

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Collection of activities that takes one or more kinds of input and

creates an output that is of value to the customer.

Select one:

a. Business Process Modeling and Notation

b. Business Service

c. Business Process

d. Business Process Management

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Used to indicate the order of the activities.

Select one:

a. Associations

b. Gateway

c. Message Flow

d. Sequence Flow

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Supporting business processes using methods, techniques, and

software to design, enact, control, and analyze operational processes
involving humans, organizations, applications, documents and other
sources of information.

Select one:

a. Business Service

b. Business Process

c. Business Process Management

d. Business Process Modeling and Notation

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A structure used to control the divergences and convergences of the

flow of the process.

Select one:

a. Gateway

b. Activities

c. Events

d. Sequence Flow

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Used to connect artifacts with other elements of the graph.

Select one:

a. Gateway

b. Sequence Flow

c. Associations

d. Message Flow

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Shows the flow of the messages between participants.

Select one:

a. Message Flow

b. Gateway

c. Sequence Flow

d. Associations

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ASSIGNMENT #2
Which of these is an ERP Trend?
Select one:

a. Mobile ERP

b. Cloud ERP

c. Social ERP

d. All of the given answers are correct

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When setting objectives prior to implementing the ERP solution, you

need to
Select one:

a. None of the choices

b. Define the scope of implementation

c. Implement every function

d. Implement every function and define the scope of implementation

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Setting objectives and developing project plan fall under what step to
successful ERP Implementation?
Select one:

a. Strategic Planning

b. Procedure Review

c. Data Collection and Clean-Up

d. Training and Testing

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A company’s ability to quickly retrieve this type of information in order

to answer customer’s questions can go a long way toward improving
customer satisfaction.
Select one:

a. Scale Available Resources as Needed

b. Store Business Data in a Usable Format

c. Secure Customer Data

d. Automate the Customer Service Process for Employees

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The basic goal of using an enterprise resource planning system is to

Select one:

a. None of the choices

b. Both of the given choices are correct

c. Provide one central repository for all information that is shared by all
the various ERP facets to improve the flow of data across the
organization
d. Provide multiple repositories for all information that is shared by all
the various ERP facets to improve the flow of data across the
organization

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What is one of the top reasons ERP implementation fail?

Select one:

a. The software does not meet basic industry specific business

requirements

b. Both of the given choices are correct

c. Solution was custom-designed

d. None of the choices

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Which of these are steps to successful ERP Implementation?

Select one:

a. All of the given choices are correct

b. Procedure Review

c. Data Collection and Clean-up

d. Strategic Planning

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Which of these does Enterprise Systems support?

Select one:

a. All of the given choices are correct

b. Information flows

c. Reporting

d. Business processes

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Previous page

Which of these show Enterprise systems can benefit the companies

that successfully implement them?
Select one:

a. Scale Available Resources (Up and Down) as Needed

b. Automate the Customer Service Process for Employees

c. Store Business Data in a Usable Format

d. All of the given choices are correct

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What are the steps under Procedure Review?

Select one:

a. Review software capabilities.

b. Both given choices are correct

c. Develop standard operating procedures.

d. None of the choices

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SHORT QUIZ #2
The ability to streamline the supply chain means that the products are
delivered to customers more reliably, and at a lower cost.
Select one:

a. Standardized Process

b. Store Business Data in a Usable Format

c. Improve Supply Chain Management

d. Ensure Regulatory Compliance

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In this Enterprise ERP Trend, executives and employees want real-time

access to information, regardless of where they are.

Select one:

a. Supply Chain

b. Mobile ERP

c. ERP software

d. Information Technology

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This Enterprise ERP Trend utilizes social media packages to their ERP
systems.

Select one:

a. Securing Customer Data

b. Information Technology
c. Mobile ERP

d. Social ERP

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Large-scale application software packages that support business

processes, information flows, reporting, and data analytics in complex
organizations.

Select one:

a. Enterprise Resource Planning

b. Implementation

c. Enterprise Systems

d. Customer Relationship Management Systems

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The process of putting a decision or plan into effect; execution.

Select one:

a. Customer Relationship Management Systems

b. Implementation
c. Enterprise Resource Planning

d. Enterprise Systems

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Business process management software that allows an organization to

use a system of integrated applications to manage the business and
automate many back office functions related to technology, services
and human resources.

Select one:

a. Enterprise Systems

b. Implementation

c. Enterprise Resource Planning

d. Customer Relationship Management Systems

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Refers to the collection of people, tasks, equipment, data and other

resources required to produce and move products from a vendor to a
customer.

Select one:

a. ERP software
b. Mobile ERP

c. Information Technology

d. Supply Chain

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It touches every facet of a modern enterprise, from customer service to

operations, to social media, and to security.

Select one:

a. Mobile ERP

b. Information Technology

c. Supply Chain

d. ERP software

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Having ____________________________ about a business’s operations is a

powerful feature of enterprise systems.
Select one:

a. Real-time Access to Information

b. Secure Customer Data

c. Standardized Process

d. Reduce the Cost of Doing Business

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This is one benefits of enterprise systems where a company will have

more of its budget free to increase customer service capabilities or
invest in other assets that can improve the customer experience.

Select one:

a.
Reduce the Cost of Doing Business

b. Secure Customer Data

c. Standardized Process

d. Store Business Data in a Usable Format

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ASSIGNMENT #3

Which of these are rules for increasing and decreasing accounts?

Select one:

a. Both of the given choices are correct

b. Asset accounts normally have debit balances and are increased by

debits.

c. Liability accounts normally have credit balances and are decreased

by credits.

d. No correct answer

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All of these are current assets EXCEPT _________________

Select one:

a. Notes receivable

b. Cash

c. Property

d. Prepaid expenses

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At the end of a financial period, all expense and revenue accounts are
closed to a summarizing account.
Select one:

a. Credit Balances

b. Income Summary

c. Balance Sheet

d. Income Statement

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What are the categories of the accounting professions?

Select one:

a. Both private and public accounting

b. No correct answer

c. Public accounting

d. Private accounting

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It is composed of capital stock and retained earnings.

Select one:

a. No correct answer
b. Capital stock

c. Retained Earnings Statements

d. Shareholder's equity

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Represents the initial investment of the shareholders.

Select one:

a. Shareholder's equity

b. Capital stock

c. Retained Earnings Statements

d. No correct answer

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What are the basic elements of the accounting equation?

Select one:

a. All of the given choices are correct

b. Asset's liabilities, owner's equity

c. No correct answer
d. Bookkeeping, balance, income

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Which of these are business entities?

Select one:

a. All of the given choices are correct

b. Sole proprietorship

c. Corporations

d. Partnership

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It is usually called the owner's equity statement.

Select one:

a. Retained Earnings Statements

b. No correct answer

c. Shareholder's equity

d. Capital stock

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All of these are fixed assets EXCEPT _________________

Select one:

a. Investments

b. Accounts receivable

c. Trademarks

d. Patents

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SHORT QUIZ 3

The systematic and comprehensive recording of financial transactions

pertaining to a business, and it refers to the process of summarizing,
analyzing and reporting these transactions to oversight agencies and
tax collection entities.

Select one:

a. Accounting

b. Public Accountants

c. Income Statement
d. Balance Sheet

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Practice as individuals or as members of an accounting firm and are

subject to strict government regulations and requirements, which are
determined by each individual state where a license is granted.

Select one:

a. Accounting

b. Public Accountants

c. Balance Sheet

d. Income Statement

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This is the accounting equation for a sole proprietorship.

Select one:

a. Assets = Liablilites + Owners Equity

b. Assets = Liablilites x Owners Equity

c. Liablilites = Assets x Owners Equity

d. Liablilites = Assets + Owners Equity

 Check

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Begins with the analysis of all transactions and recording them in the
journal.

Select one:

a. Accounting Cycle

b. Accounts Receivable

c. Statement of owner's equity

d. Accounts Payable

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This can be in accounting procedure or to balance individual accounts

for various reasons.
Select one:

a. Accounting Period

b. Accounts Receivable

c. Reconciliations

d. Accounts Payable
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These fall under liabilities EXCEPT _______________.

Select one:

a. Accounts payable

b. Loans payable

c. Income taxes payable

d. Property

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Presents the changes, which have taken place in owner's equity over
the period.

Select one:

a. Accounts Receivable

b. Accounts Payable

c. Accounting Cycle

d. Statement of owner's equity

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Lists all assets, liabilities, and owner's equity balances as of the last
day of the financial period.

Select one:

a. Accounting

b. Public Accountants

c. Income Statement

d. Balance Sheet

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Reports the amounts invested into the company by the owners plus
the cumulative net income of the company that has not been
withdrawn or distributed to the owners.
Select one:

a. Owner’s equity

b. Notes receivable

c. Assets

d. Accounts payable

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SHORT QUIZ 4

Means that every transaction affects at least two accounts.

Select one:

a. Financial Accounting Standards Board

b. Government Accounting Standards Board

c. Statement of Cash Flows

d. Double-entry

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All of these are included in the balance sheet EXCEPT

Select one:

a. Liabilities

b. Stockholder’s equity

c. Expenses

d. Assets

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Explains the change in a company's cash (and cash equivalents) during

the time interval indicated in the heading of the statement.

Select one:

a. Managerial/Management Accounting

b. Statement of Cash Flows

c. Statement of Stockholder's Equity

d. Financial Accounting

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Lists the changes in stockholders' equity for the same period as the
income statement and the cash flow statement.

Select one:

a. Managerial/Management Accounting

b. Statement of Stockholder's Equity

c. Statement of Cash Flows

d. Financial Accounting

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The other term for Income Statement.

Select one:

a. Statement of financial position

b. Cash flow statement

c. Statement of owner’s equity

d. Profit or loss statement

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Provides financial information to a company's management.

Select one:

a. Managerial/Management Accounting

b. Expenses

c. Financial Accounting

d. Revenues

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All of these are under revenues EXCEPT:

Select one:

a. Interest revenue

b. Sales

c. Service revenues

d. Cost of goods sold

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Include the cost of goods sold, operating expenses, and non-operating

expenses.

Select one:

a. Financial Accounting

b. Revenues

c. Stockholder's Equity

d. Expenses

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A specialized branch of accounting that keeps track of a company's
financial transactions.

Select one:

a. Revenues

b. Financial Accounting

c. Managerial/Management Accounting

d. Expenses

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The difference between the amount of assets and the amount of

liabilities.

Select one:

a. Stockholder's Equity

b. Expenses

c. Revenues

d. Financial Accounting

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LONG QUIZ 1
The accounting equation for a corporation is:
Select one:

a. Assets = Liablilites -Stockholder’s Equity

b. Liablilites = Assets x Stockholder’s Equity

c. Liablilites= Assets + Stockholder’s Equity

d. Assets = Liablilites + Stockholder’s Equity

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Identify this component of BPMN notation:

Select one:

a. Sub-process

b. Task

c. Connectors

d. Gateways

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The accounting equation for a corporation is:

Select one:

a. Assets = Liablilites -Stockholder’s Equity

b. Liablilites = Assets x Stockholder’s Equity

c. Liablilites= Assets + Stockholder’s Equity

d. Assets = Liablilites + Stockholder’s Equity

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All of these are under expenses EXCEPT:

Select one:

a. Cost of goods sold

b. Sales

c. Utilities

d. Advertising

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An account with no normal balance usually is an indication of an

________
Select one:

a. None of these

b. Error

c. Under balance

d. Over balance

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Involves the creation of a unique subsystem that is meant to be the

single interface between all other subsystems, ensuring that there is
only one interface between any subsystem and any may be replaced
with another without affecting the others by using very different data
and interfaces.

Select one:

a. Protocols

b. Application Software

c. System Integration Design

d. Horizontal Integration

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Consultative, Objective and Bi-functional Risk Analysis

Select one:

a. OCTAVE

b. COBRA

c. NIST

d. FRAP

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All of these are included in the balance sheet EXCEPT:

Select one:

a. Expenses

b. Liabilities

c. Stockholder’s equity

d. Assets

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The architecture of a software system represents an overall vision of

what it should do and how it should do it.

Select one:

a. Hardware Architecture

b. Feasibility Analysis

c. Network Adapter

d. Conceptual Integrity

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The unauthorized or accidental release of classified, personal, or

sensitive information

Select one:

a. Handware Architecture

b. Qualitative Risk Assessment

c. Vulnerability

d. Accidental Disclosure

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These fall under liabilities EXCEPT _______________.

Select one:

a. Accounts payable

b. Property

c. Income taxes payable

d. Loans payable

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Assume that there is already a great degree of uncertainty in the

likelihood and impact values and defines them, and thus risk, in
somewhat subjective or qualitative terms.

Select one:

a. Qualitative Risk Assessment

b. Vulnerability

c. Accidental Disclosure

d. Handware Architecture

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It is a model in which automation logic is decomposed into smaller,

distinct units of logic.
Select one:

a. Petri-nets

b. Business Activity Monitoring

c. Open Architecure

d. Service-Oriented Architecture

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The process of understanding the environment in which a proposed

system or systems will operate and determining the requirements for
the system.

Select one:

a. Enterprise Architecture

b. Architectural Analysis

c. System Integration

d. Information Systems Hardware

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Helps the system avoid having the adapter convert to and from every
application format.

Select one:

a. Star Integration

b. Enterprise Architecture

c. Common Data Format

d. Vertical Integration

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Each subsystem is connected to multiple subsystems, so that the

diagrams of the interconnections look like a star.

Select one:

a. Enterprise Architecture

b. Vertical Integration

c. Star Integration

d. Common Data Format

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Accesses the physical media that link computers, receives packets

from network software, and transmits instructions and requests to
other computers.

Select one:

a. Network Adapter

b. Feasibility Analysis

c. Conceptual Integrity

d. Hardware Architecture

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Consists of computer programs that interface with network users and

permit the sharing of information, such as files, graphics, and video,
and resources, such as printers and disks.

Select one:

a. Protocols

b. Horizontal Integration

c. System Integration Design

d. Application Software

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A well-defined practice for conducting enterprise analysis, design,

planning, and implementation, using a comprehensive approach at all
times, for the successful development and execution of strategy.

Select one:

a. Architectural Analysis

b. Enterprise Architecture

c. Information Systems Hardware

d. System Integration

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Having ____________________________ about a business’s operations is a

powerful feature of enterprise systems.
Select one:

a. Real-time Access to Information

b. Secure Customer Data

c. Reduce the Cost of Doing Business

d. Standardized Process
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Single Loss Expectancy

Select one:

a. SEI

b. SLE

c. ARO

d. POAM

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The potential harm that may arise from some current process or from
some future event.

Select one:

a. Risk

b. IT Security Risk

c. Enterprise Architecture

d. System Architecture

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Software Engineering Institute

Select one:

a. SLE

b. POAM

c. ARO

d. SEI

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The harm to a process or the related information resulting from some

purposeful or accidental event that negatively affects the process or
the related information.

Select one:

a. Risk

b. System Architecture

c. Enterprise Architecture

d. IT Security Risk
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Includes complete analysis of the system integration project based on

the intense research to support the decision making process.

Select one:

a. Feasibility Analysis

b. Network Adapter

c. Hardware Architecture

d. Conceptual Integrity

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The other term for Income Statement.

Select one:

a. Profit or loss statement

b. Statement of financial position

c. Cash flow statement

d. Statement of owner’s equity

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A discipline for proactively and holistically leading enterprise responses

to disruptive forces by identifying and analyzing the execution of
change toward desired business vision and outcomes.

Select one:

a. Enterprise Architecture

b. IT Security Risk

c. System Architecture

d. Risk

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Consists not only of the computers used in an organization but also of

networking hardware.

Select one:

a. Architectural Analysis

b. Information Systems Hardware

c. Enterprise Architecture

d. System Integration
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The ability to streamline the supply chain means that the products are
delivered to customers more reliably, and at a lower cost.
Select one:

a. Improve Supply Chain Management

b. Standardized Process

c. Eensure Regulatory Compliance

d. Store Business Data in a Usable Format

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ASSIGNMENT #5

Not only does this make the information more impressive,

comprehensive and intelligible butare highly useful for planning and
forecasting.

Select one:

a. Inventory Control
b. Forecasting

c. Statiscal tool

d. Budgeting

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Statistical tools are highly useful for planning and forecasting.

Select one:

True

False

Check

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To install the management accounting system, this is required in the

traditional accounting practices and organizational set up.
Select one:

a. Keep

b. Changes

c. Both changes and keep

d. No correct answer
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Which of these are roles of Management Accounting?

Select one:

a. All of the given choices are correct

b. helps in interpretation of financial information.

c. helps in coordinating operations.

d. helps in controlling performance.

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This scope of management accounting is when the control aspect is

based on financial data and performance evaluation, on recorded facts.
Select one:

a. Cost accounting

b. Forecasting

c. Financial accounting

d. Budgeting

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Management Accounting is based on

Select one:

a. Past performance

b. Current and future trends

c. No correct answer

d. Past performance and current and future trends

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Limitation in management accounting where it is still in a development

stage and has not yet reached a final stage.
Select one:

a. Early Stage

b. Middle Stage

c. Revolutionary Stage

d. Evolutionary Stage

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Which of these are limitations of Management Accounting?

Select one:

a. It is only a tool

b. Lack of Knowledge

c. Psychological Resistance

d. All of the answers are correct

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What's the main difference between Financial and Management

Accounting.
Select one:

a. No correct answer

b. Merits and Limitations

c. Both of the given choices are correct

d. Management accounting is presented internally, whereas financial

accounting is meant for external stakeholders.

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This includes maintenance of proper data processing and other office

management services.
Select one:

a. Internal Audit and Tax Accounting

b. Methods of Procedures

c. Interpretation of Data

d. Reporting to Management

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SHORT QUIZ 5
The use of management accounting requires the knowledge of number
of related subjects
Select one:

a. Management Accounting is only a Tool

b. Evolutionary Stage

c. Intensive Decisions

d. Lack of Knowledge
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A prediction of what will happen because of a given set of

circumstances.

Select one:

a. Stakeholder

b. Inventory

c. Audit

d. Forecasting

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Expressing the plans, policies and goals of the firm for a definite period
in future.

Select one:

a. Inventory

b. Forecasting

c. Budgeting

d. Audit
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Decision taking based on management accounting that provide

scientific analysis of various situations will be time consuming one.
Select one:

a. Intensive Decisions

b. Lack of Knowledge

c. Evolutionary Stage

d. Psychological Resistance

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Emphasizes the preparation and analysis of accounting information

within the organization.

Select one:

a. Cost Accounting

b. Management Accounting

c. Allocation of Costs

d. Budgeting

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The process and techniques of ascertaining cost.

Select one:

a. Cost Accounting

b. Budgeting

c. Management Accounting

d. Allocation of Costs

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Management is able to know deviations in performance through this.

Select one:

a. Interpreting the accounting data to the authorities in the

management

b. Stakeholder

c. Audit

d. Internal Audit

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A party that has an interest in a company, and can either affect or be

affected by the business.

Select one:

a. Stakeholder

b. Interpreting the accounting data to the authorities in the

management

c. Forecasting

d. Internal Audit

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The principal task of management accounting.

Select one:

a. Audit

b. Stakeholder

c. Interpreting the accounting data to the authorities in the

management

d. Internal Audit

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The interpretation of financial information may differ from person to

person depending upon the capability of the interpreter.
Select one:

a. Psychological resistance

b. Personal Prejudices and Bias

c. Evolutionary Stage

d. Management Accounting is Only a Tool

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assignment #6
What is the final step in the procurement cycle?
Select one:

a. Source options

b. Price and terms

c. Award of the product or contract

d. Need recognition
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What are the objectives of a procurement process template?

Select one:

a. No correct answer

b. Save you time

c. Both of the given choices are correct

d. Ensure you pay the right price

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Which documents must match when invoice requests payment?

Select one:

a. Receiving document

b. All of the answers are correct

c. Invoice

d. Original Purchase Order

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In the case of audits, the company must maintain proper records.

These include purchase records to verify any tax information and
purchase orders to confirm warranty information.

Select one:

a. Receipt and Inspection of Purchases

b. Record Maintenance

c. Expediting

d. Invoice Approval and Payment

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How many steps does the SRM method have?

Select one:

a. Seven

b. Six

c. Five

d. Four

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This step of procurement cycle comes after expediting.

Select one:

a. Purchase Order

b. Record Maintenance

c. Invoice Approval and Payment

d. Receipt and Inspection of Purchases

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It cannot be a negotiating point in the second instance of negotiations

because the selection was price-based.
Select one:

a. Price

b. None of the choices

c. Both Price and Financial Offer

d. Financial offer

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After supplier segmentation, what process of Supplier Relations

Management comes next?
Select one:

a. Evaluation

b. Relationship analysis

c. Relationship management

d. Supplier identification

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What is the first step in Supplier Relationship Management?

Select one:

a. Supplier Segmentation

b. Relationship Management

c. Relationship Analysis

d. Supplier identification

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In Procurement, the key thing to remember is to:

Select one:

a. Follow a generic framework

b. No correct answer

c. Adapt the process to fit the project

d. Every step of a formal process is required

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short quiz 6
The company must sort out and identify all its suppliers, to whom they
paid invoices over a certain period.

Select one:

a. Expedite

b. Negotiation

c. Price negotiations

d. Supplier Identification
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Follows specific steps for identifying a requirement or need of the

company through the final step of the award of the product or contract.

Select one:

a. Supplier Relationship Management

b. Procurement

c. Procurement Strategy

d. Procurement Cycle

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Previous page

Helps to find those suppliers that are capable of contributing to the

business strategy.

Select one:

a. Price negotiations

b. Purchase Order
c. Expedite

d. Supplier Segmentation

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Should be kept to a minimum and should only take place if the

financial offer is considered unreasonable based on documentary
and/or historical evidence.

Select one:

a. Supplier Segmentation

b. Negotiation

c. Price negotiations

d. Purchase Order

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It specifically defines the price, specifications and terms and conditions

of the product or service and any additional obligations.

Select one:

a. Purchase Order
b. Price negotiations

c. Negotiation

d. Supplier Segmentation

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Discussion aimed at reaching an agreement.

Select one:

a. Supplier Segmentation

b. Negotiation

c. Purchase Order

d. Price negotiations

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The planned approach of cost-effectively purchasing a company's

required supplies, taking into consideration several elements and
factors such as the timeline for procurement, the funding and budget,
the projected risks and opportunities, among others.

Select one:

a. Supplier Relationship Management

b. Procurement Cycle

c. Procurement Strategy

d. Procurement

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A strategic and segmented approach, executed on the entire supply

base, to maximize value and minimize risks.

Select one:

a. Procurement Strategy

b. Procurement Cycle

c. Supplier Relationship Management

d. Procurement

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This step of procurement cycle comes after need recognition.

Select one:

a. Price and terms

b. Source options
c. Delivery

d. Specific need

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The acquisition of the materials, supplies, services, etc. that a

company or project requires in order to successfully operate.

Select one:

a. Procurement

b. Procurement Cycle

c. Supplier Relationship Management

d. Procurement Strategy

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ASSIGNMENT #7
One of the ways companies judge the efficiency of their order fulfillment
processes is by looking at this.

Select one:

a. Order is received

b. Order is sent

c. Order is picked

d. Perfect Order Metric

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Many companies use fulfillment as a way to stand out from their competitors
and a greater demand for specialty fulfillment services has led to a change in
the fulfillment center industry.
Select one:

True

False

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What step of order fulfillment process comes next after maintaining

inventory?
Select one:

a. Confirming pricing

b. Sourcing the order

c. Determining which carrier will be used to ship the item.

d. Responding to a sales order to determine availability and location in

inventory.

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Which of these are strategies to speed up your order fulfillment process?

Select one:

a. Automate processes

b. Integrate systems for more visibility into all aspects of order fulfillment

c. All of the answers are correct

d. Classify your inventory to ensure rapid handling

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Order fulfillment is all about meeting customer's

Select one:

a. Wants

b. Needs

c. Expectations

d. Demands

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What is the first step in Order Fulfillment?

Select one:

a. Updating Inventory

b. Confirming Pricing

c. Maintaining Inventory

d. Sourcing the Order

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What is the final step in Order Fulfillment?

Select one:
a. Updating Inventory

b. Confirming Pricing

c. Maintaining Inventory

d. Sourcing the Order

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After invoicing or billing the customer, the seller will _________________

Select one:

a. Determining which carrier will be used to ship the item

b. Determine the shipping address where the item will be sent

c. Acknowledging and confirming the order is booked.

d. Confirming pricing

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What step of order fulfillment process comes next after sourcing the order?
Select one:

a. Determining which carrier will be used to ship the item

b. Responding to a sales order to determine availability and location in
inventory

c. Acknowledging and confirming the order is booked

d. Configuring the order

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In Smart Inventory Handling, even the slightest of changes in stock levels

need to be updated.
Select one:

a. Demand Forecasting

b. No correct answer

c. Stock Level Accuracy

d. Space Allocation

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SHORT QUIZ #7
Involves knowing in advance what demand for a product will be, as well as
demand shaping, or a company's efforts to try to generate demand, like
marketing and promotions.

Select one:

a. Warehouse Monitoring

b. Warehouse Transfe

c. Demand Planning

d. Order Fulfillment

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When your business receives an order from a customer, your company

passes it on to the fulfillment center, usually online-invoices can be emailed
or organized into spreadsheets, which are automatically sent on.

Select one:

a. Order Fulfillment Process

b. Order Fulfillment

c. Demand Planning

d. Order Processing

Check
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After order configuration, what is the next step being done?

Select one:

a. Invoicing/billing the customer

b. Sourcing the order

c. Booking the order

d. Determining the shipping address

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There are few stages an order must pass through that involves software
systems and physical systems.
Select one:

True

False

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This is the next step of order fulfillment process after confirming pricing.
Select one:

a. Determining the shipping address

b. Configuring the order (if there is more than one piece or product)

c. Maintaining inventory

d. Acknowledging and confirming the order is booked

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Previous page

One that is on time, complete, and undamaged, along with the correct
paperwork to accompany it.

Select one:

a. Demand Planning

b. Perfect Order Metric

c. Demand Forecasting

d. Order Fulfillment Process

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Refers to all the steps companies must take from the moment they receive
an order until the items land in customers' hands.

Select one:

a. Order Processing

b. Order Fulfillment Process

c. Order Fulfillment

d. Demand Planning

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The detailed coordination of a complex operation involving many people,

facilities, or supplies.

Select one:

a. Order Fulfillment

b. Warehouse Transfer

c. Inventory

d. Logistics

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Re-photograph warehouse using user activity log to avoid mistakes if any.

Select one:

a. Warehouse Monitoring

b. Logistics

c. Warehouse Transfer

d. Order Fulfillment

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Transfer stocks between warehouses on a requirement basis and be

available all the time.

Select one:

a. Warehouse Monitoring

b. Order Fulfillment

c. Logistics

d. Warehouse Transfer

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ASSIGNMENT #8

~The lifecycle of an order fulfillment process ends

Select one:

a. No correct answer

b. Inventory

c. When an order is placed

d. When the shipment is made

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In processing orders, this helps in bettering your order fulfillment process.

Select one:

a. Flexibility & Analysis

b. No correct answer

c. Analysis

d. Flexibility

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Businesses should also look at how the processes themselves can be sped
up.
Select one:

a. Automate processes

b. Integrate systems for more visibility into all aspects of order fulfillment

c. Classify your inventory to ensure rapid handling

d. None of the choices

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To ensure rapid handling, you need to

Select one:

a. Classify your inventory & Automate processes

b. Classify your inventory

c. No correct answer

d. Automate processes

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The lifecycle of an order fulfillment process begins

Select one:

a. When the shipment is made

b. No correct answer

c. Inventory

d. When an order is placed

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Stock levels have to be up-to-date no matter how they have been used.
Select one:

True
 False

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Some customers in Rolan’s Online Store buy clothes in singles or in bulk.He

processes the orders as they come in to the e-commerce site.This
flexible order process is called ___________
Select one:

a. None of the choices

b. Order Editing

c. Multiple Shipping

d. Partial Order Processing

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Mr. John assigned an area in the JLC warehouse where the most
popular items can be picked, packed and delivered to the shipping dock in
a minimal amount of time.What process in speeding the order
fulfillment process that he did?
Select one:

a. Integrate systems for more visibility into all aspects of order fulfillment
b. Classify your inventory to ensure rapid handling

c. None of the choices

d. Automate processes

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Seasonal sales analysis doesn’t help for better order fulfillment.

Select one:

True

False

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It directly influences the brand's image and trust.

Select one:

a. Order Editing

b. Order Fulfillment

c. Seasonal Sales

d. Demand Forecasting
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SHORT QUIZ 8

A single or any selected number of products can be billed, invoiced can

be raised, shipped and delivered based on your customer’s preference.
Select one:

True

False

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Capable of bending easily without breaking.

Select one:

a. Prowess

b. Order management software

c. Flexible
d. Order Editing

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Forecasting customer demands for each sales channels will help reducing
dead stock. Know your customer behavior and be prepared for demands at
any given time.

Select one:

a. Flexible

b. Demand Forecasting

c. Prowess

d. Seasonal Sales

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A single or any selected number of products can be billed, invoiced can be

raised, shipped and delivered based on your customer's preference.

Select one:

a. Space Allocation

b. Stock level accuracy

c. Multiple Shipping

d. Partial Order Processing

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This order handling falls under demand forecasting.

Select one:

a. Segregating stocks based on sales channels

b. Knowing customer behavior

c. None of the choices

d. Updating inventory

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Once you know which sales channels demands the most, you can start
adjusting the stock numbers according to it. Try segregating stocks based on
sales channels so that you do not say no to customers coming from any of
your sales channel.

Select one:

a. Space Allocation
b. Stock level accuracy

c. Multiple Shipping

d. Partial Order Processing

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This can go beyond consumer-based order reporting and help in knowing

your sales highs and lows based on time.

Select one:

a. Flexible

b. Prowess

c. Order Editing

d. Order management software

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This order handing falls under stock level accuracy.

Select one:

a. None of the choices

b. Updating inventory for updates

c. Knowing customer behavior

d. Segregating stocks based on sales channels

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To accommodate the new requirements, be it increase in product number or

cancellation or decrease in a quantity, you will need an order management
system that provides the liberty of editing orders at any point of time.

Select one:

a. Order management software

b. Flexible

c. Order Editing

d. Prowess

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This activity falls under space allocation

Select one:

a. None of the choices

b. Knowing customer behavior

c. Segregating stocks based on sales channels

d. Updating inventory

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Assignment #9

Which of these is a type of a production process?

Select one:

a. Batch

b. Mass

c. All of the above

d. Job-shop

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It is one of the limitations of batch production.

Select one:

a. Lower investment in plant and machinery.

b. Work in process inventory is higher compared to continuous production.

c. Job satisfaction exists for operators.

d. Flexibility to accommodate and process number of products.

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It is a characteristic of a job-shop production

Select one:

a. The Cost is higher due to frequent set up changes.

b. Higher level of inventory at all levels and hence higher inventory cost.

c. Production planning is complicated.

d. Highly skilled operators who can take up each job as a challenge because
of uniqueness.

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All of these are characteristics of Continuous production EXCEPT:

Select one:

a. Standardization of product and process sequence.

b. Planning and scheduling is a routine action.

c. Material handling is fully automated.

d. Dedicated plant and equipment with zero flexibility.

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Which of the following is an advantage of Continuous Production?

Select one:

a. Product differentiation is limited.

b. Very high investment for setting flow lines.

c. Flexibility to accommodate and process number of products does not exist.

d. Higher capacity utilization due to line balancing.

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It is a characteristic of a batch production.

Select one:

a. Flexibility to accommodate and process number of products.

b. Manufacturing lead-time and cost are lower as compared to job order

production.

c. Production planning and control is complex.

d. Lower investment in plant and machinery.

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This is an advantage of mass production.

Select one:

a. Person with limited skills can be used on the production line.

b. It has a shorter production runs.

c. Full potential of operators can be utilized.

d. Better utilization of plant and machinery.

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Which of these is a characteristic of Continuous Production?
Select one:

a. It has a shorter production runs.

b. Perfectly balanced production lines.

c. Planning and scheduling is a routine action.

d. It has a shorter production runs.

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It is a characteristic of Mass Production.

Select one:

a. Higher capacity utilization due to line balancing.

b. Higher rate of production with reduced cycle time.

c. Production planning and control is easy.

d. The cycle time is determined by the slowest operation.

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All of these are limitations of mass production EXCEPT:

Select one:

a. Higher rate of production with reduced cycle time.

b. High investment in production facilities.

c. The cycle time is determined by the slowest operation.

d. Breakdown of one machine will stop an entire production line.

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SHORT QUIZ 9
The processes and methods used to transform tangible and intangible inputs
into goods or services.

Select one:

a. Job Shop

b. Continuous Production

c. Production
d. Mass Production

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Breakdown of one machine will stop an entire production line is a limitation

of ________________________.
Select one:

a. Continuous production

b. Batch production

c. Job shop production

d. Mass production

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Higher rate of production with reduced cycle timeis an advantage of

___________________
Select one:

a. Continuous production

b. Mass production

c. Job shop production

d. Batch production

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This production system is justified by very large volume of production.

Select one:

a. Job Shop

b. Production

c. Mass Production

d. Continuous Production

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Essential for sequencing the requirements of each product, capacities for

each work center and order priorities.

Select one:

a. Manpower

b. Job Shop
c. Mass Production

d. Detailed Planning

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Comprises of general-purpose machines arranged into different

departments.

Select one:

a. Detailed Planning

b. Continuous Production

c. Job Shop

d. Mass Production

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A form of manufacturing in which the job passes through the functional

departments in lots or batches and each lot may have a different routing.

Select one:
a. Production System

b. Resources

c. Batch Production

d. Job Shop Production

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Used in the Production process to create an output that is suitable for use or
has exchange value.

Select one:

a. Job Shop Production

b. Resources

c. Batch Production

d. Production System

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In this production, the advantage of this one is the cost per unit is lower as
compared to job order production.
Select one:

a. Continuous production

b. Mass production

c. Batch production

d. Job shop production

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When facilities are arranged as per the sequence of production operations

from the first operations to the finished product.
Select one:

a. Production

b. Mass Production

c. Continuous Production

d. No correct answer

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ASSIGNMENT #10

These are well-known methods to find order quantities EXCEPT:

Select one:

a. Dynamic lot-sizing

b. Silver–Meal heuristic

c. Bronze-Meal heuristic

d. Least-Unit-Cost heuristic

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A system designed to centralize, integrate and process information for

effective decision making in scheduling, design engineering, inventory
management and cost control in manufacturing.

Select one:

a. Master Production Schedule

b. Manufacturing Resource Planning

c. Time Fence

d. Demand Driven MRP

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Which of these are well-known methods to find order quantities?

Select one:

a. Least-Unit-Cost heuristic

b. Silver-Meal heuristic

c. Dynamic lot-sizing

d. All of the given choices are correct

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It is that point in time inside of which the forecast is no longer included in

total demand and projected available inventory calculations: inside this point,
only customer orders are considered.
Select one:

a. Liquid Zone

b. Slushy Zone
c. None of the given choices are correct

d. Frozen Zone

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What are the basic functions of an MRP system?

Select one:

a. Inventory control

b. Elementary scheduling

c. Both of the given choices are correct

d. None of the given choices are correct

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This is an area for tradeoffs that must be negotiated between marketing and
manufacturing.
Select one:

a. Liquid Zone

b. None of the given choices are correct

c. Both of the given choices are correct

d. Slushy Zone

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Any change can be made to the MPS as long as it is within the limits set by
the PP. Changes does the computer program make routine and are often.
Select one:

a. Liquid Zone

b. None of the choices

c. Time Fence

d. Frozen zone

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MRP can be only applied both to items that are purchased from outside
suppliers.
Select one:

True

False
 Check

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Which of these are outputs and variety or messages/reports?

Select one:

a. Both of the given choices are correct

b. Recommended Production Schedule

c. None of the given choices are correct

d. Recommended Purchasing Schedule

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An order that is frozen in quantity and time.

Select one:

a. Master Production Schedule

b. Time Fence

c. Firm Order

d. None of the given choices

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SHORT QUIZ 10

A policy or guideline established to note where various restrictions or

changes in operating procedures take place.

Select one:

a. Time Fence

b. Release Time Fence

-Demand Driven Planning

c. Master Production Schedule

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A schedule of the completions of the end items and these completions are
very much planned in nature. Master production schedule acts as a very
distinct and important linkage between the planning processes.

Select one:
a. Master Production Schedule

b. Time Fence

c. Release Time Fence

-Demand Driven Planning

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This solution to data integrity issues is to find the root cause and correct
the problem from occurring again.
Select one:

a. Receiving errors

b. Scrap reporting

c. Bill of material

d. Cycle count

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An order to a supplier to provide materials.

Select one:

a. Delivery orders
b. Purchase orders

c. Reschedule notices

d. Shipping orders

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Takes advantage of the sheer computational power of today's hardware and

software.

Select one:

a. Time Fence

b. Demand Driven Planning

c. Release Time Fence

d. Master Production Schedule

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These recommend cancelling, increasing, delaying or speeding up existing

orders.
Select one:

a. Purchase orders
b. Reschedule notices

c. Shipping orders

d. Delivery orders

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Specifies the relationship between the product and the components.

Select one:

a. Dependent Demand

b. Bill of Materials

c. Materials Requirements Planning

d. Independent Demand

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This one output lays out both the dates on which the purchased items should
be received into the facility and the dates on which the purchase orders or
blanket order release should occur in order to match the production
schedules.
Select one:

a. Recommended Purchasing Schedule

b. Recommended Production Schedule

c. Recommended Shipping Schedule

d. Recommended Delivery Schedule

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Allow the company to adapt buffers to group and individual part trait
changes over time through the use of several types of adjustments.

Select one:

a. Demand Driven Planning

b. Demand driven MRP

c. Master Production Schedule

d. Dynamic Buffer Levels

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Previous page
Used to allow automatic release of orders falling within this planning horizon.

Select one:

a. Time Fence

b. Release Time Fence

c. Master Production Schedule

d. Demand Driven Planning

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ASSIGNMENT 11

Which of these do you need to consider when determining the need for a
warehouse?
Select one:

a. to enhance the speed of the response

b. an area for sorting and consolidating different goods

c. all of the given choices are correct

d. to protect and account for inventor

 Check

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Which of these are key work activities for the warehouse operation?
Select one:

a. Picking

b. Storage

c. All of the given choices are correct

d. Good receipt

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There is a range of factors to consider when deciding on the location of a

new warehouse facility EXCEPT:
Select one:

a. proximity to ports of entry and beneficiaries

b. none of the choices

c. Land size available

d. Site condition
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Which of these do you need to consider when selecting a warehouse?

Select one:

a. number of loading docks required

b. access and parking for vehicles as well as the number of loading docks
required

c. no correct answer

d. access and parking for vehicles

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What are the types of relief items that require special storage needs?
Select one:

a. Antibiotics and vaccines

b. All of the given choices are correct

c. Medical supplies and drug shipments

d. Hazardous products
 Check

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SKU means _______________________

Select one:

a. Stock keeping units

b. Stock keeping uniform

c. Shipping key units

d. Stock key units

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Which of these warehouses are common in emergencies?

Select one:

a. No correct answer

b. Both State and Pre-fabricated warehouses

c. Government or state

d. Pre-fabricated warehouses

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Types of warehouse space for temporary storage of goods destined for

different locations and need storage for a very short time.

Select one:

a. Government or state

b. Transit

c. Open storage

d. Commercial

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This type of warehouses where there are no permanent structures available.

Select one:

a. Commercial

b. Transit

c. Pre-fabricated

d. Open storage
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SHORT QUIZ 11
This is one of the two method of inventory control applicable to emergencies.
Select one:

a. Reduce level policy

b. Reorder levelpolicy

c. Reuse level policy

d. Rename level policy

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They are usually purpose built or purpose designed facilities operated by

permanent staff that has been trained in all the skills necessary to run an
efficient facility or utilizing third party logistics (3PL) staff and facilities.

Select one:

a. Global Warehouses

b. Warehouse

c. Inventory Management
d. Field Warehouses

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They may be housed in buildings, which was not designed to be used as a

warehouse, in a temporary building/structures, and are often in mobile units
that are little more than a tent in a field.

Select one:

a. Warehouse equipment

b. Field Warehouses

c. Inventory Management

d. Procedures Document

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Responsible for monitoring the movement of goods as they are transported

from the supplier and for the control of stock movement in the warehouse
facility.

Select one:
a. Policies

b. Bonded warehouses

c. Maintenance Activities

d. Warehouse/Inventory Manager

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Consist of inspections, regular servicing and monitoring performance for

failure trends, as this will enable symptoms to be recognized before failure
occurs.

Select one:

a. Maintenance Activities

b. Field Warehouses

c. Policies

d. Inventory Management

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To facilitate and account for movement of stocks the following documents

could be used:
Select one:

a. All of the choices

b. Goods received notes

c. Stock card

d. Delivery notes

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Maintained to prevent accidents and breakdowns from occurring.

Select one:

a. Warehouse equipment

b. Inventory Management

c. Maintenance Activities

d. Field Warehouses

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This is one of the two method of inventory control applicable to emergencies.

Select one:
a. Reduce level policy

b. Reorder cycle policy

c. Reuse level policy

d. Reuse cycle policy

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Warehouse equipment is maintained to prevent accidents and breakdowns

from occurring.
Select one:

True

False

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Contain hard and fast rules and regulations that define the general conduct
of the warehouse operation.

Select one:

a. Bonded warehouses

b. Inventory Management
c. Policies

d. Maintenance Activities

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