SBI PO Prelims 2019 Memory Based Paper

Direction (1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Six boxes i.e. A, B, C, D, E and F of different colors i.e. Orange, Red, Black, Yellow, Pink and White are
placed one above another but not necessarily in same order. Box C is placed just above the orange
colored box. One box is placed between A and orange colored box. Three boxes are placed between A and
pink colored box. Two boxes are placed between D and E. Red colored box is placed just below A. There
are as many boxes placed above red colored box as below E. E is not Orange colored box. Black colored
box is placed just above yellow colored box. F is placed above B.

Q1. How many boxes are placed above F?

(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) One
(e) None of these

Q2. In which of the following position red colored box is placed?

(a) 2nd from bottom
(b) 1st from bottom
(c) 2nd from top
(d) 1st from top
(e) None of these

Q3. Which of the following box is Yellow colored?

(a) A
(b) C
(c) E
(d) D
(e) None of these

Q4. Which of the following color is box F has?

(a) Orange
(b) Pink
(c) Red
(d) Yellow
(e) None of these

Q5. Four of the following five are alike in certain way based from a
group, find the one which does not belong to that group?
(a) F-Yellow
(b) E-Orange
(c) B-Black
(d) C-Red
(e) D-White
Q6. In some of the following logic TABLE is coded as BUEFM and PRAYS is coded as SQDTZ, following the
same logic MINOR will be coded as
(a) JNQSP
(b) JPNSQ
(c) PNSJQ
(d) PSNQJ
(e) None of the above

Q7. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘PERSUADE’, each of which have as many letters
between then in the word as they have between then in the English alphabet?
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
(e) five

Direction (8-10): Point R is 5m west of point Q. Point P is 16m north of point Q. Point R is 25m south of
point T. Point T is 10m west of point V. Point V is 9 m north of Point J.

Q8. Point J is at how much distance and in which direction with respect to point P?
(a) 10m, South-east
(b) 5m, South
(c) 5m, East
(d) 10, North-west
(e) 5m, West

Q9. If point W is west of point J and north of point R, then what is the distance between T and W?
(a) 15m
(b) 9m
(c) 12m
(d) 10m
(e) 5m

Q10. What is the direction of Point V with respect to Point R?

(a) north
(b) south-west
(c) north-east
(d) south
(e) north-west
Direction (11-15): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Nine persons are sitting in a row. Some of them are facing North and some are facing South. P sits 2 nd
from one of the extreme ends. Two persons sit between P and R. S sits 3rd to the left of R. U sits 2nd to the
right of S. Immediate neighbors of S faces opposite to S. T sits 2nd to the right of U. W is an immediate
neighbor of T. Persons sitting in an extreme end are facing opposite direction to each other. P sits 2 nd to
the right of T. W and P doesn’t face North. Q sits 2nd to the left of V. X doesn’t face south.

Q11. Who among the following person sits 3rd to the right of U?
(a) P
(b) R
(c) S
(d) T
(e) None of these

Q12. How many persons are sitting between P and S?

(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Five
(d) Four
(e) One

Q13. Who among the following pair of persons are sitting at extreme end?
(a) S-V
(b) V-X
(c) P-W
(d) P-X
(e) None of these

Q14. How many persons are facing South?

(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
(e) None of these

Q15. Four of the following five are alike in certain way based from a group, find the one which does not
belong to that group?
(a) V
(b) Q
(c) W
(d) X
(e) P
Direction (16-18): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

There are six ropes i.e. E, F, G, H, I and J of different lengths. F is longer than E. I is longer than F. I is
shorter than only G. J is longer than F. E is not the shortest rope. The length of 2nd longest rope is 54cm
and 3rd shortest rope is 30cm.

Q16. Which of the following is 3rd longest rope?

(a) I
(b) J
(c) F
(d) E
(e) Can’t be determined

Q17. What may be the possible length of J?

(a) 28cm
(b) 42cm
(c) 25cm
(d) 55cm
(e) 60cm

Q18. Which of the following is 2nd shortest rope?

(a) J
(b) F
(c) E
(d) H
(e) None of these

Direction (19-22): Read the information carefully and answer the following questions:

J is married to C. B and D are the children of C. D is married to daughter of K, who is married to M. K is

mother of R, who is husband of N. H is the grandson of C and K. L is daughter of N. V is only sibling of H. D
has only one daughter.

Q19. How is D related to K?

(a) Son
(b) Wife
(c) Son in law
(d) Daughter
(e) None of these

Q20. If T is daughter of K, then how is T related to D?

(a) Wife
(b) Son in law
(c) Daughter
(d) Husband
(e) None of these
Q21. How is L related to K?
(a) Wife
(b) Granddaughter
(c) Daughter
(d) Son
(e) Grandson

Q22. Who is father of R?

(a) M
(b) D
(c) B
(d) J
(e) C

Q23. Four of the following five are alike in certain way according to English dictionary form a group, find
the one which does not belong to that group?
(a) NLQ
(b) DBG
(c) HFK
(d) TRW
(e) XVY

Direction (24-27): In each of the questions below are given some statements followed by two
conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with
commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
(a) If only conclusion I follows.
(b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.

Q24. Statements: Only a few Chart are Turbine

Only a few Turbine are Pores
Only a few Pores are fan
Conclusions: I. Some fan is chart is a possibility
II. All fan are Turbine

Q25. Statements: All Beaches are Deltas

All Deltas are cushions
No Cushions is wave
Conclusions: I. Some Beaches can be wave
II. No Deltas is Wave
Q26. Statements: Only a few Aces are Club
No club is Jack
Only a few Jack are Diamond
Conclusions: I. Some Diamond are Aces
II. Some Aces are Jack

Q27. Statements: Some Apple are Banana. No Banana is Date

Conclusions:
I. Some Date are not Apple is a possibility
II. All Apple can never be Date

Directions (28-32): Study the information carefully and answer the question given below.

There are ten persons J, P, Q, R, S, T, G, U, V and X living in a ten-floor building, such that ground floor is
numbered as 1, just above the floor is numbered as 2 and so on the topmost floor is numbered as 10, but
not necessary in the same order. P lives on the 5th floor. Only three persons live between P and V. T lives
immediate above J, who lives on an odd numbered floor. S lives on one of the floors below R. Number of
persons lives between J and P is same as number of persons lives between T and R. There is only one
floor in between U and X. W lives on an odd numbered floor. R does not live on top floor. S lives on an odd
numbered floor above X but not on seventh floor. V lives below the floor on which P lives. U lives above
the floor on which X lives. Q lives on an even numbered floor above P but not on top floor.

Q28. How many persons live between W and S?

(a) One
(b) Four
(c) None
(d) Three
(e) More than four

Q29. Who among the following Lives on topmost floor?

(a) V
(b) W
(c) T
(d) S
(e) U

Q30. Four of the following five are alike in certain way based from a group, find the one which does not
belong to that group?
(a) Q
(b) X
(c) U
(d) W
(e) T
Q31. Who among the following lives immediate above Q?
(a) J
(b) W
(c) P
(d) S
(e) V

Q32. Which of the following statement is not true about U?

(a) U lives on 4th floor
(b) Two persons live between U and W
(c) V lives immediate below U
(d) P lives immediate above U
(e) All are true

Direction (33-35): Study the following information carefully and answer the following question.

Six persons are sitting around a triangular table. Persons who are sitting at corner are facing towards the
table and the persons who are sitting at middle of the table are facing outside the table. A sits at one of
the corners of the table. M is an immediate neighbour of A. Two persons sit between M and B. C sits
immediate right of B. N is to the immediate right of O. O does not sit at any of the corner of the table.

Q33. Who sits second to the right of B?

(a) M
(b) A
(c) N
(d) O
(e) C

Q34. Who is sitting between A and N when counted from the right of A?
(a) C
(b) B
(c) O
(d) M
(e) None of these

Q35. Who sits immediate left of N?

(a) M
(b) C
(c) O
(d) B
(e) None of these

7
Q36. Four years hence, sum of ages of A and B will be 16 years more than the sum of present age of B and
C. Four years ago, sum of age of A and C is 32 years then find the present age of C?
(a) 24 years
(b) 20 years
(c) 12 years
(d) 16 years
(e) 18 years

Q37. A person purchased two articles at the same price and on selling the first article he makes a profit of
12%. Selling price of second article is Rs 90 more than the selling price of the first article. Find the cost
price of one article if his overall profit percent is 15%?
(a) Rs 1800
(b) Rs 1500
(c) Rs 2000
(d) Rs 2400
(e) None of these

Q38. Ratio of speed of boat in still water to the speed of current is 10:1. Ratio of time taken by the boat to
cover D km in downstream to the time taken by the boat to cover (D-45) km in upstream is 3:2. Then find
the value of D?
(a) 60 km
(b) 87 km
(c) 99 km
(d) 108 km
(e) 90 km

Q39. A container contains a mixture of milk and water in which water is 24%. 50% of the mixture is
taken out in which water is 78 litre less than the milk. Find the remaining quantity of milk in that
container?
(a) 171 lit
(b) 152 lit
(c) 133 lit
(d) 108 lit
(e) 114 lit

Q40. The perimeter of a triangle is equal to perimeter of a rectangle.

Length of rectangle is 75% of side of a square and ratio of length to
breadth of rectangle is 3 : 2. If difference between perimeter of
square and that of rectangle is 36 cm, then find perimeter of triangle?
(a) 60 cm
(b) 48 cm
(c) 72 cm
(d) 80 cm
(e) 96 cm
Direction (41-45): Given below is the pie chart which shows the number of persons visiting a national
park on different days and table shows the ratio of male to female visiting these parks.

Total Person - 400

Friday, 25%
Sunday, 45%

Saturday, 30%

Days Male : Female

Friday 2:3
Saturday 5:7
Sunday 5:4

Q41. If on Monday number of males who visited national park are increased by 20% over males visiting
1
national park on Saturday and Females visiting national park on Monday is 33 3 % more than females
visiting on Friday then, find the total persons visiting national park on Monday.
(a) 145
(b) 165
(c) 140
(d) 160
(e) 150

Q42. Total females visiting national park on Sunday and Saturday together are what percent more or less
than total male visiting national park on Friday and Sunday together.
1
(a) 33 %
3
2
(b) 14 7 %
2
(c) 16 3 %
1
(d) 14 7 %
1
(e) 7 7 %
Q43. What is the average of males visiting national park on all these days
1
(a) 63 3
2
(b) 65 3
2
(c) 49 3
1
(d) 45 3
2
(e) 66 3

Q44. If cost of ticket per male and per female on any day is Rs 45 and Rs 40 respectively then total
amount obtained by national park on Friday is how much more or less than total amount obtained by
national park on Sunday (in Rs).
(a) 2800
(b) 3500
(c) 3000
(d) 3200
(e) 4200

Q45. What is the ratio of males visiting park on Friday to females visiting park on Saturday
(a) 4 : 5
(b) 7 : 3
(c) 3 : 7
(d) 4 : 7
(e) 7 : 4

Direction (46–50): Solve the given quadratic equations and mark the correct option based on your
answer.
(a) if x>y
(b) if x≥y
(c) if x<y
(d) if x ≤y
(e) if x=y or no relation can be established between x and y.

Q46. I. x2 − 14𝑥 + 45 = 0 II. y2 – 18𝑦 + 72 = 0

Q47. I. x2 + 7𝑥 + 12 = 0 II. y2 +9𝑦 + 20 = 0

Q48. I. 4x2 – 7𝑥 + 3 = 0 II. 7y2− 17y + 6 = 0

Q49. I. 2x2 - 19x + 45 =0 II. 2y2 -9y + 4 = 0

Q50. I. x2 = 144 II. (y +12)2 = 0

Direction(51-55)- Study the bar-graph given below carefully and answer the questions.

Bar-graph given below shows the number of packets of flour sold by five stores of two types i.e.
multigrain and whole-wheat.
100

80

60

40

20
A B C D E
Multigrain Whole-wheat

Q51. Total number of packets sold by store C is approximately what percent more or less than number of
packets sold by store E?
(a) 3%
(b) 5%
(c) 12%
(d) 23%
(e) 17%

Q52. What is the ratio of number of packets sold of multigrain by store A and D together to number of
packets sold of whole-wheat by store A and E together?
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 73 : 58
(c)43 : 41
(d)41 : 23
(e) None of these

Q53. Multigrain packets sold by store A and B together is what percent more or less than Whole-wheat
packets sold by store C and D together?
(a) 25%
(b) 20%
(c) 30%
(d) None of these
(e) 35%
Q54. If another store F sold number of multigrain packets which is average of number of multigrain
packets sold by store C, D and E and number of whole-wheat packets sold is average of number of whole-
wheat packets sold by store A and E. If store B sold each packet at Rs 240 and store F sold each packet at
20% more than that of B then find total price collected by store F?
(a) Rs 24246
(b) Rs 28246
(c) None of these
(d) Rs 36864
(e) Rs 32863

Q55. What is the difference of total number of multigrain packets sold by all store together and number
of whole-wheat packets sold by all store together?
(a) 48
(b) 54
(c) 42
(d) 36
(e) 24

Directions (56-60): What will come in place of (?) in the following number series problems?

Q56. 200, 197, 185, 163, 130, ?

(a) 95
(b) 85
(c) 105
(d) 86
(e) 84

Q57. 15, 8, 9, 15, 32, ?

(a) 98
(b) 66
(c) 80.5
(d) 82.5
(e) 84.5

Q58. 5, 30, 150, 600, ?

(a) 1200
(b) 1500
(c) 2400
(d) 1800
(e) 600
Q59. 222, 110, 54, 26, ?
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 8
(d) 6
(e) 14

Q60. 104, ?, 96, 120, 88, 128

(a) 112
(b) 96
(c) 116
(d) 120
(e) 92

Q61. A invested Rs. X in a scheme. After 6 months, B joined with Rs. 4000 more than that of A. After an
year, ratio of profit of B to the total profit was 3: 7. Find the value of X.
(a) 4000
(b) 8000
(c) 1600
(d) 6000
(e) 10000

Q62. 1500 rupees is invested in a scheme A at R% p.a. simple interest. Another amount (1500 - x) is
invested in scheme B at 2R % p.a. simple interest. After 4 years, interest earned from scheme A is 25%
less than that of scheme B. Find x.
(a) 500
(b) 600
(c) 900
(d) 1000
(e) 1200

Q63. 40 men can complete a work in 48 days. 64 men started for the same work for x days. After x days,
32 men increased, So, the remaining work is completed in 16(2/3) days. Find x.
(a) 5
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 6
(e) None of these

Q64. If perimeter of the base of a cylinder is 66 cm. Then find volume of cylinder if height of cylinder is
0.04 m
(a) 1111 cm³
(b) 1386 cm³
(c) 2046 cm³
(d) 1186 cm³
(e) 2002 cm³
Q65. A 175 meters long train ‘P’ passed a pole in 8.75 sec. Train ‘P’ passed an another train ‘Q’ travelling
60
in a direction opposite to ‘P’ in sec. If length of train ‘Q’ is 225 meter, then in what time train ‘Q’ will
7
pass train ‘P’ when they both runs in same direction ?
(a) 55 sec
(b) 50 sec
(c) 45 sec
(d) 60 sec
(e) 35 sec

Directions (66-70): Study the given information carefully and answer the question that follow.

3 pizza shops A, B and C sells veg pizza and non veg pizza. Respective ratio between number of vegetarian
and non-vegetarian pizzas sold by pizza shop A was 9 : 7 and that sold by pizza shop B was 3 : 4. The no.
of pizzas (Veg + non veg) sold by pizza shop C was 108 and respective ratio between number of
vegetarian and non-vegetarian pizza sold by pizza shop C was 7 : 5 Total number of pizza sold by all three
pizza shop was 376. Number of veg pizza sold by pizza shop A was 20% more than the veg pizza sold by
pizza shop B.

Q66. If cost of each veg pizza and each non-veg pizza sold by shop B is Rs 200 and Rs 300 respectively
then find the total amount obtained by shop B (in Rs).
(a) 40,000
(b) 36000
(c) 48000
(d) 32000
(e) 44000

Q67. What is the ratio of veg pizza sold by shop A & C together to the non-veg pizza sold by shop B & C
together.
(a) 27 : 25
(b) 27 : 29
(c) 29 : 27
(d) 25 : 27
(e) 23 : 25

Q68. What is the average of veg pizza sold by all shops?

(a) 61
(b) 68
(c) 62
(d) 60
(e) 65
Q69. Total veg pizzas sold by Shop A and C are what percent of total non-veg pizza sold by shop B & C?
(a) 113%
(b) 108%
(c) 109%
(d) 112%
(e) 116%

1
Q70. If Veg pizza sold by shop B is increased by 33 3 % and non-veg pizza sold by shop A is increased by
75% then what is the sum of veg pizza sold by B and non-veg pizza sold by A after increment.
(a) 178
(b) 186
(c) 198
(d) 200
(e) 182

Directions (71-77): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below. Certain
words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Renewable energy is the future, and future is finally here. Global investment in renewable energy shot up
last year, far outstripping investment in fossil fuels, according to a UN report. As the price of clean energy
technology plummets, it has become an increasingly attractive prospect for world governments. China
was by far the world’s largest investor in renewable energy in 2017, accounting for nearly half of the
new infrastructure commissioned. This was mainly a result of its massive support for solar power, which
globally attracted nearly a fifth more investment than in the previous year. Other countries including
Australia, Sweden and Mexico more than doubled the amount of money they pumped into clean energy
projects. "Yet again, this was a record year for new renewable power capacity being financed,” Francoise
d’Estais from UN Environment’s energy and climate branch told The Independent. “We had a record 157
gigawatts commissioned last year, far outstripping the fossil fuel generating capacity, which we estimated
as 70 gigawatts.”
In just over a decade, concerted investment has increased the proportion of world electricity generated
by wind, solar and other renewable sources from around 5 per cent to 12 per cent. “The electricity sector
remains the brightest spot for renewables with the exponential growth of solar photovoltaics and wind in
recent years, and building on the significant contribution of hydropower generation.” But, electricity
accounts for only a fifth of global energy consumption, and the role of renewables in the transportation
and heating sectors remains ____(A)____ to the energy transition. The global replacement of traditional
fuels with renewables led to around 1.8 gigatonnes of carbon dioxide emissions being avoided last year –
the equivalent of removing the entire US transport system. According to the Wind and Solar Atlas, there
are opportunities and potential for Wind and Solar plants in the East and West Nile areas that will
produce around 31,150 MW from wind and 52,300 MW from solar. Egypt is also considering financing
options to conduct feasibility studies for building the world largest solar power plant for both electricity
generation and water desalination.
The UK has been performing well in clean energy generation, with recent figures showing wind and solar
sources had overtaken nuclear as suppliers of electricity. However, despite these positive trends, 2017
saw a big drop of 65 per cent in British renewables investment. Experts have criticised the withdrawal of
UK support for onshore wind, as previous analysis has demonstrated it already has the capacity to
outcompete fossil fuels as a power source.
As renewable energy prices continue to fall, however, Professor Moslener said government subsidies are
likely to become less and less important.

Q71. Which of the following facts are correct as per the given passage?
(I) The decrease in the cost of renewable energy resulted in its wide use.
(II) China massively supported solar power and became largest investor in renewable energy.
(III) Egypt is conducting feasibility studies for building largest solar power plant.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Only (III)
(d) Both (II) and (III)
(e) All (I),(II)and(III)

Q72. What did the author mean by the line “The electricity sector remains the brightest spot for renewables
with the exponential growth of solar photovoltaics and wind in recent years, and building on the significant
contribution of hydropower generation.”?
(I) The growth of renewable energy in electricity sector is not that impressive.
(II) Electric sector has performed the best for renewables.
(III) Hydropower generation has a significant contribution in the electricity sector.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) None
(d) Both (II) and (III)
(e) All (I) (II) and (III)

Q73. Which of the following is/are the positive effect(s) of renewable energy?
(I) Overall increase in the global temperature.
(II) Carbon dioxide emissions were reduced to a considerable amount.
(III) Nile being converted into a biodiversity hotspot.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Only (III)
(d) Both (II) and (III)
(e) All (I)(II) and (III)

Q74. Why government subsidies are likely to become less important?

(a) As China is increasing the investment in this sector.
(b) As the price of clean energy technology continues to plummet.
(c) As Fossil fuels is the better alternative
(d) As there are opportunities and potential for Wind and Solar plants in the East and West Nile areas
(e) None of these
Q75. Which of the following words will come in place of (A) as given
in the passage?
(a) Elevate
(b) Existence
(c) Erratic
(d) Diabolic
(e) Critical

Q76. Which of the following word is most similar in meaning to

“accounting for” as given in the passage?
(a) contradict
(b) contribute
(c) Devious
(d) Retrieve
(e) Categorical

Q77. Which of the following word is most similar in meaning to “plummets” as given in the passage?
(a) Intensify
(b) Escalate
(c) Callous
(d) Slump
(e) reminiscent

Direction (78-83): Given below is a paragraph consisting of blanks against each number.
Identify the correct option among the five alternatives that perfectly fits into the given blank against the
respective number to make the paragraph contextually meaningful and grammatically correct.

On October 29, 1929, Black Tuesday hit Wall Street as investors ___ (8) ____some 16 million shares on the
New York Stock Exchange in a single day. Billions of dollars were lost, ____ (9) ______out thousands of
investors. In the aftermath of Black Tuesday, America and the rest of the industrialized world ___ (10)
______downward into the Great Depression (1929-39), the deepest and longest-lasting economic ______
(11) _____in the history of the Western industrialized world up to that time. During the 1920s, the U.S.
stock market underwent rapid expansion, reaching its peak in August 1929, after a period of wild
speculation. By then, production had already declined and unemployment had risen, leaving stocks in
great excess of their real value. Among the other causes of the eventual market collapse were low wages,
the _______ (12) _____ of debt, a struggling agricultural sector and an excess of large bank loans that could
not be liquidated. Stock prices began to decline in September and early October 1929, and on October 18
the fall began. Panic set in, and on October 24, Black Thursday, a record 12,894,650 shares were traded.
Investment companies and leading bankers attempted to ______ (13) _____ the market by buying up great
blocks of stock, producing a moderate rally on Friday.

Q78. (a) Traded

(b) Invaded
(c) Segregated
(d) Daunted
(e) Halted
Q79. (a) Affording
(b) Wiping
(c) Wanting
(d) Vacating
(e) Artificial

Q80. (a) Reprimanded

(b) Embedded
(c) Spiraled
(d) Mounted
(e) Disregarded

Q81. (a) provided

(b) Infiltration
(c) Dismantle
(d) Downturn
(e) Diversification

Q82. (a) Commotion

(b) impair
(c) significant
(d) Proliferation
(e) renovate

Q83. (a) Infirmity

(b) Credibility
(c) Stabilize
(d) Burdened
(e) Rationalize

Direction (84-88): In the questions given below, there is a sentence in which one part is given in bold.
The part given in bold, may or may not be grammatically correct. Choose the best alternative among the
four given which can replace the part in bold to make the sentence grammatically correct. If the part
given in bold is already correct and does not require any replacement, choose option (e), i.e. “No
replacement required” as your answer.

Q84. The plastic ban introduced by the municipality has been a total failure as there has been no
reducing in the usage of polybags.
(a) is no reduce
(b) has been no reduction
(c) have been no reduced
(d) is not any reduced
(e) No correction required
Q85. As per the directives, the retail prices of both petrol and diesel is revising on a daily basis.
(a) have been revising
(b) are revising
(c) will be revised
(d) is revise
(e) No correction required

Q86. We got everything ready for all of them long before they arrived.
(a) We had got
(b) We have got
(c) We have been got
(d) We are getting
(e) No correction required

Q87. We still have some farm equipment that hasn't been used since my grandfather died.
(a) Hasn’t been using
(b) was using
(c) are using
(d) should not have been use
(e) No correction required

Q88. Every officer and every resident of this village is determined to do their best to get better ranking
in sanitation index.
(a) to do there best
(b) to do its best
(c) to do his best
(d) to do ones best
(e) No replacement required

Directions (89-93): In each of the questions given below a sentence is given with a blank. The sentence
is then followed by five alternatives out of which one will fit the blank. Choose the alternative that will fit
the blank most appropriately and make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct.

Q89. Administration has taken positive steps to ______________ the education system.
(a) Increase
(b) Devised
(c) renovated
(d) revamp
(e) dispel

Q90. Health and education sectors are one of the most ________ sectors in the global market.
(a) benefit
(b) necessity
(c) profit
(d) lucrative
(e) Importance
Q91. She is an aware citizen who has always ___________ to contribute to the progress of the country.
(a) wished
(b) admiring
(c) prepare
(d) motivating
(e) stimulate

Q92. In the beginning I looked ________ and could not find quite the car I dreamed of.
(a) after
(b) around
(c) above
(d) out
(e) down

Q93. The RBI has played conservative in ____________ a rate cut of just 25 basis points.
(a) introduce
(b) proposed
(c) improving
(d) decrease
(e) announcing

Directions (94-95): In the following questions two columns are given containing three
sentences/phrases each. In first column, sentences/phrases are A, B and C and in the second column the
sentences/phrases are D, E and F. A sentence/phrase from the first column may or may not connect with
another sentence/phrase from the second column to make a grammatically and contextually correct
sentence. Each question has five options which display the sequence(s) in which the sentences/phrases
can be joined to form a grammatically and contextually correct sentence. Choose the pair(s) which
make(s) a grammatically meaningful sentence.

Q94. Column (1)

(A) The rumors of petrol shortage
(B) The body of camera makes it
(C) There were no surprises
Column (2)
(D) Highly resistant for outdoor use.
(E) Turned out to be false.
(F) The key stakeholders in the economy
(a) C-F and A-D
(b) B-F
(c) A-F
(d) C-E
(e) B-D and A-E
Q95. Column (1)
(A) As the rain water began to collect in pools on the highway
(B) For years, Argentina would dominate in World Cup qualifying matches
(C) Many have accused him of being a quiet misogynist
Column (2)
(D) One of the European countries during the late stages of the tournament
(E) Recently unearthed letters argue against this belief
(F) It began to hamper the flow of traffic
(a) C-F
(b) B-F
(c) A-F
(d) C-E
(e) None of these

Directions (96-100): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic
error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If
there is ‘No error’, the answer is (e). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

Q96. People have the freedom (a)/ of speech but at the (b)/ same time each of them (c)/ have to
remember their fundamental duties (d)/ No error (e)

Q97. The number of students (a)/ competing in the event (b)/ has been fallen (c)/ because of the prize
money. (d)/ No error. (e)

Q98. While he used to walk (a)/ along the road, (b)/ a wild and ferocious dog (c)/ knocked him down.
(d)/ No error. (e)

Q99. Anaya is even willing (a)/ to make Mexico (b)/ one of the first countries to (c)/ introduces a
universal basic income. (d) / No error. (e)

Q100. There were no surprises (a)/ in the second bimonthly monetary policy (b)/ announcement by the
(c)/ Reserve Bank of India. (d)/ No error. (e)